DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 05 Mar, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

A,B,C,D,E,F and G are sitting in a straight line facing North.

1. Only two people sit to the right of F.
2. Only two people sit between F and A.
3. Only two people sit between B and E.
4. E sits to the immediate left of F.
5. G sits to the immediate right of C.

One person sit to the left of A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) + 5 6 ^ 7 % 6 & 9 & \ < ^ @ 5 & & < 8 % 4 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Number

Checking the series:

(Left) + 5 6 ^ 7 % 6 & 9 & \ < ^ @ 5 & & < 8 % 4 (Right)

There are two such symbol that satisfies the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Dictionary order of given word:

4. Safeguard
5. Specimen
6. Spectral
7. Spending
8. Stardust

Correct sequence is: 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given

Statement:

D = E ≤ F < G = H

Conclusions:

I: D < G → True (Since D = E, E ≤ F and F < G, therefore D is definitely less than G.)

II: F = H → False (Since F < G and G = H, therefore F < H, not F = H.)

Therefore, only conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

**Given

Statements:

**

Some wings are triangles.

No triangles are pentagons.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some wings are pentagons → Does not follow (There is no definite relationship between wings and pentagons, so it cannot be concluded for certain.)

II. All triangles are wings → Does not follow (Based on the statement 'Some wings are triangles', we only know that some triangles are wings; we cannot assume all are.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘LATS’ is coded as ‘6549’ 

‘STAR’ is coded as ‘9451’. 

Code for "R" is "1".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

'smoking is bad habit' → 'ar by nm qj'

'you are bad boy' → 'by tg lo kp'

Therefore, the code for 'bad' in the given language is 'by'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. F is kept second from the bottom.
2. Only four boxes are kept above D.
3. Only two boxes are kept between B and F.
4. C is kept immediately below A.
5. G is not the bottommost box.

​The final arrangement of boxes is:

Five boxes are kept between A and E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line facing North.

1. Only two people sit to the left of C.
2. Only three people sit between C and G.
3. Only one person sits between G and E.
4. D sits to the immediate left of A.
5. F is not an immediate neighbour of G

Only one person sit to the right of B.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Original Word: TIMECARDS

Comparing the letters in both arrangements:

1. T → A (Changed)

2. I → C (Changed)

3. M → D (Changed)

4. E → E (Position remains unchanged)

5. C → I (Changed)

6. A → M (Changed)

7. R → R (Position remains unchanged)

8. D → S (Changed)

9. S → T (Changed)

From the above observation, we can see that the letters E and R maintain their original positions even after being rearranged in alphabetical order.

Therefore, the position of two letters will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Six boxes B, C, D, E, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only P is kept above O.
2. Only D is kept between O and C.
3. Only B is kept below E.

Final Arrangement:

Two boxes kept between C and P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given word: CORNDOG

The letters formed after transformation are: D, P, S, O, E, P, H.

Alphabetical Arrangement: D → E → H → O → P → P → S

4^th from right: O

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The word given is DECAGON.

The resulting group of letters is: C, F, B, B, F, P, M

Now, let us count the frequency of each letter in the new group:

• C: 1 time
• F: 2 times (Exactly twice)
• B: 2 times (Exactly twice)
• P: 1 time
• M: 1 time

The letters that appear exactly twice are F and B.

Therefore, there are Two such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: B + U − N @ C % H

It means: B is the mother of U, U is the brother of N, N is the wife of C, and C is the father of H.

B is related to H as mother's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Dictionary order of given words:​

5. Railways
6. Realized
7. Reversed
8. Rhythmic
9. Rippling

Correct sequence is : 5, 4, 1, 2, 3

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: R − Y × H ÷ S + L

It means: R is the brother of Y, Y is the wife of H, H is the father of S, and S is the mother of L.

R is related to L as Mother's mother's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Each of Q, R, W, T, E, U and Y has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. Y has an exam on Wednesday. 2. Only four people have an exam between E and Q, neither of whom has an exam on Monday. 3. W has an exam immediately before T and R has an exam immediately after T. 4. U has an exam immediately before E.

Two people have an exam after T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘MEAN’ is coded as ‘9542’  

‘NODS’ is coded as ‘1369’.

Code for "N" is "9".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

Jyoti is 22^nd from the right end.

Daksh is 28^th from the right end.

Daksh is exactly between Jyoti and Aarav.

Aarav is 7^th from the left end.

Difference between Jyoti and Daksh from the right = 28 − 22 = 6 positions.

Since Daksh is exactly between Jyoti and Aarav, Aarav is also 6 positions away from Daksh on the opposite side.

Therefore, Aarav's position from the right = 28 + 6 = 34^th.

Total people = (Rank from Left) + (Rank from Right) − 1

Number of people = 7 + 34 − 1

= 41 − 1

= 40 people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given

Statement:

M ≥ N = O < P ≤ Q

Conclusions:

I: N < Q → True (From the statement, N = O, O < P and P ≤ Q. Therefore, O < Q. Since N = O, we get N < Q.)

II: M ≥ O → True (From the statement, M ≥ N and N = O. Therefore, M ≥ O.)

Therefore, both I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

**Given

Statements:

**

Some clubs are trees.

All papers are trees.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some clubs are papers → Does not follow (In the least possible Venn diagram, there is no direct connection or intersection between clubs and papers, so it is not a definite conclusion.)

II. All trees are papers → Does not follow (Since all papers are trees, it means all papers are a part of trees, but we cannot definitely say that all trees are papers.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

165 - 18 = 147

147 - 17 = 130

130 - 16 = 114

114 - 15 = 99

99 - 14 = 85

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: (Second Number × Third Number) = First Number.

(108, 9, 12) →

9 × 12 = 108

(136, 17, 8) →

17 × 8 = 136

Similarly,

Option (3): (198, 11, 18)

11 × 18 = 198

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Original Number: 8139245

By comparing the two rows, we can see that:

• Position 1: 8 changed to 1
• Position 2: 1 changed to 2
• Position 3: 3 remains 3 (Unchanged)
• Position 4: 9 changed to 4
• Position 5: 2 changed to 5
• Position 6: 4 changed to 8
• Position 7: 5 changed to 9

Only the digit 3 remains in the same position as in the original number.

Therefore, the position of one digit will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 14 ÷ 12 − 6 + 18 × 6 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 14 + 12 × 6 − 18 ÷ 6 = ?

⇒ 14 + 12 × 6 − 18 ÷ 6 = ?

⇒ 14 + 72 − 3 = ?

⇒ 14 + 72 − 3 = ?

⇒ 86 − 3 = ?

⇒ 83.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For GTRO to CQVR

For YNZU to UKDX

The common pattern is a shift of −4, −3, +4, and +3 for each letter in the group.

Applying the same logic to QHHA:

Following this pattern, QHHA relates to MELD.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

SV 18 is related to VX 6 → 

LR 23 is related to OT 11 → 

Similarly,

 NQ 26 related to, 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

For GJ − LO:

For TO − QH:

For IL − NQ:

For CF − HK:

Therefore, the odd one out is TO − QH.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic: (3 × First Number) − Second Number = Third Number

For (14, 73, −31) →

(3 × 14) − 73 = 42 − 73 = −31

For (48, 99, 45) →

(3 × 48) − 99 = 144 − 99 = 45

Similarly, for the set (78, 70, 164) →

(3 × 78) − 70 = 234 − 70 = 164

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given number: 4718533

The new number formed is 2826644.

Digit at the second position (from left) = 8

Digit at the sixth position (from left) = 4

Sum = 8 + 4 = 12

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Option 1: OR - LP

Option 2: DG - AE

Option 3: MP - JN

Option 4: KN - HM

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

1

1 + 2 = 3

3 + 3 = 6

6 + 4 = 10

10 + 5 = 15

15 + 6 = 21

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Mirror image of given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 45 - 60 × 5 + 3 ÷ 4 = ?

As per the question, '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged.

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 45 + 60 ÷ 5 - 3 × 4 = ?

⇒ 45 + 60 ÷ 5 - 3 × 4 = ?

⇒ 45 + 12 - 3 × 4 = ?

⇒ 45 + 12 - 12 = ?

⇒ 45 + 12 - 12 = ?

⇒ 57 - 12 = ?

⇒ 45.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For BEH to HKN

For GJM to MPS

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +6 for each letter in the set.

Option 1) PSV to VYB

This pair follows the same +6 shift pattern (

Note:

V(22) + 6 = 28; 28 − 26 = 2, which corresponds to B).

Option 2) CUI to ISX

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are not uniformly +6.

Option 3) LOA to AVZ

The logic is not followed here.

Option 4) YXA to LDW

The logic is not followed here.

Thus, the pair PSV : VYB follows the same pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 125 C 35 B 6 D 12 A 4 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 125 + 35 × 6 - 12 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 125 + 35 × 6 - 12 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 125 + 210 - 12 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 125 + 210 - 3 = ?

⇒ 125 + 210 - 3 = ?

⇒ 335 - 3 = ?

⇒ 332.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern observed is: First number − Second number = Third number.

For (127, 53, 74) →

127 − 53 = 74

For (158, 123, 35) →

158 − 123 = 35

Similarly, let's find the set following the same logic:

Option (2): (133, 95, 38)

133 − 95 = 38

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

790 - 89 = 701

701 - 89 = 612

612 - 89 = 523

523 - 89 = 434

434 - 89 = 345

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Mukhya Mantrir Eti Koli Duti Paat scheme was introduced by the Government of Assam in January 2026 as a dedicated welfare initiative for the tea garden labor community.
• The name of the scheme, Eti Koli Duti Paat, is derived from the iconic 'two leaves and a bud' harvest method, which is the hallmark of the Assam tea industry.
• This scheme primarily targets the socio-economic development of the Tea Tribes, who represent a substantial demographic and workforce in the state's plantation sector.
• It encompasses various benefits such as direct cash transfers, improved healthcare access through mobile clinics in gardens, and enhanced educational scholarships for the children of plantation workers.
• Assam accounts for approximately 52 percent of India's total tea production, making the welfare of these workers vital for both the state economy and the global tea market.

 Additional Information

• West Bengal:
• Home to the Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, it is the second-largest tea-producing state in India.
• Darjeeling Tea was the first product in India to receive the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2004.
• Tamil Nadu:
• The major tea-growing region is the Nilgiris, which produces high-grown aromatic teas.
• The state is a significant hub for South Indian tea auctions conducted via the Coonoor tea trade center.
• Kerala:
• The tea industry is concentrated in Munnar, Wayanad, and Idukki, known for both large-scale plantations and small-holder tea growers.
• Munnar also houses the first-of-its-kind Tea Museum in India, showcasing the evolution of plantation machinery and culture.

The correct answer is Asian Youth Table Tennis Championships.

Key Points

• Divyanshi Bhowmick scripted history by clinching the U-15 girls’ singles gold medal at the Asian Youth Table Tennis Championships held in 2025.
• She became the first-ever Indian girl to win a gold medal in the singles category at this prestigious continental event, marking a transformative moment for Indian Table Tennis.
• In a high-intensity final, she defeated South Korea’s Lee Hyerin with a score of 3-1, demonstrating exceptional tactical depth and mental fortitude.
• Before reaching the final, Bhowmick delivered a series of clinical performances, including a victory over China’s Sun Siqi in the semi-finals, ending the traditional dominance of East Asian powerhouses in the U-15 category.

 Additional Information

• Asian Youth Table Tennis Championships:
• It is an annual tournament organized by the Asian Table Tennis Union (ATTU) to identify and nurture young talent across the continent.
• The event features competition in U-15 (Cadet) and U-19 (Junior) categories for both boys and girls.
• Success at this level is a major precursor to the WTT Youth Series and the Olympic Games.
• Table Tennis Federation of India (TTFI):
• The TTFI is the central governing body for the sport in India, headquartered in New Delhi.
• The federation has been instrumental in implementing the Long Term Athlete Development (LTAD) program, which helped athletes like Divyanshi Bhowmick achieve international success.

The correct answer is It is a flexible aluminium-ion battery - safe, eco-friendly, and bendable like paper.

Key Points

• Scientists at the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences (CeNS), an autonomous research institute in Bengaluru under the Department of Science and Technology, have successfully developed a flexible aluminium-ion battery.
• A primary innovation of this battery is its mechanical durability; it can be folded, twisted, and bent like paper without compromising its electrochemical performance, making it a breakthrough for foldable gadgets.
• Unlike lithium-ion batteries, which are susceptible to thermal runaway and fire hazards, this aluminium-ion variant is inherently safe and non-flammable, using non-toxic electrolytes.
• The battery is eco-friendly, leveraging aluminium, which is the most abundant metal in the Earth's crust, thereby reducing the environmental and ethical issues associated with lithium and cobalt mining.
• The technology aims to provide a cost-effective alternative for wearable electronics, smart textiles, and flexible sensors by offering a high cycle life and stability.

 Additional Information

• Aluminium-Ion Battery Characteristics:
• Anode Material: Uses aluminium metal, which provides high volumetric capacity compared to other metals.
• Cathode Material: Typically utilizes graphite or conducting polymers to facilitate the intercalation of chloroaluminate ions.
• Sustainability: Aluminium is highly recyclable, promoting a circular economy in the energy storage sector.
• Fast Charging: These batteries often exhibit rapid charging capabilities, significantly reducing downtime for portable electronic devices.
• Geopolitical Impact: Development of such technologies reduces dependence on imported lithium, supporting initiatives like Atmanirbhar Bharat.

The correct answer is Divya Deshmukh.

Key Points

• The BBC Indian Sportswoman of the Year (ISWOTY) award, established in 2019, launched its sixth edition in late 2024 to honor achievements in 2025.
• Divya Deshmukh is a prominent Chess Grandmaster and International Master from Nagpur, Maharashtra, who has been shortlisted for this prestigious award.
• She played a pivotal role in the Indian women's team winning the historic Gold Medal at the 45^th FIDE Chess Olympiad held in Budapest in 2024.
• Deshmukh also secured the Individual Gold Medal on board three during the Olympiad, maintaining an exceptional performance throughout the tournament.
• In June 2024, she became the World Junior Girls' Chess Champion by winning the title in Gandhinagar, further cementing her position as a rising star in global chess.
• The nominees for the 2025 edition also include athletes like Preeti Pal (Para-athletics), Smriti Mandhana (Cricket), Jyothi Yarraji (Athletics), and Suruchi Singh (Shooting).

 Additional Information

• Jyothi Yarraji:
• She is a leading track and field athlete specializing in 100m hurdles.
• She holds the National Record in the event and was the first Indian woman to run sub-13 seconds.
• Smriti Mandhana:
• A prolific left-handed batter and vice-captain of the Indian Women's Cricket Team.
• She led the Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) to their maiden WPL title in 2024.
• Suruchi Singh:
• An elite Indian pistol shooter who has represented the nation in international competitions.
• She is known for her performance in the 10m Air Pistol and 25m Pistol events at the ISSF World Cups.

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

• Jugantar was one of the two main secret revolutionary groups operating in Bengal for Indian independence, established in April 1906.
• The group was founded in Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) by prominent leaders including Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Abinash Bhattacharya, and Bhupendranath Dutt.
• It functioned as an inner circle of the Anushilan Samiti, focusing on the preparation of armed rebellion and the manufacture of explosives to challenge the British Raj.
• The name of the group was inspired by the Bengali weekly journal Jugantar, which served as its mouthpiece to spread revolutionary ideology and recruit young nationalists from the metropolitan hub of Kolkata.
• The organization played a pivotal role in the Alipore Bomb Case and was later led by Bagha Jatin (Jatindranath Mukherjee), who expanded its reach beyond the city to international networks.
• Kolkata served as the strategic headquarters due to its status as the then-capital of British India and its concentration of educated youth and political activity.

 Additional Information

• Anushilan Samiti:
• Founded by Pramathanath Mitra in 1902, it was the parent body that initially promoted physical culture and later branched into militant nationalism.
• Alipore Bomb Case (1908):
• Following the failed assassination attempt on Douglas Kingsford in Muzaffarpur, several Jugantar members, including Aurobindo Ghosh, were tried in this landmark case.
• Howrah:
• Adjacent to Kolkata, it was the site of the Howrah-Sibpur Conspiracy Case in 1910, where many revolutionaries were arrested for their links to the Jugantar network.
• Historical Context:
• The Partition of Bengal in 1905 by Lord Curzon acted as a catalyst for the formation of secret societies like Jugantar as the youth turned towards 'extremist' methods of protest.

The correct answer is ₹1.20 lakh.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in November 2016 to replace the erstwhile Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY).
• The scheme provides financial assistance of Rs. 1.20 lakh per unit for the construction of houses in plain areas across India.
• For hilly states, North-Eastern states, and difficult areas (including Integrated Action Plan or IAP districts), the unit assistance is higher, amounting to Rs. 1.30 lakh.
• The cost of unit assistance is shared between the Central Government and State Governments in a ratio of 60:40 for plain areas and 90:10 for Himalayan and North-Eastern states.
• Beneficiaries are identified based on housing deprivation parameters and exclusionary criteria mentioned in the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data, which is further validated by Gram Sabhas.

 Additional Information

• Convergent Benefits:
• Beneficiaries are entitled to 90 days (in plains) or 95 days (in hilly/difficult areas) of unskilled labor wages under the MGNREGS, providing an additional financial cushion of approximately Rs. 18,000 to Rs. 25,000.
• An additional grant of Rs. 12,000 is provided for the construction of toilets through convergence with the Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G).
• Technical Specifications:
• The minimum unit size for a house under PMAY-G is 25 square meters, which must include a dedicated area for hygienic cooking.
• Monitoring is performed through the AwaasSoft and AwaasApp platforms, utilizing geo-tagged photographs of the house at different stages of construction to ensure transparency.
• Direct Benefit Transfer:
• Payments are made directly to the beneficiarys bank or post office account through an Electronic Fund Management System (e-FMS) to prevent leakage.

The correct answer is Subsidies.

Key Points

• The Income Method, also known as the Factor Payment Method, calculates National Income by summing the incomes earned by the owners of the factors of production within the domestic territory of a country.
• Factor Income refers to the income received by individuals or households in return for providing factor services like land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship during the production process.
• Wages and Salaries are the primary components of the Compensation of Employees, representing the reward for the factor of Labor.
• Rent is the income earned from the ownership of Land and buildings used in production, while Profits are the rewards for the Entrepreneur for risk-bearing and management.
• Subsidies are financial assistance or grants provided by the government to enterprises. They are considered Transfer Payments because they are unilateral payments made without any corresponding factor service rendered in return.
• Since National Income at factor cost only includes payments for productive services, Subsidies are excluded from the calculation of factor income components.

 Additional Information

• Operating Surplus:
• This category includes Rent, Interest, and Profits.
• It represents the income from property and entrepreneurship.
• Profits are further subdivided into Corporate Tax, Dividends (distributed profit), and Undistributed Profits (retained earnings).
• Net Indirect Taxes (NIT):
• NIT is defined as Indirect Taxes − Subsidies.
• It is used to convert National Income from Factor Cost to Market Price.
• The formula is: Market Price = Factor Cost + Indirect Taxes − Subsidies.
• Mixed Income of Self-Employed:
• This refers to the income of own-account workers (like farmers or small shopkeepers) where it is difficult to distinguish between wages, rent, interest, and profit.
• It is a crucial component of National Income in developing economies like India.

The correct answer is Frictional.

Key Points

• Frictional unemployment, also known as search unemployment, occurs when workers are in the process of transitioning between jobs or are entering the workforce for the first time.
• The scenario describes a worker voluntarily quitting to find a better opportunity, which is the hallmark of frictional unemployment, as it involves the time spent matching a worker's skills with the right employer.
• In a healthy economy, a certain level of frictional unemployment is inevitable and even desirable, as it indicates that the labor market is flexible and that workers are seeking roles where they can be more productive and satisfied.
• This type of unemployment is typically short-term and is part of the Natural Rate of Unemployment, which exists even when the economy is producing at its potential output.
• It is driven by imperfect information in the labor market, where both employers and job seekers require time to discover each other and negotiate terms.

 Additional Information

• Cyclical Unemployment:
• Directly related to the business cycle, specifically during periods of economic contraction or recession.
• Occurs when there is insufficient aggregate demand in the economy to provide jobs for everyone who wants to work.
• Structural Unemployment:
• A long-term form of unemployment resulting from a fundamental mismatch between the skills workers possess and the requirements of available jobs.
• Often triggered by technological advancements (automation), globalization, or shifts in consumer preferences that make certain industries obsolete.
• Seasonal Unemployment:
• Occurs when industries have a fluctuating demand for labor based on the time of year.
• Commonly observed in agriculture, holiday retail, and tourism sectors.

The correct answer is Ashoka.

Key Points

• The Great Stupa at Sanchi is one of the oldest and most significant stone structures in India, originally commissioned by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka in the 3^rd century BCE.
• The structure was built to serve as a Buddhist reliquary, intended to house the sacred relics of Lord Buddha and provide a focal point for the Buddhist community.
• Located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, the site was rediscovered in 1818 by General Taylor and later designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1989.
• The original brick structure was later expanded and encased in stone during the Shunga period, while the highly decorative Toranas (gateways) and balustrades were added during the Satavahana reign.

 Additional Information

• Chandragupta Maurya:
• Founder of the Mauryan Empire and the grandfather of Ashoka.
• He established one of the largest empires in ancient India with the guidance of his mentor Chanakya.
• Harshavardhana:
• A prominent ruler of the Vardhana Dynasty who reigned in the 7^th century CE with Kannauj as his capital.
• He was a major patron of the Nalanda University and a follower of Mahayana Buddhism in his later years.
• Kharavela:
• The most famous king of the Chedi Dynasty or Mahameghavahana Dynasty of Kalinga.
• He is primarily known for the Hathigumpha Inscription, which highlights his military conquests and his devotion to Jainism.

The correct answer is PM E-Drive subsidy scheme.

Key Points

• The PM E-Drive (Prime Minister's Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement) scheme is a major initiative approved by the Union Cabinet to bolster the electric vehicle (EV) ecosystem in India, succeeding the FAME-II program.
• The scheme has been allocated a total financial outlay of Rs 10,900 crore to be utilized for providing financial incentives and creating a robust charging infrastructure across the country.
• It focuses on the demand aggregation and subsidization of electric two-wheelers (e-2Ws), electric three-wheelers (e-3Ws), e-ambulances, and e-trucks, aiming to reduce the initial acquisition cost for consumers.
• The government extended the support framework until March 2028 for specific segments to provide a stable policy environment for Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) and to meet India's Net Zero 2070 climate goals.
• A significant portion of the budget is dedicated to the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) for the installation of approximately 88,500 charging points to alleviate range anxiety among potential EV buyers.
• The scheme introduces Aadhaar-authenticated e-vouchers, which simplify the process for buyers to avail themselves of the subsidy directly at the point of sale.

 Additional Information

• PM Gati Shakti Scheme:
• Launched as a National Master Plan for multi-modal connectivity, it aims to break silos between various ministries like Railways and Roadways for integrated infrastructure development.
• It utilizes a GIS-based digital platform to facilitate the seamless movement of goods and people while reducing logistics costs.
• National Green Highways Mission:
• Initiated by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), this mission focuses on the 'greening' of Highway corridors through plantation and transplanting activities.
• It aims to promote environmental sustainability and provide employment opportunities to local communities and Self-Help Groups (SHGs).

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• Hemant Soren, the executive president of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM), was sworn in as the 14^th Chief Minister of Jharkhand on November 28, 2024.
• This marks his fourth term as the head of the state government, following a decisive victory for the JMM-led alliance in the 2024 Assembly elections.
• The alliance, comprising the JMM, Indian National Congress, Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD), and CPI(ML) Liberation, won 56 seats in the 81-member Jharkhand Assembly.
• Governor Santosh Kumar Gangwar administered the oath of office and secrecy to Soren at the Morabadi Ground in the state capital, Ranchi.
• The election results, declared on November 23, 2024, saw the JMM emerge as the single largest party with 34 seats, while the BJP secured 21 seats.

 Additional Information

• Jharkhand Statehood and Governance:
• The state of Jharkhand was officially formed on November 15, 2000, after being separated from Bihar.
• The date November 15 commemorates the birth anniversary of the iconic tribal freedom fighter Birsa Munda, also known as Dharti Aaba.
• The Jharkhand Legislative Assembly is a unicameral body with 81 elected members.
• Current Leadership in Other States:
• Odisha: Mohan Charan Majhi became the first BJP Chief Minister of the state in June 2024.
• Bihar: Nitish Kumar is the current Chief Minister, leading a coalition government.
• Himachal Pradesh: Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu of the Congress party has been serving as the Chief Minister since December 2022.

The correct answer is Lord Dufferin.

Key Points

• Lord Dufferin (Frederick Temple Hamilton-Temple-Blackwood) served as the Viceroy of India from 1884 to 1888.
• The Indian National Congress (INC) was formally established on December 28, 1885, during his tenure.
• The first session of the INC was organized at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai), attended by 72 delegates from across India.
• Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British Civil Servant, played a pivotal role in the formation of the organization and served as its first General Secretary.
• The session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, who became the first President of the Indian National Congress.
• Lord Dufferin initially welcomed the formation of the INC, but as it began demanding more political rights, he famously ridiculed the organization as representing a 'microscopic minority' of the Indian population.
• His viceroyalty was also notable for the Third Anglo-Burmese War in 1885 and the subsequent annexation of Upper Burma.

 Additional Information

• Lord Lytton (1876−1880):
• Enacted the Vernacular Press Act (1878) and the Indian Arms Act (1878), which were deeply unpopular.
• Organized the Delhi Durbar of 1877 to proclaim Queen Victoria as 'Kaiser-i-Hind'.
• Lord Ripon (1880−1884):
• Known as the 'Father of Local Self-Government' for his 1882 resolution that established municipal boards.
• Introduced the Ilbert Bill (1883), which aimed to remove racial discrimination in the judiciary but faced fierce British opposition.
• Lord Curzon (1899−1905):
• Responsible for the Partition of Bengal in 1905, citing administrative convenience, which sparked the Swadeshi Movement.
• Passed the Indian Universities Act (1904) and created the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).

The correct answer is 1885.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in December 1885, marking the beginning of a structured national movement in India.
• The organization was established at the initiative of Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British officer of the Indian Civil Service, who aimed to provide a platform for political dialogue between educated Indians and the British Raj.
• The first session of the INC was held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai) from December 28 to December 31, 1885.
• The inaugural session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee and was attended by 72 delegates from various parts of the country, representing a diverse cross-section of the Indian intelligentsia.
• Initially, the INC focused on moderate demands such as increased Indian representation in the Legislative Councils and holding the Civil Services examinations in India.

 Additional Information

• 1905:
• This year is historically significant for the Partition of Bengal executed by Lord Curzon, which triggered the Swadeshi Movement and the Boycott of British goods.
• 1875:
• Marked the foundation of the Arya Samaj by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in Bombay, a Hindu reform movement promoting the authority of the Vedas.
• It also saw the establishment of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College (later Aligarh Muslim University) by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
• 1919:
• Characterized by the passage of the Rowlatt Act and the tragic Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar on April 13.
• The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were also introduced this year to implement Diarchy in the provinces.

The correct answer is Zoravar Singh Sandhu.

Key Points

• Indian shotgun shooter Zoravar Singh Sandhu was declared the winner of the People’s Choice Men’s Athlete award at the 2025 ISSF Athlete of the Year Awards.
• The ceremony was organized by the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) to recognize outstanding performances and the global popularity of shooters during the 2024-2025 competition cycle.
• Zoravar Singh Sandhu, who competes in the Trap event, gained significant public support through a global online voting system, which determines the winners of the People’s Choice categories.
• He represented India at the 2024 Paris Olympics and has been a staple of the Indian Shooting Team in the shotgun discipline for several years, contributing to India’s rising status in international trap shooting.

 Additional Information

• International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF):
• It is the world governing body for the Olympic shooting events in Rifle, Pistol, and Shotgun disciplines.
• The organization was established in 1907 and is currently headquartered in Munich, Germany.
• Manu Bhaker:
• She is a legendary Indian pistol shooter who became the first Indian woman to win two medals at a single edition of the Olympics, securing two bronze medals at Paris 2024.
• Rudrankksh Patil:
• A specialist in the 10m Air Rifle category, he became the World Champion in 2022 and has been one of the highest-ranked rifle shooters globally.
• Palak Gulia:
• An emerging talent in 10m Air Pistol, she won the Gold medal at the 2022 Hangzhou Asian Games (held in 2023) in the individual category.

The correct answer is Shyamji Krishna Varma.

Key Points

• Shyamji Krishna Varma was a prominent Indian revolutionary, lawyer, and journalist who founded The Indian Sociologist in London.
• The newspaper was first published in January 1905 and served as an ideological platform for the Indian Home Rule Society.
• The journal's subtitle was 'An Organ of Freedom, and of Political, Social, and Religious Reform', reflecting its radical nationalist stance.
• It was used to propagate the cause of Indian self-rule and critique the exploitative nature of British colonial rule in India from an international stage.
• Due to its revolutionary content, the journal was eventually proscribed in India by the British authorities to suppress the rising nationalist sentiment.

 Additional Information

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• Popularly known as Lokmanya, he was a key leader of the extremist faction of the Indian National Congress.
• He founded two significant newspapers: Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) to mobilize the masses.
• Bipin Chandra Pal
• A member of the famous Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate, he was a powerful orator and journalist.
• He started the journal Bande Mataram and is often referred to as the Father of Revolutionary Thoughts in India.
• Surendranath Banerjee
• He was a leading moderate politician and founder of the Indian National Association.
• He edited the influential newspaper The Bengalee, which played a major role in the Anti-Partition Movement of 1905.
• India House
• Established by Shyamji Krishna Varma in North London, it became a famous residence and political hub for Indian students like V.D. Savarkar and Madan Lal Dhingra.

The correct answer is ₹200 lakh crore.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at Factor Cost refers to the total value of goods and services produced within the domestic boundaries of a country, calculated based on the cost of the factors of production (land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship).
• GDP at Market Price represents the total value of goods and services produced in the economy, valued at the prices paid by the final consumers in the market.
• The fundamental relationship between these two aggregates is defined by the inclusion of Net Indirect Taxes (NIT). To arrive at the Market Price from Factor Cost, Net Indirect Taxes must be added.
• The governing formula is: GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Net Indirect Taxes.
• Given the parameters: GDP at Factor Cost is ₹180 lakh crore and Net Indirect Taxes are ₹20 lakh crore.
• By substituting these values: 180 + 20 = 200. Therefore, the GDP at Market Price equals ₹200 lakh crore.

 Additional Information

• Net Indirect Taxes (NIT):
• It is the net impact of the government on market prices, calculated as Indirect Taxes − Subsidies.
• Indirect Taxes: These are taxes such as GST, Excise Duty, and Customs Duty that increase the final price of a product.
• Subsidies: These are financial grants or assistance provided by the government (e.g., on food or fertilizers) to reduce the market price of goods.
• Macroeconomic Significance:
• If Subsidies exceed Indirect Taxes, NIT becomes negative, and GDP at Market Price will be lower than GDP at Factor Cost.
• The Central Statistics Office (CSO) in India historically used GDP at Factor Cost as a primary measure but shifted toward Gross Value Added (GVA) at Basic Prices and GDP at Market Prices for international alignment.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2024-2025 highlights the phenomenal growth of the agricultural sector in Telangana, which has emerged as a primary contributor to India's Central Pool of Foodgrains.
• The state's rise in rice production is primarily attributed to the completion of major irrigation projects, most notably the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project, which is touted as one of the world's largest multi-stage lift irrigation schemes.
• The implementation of the Rythu Bandhu scheme provided timely investment support to farmers, enabling them to procure high-quality seeds and fertilizers, leading to record-breaking yields of Paddy.
• The state government's initiative, Mission Kakatiya, aimed at restoring minor irrigation tanks, significantly improved the groundwater table, allowing for extensive Kharif and Rabi rice cultivation.
• In recent years, Telangana has consistently recorded some of the highest yield per hectare figures in the country, surpassing traditional agricultural powerhouses through technological intervention and 24x7 free power supply to the farm sector.

 Additional Information

• Rice Production Dynamics in India:
• West Bengal: Historically the largest producer of rice in India, it benefits from the fertile Gangetic plains and grows three crops a year known as Aus, Aman, and Boro.
• Uttar Pradesh: A major producer utilizing the Indo-Gangetic belt, where rice is grown under both irrigated and rain-fed conditions.
• Tamil Nadu: Known for high productivity in the Cauvery Delta region, utilizing traditional and modern intensive farming techniques.
• Climatic Conditions: Rice is a tropical crop requiring high temperatures (above 25°C), high humidity, and rainfall exceeding 100 cm. It grows best in alluvial soil with good water-holding capacity.
• Global Context: India is the second-largest producer of rice globally, trailing only behind China, and remains the world's leading exporter of Basmati rice.

The correct answer is Proportion of deposits banks keep with RBI.

Key Points

• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a mandatory percentage of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that must be maintained as cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• This requirement is stipulated under Section 42(1) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which mandates all Scheduled Commercial Banks to follow these reserve norms.
• The primary objective of CRR is to ensure the solvency of banks and to empower the RBI to control liquidity and inflation within the Indian economy.
• When the RBI increases the CRR, it restricts the lendable funds available to banks, thereby reducing the money supply and curbing inflationary pressures.
• Conversely, a decrease in CRR injects liquidity into the system, allowing banks to offer more loans and potentially lower interest rates to stimulate economic growth.
• Banks do not earn any interest or return on the amount they maintain as CRR with the RBI, making it a cost for the banking institution.

 Additional Information

• Monetary Policy Instruments:
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• This refers to the reserve that banks must maintain with themselves in the form of liquid assets such as gold, cash, or government-approved securities.
• Unlike CRR, SLR allows banks to earn some returns through interest on government bonds.
• Repo Rate:
• The rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for short durations against government securities.
• Fiscal Policy:
• While CRR is part of Monetary Policy, taxes collected from the public fall under Fiscal Policy, which is managed by the Government of India.

The correct answer is 22.

Key Points

• BharatGen is India’s pioneering government-funded initiative aimed at developing a Multimodal Large Language Model (LLM) tailored specifically for the diverse linguistic and cultural landscape of India.
• The project is designed to support 22 Indian languages, which correspond to the scheduled languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, ensuring that AI technology is accessible to the vast majority of the population.
• It is being spearheaded by IIT Bombay under the aegis of the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS), with significant support from the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
• As a multimodal model, BharatGen is capable of processing and generating content across different mediums, including text, audio, and images, which is critical for a country with high oral tradition and varying literacy levels.
• The primary goal of the project is to establish Sovereign AI, reducing dependence on foreign foundational models and ensuring that Indian data and cultural nuances are accurately represented in the digital ecosystem.
• The initiative focuses on low-resource languages, which are often neglected by global tech giants, thereby providing a robust technical framework for regional language processing and understanding.

 Additional Information

• National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS):
• Launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology, this mission seeks to build a strong foundation for Cyber-Physical Systems through research, training, and startup ecosystems.
• It operates through various Technology Innovation Hubs (TIHs); the BharatGen project is specifically integrated through the TIH-IoT at IIT Bombay.
• Significance of Scheduled Languages:
• The 22 languages include Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.
• By supporting all 22 languages, the model enables localized applications in healthcare, education, agriculture, and e-governance for millions of non-English speakers.

The correct answer is The mutiny of sepoys at Meerut.

Key Points

• The Great Revolt of 1857, also known as the First War of Indian Independence, officially began on May 10, 1857, when sepoys at the Meerut cantonment broke into open rebellion.
• The immediate cause was the introduction of the Enfield Rifle, which required soldiers to bite off the ends of cartridges rumored to be greased with pig and cow fat, offending the religious sentiments of both Muslims and Hindus.
• At Meerut, 85 sepoys of the 3^rd Native Cavalry were court-martialed and sentenced to ten years of imprisonment for refusing to use the greased cartridges on May 9, 1857.
• On the following day, May 10, their comrades revolted, killed British officers, released the imprisoned soldiers, and seized the magazine, signaling the start of a mass uprising.
• The rebels then marched toward Delhi, arriving on May 11, where they persuaded the last Mughal Emperor, Bahadur Shah Zafar, to lead the movement as the Emperor of India.

 Additional Information

• Tantia Tope:
• He was a brilliant guerrilla commander and a close associate of Nana Sahib. He continued the struggle long after the fall of major centers but was eventually captured and executed on April 18, 1859.
• Kunwar Singh:
• A notable leader from Jagdishpur, Bihar, he led the rebellion in the Arrah region. Despite his advanced age, he fought valiantly until his death on April 26, 1858.
• Capture of Gwalior Fort:
• This event occurred in June 1858, where Rani Lakshmibai and Tantia Tope successfully took the fort. It was one of the final major battles before the British suppressed the revolt.
• Mangal Pandey:
• Although the Meerut mutiny is the official start, the first spark occurred in Barrackpore on March 29, 1857, when Mangal Pandey of the 34^th Native Infantry attacked his officers.

The correct answer is Oxidation.

Key Points

• Oxidation is a chemical reaction that occurs when food items, particularly those containing fats and oils, are exposed to oxygen in the atmosphere.
• When these fats and oils undergo oxidation, they become rancid, which significantly alters their smell, taste, and nutritional quality, making the food undesirable or unsafe for consumption.
• Storing food in airtight containers helps to minimize or avoid this problem by creating a physical barrier that restricts the entry of fresh oxygen and moisture from the surrounding environment.
• By reducing the concentration of oxygen available for reaction, the rate of oxidative rancidity is drastically slowed down, thereby extending the shelf life of the food products.
• This preservation technique is commonly used for dry snacks, pulses, and oil-based products to maintain their crispness and prevent the development of off-flavors.

 Additional Information

• Precipitation:
• In a chemical context, this refers to the formation of an insoluble solid from a liquid solution during a chemical reaction.
• It is generally irrelevant to the standard storage of solid or semi-solid food items in containers.
• Combination Reactions:
• These involve two or more substances reacting to form a single new product.
• While oxidation can be a type of combination reaction, the term is too broad to specifically define the spoilage process targeted by airtight storage.
• Other Preservation Methods:
• Nitrogen Flushing: Packets of chips are often filled with Nitrogen gas, which is inert, to displace oxygen and prevent oxidation.
• Antioxidants: These are chemical substances added to food to neutralize free radicals and prevent the oxidation of fats.
• Refrigeration: Lower temperatures reduce the kinetic energy of molecules, further slowing down the rate of chemical reactions like oxidation.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Kaveri River basin, one of the major river systems in Southern India, covers a total drainage area of approximately 81,155 square kilometers.
• The basin area is predominantly distributed between two states: Tamil Nadu, which accounts for about 54% (43,868 sq. km), and Karnataka, which accounts for approximately 42% (34,273 sq. km).
• While the river originates in the Western Ghats of Karnataka, it flows southeast through Tamil Nadu before reaching the Bay of Bengal, making these the two primary basin states.
• Remaining portions of the basin lie in the state of Kerala (about 3%) and the Union Territory of Puducherry (about 1%).
• The river is essential for the Cauvery Delta, often referred to as the 'Granary of South India' due to its high agricultural productivity.

 Additional Information

• Origin and Course:
• The Kaveri rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats in the Kodagu district of Karnataka at an elevation of 1,341 meters.
• It is roughly 800 kilometers long and is frequently called 'Dakshina Ganga' (Ganges of the South) due to its spiritual and cultural significance.
• Tributaries and Hydrology:
• Important left-bank tributaries include the Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Arkavati.
• Major right-bank tributaries are the Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Suvarnavati, Bhavani, Noyyal, and Amaravati.
• It is one of the few perennial rivers in Peninsular India because it receives rainfall from both the Southwest Monsoon and the Northeast Monsoon.
• Major Landmarks:
• The river forms the Shivanasamudra Falls in Karnataka, where the second hydroelectric power station in India was established in 1902.
• Key dams located in the basin include the Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) in Karnataka and the Mettur Dam in Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• Delhi, specifically the area of New Delhi, serves as the capital of India and is the administrative hub for the Union Government, housing major constitutional landmarks.
• The India Gate is a majestic 42-meter-high archway designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens. It was built as a war memorial to honor the 70,000 soldiers of the British Indian Army who lost their lives during the First World War (1914–1921) and the Third Anglo-Afghan War.
• The Rashtrapati Bhavan is the official residence of the President of India. It is located at the western end of the Kartavya Path (formerly known as Rajpath) on Raisina Hill.
• Constructed using Hred and pink sandstone, the Rashtrapati Bhavan is one of the largest residential structures for a head of state globally, consisting of four floors and 340 rooms, covering a floor area of roughly 200,000 square feet.
• Both structures are central components of Lutyens Delhi, an area named after the British architect who planned the city with a blend of Indo-Saracenic and Classical architectural elements.

 Additional Information

• Lucknow:
• Commonly referred to as the City of Nawabs, it is the capital of Uttar Pradesh and is famous for architectural marvels like the Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza.
• Jaipur:
• Known as the Pink City, it is the capital of Rajasthan. It is renowned for the Hawa Mahal, Amer Fort, and its unique Grid-based urban planning.
• Mumbai:
• The Financial Capital of India and the capital of Maharashtra. It houses the Gateway of India, which is frequently confused with the India Gate but was built to commemorate the visit of King George V in 1911.

The correct answer is Tropical deciduous forests.

Key Points

• Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread forests in India and are commonly known as Monsoon forests.
• They are found in regions receiving rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm, characterized by a distinct period where trees shed their leaves to conserve moisture.
• Based on the availability of water, these forests are further divided into Moist deciduous (100−200 cm rainfall) and Dry deciduous (70−100 cm rainfall) types.
• Moist deciduous forests are prevalent in the Himalayan foothills, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and states like Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
• Dry deciduous forests are found in the rainier parts of the Peninsular plateau and the plains of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
• Key commercial species found in these forests include Teak, Sal, Shisham, Sandalwood, Khair, Kusum, Arjun, and Mulberry.

 Additional Information

• Tropical Evergreen and Semi-evergreen Forests
• Found in areas with rainfall exceeding 200 cm and a short dry season.
• Located primarily in the Western Ghats, Upper Assam, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Main species include Rosewood, Mahogany, and Ebony.
• Alpine and Montane Forests
• Occur in high altitude mountainous regions like the Himalayas where temperature decreases with height.
• Features species such as Silver Fir, Junipers, Pines, and Birches at higher elevations.
• Mangroves
• Found in coastal areas influenced by tides and saline water.
• The Sunderbans in West Bengal, formed by the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta, is the largest mangrove forest globally.
• Sundari trees are the most famous species, providing durable timber.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• Under Article 75(1) of the Constitution of India, the President is mandated to appoint the Prime Minister, typically the leader of the party or coalition that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha.
• The President also appoints all other members of the Council of Ministers, but this power is strictly exercised on the binding advice of the Prime Minister.
• The allocation of ministerial portfolios is formally executed by the President under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, which are framed under Article 77(3) of the Constitution for the smooth conduct of government business.
• As per Article 75(2), all ministers, including the Prime Minister, hold their respective offices during the pleasure of the President, although in practice, this is governed by the majority support in the lower house.
• The President acts as the nominal executive head (De Jure), ensuring that the executive actions of the Union Government are carried out in their name as per Article 77(1).

 Additional Information

• Prime Minister of India:
• Serves as the Head of Government and the real executive authority (De Facto).
• Acts as the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the President as per Article 78.
• Council of Ministers:
• Constitutes the executive body that assists and advises the President in the exercise of their functions under Article 74.
• This body is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha under Article 75(3), embodying the principle of parliamentary democracy.
• Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
• The Presiding Officer of the lower house of Parliament, elected by the members from among themselves.
• Responsible for maintaining order, certifying Money Bills, and presiding over joint sittings of both houses.

The correct answer is He can be removed only on grounds of misbehaviour or incapacity to hold office..

Key Points

• The Constitution of India provides for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge under Article 124(4), ensuring that the higher judiciary remains independent of arbitrary executive or legislative pressure.
• A judge of the Supreme Court can only be removed from office by an order of the President. This order is issued after an address by Parliament has been presented to the President for such removal.
• The Constitution strictly limits the grounds for such removal to two specific conditions: proved misbehaviour or incapacity. These terms cover professional misconduct, corruption, or the physical and mental inability to perform judicial duties.
• The removal address must be supported by a special majority in each House of Parliament: a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• Both the parliamentary address and the Presidential order must occur within the same session of Parliament to be constitutionally valid.