DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 22 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: I ! N x K @ A < S: I is the father of N, N is the brother of K, K is the sister of A, and A is the wife of S.

⇒ Since I is the father of A, I is the wife's father of S.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

PINK is coded as '4893'

SPIN is coded as '9342'

Therefore, the code for 'S' is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Based on the information given, we can determine the sequence of the seven boxes (A, E, I, O, U, P, and Q) step-by-step:

1. Only O is kept above A: This implies that O is at the topmost position (1st) and A is at the second position (2nd).

2. Only four boxes are kept between A and I: Since A is at the 2nd position, the boxes between A and I occupy positions 3, 4, 5, and 6. Therefore, I must be at the 7th position.

3. U is kept immediately above E: This means U and E must occupy two consecutive empty slots (either 3-4, 4-5, or 5-6).

4. Only two boxes are kept between P and Q: The remaining positions are 3, 4, 5, and 6. To have exactly two boxes between P and Q, they must occupy positions 3 and 6.

5. Q is not kept immediately above U: Let us test the placement. If P and Q are at 3 and 6, the boxes U and E must occupy positions 4 and 5 (since U is immediately above E).

6. Now, let's place P and Q. If Q were at position 3, it would be immediately above U (who is at 4). However, the condition states Q is NOT immediately above U. Therefore, P must be at position 3 and Q must be at position 6.

The final arrangement is as follows:

As per the final arrangement, the box kept fourth from the top is U.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Series:

(Left) Y R © K J £ S & K W $$ L N £ G & # Q @ % S (Right)

Required pattern: Letter → Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) R © K J £ S S & K W $$ L N £ G G & # Q @ % S (Right)

Symbols satisfying the condition:

→ © in (R © K)

→ £ in (J £ S)

→ & in (S & K)

→ £ in (N £ G)

Therefore, there are 4 such symbols.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 — 4.

Given:

HOST is coded as '2764'

STOP is coded as '6347'

Therefore, the code for 'P' is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Solution

⇒ R is seated at the top. Since only one person sits between R and P when counted from the right of R (anti-clockwise), P is placed at the third position. Only one person sits between P and T, so T is placed at the fifth position.

⇒ Only one person sits between R and D. Since P is already at the third position, D must be at the sixth position. Only one person sits between F and D, and since R is at the top, F must be at the fourth position.

⇒ Only two people sit between Q and T. With T at the fifth position, Q must be at the second position (leaving P and F between them). The remaining person, E, is placed in the seventh position.

⇒ All persons are facing the centre, so the right direction is anti-clockwise.

⇒ Moving anti-clockwise from E, the first person to the right is R, the second person is Q, and the third person to the right is P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Series:

(Left) 1 9 2 5 1 1 5 7 9 5 1 3 9 8 5 8 9 3 2 5 4 9 3 4 9 3 5 (Right)

Required pattern: Even Number → Odd Number → Even Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 1 9 2 5 1 1 5 7 9 5 1 3 9 8 5 8 9 3 2 5 4 4 9 3 4 9 3 5 (Right)

Odd numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 5 in (8 5 8)

→ 5 in (2 5 4)

Therefore, there are 2 such odd numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2 — 2.

Given statement: E > K < D < P = C

Conclusions:

i) E < D → False (As E > K < D < P = C. We know that both E and D are greater than K, but the exact relationship between E and D cannot be determined. Therefore, E < D does not definitely follow.)

ii) C < E → False (As E > K < D < P = C. We know that C = P and P > D > K, but the exact relationship between C and E cannot be determined. Therefore, C < E does not definitely follow.)

So, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Series:

(Left) K O * © | % X © V € £ # U B $ D * # L © A U (Right)

Required pattern: Letter → Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) K O *** ©** | % X © V € £ # U B $ D *** #** L © A U (Right)

Symbols satisfying the condition:

→ * in (O * ©)

→ $in (B$ D)

→ © in (L © A)

The symbols satisfying the required condition are: *, *, and ©.

Therefore, there are 3 such symbols.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 — 3.

Given:

FIRM is coded as '2973'

MEAN is coded as '4621'

Therefore, the code for M is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Series:

(Left) Q G I H K L Q I Q B K I E D B M A P X U L Y (Right)

Required pattern: Consonant → Vowel → Consonant

Checking the series:

(Left) Q G I H K L Q Q I Q B K K I E D B M M A P X X U L Y (Right)

Vowels satisfying the condition:

→ I in (G I H)

→ I in (Q I Q)

→ A in (M A P)

→ U in (X U L)

Therefore, there are 4 such vowels.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 — 4.

Given Series:

(Left) 3 9 8 5 3 6 2 1 4 3 7 3 4 3 2 1 6 5 3 4 2 4 9 6 8 6 (Right)

Required pattern: Odd Number → Odd Number → Even Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 3 9 8 8 5 3 6 2 1 4 3 7 3 7 3 4 3 2 1 6 5 3 4 2 4 9 6 8 6 (Right)

Odd numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 9 in (3 9 8)

→ 3 in (7 3 4)

→ 3 in (5 3 4)

→ 9 in (4 9 6)

Therefore, there are 4 such odd numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 — Four.

Solution

⇒ Total seven people A, B, C, D, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

⇒ K sits to the immediate right of D. Since they are facing the centre, right is the anti-clockwise direction.

⇒ Only three people sit between K and M when counted from the left of K (clockwise direction). This places M four seats away from K in the clockwise direction.

⇒ Only three people sit between D and A. In a circle of seven, three people on one side means two people on the other. Counting clockwise from D, A sits in the fifth position.

⇒ L sits to the immediate right of C. The only two adjacent vacant seats where this is possible are between D and M. Thus, C is placed and L sits to its immediate right (anti-clockwise).

⇒ B occupies the last remaining seat between A and K.

⇒ The final arrangement clockwise starting from D is D, L, C, M, A, B, K.

⇒ To find the number of people between D and C when counted from the right of C (anti-clockwise direction):

⇒ Starting from C and moving anti-clockwise, the next person is L, followed by D.

⇒ Therefore, only one person (L) sits between D and C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Based on the information provided, we can determine the floor arrangement step-by-step:

1. M lives on the floor numbered 4.

2. C lives immediately below M. Since M is on floor 4, C lives on floor 3.

3. Only two people live between M and B. As M is on floor 4, counting two floors down (floors 3 and 2), B must live on floor 1.

4. Only A lives between M and N. Since M is on floor 4 and floor 3 is already occupied by C, A must be on floor 5 and N must be on floor 6. This places A exactly between M and N.

5. The only remaining person is D, and the only remaining floor is floor 2. Therefore, D lives on floor 2.

The final arrangement is as follows:

According to the table, D lives on the floor numbered 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Solution

Given Statements:

All hammers are nails.

All tapes are nails.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some hammers are tapes - Does not follow (There is no direct relationship between hammers and tapes in the given statements, so this conclusion is not definite.)

II. Some nails are tapes - Follow (Since all tapes are nails, the area covered by tapes is also a part of nails, making this conclusion definitely true.)

So, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: G × O < A ! T @ S : G is the brother of O, O is the wife of A, A is the father of T, and T is the sister of S.

⇒ Therefore, G is related to S as mother’s brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given statement: A < B < C < D < E < F

Conclusions:

i) A < F → True (As A < B < C < D < E < F. Therefore, A is definitely less than F. Hence, the conclusion follows.)

ii) C > F → False (As A < B < C < D < E < F. We know that C is less than D, D is less than E, and E is less than F. Therefore, C < F and not C > F. Hence, the conclusion does not follow.)

So, only Conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Based on the given information, we can determine the floor arrangement of the six people A, E, I, O, U, and V on floors 1 to 6.

Step 1: I lives on floor number 5.

Step 2: E lives on a floor above I. Since the topmost floor is 6, E must live on floor number 6.

Step 3: Only O lives below U. This implies that U is on floor number 2 and O is on floor number 1 (the lowermost floor), as O is the only person beneath U.

Step 4: V lives on an even-numbered floor. The even-numbered floors are 2, 4, and 6. Floors 2 and 6 are already occupied by U and E, respectively. Therefore, V must live on floor number 4.

Step 5: Now, only one floor (floor number 3) and one person (A) are left. Thus, A lives on floor number 3.

The final arrangement is as follows:

From the table, we can see that A lives on floor number 3.

The people living below A are those on floor 2 (U) and floor 1 (O).

Number of people below A = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Series:

(Left) * 1 % 3 £ 9 9 3 5 9 £ @ 2 # % & 1 6 # 7 # £ (Right)

Required pattern: Number → Number → Number

Checking the series:

(Left) * 1 % 3 £ 9 9 3 9 3 5 3 5 9 5 9 £ @ 2 # % & 1 1 6 # 7 # £ (Right)

Numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 9 in (9 9 3)

→ 3 in (9 3 5)

→ 5 in (3 5 9)

Therefore, there are 3 such numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 — 3.

Given:

Total number of people = 16

Karan is 8^th from the left end.

Madan is 4^th from the right end.

Formula:

Position from left = Total people − Position from right + 1

Calculation:

Madan's position from the left = 16 − 4 + 1 = 13

Therefore, Madan is 13^th from the left end.

Number of people between Karan and Madan

= 13 − 8 − 1

= 4

Therefore, there are 4 people between Karan and Madan.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Therefore, the correct option figure is 4.

Logic followed here is:

Logic: This is a Numerical Series where each subsequent term is obtained by adding a constant difference of 23 to the preceding term.

Therefore, the value that should come in place of '?' is 164.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The second number is obtained by squaring the first number and then adding 5 to the result.

(First Number)² + 5 = Second Number

Applying the logic to find X for the pair X : 294 →

According to the logic:

X² + 5 = 294

X² = 294 − 5

X² = 289

X = √289

X = 17

Applying the logic to find Y for the pair 20 : Y →

According to the logic:

Y = 20² + 5

Y = (20 × 20) + 5

Y = 400 + 5

Y = 405

The pattern observed is consistent for both pairs: 17 : 294 :: 20 : 405.

Therefore, the required values are X = 17 and Y = 405.

Given: X : 294 :: 20 : Y

Logic: 2nd number = (1st number)² + 5

(1) X = 18 ; Y = 405 → 18 : 294 :: 20 : 405

18² + 5 = 324 + 5 = 329 ≠ 294

20² + 5 = 400 + 5 = 405

(2) X = 18 ; Y = 404 → 18 : 294 :: 20 : 404

18² + 5 = 329 ≠ 294

20² + 5 = 405 ≠ 404

(3) X = 19 ; Y = 406 → 19 : 294 :: 20 : 406

19² + 5 = 361 + 5 = 366 ≠ 294

20² + 5 = 405 ≠ 406

(4) X = 17 ; Y = 405 → 17 : 294 :: 20 : 405

17² + 5 = 289 + 5 = 294

20² + 5 = 400 + 5 = 405

Both pairs follow the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: X : 10 :: 7 : Y

Logic: 2nd number = (1st number × 2) + 0.4

(1) X = 4.4 ; Y = 9.2 → 4.4 : 10 :: 7 : 9.2

4.4 × 2 + 0.4 = 8.8 + 0.4 = 9.2 ≠ 10

7 × 2 + 0.4 = 14.4 ≠ 9.2

(2) X = 3.2 ; Y = 15.8 → 3.2 : 10 :: 7 : 15.8

3.2 × 2 + 0.4 = 6.8 ≠ 10

7 × 2 + 0.4 = 14.4 ≠ 15.8

(3) X = 5.2 ; Y = 11.8 → 5.2 : 10 :: 7 : 11.8

5.2 × 2 - 0.4 = 10.4 - 0.4 = 10

7 × 2 - 2.2 = 14 - 2.2 = 11.8

Both pairs follow the same pattern.

(4) X = 6.4 ; Y = 11.8 → 6.4 : 10 :: 7 : 11.8

6.4 × 2 - 0.4 = 12.4 ≠ 10

7 × 2 - 2.2 = 11.8

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For FIOL to JMSP

For VYEB to ZCIF

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +4 for each successive letter.

Applying the logic to HKQN:

Following the same pattern, HKQN is related to LOUR.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (Position of 1st Letter + 4) and (Position of 2nd Letter + 4).

1. KL-OP →

2. CD-GI:

3. TU-XY →

4. AB-EF →

In the pair CD-GI, the second letter follows a +5 pattern instead of the +4 pattern followed by the others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

1. Word 1 to Word 2: The letters at the 2nd and 4th positions are interchanged.

2. Word 1 to Word 3: The letters of the 1st word are written in reverse order.

For GOAT to GTAO and TAOG

For JOKE to JEKO and EKOJ

The common pattern is to swap the 2nd and 4th letters for the middle word and reverse the original word for the final word.

Option 4) PETS to PSTE and STEP

This triad follows the same logic perfectly.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Signs are interchanged as follows:

The original equation is:

27 ÷ 5 − 9 + 80 × 8 = ?

After interchanging the signs, the new equation becomes:

= 27 × 5 + 9 − 80 ÷ 8 = ?

= 27 × 5 + 9 - 10 = ?

= 135 + 9 - 10 = ?

= 144 - 10 = ?

= 134 = ?

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 134.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The first letters of the cluster pairs have a difference of +5 and the second letters have a difference of +9, according to the English alphabetical order.

1. RU-WE →

2. QT-VC →

3. WZ-BI →

4. TW-YF →

The pair RU-WE does not follow the same logic as the others, as the difference between U and E is 10 instead of 9.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Solution

Given Statements:

Some tools are machines.

All machines are hammers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some tools are hammers - Follow (Because some tools are machines and all machines are hammers, therefore the intersection of tools and machines is also within hammers.)

II. All hammers are machines - Does not follow (Because all machines are hammers is given, but the reverse is not necessarily true in the least possible case.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

To find the correct answer, we need to look for the exact structure of Figure (X) within the given options. Rotation of the figure is strictly not allowed.

Therefore, the correct figure is Option (4).

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The pattern involves multiplying the previous number by 2 and then alternatively adding 3 and subtracting 3 to obtain the next term in the series.

Therefore, the correct number to replace the question mark in the series is 385.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is:

Therefore, the missing number in the series is 22.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is based on mathematical operations assigned to specific letters.

The given equation is:

60 A 12 B 9 C 11 D 5 = ?

By replacing the letters with their respective mathematical symbols, we get:

= 60 ÷ 12 × 9 + 11 − 5

= 5 × 9 + 11 - 5

= 45 + 11 - 5

= 56 - 5

= 51

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 51.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Number:

9357146

Arrange the digits in ascending order:

9357146 → 1 3 4 5 6 7 9

Compare the positions:

Only the digit 3 remains at the same position (2nd position).

Therefore, 1 digit remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4 — One".

Given Number:

719453268

Arrange the digits in ascending order:

719453268 → 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

New number formed:

123456789

Find the required digits:

→ Third digit from the left = 3

→ Second digit from the right = 8

Required Sum:

3 + 8 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 — 11.

The logic followed here is:

First number = (Second number × 3) − 3 = First number.

For (36, 13)

Calculation: (13 × 3) − 3 = 39 − 3 = 36

For (48, 17)

Calculation: (17 × 3) − 3 = 51 − 3 = 48

Similarly, checking Option (2) (57, 20):

Calculation: (20 × 3) − 3 = 60 − 3 = 57

Therefore, the set (57, 20) follows the same relationship.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here involves a two-step transformation for each triad:

1. Step 1 (Word 1 to Word 2): The first and second letters are interchanged.

2. Step 2 (Word 2 to Word 3): The second word undergoes a cyclic right shift (the last letter moves to the first position).

For FAWN - AFWN - NAFW

Similarly, for URNS - RUNS - SRUN

Checking the options for the same interchange and cyclic shift pattern:

Option 1) HEAR - EHAR - EARH

The first step (HEAR to EHAR) is correct, but the second step (EHAR to EARH) does not follow the cyclic right shift (which would result in REHA).

Option 2) TUNE - UTNE - EUTN

This triad follows the exact logic of interchanging the first two letters and then performing a cyclic shift of the entire word.

Option 3) DONE - ODNE - EOND

The first step (DONE to ODNE) is correct, but the second step (ODNE to EOND) is incorrect. A cyclic right shift of ODNE would result in EODN.

Option 4) MOST - MSOT - TSOM

The logic fails at the first step; MOST to MSOT involves interchanging the second and third letters instead of the first and second.

Thus, the triad TUNE - UTNE - EUTN follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Number:

5731468

Rule:

Add 1 to each odd digit and subtract 2 from each even digit.

Calculation:

5 → 6

7 → 8

3 → 4

1 → 2

4 → 2

6 → 4

8 → 6

New number formed:

6842246

Checking repeated digits:

Digit 2 appears twice

Digit 4 appears twice

Digit 6 appears twice

Therefore, 3 digits appear more than once in the new number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4 — Three".

Logic followed here is:

Logic: The first letter of the second cluster is obtained by subtracting 5 from the positional value of the first letter of the first cluster. The second letter of the second cluster is obtained by adding 7 to the positional value of the second letter of the first cluster.

1. OF − JM

2. RI − MP

3. UL − PS

4) LC − GI

The pattern followed in the groups is (First Letter − 5, Second Letter + 7). The pair LC − GI does not follow this pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Asian Rifle/Pistol Shooting Championship scheduled for 2 to 14 February 2026 is a premier continental sports event organized to showcase the elite shooting talent across the Asian continent.
• New Delhi, the capital city of India, was designated as the host city, leveraging its status as a major international sporting hub with advanced logistical capabilities.
• The tournament is conducted under the jurisdiction of the Asian Shooting Confederation (ASC), which is the governing body for shooting sports in Asia, in coordination with the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI).
• The primary venue for the championship is the Dr. Karni Singh Shooting Range, a facility of international repute that has previously hosted prestigious events such as the 2010 Commonwealth Games and multiple ISSF World Cup editions.
• Hosting such an event in New Delhi strengthens India's position in the global shooting landscape, especially as Indian shooters have consistently performed well at the Olympic Games and World Championships.

 Additional Information

• Dr. Karni Singh Shooting Range:
• Located in South Delhi, it is named after Maharaja Karni Singh of Bikaner, who was the first Indian to win a world championship medal in shooting.
• The range is equipped with state-of-the-art electronic scoring systems for 10m, 25m, and 50m rifle and pistol events, meeting ISSF standards.
• National Rifle Association of India (NRAI):
• Established in 1951, it is the apex body for the promotion and governance of shooting sports in India.
• It is responsible for organizing national trials and selecting the Indian contingent for the Asian Games, Commonweath Games, and Olympics.
• Other Sporting Hubs (Hyderabad, Pune, and Punjab):
• Pune is home to the Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex in Balewadi, which serves as a major training center for shooting and other disciplines.
• Hyderabad features the Gachibowli Sports Complex, which has hosted the National Games and Afro-Asian Games.
• Punjab has a rich legacy in shooting, producing legendary athletes like Abhinav Bindra, India's first individual Olympic gold medalist.

The correct answer is Nirmala Sitharaman.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey is an annual document presented by the Ministry of Finance, reviewing the developments in the Indian economy over the past financial year.
• As the Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman is the constitutional authority responsible for laying the document before both houses of Parliament.
• The Economic Survey 2025-26 provides a comprehensive analysis of various sectors, including GDP growth, inflation rates, fiscal deficit, and foreign exchange reserves.
• This document is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the overall guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor.
• Traditionally, the survey is presented one day before the Union Budget is introduced, acting as a policy guide for the upcoming fiscal year.

 Additional Information

• Nirmala Sitharaman:
• She is the first full-time female Finance Minister of India, having held the office since May 2019.
• She previously served as the Minister of Defence and the Minister of State for Commerce and Industry.
• Key Figures in Economic Planning:
• Chief Economic Advisor (CEA): This officer is the primary author of the Economic Survey. The role involves advising the government on matters of macroeconomic stability and economic policy.
• Department of Economic Affairs: The nodal agency responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget and the Economic Survey.
• Other Union Ministers:
• Rajnath Singh: Serves as the Union Minister of Defence and was a former Minister of Home Affairs.
• Ashwini Vaishnaw: Holds key portfolios including Railways, Information and Broadcasting, and Electronics and Information Technology.
• Annpurna Devi: Serves as the Union Minister of Women and Child Development.

The correct answer is This avoids the need for double coincidence of wants.

Key Points

• Money functioning as a medium of exchange is the most fundamental primary function of money, acting as an intermediary instrument used to facilitate the sale, purchase, or trade of goods and services between parties.
• The double coincidence of wants is a core limitation of the barter system, where a transaction can only occur if both individuals possess exactly what the other desires at the same time and in the right quantity.
• By providing a universally accepted medium of exchange, money separates the act of selling from the act of buying, allowing individuals to trade their labor or goods for money and subsequently use that money to acquire needs from various sources.
• This function drastically reduces transaction costs and search costs, which are the time and resources wasted in a barter economy trying to find a compatible trading partner.
• The use of money as an exchange medium encourages economic specialization and the division of labor, as producers are no longer restricted by the immediate needs of their local trade partners.

 Additional Information

• Unit of Account:
• This is another primary function of money where it serves as a common measure of value or a yardstick for pricing all goods and services.
• It allows for consistent financial accounting and comparison of costs, which would be impossible if the value of every item was expressed in terms of every other item.
• Store of Value:
• This secondary function allows money to be held and exchanged at a later date to retrieve purchasing power in the future.
• To be effective, money must be durable and relatively stable in value over time, providing liquidity to the holder.
• Standard of Deferred Payment:
• This function enables the credit market, allowing debts and future obligations to be specified in monetary terms for later settlement.

The correct answer is Hunter Commission.

Key Points

• The Hunter Commission, formally known as the Disorders Inquiry Committee, was established by the Government of India on October 14, 1919.
• The primary objective of the commission was to investigate the tragic events of April 13, 1919, known as the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, which took place in Amritsar, Punjab.
• The commission was headed by Lord William Hunter, a former Solicitor-General for Scotland, and included both British and Indian members.
• The three prominent Indian members were Sir Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad, Pandit Jagat Narayan, and Sardar Sahibzada Sultan Ahmed Khan.
• During the inquiry, General Reginald Dyer admitted that his intent was to strike terror into the population and that he had not issued a warning before opening fire on the unarmed crowd.
• The commission final report, submitted in March 1920, censured General Dyer for his actions, labeling them a grave error of judgment, though it failed to recommend any criminal prosecution or disciplinary action beyond relieving him of his command.

 Additional Information

• Hartog Commission:
• Appointed in 1929 under the chairmanship of Sir Philip Hartog.
• Its main focus was to survey the growth of education in British India and suggest improvements for its qualitative development.
• Simon Commission:
• Formed in November 1927, this all-British seven-member committee was led by Sir John Simon.
• It was tasked with reviewing the Government of India Act 1919 and reporting on constitutional reforms, but it faced widespread protests and the slogan Simon Go Back because it excluded Indians.
• Butler Commission:
• Created in 1927, also known as the Indian States Committee, chaired by Harcourt Butler.
• It was established to examine and define the relationship between the British Paramount Power and the Princely States of India.

The correct answer is Bhashini (BHASHINI).

Key Points

• Bhashini, also known as the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), is an Artificial Intelligence (AI) led initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to provide translation services in local Indian languages.
• The interface was migrated to the indigenous cloud platform in February 2026 to ensure data sovereignty and reduce reliance on foreign cloud service providers, aligning with the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision.
• This migration allows the platform to leverage domestic High-Performance Computing (HPC) and GPU resources for processing complex Natural Language Processing (NLP) tasks across 22 scheduled languages.
• By hosting the interface on an indigenous cloud, the government ensures that sensitive linguistic data and citizen interactions remain within the territorial jurisdiction of India, enhancing cybersecurity.
• The platform provides API access to developers and startups, facilitating the creation of a multilingual internet and improving the delivery of e-governance services to the last mile.

 Additional Information

• MeitY (Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology):
• It is the nodal ministry for IT policy, digital infrastructure, and the Digital India program.
• The ministry manages the MeghRaj initiative, which is the Government of India Cloud (GI Cloud) designed to optimize ICT spending and accelerate service delivery.
• Indigenous Cloud Infrastructure:
• Typically refers to platforms managed by entities like the National Informatics Centre (NIC) or C-DAC.
• These platforms are built to comply with the Digital Personal Data Protection Act and specific MeitY guidelines for secure government data hosting.
• Bhasha Daan:
• A crowd-sourcing component of the Bhashini ecosystem where citizens contribute voice and text data to train Machine Learning models for better accuracy in regional dialects.

The correct answer is Adherence to government guidelines.

Key Points

• Financial stability refers to a condition where the financial system is resilient to economic shocks and can facilitate its core functions like intermediation and risk management smoothly.
• Adherence to government guidelines and regulatory frameworks set by bodies such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or SEBI ensures that institutions operate within prudential norms.
• Compliance with mandates like the Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) and Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) under Basel III norms provides a safety buffer to absorb losses, preventing insolvency.
• Following strict government guidelines regarding Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) and asset classification helps maintain the structural integrity of the banking sector and protects depositors’ interests.

 Additional Information

• Digitalisation Gaps:
• These represent technological vulnerabilities that increase the risk of cyber-attacks and operational failures, thereby threatening institutional security.
• High Capital-Output Ratio:
• This is an economic metric representing the amount of capital required to produce one unit of GDP; a high ratio usually indicates low efficiency in an economy.
• High Political Affiliation:
• This often leads to crony capitalism and directed lending to unviable projects, which results in a high volume of bad loans and financial instability.

The correct answer is Royal Challengers Bengaluru.

Key Points

• The Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB), captained by Smriti Mandhana, secured their first-ever Women’s Premier League (WPL) championship title in the 2024 edition.
• In the final match held at the Arun Jaitley Stadium in New Delhi, RCB defeated the Delhi Capitals by 8 wickets, chasing down a target of 114 runs with three balls to spare.
• This victory was a landmark achievement for the RCB franchise, as it marked their first major trophy across both the Indian Premier League (IPL) and the WPL since the franchise's inception in 2008.
• Key contributions came from Sophie Molineux, who took three wickets in a single over, and Shreyanka Patil, who dismantled the middle and lower order of the opposition.

 Additional Information

• Mumbai Indians:
• They were the champions of the inaugural WPL edition in 2023, led by Harmanpreet Kaur.
• In the 2024 season, they finished second in the points table but were eliminated by RCB in the Eliminator match.
• Delhi Capitals:
• Under the leadership of Meg Lanning, they finished as runners-up in both the 2023 and 2024 seasons.
• They qualified directly for the 2024 final by topping the group stage with six wins and 12 points.
• Tournament Honors (2024):
• Orange Cap: Awarded to Ellyse Perry (RCB) for scoring the highest total of 347 runs.
• Purple Cap: Awarded to Shreyanka Patil (RCB) for taking the most wickets, totaling 13 scalps.
• Most Valuable Player: Deepti Sharma of UP Warriorz was honored for her exceptional all-round performance.

The correct answer is Vinoba Bhave.

Key Points

• The Bhoodan Movement, or the Land Gift Movement, was a voluntary land reform initiative launched in 1951 to address the plight of landless laborers in post-independence India.
• The movement was pioneered by Acharya Vinoba Bhave, a spiritual leader and a devoted follower of Mahatma Gandhi, who sought to apply Gandhian principles of non-violence to social problems.
• It officially began on April 18, 1951, in the village of Pochampally (currently in Telangana), when Vedre Ramachandra Reddy donated 100 acres of land to the landless community.
• Termed the Bloodless Revolution, the movement aimed to persuade wealthy landowners to voluntarily give up at least one-sixth of their land for distribution among the poor, emphasizing moral conversion over state coercion.
• Vinoba Bhave spent over 13 years walking across the length and breadth of India, covering more than 58,000 kilometers and collecting nearly 4.4 million acres of land.

 Additional Information

• Gramdan Movement:
• An extension of Bhoodan where the focus shifted from individual land donations to the collective ownership of an entire village by its residents.
• Individual Satyagraha:
• In 1940, Vinoba Bhave was specifically selected by Mahatma Gandhi to be the first Individual Satyagrahi to protest against the British involvement in World War II.
• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• As the first Prime Minister of India, he integrated the spirit of the movement into the national agenda, though the government also pursued legislative Land Ceiling Acts.
• Sarojini Naidu:
• Commonly referred to as the Nightingale of India, she was a major figure in the freedom struggle and served as the first woman Governor of Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is Air Marshal Inderpal Singh Walia.

Key Points

• Air Marshal Inderpal Singh Walia officially assumed the appointment of Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief (AOC-in-C) of the Eastern Air Command (EAC) in February 2026.
• The Eastern Air Command is one of the five operational commands of the Indian Air Force (IAF), with its headquarters located in Shillong, Meghalaya.
• An alumnus of the National Defence Academy (NDA), he was commissioned into the Fighter Stream of the IAF on 13 June 1987, bringing decades of tactical expertise to the command.
• The officer has an illustrious flying career with over 3,200 hours of experience on various combat aircraft, including the MiG-21 and the Su-30 MKI air superiority fighter.
• Prior to taking the helm at EAC, he served in high-profile roles such as Senior Air Staff Officer (SASO) at Western Air Command and Director General (Inspection and Safety) at Air Headquarters.

 Additional Information

• Eastern Air Command (EAC):
• It is responsible for the air defense of a vast geographical area encompassing the North-Eastern states and maintaining surveillance along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
• The command monitors sensitive international borders with China, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Bhutan.
• Indian Air Force Command Structure:
• The IAF operates through seven commands: five operational (Western, Eastern, Central, Southern, and South Western) and two functional (Training and Maintenance).
• The AOC-in-C is a three-star rank (Air Marshal) responsible for operational readiness within the designated theater.
• Awards and Honors:
• For his distinguished service, Air Marshal Inderpal Singh Walia has been conferred with the Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM) and the Vayu Sena Medal (VM).

The correct answer is Red Fort, with its massive walls.

Key Points

• The Red Fort, or Lal Qila, was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1638 when he decided to shift his capital from Agra to the newly planned city of Shahjahanabad in Delhi.
• It served as the main residence of the Mughal Emperors for nearly 200 years, remaining the political and cultural center of the empire until the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• The fort was designed by architect Ustad Ahmad Lahori, the same mastermind behind the Taj Mahal, and showcases an innovative blend of Persian, Timurid, and Hindu architectural elements.
• Constructed using massive red sandstone walls, the fort houses important structures such as the Diwan-i-Aam (Hall of Public Audience), Diwan-i-Khas (Hall of Private Audience), and the Rang Mahal.
• In 2007, the Red Fort was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its historical and architectural significance.

 Additional Information

• Jama Masjid:
• Located in Delhi, it is one of the largest mosques in India, built by Shah Jahan between 1644 and 1656.
• It features a vast courtyard but functioned as a place of worship rather than a residence.
• Humayun’s Tomb:
• Commissioned by Empress Bega Begum in 1558, it is the tomb of the second Mughal Emperor Humayun.
• It is famous for being the first garden-tomb in India and its distinctive Persian-style dome.
• Taj Mahal:
• A white marble mausoleum located in Agra, built by Shah Jahan for his wife Mumtaz Mahal.
• While a masterpiece of Mughal architecture, it served as a tomb, not a residential palace.

The correct answer is Expansionary policy.

Key Points

• Expansionary Monetary Policy is implemented by a central bank (such as the Reserve Bank of India or the Federal Reserve) to increase the liquidity or money supply within the economy.
• The process of buying Government Securities (G-Secs) from the open market is a primary tool of Open Market Operations (OMO). When the central bank purchases these securities, it pays commercial banks and private entities, thereby injecting cash reserves into the banking system.
• An increase in bank reserves enhances the ability of banks to lend, which typically leads to a decrease in interest rates. Lower borrowing costs encourage capital investment by businesses and consumption expenditure by households.
• This policy action is usually deployed during periods of economic slowdown or recession to boost the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and reduce unemployment by stimulating aggregate demand.

 Additional Information

• Contractionary or Tightening Policy:
• This is the polar opposite of expansionary policy, where the central bank sells government securities to withdraw excess liquidity from the system.
• The primary objective is to curb inflation by making borrowing more expensive through higher interest rates.
• Neutral Policy:
• This stance suggests that the central bank is neither seeking to stimulate nor restrict economic growth.
• Interest rates are maintained at a natural rate that allows inflation to remain stable and the economy to operate at full employment.
• Monetary Policy Tools:
• Apart from Open Market Operations, central banks use other instruments like the Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to manage the economy.

The correct answer is destitute or destitute householder.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in April 2016 with the mission of providing Housing for All in rural India.
• The scheme specifically targets households that are homeless or living in kutcha and dilapidated houses, with a primary focus on the most vulnerable sections of society, including the destitute.
• Identification of beneficiaries is primarily based on the housing deprivation parameters found in the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
• The selection process involves a three-stage validation including Gram Sabha verification, geo-tagging of existing dwellings, and use of the Awaas+ survey to ensure destitute householders are not excluded.
• Prioritization is given to households without any adult member aged 16 to 59, female-headed households with no adult male member, and those living on alms or manual scavenging.

 Additional Information

• Financial Framework:
• The unit assistance for house construction is Rs 1.20 lakh in plain areas and Rs 1.30 lakh in hilly states, difficult areas, and Integrated Action Plan (IAP) districts.
• Funding is shared between the Central and State Governments in a 60:40 ratio for plains and 90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states.
• Program Convergence:
• Beneficiaries are provided 90 to 95 days of unskilled labor support under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
• An additional Rs 12,000 is provided for the construction of toilets through convergence with the Swachh Bharat Mission - Gramin (SBM-G).
• The scheme ensures access to basic amenities like piped water (Jal Jeevan Mission), electricity (Saubhagya Yojana), and LPG (PM Ujjwala Yojana).

The correct answer is To examine the financial relations between Britain and India, including Indian revenues used for imperial expenditure.

Key Points

• The Welby Commission, officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Expenditure, was established in 1895 by the British Government to investigate the administration and management of military and civil expenditure in India. Hence, the statement regarding financial relations is correct.
• The primary objective of the commission was to determine how costs should be shared between the British Exchequer and the Government of India for imperial operations that impacted both territories. Hence, the statement regarding imperial expenditure is correct.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale, representing Indian interests, travelled to London in 1897 to present evidence, where he meticulously analyzed the financial drain and the unfair burden of taxation on the Indian populace. Hence, the statement regarding Gokhale presenting evidence is correct.
• The commission included Lord Welby as chairman and Dadabhai Naoroji as a member, making it a significant platform for highlighting economic critiques of colonial rule. Hence, the statement regarding the commission's structural purpose is correct.

 Additional Information

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
• He was a moderate leader of the Indian National Congress and founded the Servants of India Society in 1905.
• He is widely regarded as the political mentor or Guru of Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammed Ali Jinnah.
• His testimony before the commission focused on the moral and material progress of India and the need for fiscal decentralization.
• Financial Context of the Era:
• The commission's formation was a response to growing nationalist criticism regarding Home Charges, which were payments made by the Indian government to Britain for various services.
• Key issues scrutinized included the cost of the British Indian Army and the salaries of civil servants paid from Indian revenues.
• The Drain of Wealth theory, popularized by Dadabhai Naoroji, provided the conceptual framework for the evidence presented by Indian leaders.

The correct answer is Dr. Atmaram Pandurang.

Key Points

• The Prarthana Samaj was officially established on March 31, 1867, in Bombay (now Mumbai) by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang.
• The movement was inspired by the Brahmo Samaj and gained momentum following the visit of the prominent reformer Keshab Chandra Sen to Maharashtra in 1864.
• The primary objective of the society was to promote monotheism and the worship of one God, drawing philosophical inspiration from the Marathi Bhakti cult and saints like Namdev, Tukaram, and Eknath.
• It focused heavily on social reforms, including the abolition of the caste system, widow remarriage, women's education, and raising the age of marriage for both boys and girls.
• The society sought to reform Hinduism from within by emphasizing rationalism and social equality without completely breaking away from the religious fold.

 Additional Information

• Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade:
• He joined the Prarthana Samaj in 1870 and became its most influential leader, turning it into a powerful platform for national reform.
• He was instrumental in establishing the Widow Remarriage Association in 1861 and the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
• Shri R.C. Bhandarkar:
• Commonly known as Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar, he was a distinguished orientalist and historian who provided the intellectual and scholarly foundation for the Samaj's activities.
• Swami Dayananda Saraswati:
• He was the founder of the Arya Samaj in 1875 and advocated for the slogan 'Back to the Vedas', emphasizing Vedic infallibility which differed from the Prarthana Samaj's approach.

The correct answer is Only final goods and services.

Key Points

• National Income represents the total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific Financial Year.
• The problem of Double Counting occurs when the value of a product is counted more than once during different stages of the production process, leading to an overestimation of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• To ensure accuracy, only Final Goods and Services are included in the estimation, as these are products intended for end-use by consumers or for Capital Formation.
• Intermediate Goods, such as raw materials, fuel, or semi-finished items used in production, are excluded because their value is already mathematically incorporated into the market price of the final product.
• By focusing solely on final consumption and investment, economists capture the Net Contribution of each sector to the economy without replicating the value of input components.

 Additional Information

• Sale of second-hand goods:
• These transactions are excluded from National Income because the value of these goods was already accounted for in the year they were originally produced.
• However, any Commission or Brokerage earned by agents on such sales is included as it represents a current service provided.
• Value Added Method:
• This is a systematic approach to avoid Double Counting by summing the Value Added (Value of Output − Intermediate Consumption) at every stage of the production chain.
• Transfer Payments:
• Payments such as Old-age Pensions, Scholarships, and Unemployment Allowances are excluded because they do not correspond to any current production of goods or services.
• Self-consumption:
• The Imputed Value of goods produced for self-consumption (like food grains kept by a farmer for his family) is included as it contributes to the total output of the economy.

The correct answer is Dual core design.

Key Points

• The DHRUV64 is a state-of-the-art 64-bit microprocessor developed as a critical component of the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) program, which aims to achieve self-reliance in semiconductor technology.
• Announced in December 2025, the transition to a Dual core design represents a significant milestone in enhancing the processing power and efficiency of indigenous Indian silicon.
• This dual-core architecture enables the processor to execute multiple threads simultaneously, drastically improving performance for edge computing, Internet of Things (IoT) gateways, and industrial automation systems.
• The development of DHRUV64 is spearheaded by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• By utilizing the RISC-V open-source Instruction Set Architecture (ISA), the dual-core design ensures that Indian developers have a royalty-free, customizable platform for high-performance applications.

 Additional Information

• Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Initiative:
• The mission aims to create a vibrant ecosystem for Microprocessors in India, targeting deployment in large-scale commercial and strategic sectors by 2026-2027.
• It focuses on three main tiers: SHAKTI (developed by IIT Madras), VEGA (developed by C-DAC), and the advanced DHRUV series.
• The initiative is a core pillar of the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), which seeks to establish India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM).
• The RISC-V ISA is preferred due to its modularity, allowing for the integration of specialized accelerators for Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML).

The correct answer is Vaibhav Suryavanshi.

Key Points

• Vaibhav Suryavanshi etched his name in cricket history during the 2026 ICC Under-19 World Cup final by scoring a staggering 175 runs.
• This incredible feat set a new record for the highest individual score ever achieved in a U-19 World Cup final, breaking long-standing records of previous editions.
• The young left-handed batter from Bihar, India, demonstrated exceptional skill and temperament, leading the Indian U-19 team to a dominant position in the championship match.
• Prior to this tournament achievement, Vaibhav Suryavanshi gained national attention for being one of the youngest players to debut in the Ranji Trophy, the premier domestic first-class cricket championship in India.
• His performance in the 2026 final is considered a milestone in youth cricket, showcasing the depth of talent emerging from the BCCI development programs.

 Additional Information

• ICC Under-19 Men’s Cricket World Cup:
• An international cricket tournament organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC) held every two years since 1998.
• India is the most successful team in the history of the U-19 World Cup, having won multiple titles under captains like Mohammad Kaif, Virat Kohli, and Yash Dhull.
• Uday Saharan:
• He served as the Captain of the Indian team during the 2024 U-19 World Cup and was the leading run-scorer of that tournament.
• Hugh Weibgen and Harry Dixon:
• Key members of the Australia U-19 squad; Weibgen famously captained Australia to victory in the 2024 edition final against India.

The correct answer is Running innovation challenges for startups and MSMEs in defence tech.

Key Points

• Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) was launched by the Prime Minister in April 2018 during DefExpo to foster innovation and technology development in the Defence and Aerospace sectors.
• The primary objective of iDEX is to achieve self-reliance (Aatmanirbharta) in the defence sector by creating an ecosystem that encourages startups, MSMEs, and individual innovators to develop state-of-the-art technologies for the Indian Armed Forces.
• The Open Challenge is a unique platform under iDEX that allows innovators to propose independent technologies or solutions that may not have been captured under the specific problem statements of the Defence India Startup Challenge (DISC).
• The announcement of results for Open Challenge 3.0 indicates the ongoing commitment of the Ministry of Defence to identify and support homegrown technological solutions that enhance the combat capabilities of the military.
• Successful participants in these challenges receive funding in the form of grants, technical guidance, and the opportunity to showcase their products for potential procurement by the Army, Navy, or Air Force.

 Additional Information

• Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO):
• A non-profit company (Section 8) established by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) to fund and manage the iDEX initiative.
• It provides the administrative and financial framework required to bridge the gap between the defence establishment and the private startup ecosystem.
• SPARK Grant:
• The grant mechanism under iDEX, known as Support for Prototype and Research Kickstart (SPARK), provides financial assistance of up to Rs 1.5 crore to selected startups to develop prototypes.
• Indigenization Focus:
• Contrary to focusing on imports, iDEX is a cornerstone of the Make in India initiative, specifically targeting the reduction of foreign exchange outflow by promoting domestic R&D.
• It empowers smaller players (MSMEs) rather than just traditional Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs), ensuring a broader and more competitive industrial base.

The correct answer is Gurkhas, Sikhs, and Pathans.

Key Points

• Following the Revolt of 1857, the British colonial administration realized that the Bengal Army, composed largely of high-caste soldiers from Awadh and Bihar, was the epicenter of the rebellion.
• To safeguard their empire, the British shifted their recruitment policy toward communities that had assisted them in suppressing the uprising, specifically the Gurkhas, Sikhs, and Pathans.
• The British introduced the Martial Races theory, an ideology that categorized certain ethnic groups as naturally courageous and loyal, while labeling others (who participated in the revolt) as 'non-martial' or 'effeminate'.
• This strategic shift was designed to break the dominance of any single community within the army and to ensure that the troops remained isolated from the general Indian nationalist sentiment.
• The reorganization focused on the Punjab and Nepal regions as primary recruitment grounds, significantly increasing the numerical strength of these 'loyalist' groups in the Indian Army.

 Additional Information

• Peel Commission (1858):
• This commission recommended that the Indian Army should be a mix of different castes and religions to prevent joint action against the British.
• It established a fixed ratio between European and Indian soldiers, maintaining it at 1:2 in the Bengal Army and 1:3 in the Madras and Bombay Armies.
• Technological Control:
• Post-1857, the British strictly reserved the Artillery and Signal Departments for European troops to ensure that Indians did not have access to heavy weaponry.
• Excluded Groups:
• Recruitment from Awadh, Bihar, and Central India was virtually stopped as these soldiers were deemed untrustworthy.
• Communities from South India and Bengal were increasingly labeled as 'non-martial' and their presence in the infantry was significantly reduced.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Based on a discussion paper released by NITI Aayog titled Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06, India has recorded a significant decline in multidimensional poverty from 29.17% in 2013-14 to 11.28% in 2022-23.
• A total of 24.82 crore people escaped multidimensional poverty during this nine-year period due to various government interventions and welfare schemes.
• Uttar Pradesh recorded the largest decline in the absolute number of people living in poverty, with 5.94 crore people moving out of the poverty bracket.
• The state witnessed substantial improvements in indicators such as Nutrition, Years of Schooling, Sanitation, and Cooking Fuel, which are critical components of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (NMPI).
• This progress aligns with the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 1.2, which aims to reduce at least by half the proportion of men, women, and children of all ages living in poverty in all its dimensions.

 Additional Information

• State-wise Performance:
• Following Uttar Pradesh, Bihar saw the second-highest decline with 3.77 crore people escaping poverty.
• Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan followed with 2.30 crore and 1.87 crore people escaping poverty, respectively.
• NMPI Methodology:
• The National Multidimensional Poverty Index is prepared by NITI Aayog as the nodal agency.
• It uses the Alkire-Foster methodology to capture overlapping deprivations across 12 indicators grouped under three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living.
• The 12 indicators include Nutrition, Child-Maternal Health, Schooling, Electricity, Housing, Assets, and Bank Accounts.

The correct answer is Polygenic inheritance.

Key Points

• Polygenic inheritance refers to a type of heredity where a single phenotypic trait is controlled by the cumulative effects of two or more genes located at different loci.
• Unlike simple Mendelian traits, polygenic traits do not exhibit clear-cut differences; instead, they show continuous variation within a population, often represented by a normal distribution or bell-shaped curve.
• Each individual gene involved, known as a polygene, has a small but additive effect on the final phenotype. This means the intensity of the trait depends on the total number of dominant alleles present.
• Common examples in humans include height, skin pigmentation, eye color, and weight, where multiple gene pairs work together to determine the outcome.
• This inheritance pattern is highly susceptible to environmental factors, such as nutrition and sunlight, which can further modify the expression of the genotype.

 Additional Information

• Monogenic inheritance
• Involves a single gene determining a qualitative trait with discrete variations.
• Examples include cystic fibrosis, albinism, and phenylketonuria.
• Linkage
• Describes the tendency of DNA sequences that are close together on a chromosome to be inherited together during the meiosis phase of sexual reproduction.
• It violates the Law of Independent Assortment as genes do not separate independently if they are physically linked.
• Codominance
• A condition in which both alleles of a gene pair in a heterozygote are fully expressed.
• The resulting phenotype is a combination of both; a classic example is the AB blood group in the ABO system, where both A and B antigens are present on red blood cells.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Bihu is the most important cultural and religious festival of Assam, transcending caste and creed, and is deeply rooted in the state's agrarian economy.
• The festival is celebrated in three distinct phases: Rongali or Bohag Bihu (April), Kongali or Kati Bihu (October), and Bhogali or Magh Bihu (January), marking different stages of the paddy crop cycle.
• Rongali Bihu is the most popular, signifying the Assamese New Year and the onset of the spring seeding season, characterized by the Bihu dance, traditional songs (Husori), and the use of the Gamocha.
• Kongali Bihu is a solemn occasion where people light lamps (Saki) in front of Tulsi plants and in granaries to pray for a good harvest and protect the mid-growth crops.
• Bhogali Bihu marks the end of the harvesting season and is centered around community feasting, building temporary thatched huts called Bhelaghar, and burning the Meji (bonfire) on the morning of the main day.
• The Bihu dance, performed by both men and women, is known for its brisk steps and rapid hand movements, accompanied by instruments like the Dhol (drum), Pepa (buffalo horn pipe), and Gogona (harp).

 Additional Information

• Manipur:
• Celebrates Yaoshang (the Manipuri version of Holi) and Lai Haraoba, a ritualistic festival dedicated to the forest deities known as Umang Lai.
• It is also famous for the Sangai Festival, named after the state's rare brow-antlered deer.
• Odisha:
• Known for the Ratha Yatra of Puri and Nuakhai, a major harvest festival celebrated primarily in Western Odisha to welcome the new rice of the season.
• Other notable festivals include Raja Parba, which celebrates womanhood and the earth's fertility.
• Sikkim:
• Celebrates Saga Dawa, which commemorates the birth, enlightenment, and nirvana of Lord Buddha.
• Losoong is the Sikkimese New Year, marked by the Chaam dance performed by monks in various monasteries.

The correct answer is A main shrine with four subsidiary shrines at the four corners.

Key Points

• The term Panchayatana is derived from the Sanskrit words Pancha (meaning five) and Ayatana (meaning house or shrine), signifying a layout consisting of five shrines.
• In this architectural arrangement, the main shrine containing the primary deity is built on a high rectangular plinth (jagati) and is flanked by four smaller subsidiary shrines located at the four corners of the platform.
• The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh, situated in the Lalitpur district of Uttar Pradesh, is one of the earliest and most representative examples of this style, dating back to the Gupta period (circa 6th century CE).
• This style represents a significant evolution in Hindu temple architecture, transitioning from simple flat-roofed structures to complex designs featuring a shikhara (mountain-like spire) over the central sanctum.

 Additional Information

• Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh:
• It is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is renowned for its intricate carvings and stone masonry, marking the early phase of the Nagara style of architecture.
• The temple walls feature exquisite relief sculptures depicting Sheshashayi Vishnu (reclining on the serpent Shesha), Gajendra Moksha, and the Nara-Narayana penance.
• It was the first North Indian temple to incorporate a shikhara, although the structure is now partially ruined.
• Other Examples:
• The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple in Khajuraho and the Lingaraja Temple in Bhubaneswar also exhibit variations of the panchayatana layout, showcasing its longevity in Indian classical architecture.
• The Brahmeswara Temple in Odisha is another classic instance where the four corner shrines remain perfectly intact.

The correct answer is Square Railing.

Key Points

• In Buddhist architecture, a Stupa is a semi-spherical mound designed to house sacred relics of Lord Buddha or prominent monks.
• The Harmika is defined as the Square Railing or balcony-like structure that sits at the very peak of the Anda (the main dome).
• It represents the sacred enclosure and is philosophically regarded as the abode of the gods or the dwelling place of the Devas on the celestial mountain.
• The Harmika serves a structural purpose by holding the Yashti, which is the central shaft or pillar that rises from the center of the stupa.
• This architectural element evolved from early traditions where a simple wooden or stone fence was placed around a sacred tree or an altar to mark its holiness.
• The Great Stupa at Sanchi provides one of the most preserved examples of a Harmika, showcasing its integration into the overall symbolic design of the monument.

 Additional Information

• Anda (Dome-Like Structure):
• The Anda is the massive hemispherical mound that symbolizes the universe or the mound of earth used to cover the Buddha's remains. It signifies the state of Nirvana.
• Chhatra (Sacred Parasol):
• The Chhatra consists of three or more tiered umbrellas mounted on the yashti. They symbolize royalty and the Three Jewels of Buddhism: the Buddha, the Dharma, and the Sangha.
• Vedika (Stone Fence):
• The Vedika is the stone railing found at the base of the stupa. It encloses the Pradakshina Patha (circumambulation path) and separates the sacred internal area from the worldly exterior.
• Torana:
• These are the ornate gateways located at the four cardinal directions. They are heavily decorated with carvings of Jataka stories and floral motifs.

The correct answer is Article 100.

Key Points

• Article 100 of the Constitution of India outlines the rules for voting in the Houses, the power of Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies, and the quorum.
• According to Article 100(3), the quorum required to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
• This one-tenth (or 10%) requirement includes the Presiding Officer and must be met before any business can be legally transacted in the House.
• Article 100(4) stipulates that if at any time during a meeting there is no quorum, it is the duty of the Speaker or Chairman to either adjourn the House or suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.
• Based on current membership, the Lok Sabha requires at least 55 members to be present, while the Rajya Sabha requires at least 25 members to form a quorum.

 Additional Information

• Article 105:
• Specifically defines the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses of Parliament and their members and committees.
• It ensures freedom of speech in Parliament and provides immunity to members from court proceedings for anything said or any vote given during sessions.
• Article 107:
• Governs the introduction and passing of Bills within the Indian Parliament.
• It specifies that a Bill (except for Money Bills) may originate in either House and must be agreed upon by both Houses to be passed.
• Article 108:
• Provides the constitutional framework for a Joint Sitting of both Houses in specific cases of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
• The President summons the Joint Sitting, and it is traditionally presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is Gopuram.

Key Points

• A Gopuram is the monumental entrance gateway typical of Dravida style temple architecture, primarily found in South India.
• These structures serve as the primary threshold between the secular outer world and the sacred inner temple complex, often situated within the Prakara or boundary walls.
• Architecturally, a Gopuram is usually rectangular at the base and tapers upwards through multiple tiers to reach a significant height, concluding with a barrel-vaulted roof known as a Shala.
• Historically, while early temples had modest entrances, the Pandya and Vijayanagara dynasties significantly enlarged them, often making the Gopuram taller and more ornate than the central shrine itself.
• The exterior is typically decorated with intricate stucco sculptures of deities, celestial beings, and mythological scenes, painted in vibrant colors.

 Additional Information

• Vimana:
• In Dravida architecture, this refers to the pyramidal tower built directly over the Garbagriha (sanctum sanctorum).
• Unlike the Gopuram, it is always located at the heart of the temple complex.
• Shikhara:
• In the Nagara style (North India), it is the entire mountain-like spire over the sanctum.
• In the Dravida style, the term specifically denotes only the crowning dome or cupola located at the very peak of the Vimana.
• Mandapa:
• A pillared outdoor hall or pavilion used for public rituals, religious gatherings, or as a waiting area for devotees.
• It is usually positioned between the Gopuram and the Garbagriha.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, Kerala stands at the top of the literacy chart with an overall literacy rate of 93.91%, which is the highest in the country.
• The Census defines a literate person as anyone aged 7 years and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language.
• Kerala exhibits a high degree of gender parity in education, with male literacy recorded at 96.11% and female literacy at 92.07%.
• The state achieved this milestone through long-term social movements and government initiatives such as the Kerala State Literacy Mission, which focused on total functional literacy.
• Geographically, the high literacy in Kerala is attributed to its historical emphasis on social welfare and the early spread of missionary education and princely state reforms in Travancore and Cochin.

 Additional Information

• Mizoram:
• Recorded as the state with the second-highest literacy rate in India at 91.33%.
• It has a male literacy of 93.35% and a female literacy of 89.27%.
• Goa:
• Stands among the top-performing states with a total literacy rate of 88.70%.
• Its male literacy is 92.65% while female literacy is 84.66%.
• Delhi:
• The National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi recorded a literacy rate of 86.21%.
• National Statistics:
• The average literacy rate in India as per 2011 Census data is 74.04%.
• Lakshadweep holds the highest literacy rate among Union Territories at 91.85%.
• Bihar remains the state with the lowest literacy rate in India at 61.80%.

The correct answer is Sugarcane.

Key Points

• Saccharum officinarum is the scientific name for the domesticated species of Sugarcane, which is a large, perennial grass.
• It belongs to the family Poaceae (the grass family) and the tribe Andropogoneae.
• The plant is the primary source of sucrose, which is extracted from its thick, fibrous stalks and processed into refined sugar, jaggery, and molasses.
• It is a C4 plant, characterized by its high efficiency in photosynthesis and water use, thriving in tropical and subtropical climates.
• Ideal growth conditions include temperatures between 20°C to 35°C and an annual rainfall of 75 cm to 100 cm.
• India is one of the world's leading producers of Sugarcane, with major cultivation hubs in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu.

 Additional Information

• Wheat:
• Scientific Name: Triticum aestivum.
• It is a Rabi crop in India and the world's most widely cultivated cereal.
• Contains gluten, a protein essential for bread making.
• Rice:
• Scientific Name: Oryza sativa.
• It is a Kharif crop that requires significant irrigation or standing water.
• It serves as the staple food for more than half of the global population.
• Barley:
• Scientific Name: Hordeum vulgare.
• One of the first domesticated grains, it is highly resistant to drought and soil salinity.
• It is a key raw material in the brewing and distilling industries for producing malt.

The correct answer is Pleiotropic gene.

Key Points

• A Pleiotropic gene is a single genetic unit that influences multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits. This phenomenon is known as pleiotropy.
• The underlying cause is usually that the gene product (such as an enzyme) is involved in multiple metabolic pathways or serves various functions in different tissues.
• A prominent example in humans is Phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by a mutation in a single gene on chromosome 12 that codes for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.
• This single mutation leads to diverse clinical manifestations, including mental retardation, reduced hair pigmentation, and skin discoloration.
• Sickle Cell Anemia is another classic example, where a mutation in the β-globin gene affects the shape of red blood cells, leads to anemia, and impacts organ function, while also providing resistance to Malaria.

 Additional Information

• Allelic gene:
• Refers to alleles, which are alternative forms of the same gene located at the same locus on homologous chromosomes.
• They govern the same trait (e.g., eye color) but can express different variations (e.g., blue or brown).
• Metagenic gene:
• This term is primarily linked to Metagenesis, or the alternation of generations, commonly found in certain invertebrates like Cnidarians.
• It does not specifically refer to a single gene controlling multiple unrelated traits.
• Polygenic Inheritance:
• This is the inverse of pleiotropy, where multiple genes collectively control a single trait, such as human skin color or height.

The correct answer is 23 & 24.

Key Points

• Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (unpaid involuntary labour), and other similar forms of forced labour. It is a unique right available against both the State and private individuals, ensuring the preservation of individual dignity.
• Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or engagement in other hazardous employment such as construction work or railways. This article aims to protect the health and childhood of young citizens, aligning with Directive Principles of State Policy.
• The Right against Exploitation is contained in Part III of the Constitution and is enforceable by the Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226.

 Additional Information

• Articles 29 and 30:
• These articles cover Cultural and Educational Rights.
• Article 29 protects the distinct language, script, or culture of minorities.
• Article 30 guarantees the right of religious and linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
• Articles 12 and 13:
• These are general provisions of Part III.
• Article 12 defines the 'State', including the government, parliament, and local authorities.
• Article 13 provides for judicial review, declaring laws void if they are inconsistent with fundamental rights.
• Articles 19 and 20:
• These fall under the Right to Freedom.
• Article 19 guarantees six freedoms, including speech, assembly, and profession.
• Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offences, prohibiting ex-post-facto laws and double jeopardy.

The correct answer is Part IV-A.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution of India; they were added later to outline the moral obligations of individuals toward the nation.
• These duties were incorporated through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee during the internal emergency.
• The duties are contained within Part IV-A, which features only one article, Article 51A.
• Initially, there were 10 Fundamental Duties. The 11th Fundamental Duty, which mandates parents or guardians to provide education opportunities to their children aged 6 to 14 years, was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• These duties serve as a reminder to citizens that while enjoying their rights, they must also be conscious of their duties to their country and fellow citizens.

 Additional Information

• Source and Nature:
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the constitution of the erstwhile USSR (now Russia).
• These duties are non-justiciable, meaning there is no direct legal sanction by the courts for their violation, although Parliament is free to enforce them through suitable legislation.
• They are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners residing in India.
• Context of Other Parts:
• Part II: Relates to Citizenship covering Articles 5 to 11.
• Part IV: Contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) from Articles 36 to 51.
• Part V: Deals with The Union, including the Executive, Parliament, and Judiciary, spanning Articles 52 to 151.
• Part VIII: Pertains to the administration of Union Territories under Articles 239 to 242.

The correct answer is Leaf.

Key Points

• The leaf is the primary vegetative organ in vascular plants specifically adapted for photosynthesis, which is the conversion of light energy into chemical energy.
• To optimize light interception, leaves typically possess a thin, broad, and flattened structure called the lamina or leaf blade, providing a maximum surface area relative to their volume.
• The internal tissue, specifically the palisade mesophyll, consists of vertically elongated cells tightly packed with chloroplasts to capture photons efficiently as light penetrates the upper surface.
• Leaves contain chlorophyll a and b, the essential photosynthetic pigments that absorb light most effectively in the blue and red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
• The spatial arrangement of leaves on a stem, known as phyllotaxy, is an evolutionary adaptation designed to reduce self-shading and ensure each leaf receives sufficient solar radiation.
• The epidermis of the leaf is covered by a transparent waxy cuticle that protects the organ while allowing visible light to pass through to the underlying metabolic tissues.

 Additional Information

• Stem:
• Functions primarily as the mechanical support for the plant and as a conduit for the transport of water via xylem and nutrients via phloem.
• Root:
• Specialized for the absorption of water and minerals from the soil and provides anchorage; since they usually grow underground, they lack photosynthetic pigments.
• Flower:
• Represents the reproductive organ of angiosperms, containing specialized structures like petals, stamens, and carpels to facilitate pollination and seed dispersal.

The correct answer is Dravida, with its stepped tower.

Key Points

• The Dravida style of temple architecture is the signature architectural form of South India, reaching its zenith under dynasties like the Pallavas, Cholas, Pandyas, and Vijayanagara rulers.
• A primary characteristic of this style is the Vimana, a pyramid-shaped tower located above the Garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum) that consists of progressively smaller stories or talas.
• Unlike Northern styles, Dravidian temples are characterized by the presence of a compound wall and massive, highly decorated entrance gateways known as Gopurams, which often surpass the height of the main temple tower.
• The layout typically includes a Mandapa (pillared hall) leading to the shrine and a temple tank (Pushkarni) within the premises for ritual purification.
• The Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur and the Meenakshi Temple in Madurai are quintessential examples of this architectural tradition.

 Additional Information

• Nagara Style:
• Predominant in North India, it features a curvilinear tower called a Shikhara.
• These temples usually lack elaborate boundary walls and monumental Gopurams.
• Vesara Style:
• Found primarily in the Deccan region, it is a hybrid style combining features of both Nagara and Dravida architecture.
• It was championed by the Chalukyas and Hoysalas, often featuring star-shaped or stellate ground plans.
• Kalinga Style:
• A sub-style of Nagara architecture specific to Odisha, consisting of two main parts: the Deula (tower) and the Jagamohana (assembly hall).
• The Sun Temple at Konark is a world-renowned example of this style.

The correct answer is Whole grains.

Key Points

• Dietary fibre, also known as roughage, refers to the edible parts of plants or analogous carbohydrates that are resistant to digestion and absorption in the human small intestine.
• Whole grains are a premier source of fibre because they include the bran, which is the multi-layered outer skin of the edible kernel containing significant amounts of cellulose and hemicellulose.
• Unlike refined grains, whole grains like oats, barley, quinoa, and brown rice retain the germ and endosperm, ensuring a high concentration of both soluble and insoluble fibre.
• Insoluble fibre found in these grains adds bulk to the stool and helps food pass more quickly through the stomach and intestines, effectively preventing constipation.
• Soluble fibre helps in lowering blood cholesterol levels and improving glucose tolerance, which is vital for managing diabetes.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends a daily intake of approximately 25 to 30 grams of dietary fibre for healthy adults to maintain optimal gastrointestinal health.

 Additional Information

• Animal-Based Products (Milk and Meat):
• Milk is an excellent source of Calcium, Vitamin B12, and Protein, but it contains no dietary fibre as fibre is exclusively a plant-derived component.
• Meat (such as poultry, beef, or fish) consists of animal muscle tissue and connective proteins like collagen; however, it lacks the cell walls made of cellulose that provide dietary fibre.
• Processed Carbohydrates (Sugar):
• Sugar is a simple carbohydrate (sucrose) that provides immediate energy but lacks any structural plant matter, meaning it offers zero nutritional roughage.
• Highly processed or refined foods often have their natural fibre content removed during manufacturing to improve texture and shelf life.