DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 11 Apr, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.

1. Only one person sits between M and S when counted from the right of M.
2. Only one person sits between S and Q.
3. Only one person sits between M and N.
4. Only two people sit between O and Q.
5. Only one person sits between P and N.

S sits third to the right of R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The given word is INFORMATION.

Alphabetical order: A, F, I, I, M, N, N, O, O, R, T

Reverse alphabetical order (Z to A): T, R, O, O, N, N, M, I, I, F, A

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

D, E, F, H, I and J live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on, till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. Only two people live between J and H.
2. Only two people live between I and F.
3. No one lives above I.
4. H lives below F but above D.

There are 3 people living below E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statement:

K > T ≤ S > D = G

Conclusions:

I: S < K → False (From the given statement, there is no definite relationship that can be established between S and K.)

II: G < S → True (Since S > D and D = G, therefore S > G, i.e., G < S.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Original Word:

Alphabetical Order:

The letters that remain at the same position are A, B, D, and M.

Therefore, the positions of four letters will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) PRATEEKSARIKAVIJENDRSURNDRBINTO (Right)

Third from the left = A

Fifth from the right = B

In the English alphabetical order: 0.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven boxes S, T, U, V, D, E, and F are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only four boxes are kept between T and D.
2. Only S is kept above T.
3. Only two boxes are kept between F and V.
4. E is kept immediately above U.
5. V is not kept immediately above E. 

Final Arrangement:

Thus, the box kept fourth from the top (at position 4) is E.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. No laptop is a desktop → Does not follow (Only some laptops are computers and no computer is a desktop. The remaining laptops may or may not be desktops. Hence, this conclusion is not definite.)

II. Some desktops are computers → Does not follow (The statement clearly says no computer is a desktop. Therefore, no desktop can be a computer.)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

‘CODE’ is coded as ‘6247’ 

‘DUMP’ is coded as ‘3528’.

Code for "D" is "2".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

On checking: C = F  K @ L * G

1. C = F - 'C = F' means 'C is the sister of F'.

2. F  K - 'F K' means 'F is the brother of K'.

3. K @ L - 'K @ L' means 'K is the wife of L'.

4. L * G - 'L * G' means 'L is the father of G'.

C is the Mother's sister of G.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given series:

(Left) 1 © % £ 8 8 @ % 4 # 1 © 3 7 6 3 % * & € 9 7 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) 1 © % £ 8 8 @ % 4 # 1 © 3 7 6 **3 % *** & € 9 7 (Right)

There are three such symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

A, B, C, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.

1. A sits to the immediate right of S.
2. Only three people sit between A and C when counted from the left of A.
3. Only three people sit between S and P.
4. B sits to the immediate right of Q.

.

Only one person sit between S and Q when counted from the right of Q.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statement:

F > R > V < C ≤ B

Conclusions:

I: V < B → True (Since V < C and C ≤ B, therefore V < B.)

II: C < F → False (Since F > R > V < C, there is no definite relation given between C and F)

Therefore, only I is true

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

A, B, C, D, M and N live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. M lives on the floor numbered 5.
2. A lives on a floor above M.
3. Only D lives below C.
4. B lives on an even numbered floor.

Thus, there are two people living below N.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only A is kept above R.
2. Only two boxes are kept between R and C.
3. Only P is kept below D.
4. B is not kept immediately above C.

Final Arrangement:

Thus, there are two boxes between Q and P.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The pattern observed is: (Sum of positional values of letters) + (Number of letters in the word).

MIND is coded as 44 →

13 + 9 + 14 + 4 = 40

Number of letters = 4

Code = 40 + 4 = 44

GROW is coded as 67 →

7 + 18 + 15 + 23 = 63

Number of letters = 4

Code = 63 + 4 = 67

Similarly,

let's find the code for POKE:

16 + 15 + 11 + 5 = 47

Number of letters = 4

Code = 47 + 4 = 51

Therefore, the code for 'POKE' is 51.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) R A Ω B % T C @ U $ K E £ G P Y # Q L * & D (Right)

Series after dropping all the symbols:

(Left) R A B T C U K E G P Y Q L D (Right)

The seventh element from the left is K.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) S & $V H$ B % N I V £ & X # U & M D £ C € (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Letter → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) S & $ V H $ B % N I V £ & X # U & M D £ C € (Right)

There are four such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Family chart:

Family tree,

Therefore, T is the Son's son of P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

‘COME’ is coded as ‘3769’  

‘DEMO’ is coded as ‘7943’.

Code for "D" is "4".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed in this pattern is a series of alphabetical shifts applied to each letter of the group.

For 'RBHI' related to 'TEJL':

For 'ZNPU' related to 'BQRX':

Applying the same logic to 'FWVD':

Thus, FWVD is related to HZXG.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First Number × 3) − Second Number = Third Number

For the first set (13, 6, 33)

⇒ (13 × 3) − 6

⇒ 39 − 6 = 33.

For the second set (12, 59, −23)

⇒ (12 × 3) − 59

⇒ 36 − 59 = −23.

Applying the same logic to the options, we check Option 3: (46, 60, 78)

⇒ (46 × 3) − 60

⇒ 138 − 60 = 78.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The option figure that will replace the question mark in the figure given below to complete the pattern,

 + 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Number: 6478921

Ascending order: 1 2 4 6 7 8 9

Original digits: 6 4 7 8 9 2 1

Sorted digits: 1 2 4 6 7 8 9

So, the count of digits whose position remains unchanged is: None.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Option 1)  RW - XC,

Option 2)  OT - VZ,

Option 3)  GL - MR,

Option 4)  EJ - KP,

Therefore, the letter-cluster pair that is different from the others is OT - VZ.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent subtraction based on the English alphabetical order.

For 'SQUT' related to 'QOSR':

For 'KIML' related to 'IGKJ':

Applying the same logic to 'ECGF':

Thus, ECGF is related to CAED.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is,

3 × 1 − 1 = 2

2 × 2 − 1 = 3

3 × 3 − 1 = 8

8 × 4 − 1 = 31

31 × 5 − 1 = 154

Thus, the missing term in the series is 154.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4';

Logic followed here is,

19 + 12 = 31

31 + 12 = 43

43 + 12 = 55

55 + 12 = 67

67 + 12 = 79

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

79 + 8 = 87

87 + 9 = 96

96 + 10 = 106

106 + 11 = 117

117 + 12 = 129

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed in this pattern is a series of alphabetical shifts based on the positional values of the letters.

For 'LKAE' related to 'OPXZ':

For 'TIMR' related to 'WNJM':

Applying the same logic to 'PLEO' to find the related pair:

Thus, PLEO is related to SQBJ following the +3, +5, −3, −5 pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 3) + 2

Given: X : 59 :: 16 : Y

(1) X = 19, Y = 50 → 19 : 59 :: 16 : 50

19 × 3 + 2 = 57 + 2 = 59

16 × 3 + 2 = 48 + 2 = 50

(2) X = 18, Y = 51 → 18 : 59 :: 16 : 51

18 × 3 + 2 = 54 + 2 = 56 ≠ 59

16 × 3 + 3 = 48 + 3 = 51

(3) X = 19, Y = 51 → 19 : 59 :: 16 : 51

19 × 3 + 2 = 57 + 2 = 59

16 × 3 + 2 = 48 + 2 = 50 ≠ 51

(4) X = 18, Y = 49 → 18 : 59 :: 16 : 49

18 × 3 + 2 = 54 + 2 = 56 ≠ 59

16 × 3 + 2 = 48 + 2 = 50 ≠ 49

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic: Second Number = First Number × 11

Given: X : 154 :: 17 : Y

(1) X = 14, Y = 187 → 14 : 154 :: 17 : 187

14 × 11 = 154

17 × 11 = 187

(2) X = 13, Y = 190 → 13 : 154 :: 17 : 190

13 × 11 = 143 ≠ 154

17 × 11 = 187 ≠ 190

(3) X = 13, Y = 187 → 13 : 154 :: 17 : 187

13 × 11 = 143 ≠ 154

17 × 11 = 187

(4) X = 14, Y = 170 → 14 : 154 :: 17 : 170

14 × 11 = 154

17 × 11 = 187 ≠ 170

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 3 R 2 Q 18 P 3 S 17 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 3 × 2 + 18 ÷ 3 - 17 = ?

⇒ 3 × 2 + 18 ÷ 3 - 17 = ?

⇒ 6 + 18 ÷ 3 - 17 = ?

⇒ 6 + 6 - 17 = ?

⇒ 6 + 6 - 17 = ?

⇒ 12 - 17 = ?

⇒ -5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 50 + 34 - 23 ÷ 13 × 13 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 50 - 34 + 23 × 13 ÷ 13 = ?

⇒ 50 - 34 + 23 × 13 ÷ 13 = ?

⇒ 50 - 34 + 299 ÷ 13 = ?

⇒ 50 - 34 + 23 = ?

⇒ 50 - 34 + 23 = ?

⇒ 16 + 23 = ?

⇒ 39.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: (left) 7 6 3 2 8 4 6 (right)

Applying the given condition (subtract 2 from each odd digit and add 1 to each even digit):

→ (left) 5 7 1 3 9 5 7 (right)

The digit second from the left is: 7 

The digit second from the right is: 5 

Sum:  7 + 5 = 12.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. Some ribbons are squares → Does not follow (There is no definite relation given between ribbons and squares. Ribbons may or may not be squares.)

II. All squares are trains → Does not follow (The statement says All trains are squares, but it cannot be reversed to conclude that all squares are trains.)

Hence, neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 69 A 3 C (98 A 2) B 4 D 8 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 69 ÷ 3 + (98 ÷ 2) × 4 - 8 = ?

⇒ 69 ÷ 3 + (98 ÷ 2) × 4 - 8 = ?

⇒ 69 ÷ 3 + 49 × 4 - 8 = ?

⇒ 69 ÷ 3 + 196 - 8 = ?

⇒ 23 + 196 - 8 = ?

⇒ 23 + 188 = ?

⇒ 211.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is RackBank Datacenters.

Key Points

• The investment by RackBank Datacenters has led to the landmark establishment of India's first Artificial Intelligence Special Economic Zone (AI SEZ), marking a pivotal shift in the country's technological infrastructure.
• This AI SEZ is strategically located in Nava Raipur (Atal Nagar), Chhattisgarh, which was chosen for its advanced Smart City planning and the state's capacity to provide consistent, low-cost power.
• Announced in June 2025, the project aims to create a dedicated ecosystem for High-Performance Computing (HPC), Machine Learning, and the development of Generative AI models.
• The facility is designed to serve as a global hub for tech companies, providing them with specialized data center infrastructure that is optimized for AI workloads and big data analytics.
• This initiative significantly supports the Digital India vision and aligns with the Chhattisgarh State IT Policy, which incentivizes investments in the IT and ITeS sectors to boost regional economic growth.

 Additional Information

• RackBank Datacenters:
• It is a prominent data center service provider in India, specializing in carbon-neutral computing and sustainable digital infrastructure.
• The company focuses on managed hosting, colocation, and cloud services, catering to startups and large enterprises requiring massive computational power.
• Microsoft India:
• A subsidiary of the global tech leader Microsoft, it is heavily involved in Azure Cloud services and has established several Data Center Regions across India, including Pune and Chennai.
• Infosys and Wipro Limited:
• Both are tier-1 Indian IT multinational corporations that focus on software development, business consulting, and digital transformation services globally.
• While they utilize AI for service delivery, they are primarily service integrators rather than specialized AI SEZ infrastructure developers.

The correct answer is Fifth five-year plan.

Key Points

• The Fifth Five-Year Plan, which operated from 1974 to 1978, was primarily focused on the removal of poverty, popularly known as 'Garibi Hatao', and the attainment of self-reliance.
• It was drafted by D.P. Dhar and aimed to increase the standard of living for the common man by emphasizing employment generation and social justice.
• A significant milestone of this plan was the launch of the Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) in 1974, which aimed to provide basic requirements like rural health, drinking water, and elementary education.
• The Twenty Point Programme was also launched in 1975 under the leadership of Indira Gandhi to address various socio-economic issues during this plan period.
• The plan was eventually terminated one year ahead of its original 1979 deadline by the Janata Party government in 1978, which replaced it with the Rolling Plan.

 Additional Information

• First Five-Year Plan (1951−1956):
• Based on the Harrod-Domar model, it focused heavily on the agricultural sector and the construction of massive irrigation projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam.
• Third Five-Year Plan (1961−1966):
• Known as the Gadgil Yojana, its core objective was to make the Indian economy independent and reach a self-generating state, though it suffered due to the Sino-Indian War and the Indo-Pak War.
• Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997−2002):
• This plan prioritized Growth with Social Justice and Equality, focusing on rural development, food security, and empowerment of women and disadvantaged groups.

The correct answer is Manu Bhaker.

Key Points

• Manu Bhaker, a prominent Indian sports shooter, was conferred with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in January 2026 in recognition of her historic achievements in the field of Shooting.
• Her selection for Indias highest sporting honor followed a stellar performance at the Paris 2024 Olympics, where she became the first Indian athlete in the post-independence era to win two medals in a single edition of the Olympic Games.
• She secured a bronze medal in the womens 10m air pistol event and another bronze in the mixed team 10m air pistol event alongside Sarabjot Singh.
• The National Sports Awards committee recommended her name due to her consistent excellence at international stages, including the ISSF World Cup and the Asian Games, reflecting her status as a global icon in shooting.
• The award, typically presented by the President of India at Rashtrapati Bhavan, recognizes spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years.

 Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• It was formerly known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award and was renamed in August 2021 to honor the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• The award includes a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of 25 lakh rupees.
• Other Distinguished Athletes:
• Antim Panghal: A highly accomplished Indian wrestler from Haryana, known for being the first Indian woman to win back-to-back gold medals at the World U20 Wrestling Championships.
• Harmanpreet Singh: The captain of the Indian mens hockey team and a celebrated drag-flicker, who played a pivotal role in Indias bronze medal victories at the Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024 Olympics.
• Nikhat Zareen: A world-renowned boxer from Telangana who has won multiple gold medals at the IBA Womens World Boxing Championships in the flyweight category.

The correct answer is Net Factor Income from Abroad.

Key Points

• Net Domestic Product (NDP) is an estimate of the value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a country during a specific period, after deducting the value of Depreciation on fixed assets.
• Net National Product (NNP) is a broader measure that considers the total value of goods and services produced by the normal residents (citizens) of a country, regardless of whether they are located domestically or abroad.
• The core difference between the Domestic and National aggregates of national income is the Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
• Net Factor Income from Abroad is defined as the difference between the Factor Income earned from the rest of the world by national residents and the Factor Income paid to non-residents within the domestic economy.
• The relationship is expressed by the formula: NNP = NDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad. If the NFIA is negative (i.e., payments to the rest of the world exceed receipts), the NNP will be lower than the NDP.

 Additional Information

• Depreciation:
• It is also known as the Consumption of Fixed Capital. It represents the monetary value of an asset that is consumed over time due to use, wear and tear, or obsolescence.
• Adding depreciation to NDP converts it back into Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• Net Indirect Taxes (NIT):
• This refers to the difference between Indirect Taxes (such as GST or excise duty) and Subsidies provided by the government.
• NIT is used to convert Factor Cost (the cost of production) into Market Price. For example, NNP at Market Price = NNP at Factor Cost + Net Indirect Taxes.
• Subsidies:
• These are financial grants or transfer payments provided by the government to producers to keep the prices of essential goods low or to encourage domestic production.
• In accounting, subsidies are subtracted from Indirect Taxes to determine the net tax burden on the economy.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement inspired by Mahatma Gandhi and a major revolt in the Indian Independence Movement.
• It took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, where farmers were forced by British planters to grow Indigo under extremely oppressive conditions.
• The movement was primarily directed against the Tinkathia system, which legally compelled tenant farmers to plant indigo on 3/20th of their total land holding.
• Raj Kumar Shukla, a local peasant leader, traveled to meet Gandhi and persistently requested him to visit Bihar to address the grievances of the indigo cultivators.
• This movement marked the first time Mahatma Gandhi used the tool of Civil Disobedience in India, leading to his arrest and subsequent release after mass protests.
• Following the agitation, the Champaran Agrarian Committee was formed with Mahatma Gandhi as one of its members to investigate the condition of the peasants.

 Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi's Early Activism:
• Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on January 9, 1915. This date is now commemorated as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
• Before Champaran, he spent a year traveling across British India on the advice of Gopal Krishna Gokhale to understand the political and social climate.
• Legislative Impact:
• The struggle resulted in the passage of the Champaran Agrarian Act in 1918, which abolished the Tinkathia system and refunded part of the illegal dues collected from the farmers.
• Associated Leaders:
• The movement saw the emergence of future national leaders such as Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha, Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadev Desai, and J.B. Kripalani.
• Subsequent Satyagrahas:
• Following the success in Bihar, Gandhi led the Ahmedabad Mill Strike (his first hunger strike) and the Kheda Satyagraha (his first non-cooperation movement) in 1918.

The correct answer is Total payments to factors of production.

Key Points

• Factor Cost refers to the total cost of all resources used in the production of goods and services, representing the actual income received by the factors of production.
• It encompasses the payments made to the four primary factors: Land (Rent), Labour (Wages and Salaries), Capital (Interest), and Entrepreneurship (Profit).
• In National Income Accounting, the Net National Product (NNP) at Factor Cost is formally defined as the National Income of a country.
• Factor Cost is calculated by subtracting Net Indirect Taxes (Indirect Taxes − Subsidies) from the Market Price.
• This measure is crucial as it reflects the production efficiency and the distribution of income among different stakeholders without the distortion of government interventions like taxes or subsidies.

 Additional Information

• Market Price:
• This is the price at which goods and services are sold to consumers in the marketplace, including Indirect Taxes (like GST) and excluding Subsidies.
• Depreciation:
• Also known as the Consumption of Fixed Capital, it refers to the loss in value of fixed assets over time; subtracting it from Gross Domestic Product (GDP) results in Net Domestic Product (NDP).
• Net Indirect Taxes (NIT):
• This is the difference between Indirect Taxes paid to the government and Subsidies received from the government; it serves as the bridge between Factor Cost and Market Price valuations.

The correct answer is Gross Domestic Product at factor cost.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost (GDP_FC) refers to the total value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country, valued at the cost of factors of production such as land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship.
• The Market Price (MP) of a commodity includes Indirect Taxes (like GST or Excise Duty) which are paid to the government, and excludes Subsidies (financial aid) which are provided by the government to reduce production costs.
• To convert GDP at market price (GDP_MP) to Factor Cost, we subtract Indirect Taxes because they do not form part of the factor income and add Subsidies because they represent a part of the factor cost not covered by the market price.
• The difference between Indirect Taxes and Subsidies is known as Net Indirect Taxes (NIT). Therefore, the formula is expressed as: GDP_FC = GDP_MP − Indirect Taxes + Subsidies or simply GDP_FC = GDP_MP − NIT.
• In National Income Accounting, this adjustment ensures that the aggregate reflects the actual income generated by the productive factors during the production process without the distortion of government taxes and grants.

 Additional Information

• Net National Product (NNP):
• It is calculated by subtracting Depreciation (consumption of fixed capital) from Gross National Product (GNP).
• NNP at factor cost is the official measure of National Income for a country.
• Personal Income:
• This represents the total income actually received by individuals from all sources, including transfer payments such as pensions and unemployment benefits.
• It is calculated by subtracting Corporate Taxes and Undistributed Profits from National Income and adding transfer payments.
• Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_MP):
• It represents the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given year, inclusive of all Product Taxes and minus Product Subsidies.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• In January 2025, the state of Kerala achieved a unique milestone by becoming the first Indian state to officially designate a State Microbe.
• The microorganism chosen for this honor is Lactobacillus plantarum, a species of Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) that is integral to various ecological and biological processes.
• The proposal was initiated by the Kerala State Biodiversity Board (KSBB) and subsequently approved by the State Cabinet to recognize the importance of microorganisms in maintaining environmental balance and human health.
• This declaration is part of a broader effort to promote scientific literacy and awareness regarding the role of beneficial microbes in agriculture, food security, and medicine.
• By naming a state microbe, Kerala joins a select group of global regions that have recognized non-animal and non-plant species as official symbols, emphasizing a holistic view of biodiversity.

 Additional Information

• Lactobacillus plantarum:
• It is a Gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacterium commonly found in the human gastrointestinal tract and various fermented plant materials.
• In the context of Kerala’s culture, this microbe is essential for the fermentation of traditional food items like Idli, Dosa, and Appam, enhancing their nutritional value and digestibility.
• It is widely recognized as a probiotic, offering health benefits such as improved gut health, enhanced immunity, and the prevention of pathogenic infections.
• Other State Symbols of Kerala:
• State Animal: Indian Elephant (Elephas maximus indicus).
• State Bird: Great Hornbill (Buceros bicornis).
• State Tree: Coconut Tree (Cocos nucifera).
• State Flower: Kanikkonna (Cassia fistula).
• State Fruit: Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus).
• The move reflects a growing trend in India where states designate unique symbols to highlight specific conservation needs, such as Sikkim declaring the Copper Mahseer as its state fish.

The correct answer is The Surat Session leading to the split in the Congress.

Key Points

• The Surat Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) held in 1907 is famously known as the Surat Split, marking a significant turning point in the Indian national movement.
• The primary conflict occurred between two wings: the Moderates, led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Pherozeshah Mehta, and the Extremists, led by the Lal-Bal-Pal trio (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal).
• Ideological differences regarding the Swadeshi and Boycott movements were the core cause; Extremists wanted to extend these movements across India, while Moderates wanted to restrict them to Bengal.
• Disputes also arose over the choice of the President for the session; the Extremists proposed Lala Lajpat Rai or Tilak, whereas the Moderates successfully supported Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh.
• The session, held on the banks of the Tapti River, ended in chaos and physical altercations, leading to the expulsion of the Extremist group from the Congress for nearly a decade.
• Following the split, the British Government took advantage of the divided leadership to suppress the nationalist movement through various repressive laws.

 Additional Information

• Calcutta Session (1906):
• Presided over by the Grand Old Man of India, Dadabhai Naoroji.
• This session temporarily averted the split by adopting four major resolutions: Swaraj (Self-government), Boycott, Swadeshi, and National Education.
• Lucknow Session (1916):
• Famous for the Lucknow Pact, an agreement between the INC and the All India Muslim League to pressure the British for political reforms.
• It also marked the reunion of the Moderates and Extremists within the Congress party.
• Lahore Session (1929):
• Presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, where the historic resolution for Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) was passed.
• The Tricolor flag was hoisted on the banks of the Ravi River on December 31, 1929.

The correct answer is Structural unemployment.

Key Points

• Structural unemployment is a long-term form of unemployment caused by fundamental shifts in an economy, leading to a significant mismatch between the skills workers possess and the skills required by employers.
• One primary cause is technological advancement, where automation or new software replaces manual labor or older technical processes, rendering specific worker certifications or experiences obsolete.
• It can also be triggered by globalization, where industries migrate to countries with lower labor costs, leaving the local workforce in the original location without relevant employment opportunities.
• Unlike other types of unemployment, structural issues cannot be solved simply by economic growth; they often require institutional intervention, such as vocational re-training or educational reforms to align the labor supply with modern industrial needs.
• This phenomenon is often observed during a transition from a manufacturing-based economy to a service-oriented or technology-driven economy.

 Additional Information

• Frictional Unemployment
• Refers to the time period when workers are searching for jobs or transitioning from one position to another.
• It is generally voluntary and considered a sign of a healthy labor market where individuals seek better-matching roles.
• Cyclical Unemployment
• Directly tied to the business cycle; it rises during economic recessions and falls during periods of expansion.
• Occurs when there is a drop in aggregate demand, leading companies to reduce their workforce to cut costs.
• Seasonal Unemployment
• Occurs when industries have peak and off-peak periods throughout the year.
• Commonly seen in sectors like agriculture (harvesting periods), tourism (holiday seasons), and construction (weather-dependent).

The correct answer is Granting of Dominion Status to India.

Key Points

• The British Government agreed to allow residents of coastal villages to collect or manufacture salt for their personal consumption and for sale in their immediate neighborhoods, providing relief from the stringent Salt Act. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The pact mandated the immediate release of political prisoners who had been arrested during the movement, provided they were not charged with any acts of violence or incitement to rebellion. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The agreement did not include the Granting of Dominion Status to India; although the INC demanded it, the pact only provided for participation in the Second Round Table Conference to discuss constitutional reforms with safeguards. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• As a core condition of the pact, the Indian National Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and halt all forms of protest against the British administration. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, also known as the 'Delhi Pact', was signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma Gandhi and the Viceroy, Lord Irwin.
• Civil Disobedience Movement:
• It was initiated in 1930 with the historic Dandi March to protest the British monopoly on salt.
• The movement saw widespread participation across India, leading to the arrest of thousands of leaders and activists.
• Karachi Session of 1931:
• Presided over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, this session formally ratified the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
• It was notable for adopting resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme, shaping the future vision of independent India.
• Limitations:
• The British government refused to commute the death sentences of revolutionaries Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru, a major point of criticism against the pact.
• Gandhi attended the Second Round Table Conference in London later in 1931, but it ended without a resolution on India's constitutional future.

The correct answer is DRDO.

Key Points

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a major milestone in 2025 by successfully conducting the maiden flight-tests of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS).
• The IADWS is an indigenous, multi-layered defensive framework designed to protect vital assets from diverse aerial threats, including supersonic cruise missiles, tactical ballistic missiles, and low-radar-cross-section targets.
• The system features advanced Network-Centric Warfare capabilities, allowing it to integrate data from multiple ground-based radars, airborne early warning systems, and satellite sensors to provide a unified Common Operational Picture.
• During the flight trials, the system demonstrated its high-kill probability by successfully intercepting high-speed targets at various altitudes using its sophisticated Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) Radar and dual-pulse rocket motors.
• This development is a critical step under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, reducing India's dependency on foreign air defence platforms like the S-400 or NASAMS by providing a locally developed command and control architecture.
• The DRDO collaborated with several Indian private sector partners and DPSUs to develop the complex missile seekers and proximity fuzes essential for the system's effectiveness in contested environments.

 Additional Information

• ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation):
• Primarily responsible for the civilian space programme, including the development of PSLV and GSLV launch vehicles.
• Headquartered in Bengaluru, it focuses on space exploration, satellite communication, and missions like Gaganyaan.
• HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited):
• A premier aerospace and defence company that manufactures fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters for the Indian Air Force.
• Key projects include the Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), Prachand Light Combat Helicopter (LCH), and HTT-40 trainer aircraft.
• BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre):
• India's lead nuclear research facility located in Trombay, Mumbai, operating under the Department of Atomic Energy.
• It conducts extensive research in nuclear physics, radio-isotopes, and nuclear reactor design for power and strategic purposes.

The correct answer is Kepler Aerospace.

Key Points

• In June 2025, the Indian startup Kepler Aerospace achieved a milestone by signing a 4 million dollar contract under the iDEX Prime framework.
• The primary objective of this contract is to design and build a six-satellite ISR (Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance) swarm constellation to serve the strategic needs of the Defence Space Agency (DSA).
• A swarm constellation utilizes multiple small satellites working in coordination, ensuring higher redundancy, faster revisit times, and more comprehensive coverage compared to traditional large satellites.
• The Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities provided by this constellation will assist the Indian Armed Forces in monitoring border security, maritime activities, and strategic infrastructure.
• The project was facilitated through the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) program, which aims to bridge the gap between military requirements and startup innovation.

 Additional Information

• iDEX Prime:
• It is an upgraded version of the iDEX initiative launched to support startups that require higher funding, specifically between 1.5 Crores and 10 Crores, for capital-intensive defense projects.
• The initiative is managed by the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO) under the Ministry of Defence.
• Defence Space Agency (DSA):
• Headquartered in Bengaluru, this tri-service agency is responsible for managing and coordinating India’s military space assets.
• It operates under the Integrated Defence Staff and works closely with ISRO and DRDO to enhance space-based situational awareness.
• Other Entities:
• Bellatrix Aerospace: A private Indian aerospace manufacturer known for its work on electric propulsion systems and orbital transfer vehicles.
• Agnikul Cosmos: A startup focused on building small-lift launch vehicles, notably the Agnibaan rocket.
• Dhruva Space: A space-tech company specializing in satellite platforms and launch services for commercial and defense applications.

The correct answer is Jaipur.

Key Points

• The city of Jaipur served as the host for a prominent round of the HCL India Squash Tour, which took place from August 4 to 8, 2025.
• The tournament was held at the Jaipur Club in Rajasthan, marking it as a key destination for professional squash in the country.
• The event featured a diverse lineup of over 50 professional players coming from various nations, including Egypt, Malaysia, France, Japan, and host nation India.
• It was sanctioned by the Professional Squash Association (PSA) as part of the PSA Challenger Tour, which allows players to earn critical world ranking points.
• The HCL India Squash Tour is a multi-city initiative designed to provide a platform for domestic talent to compete against international athletes on home soil.
• The prize pool for this specific leg was set at $6,000 for both the Men’s and Women’s categories, ensuring equal opportunity and competitive intensity.

 Additional Information

• HCL and Squash Promotion:
• HCL has been a major corporate sponsor of squash in India since 2016, partnering with the Squash Rackets Federation of India (SRFI).
• The HCL Squash Strategy focuses on the Podium Program, which identifies and nurtures young talent to represent India at the Asian Games and Commonwealth Games.
• Squash Rackets Federation of India (SRFI):
• The SRFI is the national governing body for the sport, headquartered in Chennai.
• It oversees the National Squash Championships and coordinates with the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports for athlete development.
• Global Context:
• The inclusion of squash in the Los Angeles 2028 Olympic Games has led to increased investment and frequency of PSA events in India to improve the national medal outlook.

The correct answer is Archery Premier League.

Key Points

• The Archery Premier League (APL) was honored with the Emerging Professional Sports Event of the Year award at the India Sports Awards 2025, recognizing its rapid growth and professional execution.
• The award highlights the league's success in popularizing a non-mainstream sport by introducing a franchise-based model that attracts corporate sponsorships and national television coverage.
• The selection panel, often comprising experts from FICCI and the sporting fraternity, lauded the APL for its innovative match formats and its role in identifying domestic talent for international competitions like the World Cup and Olympics.
• By providing a structured platform and financial security to archers, the league has significantly contributed to the sports economy and the professionalization of niche athletic disciplines in India.

 Additional Information

• Pro Kabaddi League (PKL):
• Launched in 2014, it is the pioneer in professionalizing Kabaddi, becoming India's second most-watched sports league.
• It is managed by Mashal Sports and has fundamentally changed the physical infrastructure and training standards for the sport.
• Indian Super League (ISL):
• Established in 2013, it is the top-tier professional football league in India, sanctioned by the All India Football Federation (AIFF).
• The league features city-based franchises and has been instrumental in improving the grassroots football ecosystem and global scouting.
• Indian Premier League (IPL):
• Founded by the BCCI in 2008, it is the world's premier T20 cricket league and a decacorn in terms of valuation.
• It serves as the gold standard for sports broadcasting and commercial success in the global sporting arena.

The correct answer is Stupa, the relic monument.

Key Points

• The term Stupa is derived from the Sanskrit word meaning 'heap' or 'mound'. It is a hemispherical structure that serves as a focal point for Buddhist veneration and meditation.
• The primary function of a Stupa is to act as a reliquary, enshrining the Sarira (physical remains/ashes) or personal belongings of Gautama Buddha or eminent Arhats (disciples).
• Structurally, it consists of the Anda (a solid dome), a Harmika (a square railing representing the abode of gods), and a Yashti (central pillar) supporting the Chattra or triple umbrella.
• The architecture symbolizes the Parinirvana of the Buddha. Pilgrims perform Pradakshina (circumambulation) around the Medhi (elevated circular path) to show respect.
• According to historical texts like the Ashokavadana, the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka redistributed the original relics of Buddha into 84,000 stupas across the Indian subcontinent during the 3rd century BCE.

 Additional Information

• Chaitya
• These are prayer halls or assembly shrines designed for congregational worship.
• They are characterized by an apsidal (U-shaped) plan and often contain a small votive stupa at the far end.
• Famous examples include the rock-cut caves at Karle, Bhaja, and Ajanta.
• Vihara
• These functioned as the monasteries or residential quarters for Buddhist monks (Bhikkhus).
• Architecturally, they comprise a central hall surrounded by small dormitory cells for living and study.
• They were essential during the Varshavasa (rainy season retreat) when monks ceased their wandering.
• Torana
• These are elaborate ceremonial gateways located at the four cardinal points of a Stupa complex.
• The Sanchi Stupa features famous Toranas decorated with detailed relief carvings of Jataka stories (previous births of Buddha) and historical scenes.
• They represent the transition from wood-based architecture to permanent stone masonry.

The correct answer is Sir Michael O'Dwyer.

Key Points

• Sir Michael O'Dwyer served as the Lieutenant Governor of Punjab from 1913 to 1919, a period marked by intense political unrest in India.
• On 13 April 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in Amritsar when troops under Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer fired upon a crowd gathered to celebrate Baisakhi and protest the Rowlatt Act.
• O'Dwyer endorsed General Dyer's actions, stating that his decision was correct and approved by the provincial government, which led to widespread condemnation by Indian nationalists.
• The massacre resulted in the deaths of hundreds of civilians; official British figures claimed 379 deaths, while the Indian National Congress estimated over 1,000 casualties.
• As an act of retribution for the massacre, the Indian revolutionary Udham Singh assassinated Michael O'Dwyer at Caxton Hall in London on 13 March 1940.

 Additional Information

• Sir Geoffrey de Montmorency:
• He was a British colonial administrator who served as the Governor of Punjab later, from 1928 to 1933.
• Sir Louis Dane:
• He held the office of Lieutenant Governor of Punjab from 1908 to 1913, preceding O'Dwyer's term.
• He is known for his role in the Dane-Habibullah Treaty of 1905 with Afghanistan.
• Hunter Commission:
• Established in October 1919, this committee was formed to investigate the disturbances in Punjab, eventually censuring General Dyer for his actions but not O'Dwyer.
• Rowlatt Act (1919):
• Formally the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, it empowered the government to detain individuals without trial, sparking the protests that culminated in the tragedy at Amritsar.

The correct answer is Demand for Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence).

Key Points

• The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) held in December 1929 is a landmark event where the demand for Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence was officially adopted as the goal of the freedom struggle.
• The session was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, whose presidency reflected the rising influence of younger, socialist-leaning leaders who were dissatisfied with the previous goal of Dominion Status.
• On the midnight of December 31, 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the newly adopted Tricolour flag of Indian independence on the banks of the Ravi River amidst chants of 'Inquilab Zindabad'.
• A resolution was passed stating that it was a crime against man and God to submit to British rule any longer, and the Congress Working Committee was authorized to launch a program of Civil Disobedience.
• The session fixed January 26, 1930, as the day when the first Independence Day would be celebrated across the country, with citizens taking a solemn pledge to achieve absolute sovereignty.

 Additional Information

• Dominion Status:
• This was the primary demand in the Nehru Report (1928), which suggested India remain under the British monarch as a self-governing entity similar to Canada.
• The 1929 session formally rejected this objective after the British government failed to respond to a one-year ultimatum for its implementation.
• Civil Disobedience Movement:
• Following the Purna Swaraj declaration, Mahatma Gandhi initiated the movement with the Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha) in March 1930.
• The movement involved the breach of salt laws, non-payment of taxes, and the boycott of foreign cloth and liquor.
• January 26 Significance:
• Because January 26 was the date for the original Independence Day pledge in 1930, it was later chosen as the date for the formal adoption of the Constitution of India in 1950, making it Republic Day.

The correct answer is Wings India 2026.

Key Points

• Wings India 2026 is recognized as Asia's largest event on civil aviation, encompassing commercial, general, and business aviation sectors.
• The event was organized at the Begumpet Airport in Hyderabad, which has historically been the primary venue for this biennial international exhibition and conference.
• It was jointly spearheaded by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA), Government of India, and the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI).
• The summit serves as a critical forum for global aviation leaders, policy makers, and stakeholders to discuss regional connectivity, sustainability, and the next generation of air travel technology.
• The 2026 edition specifically focused on India's trajectory toward becoming the global aviation hub, showcasing advancements in aircraft manufacturing and Maintenance, Repair, and Overhaul (MRO) facilities under the Make in India initiative.

 Additional Information

• Aero India:
• This is a separate premier military and defense aviation exhibition held biennially at the Yelahanka Air Force Station in Bengaluru.
• It focuses primarily on aerospace defense equipment and fighter jets rather than civil aviation.
• Aviation Market Statistics:
• India is currently the third-largest domestic aviation market in the world, following the USA and China.
• The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagarik) scheme has been instrumental in operationalizing over 500 routes, connecting underserved and unserved airports across the country.
• Begumpet Airport:
• Established in the 1930s, it was the main airport for Hyderabad until 2008 when the Rajiv Gandhi International Airport was inaugurated.
• It currently functions as a training base and a host for major air shows due to its central location.

The correct answer is 2003-2004.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the formation of the Working Group on Development Financial Institutions during the Mid-term Review of the Monetary and Credit Policy for the financial year 2003-2004.
• The group was chaired by Shri N. Sadasivan, the former Executive Director of the RBI, and was tasked with evaluating the operational framework of Development Financial Institutions (DFIs) in India.
• The primary mandate of the Sadasivan Committee was to review the existing business models of DFIs and provide a roadmap for their future, specifically focusing on their transition into Universal Banks or Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
• The announcement came at a time when the distinction between long-term lending institutions and commercial banks was blurring due to financial sector reforms and the introduction of Universal Banking norms.

 Additional Information

• Development Financial Institutions (DFIs):
• DFIs like IDBI, ICICI, and IFCI were established to provide long-term credit to capital-intensive sectors such as industry and infrastructure where commercial banks were initially hesitant to lend.
• The Narasimham Committee II (1998) and the Khan Working Group (1998) had previously suggested the move toward Universal Banking, which paved the way for the Sadasivan Group's specialized review.
• Universal Banking Concept:
• This refers to a financial system where institutions provide a comprehensive suite of services, including commercial banking, investment banking, and insurance, under a single corporate umbrella.
• Following these institutional reviews, major DFIs such as ICICI and IDBI merged with their banking subsidiaries or converted into full-fledged commercial banks to access lower-cost retail deposits.
• Regulatory Shift:
• The Sadasivan Committee recommendations emphasized that DFIs failing to convert into banks should be regulated strictly as NBFCs to ensure financial stability and level playing fields in the credit market.

The correct answer is It represents the presence of the Buddha’s enlightened consciousness and serves as a focal point for meditation on impermanence and liberation.

Key Points

• The garbha, which literally translates to 'womb' or 'container', constitutes the innermost core of the Stupa, housing the Sarira (sacred relics) of the Buddha or his prominent disciples.
• In early Buddhist architectural tradition, the stupa is considered a living monument; the relic chamber signifies the abiding presence of the Buddha’s Dharma even after his Parinirvana.
• The chamber serves as the axis mundi (cosmic axis) of the structure, aligning the practitioner’s meditative path with the transcendental reality of Enlightenment.
• Unlike traditional burial mounds, the Stupa is designed to facilitate Pradakshina (circumambulation), helping devotees reflect on Anicca (impermanence) and the cyclic nature of existence (Samsara).
• The symbolism of the garbha aligns with the concept of Shunyata (emptiness) and the unconditioned state, serving as a metaphysical bridge to Moksha or Nirvana.

 Additional Information

• Stupa Components and Philosophy:
• Harmika: The square railing atop the mound representing the heavens or the residence of the gods.
• Yashti and Chhatra: The central pillar and umbrella-like discs symbolizing the Three Jewels (Buddha, Dharma, Sangha) and spiritual sovereignty.
• Toranas: Elaborately carved gateways representing the cardinal directions and narrating Jataka tales.
• Conceptual Clarifications:
• Royal Tomb: While inspired by ancient mounds for Chakravartin (universal) kings, the Buddhist stupa evolved into a symbol of spiritual conquest rather than political authority.
• Permanent Divine Soul: Buddhism fundamentally rejects the Atman (permanent soul) theory, making the garbha a symbol of Consciousness and Truth rather than an eternal ego.
• Vedic Fire Altar: Early Buddhism moved away from Brahmanical rituals involving fire sacrifice (Yajna), focusing instead on internal discipline and compassion.

The correct answer is Article 105.

Key Points

• Article 105 of the Constitution of India defines the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, its members, and its committees.
• The article explicitly provides for freedom of speech within the Parliament, ensuring that no member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in the House.
• It further clarifies that no person shall be liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House of Parliament of any report, paper, votes, or proceedings.
• These privileges are also extended to individuals who, by virtue of the Constitution, have the right to speak in and otherwise take part in the proceedings of a House or any committee thereof, such as the Attorney General of India and Union Ministers.
• Historically, until defined by Parliament by law, these privileges were to be the same as those of the House of Commons of the Parliament of the United Kingdom as of January 26, 1950.

 Additional Information

• Article 110:
• This article provides the definition of a Money Bill.
• A bill is deemed a Money Bill if it contains provisions only dealing with taxation, government borrowing, or expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Article 112:
• It pertains to the Annual Financial Statement, commonly known as the Union Budget.
• It requires the President to lay before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for every financial year.
• Article 118:
• This article empowers each House of Parliament to make rules for regulating its procedure and the conduct of its business.
• It also deals with the joint sittings of the two Houses and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presiding over such sittings.

The correct answer is Article 20.

Key Points

• Article 20 of the Constitution of India is a fundamental right that provides protection to individuals (both citizens and foreigners) in respect of conviction for offences.
• The prohibition of the duplicity of punishment is specifically enshrined in Article 20(2), which incorporates the doctrine of Double Jeopardy. This clause states that 'no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.'
• The doctrine of Double Jeopardy is based on the legal maxim Nemo debet bis vexari, which means no man should be put in peril twice for the same offence.
• Apart from double jeopardy, Article 20(1) provides protection against Ex-post facto laws, ensuring that laws cannot be applied retrospectively to punish an act that was not a crime when committed.
• Article 20(3) grants the Right against self-incrimination, stating that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
• These protections are so fundamental that Article 20 (along with Article 21) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency as per the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

 Additional Information

• Article 19:
• Guarantees six democratic freedoms to citizens: speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• Article 21:
• Declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. It has the widest scope among fundamental rights.
• Article 22:
• Provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to legal counsel.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• Slash and burn agriculture is a primitive subsistence farming method where farmers clear a patch of land by cutting and burning the vegetation to create a fertile bed of ash.
• In the state of Manipur, this traditional agricultural practice is specifically referred to by the local name Pamlou.
• This method of cultivation relies heavily on the natural fertility of the soil and favorable monsoon conditions, as farmers do not use modern inputs like chemical fertilizers or irrigation systems.
• The practice involves a rotational cycle; once the soil fertility declines after a few years of cropping, the land is left fallow to recover naturally while the farmer moves to a new forest patch.
• This shifting nature of cultivation helps in the natural replenishment of soil nutrients through the decomposition of organic matter over time.

 Additional Information

• Slash and burn agriculture is known by various regional names across different states in India:
• Mizoram and Nagaland: In these North-Eastern states, the practice is most commonly known as Jhumming.
• Chhattisgarh: In the Bastar district, it is known as Dipa, a term also used in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Madhya Pradesh: Local variations include Bewar or Dahiya.
• Andhra Pradesh: It is referred to as Podu or Penda.
• Odisha: Known as Pama Dabi, Koman, or Bringa.
• Western Ghats: In this biodiversity hotspot, the practice is called Kumari.
• South-eastern Rajasthan: Locally known as Valre or Waltre.
• Himalayan Belt: The term Khil is used to describe this farming style.
• Jharkhand: It is known as Kuruwa.

The correct answer is It serves as the body's main source of energy.

Key Points

• Glucose is a monosaccharide with the chemical formula C₆H₁₂O₆, serving as the primary carbohydrate used by the human body for metabolic processes.
• It is the most critical fuel for cellular respiration, where cells break down glucose to produce Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP), the universal energy currency required for movement, growth, and repair.
• The brain and central nervous system are uniquely dependent on a steady supply of glucose, as they cannot effectively utilize fats or proteins for energy under normal physiological conditions.
• During digestion, complex carbohydrates (like starches) are converted into glucose, which enters the bloodstream and is regulated by the hormone insulin secreted by the pancreas.
• Excess glucose is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of glycogen, which can be converted back into glucose via glycogenolysis when energy demands increase.

 Additional Information

• Hormone Production:
• Hormones are typically proteins (like insulin) or steroids/lipids (like estrogen or testosterone).
• They are synthesized in endocrine glands such as the thyroid, adrenal glands, and pituitary gland.
• Oxygen Transport:
• This function is performed by hemoglobin, a complex protein containing iron found within erythrocytes (red blood cells).
• Glucose provides the energy needed for these cells to maintain their biconcave shape, but it does not carry oxygen itself.
• Thermoregulation:
• The regulation of body temperature is primarily managed by the hypothalamus in the brain.
• While exothermic reactions during glucose metabolism release heat as a byproduct, glucose's primary biological designation is substrate oxidation for energy.

The correct answer is Western Ghats.

Key Points

• The Nilgiri Hills, also known as the Blue Mountains, are a part of the Western Ghats located at the tri-junction of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• Geographically, they represent the point where the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats converge in southern India.
• The highest peak in this range is Doddabetta, which stands at an elevation of 2,637 meters above sea level.
• The region is a significant biodiversity hotspot and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, the first of its kind in India established in 1986.
• The landscape is characterized by rolling hills, shola grasslands, and deep valleys, and it is widely famous for tea and coffee plantations as well as eucalyptus cultivation.

 Additional Information

• Eastern Ghats
• A discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern coast, stretching from Odisha to Tamil Nadu.
• The range is eroded and cut through by major rivers like the Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, and Kaveri.
• Aravalli Range
• Recognized as one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, running through Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat.
• The highest point is Guru Shikhar located at Mount Abu.
• Himalayas
• A young fold mountain range that forms a natural barrier in the north of India, containing the world's highest peaks.
• It is divided into three main parallel ranges: the Himadri, Himachal, and Shiwaliks.

The correct answer is Hola Mohalla.

Key Points

• Hola Mohalla is a significant Sikh festival celebrated annually at Anandpur Sahib in Punjab, typically falling in the month of March, a day after Holi.
• The festival was established by Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru, in the year 1701 to provide a platform for Sikhs to demonstrate their martial arts and military preparedness.
• The term Hola is a masculine variation of Holi, while Mohalla signifies an organized procession or a military-style column.
• A primary highlight of the celebration is the display of Gatka, the traditional Sikh martial art, along with high-energy displays of horsemanship, tent-pegging, and archery by the Nihang Sikhs.
• The three-day event concludes with a grand military-style procession near the Takht Sri Keshgarh Sahib, which is one of the five Takhts (seats of authority) of Sikhism.

 Additional Information

• Baisakhi:
• Celebrated on April 13 or 14, it commemorates the formation of the Khalsa Panth in 1699 by Guru Gobind Singh.
• It also marks the Punjabi New Year and the beginning of the Rabi harvest season.
• Lohri:
• A popular folk festival celebrated in North India that marks the end of the winter solstice.
• It involves lighting bonfires and offering prayers for a bountiful harvest.
• Maghi:
• Celebrated in January, this festival honors the martyrdom of the Chali Mukte (Forty Liberated Ones).
• They sacrificed their lives during the Battle of Muktsar while defending the Sikh Panth against the Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is Vice President of India.

Key Points

• Article 67 of the Indian Constitution defines the term of office for the Vice President, specifying a duration of five years from the date of assumption of office.
• Article 67(b) explicitly lays down the constitutional procedure for the removal of the Vice President of India before their term expires.
• The removal process must exclusively originate in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) through a formal resolution.
• This resolution must be passed by a 'majority of all the then members' of the Rajya Sabha, which is technically referred to as an effective majority.
• After being passed by the Upper House, the resolution must be agreed to by the House of the People (Lok Sabha), typically requiring a simple majority of members present and voting.
• A mandatory constitutional requirement for this process is a fourteen days' notice, which must be served to the Vice President before the resolution can be moved in the House.

 Additional Information

• President of India:
• The removal of the President is termed Impeachment and is governed by Article 61.
• It requires a special majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the House and can be initiated for the 'violation of the Constitution'.
• Chief Justice:
• The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court are removed under Article 124(4).
• The process involves an address by Parliament supported by a special majority on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
• Prime Minister:
• There is no specific 'removal' article like 67(b) for the Prime Minister; they hold office during the pleasure of the President as per Article 75.
• They must resign if the Lok Sabha passes a No-Confidence Motion against the Council of Ministers.

The correct answer is Ragi.

Key Points

• In the eastern states of India, particularly Assam, West Bengal, and Odisha, the prevailing agro-climatic conditions are suitable for growing paddy throughout the year.
• Agricultural scientists and local farmers identify three distinct seasonal crops of rice in these regions: Aus, Aman, and Boro.
• Ragi, also known as Finger Millet, is a coarse grain and a nutri-cereal. It is not a variety of paddy. It is primarily a rain-fed crop grown in dry regions of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Uttarakhand.
• The cultivation of Aus, Aman, and Boro ensures a continuous supply of food and occupies the fertile alluvial soils of the Brahmaputra and Ganga basins.

 Additional Information

• Paddy Varieties in Eastern India:
• Aus: This is the autumn rice crop. It is typically sown in May-June with the pre-monsoon showers and harvested in September-October.
• Aman: This is the winter rice and the most important variety, accounting for the bulk of rice production. It is sown in June-July (monsoon) and harvested in November-December.
• Boro: Known as summer rice, it is sown in November-January (winter) and harvested in April-May. It relies heavily on irrigation facilities.
• Ragi (Finger Millet):
• It is a short-day crop that is extremely drought-resistant, making it suitable for arid and semi-arid landscapes.
• It is highly nutritious, containing significant amounts of calcium, iron, and dietary fiber.
• Top producers in India include Karnataka, which accounts for a major share of the national output.

The correct answer is A polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone.

Key Points

• Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates and serve as the fundamental building blocks for more complex sugars like disaccharides and polysaccharides.
• Chemically, they are defined as polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones because they contain multiple hydroxyl (-OH) groups and a single carbonyl group (C=O).
• If the carbonyl group is at the end of the carbon chain, the molecule is an aldehyde, and the sugar is classified as an aldose (e.g., Glucose).
• If the carbonyl group is at any other position (typically the second carbon), the molecule is a ketone, and the sugar is classified as a ketose (e.g., Fructose).
• These molecules follow the general chemical formula C_nH_2nO_n, where n typically ranges from 3 to 7, reflecting their status as hydrates of carbon.

 Additional Information

• Compound with phosphoric acid:
• This refers to phosphorylated sugars or nucleotides, where a phosphate group is attached to a sugar molecule, crucial for metabolic pathways like glycolysis.
• Ester of fatty acids:
• This is the definition of lipids or fats (specifically triglycerides), which are formed by the reaction between glycerol and fatty acids through ester linkages.
• Water-insoluble molecule:
• Monosaccharides are highly polar and form hydrogen bonds with water, making them readily soluble; water insolubility is typical of lipids or large polysaccharides like cellulose.
• Common Classifications:
• Trioses: 3 carbon atoms, such as Glyceraldehyde.
• Pentoses: 5 carbon atoms, such as Ribose and Deoxyribose, which are components of RNA and DNA.
• Hexoses: 6 carbon atoms, such as Glucose, Galactose, and Fructose, which are vital for cellular respiration.

The correct answer is Mahanadi.

Key Points

• The Mahanadi is a major river system in East Central India, originating from the Sihawa highlands in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh.
• Unlike the tributaries of the Indus, which flow through the northern and northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent, the Mahanadi flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Indus River system is a trans-boundary drainage basin primarily fed by the Himalayan snowmelt and monsoon rains, eventually discharging into the Arabian Sea.
• The primary eastern tributaries of the Indus in India are the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej, which are historically known as the Panjnad or 'Five Rivers'.
• The Mahanadi has its own drainage basin covering approximately 141,589 sq km, which is geographically distinct and separated from the Indus basin by the Gangetic plains and the Central Highlands.

 Additional Information

• Mahanadi River Characteristics
• It is often referred to as the Lifeline of Odisha and is famous for the Hirakud Dam, which is one of the longest earthen dams in the world.
• Major tributaries of the Mahanadi include the Seonath, Hasdeo, Mand, Ib, Ong, and Tel.
• Indus Tributaries Details
• Jhelum: Originates from the Verinag Spring at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in Jammu and Kashmir; it is a major tributary that joins the Chenab.
• Chenab: Formed by the meeting of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers at Tandi in Himachal Pradesh; it is the largest tributary of the Indus in terms of water volume.
• Ravi: Rises near the Rohtang Pass in the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba Valley before entering Pakistan.
• Indus Water Treaty (1960)
• This treaty allocates the waters of the Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej) to India and the Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) primarily to Pakistan.

The correct answer is Alveoli.

Key Points

• The Alveoli are the primary functional units of the respiratory system where the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between the atmospheric air and the blood occurs.
• Structurally, alveoli are tiny, very thin-walled, vascularized bag-like structures that together provide a massive surface area for simple diffusion, measuring approximately 70 to 100 square meters in an adult human.
• The respiratory membrane, where the actual exchange takes place, consists of the squamous epithelium of the alveoli, the endothelium of the surrounding pulmonary capillaries, and a thin basement membrane between them.
• In the exchange process, Oxygen (O₂) diffuses from the alveoli into the blood due to its higher partial pressure, while Carbon dioxide (CO₂) diffuses from the blood into the alveoli to be expelled from the body.
• While the conducting part of the system transports air, the alveoli and their ducts specifically constitute the respiratory or exchange part of the lungs.

 Additional Information

• Terminal Bronchioles:
• These are the final branching segments of the conducting zone, which transport air to the respiratory bronchioles but do not participate in gas exchange themselves.
• Nostrils:
• The external nares serve as the entry point for air into the nasal chamber, where the air is filtered, warmed, and humidified before reaching the lungs.
• Thoracic Chamber:
• This is an anatomically airtight chamber formed by the rib cage, vertebral column, sternum, and diaphragm that houses the lungs and facilitates the mechanical process of ventilation.

The correct answer is Article 12.

Key Points

• Article 12 serves as the introductory provision for Part III of the Constitution of India, which encompasses the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
• It provides a comprehensive and inclusive definition of the term 'State' to identify the entities against which Fundamental Rights can be legally enforced through Writ Jurisdictions.
• The definition includes the Government and Parliament of India, comprising the executive and legislative wings of the Union.
• It further extends to the Government and the Legislature of each of the States of India.
• The Article covers all local authorities, such as Municipalities, Panchayats, District Boards, and Improvement Trusts operating within the territory of India.
• The scope also includes 'other authorities' under the control of the Government of India, which encompasses statutory and non-statutory bodies like LIC, ONGC, and SAIL.

 Additional Information

• The broad interpretation of 'other authorities' ensures that the State cannot bypass its constitutional obligations by acting through autonomous bodies or instrumentalities.
• Article 8: Governs the rights of citizenship for specific individuals of Indian origin residing outside the country, facilitating their registration as citizens.
• Article 18: Relates to the Abolition of titles, ensuring social equality by prohibiting the State from conferring any titles other than military or academic distinctions.
• Article 10: Provides for the continuance of the rights of citizenship, ensuring that citizenship status is maintained subject to laws enacted by the Parliament.
• Part III of the Constitution is famously referred to as the Magna Carta of India, and the definition in Article 12 is also mirrored in Article 36 for the Directive Principles of State Policy.

The correct answer is Prayer and worship.

Key Points

• Chaitya halls are ancient Buddhist shrines or prayer halls designed specifically for congregational worship, religious gatherings, and meditation.
• The term is etymologically derived from the Sanskrit word Chita, which refers to a funeral pyre or mound, indicating its early association with sacred relics and memorial sites.
• Architecturally, a Chaitya-griha is characterized by a rectangular hall with a central nave, two side aisles, and a semi-circular apsidal end that houses a Stupa.
• The Stupa situated at the rear of the hall serves as the primary object of devotion, representing the Buddha and his Parinirvana.
• Most famous Chaitya halls are rock-cut structures found in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, dating from the 2nd century BC to the 10th century AD.
• The Karle Caves house the largest Chaitya in India, featuring massive octagonal pillars and a sun window that allows light to fall directly on the internal Stupa.

 Additional Information

• Viharas:
• These were the residential quarters or monasteries (Option 2) where Buddhist monks lived, studied, and slept.
• Unlike the apsidal Chaityas, Viharas were typically square halls surrounded by small individual cells.
• Stupa:
• A hemispherical mound that contains the relics of the Buddha or other respected monks; while found inside Chaityas, standalone stupas like Sanchi were centers for circumambulation.
• Architectural Features:
• Common features include ribbed vaulted ceilings (often mimicking wooden structures) and horseshoe-shaped windows known as Gavaksas.
• Prominent sites include Ajanta, Ellora, Bhaja, and Kanheri.

The correct answer is 17.7%.

Key Points

• The Census of India 2011 marks the 15th National Census of the country since 1872 and the 7th since independence.
• According to the final data released by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India's decadal population growth rate for the period 2001-2011 was approximately 17.7%.
• In absolute terms, the population of India increased by 182.1 million during this decade, reaching a total of 1.21 billion.
• This growth rate of 17.7% represented a significant decline from the 21.54% decadal growth recorded during the previous period of 1991-2001.
• The decline in the growth rate is considered a crucial demographic transition, indicating a slow yet steady success in population stabilization efforts across the nation.
• Among the states, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh continued to show high growth, while the Southern states generally exhibited a more rapid decline in their decadal growth rates.

 Additional Information

• State-Specific Growth Trends:
• Meghalaya recorded the highest decadal growth rate among states at 27.9%, followed by Arunachal Pradesh at 26.0%.
• Nagaland was the only state to record a negative decadal growth rate of −0.6% during this period.
• Among Union Territories, Dadra and Nagar Haveli registered the highest growth rate at 55.9%, while Lakshadweep recorded the lowest at 6.3%.
• Census 2011 Key Metrics:
• The Sex Ratio of India improved to 943 females per 1,000 males compared to 933 in the 2001 Census.
• The Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years), however, saw a decline to 919, which was a matter of significant concern for policymakers.
• The Literacy Rate of the country rose to 74.04%, with male literacy at 82.14% and female literacy at 65.46%.
• The Population Density of India was recorded at 382 persons per square kilometer, up from 325 in 2001.

The correct answer is 24.

Key Points

• The Indian Parliament currently has 24 Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs), which cover all the ministries and departments of the Government of India.
• The DRSC system was first inaugurated on April 8, 1993, based on the recommendation of the Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha to ensure better Parliamentary scrutiny of executive actions.
• Initially, 17 committees were established in 1993, but the system was reorganized and the number was increased to 24 committees on July 13, 2004.
• Each of these committees consists of 31 members, specifically 21 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.
• Out of the 24 committees, 8 committees function under the direction of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and 16 committees function under the direction of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• The primary objective of these committees is to secure Executive accountability to the Legislature, particularly financial accountability and specialized examination of policies.

 Additional Information

• Membership and Tenure:
• Members of the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker, while members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Chairman.
• A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any Standing Committee. If a member is appointed as a Minister, they cease to be a member of the committee.
• The term of office for the members of these committees is one year from the date of its reconstitution.
• Major Functions:
• To examine the Demands for Grants made by various ministries before they are voted on in the Lok Sabha.
• To examine such Bills pertaining to the concerned ministries as are referred to them by the presiding officers of the Houses.
• To consider Annual Reports and national basic policy documents presented to the Parliament.
• The reports of these committees have persuasive value and are advisory in nature; they are not binding on the government.

The correct answer is Inter-atrial septum.

Key Points

• The human heart is a muscular organ divided into four distinct chambers: two superior atria and two inferior ventricles.
• The Inter-atrial septum is a thin, muscular partition that separates the right atrium from the left atrium.
• Its primary physiological function is to prevent the mixing of oxygen-poor blood (deoxygenated) in the right side of the heart with oxygen-rich blood (oxygenated) in the left side.
• In the fetal heart, this septum contains an opening called the foramen ovale, which allows blood to bypass the non-functional fetal lungs; this normally closes at birth, leaving a depression known as the fossa ovalis.
• Defects in this structure, such as an Atrial Septal Defect (ASD), can lead to abnormal blood flow between the two upper chambers.

 Additional Information

• Inter-ventricular septum
• A thick, robust wall composed of cardiac muscle that separates the right ventricle from the left ventricle.
• It is essential for maintaining the high pressure required in the left ventricle for systemic circulation.
• Pericardium
• A fibro-serous sac that surrounds the entire heart and the roots of the great vessels.
• It provides protection, anchors the heart in the mediastinum, and secretes pericardial fluid to minimize friction during the cardiac cycle.
• Tricuspid valve
• An atrioventricular valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
• It consists of three fibrous cusps that prevent the regurgitation of blood back into the atrium during ventricular contraction.