Previous Year Paper

BPSC AE Paper 3 (General Studies) 24 March 2022 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

50 questions60 minutes
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Full Test (50 questions)

Question 1

The highest earth-filled dam in India is

  1. AOption (a)

    Ranjit Sagar

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhakra

  3. COption (c)

    Tehri

  4. DOption (d)

    hirakud

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tehri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tehri.

Key Points

  • The highest earth-filled dam in India is Tehri​.
  • The dam is a part of the hydroelectricity project of the state Government of Punjab and was completed in 2001.
  • The Ranjit Sagar Dam is also known as the Thien Dam and was constructed on the river Ravi.
  • Ranjit Sagar Dam (Thein Dam) Project is one of the largest multipurpose river valley projects on the river Ravi about 24 KMs upstream of Madhopur Head Works.
  • It houses four generating units of 150 MW each with a total installed capacity of 600 MW.

Additional Information

  • Important dams of Punjab:
DamRiverPlace
Damsal DamDamsalHoshiarpur
Chohal DamChohal ChoeHoshiarpur
Ranjit Sagar DamRaviPathankot
Shahpur Kandi DamRaviPathankot

Question 2

The Supreme Commander of the military in India is

  1. AOption (a)

    The President

  2. BOption (b)

    The Prime Minister

  3. COption (c)

    The Home Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    The Defence Minister

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The President

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The President.

Key Points

  • The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defense Forces of the Country.
  • The Parliament is empowered to regulate or control the exercise of the Military powers by the President.
  • The Military Power of the President is thus subordinate to his executive power which is exercisable by him on the advice of the Cabinet.

Additional Information 

  • Article 53 of the Constitution of India provides specifically the position of the President.
  • As a supreme commander, he enjoys all the trapping of military pomp and ceremony.
  • He has a grand mounted bodyguard, a serving general officer as his military secretary, a number of tri-services aides-de-camp, and other staff members.
  • The President can declare war or conclude peace on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
  • All important treaties and contracts are made in the President's name.
  • He appoints chiefs of all branches of armed forces.

Question 3

Lok Adalat is

  1. AOption (a)

    a court to settle disputes through compromise or settlements

  2. BOption (b)

    a court designed to shorten the time taken for settling disputes

  3. COption (c)

    a court run by the people

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points.

  • Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at the pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably.
  • The Lok Adalats are formed to fulfil the promise given by the preamble of the Indian Constitution– securing Justice – social, economic and political of every citizen of India.
  • It is also said that it is a court run by the people.
  • Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 Lok Adalats have been given statutory status.

Additional Information

  • Article 39A of the Constitution provides free legal aid to the deprived and weaker sections of society and promotes justice based on equal opportunity.
  • Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it compulsory for the State to guarantee equality before the law.
  • The decision made by the Lok Adalats is considered to be a verdict of a civil court and is ultimate and binding on all parties.
  • There is no provision for an appeal against the verdict made by Lok Adalat.
  • But, they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure to exercise their right to litigate.

Question 4

The person who established the British rule in India is

  1. AOption (a)

    Robert Clive

  2. BOption (b)

    Duplex

  3. COption (c)

    Mir Jafar

  4. DOption (d)

    Hastings

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Robert Clive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Robert Clive.

Important Points

  • The person who established the British rule in India is Robert Clive.
  • Robert Clive was the First Governor of Bengal at the time of the company's rule who took office in 1758 after the assassination of the Nawab in Murshidabad in 1757.
  • Dual Administration was introduced in the year 1765 by Robert Clive.

Additional Information

  • Robert Clive fought against the Nawab of Bengal during the Battle of Plassey. Major-General Robert Clive also known as Clive of India, was the first British Governor of the Bengal Presidency.
  • The Battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies on 23 June 1757, under the leadership of Robert Clive.
  • He is also known as “Clive of India”.
  • Robert Clive was the Governor of Bengal from 1757-60 and from 1765-67.

Question 5

The Article which deals with 'Education for All' is

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 41

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 43

  3. COption (c)

    Article 45

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 44

  5. EOption (e)

    Article 42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 45

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 45.

Key Points

  • Article 45 deals with 'Education for All'.
  • Indian Constitution has made a provision for free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14 years under Article 45.
  • But this goal couldn't be achieved and then 'The Right to Education' was made a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
  • As a fundamental right 'Right to Free and Compulsory Education' provides free and compulsory education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India.
  • Now Article 45 covers within its ambit the provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years.

Additional Information

  • Article 41 states about Right to work, education and to public assistance in certain cases.
  • Article 43 states about the living wage for workers.
  • 43A Participation of workers in the management of industries.
  • 43B Promotion of co-operative societies.
  • Article 44 of the Indian constitution contains the provision for Uniform Civil Code.

Question 6

Who is Known as the father of Economics?

  1. AOption (a)

    Karl Marx

  2. BOption (b)

    John Marshall

  3. COption (c)

    Malthus

  4. DOption (d)

    Adam Smith

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Adam Smith

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Adam Smith.

Key Points

  • Adam Smith was a well-known philosopher and economist of Scotland.
  • He gave his views in detail on the profitable trend of economics.
  • In 1759, his first book 'The Theory of Moral Sentiment' was published.
  • He is known as the Father of Economics or the Father of Capitalism.
  • Classical free-market economic theory foundation was laid by him.
  • His two famous works are the theory of moral sentiments in 1759 and an inquiry into the nature and causes of the wealth of nations in 1776.

Additional Information

  • Karl Marx was a German philosopher, economist, historian, political theorist, sociologist, journalist, and pioneer of scientific socialism.
  • John Marshall was the most influential economist of his time.
  • His 'Principles of Economics' was taught in England as a textbook of economics for many years.
  • Thomas Robert Malthus is best known for his theory that population growth.

Question 7

The basic features of Economics are

  1. AOption (a)

    Production, labour and income

  2. BOption (b)

    Production, labour and consumption

  3. COption (c)

    Production, distribution and income

  4. DOption (d)

    Production, distribution and consumption

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Production, distribution and consumption

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Production, distribution and consumption.

Key Points

  • The basic features of Economics are Production, distribution and consumption.
  • Economics is a branch of social science focused on the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services.
  • Economy institution refers to the rules, procedures and norms of production, distribution, consumption as well as working system and patterns.
  • Economic activities and needs are very of any society irrespective of its stages of development.

Additional Information

  • Types of Economy:
  • A mixed economy is an economic system that combines parts of a market economy with elements of a planned economy, markets with state interventionism, or private enterprise with public enterprise, among other definitions.
  • A communist economic system is one in which economic decisions are determined by the entire community in theory.
  • A socialist economy is one in which products and services are produced for use rather than profit, as opposed to a capitalist economy in which goods and services are produced for profit (and therefore indirectly for use).
  • Capitalism, often known as the capitalist economy, is an economic system in which private firms control and govern the factors of production such as capital goods, labour, natural resources, and entrepreneurship.

Question 8

The nurturing field of social progress is

  1. AOption (a)

    house

  2. BOption (b)

    family

  3. COption (c)

    society

  4. DOption (d)

    school

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

school

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is school.

Key Points

  • The nurturing field of social progress in school.
  • Education is seen as the foundation of society which brings economic wealth, social prosperity and political stability.
  • It is a major aspect of the development of any modern society and the most significant indicator of the overall development of any region.

Additional Information

  • The Social Progress Index is a tool to capture the social progress of regions based on social performance.
  • The index measures the extent to which the social needs of citizens are being fulfilled.
  • It measures social progress through the three dimensions: 
  • Basic Human Needs, Foundations of well-being, and Opportunity, by aggregating 35 social indicators.

Question 9

Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of 

  1. AOption (a)

    nuclear fission

  2. BOption (b)

    nuclear fusion

  3. COption (c)

    natural radioactivity

  4. DOption (d)

    artificial radioactivity

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

nuclear fusion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is nuclear fusion.

Key Points

  • A Hydrogen bomb derives its energy through the fusion of atoms.
  • A Hydrogen bomb is a highly powerful atomic weapon.
  • The energy released in a Hydrogen bomb is several magnitudes higher than an Atom bomb.
  • An Atom bomb derives its energy from fission.

Additional Information

  • Nuclear fusion and nuclear fission are different types of reactions that release energy.
  • In fission, an atom is split into two or smaller, lighter atoms.
  • Fusion, in contrast, occurs when two or more atoms fuse, creating a larger, heavier atom.
  • Hydrogen bombs use the fusion of hydrogen atoms, hence their name.
  • It is easier to make Hydrogen bombs in small sizes, so it is easier to place them in missiles.

Question 10

Which of the following are chemical changes?

  1. cooking of food
  2. Digestion of food
  3. Freezing of water
  4. water is heated up

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • A change in which one or more new substances are formed is known as chemical change.
  • A change in which one or more new substances are formed is called a chemical change.
  • A chemical change is also called a chemical reaction.
  • A chemical change is generally irreversible.
  • Growth of a plant, Rusting of iron, Cooking of food, Burning of a candle, and Digestion of food are all chemical changes as these are irreversible.
  • Hence 1 and 2 is the correct option.

Additional Information

  • Physical change:
  • Properties such as shape, size, colour and state of a substance are called its physical properties.
  • A change in which a substance undergoes a change in its physical properties is called a physical change.
  • A physical change is generally reversible. In such a change no new substance is formed.
  • Freezing of water, Mixing of iron filings and sand is a physical change as no new substance is formed and the change is reversible.

Question 11

A soap molecule has a

  1. AOption (a)

    hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail

  2. BOption (b)

    hydrophobic head and hydrophilic tail

  3. COption (c)

    hydrophilic head and hydrophilic tail

  4. DOption (d)

    hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail.

Key Points

  • The soap molecule has a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail.
  • The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids.​
  • Soaps are molecules in which the two ends have differing properties.
  • The head is hydrophilic, that is, it interacts with water, while the tail is hydrophobic, that is, it interacts with hydrocarbons.

​

  • The ionic-end of soap interacts with water while the carbon chain interacts with oil.
  • The soap molecules, thus form structures called micelles where one end of the molecules is towards the oil droplet while the ionic-end faces outside.
  • This forms an emulsion in water.
  • The soap micelle thus helps in pulling out the dirt in water and we can wash our clothes clean.

Question 12

Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methane

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrous oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Ozone

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/more than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogen.

Key Points

  • Greenhouse gases are known so as they act like a greenhouse on the surface of the planet.
  • Greenhouse gases are known as heat-trapping gases as they increase the temperature of the atmosphere by trapping heat.
  • The greenhouse effect leads to the cause of global warming.

Additional Information

  • The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are:
  • Water vapour (H2O),
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2),
  • Methane (CH4),
  • Nitrous oxide (N2O), and
  • Ozone (O3).
  • Methane, Nitrous oxide, and Carbon dioxide are the primary greenhouse gases related to agriculture.

Question 13

Which among the following statements is/are true?

Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to

  1. the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
  2. sublimation of silver chloride
  3. decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
  4. oxidation of silver chloride

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1.

Important Points

  • White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
  • This is due to the decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light.
  • 2AgCl(s) (in presence of Sunlight) ---> 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
  • Silver bromide also behaves in the same way.
  • 2AgBr(s) Sunlight ---->  2Ag(s) + Br2(g)
  • The above reactions are used in black and white photography.
  • The decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat, light or electricity for breaking down the reactants.
  • Reactions in which energy is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions.

Question 14

What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?

  1. Temperature of the solution decreases 2. Temperature of the solution increases 3. Temperature of the solution remains same
  2. Salt formation takes place

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points

  • A neutralization reaction occurs when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube.
  • The result of the reaction is the production of salt and water with the evolution of heat.
  • So temperature of the solution increases.
  • NaOH (strong base) + HCl (strong acid) → ​NaCl (salt) + H2O
  • CH3COOH + KOH → CH3COOK +H2O
  • Hence 2 and 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • When a strong base and a weak acid reacts, the resultant is a solution with pH greater than 7, that is, basic.
  • When a strong acid reacts with a weak base, the resultant solution has a pH lesser than 7, and the solution is acidic.
  • When both are strong, the resultant solution is neutral.
  • Whatever may be the case, the ultimate combination is the combination of a proton and a hydroxyl ion to give water.

Question 15

In terms of acidic strength, which one of the following is in the correct increasing order?

  1. AOption (a)

    Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid.

Key Points

  • The acidic strength is the tendency of acid to be able to dissociate into a proton, H+, and an anion.
  • The chemical formula for acetic acid is CH3COOH.
  • The chemical formula for Hydrochloric acid is HCl.
  • The chemical formula for Water is H2O.
  • Acidic strength
  • Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
  • A strong acid completely ionizes in a solution and a weak acid only partially ionizes.
  • The polarity of the Hydrogen-Atom bond determines the acid strength.
  • The stronger an acid is, the lower the pH it would produce in solution.
  • The bond strength of acid usually depends on the size of the atom.
  • If the atom is smaller, the Hydrogen-Atom bond would be stronger.

Question 16

Tomato is a natural source of which acid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Acitic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Citric acid

  3. COption (c)

    Tartaric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxalic acid

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Oxalic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oxalic acid. 

Key Points

  • Tomato is a natural source of Oxalic acid.
  • Oxalic Acid is most likely to be found in Spinach.
  • Oxalic acid is an organic compound found in many plants.
  • Moderately high contents of oxalic acid were recorded in all varieties of tea leaves.
  • Oxalic acid, also called ethanedioic acid, a colorless, crystalline, toxic organic compound belonging to the family of carboxylic acids.

Additional Information

SubstanceAcid
Lemon \ OrangeCitric Acid
Ant StingFormic Acid
VinegarAcetic Acid
CurdLactic Acid
GrapesTartaric acid
Amla (Vitamin C)Ascorbic Acid
Spinach, TomatoOxalic Acid

Question 17

What is the pH range of our body?

  1. AOption (a)

    7.0-7.8

  2. BOption (b)

    7.2-8.0

  3. COption (c)

    7.0-8.4

  4. DOption (d)

    7.2-8.4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7.0-7.8

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 7.0-7.8.

Important Points

  • The pH range of a human body is 7.35 - 7.45.
  • The closest answer is 7.0 - 7.8.
  • pH means the potential of Hydrogen.
  • The pH scale is the scale used to express the acidity or alkalinity of a substance based on the concentration of hydrogen ions in its solution.
  • pH scale was discovered by Soren Sorensen.

Additional Information

  • The range of pH scale 0 to 14.
  • If pH < 7 then solution is acidic.
  • If pH > 7 then solution is basic.
  • If pH = 7 then solution is neutral.
  • The strength of acids and bases depends on the number of H+ ions and OH- ions produced, respectively.
  • When the pH of rainwater is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain.
  • The pH value of the Milk of Magnesia is 10.5.

Question 18

The easily noticed smell of the LPG gas is because of which among the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Butane

  2. BOption (b)

    Propane

  3. COption (c)

    Methane

  4. DOption (d)

    Ethanethiol

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ethanethiol

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ethanethiol. 

Key Points

  • The easily noticed smell of the LPG gas is Ethanethiol.
  • Ethanethiol, commonly known as ethyl mercaptan and stench, is a clear liquid with a distinct odour.
  • Ethyl Mercaptan (C2H6S) is a colorless gas with a pungent odor.
  • It is used as an additive to odorless gases, such as natural gas, and fuel systems as a warning agent in the event of leakage or spills.
  • Long term exposure to Ethyl Mercaptan leads to damaging red blood cells causing anemia.

Additional Information

  • Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) mainly consists of propane and butane.
  • LPG is used for cooking.
  • An alternative to electric heating, heating oil, or kerosene.
  • LPG is a flammable mixture of hydrocarbon gases.
  • LPG is predominantly used as fuel in heating appliances, cooking equipment, and vehicles.

Question 19

Which State Government has decided to start world's largest floating solar project by 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh. 

Key Points

  • The world's largest floating solar energy project of 600 MW is started in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. 
  • ​To be constructed at Omkareshwar dam on Narmada river.
  • Will begin power generation by the year 2022-23.
  • The International Finance Corporation, World Bank, and Power Grid have granted in-principle consent for providing aid for the project development.
  • It is estimated that in 2 years, the project will start providing cheap and good quality power.
  • Electricity will be produced in about 2000-hectare water areas by installing solar panels in the dam.

Question 20

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) inaugurated Indian's highest Meteorological Center (MC) in

  1. AOption (a)

    Ladakh

  2. BOption (b)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Jammu and Kashmir

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ladakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ladakh. 

Key Points

  • The India Meteorological Department (IMD) inaugurated Indian's highest Meteorological Center (MC) in Ladakh.
  • India’s highest Meteorological Centre is situated in Ladakh.
  • It is located at 3,500 metres above sea level in Leh.
  • Dr Harsh Vardhan, Minister of Earth Sciences (MoES), virtually inaugurated the centre.
  • The Leh centre is the second Meteorological Centre in the Himalayas, after Itanagar in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • It would give localised weather predictions and early warnings for the Union Territory's Leh and Kargil districts, as well as various tourist destinations.

Additional Information

  • The India Meteorological Department (IMD) celebrated its 145th Foundation Day on 15 Jan 2020.
  • It was formed in the year 1875 and is headquartered in New Delhi.
  • It is an agency of the Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of India.
  • It is responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology.

Question 21

Which one is the first country to approve Covid-19 vaccine of Oxford-AstraZeneca?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    England

  3. COption (c)

    Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    India

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

England

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is England.

Important Points

  • In the England, the Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine has been approved for use, with the first doses due to be given soon amid rising coronavirus cases.
  • The govt has ordered 100 mn doses - enough to vaccinate 50 mn people.
  • 53,135 new Covid cases were recorded in the UK on 29 December 2020 - the highest single-day rise since mass testing began.
  • UK:
  • Capital - London.
  • Currency - Pound sterling.
  • Prime Minister - Boris Johnson.
  • National Sport - Cricket.

Question 22

India's first National Sports University has been launched in 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sikkim

  2. BOption (b)

    Manipur

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Manipur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points 

  • India's first national sports university is opened in Imphal, Manipur.
  • It was established in the year 2018.
  • It is the only central university on sports education.

Additional Information

  • Manipur:
  • It shares borders with Myanmar, the State of Nagaland, Assam, Mizoram and Myanmar.
  • N Biren Singh is the present CM of Manipur.
  • Anusuiya Uikey is the Governor of Manipur.
  • Imphal is the capital of Manipur.

Question 23

Which country's President was the Chief guest at India's Republic Day Parade on January 26, 2021 after UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson cancelled his visit to India due to Covid-19? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bolivia

  2. BOption (b)

    Uruguay

  3. COption (c)

    Guyana

  4. DOption (d)

    Suriname

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Suriname

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Suriname.

Key Points

  • Suriname President Chan Santokhi was the Chief guest at India's Republic Day Parade on January 26, 2021 after UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson cancelled his visit to India due to Covid-19.
  • In the 50th year of Indian victory over Pakistan in the 1971 war, a Bangladesh Army delegation would be taking part in the Republic Day parade on January 26, 2021.

Additional Information

  • The theme of Republic Day Parade 2021 is - The Republic is from you, the Republic belongs to you.
  • On Republic Day 2021 no chief Guest was present due to COVID 19 pandemic situation.
  • Earlier, Prime Minister of Britain Boris Johnson accepted Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi's invitation to be the Chief Guest at the 2021 Republic Day.
  • Ladakh makes its debut after participation in Republic Day Parade 2021.
  • Liz Truss is the New PM of Britain(as of Oct 2022).

Question 24

India's first Air Taxi Service has been launched in

  1. AOption (a)

    Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Manali

  3. COption (c)

    Chandigarh

  4. DOption (d)

    Lucknow

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chandigarh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chandigarh.

Key Points

  • India’s first Air Taxi Services were launched from Chandigarh.
  • Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar inaugurated India's first air taxi service from Chandigarh Airport under the UDAN scheme of the Central Government on 14 January 2021.
  • The air taxi has the capacity to seat one pilot and three passengers.

Additional Information

  • This air taxi is the lightest twin-engine plane in the world with a weight of 760 kg (empty weight).
  • It can fly on Avgas/ Standard 92 Octane petroleum, instead of ATF (Aviation Turbine Fuel).
  • It has a range of 742 nautical miles.
  • You can opt for the service at just Rs. 1,755 per seat.
  • It is in line with the government's aim to facilitate air connectivity with metros to the Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities of the country.
  • Per seat, a subsidy is provided by the government to the airlines for better connectivity with smaller towns.

Question 25

Which one country becomes the first country to receive the Indian Covid-19 vaccine?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maldives

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhutan

  3. COption (c)

    Nepal

  4. DOption (d)

    Sri Lanka

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bhutan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhutan.

Important Points

  • Bhutan is the first to receive 1,50,000 Indian-made coronavirus vaccines.
  • The Maldives will receive 1,00,000 in the afternoon.
  • On Thursday, Bangladesh and Nepal will get their first consignment, while Myanmar and Seychelles will receive the vaccines on Friday.
  • Bhutan is the first country to receive the Government of India's (GoI) gift of the 'Covidshield' vaccine, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India (SII), followed by the Maldives on the same day.

Question 26

Who became the first woman fighter pilot to participate in the Republic Day fly-past?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhawana Kanth

  2. BOption (b)

    Shaliza Dhami

  3. COption (c)

    Avani Chaturvedi

  4. DOption (d)

    Mohana Singh Jitarwal

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bhawana Kanth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhawana Kanth.

Key Points

  • Bhawana Kanth is one of the first female fighter pilots of India.
  • Flight lieutenant Bhawana Kanth became the first woman fighter pilot to take part in the Indian Air Force's (IAF's) tableau at the Republic Day parade at Delhi’s Rajpath.
  • Bhawana Kanth, Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana Singh are the first women fighter pilots of the Indian Air Force.
  • In May 2019, she became the first female fighter pilot in India to qualify to undertake combat missions.
  • Kanth joined the fighter squadron in November 2017 and flew the first solo on MiG-21 Bison in March 2018.

Question 27

How many rockets has been launched by SpaceX Agency on a single rocket?

  1. AOption (a)

    104

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    136

  4. DOption (d)

    143

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

143

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 143. 

Key Points

  • SpaceX created a new world record by launching 143 satellites on a single rocket in Jan 2021.
  • SpaceX has beaten the Indian space agency ISRO's record of deploying 104 satellites in a single launch in February 2017.
  • The launch vehicle for the SpaceX record-breaking flight was the Falcon 9 rocket.
  • The 143 satellites launched include commercial and government CubeSats, microsats, and 10 Starlink satellites.
  • Objective: SpaceX aims to provide near-global broadband internet coverage all over the world by 2021.

Additional Information

  • About SpaceX: SpaceX was formed by Elon Musk in 2002.
  • Aims of revolutionizing the aerospace industry and making affordable spaceflight a reality.
  • The company entered the arena with the Falcon 1 rocket.
  • A two-stage liquid-fueled craft designed to send small satellites into orbit.
  • The Falcon 1 was vastly cheaper to build and operate than other rockets.
  • Headquarter: US California.

Question 28

IISc Bengaluru has signed a MoU with which organization to develop biomass gasification-based hydrogen generation technology?

  1. AOption (a)

    ONGC

  2. BOption (b)

    NTPC

  3. COption (c)

    Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.

  4. DOption (d)

    Gas Authority of India Ltd.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.

Key Points

  • The Bengaluru based Indian Institute of Science and Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL) has signed an MOU to develop biomass gasification based hydrogen generation technology for producing fuel cell-grade hydrogen at an affordable price.
  • Both IISc and Indian Oil will demonstrate the technology in the Indian Oil R&D Centre in Faridabad.
  • The technology is crucial for the fuel cell operated buses being conceived by Indian Oil towards ushering in the country’s hydrogen economy.

Additional Information

  • ​Biomass gasification is a new technology in which biomass (renewable organic resources like agriculture crop residues, forest residues, special crops grown particularly for energy use, organic municipal solid waste, and animal waste) is converted to hydrogen and other products without combustion using heat, steam, and oxygen.
  • Coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.

Question 29

Speed of light will be minimum in which of the following mediums?

  1. AOption (a)

    Water

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerosene

  3. COption (c)

    Flint glass

  4. DOption (d)

    Diamond

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Diamond

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diamond.

Important Points

  • Speed of light is inversely proportional to refractive index.
  • The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called the refractive index of that medium.
  • It is also called as absolute refractive index.
  • The vacuum has a refractive index of 1.
  • The refractive index of water is 1.333.
  • The refractive index of kerosene is 1.44.
  • The refractive index of flint glass is 1.65.
  • The refractive index of diamond is 2.42.
  • Hence Speed of light is minimum in Diamond.
  • The change in the speed of light when it passes through a diamond is 
  • ⇒ Δs  = (1.24 - 3) × 108 = -1.76 × 108 m/s
  • The speed of light when passing through a diamond decreases by 59%.

Question 30

When light travels from one medium to another medium

  1. AOption (a)

    velocity, wavelength and frequency do not change

  2. BOption (b)

    velocity, wavelength and frequency remains same

  3. COption (c)

    velocity, wavelength changes and frequency remains same

  4. DOption (d)

    velocity, frequency changes and wavelenght remains same

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

velocity, wavelength changes and frequency remains same

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is velocity, wavelength changes and frequency remains same.

Key Points

  • In refraction, the speed of light & its wavelength change but its frequency remains unchanged.
  • Here, the refractive index is also equal to the velocity of light c of a given wavelength in empty space divided by its velocity v in a substance.
  • Thus, Velocity, Wavelength & Refractive index change when light travels from one medium to another but Frequency remains unchanged.

Additional Information

  • When a light ray travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it deviates away from the normal.
  • When a light ray travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it deviates from the normal.

Question 31

Electromagnetic wave is

  1. AOption (a)

    non-mechanical wave with medium dependent

  2. BOption (b)

    non-mechanical wave with independent of medium

  3. COption (c)

    mechanical wave with medium dependent

  4. DOption (d)

    mechanical wave with independent of medium

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

non-mechanical wave with independent of medium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is non-mechanical wave with independent of medium.

Important Points

  • Electromagnetic waves: It is a transverse wave defined as composed of oscillating electrical and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other.​
  • Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
  • It is non-mechanical wave with independent of medium.
  • They travel from transmitter to receiver in three different modes.

​

Question 32

Optical fiber technology is based on 

  1. AOption (a)

    dispersion

  2. BOption (b)

    interference

  3. COption (c)

    refraction

  4. DOption (d)

    total internal reflection

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

total internal reflection

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is total internal reflection.

Key Points

  • In an optical fiber, the information is passed through light, which must not escape outside of it.
  • This phenomenon of confining the light inside the optical fiber is termed Total internal reflection.
  • Optical fiber is the technology partnered with data transmission using light pulses traveling along with a long fiber which is usually made of plastic or glass.
  • Metal wires are upgraded for transmission in optical fiber communication as signals travel with lesser damages.
  • These are based on the principle of total internal reflection.

Additional Information

Total Internal Reflection (TIR):

  • When a wave goes from denser to the rarer medium it bends away from the normal and as the angle of incidence in the denser medium increases, the angle of refraction in the rarer medium also increases, and at a certain angle, the angle of refraction becomes 90°, this angle of incidence is called critical angle (C).
  • When the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle then the light ray comes back into the same medium after reflection from the interface. This phenomenon is called Total internal reflection (TIR).

Question 33

Choose the correct option from the table:

MusicNoise
(A)Any unwanted sound that does not please our ears is called musicAny sound that pleases our ears is termed noise
(B)It is produced by heavy-duty trucks, railway engines, horns, aircraft, cars, faulty loudspeakers, etc.It is produced by musical instruments such as sitar, guitar, violin, Keyboard, etc.
(C)Music has frequency and wavelength that are harmoniousNoise has irregular waveform, wavelength, and low frequencies
(D)Music has a very soothing effectNoise has also a soothing effect
(E)None of the above/More than one of the above
  1. AOption (a)

    (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (D)

  5. EOption (e)

    (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'C'

  • In music, as frequency increases, wavelength decreases.
  • If a note has a very low frequency, it will have a very long wavelength.
  • If the frequency of a pitch is very high, its wavelength will be very short.
  • Hence frequency and wavelength are harmonious in music

Key Points

MusicNoise
Any sound that pleases our ears is termed musicAny unwanted sound that does not please our ears is called noise
It is produced by musical instruments such as sitar, guitar, violin, Keyboard, etcIt is produced by heavy-duty trucks, railway engines, horns, aircraft, cars, faulty loudspeakers, etc.
Music has frequency and wavelength that are harmoniousNoise has irregular waveform, wavelength, and low frequencies
Music has a very soothing effectNoise does not have a soothing effect, it irritates

Additional Information

  • Humans can detect sounds in a frequency range from about 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
  • Infants can actually hear frequencies slightly higher than 20 kHz

Question 34

Cooking takes longest time 

  1. AOption (a)

    in Shimla

  2. BOption (b)

    at the sea level

  3. COption (c)

    in Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    in Bengaluru

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

in Shimla

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is in Shimla.

Key Points

  • The temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid becomes equal to the external pressure.
  • The normal boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapour pressure is equal to one atmosphere (760 torrs).
  • When atmospheric pressure is lower, such as at a higher altitude, it takes less energy to bring water to the boiling point.
  • Less energy means less heat, which means water will boil at a lower temperature at a higher altitude.
  • Boiling point changes with changes in pressure.
  • At high altitudes, water boils at low temperature because atmospheric pressure decreases with increase in altitude.
  • So in the given options 'Shimla' is at high altitude.
  • So Cooking takes longest time in Shimla.

Question 35

'Project Loon' is associated with

  1. AOption (a)

    waste management technology

  2. BOption (b)

    wireless communication technology

  3. COption (c)

    solar power technology

  4. DOption (d)

    water conservation technology

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

wireless communication technology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is wireless communication technology.

Key Points

  • Project Loon is a network of balloons travelling on the edge of space, designed to connect people in rural and remote areas, help fill coverage gaps, and bring people back online after disasters.
  • 'Project Loon' is associated with wireless communication technology.
  • Project Loon balloons travel approximately 20 km above the Earth’s surface in the stratosphere.
  • Winds in the stratosphere are stratified, and each layer of wind varies in speed and direction.
  • Project Loon uses software algorithms to determine where its balloons need to go, and then moves each one into a layer of wind blowing in the right direction.
  • Project Loon is able to power itself using entirely renewable energy sources.

Question 36

The efficiency of a solar cell may be in the range

  1. AOption (a)

    2% to 5%

  2. BOption (b)

    10% to 15%

  3. COption (c)

    30% to 40%

  4. DOption (d)

    70% to 80%

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10% to 15%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10% to 15%.

Important Points

  • The efficiency of a solar cell may be in the range is 10% to 15%.
  • Maximum efficiency of practically used solar cells is about 20%
  • The highest efficiency of solar cell achieved till date is 46%
  • The efficiency of a solar cell is determined as the fraction of incident power which is converted to electricity and is defined as:

η=(VocISC)(F.F)Pin\eta = \frac{{({V_{oc}}{I_{SC}})\left( {F.F} \right)}}{{{P_{in}}}}

  • Where:
  • Voc is the open-circuit voltage
  • Isc is the short-circuit current
  • FF is the fill factor
  • η is the efficiency

Question 37

Which of the following is a power absorbing heat engine?

  1. AOption (a)

    Steam engine

  2. BOption (b)

    Petrol engine

  3. COption (c)

    Air compressor

  4. DOption (d)

    Diesel engine

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Air compressor

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is an Air compressor

Key Points

  • An air compressor is a heat engine that absorbs electricity.
  • Air compressors work by forcing atmospheric air under pressure to create potential energy that can be stored in a tank for later use.
  • The pressure builds up when the compressed air is deliberately released, converting the potential energy into usable kinetic energy

Additional Information

  • A heat engine is used to produce mechanical energy by using heat energy as a source.
  • Working:-
  • It uses fuel such as petrol or diesel and converts its chemical energy into thermal energy by burning it.
  • This thermal energy is then used to move mechanical parts, thus producing mechanical energy. This system is a thermodynamic system.
  • Types of heat engines.
  • 1. Internal Combustion Engine (IC engines)
  • The burning of fuel, commonly known as combustion, occurs inside the system.
  • An IC engine is a type of heat engine that uses working fuel such as petrol and diesel as a heat energy source.
  • The working principle is that it produces work by burning fuel and creating a high-pressure environment.
  • High pressure is then used to run a turbine or a piston, which converts the heat energy to mechanical energy.
  • Petrol engine or Spark-ignition engine: The basic principle is that a piston is moved up and down by burning the fuel using a spark.
  • Diesel engine or Compression ignition engine: It has the same principle as the spark-ignition engine. The only difference is that the fuel (diesel) is made to combust by producing high pressure. It is commonly used in heavy-duty vehicles.
    1. External Combustion Engine
  • In this type, the burning of fuel, commonly known as combustion, takes place outside the system.
  • It is commonly known as EC engines.
  • In this engine, heat from the burnt fuel is transferred to a secondary liquid, which acts as fuel for the engine.
  • Examples: In the steam engine, the heat of combustion is employed to generate steam,
  • Steam is used in a reciprocating engine to produce useful work.

Question 38

Fingerprints are observed by the use of

  1. AOption (a)

    telescope

  2. BOption (b)

    microscope

  3. COption (c)

    Galilean telescope

  4. DOption (d)

    concave lens

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

microscope

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is microscope.

Important Points

  • The microscope is used for enlarging tiny objects or details that our eyes cannot detect.
  • It is used to highly magnify the patterns and design of Fingerprints and is widely used for Fingerprint tracing.
  • Dactylography refers to the scientific study of fingerprints as a method of identification.
  • This method of identification is also called Dectyloscopy.
  • Fingerprints have been a very effective method of developing the identity of the individual for a long.
  • Fingerprints play a critical role in investigating criminals because the court law considers fingerprints as conclusive evidence.
  • It is considered one of the most accurate methods of identification of any person.

Question 39

Digital data refers to the information that is

  1. AOption (a)

    continuous

  2. BOption (b)

    discrete

  3. COption (c)

    bits

  4. DOption (d)

    bytes

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

discrete

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is discrete.

Key Points

  • Digital data refers to the information that is discrete.
  • Digital data is information represented as a string of discrete symbols, each of which may take only one of a finite number of values from some alphabet, such as letters or digits, in information theory and information systems.
  • Digital signal:
  • A digital signal is one in which data is represented as a series of discrete numbers.
  • At any one time, a digital signal can only take one value from a finite range of potential values.

Additional Information

  • Analog data can be stored on physical objects, such as paper documents, film, magnetic tape, disk drives, magnetic tapes, punch cards, and paper.
  • Any continuous signal that represents another quantity, or is "analogous" to another quantity, is called an analog signal.

Question 40

Transformer works with

  1. AOption (a)

    alternating current (AC)

  2. BOption (b)

    direct current (DC)

  3. COption (c)

    both AC and DC

  4. DOption (d)

    any signal

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

alternating current (AC)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is alternating current (AC).

Key Points

  • A Transformer is used to convert low voltage (or high current) to high voltage (or low current) and high voltage to low voltage.
  • It works with Alternating Current (AC).
  • An ordinary transformer works on A.C. only.
  • It is used to increase or decrease the voltage from a source.

Additional Information

  • The transformer works on the principle of mutual induction.
  • Since in a transformer, there are two coils.
  • Voltage in the second coil induces due to flux change in the first coil.
  • This is the basic principle of mutual induction.
  • A Transformer is used to convert low voltage to high voltage and vice versa.

Question 41

Relevant waves in telecommunication are

  1. AOption (a)

    X-rays

  2. BOption (b)

    Microwaves

  3. COption (c)

    UV waves

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Microwaves

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Microwaves.

Key Points

  • Relevant waves in telecommunication are Microwaves.
  • Telecommunication is the transmission of information by various types of technologies over the wire, radio, optical, or other electromagnetic systems.
  • Microwaves are used for telecommunication.
  • It modulates the mechanical waves emitted by our vocal cords.
  • Great physicists such as Hertz, Tesla, Branly, and Marconi understood that it was possible to use electromagnetic waves to convey information through the air.
  • The microwave spectrum is usually defined as a range of frequencies ranging from 1 GHz to over 300 GHz.
  • This range has been divided into a number of frequency bands, each represented by a letter.

Additional Information

  • Frequency range:
ServiceFrequency bands
Standard AM broadcast540-1600 kHz
FM broadcast88-108 MHz
Television54-72 MHz 76-88 MHz 174-216 MHz 420-890 MHz
Cellular Mobile Radio896-901 MHz 840-935 MHz
Satellite Communication5.925-6.425 GHz 3.7-4.2 GHz

Question 42

Which of the following are mobile operating systems?

  1. Android
  2. iOS
  3. Windows Phone OS
  4. Symbian

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    All of the above

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

  • The Operating system(OS) sits between applications and hardware and makes the connections between software and hardware resources like Linux and Windows runs on laptops or desktops etc.
  • A mobile operating system is the software platform on top of which programs run on mobile devices.
  • The different types of mobile operating systems are
  • Symbian OS,
  • Microsoft Windows,
  • macOS,
  • Ubuntu Unity,
  • GNOME Shell,
  • Mac OS,
  • Chrome OS.
  • Hence All of the above is the correct answer.

Question 43

Which of the following is/are not secondary memory of computer?

  1. Compact Disk (CD)
  2. Cache Memory
  3. Floppy Disk (FD)
  4. Hard Disk Drive(HDD)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points

  • Secondary memory is computer memory that is non-volatile and persistent in nature and is not directly accessed by a computer/processor.
  • It allows a user to store data that may be instantly and easily retrieved, transported, and used by applications and services.
  • Types of Secondary Memory 
  • Disk drive,
  • SSD,
  • Flash,
  • Optical Drive,
  • USD Drive,
  • Magnetic Tapes.

Additional Information

  • Primary memory is the main memory of the pc system. Accessing knowledge from primary memory is quicker as a result of the indoor memory of the pc.
  • All storage device devices that area unit capable of storing high volume knowledge is stated as secondary memory
  • Types of Primary Memory 
  • RAM,
  • ROM.

Question 44

Auxiliary memory or secondary memory includes as

  1. Optical discs like DVD, CD and Blu-ray disk
  2. magnetic disks like memory sticks, floppy disks and hard disk drive
  3. solid-state disks like a thumb drive, pen and flash
  4. electric disks like memory sticks, floppy disks and hard disk drive
  5. mechanical disks like DVD, CD and Blu-ray disks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 5

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

  • Auxiliary memory, also known as secondary storage, secondary memory, or external memory, is a non-volatile memory
  • It does not lose stored data when the device is powered off.
  • It is not directly accessible by the CPU
  • Secondary memory devices include magnetic disks like hard drives and floppy disks, optical disks such as CDs and CD-ROMs, and magnetic tapes

Additional Information

  • Volatile or primary memory can lose content when the power goes out.
  • Example:-RAM
  • Non-volatile or auxiliary memory does not lose its content when the power goes out.
  • Example:- ROM, Optical Disks, Magnetic Disks

Question 45

What will happen when the memory chip is volatile?

  1. Explodes due to high temperatures
  2. Used for data storage
  3. Loss of content due to loss of current
  4. Used to write and read data
  5. Damaged due to loss of current

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 5

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Only 3(Loss of content due to loss of current).

Key Points

  • If a memory chip is volatile, it will lose its Contents if the current is turned off.
  • Volatile memory is computer storage that only maintains its data while the power of the device is on.

Important Points

  • Volatile memory is computer storage that only stores its data while the device is enabled.
  • An example of volatile memory is RAM (random access memory) used for primary storage on human computers.
  • RAM is faster to read and write than other types of computer storage, such as hard disks or removable media.
  • The data in RAM stays there only while the computer is running; when the computer is shut down, RAM loses its data.

Additional Information

  • Non-volatile memory or secondary storage does not lose its content when the power goes out.
  • It has a continuous power source and does not require its memory to be updated from time to time
  • The ROM chip is a non-volatile storage
  • Other examples include magnetic disks like hard drives and floppy disks; optical disks such as CDs and CDROMs; and magnetic tapes

Question 46

Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest?

  1. Character, File, Record, Field, Database
  2. Character, Record, Field, Database, File
  3. Character, Field, Record, File, Database
  4. Bit, Byte, Character, File, Record, Field, Database

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only4

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 3

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 3.

Key Points

  • The common data elements in order from the smallest to largest are Character, Field, Record, File, and Database.
  • A database is a collection of files, a file is made up of records, a record is made up of fields, a field is made up of characters, a character is made up of bytes and a byte is made up of bits (a bit is a short form for binary digit).

Additional Information

  • Bit (Character) is the smallest unit of data representation (value of a bit maybe a 0 or 1).
  • Eight bits make a byte which can represent a character or a special symbol in a character code.
  • The field consists of a grouping of characters. A data field represents an attribute (a characteristic or quality) of some entity (object, person, place, or event).
  • The record represents a collection of attributes that describe a real-world entity. A record consists of fields, with each field describing an attribute of the entity.
  • A file is a group of related records. Files are frequently classified by the application for which they are primarily used (employee file). A primary key in a file is the field (or fields) whose value identifies a record among others in a data file.
  • The database is an integrated collection of logically related records or files. A database consolidates records previously stored in separate files into a common pool of data records that provides data for many applications.

Question 47

Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?

  1. AOption (a)

    User

  2. BOption (b)

    Application software

  3. COption (c)

    System software

  4. DOption (d)

    Utility software

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

System software

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is System software.

Key Points

  • System software controls a computer’s internal functioning, chiefly through an operating system, and also controls such peripherals as monitors, printers, and storage devices.
  • Application Software also referred to as end-user programs or productivity programs is software that aids the user in executing tasks like doing online research, jotting down notes, setting an alarm, graphics designing, keeping logs of accounts, performing calculations or even playing games.
  • They are different from system software in the way that they are used by the end-user and are specific in their functionality or tasks and perform the task that they are created to do.
  • For example, the application Browser is specifically designed for the purpose of browsing the internet, or MS PowerPoint is an application used specifically for making presentations.

Additional Information

  • Utility software is system software designed to help analyze, configure, optimize or maintain a computer.
  • It is a type of system software, used to support the computer infrastructure by contrast to application software, which is aimed at directly performing tasks that benefit ordinary users.

Question 48

Which software prevents the external access to a system?

  1. AOption (a)

    Firewall

  2. BOption (b)

    Gateway

  3. COption (c)

    Router

  4. DOption (d)

    Virus Checker

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Firewall

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Firewall.

Key Points

  • A firewall prevents external access to a system.
  • A firewall is software used to maintain the security of a private network.
  • It is used to protect internal networks and private or sensitive data.
  • A firewall also logs information about network traffic, which can help an administrator understand and prevent attacks.

Additional Information

  • Gateway is located at the boundary of a network and manages all data that inflows or outflows from that network.
  • Routers are networking devices responsible for receiving, analyzing, and forwarding data packets among the connected computer networks.

Question 49

Which of the following statements is not true about democracy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Democracy evolves through popular struggle.

  2. BOption (b)

    Democratic conflict is resolved through mass mobilization.

  3. COption (c)

    Role of popular struggle comes to an end with the establishment of democracy.

  4. DOption (d)

    Public participation becomes effective with the help of organised politics.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Role of popular struggle comes to an end with the establishment of democracy.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Role of popular struggle comes to an end with the establishment of democracy.

Key Points

  • In a democracy, a country’s people are involved in choosing its leader or head.
  • Democracy evolves through popular struggle.
  • Democratic conflict is resolved through mass mobilisation.
  • Public participation becomes effective with the help of organised politics.
  • The people are involved in the process of forming a government.
  • They have the free will and right to vote for a party to come into power.
  • The right to vote is not determined by wealth or class or race.
  • Hence Role of popular struggle comes to an end with the establishment of democracy, which is not the correct option.

Additional Information

  • A democratic government is formed when a majority of people support a certain party as the ruling party or power.
  • Within democracy again, there are several forms of democracies such as a republic, a constitutional monarchy, a presidential system, or a parliamentary system.
  • The final decision making power rests with those elected by the people.
  • It must be based on a free and fair election.
  • Each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
  • It should rule within limits set by constitutional law and citizen's rights, which means the Ruler has no absolute power to rule the country.

Question 50

Nepal witnessed an extra-ordinary popular movement in

  1. AOption (a)

    April 1990

  2. BOption (b)

    February 2005

  3. COption (c)

    April 2006

  4. DOption (d)

    April 2004

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

April 2006

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is April 2006.

Key Points

  • Nepal witnessed an extraordinary popular movement in April 2006.
  • The movement was aimed at restoring democracy.
  • Nepal was one of the ‘third wave’ countries that had won democracy in 1990.
  • Although the king formally remained the head of the state, the real power was exercised by popularly elected representatives.

Additional Information

  • The movement of April 2006 was aimed at regaining popular control over the government from the king.
  • All the major political parties in the parliament formed a Seven Party Alliance (SPA) and called for a four-day strike in Kathmandu, the country’s capital.
  • The leaders of the movement rejected the half-hearted concessions made by the king.

50 questions in the full paper