DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 29 Mar, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given series:

(Left) 8 @ 4 # ! + 3 & # 9 % & # 4 7 ! 9 # 3 $ 6 + @ 1 (Right)

After dropping all the symbols:

(Left) 8 4 3 9 4 7 9 3 6 1 (Right)

The 7^th digit from the right is 9.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

A, E, I, O, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. I Is an immediate neighbour of both A and O.
2. O sits third to the left of S.
3. E sits to the immediate left of S.
4. Q is not an immediate neighbour of O. 

A sits third to the left of R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

H, I, J, X, Y, Z and A are sitting in a straight line facing north.

1. Only three people sit to the left of I.
2. Only X sits to the right of A.
3. Only three people sit between A and J.
4. Y sits at some place to the left of Z but at some place to the right of H. 

Three people sit between H and Z.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘DELT’ is coded as ‘2841’ 

‘LETS’ is coded as ‘1489’.

Code for "S" is "9".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statement:

C > V < R < B = F

Conclusions:

I: C < R → False (From the given statement, both C and R are greater than V, but no definite relationship can be established between C and R.)

II: F < C → False (Since B = F and R < B, we know F > R, but no definite relationship can be established between F and C.)

Therefore, neither I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Each of P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. No one has exam before R.
2. Only three people have exam between R and Y.
3. Only one person has exam between Y and S.
4. Z has exam on Wednesday.
5. X has exam on one of the days after P but on one of the days before Q.

Final Schedule:

Therefore, X has the exam on Thursday.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

D, E, F, H, I and J live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on, till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. H lives on an even numbered floor but not on floor number 4.
2. Only two people live between H and I.
3. D lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the lowermost floor.
4. Only two people live between D and F.
5. E lives immediately below D.

Final Floor Arrangement:

Therefore, the number of people living between J and E is Two.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Dictionary order of given words:

1. Favoring
2. Festival
3. Forsaken
4. Founding
5. Freshman
   

Correct sequence is: 2. Freshman

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

‘COST’ is coded as ‘5472’ 

‘OPEN’ is coded as ‘3651’.

Code for "O" is "5".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Statement:

E > I ≤ H < L ≤ B

Conclusion I: I ≤ B → False  ( From the given statement I ≤ H < L ≤ B. since is possible that I < B or  I = B. Therefore, the conclusion I ≤ B is False.)

Conclusion II: E > H → False  (From the given statement E > I ≤ H there is no definite relation given between E and H.)

Therefore, Neither I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

‘TUBE’ is coded as ‘5472’ 

‘EARN’ is coded as ‘3641’.

Code for "E" is "4".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: T + G × D ÷ M − K

It means: T is the sister of G, G is the wife of D, D is the father of M, and M is the brother of K.

T is related to K as Mother's sister.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) £ Q & R G K % @ U $ D C E Ω T Y & A B * # V (Right)

After dropping all the letters:

(Left) £ & % @ $ Ω & * # (Right)

The 6^th symbol from the left is Ω.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) 6 8 3 5 7 2 6 9 7 3 6 5 8 6 4 7 3 8 6 2 8 3 8 5 7 2 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Even digit ← Even digit → Perfect square (1, 4, 9)

Checking the series:

(Left) 2 6 9 7 3 6 5 8 6 4 7 3 8 6 2 8 3 8 5 7 2 (Right)

There are two such even digits that are immediately preceded by an even digit and immediately followed by a perfect square.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family Chart:

Family tree,

V is son of J.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statements:

Some buttons are pins.

All pins are flowers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All buttons are flowers → Does not follow (Only some buttons are pins and all pins are flowers, so we only know that some buttons are definitely flowers, not necessarily all.)

II. Some flowers are buttons → Follow (Since some buttons are pins and all pins are flowers, the part of flowers that contains pins will also contain those buttons.)

So, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) € © @ @ W * £ € Y # N € P © @ V @ P P & W F (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Letter  → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) € © @ **@ W *** £ € Y # N € P © @ V @ P P & W F (Right)

Hence, there are five such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Total number of students = 45.

Milan is 27th from the right end.

Hitesh is 8 places to the left of Milan.

First, find Milan's position from the left using the formula:

Rank from Left = Total students - Rank from Right + 1

Milan's position from the left = 45 - 27 + 1

= 19.

Since Hitesh is 8 places to the left of Milan,

Hitesh's position from the left = 19 - 8

= 11th.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given series:

(Left) 1 5 2 6 4 3 7 2 5 6 4 1 7 3 1 8 3 2 8 9 3 7 5 6 9 2 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Even digit ← Odd digit → Odd digit

Checking the series:

(Left) 1 5 2 6 4 3 7 2 5 6 4 1 7 3 1 8 3 2 8 9 3 7 5 6 9 2 (Right)

There are three such digits that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Chopel is 39th from the right end.

Danish is 45th from the right end.

Danish is exactly between Chopel and Lida.

Lida is 11th from the left end.

Difference between the positions of Chopel and Danish from the right end = 45 − 39 = 6.

Since Danish is exactly between Chopel and Lida, Lida is also 6 places away from Danish on the other side.

Therefore, Lida's position from the right end = 45 + 6 = 51st.

The formula for total people in a row is: Total people = (Rank from Left) + (Rank from Right) − 1

Total people = 11 + 51 − 1

= 62 − 1

= 61 people.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Logic followed here is,

4 + (2² - 1) = 4 + (4 - 1) = 7

7 + (3² - 1) = 7 + (9 - 1) = 15

15 + (4² - 1) = 15 + (16 - 1) = 30

30 + (5² - 1) = 30 + (25 - 1) = 54

54 + (6² - 1) = (54 + (36 - 1) = 89

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 34 + 46 - 10 × 11 ÷ 33 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 34 - 46 + 10 ÷ 11 × 33 = ?

⇒ 34 - 46 + 10 ÷ 11 × 33 = ?

⇒ 34 - 46 + &frac10;11; × 33 = ?

⇒ 34 - 46 + 30 = ?

⇒ 34 - 46 + 30 = ?

⇒ -12 + 30 = ?

⇒ 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For SQUT to WUYX

For IGKJ to MKON

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +4 for each successive letter in the sequence.

Applying the same logic to USWV:

Following the +4 shift logic, USWV is related to YWAZ.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given Statements:

All earths are planets.

No earth is a mercury.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some mercuries are planets → Does not follow (In the least possible diagram, there is no intersection between mercury and planets, so it is not a definite conclusion.)

II. All planets are mercuries → Does not follow (Since all earths are planets and no earth is mercury, the part of planets that is earths can never be mercury.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

For KOLM to IMJK

For VZWX to TXUV

The common pattern is a constant positional value shift of −2 for each letter in the group.

Applying the same logic to XBYZ:

By following the pattern, XBYZ is related to VZWX.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is the rearrangement of letters based on their original positions in the word.

For SHIP to IHPS

For JUMP to MUPJ

The common pattern is that the result word is formed by taking the letters of the original word in the sequence: 3rd letter, 2nd letter, 4th letter, and 1st letter.

Applying the same logic to TREE:

Following the pattern, TREE relates to ERET.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 7 R 1 Q 14 P 7 S 28 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 7 × 1 + 14 ÷ 7 - 28 = ?

⇒ 7 × 1 + 14 ÷ 7 - 28 = ?

⇒ 7 + 14 ÷ 7 - 28 = ?

⇒ 7 + 2 - 28 = ?

⇒ 7 + 2 - 28 = ?

⇒ 9 - 28 = ?

⇒ -19.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic: (First number × 3) + Second number = Third number

For (96, 11,299) →

(96 × 3) + 11 = 288 + 11 = 299

For (29, 86, 173) →

(29 × 3) + 86 = 87 + 86 = 173

Similarly,

Option (4):  (33, 73, 172)

(33 × 3) + 73 = 99 + 73 = 172

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

121 + (27 × 1) = 121 + 27 = 148

148 + (27 × 2) = 148 + 54 = 202

202 + (27 × 3) = 202 + 81 = 283

283 + (27 × 4) = 283 + 108 = 391

391 + (27 × 5) = 391 + 135 = 526

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic: First number = Second number + (2 × Third number)

For (162, 28, 67) →

28 + (2 × 67) = 28 + 134 = 162

For (122, 68, 27) →

68 + (2 × 27) = 68 + 54 = 122

Similarly, 

Option (4): 124, 62, 31)

 62 + (2 × 31) = 62 + 62 = 124

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

10

10 + 10 = 20

20 + 10 = 30

30 + 10 = 40

40 + 10 = 50

50 + 10 = 60

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: (First Number − Second Number − Third Number) = 9.

For (60, 48, 3) →

60 − 48 − 3 = 9

For (58, 36, 13) →

58 − 36 − 13 = 9

Similarly,

Option (3): (158, 77, 72)

158 − 77 − 72 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 20 U 5 V 7 S 6 T 1 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 20 ÷ 5 + 7 - 6 × 1 = ?

⇒ 20 ÷ 5 + 7 - 6 × 1 = ?

⇒ 4 + 7 - 6 × 1 = ?

⇒ 4 + 7 - 6 = ?

⇒ 4 + 7 - 6 = ?

⇒ 11 - 6 = ?

⇒ 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Mirror image of given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 32 - 34 ÷ 6 × 3 + 1 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 32 + 34 × 6 ÷ 3 - 1 = ?

⇒ 32 + 34 × 6 ÷ 3 - 1 = ?

⇒ 32 + 204 ÷ 3 - 1 = ?

⇒ 32 + 68 - 1 = ?

⇒ 32 + 68 - 1 = ?

⇒ 100 - 1 = ?

⇒ 99.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 113 D 198 A 11 B 5 C 14 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 113 - 198 ÷ 11 × 5 + 14 = ?

⇒ 113 - 198 ÷ 11 × 5 + 14 = ?

⇒ 113 - 18 × 5 + 14 = ?

⇒ 113 - 90 + 14 = ?

⇒ 113 - 90 + 14 = ?

⇒ 23 + 14 = ?

⇒ 37.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

1. IQ-MO →

2. SA-WY →

3. DL-HJ →

4) FM-JL →

Therefore, the cluster pair that does not belong to the group is FM-JL.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Next Generation Administrative Reforms - Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile.

Key Points

• The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), which functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, organized the IIAS-DARPG India Conference in New Delhi.
• The event was held from February 10 to February 14, 2025, serving as a global platform for discussing the evolution of public administration in the 21st century.
• The core focus of the conference, Next Generation Administrative Reforms, emphasized creating a governance model that is more responsive, transparent, and accountable to the people.
• The theme Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile aligns with India's national priority of ensuring that the benefits of socio-economic development and government schemes reach the most marginalized and remote populations.
• Discussions during the conference revolved around digital governance, minimum government and maximum governance, and the integration of artificial intelligence to streamline public service delivery.
• The conference brought together international delegates, policy makers, and experts from the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS) member countries to share best practices in bureaucratic efficiency.

 Additional Information

• International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS):
• Founded in 1930 and based in Brussels, Belgium, it is a prominent international non-profit organization dedicated to the study and practice of public administration.
• It supports a network of national sections, corporate members, and academic institutions to enhance global governance standards.
• DARPG Initiatives:
• The department is responsible for the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA), which evaluates the efficiency of digital portals across Indian states.
• It manages CPGRAMS, an online platform that allows citizens to lodge grievances against any Central Government ministry or department.
• Administrative Frameworks:
• The concept of the Last Mile refers to the final stage of a process, ensuring that infrastructure and services do not just exist but are actually accessible to the intended beneficiaries.
• The conference also highlighted the role of Mission Karmayogi, India's national program for civil service capacity building, in achieving these administrative goals.

The correct answer is Akashteer Automated Air Defence Control and Reporting System.

Key Points

• The Akashteer Automated Air Defence Control and Reporting System is a cutting-edge technological solution developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) to digitize the Indian Army's air defense operations.
• It achieved a milestone 100% interception rate during the high-stakes Operation Sindoor in May 2025, successfully neutralizing a swarm of drones and loitering munitions in a simulated high-intensity combat environment.
• The system works by networking all radars and antiaircraft weapons to provide a comprehensive Recognised Air Systems Picture (RASP), combining inputs from multiple sensors to offer a single version of truth to commanders.
• By automating the Target Designation and Weapon Allocation processes, it reduces human latency and eliminates manual errors, ensuring that the most suitable weapon is deployed against a specific threat within seconds.
• The system facilitates a decentralized control mechanism while maintaining centralized monitoring, effectively optimizing the Kill Chain and enhancing the survivability of ground forces.

 Additional Information

• Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL):
• A premier Navratna Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) established in 1954 under the Ministry of Defence, headquartered in Bengaluru.
• It specializes in advanced electronics for the Indian Armed Forces, including Missile Systems, Simulators, and Tank Electronics.
• Rohini Radar:
• An indigenous 3D medium-range surveillance radar capable of tracking targets up to 170 kilometers in range and at altitudes up to 18 kilometers.
• Swathi Weapon Locating Radar (WLR):
• A mobile phased array radar designed to locate enemy artillery, mortars, and rocket launchers by tracking their trajectories in flight.
• Shakti EW System:
• An integrated Electronic Warfare suite designed for the Indian Navy to detect, classify, and jam hostile radar signals and anti-ship missiles.

The correct answer is Net indirect taxes.

Key Points

• The Income Method is a major approach used to measure National Income by aggregating all the factor incomes earned by the residents of a country for their productive services during a Financial Year.
• This method calculates the Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDP_FC), which represents the total income generated within the domestic territory before adjusting for net income from abroad.
• The components included in the calculation are Compensation of Employees, Operating Surplus (consisting of Rent, Royalty, Interest, and Profit), and Mixed Income of the Self-Employed.
• Net Indirect Taxes (NIT), defined as the difference between Indirect Taxes and Subsidies, are excluded because the income method measures the value of production at Factor Cost rather than at Market Price.
• Since Indirect Taxes are payments made to the government that do not accrue to any factor of production as income, they are not part of the Factor Income summation.

 Additional Information

• Components of Factor Income:
• Compensation of Employees: Includes Wages and Salaries in cash or kind, and Employers contribution to social security schemes.
• Operating Surplus: It is the income from Property and Entrepreneurship.
• Interest on capital: Payments made to the owners of capital for the use of borrowed funds for productive purposes.
• Rent and Royalties: Income derived from ownership of land and rights over sub-soil assets.
• Profit: Comprises Dividends, Corporate Taxes, and Retained Earnings.
• Mixed Income: This refers to the income of unincorporated enterprises where it is impossible to distinguish between labor income and capital income.
• Formula Relationship:
• National Income (NNP_FC) = NDP_FC + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
• Market Price = Factor Cost + Net Indirect Taxes.

The correct answer is Jyotirao Govindrao Phule.

Key Points

• Satya Shodhak Samaj, also known as the Truth Seekers' Society, was founded by Jyotirao Govindrao Phule on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra.
• The primary objective of the society was to liberate the Shudra and Ati-Shudra communities from the exploitation and psychological slavery imposed by the upper-caste hegemony and orthodox Brahmanical traditions.
• Mahatma Phule advocated for the human rights and social dignity of marginalized groups, emphasizing that all humans are equal and should have direct access to religious rituals without the need for priestly intermediaries.
• In 1873, Phule published his seminal work Gulamgiri (Slavery), which was one of the first critiques of the caste system, drawing a parallel between the condition of lower castes in India and the African-American slaves in the United States.
• The Samaj played a transformative role in promoting rationalism and secularism, encouraging its members to adopt a scientific outlook and reject superstitious beliefs rooted in traditional texts.
• Savitribai Phule, the wife of Jyotirao, was an active leader of the movement and worked tirelessly toward female education and the abolition of untouchability, making them pioneers of modern Indian social reform.

 Additional Information

• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
• A key figure of the Bengal Renaissance, he was a philosopher and educator who campaigned for the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act, 1856.
• He also simplified the Bengali alphabet and established numerous schools for girls in Bengal.
• Mahadev Govind Ranade:
• Commonly known as Justice Ranade, he was a founding member of the Indian National Congress and a leader of the Prarthana Samaj.
• He focused on economic reforms, industrialization, and social issues like widow remarriage and the promotion of education.
• Swami Vivekananda:
• A disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa, he founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to bridge spiritualism with social service.
• He gained international fame after his speech at the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, representing the Vedantic philosophy of India.

The correct answer is RBI.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the nation, established on April 1, 1935, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission and governed by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• Under Section 22 of the RBI Act, the institution holds the sole authority to issue banknotes in India, which ensures uniformity in currency and allows the bank to maintain monetary stability.
• The management of currency involves the designing, printing, and distribution of banknotes, as well as the withdrawal of soiled notes from circulation to maintain the integrity of the legal tender.
• While the Government of India is the issuing authority for coins and the one-rupee note under the Coinage Act, 2011, their distribution and circulation throughout the economy are managed exclusively by the RBI.
• RBI operates currency chests across the country, which are storehouses where banknotes and coins are stocked on behalf of the bank to facilitate easy access for commercial banks and the public.

 Additional Information

• NABARD
• Established in 1982, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development serves as the apex regulatory body for the regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India.
• Its primary function is to provide credit and promote sustainable agriculture and rural development.
• SBI
• The State Bank of India is a Fortune 500 company and the largest public sector bank in India, headquartered in Mumbai.
• It provides a wide range of commercial banking services and has a massive network of branches and ATMs globally.
• HDFC
• HDFC Bank is a major Indian private sector bank that was among the first to receive in-principle approval from the RBI to set up a bank in the private sector in 1994.
• It focuses on retail banking, wholesale banking, and treasury operations.

The correct answer is Visakhapatnam.

Key Points

• The Indian Navy is set to host the prestigious 9th Edition of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) Conclave of Chiefs along with the Maritime Convergence 2026 in Visakhapatnam.
• India assumed the Chairmanship of IONS for the period 2025–27 during the 8th Conclave held in Bangkok, Thailand, in December 2023.
• Visakhapatnam, the headquarters of the Eastern Naval Command, has been selected as the venue due to its strategic location on the East Coast and its proven capacity to host massive international naval events like MILAN and the International Fleet Review.
• The event serves as a platform for maritime cooperation, focusing on Information Sharing, Interoperability, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) among the littoral nations of the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
• The hosting of this event aligns with India’s vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region), emphasizing India’s role as a Net Security Provider in the Indian Ocean.

 Additional Information

• Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
• It was launched by the Indian Navy in 2008 to increase maritime cooperation among the 25 member nations and 8 observer nations.
• The IONS Working Groups focus on three main areas: Maritime Security, HADR, and Information Sharing & Interoperability.
• The Chairmanship rotates every two years among the member nations of the four sub-regions: South Asian, West Asian, East African, and South East Asian and Australian littorals.
• Visakhapatnam’s Naval Heritage:
• Known as the City of Destiny, it houses the INS Kurusura Submarine Museum and the TU 142M Aircraft Museum, reflecting its deep naval roots.
• The city successfully hosted MILAN 2024, which saw participation from over 50 countries, showcasing its infrastructure for Maritime Convergence.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The final of the Women’s Premier League (WPL) 2025 was held in Mumbai, specifically at the prestigious Wankhede Stadium.
• Mumbai Indians emerged as the champions of the 2025 edition by defeating Delhi Capitals in the final match.
• The tournament is sanctioned and organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), representing the highest level of professional women's Twenty20 cricket in the country.
• This victory further solidified the Mumbai Indians' legacy as a dominant force in franchise cricket, following their success in previous seasons of the league.
• The match attracted a massive crowd at the Wankhede Stadium, showcasing the rapid growth and commercial viability of women's sports in India.

 Additional Information

• Women’s Premier League (WPL):
• The league was inaugurated in 2023 to provide a platform for both domestic and international female cricketers.
• It operates on a franchise model, featuring teams like Royal Challengers Bangalore, Gujarat Giants, and UP Warriorz alongside the finalists.
• Wankhede Stadium:
• Located in South Mumbai, it serves as the headquarters for the BCCI and the Mumbai Cricket Association (MCA).
• The stadium is historically significant, having hosted the final of the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup.
• Mumbai Indians (MI):
• Owned by Reliance Industries through its subsidiary IndiaWin Sports, the franchise is known for its professional management and star-studded lineups.
• The team is led by prominent figures such as Harmanpreet Kaur, who has been instrumental in their tactical success.

The correct answer is Shah Mal.

Key Points

• Shah Mal was a prominent local leader who resided in a large village in pargana Barout, located in the Meerut district of Uttar Pradesh.
• He belonged to a clan of Jat cultivators whose kinship ties extended over a region known as chaurassee des (eighty-four villages), where the land was exceptionally fertile and the soil was dark.
• During the Revolt of 1857, he organized and mobilized the headmen and cultivators of these eighty-four villages to rise against the British East India Company.
• He dismantled British infrastructure, including bridges and telegraph lines, to disrupt communication and supply routes between Delhi and the surrounding districts.
• Shah Mal turned his own house into a 'hall of justice', where he settled local disputes and dispensed administrative decisions, essentially establishing a parallel government to challenge colonial authority.
• His intelligence network was so robust that the British military found it nearly impossible to navigate the region undetected; however, he was eventually killed in action during a battle in July 1857.

 Additional Information

• Nana Sahib
• The adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, he led the insurgent forces in Kanpur after being denied his father's pension by the British.
• He played a central role in the Siege of Cawnpore and declared himself the Peshwa during the uprising.
• Birjis Qadr
• The young son of the deposed Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, he was proclaimed the Nawab of Awadh by the rebels in Lucknow.
• His administration was heavily supported by his mother, Begum Hazrat Mahal, who actively led the resistance against British forces.
• Gonoo
• A tribal leader belonging to the Kol community in Singhbhum (present-day Jharkhand).
• He successfully mobilized the Kol tribes to participate in the rebellion, aligning with the broader movement of 1857 despite regional isolation.

The correct answer is ₹1.5 lakh.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), Government of India, has implemented a cashless treatment scheme specifically designed for road accident victims to ensure immediate access to medical care.
• Under this initiative, a victim of a road crash is entitled to receive cashless medical treatment up to a maximum financial limit of ₹1.5 lakh per person per accident.
• The scheme focuses on providing treatment during the Golden Hour, which is the critical one-hour period following a traumatic injury where prompt medical intervention has the highest potential to save lives and reduce disability.
• This facility is applicable to all road accidents involving motor vehicles on any public road, helping to eliminate delays caused by financial verification in emergency situations.
• The program aims to drastically lower the fatality rate on Indian roads by standardizing the protocol for trauma stabilization and surgical intervention.

 Additional Information

• Technical and Operational Framework:
• The National Health Authority (NHA) serves as the implementing agency, leveraging the existing IT platform and hospital network used for the Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY scheme.
• The funding for the medical expenses is derived from the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, established under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019.
• The scheme involves a seamless coordination between Police departments, Hospitals, and State Health Agencies to facilitate rapid claim processing and hospital admissions.
• Treatment packages under the scheme include emergency stabilization, diagnostic tests, and in-patient care required to stabilize the victim’s condition before they are moved to a non-emergency care setting.

The correct answer is Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers.

Key Points

• Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) is a premier shipbuilding company in India, operating under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
• The organization is headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal, and holds the prestigious Mini Ratna Category-I status, specializing in the construction of advanced warships and specialized vessels.
• The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed with Norway’s Kongsberg Maritime marks a significant step toward the indigenous development of India’s first Polar Research Vessel (PRV).
• The PRV is a complex, ice-breaking ship designed to support scientific expeditions and logistical requirements in the extreme environments of the Antarctic and Arctic regions.
• This collaboration aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) initiative, aiming to reduce India’s dependence on chartered foreign vessels for polar research activities managed by the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).

 Additional Information

• Kongsberg Maritime (Norway):
• A global technology leader providing advanced solutions for onshore, offshore, and subsea maritime operations.
• It provides specialized expertise in ship design, propulsion systems, and integrated automation for high-specification vessels like ice-breakers.
• Polar Research Context:
• India currently operates research stations in Antarctica named Maitri and Bharati, which require constant logistical support via specialized vessels.
• The development of an indigenous Polar Research Vessel is supervised by the Ministry of Earth Sciences to bolster India's presence in the Southern Ocean and polar scientific community.
• GRSE Historical Significance:
• Established in 1884 as a small workshop, it was nationalized in 1960 and became the first Indian shipyard to build a warship for the Indian Navy in 1961 (INS Ajay).

The correct answer is Value Added Method.

Key Points

• The Value Added Method, also referred to as the Product Method or Inventory Method, calculates national income by identifying the contribution of each producing enterprise in the domestic territory of a country.
• This approach specifically focuses on the stages of production by calculating the Gross Value Added (GVA) at each step, from the extraction of raw materials to the final manufacturing of the product.
• The mathematical logic involves the formula: Value Added = Value of Output − Intermediate Consumption. By subtracting the cost of raw materials and semi-finished goods, the method ensures that only the incremental value created at each stage is recorded.
• A critical advantage of this method is the prevention of double counting, a statistical error where the value of a single commodity is counted multiple times as it passes from the primary sector to the secondary sector.
• In India, the Central Statistics Office (CSO) utilizes this method primarily to estimate the contribution of sectors like agriculture, forestry, fishing, and mining to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

 Additional Information

• Income Method:
• This method estimates National Income by summing up all factor incomes earned by residents of a country for their productive services.
• Key components include Compensation of Employees (wages and salaries), Operating Surplus (rent, interest, and profit), and Mixed Income of the self-employed.
• Expenditure Method:
• Focuses on the total final expenditure incurred by households, business firms, and the government within an economy.
• The formula is GDP = C + I + G + (X − M), where C is consumption, I is investment, G is government spending, and (X − M) represents net exports.
• Transfer Method:
• This is not a recognized scientific method for estimating National Income because Transfer Payments (such as old-age pensions, unemployment allowances, or gifts) are unilateral transfers.
• Since these payments do not involve the current production of goods or services, they are excluded from the calculation of Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost.

The correct answer is 100 districts.

Key Points

• The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) is a strategic initiative launched to enhance agricultural productivity and ensure nutritional security by promoting the cultivation of high-quality food grains.
• For the initial implementation phase, the government has specifically identified 100 districts across India to act as primary hubs for the rollout of the scheme.
• The selection of these 100 districts was based on critical parameters such as agro-climatic suitability, existing irrigation infrastructure, and the prevalence of small and marginal farmers who require immediate technological intervention.
• In these designated districts, the scheme aims to integrate precision farming techniques and climate-resilient agricultural practices to stabilize crop yields against environmental fluctuations.
• The pilot phase in these 100 districts serves as a template for evaluating the socio-economic impact of the scheme before it is expanded to other regions of the country.

 Additional Information

• The PMDDKY framework revolves around several key developmental pillars:
• Soil Health Management: Extensive use of Soil Health Cards in the selected 100 districts to guide farmers on balanced fertilizer use and soil rejuvenation.
• Water Conservation: Prioritizing Per Drop More Crop through the installation of micro-irrigation systems to maximize water use efficiency.
• Extension Services: Strengthening Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) to provide localized technical support and training to farmers regarding high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds.
• Value Chain Integration: Linking the produce from these districts directly to the e-NAM platform to eliminate intermediaries and improve price discovery.
• The scheme is a vital component of the broader Atmanirbhar Krishi mission, aimed at reducing dependency on food imports and increasing the export potential of Indian food grains.

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra Classic.

Key Points

• The Neeraj Chopra Classic was officially launched in July 2025 as a premier international athletics competition hosted in India to promote track and field sports.
• The event is named in honor of Neeraj Chopra, who made history as the first Indian track and field athlete to win an Olympic Gold Medal (Tokyo 2020) and a World Athletics Championships Gold (Budapest 2023).
• The meet has been designated as a Gold-level event by World Athletics, integrating it into the prestigious World Athletics Continental Tour.
• This designation ensures high-level competition, significant prize money, and crucial ranking points for athletes aiming for world championships and Olympic qualification.
• The Neeraj Chopra Classic is the first-ever Gold-tier one-day meeting to be held in India, marking a significant milestone in the country's sporting infrastructure.

 Additional Information

• Prominent Indian Athletes:
• Neeraj Chopra: A specialist in Javelin Throw, he holds the Indian national record and is a key figure in the global athletics circuit.
• P. T. Usha: Known as the Payyoli Express, she dominated the Asian Games in the 1980s and currently serves as the President of the Indian Olympic Association.
• Milkha Singh: Known as the Flying Sikh, he was a legendary sprinter and a Padma Shri recipient, famous for his record-breaking 400m run at the 1960 Rome Olympics.
• Anju Bobby George: A celebrated Long Jumper who was the first Indian athlete to win a medal (Bronze) at the World Athletics Championships in 2003.
• World Athletics Continental Tour:
• The tour is an annual series of elite track and field competitions divided into Gold, Silver, and Bronze levels.
• The Gold-level meets are the highest tier under the Diamond League, attracting top-ranked global athletes and extensive international television coverage.

The correct answer is Accepting deposits and giving loans.

Key Points

• Commercial Banks in India are financial institutions governed by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which defines banking as accepting, for the purpose of lending or investment, deposits of money from the public.
• Acceptance of Deposits: This is a primary function where banks mobilize savings from the public. These are categorized into Demand Deposits (Savings and Current accounts) and Time Deposits (Fixed and Recurring deposits).
• Advancing Loans: Banks utilize the accumulated deposits to provide credit to individuals, farmers, and businesses. Common forms of credit include Overdrafts, Cash Credit, Term Loans, and Discounting of Bills of Exchange.
• Credit Creation: Through the process of Fractional Reserve Banking, commercial banks have the power to expand the money supply by creating derivative deposits whenever they grant a loan.
• Intermediary Role: Commercial banks act as a bridge between Surplus Units (savers) and Deficit Units (borrowers), facilitating the flow of capital and promoting Economic Growth and Capital Formation.
• Revenue Generation: The primary source of income for these banks is the Spread, which is the difference between the interest rate charged on loans and the interest rate paid to depositors.

 Additional Information

• Monetary Policy:
• This is the exclusive function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) uses tools like Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, and CRR to maintain price stability.
• Currency and Coin Issuance:
• Under the RBI Act, 1934, the Reserve Bank of India is the sole authority for issuing Banknotes in India.
• The Government of India, specifically the Ministry of Finance, is responsible for issuing Coins of all denominations and One Rupee notes under the Coinage Act, 2011.
• Tax Collection:
• This is considered an Agency Function. Authorized commercial banks act as agents for the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and CBIC to facilitate the collection of Income Tax and GST.

The correct answer is Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Key Points

• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a prominent 19th-century social reformer, educator, and polymath from Bengal who dedicated his life to improving the status of women in Indian society.
• He deeply researched ancient scriptures and successfully cited the Parashara Smriti to argue that Hindu religious texts did not prohibit widow remarriage, countering the orthodox view of the time.
• Vidyasagar presented a powerful petition to the Legislative Council, which faced strong opposition from conservative groups but eventually led to the enactment of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856.
• The Widow Remarriage Act, also known as Act XV of 1856, was drafted during the governor-generalship of Lord Dalhousie and was passed by Lord Canning on July 26, 1856.
• The act provided legal safeguards against the loss of inheritance for widows who chose to remarry and ensured the legitimacy of their children, effectively challenging the social apathy and cruelty faced by widows.

 Additional Information

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
• Often called the Father of Modern India, he founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828.
• He was the primary force behind the abolition of the Sati system, leading to the passing of Regulation XVII of 1829 by Lord William Bentinck.
• Atmaram Pandurang:
• He was a physician and social reformer who co-founded the Prarthana Samaj in 1867 in Bombay.
• His work focused on religious reform based on monotheism and social causes like inter-caste dining and female education.
• Dayananda Saraswati:
• A Vedic scholar who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 and gave the slogan 'Go back to the Vedas'.
• He advocated for the equal rights of women, opposed child marriage, and authored the famous book Satyarth Prakash.

The correct answer is Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.

Key Points

• The book Asbab-i-Bagawat-i-Hind, which translates to 'The Causes of the Indian Revolt', was written by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in 1858.
• It was authored in Urdu and was specifically written to analyze the factors that led to the Revolt of 1857, providing a critical perspective from an Indian viewpoint for the British Parliament.
• The primary thesis of the book argued that the exclusion of Indians from the Legislative Council of India was a major reason for the uprising, as the government remained unaware of the people's grievances and needs.
• Sir Syed Ahmad Khan aimed to clear the misconception that the Muslim community was solely responsible for the conspiracy, seeking to improve relations between Muslims and the British Raj.
• The work highlighted that the British policies regarding land revenue, the annexation of Oudh, and perceived interference in religious matters caused deep resentment among the Sipahis and the general public.

 Additional Information

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
• He is often called the 'Maker of Modern India' and established the Brahmo Samaj in 1828.
• He worked extensively for the abolition of Sati and advocated for monotheism and Western education.
• Sir Mohammad Iqbal:
• He was a prominent philosopher and poet who wrote the famous national song 'Sare Jahan Se Achha'.
• He is celebrated for his poetic works like Bang-i-Dara and his political role in the Allahabad Session of 1930.
• Bahadur Shah Zaffar:
• He was the last Mughal Emperor and was proclaimed the Emperor of India by the revolutionaries during the 1857 Uprising.
• A noted Urdu poet, he was eventually exiled by the British to Rangoon, Burma, following the suppression of the revolt.

The correct answer is Greater Noida.

Key Points

• The inaugural World Boxing Finals 2025 is scheduled to be held in Greater Noida, India, serving as a landmark event for the newly formed international federation, World Boxing.
• The tournament will take place from November 16 to 20, 2025, at the Shaheed Vijay Singh Pathik Sports Complex, which is equipped with world-class facilities for indoor sports.
• The World Boxing Finals will feature the top-performing male and female boxers who have qualified through the World Boxing Cup series held across different continents throughout the year.
• Hosting this prestigious event in India underscores the country's strategic importance in the global boxing landscape and its role in supporting the growth of the sport under the new federation.
• This event aims to provide a high-stakes competitive platform, ensuring that elite athletes have access to fair and transparent international competition.

 Additional Information

• World Boxing:
• Established in April 2023, this body was created to keep boxing at the center of the Olympic Movement and seek recognition from the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The federation focuses on integrity, transparency, and the well-being of athletes, distancing itself from the governance issues of previous administrative bodies.
• Shaheed Vijay Singh Pathik Sports Complex:
• Located in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh, this multi-purpose stadium has previously hosted various national and international sporting events, including domestic cricket and football.
• Its selection for the World Boxing Finals highlights Greater Noida's emergence as a significant sports hub in the National Capital Region (NCR).

The correct answer is Seven.

Key Points

• In the Union Budget 2026-27, the government officially announced the development of seven high-speed rail corridors to transform the landscape of Indian transportation.
• These corridors are specifically designated as city-to-city growth connectors, aimed at facilitating rapid movement of passengers and high-value cargo between major economic clusters.
• The initiative is a core component of the National Rail Plan (NRP), which envisions a future-ready railway system by 2030 to reduce logistics costs and improve efficiency.
• These high-speed tracks are designed to support train speeds of 250-320 km/h, utilizing advanced Ballastless Track technology for superior stability and reduced maintenance.
• The projects are expected to boost regional development by creating new economic corridors and satellite towns along the rail routes.

 Additional Information

• The seven identified corridors typically focus on high-density routes including:
• Delhi-Varanasi: Linking the national capital to the cultural hub of Uttar Pradesh.
• Delhi-Ahmedabad: Connecting major industrial zones in North and West India.
• Mumbai-Nagpur: Enhancing connectivity within Maharashtra.
• Mumbai-Hyderabad: Linking the financial capital to the technology hub of Telangana.
• Chennai-Bengaluru-Mysuru: Integrating the major IT and manufacturing hubs of South India.
• Delhi-Chandigarh-Amritsar: Serving the northern agricultural and industrial belt.
• Varanasi-Howrah: Connecting eastern India to the heart of the Ganges plains.
• Technological Features:
• Implementation of Kavach (Automatic Train Protection system) for enhanced safety.
• Integration with PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan for multi-modal connectivity.
• Use of LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) technology for rapid ground surveying and alignment finalization.

The correct answer is Punjabi, from the northwest.

Key Points

• Punjabi is an Indo-Aryan language spoken primarily in the Punjab region of the northwest Indian subcontinent.
• The Gurmukhi script was standardized and popularized by Guru Angad Dev, the second Sikh Guru, in the 16th century to preserve the authentic teachings of the Gurus.
• The Guru Granth Sahib, the central religious scripture of Sikhism, is written entirely in Gurmukhi, serving as the spiritual guide for the global Sikh community.
• The term Gurmukhi literally means 'from the mouth of the Guru', signifying its sacred connection to the Sikh faith and its distinction from the Landa or Devanagari scripts used during that era.
• While the Guru Granth Sahib contains verses in multiple dialects like Sant Bhasha, Braj Bhasha, and Sanskrit, the Gurmukhi script provides the phonetic and structural framework for the entire text.

 Additional Information

• Urdu
• Originating in Central India (Delhi and surrounding regions), Urdu uses the Perso-Arabic script (Nastaliq).
• It is heavily influenced by Persian, Arabic, and Turkish vocabulary and is the national language of Pakistan.
• Bengali
• An Eastern Indo-Aryan language spoken in West Bengal and Bangladesh, it uses the Bengali-Assamese script.
• It has a rich literary history, notably recognized globally through the works of Rabindranath Tagore.
• Marathi
• The official language of Maharashtra in Western India, it is written in the Devanagari script.
• It is one of the oldest Indo-Aryan languages, with its earliest inscriptions dating back to the 8th century.

The correct answer is John Nicholson.

Key Points

• John Nicholson was a high-ranking British officer known for his aggressive military tactics and leadership of the Punjab Moveable Column during the Revolt of 1857.
• He arrived at the Delhi Ridge in August 1857, providing critical reinforcements to the British forces that had been struggling to retake the city from the Indian rebels.
• During the final assault on September 14, 1857, Nicholson commanded the first column tasked with storming the Kashmere Gate, a strategic entry point into the walled city of Delhi.
• While leading his men through the narrow streets to capture the Burn Bastion near the Lahore Gate, he was shot in the chest by a rebel sniper.
• He suffered for nine days before succumbing to his wounds on September 23, 1857, at the age of 34, just as the British successfully established full control over the city.

 Additional Information

• James Outram:
• Commonly referred to as the 'Bayard of India', he played a secondary role to Henry Havelock during the first Relief of Lucknow.
• He later served as the Chief Commissioner of Oudh and was a key figure in the Indian Political Service.
• Henry Lawrence:
• He was the Chief Commissioner of Awadh and supervised the fortification of the Lucknow Residency.
• He died early in the uprising on July 4, 1857, after being wounded by an exploding shell during the Siege of Lucknow.
• Colin Campbell:
• He served as the Commander-in-Chief, India, and was responsible for the final relief and subsequent evacuation of Lucknow in November 1857.
• He eventually oversaw the final defeat of the rebel forces across Northern India by 1858.

The correct answer is Pushkar Fair.

Key Points

• The Pushkar Fair, also known locally as Pushkar Mela or Kartik Mela, is held in the town of Pushkar in the Ajmer district of Rajasthan.
• It is celebrated annually over several days, culminating on Kartik Purnima (the full moon day of the Hindu month of Kartik), which typically falls in October or November.
• The fair is globally recognized as one of the largest livestock fairs in the world, specifically famous for the trading of camels, horses, and cattle, attracting thousands of traders and tourists.
• From a religious perspective, Pushkar is considered one of the five sacred dhams for Hindus; pilgrims visit to take a ritual dip in the holy Pushkar Lake to attain salvation.
• The town is home to the 14th-century Brahma Temple, which is one of the very few temples in the world dedicated to the Hindu creator god, Lord Brahma.
• The event features vibrant cultural performances, folk music, dance, and unique competitions such as the longest moustache contest and camel races.

 Additional Information

• Nagaur Cattle Fair:
• Held in the Nagaur district, it is the second-largest cattle fair in India and is renowned for the high-quality Nagori bulls traded during the event.
• Baneshwar Fair:
• A major tribal festival held at the confluence of the Som, Mahi, and Jakham rivers in Dungarpur. It is often called the Kumbh of Tribals and is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
• Kumbh Mela:
• One of the largest religious gatherings on Earth, held every 12 years at four river-bank sites: Prayagraj, Haridwar, Nashik, and Ujjain.

The correct answer is Acharya Bharatmuni.

Key Points

• Acharya Bharatmuni is the legendary sage and aesthetician credited with composing the Natyashastra, the most comprehensive ancient Indian treatise on performing arts, dating between 200 BCE and 200 CE.
• In the Natyashastra, Bharatmuni systematically classified languages into two main categories: Sanskrita (refined) and Prakrita (natural or vernacular).
• He recognized Prakrit as the language spoken by the majority of Indians, including women, children, and the common populace, highlighting its vital role in cultural and artistic communication.
• Bharatmuni provided detailed instructions on the use of various Prakrit dialects such as Shauraseni, Magadhi, and Maharashtri within theatrical performances to maintain realism and social context.
• By integrating Prakrit into the classical framework of Indian drama, he ensured that the Rasa (aesthetic flavor) and Bhava (emotion) were accessible to a diverse audience, beyond just the Sanskrit-speaking elite.

 Additional Information

• Panini:
• He was a pioneering Sanskrit philologist and grammarian, famously known for the Ashtadhyayi, which served as the foundational text for Classical Sanskrit grammar.
• Kalidasa:
• Regarded as the greatest poet and dramatist of ancient India, his works like Abhijnanashakuntalam exemplify the dual use of Sanskrit for high-ranking characters and Prakrit for commoners and women.
• Vararuchi:
• He is traditionally associated with the Prakrita-Prakasha, which is considered the earliest extant grammar specifically dedicated to the Prakrit language.
• Classical Language Recognition:
• In October 2024, the Union Cabinet of India officially accorded the status of Classical Language to Prakrit, alongside Marathi, Pali, Assamese, and Bengali, acknowledging its antiquity and rich literary heritage.

The correct answer is In the interests of public order, security of the State, or sovereignty and integrity of India.

Key Points

• Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees all citizens the fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of India, ensuring the country is treated as one unit.
• This freedom is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions defined under Article 19(5) of the Constitution.
• The State is empowered to impose restrictions on the ground of the interest of the general public, which encompasses maintaining public order, health, and security of the State.
• The grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India were specifically emphasized following the 16th Amendment Act, 1963, to prevent secessionist movements from misusing fundamental freedoms.
• Restrictions are also permissible for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe, ensuring their culture, language, and properties are shielded from outside interference.
• Courts have upheld that restricting the movement of individuals with contagious diseases or those posing a threat to public morality constitutes a reasonable restriction.

 Additional Information

• Scope of Article 19 freedoms:
• Article 19(1)(e): Complements the right to move by providing the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Scheduled Areas: Restrictions often manifest as the Inner Line Permit (ILP) system in states like Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Mizoram to protect indigenous populations.
• Judicial Interpretation: In the Kharak Singh vs. State of UP case, the Supreme Court held that the right to move freely means more than mere animal existence; it includes the right to move without psychological or physical restraints.
• Movement vs. Article 21:
• While Article 19(1)(d) protects internal movement within national borders, the right to travel abroad is protected under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) as per the landmark Maneka Gandhi case (1978).

The correct answer is 203 GW.

Key Points

• India has achieved a significant milestone in its energy transition, with the total Renewable Energy (RE) installed capacity reaching 203.18 GW as of October 2024.
• According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), this capacity includes Solar Power, Wind Power, Biomass, Small Hydro, and Large Hydro projects.
• This achievement signifies that renewable energy now accounts for approximately 46.3 percent of India's total installed power capacity, marking a substantial shift toward green energy.
• The inclusion of Large Hydro Projects in the renewable energy category since 2019 has bolstered these figures, helping the country meet its Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO).
• The rapid growth is a result of consistent policy support, including 100 percent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) under the automatic route and the waiver of Inter-State Transmission System (ISTS) charges.

 Additional Information

• Component-wise Capacity Breakdown:
• Solar Power: It remains the dominant contributor with an installed capacity of approximately 90.76 GW, supported by schemes like PM-KUSUM and Solar Parks.
• Wind Power: India ranks fourth globally in wind energy, with a total capacity of nearly 47.36 GW, primarily located in Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
• Large Hydro: These projects contribute about 46.92 GW, providing essential grid stability and balancing for intermittent solar and wind sources.
• Biomass and Small Hydro: Together with Waste-to-Energy, these sources contribute the remaining balance to reach the 203 GW mark.
• National and Global Goals:
• 500 GW Target: India aims to reach 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by 2030, as part of the Panchamrit goals announced at COP26.
• Net Zero: The expansion of renewable capacity is the primary pillar for India to achieve Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.
• Global Ranking: India currently stands fourth globally in total renewable energy installed capacity, showcasing its leadership in the International Solar Alliance (ISA).

The correct answer is Vice-President of India.

Key Points

• Under Article 65 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President acts as the President or discharges their functions during casual vacancies in the office or during the absence of the President.
• The vacancy in the office of the President can occur due to death, resignation, removal by impeachment, or otherwise.
• As per Article 62(2), an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the President occurring by reason of death, resignation, or removal must be held as soon as possible, and in no case later than six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy.
• While officiating as the President, the Vice-President is entitled to all the powers, immunities, and privileges of the President and receives the same emoluments and allowances as the President.
• During the period when the Vice-President acts as the President, they do not perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

 Additional Information

• Succession Hierarchy:
• In the event that the offices of both the President and the Vice-President are vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or in their absence, the Senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court) shall discharge the functions of the President as per the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969.
• Justice M. Hidayatullah is the only Chief Justice of India to have served as the Acting President of India in 1969.
• Other Constitutional Authorities:
• Prime Minister of India: Appointed by the President under Article 75, the Prime Minister is the real executive authority and head of the Council of Ministers.
• Speaker of the Lok Sabha: Presides over the lower house of Parliament and is elected by its members; the Speaker does not fall in the line of presidential succession.
• Attorney General of India: Appointed under Article 76, this official is the highest law officer in the country and provides legal advice to the Union Government.

The correct answer is National Highways Authority of India.

Key Points

• The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was constituted by an Act of Parliament, specifically the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988.
• It was created to serve as the nodal agency responsible for the development, maintenance, and management of National Highways across the country.
• Although the act was passed in 1988, the organization became formally operational in February 1995.
• NHAI operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and is tasked with executing the National Highways Development Project (NHDP).
• The authority is instrumental in implementing major infrastructure initiatives like the Bharatmala Pariyojana, which aims to optimize the efficiency of freight and passenger movement across India.

 Additional Information

• Border Roads Organisation (BRO):
• Established on May 7, 1960, it works under the Ministry of Defence.
• Its primary role is to develop and maintain road networks in India’s border areas and friendly neighboring countries to support strategic defense requirements.
• Indian Roads Congress (IRC):
• Founded in December 1934, it is the apex body of highway engineers in India.
• It was set up following the Jayakar Committee recommendations to provide a forum for the exchange of ideas and to establish Standard Specifications and Codes of Practice for road and bridge engineering.
• Central Public Works Department (CPWD):
• This is the oldest construction agency of the Government of India, tracing its roots back to 1854 under Lord Dalhousie.
• It primarily handles the design, construction, and maintenance of Central Government buildings, residential complexes, and civil infrastructure.

The correct answer is Vitamin B12.

Key Points

• Vitamin B12, also referred to as Cobalamin, is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the maintenance of a healthy nervous system, DNA synthesis, and the formation of red blood cells.
• Unlike most other vitamins, Vitamin B12 is produced naturally only by certain bacteria and archaea; it is not found in plant-based foods unless they are fortified or contaminated by microbes.
• Animal tissues act as a reservoir for this vitamin because animals ingest B12-producing bacteria through their diet or possess them within their digestive tracts (rumen), leading to high concentrations in meat, liver, fish, eggs, and dairy products.
• A deficiency in this nutrient can lead to megaloblastic anemia, characterized by large, abnormally shaped red blood cells, and irreversible neurological damage.
• The absorption of Vitamin B12 in the human body requires a specific protein called Intrinsic Factor, which is secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach lining.

 Additional Information

• Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)
• Primarily sourced from citrus fruits (lemons, oranges), guavas, tomatoes, and leafy vegetables.
• Crucial for collagen production, wound healing, and acting as a powerful antioxidant.
• Vitamin A (Retinol/Beta-Carotene)
• Available in two forms: Retinol from animal sources (liver, milk) and Provitamin A from plant sources (carrots, spinach, sweet potatoes).
• Essential for night vision, epithelial tissue maintenance, and immune response.
• Vitamin D (Calciferol)
• Uniquely synthesized by the human skin when exposed to ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from sunlight.
• Found in dietary sources like fatty fish and cod liver oil, but sunlight remains the primary non-dietary source for most humans.

The correct answer is Article 75.

Key Points

• According to Article 75(1) of the Constitution of India, the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, and other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• The Prime Minister acts as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers, serving as the real executive head of the nation.
• Article 75 also mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, which is a fundamental feature of the Parliamentary form of government.
• It further stipulates that a minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister at the expiration of that period.
• The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, added a clause to this Article stating that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People.

 Additional Information

• Article 74:
• It establishes the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of their functions.
• The advice given by the Council of Ministers is generally binding on the President after the 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts.
• Article 72:
• It deals with the Pardoning Power of the President, allowing them to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
• This power extends to all cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or involves a death sentence.
• Article 77:
• This article outlines the Conduct of Business of the Government of India.
• It specifies that all executive actions of the Government shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.

The correct answer is Pushkar Fair.

Key Points

• The Pushkar Fair, locally referred to as the Kartik Mela, is an annual livestock and cultural festival held in the town of Pushkar, located in the Ajmer district of Rajasthan.
• It is globally recognized as one of the world's largest camel fairs, where thousands of camels, horses, and cattle are brought by traders from across the Thar Desert for commercial exchange.
• The event takes place during the Hindu month of Kartik, typically spanning October and November, and reaches its spiritual climax on Kartik Purnima (the full moon day).
• The fair is a significant religious pilgrimage site where devotees take a holy dip in the Pushkar Lake to seek salvation; the town also houses the rare 14th-century Brahma Temple.
• Culturally, the fair attracts international tourists with unique events such as camel races, folk music performances, dance, and vibrant handicraft stalls representing Rajasthani heritage.

 Additional Information

• Kumbh Mela:
• This is the largest religious gathering in the world, held rotationally at four locations: Prayagraj, Haridwar, Nashik, and Ujjain. It is inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage.
• Surajkund Mela:
• An International Crafts Mela held annually in Faridabad, Haryana. It serves as a platform for artisans to showcase traditional Indian handlooms and handicrafts.
• Sonepur Mela:
• Held in Bihar at the confluence of the Ganges and Gandak rivers, it is also known as the Harihar Kshetra Mela and is considered the largest cattle fair in Asia.

The correct answer is S. Shobha v. Muthoot Finance Ltd..

Key Points

• In the year 2025, the Supreme Court of India delivered a significant verdict in the case of S. Shobha v. Muthoot Finance Ltd., addressing the maintainability of writ petitions against private financial institutions.
• The court ruled that Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) and scheduled banks do not fall under the definition of State as per Article 12 of the Constitution of India.
• It was clarified that since these entities do not perform sovereign functions or public duties, they are not subject to writ jurisdiction under Article 226 for matters related to their commercial or internal operations.
• The bench emphasized that the mere fact that an entity is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not grant it a public character or make its actions subject to judicial review via extraordinary writs.
• This judgment reinforces the boundary between public law and private law, ensuring that purely contractual disputes with private lenders are settled through civil courts or arbitration rather than constitutional writs.

 Additional Information

• Federal Bank Ltd. v. Sagar Thomas:
• A landmark 2003 case where the court established that a private bank is not a State authority, and a writ cannot be issued against it regarding private employment matters.
• Zee Telefilms Ltd. v. Union of India:
• In this 2005 ruling, the court held that while the BCCI is not State under Article 12, it may be subject to Article 226 if it performs public functions that impact the fundamental rights of citizens.
• Binny Ltd. v. V. Sadasivan:
• A 2005 judgment that clarified that a writ of mandamus can only be issued against a private body if it is performing a public duty or a function with a clear public law element.

The correct answer is Dedifferentiation.

Key Points

• Dedifferentiation is the physiological process where living differentiated cells, which have already lost the capacity to divide, regain the ability to proliferate under certain conditions.
• This phenomenon is a hallmark of plant developmental plasticity, allowing mature tissues to respond to stimuli such as wounding or hormonal changes by reverting to a meristematic state.
• A classic example of dedifferentiation in plants is the formation of the interfascicular cambium and cork cambium (phellogen) from fully mature parenchyma cells during secondary growth.
• These newly formed meristems are then capable of dividing and producing new cells, which is essential for increasing the girth of dicotyledonous stems and roots.

 Additional Information

• Differentiation
• It is the process where cells derived from the apical meristems or cambium undergo permanent structural and functional changes to perform specific roles, such as the formation of tracheary elements like xylem vessels.
• Redifferentiation
• This refers to the process where cells produced by dedifferentiated tissues (like the cork cambium) lose their capacity to divide once again to become mature and specialized for a particular function, forming tissues like secondary xylem or cork.
• Senescence
• This represents the terminal developmental phase in the life of a plant or its parts, characterized by metabolic decline, chlorophyll degradation, and eventual biological death.

The correct answer is Diwali.

Key Points

• Diwali, also known as Deepavali, is a major Hindu festival celebrated across India and the world, widely recognized as the Festival of Lights.
• The term Deepavali is derived from Sanskrit, meaning a row of lighted lamps, symbolizing the spiritual victory of light over darkness and knowledge over ignorance.
• Historically, the festival commemorates the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya after spending 14 years in exile and defeating the demon king Ravana.
• It is observed during the Hindu lunisolar month of Kartika on the night of Amavasya (new moon), which is the darkest night of the month.
• The celebration involves lighting oil lamps (diyas), bursting crackers, and performing Lakshmi Puja to seek the blessings of the goddess of wealth and prosperity.

 Additional Information

• Holi:
• Known as the Festival of Colors, it marks the arrival of spring and the victory of devotee Prahlada over Holika.
• It is celebrated on the Purnima (full moon) of the month of Phalguna.
• Navratri:
• A nine-night festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Durga and her nine incarnations.
• It culminates in Dussehra (Vijayadashami), symbolizing the triumph of good over evil.
• Baisakhi:
• A prominent harvest festival celebrated primarily in Punjab, marking the Sikh New Year.
• It commemorates the formation of the Khalsa Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.

The correct answer is wind abrasion.

Key Points

• Mushroom rocks, also known as rock pedestals or Gara, are natural geological formations typically found in arid and semi-arid desert environments.
• The primary mechanism behind their formation is wind abrasion, an Aeolian process where the wind carries suspended sand particles that act like a sandblasting tool against rock surfaces.
• In a desert, the concentration of erosive sand grains is highest near the ground level (usually within 1 meter of the surface) due to the weight of the particles and the process of saltation.
• Because the wind's erosive power is significantly greater at the base than at higher altitudes, the lower part of an isolated rock mass undergoes rapid undercutting.
• This differential erosion wears away the bottom of the rock faster than the top, eventually leaving a narrow pillar supporting a broader, mushroom-shaped cap.

 Additional Information

• Volcanic activity:
• Involves the movement of magma and lava to form features like cones, craters, and basaltic plateaus rather than erosional pedestal structures.
• Water erosion:
• Driven by fluvial processes, it typically creates landforms such as v-shaped valleys, canyons, and gorges; in deserts, it may form wadis during rare flash floods.
• Glacial action:
• Occurs in high-latitude or high-altitude regions where moving ice carves the landscape into U-shaped valleys, moraines, and cirques.
• Other Aeolian Landforms:
• Besides mushroom rocks, wind erosion and deposition also create yardangs, zeugens, sand dunes (Barchans), and deflation hollows.

The correct answer is Mitochondria.

Key Points

• Mitochondria are double-membrane-bound organelles found in the cytoplasm of almost all eukaryotic cells, including animal and plant cells.
• They are widely recognized as the 'Powerhouse of the Cell' because they are the site where cellular respiration occurs to generate Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP).
• The process of aerobic respiration involves the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) occurring in the mitochondrial matrix and the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) situated on the inner membrane.
• The inner membrane is folded into cristae, which significantly increases the surface area available for chemical reactions, specifically oxidative phosphorylation, to maximize ATP production.
• In addition to energy production, mitochondria are unique because they possess their own circular DNA (mtDNA) and 70S ribosomes, allowing them to synthesize some of their own proteins and replicate semi-autonomously.

 Additional Information

• Golgi apparatus:
• Commonly known as the 'Post Office of the Cell', it consists of flattened sacs called cisternae.
• Its main function is the modification, sorting, and packaging of proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles.
• Ribosome:
• Small, non-membranous granules composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
• They are the primary sites for protein synthesis, where the translation of messenger RNA (mRNA) into polypeptide chains takes place.
• Lysosome:
• Membrane-bound vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes such as proteases, lipases, and nucleases.
• They function as the cell's waste disposal system and are often called 'Suicidal Bags' because they can digest the cell itself if the membrane ruptures during damage or cell death.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh is primarily located in the heart of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which is one of the most extensive and fertile alluvial plains in the world.
• The region is formed by the deposition of silt and sediment carried by the Ganges River, the Yamuna River, and their various tributaries such as the Ghaghara and Gandak.
• The topography is generally flat with a gentle slope from the North-West to the South-East, characterized by rich alluvial soil that supports intensive agriculture.
• The soil in this plain is categorized into Bhangar (older alluvium found in upland areas) and Khadar (newer alluvium found in floodplains), making the state the granary of India for crops like wheat and sugarcane.
• The plain is bounded by the Shiwalik Range of the Himalayas to the north and the Vindhya Range to the south.

 Additional Information

• Manipur:
• Located in Northeast India, it is largely characterized by a mountainous landscape.
• The state features the Imphal Valley surrounded by the Naga Hills and Mizo Hills.
• Goa:
• Situated on the southwestern coast of India within the Konkan region.
• Its geography consists of a coastal belt and the Western Ghats (Sahyadri range) to the east.
• Sikkim:
• A landlocked state in the Eastern Himalayas known for its rugged mountainous terrain.
• It is home to Mount Kangchenjunga, the highest peak in India and the third highest in the world.

The correct answer is Haemoglobin.

Key Points

• Haemoglobin is a complex metalloprotein found within erythrocytes (red blood cells), which gives blood its characteristic red color and is essential for aerobic respiration.
• The primary function of this pigment is to transport oxygen from the alveoli of the lungs to the body tissues and facilitate the transport of carbon dioxide (CO₂) back to the lungs.
• Each molecule of haemoglobin is composed of four globulin chains (two alpha and two beta chains), with each chain containing a heme group that houses an iron atom (Fe²⁺).
• A single haemoglobin molecule has the capacity to bind with four molecules of oxygen, forming a reversible chemical complex known as oxyhaemoglobin.
• In addition to gas transport, it acts as a critical blood buffer, maintaining the body's acid-base balance by binding to hydrogen ions.
• Statistically, haemoglobin makes up about 95% of the dry weight of a red blood cell and allows blood to carry approximately 70 times more oxygen than if it were simply dissolved in plasma.

 Additional Information

• Melanin:
• A natural pigment synthesized by melanocytes in the skin, hair, and iris.
• Its primary role is to provide photoprotection by absorbing harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation and preventing DNA damage in skin cells.
• Myoglobin:
• An oxygen-binding protein found exclusively in skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers.
• Unlike haemoglobin, it consists of a single polypeptide chain and has a higher affinity for oxygen, allowing it to store oxygen for immediate use during muscle contraction.
• Chlorophyll:
• The green pigment located in the chloroplasts of plants, algae, and some bacteria.
• It contains a magnesium ion at its center and is fundamental for photosynthesis, converting light energy into chemical energy to synthesize glucose.

The correct answer is The Constitution requires it.

Key Points

• Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution explicitly mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.
• The use of the word 'shall' in Article 74 signifies a mandatory obligation, meaning the President cannot function as an executive head without the Council of Ministers.
• The President of India is the Constitutional Head (De Jure executive), while the Council of Ministers represents the Real Executive (De Facto) power in a Parliamentary form of government.
• The Supreme Court, in the case of UNR Rao vs Indira Gandhi (1971), ruled that the Council of Ministers must always exist to advise the President, even after the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
• This requirement ensures that the Executive remains accountable to the Legislature, upholding the principles of Representative Democracy.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Amendments:
• 42nd Amendment Act (1976): This amendment explicitly stated that the President 'shall' act in accordance with the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers, making it legally binding.
• 44th Amendment Act (1978): It added a proviso that the President may require the Council to reconsider their advice, but the President must act in accordance with the advice received after such reconsideration.
• Related Articles:
• Article 75: States that the Prime Minister is appointed by the President and the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
• Article 78: Defines the Prime Minister's duty to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President.
• Parliamentary Tradition:
• While India follows the Westminster model (British tradition), the requirement for advice is a formal legal obligation codified within the written Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Vesak.

Key Points

• Vesak, also known as Buddha Purnima, is the most sacred day in the Buddhist calendar, celebrated by millions of followers globally.
• The festival commemorates three pivotal milestones in the life of Siddhartha Gautama (the Buddha): his birth in Lumbini (modern-day Nepal), his attainment of enlightenment (Bodhi) at Bodh Gaya, and his passing away (Mahaparinirvana) at Kushinagar.
• According to tradition, all three events occurred on the full moon day of the lunar month of Vaisakha, which typically falls in April or May.
• The United Nations General Assembly formally recognized Vesak in 1999 through Resolution 54/115, acknowledging the historical and spiritual contribution of Buddhism to humanity.
• During the celebration, devotees engage in Dana (charity), meditation, and the ritual of bathing the Buddha statue, symbolizing the purification of one's own mind from greed and ignorance.

 Additional Information

• Magha Puja:
• Celebrated on the full moon day of the third lunar month, it marks the spontaneous gathering of 1,250 Arahants to receive the Buddha’s teachings known as the Ovada Patimokkha.
• Asalha Puja:
• Also called Dharma Day, it commemorates the Buddha’s first sermon at the Deer Park in Sarnath, where he taught the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.
• Saga Dawa:
• This is the Tibetan Buddhist equivalent of Vesak, observed during the fourth month of the Tibetan calendar. While it covers the same three life events, it is deeply rooted in Himalayan cultures like Sikkim and Ladakh.

The correct answer is Acetic acid.

Key Points

• Under the Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act, 1954, and subsequent FSSAI regulations, preservatives are categorized into two groups: Class I and Class II.
• Class I preservatives are considered natural preservatives or common kitchen ingredients that can be added to food without a specified maximum limit, as they are generally recognized as safe.
• Acetic acid, also known in its diluted form as Vinegar, is officially classified as a Class I preservative. It effectively inhibits the growth of bacteria and fungi by lowering the pH level of the food environment.
• Other substances included in the Class I category are Common Salt (Sodium Chloride), Sugar, Dextrose, Glucose, Honey, Spices, and Edible Vegetable Oils.
• These substances are traditionally used in domestic food preservation for items like pickles, jams, and canned vegetables.

 Additional Information

• Class II Preservatives: These are synthetic or chemical preservatives that are strictly regulated, with specific limits on the parts per million (ppm) allowed in different food categories.
• Benzoic acid: A common Class II preservative used in squashes, syrups, and carbonated drinks. It is often used in the form of Sodium Benzoate.
• Sulphurous acid: Usually used as Sulphur Dioxide or Metabisulphites, this Class II preservative prevents fermentation and browning in dried fruits and fruit pulps.
• Sorbic acid: A Class II preservative, along with its Sodium or Potassium salts, used to prevent yeast and mold growth in cheese, baked goods, and wine.
• Nitrates and Nitrites: These are Class II preservatives specifically used for curing meat products to prevent Clostridium botulinum growth.