DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 22 Apr, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Based on the information provided, we can determine the floor arrangement of the six people step-by-step:

1. A lives on the topmost floor, which is Floor 6.
2. Only three people live between A and O. This means O must live on Floor 2 (with floors 5, 4, and 3 in between).
3. I lives on a floor below O. Since O is on Floor 2, I must live on Floor 1.
4. U lives on an even-numbered floor. The remaining floors are 5, 4, and 3. The only even floor left is Floor 4, so U lives on Floor 4.
5. E lives on an odd-numbered floor but not on Floor 5. The remaining floors are 5 and 3. Since E cannot be on Floor 5, E must live on Floor 3.
6. V lives on the last remaining floor, which is Floor 5.

The final floor arrangement is as follows:

V lives on Floor 5 and O lives on Floor 2.

The people living between them are on Floor 4 (U) and Floor 3 (E).

Total number of people between V and O = Two.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given statement: P > E > K < C = D

Conclusions:

i) P < C → False (As P > E > K < C = D. We know that both P and C are greater than K, but the exact relationship between P and C cannot be determined. Therefore, P < C does not definitely follow.)

ii) D > K → True (As P > E > K < C = D. Since C > K and C = D, therefore D > K. Hence, the conclusion follows.)

So, only Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

ALEM is coded as '5139'

MILE is coded as '3956'

Therefore, the code for I is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Harish ranked 12^th from the top.

Harish ranked 7^th from the bottom.

Formula:

Total students = Rank from top + Rank from bottom − 1

Calculation:

= 12 + 7 − 1

= 19 − 1

= 18

Therefore, the total number of students in the class is 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

LORD is coded as '7532'

FOLD is coded as '5326'

Therefore, the code for F is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

According to the given information, Six people (A, B, C, D, E, and F) are sitting in a row facing north. We will arrange them step-by-step based on the conditions provided.

F sits at the extreme right end of the line.

Only two people sit to the right of E. This means E is at the 4^th position from the left.

A sits second to the left of B. C sits to the immediate right of D.

To satisfy the condition A sits second to the left of B, the only possible positions remaining are 3 and 5 (since position 4 is occupied by E). If we place B at position 5, A sits at position 3.

Now, the remaining positions are 1 and 2. C sits to the immediate right of D, so D must be at position 1 and C at position 2.

Final Arrangement:

Based on the final arrangement, E is at position 4 and B is at position 5.

There are 0 people sitting between E and B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is based on the rearrangement of letters in alphabetical order and comparing their original positions with their new positions.

Original Word: MAESTRO

Comparing the letters at each position:

• Position 1: M becomes A (Changed)
• Position 2: A becomes E (Changed)
• Position 3: E becomes M (Changed)
• Position 4: S becomes O (Changed)
• Position 5: T becomes R (Changed)
• Position 6: R becomes S (Changed)
• Position 7: O becomes T (Changed)

As observed, none of the letters remain in the same position after being arranged in alphabetical order.

Therefore, the number of letters that remain unchanged is 0.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

MILE is coded as '5128'

FILM is coded as '2861'

Therefore, the code for 'F' is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Based on the information provided, we can arrange the exam schedule for S, T, U, V, X, Y, and Z from Monday to Sunday as follows:

1. U has an exam on the last day of the week (Sunday).

2. Only three people have exams between Y and U. This means Y must have an exam on Wednesday (the three days between them being Thursday, Friday, and Saturday).

3. S has an exam on someday before T, and only one person has an exam between T and S.

4. Z has an exam immediately the day before V (this requires two consecutive vacant spots).

5. X does not have an exam on Friday.

Let's test the positions for S and T:

If we place S on Tuesday and T on Thursday (one person Y between them), then the remaining consecutive days for Z and V are Friday and Saturday.

This leaves Monday for X. Since Monday is not Friday, this arrangement satisfies the condition that X is not on Friday.

The final arrangement is:

Now, we need to find how many people have exams after X.

The people who have exams after X are S, Y, T, Z, V, and U.

Total count = 6

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Series:

(Left) 8 6 7 2 3 8 7 7 4 1 5 6 6 1 3 9 7 9 5 1 9 5 9 7 8 1 6 (Right)

Required pattern: Odd Number → Odd Number → Even Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 8 6 7 2 2 3 8 7 7 4 4 1 5 6 6 1 3 9 7 9 7 9 7 9 5 5 1 9 1 9 5 9 5 9 5 9 7 9 7 8 8 1 6 (Right)

Odd numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 7 in (7 7 4)

→ 7 in (9 7 8)

→ 1 in (8 1 6)

Therefore, there are 3 such odd numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 — 3.

Given Series:

(Left) 7 5 2 4 9 5 3 8 9 1 2 6 6 6 8 4 5 3 9 1 7 9 8 6 3 6 9 (Right)

Required pattern: Odd Number → Even Number → Even Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 5 2 4 4 9 5 3 3 8 9 9 1 1 2 6 2 6 6 6 6 8 8 4 5 3 9 1 7 7 9 8 9 8 6 8 6 3 6 9 (Right)

Even numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 2 in (5 2 4)

→ 8 in (3 8 9)

→ 2 in (1 2 6)

Therefore, the even numbers satisfying the condition are: 2, 2, and 8.

Therefore, there are 3 such even numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 — 3.

Given Series:

(Left) K A M A L K I S H O R E K A P I L P O O M N A K A M I I N (Right)

Find the required letters:

→ 5^th letter from the left end = L

→ 7^th letter from the right end = A

English Alphabet Positions:

A = 1

L = 12

Letters between A and L:

B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K

Number of letters between A and L

= 12 - 1 - 1

= 10

Therefore, there are 10 letters in the English alphabetical order between the two letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4 — TEN".

Solution

⇒ Total seven friends: A, B, C, D, K, L, and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

⇒ C sits third to the left of B, and M sits to the immediate left of B.

⇒ Only K sits between A and C. Since M is already sitting near B, K and A must occupy the seats to the left of C.

⇒ D is not an immediate neighbor of C. The neighbors of C are the two chairs next to it. One is occupied by K. D cannot sit in the other neighbor seat. Thus, D sits between A and B.

⇒ The remaining person L must sit in the seat between M and C.

⇒ To find who sits third to the left of L, we move clockwise from L:

⇒ 1^st left of L is C.

⇒ 2^nd left of L is K.

⇒ 3^rd left of L is A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Solution

Given Statements:

All peas are monkeys.

All monkeys are balls.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some balls are monkeys - Follows (Since all monkeys are balls, the region of balls occupied by monkeys ensures that some balls are definitely monkeys.)

II. All peas are balls - Follows (Since all peas are inside monkeys and all monkeys are inside balls, all peas are inherently inside balls.)

So, both conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Word:

LOUDSPEAKER

Arrange the letters in reverse alphabetical order:

LOUDSPEAKER → U S R P O L K E E D A

Compare the positions:

No letter remains at the same position after arranging the letters in reverse alphabetical order.

Therefore, 0 letters remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1 — Zero".

Given Series:

(Left) M J M K X J B H S U F O A V W S Y N W Q M (Right)

Required pattern: Consonant → Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) M J M J M K M K X K X J X J B J B H B H S H S U S U F O A V W S Y N W Q M (Right)

Consonants satisfying the condition:

→ S in (H S U)

Therefore, there is 1 such consonant.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3 — One".

Given statement: A < B < C < D = E = F

Conclusions:

i) A = C → False (As A < B < C < D = E = F. Since A is less than B and B is less than C, therefore A < C. Hence, A cannot be equal to C.)

ii) A = F → False (As A < B < C < D = E = F. Since A < C < D and D = F, therefore A < F. Hence, A cannot be equal to F.)

So, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

John ranked 8^th from the top.

John ranked 9^th from the bottom.

Formula:

Total students = Rank from top + Rank from bottom − 1

Calculation:

= 8 + 9 − 1

= 17 − 1

= 16

Therefore, the total number of students in the class is 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The possible relationship diagram:

In terms of relationship, the brother of one's mother is known as the maternal uncle or simply the Mother's brother.

Therefore, A is the Mother's brother of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: C × F = K L @ G

It means: C is the father of F, F is the sister of K, K is the brother of L, and L is the wife of G.

⇒ C is the father of F, K, and L.

⇒ L is the wife of G.

⇒ Therefore, C is the father of G's wife.

⇒ Thus, C is related to G as Wife's father.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For GSNH to LXSM

For PIJT to UNOY

The common pattern is a constant positional shift of +5 for every letter.

Option 1) SJLA to XOQF

This pair follows the same logic of +5 shift for each letter.

Option 2) PULG to ULUB

The logic is not followed here.

Option 3) LFTE to QTFJ

The logic is not followed here.

Option 4) GSRJ to JXWG

The logic is not followed here.

Thus, the pair SJLA : XOQF follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Sign Mapping:

Given Equation:

13 − 2 + 29 ÷ 66 × 6 = ?

After replacing the signs with their respective operations:

= 13 × 2 − 29 + 66 ÷ 6

= 13 × 2 − 29 + 11

= 26 - 29 + 11

= 37 - 29

= 8

Therefore, the value in place of the question mark is 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given sign interchanges:

For the given equation:

54 − 95 × 5 + 7 ÷ 10 = ?

After interchanging the signs (+ with −, and × with ÷), the equation becomes:

= 54 + 95 ÷ 5 − 7 × 10 

= 54 + 19 - 7 × 10

= 54 + 19 - 70

= 73 - 70

= 3

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of the letters in the English alphabetical order.

1) BF – GK

2) YC – DG

3) HL – MQ

4) DH – IM

On observing the above patterns, we find that the pair YC – DG follows a different logic in its second cluster compared to the others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Operation Decoding Table:

Given Expression:

56 A 8 C 6 B 7 D 9 = ?

Step 1: Replace the letters with their respective operators

= 56 ÷ 8 + 6 × 7 − 9

= 7 + 6 × 7 - 9

= 7 + 42 - 9

= 49 - 9

= 40

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 40.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic: The difference between the first and second letter is 9, and the difference between the second and third letter is 1.

1. BKL:

2. JST:

3. FOP:

4) RWX:

The pattern observed in BKL, JST, and FOP is (+9, +1). However, RWX follows the pattern (+5, +1).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is:

Logic: In each letter-cluster pair, the second cluster is formed by subtracting 1 from the positional value of each letter in the first cluster.

1. NJ-MI

2. AW-ZV

3) RN-PO

4. HD-GC

The pattern observed in options 1, 2, and 4 is a constant shift of −1 for both letters. However, RN-PO follows a different pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Solution

Given Statements:

Some pistols are guns.

All guns are shields.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No pistol is a shield - Does not follow (Since some pistols are guns and all guns are shields, the part of pistols that are guns will definitely be shields.)

II. All shields are guns - Does not follow (While all guns are shields, the reverse is not necessarily true in the least possible Venn diagram; it is only a possibility.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is that the pattern is based on a triple difference series, where the differences between the numbers follow a specific growth pattern.

Given Series: 18, 19, 24, 39, 73, ?

Step 1: Calculate the first level of differences:

Step 2: Calculate the second level of differences:

Step 3: Calculate the third level of differences:

The differences in the third level are multiples of 3 (6, 9, ...). The next difference in the third level should be 12.

Step 4: Work backward to find the missing term:

Next value in second level = 19 + 12 = 31

Next value in first level = 34 + 31 = 65

Missing term = 73 + 65 = 138

Therefore, the number that should come in place of ‘?’ is 138.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The objective is to identify the option figure in which Figure (X) is contained as a sub-part, maintaining the exact same orientation because rotation is strictly not allowed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The given sequence is an arithmetic series where each subsequent term is obtained by adding a constant difference of 27 to the preceding number.

Therefore, the value that should come in place of '?' in the series is 200.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic:  (First Number) + 7 = Second Number.

For the first pair X : 56

If we take X = 49, then 49 + 7 = 56.

For the second pair 72 : Y

If we take Y = 79, then 72 + 7 = 79.

By comparing this with the given options:

1. X=46, Y=87 → 46 + 7 = 53 (Not 56); 72 + 7 = 79 (Not 87)

2. X=49, Y=79 → 49 + 7 = 56; 72 + 7 = 79 (Matches the pattern)

3. X=46, Y=79 → 46 + 7 = 53 (Not 56); 72 + 7 = 79

4. X=49, Y=81 → 49 + 7 = 56; 72 + 7 = 79 (Not 81)

Therefore, the values that replace X and Y are 49 and 79 respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is the substitution of letters with their respective mathematical symbols and then applying the BODMAS rule to solve the equation.

The given mapping is:

Given Equation:

13 P 9 S 68 R 5 S (62 Q 2) R 5 P 11 S 43

Replace the letters with the signs:

= 13 × 9 + 68 − 5 + (62 ÷ 2) − 5 × 11 + 43

= 13 × 9 + 68 − 5 + 31 − 5 × 11 + 43

= 117 + 68 − 5 + 31 − 55 + 43

= 259 - 60

= 199

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 199.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series follows an alternating addition pattern where 11 and 17 are added sequentially to obtain the next term.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the question mark is 85.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The second number in each pair is obtained by adding 1 to the first number and then dividing the result by 2.

First Number + 1 = 2 × Second Number

For the pair 23 : Y →

Applying the logic:

(23 + 1) ÷ 2 = Y

24 ÷ 2 = 12

So, Y = 12.

Similarly, for the pair X : 10 →

Applying the logic:

(X + 1) ÷ 2 = 10

X + 1 = 10 × 2

X + 1 = 20

X = 20 − 1 = 19

So, X = 19.

Therefore, the values that replace X and Y are X = 19 and Y = 12 respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct mirror image of the given code placed at 'PQ' is:

Therefore, the correct mirror image is Option (3).

Given Equation: 14 × 7 − 30 + (18 ÷ 2) × 4 − 45 + 12 × 5 = 115

Let us check Option (1): 5 and 7

By interchanging the numbers 5 and 7, the equation becomes:

= 14 × 5 − 30 + (18 ÷ 2) × 4 − 45 + 12 × 7 = 115

= 70 - 30 + 9 × 4 - 45 + 84 = 115

= 70 - 30 + 36 - 45 + 84 = 115

= 190 - 75 = 115

= 115 = 115 (LHS = RHS)

Since the first option makes the equation correct, we do not need to check the remaining options. However, for verification:

Option (2): 18 and 12 → 14 × 7 − 30 + (12 ÷ 2) × 4 − 45 + 18 × 5 = 98 − 30 + 24 − 45 + 90 = 137 (Incorrect)

Option (3): 4 and 5 → 14 × 7 − 30 + (18 ÷ 2) × 5 − 45 + 12 × 4 = 98 − 30 + 45 − 45 + 48 = 116 (Incorrect)

Option (4): 18 and 30 → 14 × 7 − 18 + (30 ÷ 2) × 4 − 45 + 12 × 5 = 98 − 18 + 60 − 45 + 60 = 155 (Incorrect)

Therefore, interchanging the numbers 5 and 7 makes the equation correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is based on the transposition of letters within the words. Each group of letters is rearranged to form the next group in the sequence.

For GUNS − NGUS − SNUG

Logic Step 1: Positions (1, 2, 3, 4) move to (3, 1, 2, 4).

Logic Step 2: Positions (1, 2, 3, 4) of the original word are reversed to (4, 3, 2, 1).

For SALT − LSAT − TLAS

The same logic applies: 1^st triad (1234), 2^nd triad (3124), 3^rd triad (4321).

Checking Option 3) BULK − LBUK − KLUB

This pair follows the exact same transposition logic (1234 → 3124 → 4321).

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number + Second number) × 4 = Third number

For (98, 65, 652) →

Sum of the first and second number = 98 + 65 = 163

Third number = 163 × 4 = 652

For (45, 73, 472) →

Sum of the first and second number = 45 + 73 = 118

Third number = 118 × 4 = 472

Similarly, let's check for the set (6, 73, 316):

Sum of the first and second number = 6 + 73 = 79

Third number = 79 × 4 = 316

Therefore, the set (6, 73, 316) follows the same relationship as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is a specific rearrangement of letters in two steps:

For CARD − RCAD − RDCA

For NODE − DNOE − DENO

The common pattern is:

1. First to Second Word: Move the third letter to the first position.
2. Second to Third Word: Move the fourth letter to the second position.

Option 1) TRIP − ITRP − IPTR

This triad follows the exact same rearrangement logic.

Option 2) BRAN − ABRN − ANRB

The logic is not followed here. Following the pattern would result in ANBR, not ANRB.

Option 3) CHAT − ACHT− ACTH

The logic is not followed here. Following the pattern would result in ATCH, not ACTH.

Option 4) PLOT − LOTP − OTPA

The logic is not followed here. The first shift is incorrect; it should result in OPLT.

Thus, the triad TRIP − ITRP − IPTR follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The correct answer is Partition of Bengal by the British.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement was a direct reaction to the Partition of Bengal, which was officially announced by Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India, in July 1905.
• The British claimed the partition was for administrative convenience due to Bengal's large population of approximately 78 million; however, the actual motive was to weaken the Indian National Movement by creating a communal divide between Hindus and Muslims.
• On August 7, 1905, a massive meeting was held at the Town Hall in Calcutta, where the formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made and the Boycott of foreign goods was first suggested.
• The movement emphasized the use of indigenous products and the burning of British-made cloth, fostering self-reliance and national unity against colonial rule.
• The day the partition took effect, October 16, 1905, was observed as a Day of Mourning across Bengal, marked by fasting and the singing of Vande Mataram.

 Additional Information

• Formation of the Indian National Congress:
• Established in December 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay.
• Founded by retired British officer A.O. Hume, with Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee serving as its first president.
• Introduction of the Rowlatt Act:
• Passed in March 1919, it empowered the British government to imprison political activists without trial for up to two years.
• This 'Black Act' led to the Rowlatt Satyagraha and the tragic Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar.
• Prominent Leaders:
• The movement saw the rise of the Extremist faction, led by the Lal-Bal-Pal trio: Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal.
• Rabindranath Tagore composed Amar Sonar Bangla during this period, which later became the national anthem of Bangladesh.

The correct answer is Jitin Prasada.

Key Points

• Union Minister of State for Electronics and IT, Jitin Prasada, officially launched the SATYA (STQC Automated Testing Yield and Analysis) portal in June 2024.
• The portal was developed by the Standardisation Testing and Quality Certification (STQC) Directorate to modernize and digitize its laboratory operations and certification workflows.
• SATYA serves as a robust digital platform intended to enhance transparency, accountability, and efficiency in the testing and certification of electronic products and software.
• The STQC Directorate is an attached office under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), serving as a primary body for quality assurance in the Indian IT sector.
• By automating the workflow, the portal reduces manual intervention and turnaround time for industries seeking quality compliance certificates.

 Additional Information

• STQC Directorate:
• It operates a network of testing and calibration laboratories across India to provide services at par with international standards like ISO/IEC.
• The directorate is instrumental in supporting the Make in India initiative by ensuring domestic electronic goods meet global quality benchmarks.
• Other Union Ministers:
• Ashwini Vaishnaw: He holds the Cabinet Minister portfolio for the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Railways, and Information and Broadcasting.
• Piyush Goyal: He is the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, responsible for trade policies and industrial growth.
• Rajeev Chandrasekhar: He served as the former Minister of State for Electronics and IT before the 2024 cabinet reshuffle.

The correct answer is Normative economics.

Key Points

• Normative economics is a perspective in economics that reflects ideological, prescriptive, and value-based judgments rather than objective facts.
• It focuses on the fairness of the economy and what the outcomes of economic policy ought to be or should be according to specific social or personal goals.
• Unlike other branches, normative statements cannot be tested or verified through empirical evidence or data analysis because they are rooted in ethics and moral philosophies.
• Economic policies concerning income redistribution, wealth equality, and social welfare are primary examples of normative economics in action, as they suggest how a society should distribute its resources.
• A classic normative statement would be 'The minimum wage should be increased to ensure a living wage for all workers', which expresses a value judgment about social justice.

 Additional Information

• Positive economics:
• Concentrates on objective description and the explanation of economic phenomena.
• It uses cause-and-effect relationships to describe 'what is' and relies on empirical data that can be scientifically tested.
• Microeconomics:
• Analyzes the behavior of individual agents such as households, consumers, and business firms.
• It studies how these units make decisions regarding the allocation of scarce resources and the pricing of goods and services.
• Macroeconomics:
• Deals with the performance, structure, and behavior of the entire economy.
• Key variables include Gross Domestic Product (GDP), inflation rates, aggregate demand, and national unemployment levels.

The correct answer is Jammu & Kashmir.

Key Points

• The 6^th National Rafting Championship, themed as 'The Ultimate River Battle', was organized in the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir in February 2026.
• The event took place on the Chenab River in the Reasi district, which is increasingly recognized for its high-grade rapids and potential for white-water rafting.
• The championship was conducted through the collaborative efforts of the Directorate of Tourism, Jammu and the Indian Rafting Foundation (IRF) to promote adventure tourism in the region.
• Participation included various professional teams from across India, including State Tourism boards, Para-military forces, and units of the Indian Army.
• The event serves as a platform to highlight Jammu & Kashmir's diverse natural landscapes and to establish the Chenab River as a competitive circuit for international rafting events.

 Additional Information

• Ladakh:
• Renowned for the Zanskar River rafting, often called the 'Grand Canyon of India', and the Indus River, providing Grade 1 to Grade 4 rapids.
• Uttarakhand:
• Considered the rafting capital of India, with Rishikesh on the Ganga River being the most prominent hub for national and international competitions.
• Himachal Pradesh:
• Offers significant rafting opportunities on the Beas River in Kullu and the Sutlej River near Shimla, hosting various annual adventure festivals.

The correct answer is Addverb.

Key Points

• In a significant milestone for the Make in India initiative, Addverb, a leading robotics company based in Noida, introduced India's first indigenous wheeled humanoid robot designed for industrial applications.
• The unveiling took place during LogiMAT India, a premier international trade fair for intralogistics and supply chain solutions, highlighting the company's commitment to Industry 4.0 standards.
• The robot is specifically engineered to operate in complex industrial environments, such as warehouses and factories, where it can perform tasks like material handling, sorting, and assisting human workers.
• Unlike traditional bipedal humanoids, this robot utilizes a wheeled base to ensure higher stability, faster mobility, and energy efficiency on the flat floors typical of logistics centers.
• Equipped with advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI), Computer Vision, and SLAM (Simultaneous Localization and Mapping) technology, the robot can navigate autonomously and interact safely with its surroundings.

 Additional Information

• Addverb Technologies:
• Founded in 2016, the company specializes in warehouse automation and robotics.
• In 2022, Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) acquired a majority stake in the company for approximately 132 million dollars.
• The company operates a state-of-the-art manufacturing facility called Bot-Valley in Noida and a larger plant known as Bot-Verse in Greater Noida.
• LogiMAT India:
• This event is the Indian edition of the globally renowned LogiMAT trade show held in Stuttgart, Germany.
• It focuses on innovations in distribution, material handling, and information flow within the supply chain sector.

The correct answer is By directly purchasing long-term government and private sector securities.

Key Points

• Quantitative Easing (QE) is an unconventional monetary policy employed by central banks to stimulate the economy when standard tools, such as lowering short-term interest rates, become ineffective (often near the zero lower bound).
• The mechanism involves the central bank creating new electronic money to perform large-scale asset purchases, specifically targeting long-term government bonds, mortgage-backed securities, and sometimes corporate debt.
• By purchasing these assets, the central bank increases the monetary base and injects liquidity directly into the financial system, providing commercial banks with higher excess reserves.
• This massive increase in demand for securities raises their market price, which has an inverse relationship with bond yields, effectively lowering long-term interest rates across the broader economy.
• Lower long-term rates reduce the cost of capital for businesses and mortgages for consumers, thereby encouraging investment, spending, and helping to maintain inflation targets during recessionary periods.

 Additional Information

• Distinction from Conventional Tools:
• Reserve Requirements: Refers to the percentage of deposits banks must hold in reserve; while adjusting this influences money multiplier effects, it is not the primary lever of QE.
• Discount Rate: The rate at which the central bank lends to commercial banks via the discount window; raising it is a contractionary measure to reduce the money supply.
• Transmission Channels:
• Portfolio Rebalancing: As bond yields drop, investors shift funds into higher-yielding assets like equities or corporate bonds, boosting asset prices and wealth.
• Signaling Effect: QE signals the central bank's commitment to keeping accommodative conditions for an extended period, anchoring inflation expectations.

The correct answer is Jyotiba Phule.

Key Points

• Satyashodhak Samaj, also known as the Truth Seekers Society, was founded by Mahatma Jyotiba Phule on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra.
• The primary mission of the society was to liberate the Shudra and Ati-Shudra communities from the exploitation of the priestly classes and high-caste dominance.
• The movement emphasized social equality, rationalism, and the abolition of the caste system, advocating that no mediator was required between a devotee and God.
• Jyotiba Phule utilized his literary works, most notably Gulamgiri (Slavery) published in 1873, to critique the social hierarchy and provide a historical context for the oppression of the masses.
• The Samaj played a pioneering role in promoting universal education, particularly for women and the marginalized, viewing knowledge as the ultimate tool for social transformation.

 Additional Information

• M.G. Ranade:
• He was a distinguished judge and a founding member of the Indian National Congress.
• He was heavily involved with the Prarthana Samaj and established the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha to represent the grievances of the people.
• Dayananda Saraswati:
• He founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 in Bombay with the slogan 'Back to the Vedas'.
• He authored Satyarth Prakash and worked extensively toward shuddhi (purification) and the rejection of idol worship and untouchability.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
• A key figure of the Bengal Renaissance, he was a polymath who focused on women's education and legalizing widow remarriage.
• His tireless efforts led to the enactment of the Hindu Widows Remarriage Act in 1856.
• Savitribai Phule:
• The wife of Jyotiba Phule, she is regarded as the first female teacher of modern India and was an integral leader of the Satyashodhak Samaj.

The correct answer is New Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty.

Key Points

• The New Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty, often abbreviated as New START, was signed on April 8, 2010, in Prague by United States President Barack Obama and Russian President Dmitry Medvedev.
• The treaty officially entered into force on February 5, 2011, and was designed to replace the 1991 START I agreement and the 2002 Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT).
• The agreement limits each side to no more than 1,550 deployed nuclear warheads and 700 deployed missiles and bombers, providing a framework for transparency and mutual verification through on-site inspections and data exchanges.
• Originally set to expire in 2021, the treaty was extended for a period of five years by both nations in January 2021, extending its duration until February 5, 2026.
• It remains the only remaining major nuclear arms control agreement between the United States and Russia that limits their strategic nuclear forces.

 Additional Information

• Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT):
• Adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996, it seeks to prohibit all nuclear explosions in all environments.
• While signed by many nations, it has not technically entered into force as it awaits ratification by key Annex 2 states.
• Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT):
• Signed in 2002 and also known as the Moscow Treaty, it required the two nations to reduce their deployed strategic nuclear warheads to a level between 1,700 and 2,200.
• It was criticized for lacking the detailed verification protocols found in the START series.
• Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START I):
• A bilateral treaty between the United States and the Soviet Union signed in 1991 that mandated significant reductions in the number of ICBMs and strategic warheads.

The correct answer is Nithya Gandhe.

Key Points

• Nithya Gandhe, representing the state of Telangana, clinched the gold medal in the Women's 100m dash at the National Federation Senior Athletic Championship.
• The championship was organized in Kochi, Kerala, in April 2025, serving as a critical selection trial for upcoming international athletic meets.
• She clocked a significant timing to beat her competitors, demonstrating her rising dominance in the Indian sprinting circuit and reinforcing her position as one of the fastest women in the country.
• The Federation Cup is one of the most prestigious annual events conducted by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), attracting top-tier athletes from across various Indian states and union territories.

 Additional Information

• Hima Das:
• Known as the 'Dhing Express', she is a specialist in 400m and 200m events from Assam.
• She became the first Indian woman to win a gold medal in a track event at the World U20 Championships.
• Jyothi Yarraji:
• She is India's premier 100m hurdler and holds multiple national records in the hurdles discipline.
• She has consistently represented India at the Asian Games and World Athletics Championships.
• Dutee Chand:
• A professional sprinter from Odisha and a former national record holder in the 100m category.
• She is a two-time Asian Games silver medalist and has competed at the Rio and Tokyo Olympics.

The correct answer is High power money.

Key Points

• High-powered money, often represented by the symbol H, is the total liability of the monetary authority of a country, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• It is the sum of currency held by the public (notes and coins in circulation) and cash reserves of the commercial banks.
• Bank reserves consist of two parts: vault cash held by commercial banks and deposits maintained by these banks with the Central Bank.
• It is also known as the Monetary Base or Reserve Money (M0), as it acts as the primary source for the creation of credit and the total money supply in the economy.
• The money supply in an economy is a multiple of high-powered money, governed by the money multiplier effect, which depends on the reserve-deposit ratio and the currency-deposit ratio.

 Additional Information

• Money Supply Aggregates:
• M1 (Narrow Money): Consists of currency with the public plus demand deposits with the banking system and other deposits with the RBI.
• M2: Includes M1 plus savings deposits with Post Office savings banks.
• M3 (Broad Money): Includes M1 plus time deposits (fixed deposits) with the banking system.
• M4: Includes M3 plus total deposits with Post Office savings organisations (excluding National Savings Certificates).
• Reserve Ratios:
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The fraction of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that banks must keep with the Central Bank in cash form.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The fraction of NDTL that banks must maintain in the form of liquid assets like gold or government securities.

The correct answer is Gross Domestic Product.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a nation during a specific accounting year.
• The concept emphasizes the location of production rather than the nationality of the producer; therefore, any economic activity occurring on the domestic soil by either citizens or foreign residents is included.
• It considers only final goods to prevent the issue of double counting, where the value of intermediate goods (like raw materials) is mistakenly added multiple times.
• In India, the Central Statistics Office (CSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, is responsible for measuring GDP, using 2011-12 as the current base year for calculations.
• GDP serves as the primary indicator of a country's economic health and size, calculated through three primary approaches: the Expenditure Method, the Income Method, and the Value-Added Method.

 Additional Information

• Gross National Product (GNP):
• This measures the total value of goods and services produced by the nationals (citizens) of a country, regardless of their geographical location.
• It is calculated using the formula: GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
• Net Domestic Product (NDP):
• It represents the net value of production after accounting for the wear and tear of capital assets.
• The mathematical relationship is NDP = GDP − Depreciation.
• National Income (NI):
• Theoretically, National Income is defined as Net National Product (NNP) at Factor Cost.
• It represents the total factor payments made to land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurs for their contribution to the production process.

The correct answer is Jyotirao Phule.

Key Points

• Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers Society) was established by Jyotirao Govindrao Phule on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra.
• The primary mission of the society was to liberate the depressed classes, including Shudras and Ati-Shudras, from the exploitation of upper-caste groups and religious intermediaries like priests.
• The organization promoted social justice, human rights, and rationalism, advocating for the equality of all individuals regardless of their caste or gender.
• Phule rejected the authority of the Vedas and the caste hierarchy, encouraging followers to perform religious ceremonies without the assistance of Brahmins.
• The Samaj was instrumental in spreading education among the marginalized sections of society, considering it the most powerful tool for social transformation.

 Additional Information

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
• Known as the Father of the Indian Constitution, he founded the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha in 1924 to promote education and socio-economic improvement of the Dalits.
• He led the Mahad Satyagraha in 1927 and later founded the Independent Labour Party and the Scheduled Castes Federation.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
• Recognized as the Father of Modern India, he founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 to reform Hindu society and abolish practices like Sati and child marriage.
• He was a pioneer in English education and journalism in India, advocating for monotheism and rational thinking.
• Sri Aurobindo:
• A revolutionary turned spiritual leader who founded the Sri Aurobindo Ashram in Pondicherry.
• He played a key role in the Indian Independence movement through the Jugantar and Bande Mataram publications before shifting his focus to Integral Yoga.

The correct answer is Rural youth from poor households.

Key Points

• The Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) was launched on September 25, 2014, to mark the 98^th birth anniversary of Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.
• The primary objective of the scheme is to transform rural poor youth into an economically independent and globally relevant workforce through skill development and placement-linked training.
• It is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), which is the flagship program of the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) for poverty reduction.
• The scheme focuses on youth in the age group of 15 to 35 years; however, the upper age limit is relaxed up to 45 years for women, Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Persons with Disabilities (PWD).
• A unique feature of this program is its demand-driven approach, where the training is directly linked to employment opportunities in the private sector.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Implementation:
• The scheme follows a three-tier implementation model involving the National Unit (MoRD), State Rural Livelihood Missions (SRLMs), and Project Implementing Agencies (PIAs).
• It mandates that at least 75% of the trained candidates must be provided with placement in the formal sector with a minimum wage.
• Special emphasis is placed on social inclusion, ensuring that 50% of funds are earmarked for SC/ST candidates, 15% for minorities, and 33% for women.
• The program supports the Make in India campaign by creating a pool of skilled labor required for various industrial sectors.
• Funding is shared between the Central Government and State Governments in a 60:40 ratio, while for North-Eastern and Himalayan states, it is 90:10.

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) was officially launched by the Prime Minister of India on November 20, 2016, in Agra, Uttar Pradesh.
• The scheme was introduced as a major step toward the Housing for All initiative, aiming to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all rural families who are homeless or living in kutcha and dilapidated houses.
• It was created by restructuring the former rural housing scheme known as Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY), which had been operational since 1985.
• Implementation of the scheme falls under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India.
• Selection of beneficiaries is performed through a transparent, three-stage validation process using data from the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 and verified by the Gram Sabhas.

 Additional Information

• Financial Framework and Cost Sharing:
• The cost of unit assistance is shared between the Central Government and State Governments in a 60:40 ratio for plain areas and 90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states.
• The unit assistance provided is Rs. 1,20,000 in plain areas and Rs. 1,30,000 in hilly, difficult areas, and IAP (Integrated Action Plan) districts.
• Core Features and Convergence:
• The minimum unit size for a house under PMAY-G was increased from 20 square meters (under IAY) to 25 square meters, including a dedicated area for hygienic cooking.
• The scheme encourages convergence with other programs like Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G) for toilet construction (Rs. 12,000) and MGNREGA for 90 to 95 days of unskilled labor wages.
• Payments are transferred directly to the beneficiary’s bank account or post office account via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to ensure transparency.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• The Punjab Government officially rolled out the Chief Minister Sehat Yojana in January 2026 as a flagship healthcare initiative aimed at achieving universal health coverage.
• The primary objective of this scheme is to provide cashless medical treatment to the citizens of the state, minimizing out-of-pocket expenses for families during medical emergencies.
• It focuses on enhancing the accessibility of secondary and tertiary healthcare services through a robust network of government hospitals and empaneled private medical facilities.
• The launch signifies a strategic move by the State Executive to integrate advanced digital health IDs, ensuring streamlined patient registration and claim settlements across the state.

 Additional Information

• Healthcare Initiatives in Punjab:
• The state has previously focused on the establishment of Aam Aadmi Clinics, which serve as the first point of contact for primary healthcare in both rural and urban sectors.
• The Chief Minister Sehat Yojana complements the existing Ayushman Bharat Mukh Mantri Sehat Bima Yojana by potentially expanding the criteria for eligible beneficiaries and increasing the annual insurance cover.
• The scheme emphasizes treatment for critical ailments including cardiovascular diseases, oncology, and nephrology, which require expensive long-term care.
• Beneficiaries are typically issued a Sehat Card, a smart card that stores medical history and facilitates immediate paperless billing at healthcare centers.
• This initiative is part of a larger fiscal allocation toward the Social Security and Welfare sector to improve the Human Development Index (HDI) of the state.

The correct answer is Four.

Key Points

• The Sri Harmandir Sahib, popularly known as the Golden Temple, is the most sacred pilgrimage site in Sikhism, situated in Amritsar, Punjab.
• The temple is architecturally unique for its four entrances, which are positioned in the North, South, East, and West directions.
• These four doors represent the spiritual openness of the faith, explicitly signifying that people from every walk of life, all four corners of the world, and all four social classes (Varnas) are equally welcome without discrimination.
• This design was a departure from traditional temple architecture of the time, which often restricted access based on caste or social status, thereby institutionalizing the Sikh principle of universal brotherhood and equality.
• The fifth Sikh Guru, Guru Arjan Dev, designed the temple and purposefully kept the foundation at a lower level than the surrounding land, signifying the importance of humility.

 Additional Information

• Historical Context:
• The foundation stone of the temple was laid by a renowned Muslim Sufi Saint, Hazrat Mian Mir of Lahore, in 1588, showcasing interfaith harmony.
• The holy tank (Sarovar) surrounding the shrine was excavated under the guidance of the fourth Guru, Guru Ram Das, in 1577.
• The temple is famously covered with gold foil, a project initiated by Maharaja Ranjit Singh in 1830, who donated several kilograms of gold to beautify the structure.
• Core Traditions:
• The Guru-ka-Langar at the Golden Temple is one of the largest free community kitchens globally, feeding over 100,000 people daily, further reinforcing the message of equality.
• The Adi Granth, the holy scripture of Sikhs, was first installed here in 1604 with Baba Buddha as the first head priest.

The correct answer is Nauroji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji and S.S. Bengalee.

Key Points

• The Rehnumai Mazdayasan Sabha, also known as the Religious Reform Association, was established in Bombay in 1851 by a group of western-educated Parsi reformers.
• The founding members included prominent figures such as Nauroji Furdonji, who acted as the president, Dadabhai Naoroji, S.S. Bengalee, and K.R. Cama.
• The association aimed to restore the Zoroastrian religion to its original purity by eliminating superstitious practices and Hindu-influenced social customs that had been adopted by the community over time.
• It advocated for comprehensive social reforms, focusing specifically on the education of women, increasing the marriageable age, and the abolition of the Purdah system.
• The Sabha used the Gujarati weekly journal Rast Goftar (The Truth Teller), launched by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1851, to propagate its reformist ideas and reach a wider audience within the Parsi community.

 Additional Information

• Profile of Founders:
• Dadabhai Naoroji: Revered as the Grand Old Man of India, he formulated the Drain of Wealth theory and was the first Indian member of the British Parliament.
• Nauroji Furdonji: A pioneer in the field of education and social activism in Bombay, often called the Dada of the community.
• S.S. Bengalee: A dedicated reformer who worked tirelessly for the Factory Act of 1881 to protect industrial labor.
• Other Notable Reformers:
• Behramji Malabari: A Parsi reformer who primarily worked for the Age of Consent Act, 1891 to curb child marriage.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy: Founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 in Bengal and campaigned against Sati.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar: A legendary reformer instrumental in the passing of the Hindu Widows Remarriage Act, 1856.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Tilak: Major leaders of the Indian National Congress representing Moderate and Extremist ideologies respectively during the independence movement.

The correct answer is Arya Samaj.

Key Points

• The Suddhi Movement was a socio-religious reform initiative started by Swami Dayanand Saraswati, who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875.
• Its primary objective was to facilitate the re-conversion of individuals back to Hinduism who had previously converted to other religions like Islam or Christianity.
• The movement introduced the concept of proselytization into Hinduism, which traditionally lacked a formal mechanism for conversion, by performing a purification ritual known as Suddhi.
• The Arya Samaj promoted the supreme authority of the Vedas and gave the call Go back to the Vedas to reform Hindu society from perceived medieval distortions.
• The movement had a significant impact on the socio-political atmosphere of North India, particularly in Punjab and the United Provinces, contributing to the rise of Hindu consciousness.

 Additional Information

• Prarthana Samaj:
• Founded by Atmaram Pandurang in 1867 in Bombay.
• It was inspired by the Brahmo Samaj and focused on social reforms like inter-caste dining, widow remarriage, and the upliftment of women.
• Brahmo Samaj:
• Established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828 in Calcutta.
• It emphasized monotheism, opposed idol worship, and campaigned vigorously against the Sati system.
• Satya Shodhak Samaj:
• Founded by Jyotirao Phule in 1873 in Maharashtra.
• Its core mission was the social rights and political access for underprivileged groups, specifically Dalits and Shudras.

The correct answer is Union Minister for Electronics and Information Technology.

Key Points

• In 2025, the Union Minister for Electronics and Information Technology introduced AIKosha, an advanced AI-based platform designed to function as a centralized knowledge repository for Artificial Intelligence.
• The platform is a strategic initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to streamline the availability of curated datasets and AI models for various sectors.
• AIKosha aims to bolster the IndiaAI Mission by providing high-quality digital resources to startups, academic researchers, and industry professionals to foster indigenous innovation.
• The initiative emphasizes data sovereignty and the development of foundational models tailored to Indian languages and cultural contexts, ensuring inclusive AI development.
• By integrating machine learning tools and computational resources, the platform serves as a bridge to reduce the digital divide in high-end technological research.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY):
• Responsible for formulating policies regarding IT, electronics, and the internet.
• Oversees key organizations like NIC, STPI, and CDAC which are instrumental in India's digital transformation.
• Plays a lead role in the Digital India program and the National Supercomputing Mission.
• IndiaAI Mission:
• A national program focused on building a robust AI ecosystem through compute capacity, innovation centers, and skilled workforce development.
• Promotes the ethical use of Artificial Intelligence and establishes guardrails for safe technology deployment.
• Other Ministries:
• The Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare focuses on medical infrastructure and schemes like Ayushman Bharat.
• The Union Minister for Woman and Child Development administers programs for maternal health and child protection.

The correct answer is Rohit Sharma.

Key Points

• Rohit Sharma, the captain of the Indian National Cricket Team, has been conferred with the Padma Shri in 2026 for his monumental contribution to the field of Sports.
• He is widely recognized for his legendary batting prowess, holding the world record for the highest individual score in One Day Internationals (ODIs) with 264 runs.
• The award acknowledges his leadership in guiding India to significant victories, including the 2024 ICC T20 World Cup and multiple Asia Cup titles.
• As of 2026, he remains the only cricketer globally to have scored three double centuries in the ODI format, making him one of the most impactful openers in cricket history.
• The Padma Shri is the fourth-highest civilian award in India, presented to individuals for their 'distinguished service' across various disciplines.

 Additional Information

• Virat Kohli:
• A former Indian captain and one of the most successful batsmen in history, Virat Kohli received the Padma Shri in 2017.
• He was also honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna, India's highest sporting honor, in 2018.
• Padma Awards:
• Instituted in 1954, these awards are announced annually on Republic Day.
• The hierarchy consists of Padma Vibhushan (exceptional service), Padma Bhushan (high-order service), and Padma Shri (distinguished service).
• Selection Process:
• The awards are recommended by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
• The final list is approved by the President of India and published in the Gazette of India.

The correct answer is Ganesh Chaturthi.

Key Points

• Ganesh Chaturthi, also known as Vinayaka Chaturthi, is a major Hindu festival celebrating the birth of Lord Ganesha, the elephant-headed deity regarded as the god of wisdom, prosperity, and the remover of obstacles.
• The festival is most prominently celebrated in the state of Maharashtra, where it was transformed from a private household observance into a massive public event by the freedom fighter Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Lokmanya Tilak) in 1893 to foster national unity against colonial rule.
• The celebration involves the installation of clay idols of Ganesha in homes and public Pandals (temporary shrines), which are elaborately decorated with flowers and lights.
• The festival typically lasts for 10 days, starting on the fourth day (Chaturthi) of the Hindu month of Bhadrapada and concluding on Anant Chaturdashi.
• The final day features Visarjan, a grand ceremonial procession where the idols are immersed in water bodies like rivers or the Arabian Sea, symbolizing the deity's return to Mount Kailash.

 Additional Information

• Diwali:
• Known as the Festival of Lights, it marks the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya after 14 years of exile and signifies the victory of light over darkness.
• Durga Puja:
• A major festival in West Bengal that honors Goddess Durga and her victory over the buffalo demon Mahishasura, representing the triumph of good over evil.
• Holi:
• Recognized as the Festival of Colors, it marks the arrival of spring and commemorates the burning of the demoness Holika and the devotion of Prahalad.

The correct answer is Krishna Menon Committee.

Key Points

• The Committee on Public Undertakings is a financial standing committee of the Indian Parliament, constituted for the first time in 1964.
• It was established following the recommendations made by the Krishna Menon Committee, which advocated for a specialized parliamentary body to monitor the performance of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
• The committee originally comprised 15 members (10 from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha), but the membership was increased in 1974 to 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
• Members are elected every year from among the members of Parliament through the principle of proportional representation via a single transferable vote.
• The Chairman of this committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha exclusively from the members belonging to the Lower House (Lok Sabha).
• The primary function of the committee is to examine the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) on these entities to ensure commercial efficiency and autonomy.

 Additional Information

• Abid Hussain Committee:
• This committee was focused on Small Scale Industries (SSI) and trade policy reforms.
• It recommended the de-reservation of several items that were previously reserved for the small-scale sector to encourage competition and modernization.
• Rajamannar Committee:
• Appointed by the Tamil Nadu Government in 1969, it was tasked with reviewing Center-State relations.
• It proposed significant constitutional changes to grant more autonomy to states, including the abolition of Article 356.
• Athreya Committee:
• Appointed in 1991, this committee dealt with the restructuring of the telecommunications sector in India.
• Its recommendations paved the way for the corporatization of the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
• Exclusion of Ministers:
• To maintain the independence of parliamentary oversight, a Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee on Public Undertakings.

The correct answer is Arid climate.

Key Points

• The Great Indian Desert, also known as the Thar Desert, is primarily characterized by an arid climate featuring extremely low annual rainfall, typically measuring below 150 mm.
• The region is located in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent, covering a significant portion of Rajasthan and extending into parts of Gujarat, Haryana, and Punjab.
• Due to the scarcity of water, the vegetation is sparse and consists mostly of xerophytic species like cacti, thorny bushes, and shrubs that have adapted to survive in low-moisture environments.
• The terrain is dominated by undulating sandy plains and various types of sand dunes, such as Barchans (crescent-shaped dunes), which are shifted by strong winds.
• The desert experiences high diurnal temperature variations, with scorching temperatures during the day and a significant drop in temperature during the night.

 Additional Information

• Geographical Barriers:
• The Aravalli Range runs along the eastern edge of the desert. These mountains lie parallel to the direction of the Southwest Monsoon winds, preventing them from rising and causing rainfall, thus creating a rain-shadow effect.
• The Luni River is the only significant river in this region, which is seasonal and often ends in the Rann of Kutch without reaching the sea.
• Incorrect Features Context:
• Fertile soil: While the desert soil contains minerals, it lacks organic matter and moisture. In contrast, highly fertile alluvial soil is found in the Indo-Gangetic Plains.
• Abundant rainfall: This is a feature of the Western Ghats and North-Eastern India (e.g., Mawsynram), which receive over 2000 mm of rain annually.
• Dense forests: These are typical of Tropical Evergreen regions where rainfall and humidity are high, unlike the arid and semi-arid conditions of the Thar.

The correct answer is Ovary wall.

Key Points

• Angiosperms, commonly known as flowering plants, are defined by the unique characteristic of having their seeds enclosed within a specialized structure.
• The ovary is the basal, swollen part of the carpel (female reproductive organ) that houses one or more ovules.
• Following the process of double fertilization, the ovules transform into seeds, while the surrounding ovary wall matures into the pericarp or fruit wall.
• The primary biological function of the ovary wall is to provide a mechanical and environmental protective layer for the developing embryos inside the seeds.
• This development ensures that the seeds are shielded from desiccation, pathogens, and physical damage until they are ready for dispersal.

 Additional Information

• Stigma:
• The receptive tip of the carpel responsible for receiving pollen grains during pollination.
• It often possesses a sticky or feathery surface to facilitate pollen adhesion.
• Petal:
• Modified leaves that constitute the corolla of a flower.
• Mainly function to attract pollinators such as insects and birds through vivid pigmentation and fragrance.
• Stamen:
• The male reproductive organ of the flower, comprised of the anther and the filament.
• The anther is the site of microsporogenesis, where pollen is produced.
• Ovule:
• The structure within the ovary that contains the megaspore and eventually becomes the seed after fertilization.

The correct answer is Ceremonial gateways.

Key Points

• A Torana is a free-standing ornamental or ceremonial gateway used for ritual purposes in Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain architecture across the Indian subcontinent and East Asia.
• In the context of Buddhist architecture, they are most famously associated with the Great Stupa at Sanchi, where four massive gateways were constructed during the 1^st century BCE under the Satavahana Dynasty.
• Architecturally, a Torana typically consists of two vertical pillars supporting two or three horizontal beams known as architraves, which are often connected by smaller vertical struts.
• These gateways serve as a symbolic boundary, marking the transition from the secular, profane world to the sacred enclosure surrounding the Stupa, which represents the Cosmic Mountain.
• The surfaces of the Toranas are intricately carved with narrative reliefs depicting Jataka tales (stories of the Buddha's previous births), significant events from the life of Gautama Buddha, and decorative motifs like Shalabhanjikas (tree goddesses).

 Additional Information

• Other components of a Buddhist Stupa complex:
• Anda: The massive hemispherical mound that houses the relics of the Buddha or high-ranking monks.
• Harmika: A square railing atop the mound, representing the abode of the gods.
• Chattra: A central pillar supporting triple umbrella-like structures symbolizing the Three Jewels (Buddha, Dharma, Sangha).
• Chaitya: A prayer hall or common worship area featuring a small stupa at one end, designed for congregational meditation.
• Vihara: Residential quarters or monasteries built for the residence of monks, which often included spaces for storage of scriptures.
• Pradakshina Patha: A circular path for circumambulation, usually enclosed by a railing (Vedika).

The correct answer is Chalukya.

Key Points

• The Vesara style of temple architecture is a hybrid form that emerged in the Deccan region, specifically in the area between the Vindhya mountains and the Krishna river.
• The Chalukyas of Badami (7^th to 8^th century AD) are the primary architects of this style, pioneering a synthesis of the northern Nagara and southern Dravida architectural traditions.
• Key characteristics include the reduction in the height of the individual tiers of the Vimana (South Indian influence) while incorporating the curvilinear Shikhara (North Indian influence).
• Major centers of Chalukyan architecture include Aihole (often called the 'Cradle of Indian Architecture'), Badami, and Pattadakal, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The Papanatha Temple and the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal serve as prime examples of how the Chalukya dynasty blended distinct regional elements into a cohesive new style.

 Additional Information

• Maurya Dynasty
• Renowned for monolithic pillars, the Lion Capital of Sarnath, and the Barabar Hill Caves.
• Their architecture was predominantly Buddhist in nature, focusing on Stupas and Viharas rather than the Vesara style.
• Gupta Dynasty
• Marked the beginning of structural Hindu temple architecture in India.
• Followed the Nagara style, with notable examples like the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh and the brick temple at Bhitargaon.
• Kushan Dynasty
• Known for the Gandhara and Mathura schools of art, which flourished under King Kanishka.
• Their contributions were significant in sculptural iconography and the development of Buddhist shrines rather than the Vesara temple structure.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• According to the official data from the 2011 Census, Maharashtra has the highest population of Buddhists in India, totaling approximately 6.53 million people.
• The state accounts for a significant majority, nearly 77.36%, of the total Buddhist population in the country.
• The growth of Buddhism in Maharashtra is historically linked to the Dalit Buddhist movement (also known as Navayana Buddhism), which was initiated by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
• On October 14, 1956, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar along with approximately 365,000 followers formally converted to Buddhism at Deekshabhoomi in Nagpur, which triggered mass conversions across the state.
• Statistically, Buddhists represent roughly 5.81% of the total population of Maharashtra, making it one of the most prominent religious minorities in the state.

 Additional Information

• National Demographic Context:
• The total Buddhist population in India during the 2011 Census was recorded at 8.4 million, constituting about 0.7% of India’s total population.
• While Maharashtra has the highest numerical count, states like Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Mizoram have higher percentage-wise concentrations of Buddhists relative to their own state populations.
• Other States Overview:
• Karnataka: Known for hosting large Tibetan refugee settlements, particularly in Bylakuppe and Mundgod, established after the 1959 uprising.
• Uttar Pradesh: Home to world-renowned Buddhist pilgrimage sites such as Sarnath (where Buddha gave his first sermon) and Kushinagar (the site of his Parinirvana).
• Bihar: Historically the cradle of Buddhism, housing Bodh Gaya and the Mahabodhi Temple, though its modern-day resident Buddhist population is lower than that of Maharashtra and West Bengal.
• West Bengal: Holds the second-largest Buddhist population by number, primarily concentrated in the Darjeeling and Kalimpong districts.

The correct answer is Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.

Key Points

• The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) is a comprehensive highway network connecting the four primary metropolitan and industrial hubs of India: Delhi (North), Mumbai (West), Chennai (South), and Kolkata (East).
• The project was officially launched in 1999 by the then Prime Minister of India, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, under the first phase of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP).
• With a total length of approximately 5,846 kilometers, it stands as the longest highway network in India and the fifth-longest in the world.
• The network is designed with four-lane and six-lane expressways to facilitate faster and safer movement of traffic between the major economic zones of the country.
• It is managed and maintained by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), which operates under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

 Additional Information

• The network consists of four primary segments:
• Delhi − Mumbai: Covering a distance of 1,419 km, primarily following National Highway 48.
• Mumbai − Chennai: Spanning 1,290 km, passing through major hubs like Pune and Bengaluru via NH 48.
• Chennai − Kolkata: Stretching over 1,684 km along the eastern coast via National Highway 16.
• Kolkata − Delhi: Running 1,453 km through the Indo-Gangetic plains via NH 19 and NH 44.
• The project was completed in 2012, providing significant benefits such as reduced travel time, fuel savings, and a boost to the agricultural and industrial sectors by enabling efficient goods transport.
• The Golden Quadrilateral is part of a larger plan that includes the North−South and East−West Corridors, which intersect at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is Secondary.

Key Points

• The Secondary Sector encompasses economic activities that involve the processing of raw materials into finished goods through manufacturing, processing, and construction.
• It is frequently referred to as the Industrial Sector because it relies heavily on factory systems, workshops, and energy-intensive machinery to add value to natural products.
• This sector acts as a bridge between the extraction of resources and the consumption of goods, transforming items like iron ore into steel or wood into furniture.
• In the context of the Indian economy, the Manufacturing Industry is a vital component of the secondary sector, contributing roughly 17% to the GDP and providing employment to millions of workers.
• Economic development is often measured by the transition of the workforce from the primary sector (agriculture) to the secondary sector, which indicates higher productivity and technological advancement.

 Additional Information

• Primary Sector:
• Involves the direct exploitation of natural resources from the earth or environment.
• Examples include Agriculture, Forestry, Mining, and Fishing, which provide the raw materials for the secondary sector.
• Tertiary Sector:
• Known as the Service Sector, it provides intangible value and support to both primary and secondary sectors.
• Key activities include Banking, Transportation, Education, Healthcare, and Tourism.
• Quaternary Sector:
• A knowledge-based subset of the economy focused on Information Technology, Research and Development (R&D), and specialized consultation.
• It involves high-level decision-making and the creation and dissemination of information and innovation.

The correct answer is Prakrit.

Key Points

• Prakrit represents a group of Middle Indo-Aryan languages that were spoken in the Indian subcontinent from roughly 500 BCE to 500 CE.
• The term is derived from Prakriti, meaning 'nature' or 'source', signifying it as the natural language of the common people in contrast to the refined Sanskrit.
• The grammatical tradition of this language was codified by scholars like Vararuchi, who authored Prakrita Prakasha, the earliest known manual on Prakrit grammar.
• Samantabhadra, a prominent Jain monk and logician, extensively used Prakrit in his literary and philosophical works, contributing to its status as a scholarly language.
• Lord Mahavira, the 24^th Tirthankara, delivered his sermons in Ardhamagadhi (a form of Prakrit) to ensure that the message of Jainism was accessible to all social strata.
• While Mahatma Buddha is predominantly associated with Pali, various early Buddhist traditions and regional scripts suggest the extensive use of Prakrit dialects in the dissemination of his teachings.

 Additional Information

• Pali:
• It is closely related to Prakrit and is the liturgical language of Theravada Buddhism.
• It was the medium for the Tripitakas, the primary scriptures of the Buddhist faith.
• Classical Sanskrit:
• A highly standardized Indo-Aryan language codified by the grammarian Panini in his work Ashtadhyayi.
• It served as the language of high culture, Vedic rituals, and courtly literature.
• Persian:
• An Indo-Iranian language that became the official administrative and court language during the Delhi Sultanate and Mughal Empire.
• It significantly influenced Indian vocabulary through the development of Urdu and Hindustani.

The correct answer is Garbhagriha.

Key Points

• The Garbhagriha, translating literally from Sanskrit as 'womb-chamber', is the sanctum sanctorum and the most sacred part of a Hindu temple.
• It functions as the innermost chamber where the Moola Vigraha or the principal deity is installed, representing the spiritual heart of the temple complex.
• Architecturally, it is located directly beneath the Shikhara in the Nagara style (North India) or the Vimana in the Dravidian style (South India).
• It is traditionally a small, windowless, and dimly lit room, designed to minimize external distractions and focus the devotee’s attention on the divine presence.
• In temple planning, it aligns with the Brahmapada, the centermost point of the Vastu Purusha Mandala, which is the metaphysical ground plan governing temple architecture.

 Additional Information

• Mandapa:
• It is a pillared hall or porch that precedes the sanctum, used for public rituals, bhajans, and religious discourses.
• In large complexes, there are multiple stages such as the Ardha-mandapa (half hall) and Maha-mandapa (great hall).
• Antarala:
• This is a small vestibule or transitional space that connects the Garbhagriha to the Mandapa.
• It is a prominent feature in Nagara architecture, particularly seen in the Khajuraho temples.
• Pradakshina patha:
• A circumambulatory path provided around the Garbhagriha for devotees to walk clockwise.
• Temples with a circumambulatory passage are called Sandhara, while those without one are termed Nirandhara.

The correct answer is Right to vote in elections.

Key Points

• The Right to vote in elections is a Constitutional Right under Article 326, which establishes Adult Suffrage for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. It is also a Statutory Right governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951, rather than a fundamental freedom under Part III's Article 19. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Right to form associations or unions (including cooperative societies) is a fundamental right specifically protected under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed to all citizens under Article 19(1)(d), subject only to reasonable restrictions in the interest of the general public or protection of Scheduled Tribes. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India is explicitly listed as a fundamental freedom under Article 19(1)(e). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Article 19 currently guarantees six freedoms to Indian citizens:
• 19(1)(a): Freedom of speech and expression.
• 19(1)(b): Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
• 19(1)(g): Right to practice any profession or carry on any occupation, trade, or business.
• The 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, abolished the Right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f).
• These rights are not absolute; the State can impose reasonable restrictions under Articles 19(2) to 19(6) on grounds such as sovereignty, integrity, and public order.

The correct answer is Xylem.

Key Points

• Xylem is a specialized vascular tissue in plants primarily responsible for the conduction of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
• The transport process in the xylem is unidirectional, meaning the flow occurs only in one direction, from the roots upward to the stems and leaves.
• This upward movement is driven by physical forces, primarily transpiration pull (suction created by evaporation in leaves), capillary action, and root pressure.
• It is composed of four distinct types of cells: Tracheids, Vessels (the primary conducting elements), Xylem Parenchyma (the only living component), and Xylem Fibres.
• Most xylem cells are dead at functional maturity and possess thick, lignified cell walls, which also provide significant mechanical support and structural integrity to the plant.

 Additional Information

• Phloem:
• Responsible for the translocation of organic nutrients, particularly sucrose, produced during photosynthesis.
• The transport is bidirectional, moving from the leaves (source) to storage organs or growing parts (sink).
• Contains living cells such as sieve tubes and companion cells.
• Epidermis:
• The outermost single layer of cells covering the entire plant body, serving as a protective barrier against pathogens and physical damage.
• Features stomata for gas exchange and a waxy cuticle to prevent excessive water loss through evaporation.
• Cortex:
• A layer of ground tissue situated between the epidermis and the vascular bundles in roots and stems.
• Functions mainly in the storage of food (starch) and assists in the radial transport of water toward the xylem.