Previous Year Paper

BPSC AE Paper 3 (General Studies) 14 Oct 2022 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

50 questions60 minutes
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Question 1

The least count of Vernier Caliper is

  1. AOption (a)

    0.01 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    0.01 mm

  3. COption (c)

    0.1 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    0.001 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0.01 cm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0.01 cm

Key Points

  • The least count of a Vernier Caliper is 0.01 cm.
  • The least count is the smallest measurement that can be accurately read using the Vernier Caliper.
  • It is determined by the difference in the values between one main scale division and one Vernier scale division.
  • Vernier Calipers are precision instruments used to measure dimensions to a high degree of accuracy.

Additional Information

  • Vernier Calipers consist of a main scale and a sliding Vernier scale which allows readings to be made to a fraction of a division on the main scale.
  • The least count of a Vernier Caliper can be calculated using the formula: Least Count = (Smallest Division on Main Scale) / (Number of Divisions on Vernier Scale).
  • Typically, the main scale of a Vernier Caliper is graduated in centimeters and millimeters, and the Vernier scale provides additional precision.
  • The Vernier Caliper is commonly used in scientific laboratories, manufacturing, and engineering fields for precise measurements.

Question 2

The unit of linear momentum is

  1. AOption (a)

    kg ms-2

  2. BOption (b)

    kg2 ms-1

  3. COption (c)

    N s-1

  4. DOption (d)

    N s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

N s

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is N s

Key Points

  • Option 4 (N s) is the correct unit for linear momentum.
  • Linear momentum is defined as the product of an object's mass and its velocity.
  • The SI unit of mass is kilograms (kg) and the SI unit of velocity is meters per second (m/s).
  • Therefore, the unit of linear momentum is kg·m/s, which is also equivalent to Newton-seconds (N·s).

Additional Information

  • Linear momentum is a vector quantity, which means it has both magnitude and direction.
  • It is a fundamental concept in physics and is conserved in isolated systems, according to the law of conservation of momentum.
  • The concept of linear momentum is crucial in understanding collisions and other interactions in mechanics.
  • In classical mechanics, the momentum of a system of particles is the sum of the momenta of the individual particles.
  • Impulse is the change in momentum resulting from a force applied over a period of time, and its unit is also Newton-seconds (N·s).

Question 3

Altimeter is an equipment used in an aircraft to measure its

  1. AOption (a)

    pressure

  2. BOption (b)

    velocity

  3. COption (c)

    altitude

  4. DOption (d)

    temperature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

altitude

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is altitude

Key Points

  • An altimeter is an instrument used in aircraft to measure the altitude of the aircraft above a fixed level.
  • It is a crucial device for ensuring the aircraft maintains a safe altitude, especially during takeoff, landing, and while flying in mountainous regions.
  • Altimeters can be of different types, including barometric altimeters, which measure altitude based on atmospheric pressure, and GPS altimeters, which use satellite data to determine altitude.
  • Proper functioning of the altimeter is essential for the safety and navigation of the aircraft.

Additional Information

  • The barometric altimeter works on the principle that atmospheric pressure decreases with an increase in altitude. It uses this pressure difference to calculate the altitude.
  • Modern aircraft often use a combination of barometric and GPS altimeters to enhance accuracy and reliability.
  • Altimeters must be regularly calibrated to ensure accurate readings, as factors like temperature and pressure variations can affect their accuracy.
  • In aviation, maintaining the correct altitude is vital for avoiding obstacles and ensuring safe separation from other aircraft.

Question 4

The global warming has resulted in

  1. AOption (a)

    the increase in yield of crops

  2. BOption (b)

    the increase in sea level

  3. COption (c)

    the decrease in sea level

  4. DOption (d)

    the decrease in human deaths

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the increase in sea level

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the increase in sea level

Key Points

  • The increase in sea level is one of the significant consequences of global warming.
  • Global warming leads to the melting of polar ice caps and glaciers, contributing to the rise in sea levels.
  • Higher sea levels can result in coastal erosion, increased flooding, and the displacement of communities living in low-lying areas.
  • It poses a threat to coastal ecosystems and can lead to the loss of habitat for plants, animals, and even humans.

Additional Information

  • Global warming is primarily caused by the increase in greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide in the Earth's atmosphere.
  • These gases trap heat from the sun, leading to a gradual increase in the planet's temperature.
  • Efforts to mitigate global warming include reducing greenhouse gas emissions, transitioning to renewable energy sources, and enhancing energy efficiency.
  • International agreements like the Paris Agreement aim to unite countries in the fight against climate change by setting targets to limit global temperature rise.
  • Adapting to rising sea levels involves measures such as constructing sea walls, improving drainage systems, and implementing sustainable land-use planning.

Question 5

A thick glass plate behaves like a

  1. AOption (a)

    convex mirror

  2. BOption (b)

    concave mirror

  3. COption (c)

    convex lens

  4. DOption (d)

    plane mirror

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

plane mirror

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is plane mirror

Key Points

  • A thick glass plate behaves like a plane mirror.
  • This occurs because the thickness of the glass plate causes multiple internal reflections, leading to the formation of a virtual image similar to that produced by a plane mirror.
  • The reflective properties of the glass ensure that light rays are reflected back in a manner akin to a plane mirror.
  • Due to the lack of curvature, the glass plate does not exhibit the properties of convex or concave mirrors or lenses.

Additional Information

  • Plane mirrors produce images that are virtual, upright, and of the same size as the object.
  • They are commonly used in everyday applications such as bathroom mirrors, dressing mirrors, and rearview mirrors in vehicles.
  • Convex mirrors, on the other hand, are used in situations where a wider field of view is needed, such as in security mirrors and vehicle side mirrors.
  • Concave mirrors are used in applications where magnification of the image is required, such as in makeup mirrors and certain types of telescopes.

Question 6

______ are used in radiotherapy.

  1. AOption (a)

    X - rays

  2. BOption (b)

    γ - rays

  3. COption (c)

    UV - rays

  4. DOption (d)

    IR - rays

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

γ - rays

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is γ - rays

Key Points

  • γ - rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation used extensively in radiotherapy for treating cancer.
  • They have high energy and can penetrate deep into tissues, making them effective in targeting and destroying cancer cells.
  • Radiotherapy using γ - rays can be precisely controlled to minimize damage to surrounding healthy tissues.
  • These rays are produced by radioactive isotopes like Cobalt-60 and are commonly used in medical treatments.

Additional Information

  • X-rays are also used in medical imaging and diagnostic radiology but are less common in radiotherapy compared to γ - rays.
  • UV rays and IR rays are not suitable for radiotherapy due to their lower energy levels and inability to penetrate deeply into tissues.
  • Radiotherapy can be delivered externally using machines or internally through radioactive sources placed near the target area.
  • Advancements in radiotherapy technology have led to more precise and effective cancer treatments with fewer side effects.

Question 7

A fuse wire is made up of ______ alloy.

  1. AOption (a)

    manganin and constantan

  2. BOption (b)

    constantan and tungsten

  3. COption (c)

    lead and tin

  4. DOption (d)

    copper and aluminium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

lead and tin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is lead and tin

Key Points

  • Lead and tin are the primary materials used to make fuse wires.
  • Fuse wires are designed to melt and break the circuit when excessive current flows through, thereby protecting electrical devices from damage.
  • The melting point of lead-tin alloy is low, which makes it an ideal choice for fuse wires.
  • Using a lead-tin alloy ensures that the fuse wire responds quickly to overcurrent conditions, providing effective protection.

Additional Information

  • Fuses are essential components in electrical circuits, acting as safety devices to prevent electrical overloads.
  • They are commonly used in household appliances, automotive applications, and industrial equipment.
  • Proper selection of fuse wire material is crucial for ensuring the safety and longevity of electrical systems.
  • In addition to lead and tin, other materials like silver and copper can also be used for specialized fuse applications, but lead-tin alloy remains the standard for general use.

Question 8

In cold countries, water is used as heat reservoir for wine bottles because

  1. AOption (a)

    specific heat capacity of water is same as that of the wine

  2. BOption (b)

    specific heat capacity of water is very high

  3. COption (c)

    specific heat capacity of water is very low

  4. DOption (d)

    specific heat capacity of water is less than the wine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

specific heat capacity of water is very high

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is specific heat capacity of water is very high

Key Points

  • Water is used as a heat reservoir in cold countries for wine bottles because its specific heat capacity is very high.
  • A high specific heat capacity means that water can absorb or release a large amount of heat with minimal temperature change.
  • This property helps to maintain the wine bottles at a stable temperature, preventing them from freezing in cold conditions.
  • Water's high specific heat capacity is one of the highest among common substances, making it an effective thermal buffer.

Additional Information

  • Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one degree Celsius.
  • Water's specific heat capacity is approximately 4.18 J/g°C, which is much higher than that of most other liquids and solids.
  • This characteristic of water plays a crucial role in climate and weather patterns, as well as in various industrial and domestic applications.
  • In addition to its high specific heat capacity, water also has high thermal conductivity, making it efficient in transferring heat.

Question 9

______ radiations are used to control the thickness of papers, plastic and metal sheets during production.

  1. AOption (a)

    Beta

  2. BOption (b)

    Gamma

  3. COption (c)

    Alpha

  4. DOption (d)

    Infrared

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Beta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Beta

Key Points

  • Beta radiations are used to control the thickness of papers, plastic, and metal sheets during production.
  • Beta particles can penetrate materials to a certain depth, making them suitable for thickness gauging.
  • This method ensures consistent product quality by maintaining uniform thickness.
  • Beta radiation is preferred over other types due to its optimal penetration capability for industrial applications.

Additional Information

  • Radiation-based thickness gauging is a non-contact method, which is advantageous for continuous production processes.
  • The use of beta radiation in industrial applications is regulated to ensure safety and compliance with health standards.
  • Other types of radiation, like alpha and gamma, are either too weak or too strong for this specific application.
  • Beta radiation sources commonly used include Strontium-90 and Krypton-85.
  • Thickness gauges using beta radiation are widely used in industries like paper manufacturing, plastic extrusion, and metal rolling.

Question 10

The quality of sound depends upon

  1. AOption (a)

    amplitude

  2. BOption (b)

    frequency

  3. COption (c)

    wavelength

  4. DOption (d)

    waveform

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

waveform

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is waveform

Key Points

  • The quality of sound is determined by its waveform.
  • Waveform refers to the shape and form of the sound wave, which affects the timbre and quality of the sound.
  • Other factors like amplitude, frequency, and wavelength influence different aspects of sound such as loudness and pitch, but the waveform is crucial for the quality.
  • Understanding the waveform helps in sound synthesis and audio engineering to produce desired sound qualities.

Additional Information

  • Amplitude affects the loudness of the sound.
  • Frequency determines the pitch of the sound.
  • Wavelength is related to the frequency and speed of the sound wave.
  • Sound quality or timbre is what differentiates two sounds of the same pitch and loudness, and it is primarily influenced by the waveform.

Question 11

Rice grows better in ______ soil.

  1. AOption (a)

    neutral

  2. BOption (b)

    acidic

  3. COption (c)

    alkaline

  4. DOption (d)

    red

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

acidic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is acidic

Key Points

  • Rice grows better in acidic soil because it thrives in a pH range of 5.0 to 6.5, which is slightly acidic.
  • Acidic soils help in the better availability of essential nutrients like iron and manganese, which are crucial for the growth of rice plants.
  • In regions with naturally acidic soils, rice can grow more efficiently compared to neutral or alkaline soils, which may hinder nutrient absorption.
  • Proper management of soil acidity can lead to improved rice yield and quality.

Additional Information

  • Soil pH is an important factor in determining the availability of nutrients to plants and the activity of soil microorganisms.
  • Farmers often use soil amendments like lime to adjust soil pH to optimal levels for specific crops.
  • Regular soil testing is recommended to monitor pH levels and nutrient status for effective soil management.
  • Different crops have different pH requirements; for instance, blueberries prefer more acidic soils, while most vegetables prefer slightly acidic to neutral pH.

Question 12

The only non - metal which forms positive ion is

  1. AOption (a)

    hydrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    helium

  3. COption (c)

    argon

  4. DOption (d)

    oxygen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is hydrogen

Key Points

  • Hydrogen is the only non-metal that can form a positive ion (H⁺).
  • In its ionic form, hydrogen loses its single electron to become a proton (H⁺), which is a positively charged ion.
  • Other non-metals typically gain electrons to form negative ions (anions).
  • Hydrogen is unique due to its ability to exist as a cation (H⁺) in various chemical reactions, especially in acid-base chemistry.

Additional Information

  • In the periodic table, hydrogen is placed in Group 1, but it is not an alkali metal.
  • Hydrogen can also form negative ions (hydrides, H⁻) in certain conditions, showing its versatility in chemical bonding.
  • Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe and plays a crucial role in many chemical processes, including the formation of water (H₂O).
  • In its molecular form (H₂), hydrogen is a diatomic gas under standard conditions.

Question 13

Dental amalgam is a mixture of

  1. AOption (a)

    A mercury and silver - lead alloy

  2. BOption (b)

    mercury and silver - iron alloy

  3. COption (c)

    mercury and iron - tin alloy

  4. DOption (d)

    mercury and silver - tin alloy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

mercury and silver - tin alloy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is mercury and silver - tin alloy

Key Points

  • Dental amalgam is a mixture used for dental fillings.
  • The correct composition of dental amalgam is mercury and silver - tin alloy.
  • This mixture provides durability and strength to the dental fillings.

Additional Information

  • Dental amalgam has been used for over a century for its effectiveness in filling cavities caused by tooth decay.
  • It is composed of approximately 50% mercury, with the remaining 50% being a mixture of silver, tin, and other metals.
  • Despite concerns about mercury content, dental amalgam is considered safe and is endorsed by many health organizations.
  • Alternatives to dental amalgam include composite resins, glass ionomer cements, and gold alloys.

Question 14

______ hydrocarbon is a greenhouse gas.

  1. AOption (a)

    Acetylene

  2. BOption (b)

    Ethylene

  3. COption (c)

    Methane

  4. DOption (d)

    Ethane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Methane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Methane

Key Points

  • Methane is a potent greenhouse gas.
  • It is over 25 times more effective than carbon dioxide at trapping heat in the atmosphere over a 100-year period.
  • Methane is emitted during the production and transport of coal, oil, and natural gas.
  • It is also released by livestock and other agricultural practices, as well as by the decay of organic waste in municipal solid waste landfills.
  • Efforts to reduce methane emissions include improving waste management practices, capturing methane from landfills, and reducing emissions from oil and gas operations.

Additional Information

  • Greenhouse gases like methane contribute to the greenhouse effect, which leads to global warming and climate change.
  • Other significant greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and fluorinated gases.
  • Mitigating methane emissions is considered a key strategy in addressing climate change.
  • International agreements and national policies are being developed to target reductions in methane emissions.

Question 15

Volume - temperature relationship is given by

  1. AOption (a)

    Charles

  2. BOption (b)

    Boyle

  3. COption (c)

    Dalton

  4. DOption (d)

    Cavendish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Charles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Charles

Key Points

  • The Volume - Temperature relationship is defined by Charles's Law.
  • Charles's Law states that at constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
  • This means that as the temperature of the gas increases, its volume increases proportionally, provided the pressure remains unchanged.
  • The law can be mathematically expressed as V∝TV∝T or VT=kVT=kVT=kVT=kVT=k , where VVVVV is the volume, TTTTT is the absolute temperature, and kkkkk is a constant.

Additional Information

  • Boyle's Law describes the relationship between pressure and volume at constant temperature.
  • Dalton's Law pertains to the partial pressures of gases in a mixture.
  • Cavendish was known for his work on hydrogen and the composition of water, not for the volume-temperature relationship of gases.
  • The ideal gas law combines Charles's Law, Boyle's Law, and Avogadro's Law into a single equation: PV=nRTPV=nRTPV=nRTPV=nRTPV=nRT .

Question 16

On reaction with water, active metal produces

  1. AOption (a)

    an acid

  2. BOption (b)

    a base

  3. COption (c)

    oxygen

  4. DOption (d)

    metal oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a base

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a base

Key Points

  • When active metals react with water, they produce a base.
  • This reaction typically releases hydrogen gas and forms a metal hydroxide, which is basic in nature.
  • For example, when sodium (an active metal) reacts with water, it produces sodium hydroxide (a base) and hydrogen gas.
  • The general reaction can be represented as:

Metal + Water → Metal Hydroxide + Hydrogen Gas

Additional Information

  • Active metals are those that readily react with water due to their high reactivity, such as alkali metals (e.g., sodium, potassium).
  • The reaction is highly exothermic and can be vigorous, especially with more reactive metals like potassium.
  • Care must be taken while handling these reactions due to the release of hydrogen gas, which is flammable.
  • In contrast, less reactive metals like iron may react slowly with water or only react with steam.

Question 17

If there was no carbon dioxide in the earth's atmosphere, the temperature of the earth would be

  1. AOption (a)

    higher than the present 

  2. BOption (b)

    lower than the present

  3. COption (c)

    the same

  4. DOption (d)

    dependent on the amount of oxygen present in the atmosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

lower than the present

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is lower than the present

Key Points

  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a significant greenhouse gas that traps heat in the earth's atmosphere.
  • If there were no carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, the greenhouse effect would be significantly reduced.
  • This reduction in the greenhouse effect would lead to lower temperatures on Earth compared to the present.
  • The presence of CO2 and other greenhouse gases is crucial for maintaining the Earth's temperature at a level that can support life.

Additional Information

  • The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth's surface. When the Sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space, and the rest is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases.
  • Without the greenhouse effect, the average temperature of the Earth would be about -18°C (0°F), rather than the current average of around 15°C (59°F).
  • Human activities, especially the burning of fossil fuels and deforestation, have increased concentrations of greenhouse gases, leading to global warming and climate change.

Question 18

The maximum prescribed concentration of copper in drinking water is

  1. AOption (a)

    5 ppm

  2. BOption (b)

    4 ppm

  3. COption (c)

    3 ppm

  4. DOption (d)

    2 ppm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 ppm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3 ppm

Key Points

  • The maximum prescribed concentration of copper in drinking water is 3 ppm.
  • Copper is an essential nutrient, but high levels can cause adverse health effects such as gastrointestinal distress and liver or kidney damage.
  • The guideline value is set to ensure the safety and health of the population, considering both the essentiality and toxicity of copper.
  • Various water quality standards, including those by the World Health Organization (WHO), often set similar limits for copper in drinking water.

Additional Information

  • Copper can enter drinking water through the corrosion of household plumbing systems and erosion of natural deposits.
  • It is recommended to run water for 15-30 seconds to flush out any copper that may have leached from pipes before using it for drinking or cooking.
  • Regular monitoring and testing of water sources are essential to ensure compliance with the prescribed concentration limits.
  • In case of high copper levels, water treatment methods such as reverse osmosis, distillation, or ion exchange can be used to reduce copper concentrations.

Question 19

When a neutral atom converted into a cation, its 

  1. AOption (a)

    atomic weight increases

  2. BOption (b)

    atomic weight decreases

  3. COption (c)

    size increases

  4. DOption (d)

    size decreases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

size decreases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is size decreases

Key Points

  • When a neutral atom is converted into a cation, its size decreases.
  • This is because the loss of one or more electrons results in a decrease in electron-electron repulsion within the atom.
  • The remaining electrons are drawn closer to the nucleus due to the unbalanced positive charge.
  • Hence, the atomic radius or size of the cation is smaller compared to the neutral atom.

Additional Information

  • Ionization is the process in which an atom or molecule gains or loses electrons to form ions.
  • Cations are positively charged ions formed by the loss of electrons.
  • The size of an atom or ion is influenced by the number of electron shells and the effective nuclear charge.
  • In general, cations are smaller than their parent atoms, while anions (negatively charged ions) are larger.

Question 20

Which of the following is diamagnetic?

  1. AOption (a)

    O2+\rm O^+_2

  2. BOption (b)

    O2−2\rm O^{-2}_2

  3. COption (c)

    O2−\rm O^-_2

  4. DOption (d)

    O2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

O2−2\rm O^{-2}_2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is O2-2.

Key Points

  • O2-2 is diamagnetic.
  • Diamagnetic substances are those which do not have any unpaired electrons and are not attracted to a magnetic field.
  • In the molecular orbital theory, the O2-2 ion has all its electrons paired, leading to its diamagnetic nature.
  • Other options such as O+2, O-2, and O2 have unpaired electrons, making them paramagnetic.

Additional Information

  • Diamagnetism is a property that arises from the pairing of electrons in an atom or molecule.
  • The presence of unpaired electrons in a species leads to paramagnetism, which is the opposite of diamagnetism.
  • Molecular orbital theory helps in understanding the magnetic properties of diatomic molecules by considering the filling of molecular orbitals with electrons.

Question 21

Picasa is a free program from ______ which is used to organize, edit and share the digital photographs online.

  1. AOption (a)

    Amazon

  2. BOption (b)

    Flipkart

  3. COption (c)

    Microsoft

  4. DOption (d)

    Google

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Google

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Google

Key Points

  • Google is the developer of Picasa, a free program used to organize, edit, and share digital photographs online.
  • Picasa was originally created by a company named Lifescape, which Google acquired in 2004.
  • The program was widely popular for its user-friendly interface and robust features for photo management.
  • In 2016, Google discontinued Picasa to focus on its newer photo service, Google Photos.

Additional Information

  • Picasa was available for Windows, Mac OS X, and Linux operating systems.
  • It allowed users to perform basic photo editing tasks such as cropping, red-eye reduction, and color correction.
  • Users could also create albums, slideshows, and collages with their photos.
  • Google Photos, the successor to Picasa, offers cloud storage and advanced photo organization features using machine learning.

Question 22

Resources are centralized amongst the various branches of an organization in a ______ cloud.

  1. AOption (a)

    private

  2. BOption (b)

    public

  3. COption (c)

    hybrid

  4. DOption (d)

    community

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

private

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is private

Key Points

  • Resources are centralized amongst the various branches of an organization in a private cloud.
  • A private cloud is a cloud computing model that offers a proprietary environment dedicated to a single business entity.
  • Unlike public clouds, private clouds are used exclusively by one organization, providing greater control over security, data privacy, and compliance.
  • Private clouds can be hosted on-premises or by a third-party service provider.
  • This model is suitable for organizations that require stringent data protection and have specific regulatory requirements.

Additional Information

  • Public cloud services are delivered over the internet and shared across multiple organizations, leading to lower costs but less control over security.
  • Hybrid cloud combines both private and public clouds, allowing data and applications to be shared between them for greater flexibility.
  • Community cloud is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared by several organizations from a specific community with common concerns.
  • Choosing the right cloud model depends on various factors, including business needs, budget, and regulatory requirements.

Question 23

______ mode of transmission requires the devices to be in a direct line of sight with each other.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bluetooth

  2. BOption (b)

    Wi - Fi

  3. COption (c)

    Infrared

  4. DOption (d)

    Hi - Fi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Infrared

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Infrared

Key Points

  • Infrared communication requires the devices to be in a direct line of sight with each other.
  • Unlike other wireless communication methods like Bluetooth and Wi-Fi, infrared communication cannot penetrate walls or other obstacles.
  • Infrared technology is commonly used in remote controls, short-range communication, and data transfer between devices that are in close proximity and within the line of sight.
  • It is a secure method of communication as the signal is confined to a specific direction and area.

Additional Information

  • Bluetooth technology allows devices to communicate wirelessly over short distances without the need for a direct line of sight.
  • Wi-Fi enables wireless network communication over larger distances and does not require line of sight.
  • Infrared communication is highly directional and typically used for close-range applications.
  • Infrared has a limited range compared to other wireless communication technologies.
  • Despite its limitations, infrared is still used in specific applications due to its simplicity and cost-effectiveness.

Question 24

______ is aware of the addresses assigned to each of its ports and sends the incoming data it receives only to the correct port.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hub

  2. BOption (b)

    Switch

  3. COption (c)

    Repeater

  4. DOption (d)

    Modem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Switch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Switch

Key Points

  • A Switch is aware of the addresses assigned to each of its ports and sends the incoming data it receives only to the correct port.
  • Switches operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and sometimes at the network layer (Layer 3).
  • They use MAC addresses to determine the destination of the data packets they receive.
  • Switches improve the efficiency and security of a network by reducing unnecessary traffic.

Additional Information

  • A Hub sends incoming data to all ports, regardless of the destination, which can lead to collisions and inefficiencies.
  • A Repeater is used to regenerate signals over long distances but does not filter or direct traffic.
  • A Modem modulates and demodulates signals for communication over telephone lines or cable systems, and does not manage network traffic in the same way as a switch.

Question 25

Reddit is a social networking site which is also called a/an ______  app.

  1. AOption (a)

    banking

  2. BOption (b)

    education

  3. COption (c)

    entertainment

  4. DOption (d)

    news aggregator

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

news aggregator

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is news aggregator

Key Points

  • Reddit is a social networking site that also functions as a news aggregator.
  • Users can post content, such as text, links, and images, which can then be upvoted or downvoted by other members.
  • Reddit is organized into various communities known as subreddits, each focusing on specific topics or interests.
  • It is widely used for discussions, news sharing, and entertainment, making it a versatile platform for its users.

Additional Information

  • Reddit was founded by Steve Huffman and Alexis Ohanian in 2005.
  • The platform has a voting system that helps in determining the popularity and visibility of posts.
  • Reddit is known for its Ask Me Anything (AMA) threads, where users can ask questions to celebrities, experts, and other notable figures.
  • It has a diverse user base and covers a wide range of topics, from technology and science to entertainment and politics.
  • Reddit also has a system of karma points that reflects the contributions of a user to the community.

Question 26

File transfer protocol was originally designed by

  1. AOption (a)

    William Playfair

  2. BOption (b)

    Suril Shah

  3. COption (c)

    Abhay Bhushan

  4. DOption (d)

    Robert Elliot Kahn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Abhay Bhushan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abhay Bhushan

Key Points

  • Abhay Bhushan originally designed the File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
  • FTP is a standard network protocol used for the transfer of computer files between a client and server on a computer network.
  • It was developed during the early years of the ARPANET, which was the precursor to the modern Internet.
  • FTP uses separate control and data connections between the client and the server.
  • It supports user authentication, allowing users to authenticate themselves using a clear-text sign-in protocol, normally in the form of a username and password.

Additional Information

  • File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is widely used for uploading and downloading files from a server to a client or vice versa.
  • FTP can be used with user-based password authentication or with anonymous user access.
  • There are several variations of FTP, including FTPS (FTP Secure), which adds a layer of security by using SSL/TLS.
  • FTP clients are available for many operating systems, including Windows, macOS, and Linux.
  • Modern alternatives to FTP include SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) and SCP (Secure Copy), which provide enhanced security features.

Question 27

 ______ is a logical situation where either of the two actions is to be performed depending upon the specific condition.

  1. AOption (a)

    If else

  2. BOption (b)

    If

  3. COption (c)

    If else if

  4. DOption (d)

    End if

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

If else

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is If else

Key Points

  • If else is a logical situation where either of the two actions is to be performed depending upon the specific condition.
  • In programming, the if-else statement is used to execute one block of code if a specified condition is true, and another block of code if it is false.
  • The if-else construct allows for more complex decision-making structures compared to a simple if statement.
  • It is widely used in various programming languages to control the flow of execution based on conditional logic.

Additional Information

  • The if statement alone can be used when only one action is required based on a condition.
  • The if else if ladder can be used for multiple conditions.
  • The end if statement is used to mark the end of an if block in some programming languages.

Question 28

What does OOP mean?

  1. AOption (a)

    Object - Oriented Procedure

  2. BOption (b)

    Object - Oriented Programming

  3. COption (c)

    Object - Origin Program

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Object - Oriented Programming

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Object - Oriented Programming

Key Points

  • Object - Oriented Programming (OOP) is a programming paradigm based on the concept of "objects", which can contain data and code to manipulate the data.
  • OOP allows for the creation of classes, which can be instantiated to create objects.
  • It promotes code reusability, scalability, and efficiency in software development.
  • Key principles of OOP include encapsulation, inheritance, polymorphism, and abstraction.

Additional Information

  • The concept of OOP was first introduced in the 1960s with the programming language Simula.
  • Popular OOP languages include Java, C++, Python, and Ruby.
  • OOP helps in managing complex software systems by breaking them down into manageable objects.
  • It also supports the concept of "inheritance" where a new class can inherit properties and methods from an existing class, promoting code reuse.
  • Encapsulation in OOP helps in hiding the internal state of the object and only exposing the necessary methods.

Question 29

Which type of chart is used for representing huge amount of data?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bar

  2. BOption (b)

    Scatter

  3. COption (c)

    Area

  4. DOption (d)

    Line

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Scatter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Scatter

Key Points

  • Scatter charts are widely used for representing a huge amount of data.
  • Scatter charts plot data points on a horizontal and a vertical axis to show how much one variable is affected by another.
  • Scatter charts are also known as scatter plots, scatter graphs, and scatter diagrams.
  • These charts are useful for identifying and visualizing the correlation between variables.
  • Scatter charts are often used in statistical analyses to show the relationship between two variables and to identify trends, patterns, and outliers.

Additional Information

  • Bar charts are typically used for comparing different categories of data.
  • Area charts are used to represent quantitative data graphically.
  • Line charts are used to display information as a series of data points called 'markers' connected by straight line segments.
  • Choosing the right type of chart depends on the nature of the data and the insights you wish to derive from it.

Question 30

______ has the capability to prioritise the process, minimize the execution time and work independently with no interdependencies.

  1. AOption (a)

    DOS

  2. BOption (b)

    MTOS

  3. COption (c)

    RTOS

  4. DOption (d)

    MPOS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

RTOS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is RTOS

Key Points

  • RTOS stands for Real-Time Operating System.
  • An RTOS has the capability to prioritize processes, ensuring that critical tasks are executed within a guaranteed time frame.
  • It minimizes execution time by efficiently managing system resources and scheduling tasks based on priority.
  • RTOS works independently with no interdependencies, which is crucial for applications requiring real-time performance such as embedded systems, robotics, and telecommunications.

Additional Information

  • RTOS is designed to handle real-time applications that process data as it comes in, typically without buffering delays.
  • Common examples of RTOS include FreeRTOS, VxWorks, and RTLinux.
  • RTOS ensures high reliability and predictability in system responses, which is essential for time-sensitive applications.
  • Unlike general-purpose operating systems, RTOS provides deterministic behavior and meets strict timing constraints.

Question 31

The trident shaped symbol of Buddhism does not represent

  1. AOption (a)

    Nirvana

  2. BOption (b)

    Sangha

  3. COption (c)

    Buddha 

  4. DOption (d)

    Dhamma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nirvana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nirvana

Key Points

  • Nirvana is not represented by the trident-shaped symbol of Buddhism.
  • The trident-shaped symbol, also known as the Triratna or Triple Gem, represents the Buddha, the Dhamma (teachings), and the Sangha (community).
  • The Triratna is central to Buddhist practice and denotes the three refuges or jewels that Buddhists take refuge in.
  • Nirvana refers to the ultimate goal of Buddhist practice, which is the liberation from the cycle of birth and rebirth (samsara) and the cessation of suffering (dukkha).

Additional Information

  • Buddhism was founded by Siddhartha Gautama, known as the Buddha, in the 5th century BCE.
  • The core teachings of Buddhism are encapsulated in the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.
  • The Four Noble Truths teach about the nature of suffering, its cause, its cessation, and the path leading to its cessation.
  • The Eightfold Path provides a practical guideline to ethical and mental development with the goal of freeing the individual from attachments and delusions; it leads to understanding, enlightenment, and Nirvana.
  • Buddhism has spread from its origins in India to various parts of Asia, including Sri Lanka, Thailand, Myanmar, Tibet, China, Japan, and Korea, among others.
  • The teachings of Buddhism have been preserved in various scriptures, such as the Pali Canon and the Mahayana Sutras.

Question 32

The largest epic of the world is the

  1. AOption (a)

    Ramayana

  2. BOption (b)

    Bible

  3. COption (c)

    Mahabharata

  4. DOption (d)

    Quran

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mahabharata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mahabharata

Key Points

  • The Mahabharata is widely regarded as the largest epic in the world.
  • It is an ancient Indian epic that consists of over 100,000 shlokas or over 200,000 individual verse lines (each shloka is a couplet), and long prose passages.
  • The Mahabharata is attributed to the sage Vyasa and is a narrative of the Kurukshetra War and the fates of the Kaurava and the Pandava princes.
  • The epic is not just a story but also contains much philosophical and devotional material, including a discussion of the four "goals of life" (purusharthas).

Additional Information

  • The Mahabharata is divided into 18 parvas (books) with over 1.8 million words in total, making it roughly ten times the length of the Iliad and the Odyssey combined.
  • It includes the Bhagavad Gita, which is a sacred text of the Hindus and is considered one of the most important spiritual classics.
  • The Mahabharata addresses complex themes such as duty (dharma), righteousness, the nature of reality, and the human condition.
  • It has been translated and interpreted in numerous languages and has influenced various cultures and literatures around the world.
  • The Mahabharata continues to be a subject of study and reverence in Indian culture and beyond.

Question 33

Devanagari script does not have ______ language.

  1. AOption (a)

    Marathi

  2. BOption (b)

    Prakrit 

  3. COption (c)

    Sanskrit

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tamil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil

Key Points

  • Tamil is not written in the Devanagari script.
  • Devanagari script is primarily used for languages such as Marathi, Prakrit, and Sanskrit.
  • Tamil uses its own script, which is known as the Tamil script.
  • The Devanagari script is one of the most used and adopted writing systems in India.
  • It is an abugida script and includes 47 primary characters, including 14 vowels and 33 consonants.

Additional Information

  • Devanagari script is used for over 120 languages, including Hindi, Nepali, and Rajasthani.
  • The script is written from left to right and is recognizable by its horizontal line that runs along the top of the letters.
  • Tamil script, on the other hand, is unique to the Tamil language and has a different set of characters and phonetics.
  • The earliest forms of the Devanagari script can be traced back to the 7th century CE.

Question 34

Which of the following is kharif crop?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wheat

  2. BOption (b)

    Groundnut

  3. COption (c)

    Mustard 

  4. DOption (d)

    Gram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Groundnut

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Groundnut

Key Points

  • Groundnut is a kharif crop.
  • Kharif crops are typically sown with the beginning of the first rains in July, during the southwest monsoon season.
  • These crops are harvested at the end of the monsoon season (October-November).
  • Other examples of kharif crops include rice, maize, and cotton.

Additional Information

  • Wheat and mustard are examples of rabi crops, which are sown in winter and harvested in the spring.
  • Gram is also typically a rabi crop.
  • The distinction between kharif and rabi crops is based on the season in which they are cultivated.

Question 35

Which of the following is one of the two days when sun rises exactly in the east?

  1. AOption (a)

    14th January

  2. BOption (b)

    21st June

  3. COption (c)

    23rd December

  4. DOption (d)

    21st March

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

21st March

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21st March

Key Points

  • The sun rises exactly in the east on only two days in the year: the Vernal Equinox (around 21st March) and the Autumnal Equinox (around 23rd September).
  • On these days, the day and night are of approximately equal duration.
  • These equinoxes occur because the tilt of the Earth's axis is perpendicular to the Sun's rays.
  • During the equinoxes, the Sun crosses the celestial equator, moving from one hemisphere to the other.

Additional Information

  • The term "equinox" comes from Latin, meaning "equal night."
  • The Vernal Equinox marks the beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere, while the Autumnal Equinox marks the beginning of fall.
  • Equinoxes are significant in many cultures and are often associated with various festivals and rituals.
  • In astronomy, equinoxes are used as reference points for celestial coordinate systems.

Question 36

The Attorney - General of India is the legal advisor to the

  1. AOption (a)

    President of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Prime Minister on Foreign Policies

  3. COption (c)

    Government of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Vice President of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Government of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Government of India

Key Points

  • The Attorney-General of India is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
  • The Attorney-General is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • The Attorney-General provides legal advice to the Government of India and performs other legal duties assigned by the President.
  • As the principal legal officer of the Union Government, the Attorney-General represents the Government of India in the Supreme Court and other courts.
  • The Attorney-General has the right of audience in all courts in India and can participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not entitled to vote.

Additional Information

  • The Attorney-General must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • The Attorney-General is assisted by a Solicitor General and several Additional Solicitors General.
  • The role of the Attorney-General is not political, and the officeholder is expected to be impartial and uphold the rule of law.
  • The Attorney-General can also take part in the proceedings of the Parliament but does not have the right to vote.
  • The duties of the Attorney-General include giving advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the President.

Question 37

The saffron colour in the Indian National Flag signifies

  1. AOption (a)

    unity

  2. BOption (b)

    sacrifice

  3. COption (c)

    service

  4. DOption (d)

    integrity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

sacrifice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is sacrifice

Key Points

  • The saffron colour in the Indian National Flag signifies sacrifice.
  • The Indian National Flag consists of three horizontal stripes of different colors: saffron at the top, white in the middle, and green at the bottom.
  • The saffron color represents the spirit of renunciation and selflessness.
  • It is a reminder of the sacrifices made by freedom fighters and leaders in the struggle for India's independence.

Additional Information

  • The white stripe in the middle of the flag signifies truth and peace.
  • The green stripe at the bottom represents faith and chivalry.
  • In the center of the white stripe is a navy blue wheel with 24 spokes, known as the Ashoka Chakra, which symbolizes the eternal wheel of law and dharma.
  • The Indian National Flag was adopted on 22nd July 1947, just before India's independence from British rule.
  • The flag is a symbol of India's sovereignty, unity, and integrity.

Question 38

The emphasis of Indian federation is on 

  1. AOption (a)

    strength of States

  2. BOption (b)

    division of power

  3. COption (c)

    unity of nation

  4. DOption (d)

    compromise with nationalities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

unity of nation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is unity of nation

Key Points

  • The emphasis of the Indian federation is on the unity of the nation.
  • The Indian federal structure is designed to maintain a balance between the powers of the central government and the states, ensuring that the country remains united.
  • This system allows for a division of powers between the Union and the states, while also promoting cooperation and coordination among them.
  • Subjects that are of national importance and require uniformity are generally controlled by the central government.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India establishes a federal structure with a strong unitary bias.
  • It aims to strike a balance between the autonomy of states and the need for a strong central authority to maintain national unity and integrity.
  • The distribution of powers is outlined in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which includes the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • The Union List contains subjects of national importance on which only the central government can legislate, ensuring uniformity across the country.
  • The Constitution also provides mechanisms for resolving disputes between the states and the central government, promoting cooperative federalism.

Question 39

Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    To catch the fake currency notes

  2. BOption (b)

    To maintain the value of rupee

  3. COption (c)

    To regulate the flow of credit

  4. DOption (d)

    It has supervisory power over other banks

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To catch the fake currency notes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To catch the fake currency notes

Key Points

  • To catch the fake currency notes is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has multiple functions including maintaining the value of the rupee, regulating the flow of credit, and having supervisory power over other banks.
  • The RBI plays a crucial role in the financial stability and monetary regulation of India.
  • While the RBI issues currency notes, the responsibility of catching fake currency notes primarily lies with law enforcement agencies.

Additional Information

  • The Reserve Bank of India was established on 1st April 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • It is the central bank of India and is responsible for the regulation and supervision of the financial system.
  • The RBI also manages the country's main payment systems and works to promote its economic development.
  • It is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • The RBI's functions also include issuing currency, managing foreign exchange, and acting as a banker to the government.

Question 40

According to Locke, which one of the following is not a natural right?

  1. AOption (a)

    Liberty 

  2. BOption (b)

    Equality 

  3. COption (c)

    Property

  4. DOption (d)

    Life

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Equality 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Equality

Key Points

  • According to John Locke, natural rights are those rights which are inherent in human beings and not dependent on governments.
  • Locke identified three fundamental natural rights: Life, Liberty, and Property.
  • These rights are considered inalienable and cannot be surrendered or transferred.
  • Equality, while an important principle, is not listed by Locke as a natural right.

Additional Information

  • John Locke was a 17th-century English philosopher and physician, widely regarded as one of the most influential Enlightenment thinkers and commonly known as the "Father of Liberalism."
  • His work greatly influenced the development of political philosophy and modern liberal democracy.
  • Locke's theories on natural rights were foundational to the creation of social contract theory, which posits that governments are formed by the consent of the governed to protect these rights.
  • Locke's ideas were instrumental in shaping the American Declaration of Independence, particularly the emphasis on life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.

Question 41

Which Indian city has been included by UNESCO in its coveted list of Creative Cities Network?

  1. AOption (a)

    Srinagar

  2. BOption (b)

    Kangra

  3. COption (c)

    Leh 

  4. DOption (d)

    Puri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Srinagar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Srinagar

Key Points

  • Srinagar has been included by UNESCO in its coveted list of Creative Cities Network.
  • The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development.
  • Srinagar is known for its rich cultural heritage, including its traditional crafts and arts.
  • The inclusion of Srinagar in the UCCN recognizes the city's commitment to fostering creativity and cultural industries, as well as promoting its cultural heritage.

Additional Information

  • UNESCO stands for the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
  • The Creative Cities Network covers seven creative fields: Crafts & Folk Art, Media Arts, Film, Design, Gastronomy, Literature, and Music.
  • By joining the network, cities commit to sharing best practices, developing partnerships that promote creativity and the cultural industries, and strengthening participation in cultural life.
  • Other Indian cities included in the UCCN are Chennai and Varanasi (for music), Jaipur (for crafts and folk art), and Mumbai (for film).

Question 42

World's largest Khadi National Flag has been installed at

  1. AOption (a)

    Srinagar 

  2. BOption (b)

    Shimla

  3. COption (c)

    Leh

  4. DOption (d)

    Jammu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Leh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leh

Key Points

  • The world's largest Khadi National Flag was installed at Leh.
  • The flag measures a massive 225 feet by 150 feet and weighs around 1,000 kg.
  • It was unveiled on October 2, 2021, to mark the 152nd birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • The flag is a symbol of India's rich heritage and the freedom struggle led by Mahatma Gandhi, who advocated the use of Khadi.
  • It has been manufactured by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).

Additional Information

  • Leh is the joint capital and largest town of the union territory of Ladakh in India.
  • It lies at an altitude of 3,524 meters (11,562 feet) and is known for its stunning landscapes, Buddhist monasteries, and vibrant culture.
  • The installation of the Khadi flag in Leh is seen as a tribute to the Indian Army and a message of national pride and unity.
  • The flag was hoisted by Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh, RK Mathur, in the presence of senior military officials and other dignitaries.
  • The Khadi flag reinforces the importance of Khadi as a fabric of freedom and self-reliance, echoing the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 43

Swachh Bharat Mission Urban was launched in the year

  1. AOption (a)

    2013

  2. BOption (b)

    2015

  3. COption (c)

    2016

  4. DOption (d)

    2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2014

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2014

Key Points

  • Swachh Bharat Mission Urban was launched in the year 2014.
  • This mission aims to eliminate open defecation, eradicate manual scavenging, and promote modern and scientific municipal solid waste management.
  • The mission also focuses on generating awareness and bringing about a behavioral change regarding sanitation practices.
  • It is a flagship program of the Government of India, emphasizing the importance of cleanliness and hygiene in urban areas.
  • Under this mission, various initiatives have been undertaken to construct toilets, improve waste management systems, and promote cleanliness.

Additional Information

  • Swachh Bharat Mission was launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, on 2nd October 2014, the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • The mission has two sub-missions: Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) for rural areas and Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) for urban areas.
  • The mission's objective is to achieve a clean and Open Defecation Free (ODF) India by 2nd October 2019, marking the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • It also aims to bring about a behavioral change in people regarding healthy sanitation practices and to improve the quality of life in rural and urban areas.
  • The mission has seen active participation from various sectors, including government agencies, non-governmental organizations, and citizens.

Question 44

Which country will host 7th U - 17 Women's FIFA World Cup in 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    England

  2. BOption (b)

    France

  3. COption (c)

    India

  4. DOption (d)

    China

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India

Key Points

  • India will host the 7th U-17 Women's FIFA World Cup in 2022.
  • This will be the first time that India hosts a FIFA women's tournament.
  • The tournament will feature teams from around the world competing in the U-17 category.
  • It aims to promote women's football in India and provide a platform for young female athletes to showcase their talent.
  • The event is expected to boost the popularity of football among women in India.

Additional Information

  • The FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup is an international football competition organized by FIFA for female players under the age of 17.
  • The tournament has been held biennially since its inception in 2008.
  • The previous edition of the tournament was held in Uruguay in 2018.
  • India was originally scheduled to host the event in 2020, but it was postponed to 2022 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • Hosting the tournament is seen as an opportunity to improve sports infrastructure and inspire the next generation of female footballers in India.

Question 45

Which bank has been declared as the overall winner of the EASE 3.0 awards?

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab National Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    HDFC Bank

  3. COption (c)

    ICICI Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    State Bank of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

State Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is State Bank of India

Key Points

  • State Bank of India has been declared as the overall winner of the EASE 3.0 awards.
  • The EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) 3.0 awards recognize the efforts of public sector banks in various categories to enhance their performance and service quality.
  • The awards are part of the government's reform agenda to improve the efficiency of public sector banks in India.
  • State Bank of India has consistently demonstrated excellence in various parameters, including digital banking, customer service, and financial inclusion.
  • The bank's initiatives in leveraging technology and innovation have significantly contributed to its recognition in the EASE 3.0 awards.

Additional Information

  • State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest public sector bank in India, with a vast network of branches and ATMs across the country.
  • SBI offers a wide range of banking products and services, including retail banking, corporate banking, and wealth management.
  • The bank has been at the forefront of adopting digital banking solutions to provide seamless and convenient banking experiences to its customers.
  • SBI's commitment to financial inclusion is evident through its various initiatives aimed at reaching underserved and unbanked populations.
  • Under the EASE reforms, public sector banks are assessed on various parameters such as customer responsiveness, responsible banking, credit off-take, and governance and HR practices.
  • The EASE reforms aim to make public sector banks more competitive, efficient, and customer-centric.

Question 46

Who became the first Indian to win a Paralympic medal in archery?

  1. AOption (a)

    Harvinder Singh

  2. BOption (b)

    Manish Narwal

  3. COption (c)

    Manoj Sarkar

  4. DOption (d)

    Nishad Kumar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Harvinder Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Harvinder Singh

Key Points

  • Harvinder Singh became the first Indian to win a Paralympic medal in archery.
  • He achieved this historic feat at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games.
  • Harvinder Singh won the bronze medal in the men's individual recurve event.
  • This victory marked a significant milestone in India's Paralympic history, showcasing the talent and determination of Indian para-athletes on the global stage.

Additional Information

  • The Paralympic Games are a major international multi-sport event involving athletes with a range of disabilities, including impaired muscle power, limb deficiency, and vision impairment.
  • India has been participating in the Paralympic Games since 1968 and has since won several medals across various sports.
  • The Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games saw India achieve its best-ever medal haul, with athletes winning medals in athletics, badminton, shooting, and archery.
  • Efforts to support and promote para-sports in India have been increasing, with initiatives aimed at providing better training facilities, coaching, and financial support to para-athletes.

Question 47

Engineer's Day on 15th September marks the birthday of great engineer

  1. AOption (a)

    E. Sreedharan

  2. BOption (b)

    Satish Dhawan

  3. COption (c)

    M. Visvesvaraya

  4. DOption (d)

    A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

M. Visvesvaraya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is M. Visvesvaraya

Key Points

  • Engineer's Day is celebrated on 15th September in India.
  • This day marks the birthday of the great engineer M. Visvesvaraya.
  • M. Visvesvaraya is recognized for his significant contributions to engineering and his role in the development of modern India.
  • He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1955, India’s highest civilian award.
  • His notable works include the Krishna Raja Sagara dam in Karnataka and his contributions to the flood protection system in Hyderabad.

Additional Information

  • M. Visvesvaraya was born on 15th September 1861.
  • He served as the Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918.
  • He was instrumental in the founding of the Government Engineering College in Bangalore in 1917, which was later named University Visvesvaraya College of Engineering in his honor.
  • Engineer's Day is observed to honor his legacy and inspire future generations to contribute to the field of engineering.

Question 48

Which highway became the country's first EV - friendly highway?

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi - Jaipur

  2. BOption (b)

    Delhi - Amritsar

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi - Chandigarh

  4. DOption (d)

    Delhi - Agra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Delhi - Agra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Delhi - Agra

Key Points

  • Delhi - Agra highway is the first EV-friendly highway in India.
  • This highway is part of the Yamuna Expressway, known for its smooth and extensive road network.
  • The initiative aims to promote the use of electric vehicles by providing charging infrastructure along the route.
  • Several charging stations have been set up at regular intervals to ensure that EV users have easy access to charging facilities.
  • This move is part of a broader strategy to reduce carbon emissions and promote sustainable transportation.

Additional Information

  • The Yamuna Expressway connects Delhi with Agra and is one of the longest six-lane controlled-access expressways in India.
  • It was inaugurated in August 2012 and has significantly reduced travel time between the two cities.
  • The highway is also known for its various amenities, including rest areas, food courts, and medical facilities.
  • The introduction of EV-friendly infrastructure is expected to encourage more people to switch to electric vehicles, contributing to a greener environment.
  • India aims to have a considerable portion of its vehicle population to be electric by 2030, and initiatives like these are steps towards achieving that goal.

Question 49

Which city has been declared as the first water plus city of the country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandigarh

  2. BOption (b)

    Indore

  3. COption (c)

    Bhopal

  4. DOption (d)

    Hyderabad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indore

Key Points

  • Indore has been declared as the first water plus city of the country.
  • This recognition is part of the Swachh Survekshan 2021, an annual survey of cleanliness, hygiene, and sanitation in cities and towns across India.
  • Indore achieved this status by ensuring that all wastewater released from households, commercial establishments, and other sources is treated before being released into the environment.
  • The city has set up several sewage treatment plants and has ensured that no untreated water is discharged into rivers or other water bodies.
  • This achievement is a significant step towards sustainable water management and environmental conservation.

Additional Information

  • Water Plus certification is given under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) initiative.
  • To qualify as a Water Plus city, a city must ensure that all its wastewater is treated to a certain standard before being released into the environment.
  • This involves setting up and maintaining sewage treatment plants, ensuring proper sewage networks, and preventing any form of water pollution.
  • Indore has been a consistent performer in the Swachh Survekshan rankings, having been ranked as the cleanest city in India for several years in a row.
  • The city's efforts in waste management, public participation, and innovative solutions have been key factors in achieving the Water Plus status.

Question 50

______ has become the first Indian State/City to become free from rabies.

  1. AOption (a)

    Chennai

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhubaneshwar

  3. COption (c)

    Meghalaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Goa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Goa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Goa

Key Points

  • Goa has become the first Indian state to become free from rabies.
  • This achievement was part of a targeted campaign to eliminate rabies through mass vaccination of dogs and public awareness programs.
  • The campaign involved various stakeholders including the government, non-governmental organizations, and the public.
  • Rabies is a viral disease that primarily spreads through the bite of an infected animal, and it is almost always fatal once symptoms appear.
  • Eliminating rabies in a region requires comprehensive vaccination programs and effective stray animal management.

Additional Information

  • The World Health Organization (WHO) has set a goal to eliminate dog-mediated human rabies by 2030.
  • India has been making significant strides in this direction with various states implementing their own rabies control programs.
  • Public awareness about the importance of vaccinating pets and avoiding stray animals is crucial in preventing rabies.
  • Early post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is effective in preventing the onset of symptoms in humans who have been exposed to the rabies virus.
  • Continued efforts and collaboration between various sectors are essential to maintain the rabies-free status and to achieve the global goal of rabies elimination.

50 questions in the full paper