Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Home Science 22nd August 2024 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

100 questions120 minutes
With answers
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Question 1

Which one of the following is not a criteria for effective learning ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Learning should be general in nature 

  2. BOption (b)

    Learning should engage maximum number of senses of the learner

  3. COption (c)

    Learning should be challenging 

  4. DOption (d)

    Learning should result in functional understanding 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Learning should be general in nature 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Learning should be general in nature.

Key Points

  • The statement "Learning should be general in nature" is not a criterion for effective learning because effective learning often requires specific, targeted knowledge and skills rather than a broad understanding.
  • It emphasizes depth and mastery of subjects, allowing for practical application. Additionally, effective learning is typically tailored to individual needs and goals, making a general approach less suitable for achieving meaningful outcomes.

Additional Information

Learning Should Engage Maximum Number of Senses: Engaging multiple senses enhances retention and understanding. When learners interact with material through sight, sound, touch, and even taste or smell, they create more connections in the brain, leading to deeper learning and better recall.

Learning Should Be Challenging: Challenging learning experiences encourage critical thinking and problem-solving. When learners face difficulties, they are prompted to stretch their abilities and develop resilience, which fosters growth and a deeper understanding of the subject matter.

Learning Should Result in Functional Understanding: Effective learning aims for practical application of knowledge. When learners achieve a functional understanding, they can apply concepts in real-life situations, making the learning relevant and meaningful. This type of understanding ensures that knowledge is not just theoretical but also useful in practice.

Question 2

Following are the properties of hydrophobic fabric :

(A) It does not absorb perspiration

(B) It tends to have a static build-up

(C) It has better wrinkle recovery

(D) It accepts dyes and finishes more readily

(E) Stain can be easily removed from it

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D) and (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (C) and (A) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B) and (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) Only.

Key Points

(A) It does not absorb perspiration.

Hydrophobic fabrics repel water, meaning they do not absorb moisture like perspiration. This property makes them ideal for activewear and outdoor clothing, where staying dry is important.

(B) It tends to have a static build-up.

Because hydrophobic materials do not absorb moisture, they can create static electricity. The lack of moisture means that charges do not dissipate, leading to static cling or build-up.

(C) It has better wrinkle recovery.

Hydrophobic fabrics often have better wrinkle recovery because they tend to maintain their shape and resist creasing. This makes them practical for garments that need to look crisp and polished.

Additional Information

(D) It accepts dyes and finishes more readily.

This statement is incorrect for hydrophobic fabrics. Their water-repellent nature makes it challenging for dyes and finishes to adhere, which is why they are typically not as readily dyed.

(E) Stain can be easily removed from it.

While hydrophobic fabrics can repel certain stains, this does not mean all stains are easily removed. It depends on the nature of the stain and the fabric's specific properties.

 

The properties that correctly describe hydrophobic fabrics are 1, 2, and 3.

Question 3

Steps to be followed in sequence for planning and creating new designs :

(A) Make a plan

(B) Set the goal

(C) Carry out the plan

(D) Examine the relevant outside influences

(E) Evaluate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (A), (E), (C), (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (E), (B), (D), (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (D), (A), (C), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (D), (A), (C), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (D), (A), (C), (E).

Key Points

B. Set the Goal 

Define what you want to achieve. This provides direction for your design.

D. Examine Relevant Outside Influences 

Analyze external factors like trends and user needs that affect your design.

A. Make a Plan 

Create a structured approach outlining how to achieve your goal, including timelines and resources.

C. Carry Out the Plan

Implement the plan to create the design, ensuring you stay on track.

E. Evaluate 

Assess the outcomes against your goals to identify strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement.

This sequence helps ensure a thorough and effective design process.

Question 4

Types of belts included under “Tie Belt” category :

(A) Spaghetti

(B) Straight tie ups

(C) Bias belt

(D) Contour belt

(E) Rever belt

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D) and (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (C) and (A) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B) and (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) Only.

Key Points

A. Spaghetti

Thin, long strips of fabric that can be tied in various ways, often used in dresses for a delicate look.

B. Straight Tie Ups

Single straight piece of fabric that ties in the front or back, providing a classic, clean style.

C. Bias Belt

Fabric cut on the bias for stretch and drape, ideal for comfort and a tailored fit.

Additional Information

**D. Contour Belt:**Contour belts are typically designed to fit the natural curves of the body and are often more structured. They may not tie in a way that allows for adjustment like traditional tie belts do.

E. Rever Belt: The term "rever" typically refers to a folded or turned-over design, often used in the context of collar styles or decorative elements, rather than a specific type of belt.

Question 5

The first step of any parent education program is to find similarities between a group of parents by developing which one of the following ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Communication 

  2. BOption (b)

    Eye contact 

  3. COption (c)

    Therapy

  4. DOption (d)

    Rapport 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rapport 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rapport.

Key Points

  • The first step of any parent education program is to find similarities between a group of parents by developing rapport.
  • Building rapport helps create a trusting environment where parents feel comfortable sharing their experiences and learning from each other.
  • This connection fosters collaboration and enhances the effectiveness of the program.

Additional Information

Communication, eye contact, and therapy are not the primary focus in the initial step of building a parent education program for the following reasons:

Communication: While important, effective communication is typically a result of established rapport rather than the initial step. It becomes more relevant after trust has been built among parents.

Eye Contact: This is a non-verbal cue that can enhance communication but is not a foundational element in finding similarities among parents. It’s a technique used during interactions rather than a first step in program development.

Therapy: This term implies a clinical approach focused on individual issues, which differs from the goal of fostering a community among parents. Parent education programs aim to create a supportive environment, not necessarily therapeutic interventions.

Question 6

Which one of the following is not a non-projected visual aid ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Chalk Board 

  2. BOption (b)

    Bulletin Board 

  3. COption (c)

    Flip Chart 

  4. DOption (d)

    Puppet Show 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Puppet Show 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Puppet Show.

Key Points

  • A puppet show is not considered a non-projected visual aid because it involves live performance and dynamic elements.
  • Non-projected visual aids typically include static items such as posters, charts, and models, which present information without the need for electronic projection.
  • These aids are designed to support learning through visual representation without animation or movement.
  • In contrast, a puppet show actively engages an audience with storytelling and interaction, relying on performers to bring the visuals to life.

Additional Information

Bulletin Boards: These are non-projected visual aids used to display printed information, posters, or images.

Flash Cards:These are usually small cards used for learning or presenting information. While they can be physical and used in a non-projected way, they are often associated with interactive or digital presentations.

Black boards :These are also non-projected visual aids where you can write information for your audience to see.

Question 7

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Programmes)List II (Beneficiary)
(A)National IDD Control Programme(I)Below Poverty Line families
(B)Antyodaya Anna Yojna(III)Drought affected states/UT
(C)Mid Day Meal Programme(III)Entire population
(D)Food for Work programme(IV)Primary school children

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

Key Points

  • National IDD Control Programme

Beneficiary: Entire population 

This program aims to eliminate iodine deficiency disorders (IDD) across the country. It targets the entire population to ensure that everyone has access to iodized salt and is educated about the importance of iodine for health.

  • Antyodaya Anna Yojna

Beneficiary: Below Poverty Line families 

This scheme focuses on providing food security to the poorest families. It aims to provide subsidized food grains to families identified as being below the poverty line.

  • Mid Day Meal Programme

Beneficiary: Primary school children 

This program provides free meals to children in primary schools to improve nutritional levels and encourage school attendance. It directly benefits students enrolled in these educational institutions.

  • Food for Work Programme

Beneficiary: Drought affected states/UT 

This initiative aims to provide food security and employment to people in drought-affected areas. It helps vulnerable populations by offering food in exchange for work, particularly in rural areas.

Question 8

When we eat meal some compounds do not get metabolized, they instead become special molecules called : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ligands 

  2. BOption (b)

    Metabolomes

  3. COption (c)

    Proteomics 

  4. DOption (d)

    Genomes 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ligands 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ligands.

Key Points

  • When we eat a meal, some compounds that are not fully metabolized can become special molecules called ligands.
  • Ligands are molecules that bind to specific sites on proteins or receptors, often playing crucial roles in biological signaling processes.
  • In the context of nutrition, certain dietary compounds can act as ligands for receptors in the body, influencing various physiological responses.

Additional Information

Metabolomes, proteomics, and genomics refer to different fields:

Metabolomes: The complete set of metabolites present in a biological sample.

Proteomics: The study of the structure and function of proteins, including their interactions.

Genomics: The study of the complete set of genes or genetic material in an organism.

These terms do not directly relate to the special molecules formed from undigested food compounds. Ligands, on the other hand, can bind to receptors and influence various biological processes.

Question 9

Which part of the body develops more quickly than any other organ in early childhood ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Limbs 

  2. BOption (b)

    Head circumference

  3. COption (c)

    Brain 

  4. DOption (d)

    Heart 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brain 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brain.

Key Points

The brain develops more quickly than any other organ in early childhood.

During this critical period, the brain undergoes rapid growth and complex development, forming connections and pathways that are essential for cognitive, emotional, and physical development.

This growth is crucial for learning, language acquisition, and overall functioning as the child matures.

Additional Information

The limbs, hands, and heart do not develop more quickly than the brain in early childhood because the brain coordinates growth and function throughout the body. Its rapid development is crucial for establishing neural connections essential for movement and cognitive functions. While limbs and the heart grow, their maturation is gradual and relies on the brain's guidance for proper coordination and motor skills. Overall, the brain's development is prioritized to support the integration and functioning of all body parts.

Question 10

As per classification of Mental Retardation based on what IQ score, a person is considered as profoundly mentally retarded ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    70

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

20

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 20.

Key Points

  • A person is classified as profoundly mentally retarded (or profoundly intellectually disabled) when their IQ score is typically below 20.
  • This classification reflects significant limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior. Individuals in this category often require extensive support and care throughout their lives.

Question 11

Assessment of nutritional status through Direct Method is done by :

(A) Anthropometry

(B) Vital Health Statistics

(C) Clinical Examination

(D) Radiological Examination

(E) Biochemical Estimation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (D), (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (C), (B), (A) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (C), (D), (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (C), (D), (E) Only.

Key Points

(A) Anthropometry

  • Anthropometry involves measuring physical dimensions of the body, such as height, weight, body mass index (BMI), and skinfold thickness.
  • These measurements help assess body composition, growth patterns, and overall nutritional status.

(C) Clinical Examination

  • This method involves a physical assessment conducted by a healthcare professional to identify signs of nutritional deficiencies or excesses.
  • Clinicians look for physical signs such as skin changes, hair loss, and muscle wasting, which can indicate malnutrition.

(D) Radiological Examination

  • Radiological methods, such as X-rays or MRI scans, can help assess body composition and identify issues related to nutrition, such as bone density or fat distribution.
  • These imaging techniques can provide detailed information about the structural aspects of the body and any potential health concerns related to nutrition.

(E) Biochemical Estimation

  • This method involves analyzing biological samples (like blood, urine, or tissue) to measure nutrient levels, metabolic markers, and indicators of health status.
  • Biochemical tests can reveal deficiencies in vitamins, minerals, and other nutrients, providing a more precise understanding of an individual's nutritional health.

Additional Information

Vital Health Statistics is not considered a direct method for assessing nutritional status because it primarily involves demographic and health-related data, such as birth rates, death rates, and disease prevalence. While it can provide valuable insights into population health trends and outcomes, it does not measure individual nutritional status directly.

Question 12

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Types of pockets)List II (Characteristics)
(A)Flap pocket(I)The opening is visible like a slot and can be finished with a rectangular piece of fabric standing upwards from the pocket edge,
(B)Welt pocket(III)The opening is covered with flap, which can be left open or buttoned down
(C)Bound pocket(III)It is applied on the face (right) side of the garment and can be made in any number of shapes
(D)Patch pocket(IV)Itlooks similar to a large bound button hole with two pleats of fabric meeting at the centre of the opening.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).

Key Points

(A) Flap Pocket - 

  • The opening is covered with a flap, which can be left open or buttoned down.
  • Flap pockets are often found on jackets and coats, providing both a functional and stylish element. The flap not only secures the contents of the pocket but also adds visual interest to the garment. This type of pocket is popular for its classic look and practicality, making it suitable for both casual and formal wear.

(B) Welt Pocket -

  • The opening is visible like a slot and can be finished with a rectangular piece of fabric standing upwards from the pocket edge.
  • Welt pockets are commonly used in tailored clothing such as blazers and trousers.
  • They have a clean and polished appearance, giving the garment a sophisticated touch. The welt creates a defined opening, making it easy to access while maintaining a streamlined look. This pocket type is ideal for formal occasions.

(C) Bound Pocket - 

  • It looks similar to a large bound buttonhole with two pleats of fabric meeting at the center of the opening.
  • Bound pockets are often decorative and functional, typically seen in coats and jackets. The design features a bound edge, giving it a neat finish, while the pleats add a unique dimension. This style is both eye-catching and practical, allowing for easy access to the pocket's contents.

(D) Patch Pocket - 

  • It is applied on the face (right) side of the garment and can be made in any number of shapes.
  • Patch pockets are one of the simplest pocket designs, sewn directly onto the outer fabric of a garment. They are versatile and can come in various shapes and sizes, making them popular for casual wear like shirts and denim jackets. This type of pocket is easy to construct and offers a laid-back, functional element to clothing.

Question 13

The main characteristics of exceptional children are :

(A) Deviant and different from children of their age

(B) Deviation may fall on positive or negative side of exceptionality

(C) Require special provision in education and adjustment

(D) Usually get social acceptance

(E) Have high self-esteem and confidence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (D), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D), (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only.

Key Points

(A) Deviant and Different from Children of Their Age

  • Exceptional children are defined by their differences from their peers. This can manifest as either advanced abilities (giftedness) or challenges (learning disabilities, developmental delays).
  • These deviations make them stand out in comparison to typically developing children of the same age.

(B) Deviation May Fall on Positive or Negative Side of Exceptionality

  • The deviation in exceptional children can be on either side of the spectrum. Some children may exhibit exceptional abilities, such as advanced intelligence, creativity, or talent in specific areas (positive exceptionality).
  • Conversely, others may face challenges that impede their learning and development, such as cognitive disabilities or behavioral issues (negative exceptionality).

(C) Require Special Provision in Education and Adjustment

  • Exceptional children often require specialized educational provisions to meet their unique needs.
  • This can include individualized education plans (IEPs), modified curricula, specialized teaching methods, and additional resources.

Additional Information

(D) Usually Get Social Acceptance

While some exceptional children may find social acceptance, many face challenges in this area. Differences in abilities can lead to social stigma, bullying, or isolation. As a result, exceptional children often struggle with social integration and may not receive the acceptance they deserve.

(E) Have High Self-Esteem and Confidence

Exceptional children do not universally have high self-esteem and confidence. In fact, many may experience low self-esteem due to their differences or struggles in social or academic settings. Factors such as negative experiences, comparison to peers, and external perceptions can significantly affect their self-esteem.

Question 14

Identify limitations of Mass Media :

(A) Very little scope for personal contact with audience

(B) Generalized recommendations hinder application of messages by individuals

(C) Difficulty in getting feedback from audience

(D) Reinforces previous learning of the audience

(E) Large number of people may communicate within a short period of time

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (D), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (A), (B) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (E), (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (E), (A) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(C), (A), (B) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (A), (B) Only.

Key Points

(C) Difficulty in Getting Feedback from Audience

  • One of the significant limitations of mass media is the challenge in obtaining real-time feedback from the audience.
  • Unlike personal communication, where immediate reactions can be shared, mass media typically operates on a one-way communication model.

(A) Very Little Scope for Personal Contact with Audience

  • Mass media channels—such as television, radio, and print—provide limited opportunities for personal interaction between the media creators and their audience. This lack of personal contact means that messages can often feel impersonal and may not resonate deeply with individuals.
  • Personalization is key to effective communication, and the absence of direct engagement can lead to a disconnect, making it harder for audiences to relate to or feel involved with the content being presented.

(B) Generalized Recommendations Hinder Application of Messages by Individuals

  • Mass media often delivers messages that are broad and generalized, aimed at a wide audience rather than tailored to specific individuals.
  • This can hinder the effectiveness of the information, as generalized recommendations may not be applicable to everyone’s unique circumstances or needs.

Additional Information

(A) Very Little Scope for Personal Contact with Audience

While it is true that mass media often lacks personal contact, this limitation is somewhat inherent to its nature as a broad communication medium. Mass media is designed to reach large audiences simultaneously, which can limit personal interactions. 

(D) Reinforces Previous Learning of the Audience

This statement can be seen as a neutral or even positive aspect rather than a limitation. Reinforcing previous learning can be beneficial, as it helps to solidify knowledge and concepts in the audience’s mind. While mass media may reiterate existing ideas or beliefs, this can serve to strengthen understanding or awareness rather than hinder it.

Question 15

The genetic endowment inherited from a person's biological parents at conception is :  

  1. AOption (a)

    Environment 

  2. BOption (b)

    Heredity 

  3. COption (c)

    Maturation 

  4. DOption (d)

    Conception 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Heredity 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Heredity.

Key Points

Heredity is the process by which genetic information is passed from parents to their offspring. It encompasses the transmission of traits, characteristics, and predispositions through genes, which are segments of DNA located on chromosomes.

Each person inherits half of their genetic material from their mother and half from their father, resulting in a unique combination of genes that influences various aspects of their development, such as physical traits (like eye color and height), behavior, and susceptibility to certain health conditions.

Additional Information

Maturation refers to the developmental processes that occur with age, not the genetic inheritance itself.

Conception is the fertilization event that begins development but doesn’t specifically define the genetic traits inherited from parents.

Environment encompasses external factors influencing development but is separate from the genetic material passed from biological parents.

In contrast, heredity specifically refers to the genetic traits inherited at conception.

Question 16

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Type of Barriers in Communication)List II (Example)
(A)Physical and Mechanical Barrier(I)Incorrect translation
(B)Language Barrier(III)Distance
(C)Socio-Psychological Barrier(III)Rules and Regulations
(D)Organisational Barrier(IV)Resistance to change

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).

Key Points

(A) Physical and Mechanical Barrier - Distance 

  • Physical barriers refer to tangible obstacles that hinder communication, such as distance.
  • For example, being far apart can make it difficult for people to communicate effectively, especially if they rely on face-to-face interaction or audio-visual aids.

(B) Language Barrier - Incorrect translation

  • Language barriers arise when individuals do not share a common language or when translations are inaccurate.
  • Incorrect translations can lead to misunderstandings, making it hard for people to convey their intended messages.

(C) Socio-Psychological Barrier -  Resistance to change

  • Socio-psychological barriers include emotional and social factors that affect communication, such as resistance to change.
  • Individuals may be hesitant to accept new ideas or methods due to fear, bias, or past experiences, which can impede effective communication.

(D) Organisational Barrier -  Rules and Regulations

  • Organisational barriers stem from the structures and policies within an organization.
  • Strict rules and regulations can restrict communication flow, making it difficult for information to be shared freely among members of the organization.

Question 17

The three sewing machine parts which together constitute the drop feed mechanism are :  

  1. AOption (a)

    needle, thread take-up lever, presser foot 

  2. BOption (b)

    presser foot, throat plate, feed dog 

  3. COption (c)

    Needle bar, spool, feed dog

  4. DOption (d)

    Bobbin, needle, throat plate  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

presser foot, throat plate, feed dog 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is presser foot, throat plate, feed dog.

Key Points

The three sewing machine parts that together constitute the drop feed mechanism are:

Presser Foot: This part holds the fabric in place while sewing, ensuring that the fabric moves smoothly under the needle.

Throat Plate: Also known as the needle plate, this component has openings for the needle and the feed dog, and it helps guide the fabric while providing a stable surface for sewing.

Feed Dog: These are small, serrated teeth located beneath the throat plate that move the fabric forward during sewing. The feed dog rises and lowers to grip the fabric and advance it.

Additional Information

Bobbin: Holds the lower thread that forms the stitch beneath the fabric. It is crucial for creating balanced stitches with the upper thread.

Needle: Pierces the fabric to create stitches. It has an eye for the thread to pass through and is responsible for looping the upper thread around the lower thread from the bobbin.

Thread Take-Up Lever: Moves up and down to control the tension and feed of the upper thread during sewing. It helps in forming consistent stitches by taking up slack in the thread.

Spool: Holds the upper thread, which is fed through the needle. The spool ensures a steady supply of thread as you sew, allowing for continuous stitching.

Question 18

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Novelty Yarn)List II (Structure)
(A)Flock Yarn(I)Short thick pile yarn with soft velvety appearance
(B)Chenille Yarn(III)Single yarn in which small tufts of fibers are inserted at regular intervals.
(C)Core-spun Yarn(III)Base is heavy and coarse yarn. The effect yarn is curled up around the base and is held by the binder yarn.
(D)Loop Yarn(IV)Base yarn is completely covered or wrapped by another yar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).

Key Points

  • Flock Yarn - Short thick pile yarn with soft velvety appearance: Flock yarn features short fibers that create a plush, velvety texture, ideal for soft fabrics.
  • Chenille Yarn - Base is heavy and coarse yarn. The effect yarn is curled up around the base and is held by the binder yarn: Chenille yarn has a unique structure where soft, fuzzy fibers are wrapped around a coarse core, giving it a luxurious feel.
  • Core-spun Yarn - Base yarn is completely covered or wrapped by another yarn: In core-spun yarn, a fine thread completely encases a thicker base yarn, enhancing durability while adding texture.
  • Loop Yarn - Single yarn in which small tufts of fibers are inserted at regular intervals: Loop yarn features loops along its length, creating a bumpy texture and adding visual interest to fabrics.

Question 19

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Type of Risk)List II (Uncertainty of Future Returns)
(A)Financial Risk(I)Investor Psychology
(B)Market Risk(III)Capital Market
(C)Purchasing Power Risk(III)Financial Capacity
(D)Political and Social Risk(IV)Price Level

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    A → III, B → II, C → IV, D → I

  2. BOption (b)

    A → III, B → I, C → IV, D → II

  3. COption (c)

    A → II, B → III, C → I, D → IV

  4. DOption (d)

    A → IV, B → I, C → III, D → II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A → III, B → I, C → IV, D → II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A → III, B → I, C → IV, D → II.

Key Points

  • A. Financial Risk → (III) Capital Market

Financial risk refers to the risk arising from the use of borrowed funds and financial structure of firms. It is closely linked with the capital market, where companies raise and manage funds.

  • B. Market Risk → (I) Investor Psychology

Market risk is caused by fluctuations in market prices of securities. These changes are heavily influenced by investor psychology, sentiment, and behaviour.

  • C. Purchasing Power Risk → (IV) Price Level

This risk arises due to changes in the general price level (inflation), which reduces the real value of money and returns.

  • D. Political and Social Risk → (II) Uncertainty of Future Conditions

Political instability, policy changes, and social unrest create uncertainty in future returns and affect investment safety.

Question 20

In resolving industrial disputes, collective bargaining has been viewed from three perspectives :

(A) As a change in contract language

(B) As a peace treaty between the conflicting parties

(C) As a system of industrial jurisprudence

(D) As a process of company policy

(E) Asa process of social change

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (E), (A) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (E), (B), (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (E), (A), (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(E), (B), (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (E), (B), (C) Only.

Key Points

Collective bargaining in resolving industrial disputes can be understood from three key perspectives:

E.As a Process of Social Change:

  • Collective bargaining is not just a negotiation tool; it plays a significant role in shaping workplace dynamics and labor relations.
  • It reflects broader societal changes, such as the evolving rights of workers and shifts in power dynamics between employers and employees.

B.As a Peace Treaty Between the Conflicting Parties:

  • Collective bargaining acts as a formal agreement that aims to resolve conflicts between employers and employees.
  • By establishing mutual understanding and cooperation, it seeks to minimize disputes and foster a harmonious work environment.

C.As a System of Industrial Jurisprudence:

  • Collective bargaining operates within a legal framework that governs labor relations.
  • This perspective highlights its role in establishing rights and obligations for both parties, creating legally binding agreements that define working conditions, wages, and other employment terms.

 

Additional Information

(A) As a Change in Contract Language

While collective bargaining may involve modifications to contract language, this perspective is too narrow. It focuses only on the wording of agreements rather than addressing the broader implications and functions of collective bargaining. 

(D) As a Process of Company Policy

This perspective implies that collective bargaining is merely an aspect of internal company policy. However, collective bargaining is fundamentally a negotiation process between employers and employees (or their representatives), which often involves external factors, such as labor laws and societal conditions.

Question 21

The fatty acids known to be essential for complete human nutrition are :

(A) Linoleic acid

(B) Alpha - linolenic

(C) Sterols

(D) Docosahexaenoic Acid

(E) Transfatty Acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (D) Only.

Key Points

The essential fatty acids important for complete human nutrition include:

A.Linoleic Acid:

  • This is an omega-6 fatty acid that the body cannot produce on its own, making it essential in the diet.
  • Linoleic acid plays a vital role in maintaining cell membrane integrity, promoting skin health, and supporting various metabolic processes.

B.Alpha-Linolenic Acid:

  • This is an omega-3 fatty acid also deemed essential because the body cannot synthesize it.
  • Alpha-linolenic acid is crucial for heart health, as it helps reduce inflammation and lower blood pressure. It also supports brain health and cognitive function.

D.Docosahexaenoic Acid (DHA):

Another omega-3 fatty acid, DHA is particularly important for brain development and function.

It is a major structural component of the brain and is vital for cognitive and visual development, especially in infants.

While the body can convert alpha-linolenic acid to DHA, this conversion is not very efficient, making direct sources of DHA (like fish oil) beneficial

Additional Information

Sterols, such as cholesterol, are important for various bodily functions but are not classified as essential fatty acids. They are synthesized by the body and can be consumed in the diet without being classified as "essential."

Trans Fatty Acids, often found in processed foods, are not only non-essential but also detrimental to health, as they can increase the risk of heart disease.

Together, linoleic acid, alpha-linolenic acid, and DHA are vital for maintaining health and supporting key bodily functions, highlighting the importance of including them in the diet.

Question 22

For maximum usefulness, market segments must exhibit the following characteristics :

(A) Measurability

(B) Substantiality

(C) Action ability

(D) Dependability

(E) Accessibility

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (D), (E), (A) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C), (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (E), (C), (B) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (C), (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C), (E) Only.

Key Points

The characteristics that market segments must exhibit for maximum usefulness are:

(A) Measurability: Segments should be quantifiable, allowing businesses to assess their size and potential purchasing power effectively.

(B) Substantiality: The segments need to be large enough to be profitable, ensuring that the effort and resources invested in targeting them are worthwhile.

(C) Actionability: It’s crucial that there are effective marketing strategies available to reach and serve the segment, allowing for practical implementation of marketing efforts.

(E) Accessibility: Segments must be reachable through marketing channels, enabling businesses to effectively communicate and engage with the target audience.

Question 23

According to Kohlberg which level of moral reasoning is based on the person’s own moral standards ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Conventional 

  2. BOption (b)

    Pre conventional 

  3. COption (c)

    Beginning 

  4. DOption (d)

    Post conventional  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Post conventional  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Post conventional.

Key Points

  • Post-Conventional Level:
  • Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights
  • Stage 6: Universal Principles
  • In this level, moral reasoning is guided by personal principles and values. Individuals at this stage consider the greater good, human rights, and justice, often questioning and redefining societal norms.

Additional Information

Levels of Moral Reasoning

  • 1. Pre-conventional Level:
  • Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation
  • Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange
  • Here, moral reasoning is based on external consequences. People make decisions to avoid punishment or to gain rewards.
  • 2.Conventional Level:
  • Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships
  • Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
  • At this level, individuals conform to societal norms and rules. They value relationships and the expectations of others, focusing on social approval and maintaining order.

Question 24

Arrange the correct sequence of stages of pre-natal development.

(A) Fetal stage

(B) Germinal stage

(C) Embryonic stage

(D) Conception stage

(E) Delivery stage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (C), (E), (A), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D), (B), (C), (A), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (E), (D), (B), (A), (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(D), (B), (C), (A), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (D), (B), (C), (A), (E).

Key Points

The correct sequence of pre-natal development:

D.Conception Stage:

  • This is the initial stage where fertilization occurs.
  • A sperm cell merges with an egg cell to form a zygote.

B.Germinal Stage:

  • This stage lasts about the first two weeks after conception.
  • The zygote undergoes rapid cell division as it travels down the fallopian tube toward the uterus, where it will implant into the uterine lining.

C.Embryonic Stage:

  • From weeks 3 to 8, the developing organism is called an embryo. During this time, major organs and systems begin to form, including the heart, brain, and spinal cord. This stage is critical for development.

A.Fetal Stage:

  • Starting from week 9 until birth, the developing organism is referred to as a fetus.
  • Growth and maturation of organs and systems continue, and the fetus becomes capable of more complex movements and responses.

E.Delivery Stage:

  • This final stage involves labor and the birth process, where the baby is delivered.

These stages represent the progression of pre-natal development from conception through to delivery.

Question 25

The period from conception to implantation of the embryo is called : 

  1. AOption (a)

    conception stage 

  2. BOption (b)

    Embryonic stage  

  3. COption (c)

    Fetal stage 

  4. DOption (d)

    Germinal stage 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Germinal stage 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Germinal stage.

Key Points

The germinal stage is the initial phase of pre-natal development, occurring from conception to implantation of the embryo, typically lasting about two weeks.

This stage begins when a sperm fertilizes an egg, creating a single cell called a zygote. As the zygote travels down the fallopian tube, it undergoes rapid cell division, transforming into a cluster of cells known as a blastocyst.

Around the end of the first week, the blastocyst reaches the uterus and prepares for implantation.

Additional Information

1.Conception stage 

Conception marks the beginning of pre-natal development and occurs when a sperm cell successfully fertilizes an egg cell. This process typically takes place in the fallopian tube. Once fertilization occurs, the single cell formed is called a zygote. 

2. Embryonic Stage

The embryonic stage begins once the zygote implants itself into the uterine lining, typically around the end of the second week after conception, and lasts until about the eighth week. During this critical period, the developing organism is referred to as an embryo.

3. Fetal Stage

The fetal stage starts at the ninth week of pregnancy and continues until birth, when the developing organism is referred to as a fetus. This stage is characterized by rapid growth and maturation of the body and its systems.

Question 26

Changes in performance of work in the interest of Work Simplification can be grouped into three classes. Select the changes from the least to the most important in sequence.

(A) Product

(B) Body positions and motions, and sequence of work

(C) Tools, equipments, and work arrangement

(D) Energy spent on activities

(E) Time spent on performing activities

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (E), (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (A) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (D), (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(B), (C), (A) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C), (A) Only.

Key Points

B: Body Positions and Motions, and Sequence of Work

This involves optimizing how workers position themselves and move during tasks to improve comfort and reduce strain. It’s important for ergonomics but is the least critical change.

C: Tools, Equipment, and Work Arrangement

This focuses on the selection and layout of tools and equipment, which enhances productivity by making tasks easier and reducing unnecessary movements. It’s more impactful than individual motions.

A: Product

This refers to simplifying the product itself through design changes or materials. It’s the most important change because it directly affects the efficiency and effectiveness of the entire work process.

Hence,the sequence from least to most important is: B, C, A.

Question 27

Arrange in sequence the five phases that constitute Strategic Human Resource Management process.

(A) HR strategy formulation

(B) Identify HR strategies

(C) Scan the Environment

(D) Monitor and Evaluate HR strategies

(E) Identify the sources of Competitive Advantage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (A), (D), (E), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (E), (B), (A), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (E), (C), (B), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(C), (E), (B), (A), (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (E), (B), (A), (D).

Key Points

The Strategic Human Resource Management (SHRM) process consists of five key phases, arranged as follows:

C: Scan the Environment - Analyze internal and external factors affecting the organization, such as market trends and workforce demographics.

E: Identify the Sources of Competitive Advantage - Recognize unique strengths and resources that can provide a competitive edge, like a skilled workforce or innovative practices.

B: Identify HR Strategies - Develop specific HR strategies that align with organizational goals and leverage identified competitive advantages.

A: HR Strategy Formulation - Formalize these strategies into actionable plans, detailing objectives, timelines, and resource allocations.

D: Monitor and Evaluate HR Strategies - Continuously assess the effectiveness of implemented HR strategies, making adjustments as needed to ensure they meet organizational goals.

The SHRM process involves scanning the environment, identifying competitive advantages, developing and formalizing HR strategies, and evaluating their effectiveness.

Question 28

Which type of packaging method is used for extending the life of food products by changing the atmosphere surrounding the food inside the package?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aseptic Packaging

  2. BOption (b)

    Shrink Wrap Packaging

  3. COption (c)

    Modified Atmospheric Packaging

  4. DOption (d)

    CPET Packaging

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Modified Atmospheric Packaging

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Modified Atmospheric Packaging

Key Points

  • Modified Atmospheric Packaging (MAP) is a food preservation technique designed to extend the shelf life of perishable products by altering the composition of the atmosphere surrounding the food inside the packaging.
  • This method typically involves replacing the air inside the package with a mixture of gases, often reducing oxygen levels and increasing levels of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

Additional Information

Shrink Wrap Packaging

This involves using a plastic film that shrinks tightly around a product when heated, providing protection, visibility, and tamper resistance. It’s commonly used for consumer goods and food products.

CPET Packaging

Crystalline Polyethylene Terephthalate (CPET) is a heat-resistant thermoplastic ideal for microwaveable meals and ready-to-eat products. It withstands high temperatures and is recyclable, promoting sustainability.

Aseptic Packaging

Aseptic packaging sterilizes both the food and the container separately before combining them in a sterile environment. This method preserves perishable products, such as juices and soups, for long shelf life without refrigeration, while maintaining quality and safety.

Question 29

In research, ______ means simply taking things for granted so that the situation is simplified for logical procedures.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hypothesis

  2. BOption (b)

    Assumptions 

  3. COption (c)

    Tenability

  4. DOption (d)

    Postulate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Assumptions 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Assumptions.

Key Points

  • In research, assumptions refer to the foundational beliefs or statements that are taken for granted in order to simplify the situation for logical procedures.
  • These assumptions provide a framework for analysis and help researchers focus on specific aspects of the study without getting bogged down by complexities or uncertainties.
  • By establishing clear assumptions, researchers can create a more structured approach to their inquiry and interpretation of data.

Additional Information

Hypothesis: This is a specific, testable prediction about the relationship between variables. It is formulated based on existing knowledge and is intended to be tested through research.

Postulations: These are statements or propositions that are assumed to be true for the sake of argument or investigation, often serving as a starting point for further reasoning or inquiry. They are similar to assumptions but can be broader in scope.

Tenable: This term refers to the viability or defensibility of a theory, hypothesis, or assumption. If something is considered tenable, it means that it can be supported or maintained based on evidence.

While assumptions simplify the research context, hypotheses are specific predictions to be tested, postulations serve as foundational claims, and tenability assesses the strength of these claims in light of evidence.

Question 30

The functions of a family therapist are:

(A) Acts as a collaborator for the whole family

(B) Expresses empathic comments

(C) Demonstrates a caring attitude

(D) Designs a rating scale

(E) Gives birth control advice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (D), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only.

Key Points

A: Acts as a Collaborator for the Whole Family

Family therapists work collaboratively with all family members, facilitating communication and understanding among them. They help families identify issues, explore dynamics, and develop strategies for resolving conflicts. 

B: Expresses Empathic Comments

Empathy is a crucial skill for family therapists. By expressing empathic comments, they validate the feelings and experiences of family members, helping them feel understood and supported. This empathetic engagement encourages openness and trust, which are essential for effective therapy. 

C: Demonstrates a Caring Attitude

A caring attitude is fundamental to the therapeutic relationship. Family therapists show genuine concern for the well-being of each family member and the family as a whole. This caring approach builds rapport and enhances the therapeutic alliance, making it easier for families to engage in the therapeutic process and work towards healing and growth.

Additional Information

D: Designs a Rating Scale

While some therapists may use assessment tools or scales to evaluate family dynamics or individual concerns, designing a rating scale is not a primary function of family therapy. Instead, family therapists focus on facilitating communication, understanding family dynamics, and helping families develop coping strategies.

E: Gives Birth Control Advice

Family therapists typically do not provide medical advice, including guidance on birth control. While they may discuss family planning issues as they relate to family dynamics and relationships, medical advice is outside their scope of practice. 

Options D and E are not correct because they fall outside the primary functions of family therapy, which emphasize collaboration, empathy, and support rather than creating assessment tools or providing medical advice.

Question 31

Walk-in bathtubs can be good options for those with : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Limited mobility 

  2. BOption (b)

    Individual user 

  3. COption (c)

    Average adult with good range of motion 

  4. DOption (d)

    Individual using a wheelchair 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Limited mobility 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Limited mobility.

Key Points

Walk-in bathtubs are designed specifically to enhance safety and accessibility for individuals with limited mobility. These tubs feature a door that allows users to enter without having to step over a high barrier, reducing the risk of falls. Here are some key benefits:

  • Easy Access: The low entry threshold and wide door make it easier for individuals with mobility challenges to get in and out of the tub safely.
  • Safety Features: Many walk-in bathtubs come equipped with grab bars, non-slip surfaces, and built-in seating, providing additional support and stability.
  • Comfort: Users can enjoy a relaxing bathing experience without the discomfort or danger of trying to navigate traditional bathtubs.
  • Independence: By providing a safer bathing option, walk-in bathtubs allow individuals with limited mobility to maintain greater independence in their personal care routines.

Question 32

Arrange the steps of effective listening.

(A) Don't ask questions to grab attention. Empathise with the speaker.

(B) Be open minded and create a mental picture of what the speaker is saying.

(C) Give genuine feedback, both verbal and non-verbal.

(D) Don't respond in haste, be patient, and wait for your turn.

(E) Establish eye contact and observe the body language of the speaker.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (E), (D), (A), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (E), (D), (C), (A), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)

  4. DOption (d)

    (E), (B), (D), (A), (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(E), (B), (D), (A), (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (E), (B), (D), (A), (C).

Key Points

Effective listening is a crucial skill that enhances communication and understanding. Here’s a broader explanation of its key steps:

E.Establish Eye Contact and Observe Body Language: Start by making eye contact with the speaker. This demonstrates attentiveness and respect. Additionally, observing their body language can provide context to their message, helping you understand emotions and non-verbal cues.

B.Be Open-Minded and Create a Mental Picture: Approach the conversation with an open mind, free from biases or preconceived notions. As the speaker talks, visualize their words to form a mental picture. This technique helps you grasp the message more fully and enhances retention.

D.Avoid Hasty Responses: Practice patience by refraining from interrupting the speaker. Allow them to finish their thoughts before responding. This not only shows respect but also gives you time to process the information more thoroughly.

A.Empathize with the Speaker: Instead of asking questions merely to redirect attention to yourself, focus on empathizing with the speaker. Try to understand their feelings and perspectives, which can foster a deeper connection and make them feel valued.

C.Provide Genuine Feedback: After the speaker has finished, offer constructive feedback through verbal affirmations or non-verbal cues like nodding. This signals that you are engaged and encourages the speaker to continue sharing their thoughts.

By following these steps, effective listening not only improves personal interactions but also enhances professional relationships and collaborative efforts, leading to more productive and meaningful communication.

Question 33

Among the following cryogenic liquids, which liquified gas has an extremely low boiling point ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Freon 

  2. BOption (b)

    Liquid Nitrogen 

  3. COption (c)

    Liquid Carbon Dioxide 

  4. DOption (d)

    Liquid Helium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Liquid Helium 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Liquid Helium .

Key Points

  • Lowest boiling point among all options: Liquid helium boils at about 4.2 K (−269°C).
  • Most extreme cryogenic liquid: It remains liquid at temperatures where almost all other gases have already solidified.
  • Comparison with others:
  • Liquid nitrogen: ~77 K (much higher than helium)
  • Liquid carbon dioxide: does not form a stable liquid at atmospheric pressure
  • Freon: relatively higher boiling point, not extremely cryogenic
  • Unique property: Helium stays liquid even near absolute zero under normal pressure conditions.
  • Uses: Essential for superconducting magnets, MRI machines, and low-temperature physics research.

👉 Therefore, liquid helium has the most extremely low boiling point among the given cryogenic liquids.

Additional Information

Freon: While some Freon compounds have low boiling points, they are generally higher than that of liquid nitrogen, which is around -196°C. Freon is often used as a refrigerant but does not reach the extreme low temperatures of liquid nitrogen.

Liquid CO₂: Liquid carbon dioxide has a boiling point of about -78.5°C at atmospheric pressure. This is significantly higher than liquid nitrogen, making it less suitable for cryogenic applications requiring very low temperatures.

Liquid nitrogen is a cryogenic liquid with an extremely low boiling point of approximately -196°C (-321°F).This makes it one of the coldest substances commonly used in various applications, including cryopreservation, refrigeration, and scientific research.Its low temperature allows it to rapidly freeze biological samples and preserve them without damaging cellular structures, making it invaluable in fields such as medicine and biology

Question 34

Arrange the steps of Extension Program Planning in sequence.

(A) Situation Analysis

(B) Need Assessment

(C) Determining Objectives

(D) Development of Plan of Work

(E) Evaluation of Progress

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (C), (A), (B), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (E), (C), (D), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C), (D), (E).

Key Points

Extension Program Planning involves a systematic approach to developing effective programs. Here’s a brief explanation of each step:

A.Situation Analysis: Assess the current context, resources, and challenges within the community or target area to understand the environment in which the program will operate.

B.Need Assessment: Identify the specific needs and priorities of the target audience through surveys, interviews, and focus groups to ensure that the program addresses relevant issues.

C.Determining Objectives: Set clear, measurable objectives based on the identified needs, defining what the program aims to achieve.

D.Development of Plan of Work: Create a detailed plan outlining the strategies, activities, and resources required to achieve the objectives, including timelines and responsibilities.

E.Evaluation of Progress: Implement a system for monitoring and evaluating the program's effectiveness, assessing whether objectives are being met and making adjustments as necessary.

Question 35

Due to the fibrous surface, threads made from spun yarn possess following properties:

(A) Highly elastic properties

(B) Good sewing performance

(C) Good dimensional stability

(D) Good stitch locking properties

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B) and (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (D) and (A) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(B), (C) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C) and (D) Only.

Key Points

Threads made from spun yarn possess several beneficial properties due to their fibrous surface:

Good Sewing Performance: The fibrous texture allows for smooth feeding through sewing machines and better compatibility with various fabrics, enhancing overall sewing efficiency.

Good Dimensional Stability: Spun yarn threads maintain their shape and size during use, which is essential for consistent stitching and preventing distortion in finished products.

Good Stitch Locking Properties: The fibrous nature helps threads grip each other effectively, resulting in secure and durable stitches that hold under tension, minimizing the risk of seams unraveling.

These properties make spun yarn threads ideal for a wide range of sewing applications.

Question 36

Arrange the stages of group development in sequence:

(A) Performing

(B) Norming

(C) Forming

(D) Adjourning

(E) Storming

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (E), (A), (B), (D), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (E), (B), (A), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (E), (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C), (E), (B), (A), (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (E), (B), (A), (D).

Key Points

The correct sequence of the stages of group development is:

C: Forming - The group comes together and starts to understand its purpose and members.

E: Storming - Conflicts and challenges arise as members assert their opinions and roles.

B: Norming - The group begins to establish norms and cohesive relationships, fostering collaboration.

A: Performing - The group functions effectively towards achieving its goals with high productivity.

D: Adjourning - The group disbands after achieving its objectives, reflecting on accomplishments and experiences.

This sequence illustrates the typical progression of a group's development from formation to completion.

Question 37

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Types of Radio Program)List II (Salient Feature)
(A)Newsreel(I)Talk among people and about people involved in news or events
(B)Interview(III)Radio plays of short duration or in series
(C)Documentary(III)Eye witness accounts, extracts of speeches, talks, and interviews
(D)Radio Drama(IV)A short story of a person, group, organisation or situation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

Key Points

 

Newsreel :

  • Newsreels provide eyewitness accounts and extracts from speeches, talks, and interviews related to current events.
  • They serve as a quick update on newsworthy happenings, often featuring real-time reporting and firsthand perspectives.

Interview:

  • Interviews involve discussions among individuals about news or events.
  • They typically feature conversations with people who are directly involved in or affected by the subject matter, offering insights and personal experiences.

Documentary:

  • Documentaries tell a short story about a person, group, organization, or situation.
  • They often combine narrative storytelling with factual information, providing a deeper understanding of the subject through interviews, research, and various forms of media.

Radio Drama:

  • Radio dramas are scripted audio plays that can be of short duration or presented in a series.
  • They utilize sound effects, voice acting, and music to create a narrative experience for listeners, engaging them through storytelling without visual elements.

 

These categories highlight the diversity of radio programming, each serving unique purposes and appealing to different audiences through distinct formats and storytelling techniques.

Question 38

Arrange the following steps in order which provide a useful procedural guideline regarding research:

(A) Extensive literature survey

(B) Formulating the research problem

(C) Analysis of data

(D) Collecting data

(E) Interpretation and report writing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (D), (C), (A), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (E), (C), (A), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (A), (D), (C), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (A), (D), (C), (E).

Key Points

The steps in the research process provide a systematic approach to conducting effective studies. Here’s a brief explanation of each step in the correct sequence:

B.Formulating the Research Problem: This initial step involves clearly defining the problem or question that the research will address. A well-defined research problem guides the direction of the study and helps to focus the research objectives.

A.Extensive Literature Survey: After identifying the research problem, conducting a thorough literature review is essential. This involves reviewing existing research and theories related to the topic, which helps to contextualize the study, identify gaps in knowledge, and refine the research question.

D.Collecting Data: Once the problem is formulated and the literature is reviewed, the next step is to gather data. This can involve various methods such as surveys, experiments, interviews, or observations, depending on the nature of the research.

C.Analysis of Data: After data collection, the next step is to analyze the gathered information. This may involve statistical analysis, coding qualitative data, or other techniques to interpret the data and draw meaningful conclusions.

E.Interpretation and Report Writing: Finally, the findings are interpreted, and a report is written to communicate the results. This report includes the research methodology, findings, discussions, and conclusions, making the research accessible to others.

Question 39

Which of the following are primary properties of textile fibers?

(A) Tenacity

(B) Cohesiveness

(C) Luster

(D) Uniformity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (B) and (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(B) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(B) and (D) Only'

Key Points

  • Primary properties of textile fibers:
  • Cohesiveness (B): This property refers to the ability of fibers to cling together, which is essential for the spinning process to produce yarn.
  • Uniformity (D): Uniformity in fiber properties ensures consistency in the quality and performance of the textile product.

Additional Information

  • Tenacity (A):
  • Tenacity refers to the strength of a fiber, which is important but not necessarily a primary property for all textile fibers.
  • Luster (C):
  • Luster is the sheen or gloss of a fiber, which affects the appearance but is not a primary property for all textile fibers.
  • Other Considerations:
  • While tenacity and luster are important in certain applications, they do not universally apply as primary properties to all textile fibers.

Question 40

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Name of the theorist)List II (Name of the theory)
(A)Urie Bronfenbrenner(I)Psychosocial Theory
(B)Jean Piajet(III)Sociocultural Theory
(C)Erick Erickson(III)Bioecological Theory
(D)Levs Vygotsky(IV)Cognitive Development Theory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Key Points

1.Urie Bronfenbrenner - Bioecological Theory:

  • Bronfenbrenner proposed the Bioecological Model, which emphasizes the multiple layers of environmental influence on human development.
  • He argued that development is affected by various systems, such as family, community, and society, and how these systems interact over time.

2.Jean Piaget - Cognitive Development Theory:

  • Piaget is best known for his theory of cognitive development, which outlines how children progress through stages of thinking as they grow.
  • He identified four stages—sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational—each characterized by different ways of understanding the world.

3.Erik Erikson - Psychosocial Theory:

  • Erikson developed the Psychosocial Theory of development, which posits that individuals go through eight stages of psychosocial development from infancy to adulthood.
  • Each stage presents a conflict that must be resolved for healthy psychological development.

4.Lev Vygotsky - Sociocultural Theory:

  • Vygotsky emphasized the importance of social interactions and culture in cognitive development.
  • His Sociocultural Theory suggests that learning is fundamentally a social process and that our cognitive abilities are shaped by cultural tools and the guidance of more knowledgeable others.

Question 41

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Type of research)List II (Meaning)
(A)Action Research(I)Research is designed to provide data to support a theory through its application
(B)Applied Research(III)Research is designed to solve problems through the application of scientific method
(C)Experimental Research(III)Research is designed to study, understand and explain events that occurred in past
(D)Historical Research(IV)Research is designed with independent and dependent variables to study cause and effect

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).

Key Points

1.Action Research:

  • This type of research is aimed at solving specific, practical problems within a particular context, often involving a cycle of planning, acting, observing, and reflecting.
  • It's commonly used in educational settings to improve teaching practices or address issues within a community.

2.Applied Research:

  • Applied research seeks to generate knowledge that can be directly applied to real-world situations.
  • It is designed to provide data and insights that support or challenge existing theories, often focusing on practical outcomes and solutions in fields like healthcare, education, and business.

3.Experimental Research:

  • This method involves manipulating one or more independent variables to observe their effect on dependent variables.
  • It is designed to establish cause-and-effect relationships and is commonly used in scientific and psychological studies, allowing researchers to control conditions and draw clear conclusions.

4.Historical Research:

  • This research type focuses on examining past events to gain insights into their causes and impacts.
  • It employs various methods, including the analysis of documents, artifacts, and other historical data, to construct an understanding of how past events shape present circumstances.

Question 42

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (FIBER)List II [(MICROSCOPIC CHARACTERISTICS)(Longitudinal view)]
(A)Cotton(I)Presence of cross markings and nodes
(B)Viscose(III)Flattened, collapsed, spirally twisted tube with a rough surface and convolutions
(C)Wool(III)Uniform diameter with striations running parallel to fiber axis
(D)Flax(IV)lregular and roughly cylindrical prominent scale margins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).

Key Points

1.Cotton -

  • Presence of cross markings and nodes: Cotton fibers are recognized for their unique structure, featuring cross markings and nodes when viewed microscopically.
  • These characteristics help in identifying cotton and assessing its quality.

2.Viscose -

  • Flattened, collapsed, spirally twisted tube with a rough surface and convolutions: Viscose fibers have a distinctive flattened shape, often appearing as collapsed tubes with a rough texture and spiral twists. This structure enhances their softness and makes them suitable for a variety of textile applications.

3.Wool -

  • Irregular and roughly cylindrical prominent scale margins: Wool fibers are characterized by their irregular shape and prominent scale margins, which contribute to their unique texture.
  • These scales help wool trap air, providing excellent insulation.

4.Flax -

  • Uniform diameter with striations running parallel to fiber axis : Flax fibers are known for their consistent diameter and parallel striations along their length. This uniformity contributes to the strength and durability of linen fabric, which is made from flax.
  • These microscopic characteristics are crucial for identifying different fibers and understanding their properties, which in turn influence their use in textiles.

Question 43

The management function of Management by Objectives under Policy and Planning Techniques used in Management of Public Organizations is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Policy making 

  2. BOption (b)

    Planning and decision making  

  3. COption (c)

    Planning and controlling 

  4. DOption (d)

    Planning, decision making and controlling 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Planning and controlling 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Planning and controlling.

Key Points

Management by Objectives (MBO) is a crucial management function in public organizations, particularly in the realms of planning and controlling.

1.Planning:

  • MBO enhances the planning process by establishing clear, specific, and measurable goals.
  • This structured approach allows public organizations to align their strategic objectives with the overall mission, ensuring that all levels of the organization understand what they are working towards.
  • By involving employees in the goal-setting process, MBO fosters ownership and commitment, making it easier to develop actionable plans that guide daily operations.

2.Controlling:

  • Once objectives are set, MBO provides a framework for monitoring progress and evaluating performance.
  • It establishes clear benchmarks against which results can be measured. Regular reviews of these objectives help identify any discrepancies between planned outcomes and actual performance.
  • This allows managers to make informed decisions and adjustments to strategies or resources, ensuring that the organization stays on track to meet its goals.

Question 44

Identify the leadership styles from the following:

(A) Laissez-fair

(B) Autocratic

(C) Interactive

(D) Democratic

(E) Bureaucratic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B), (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (D) Only.

Key Points

1. Laissez-faire Leadership 

  • Laissez-faire leadership is characterized by a hands-off approach where leaders provide minimal guidance and allow team members to make their own decisions.
  • This style is most effective when team members are highly skilled, experienced, and self-motivated. Leaders adopting this style trust their employees to take initiative and work independently.

2. Autocratic Leadership

  • Autocratic leadership is a directive style where the leader makes decisions unilaterally and expects team members to comply without input or feedback.
  • This approach can be effective in situations where quick decision-making is crucial, such as during crises or in highly structured environments.

3. Democratic Leadership 

  • Democratic leadership, also known as participative leadership, encourages team involvement in the decision-making process. Leaders who adopt this style value the input and opinions of their team members, fostering an environment of collaboration and open communication.
  • This approach can lead to higher levels of employee satisfaction and motivation, as team members feel their contributions are recognized and appreciated

Question 45

Identify the PLA Methods:

(A) Resource Map

(B) Bar Graph

(C) Transact Walk

(D) Folk songs

(E) Key Informant Interviews

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (C), (D), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D), (A), (B) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (E), (A), (B) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (C), (D), (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (C), (D), (E) Only.

Key Points

1.Resource Map:

  • A visual tool used to identify and display local resources and assets in a community.
  • It helps participants understand their environment and recognize available resources.

2.Transact Walk:

  • A participatory method where stakeholders walk through a community or area to observe and discuss various features and issues.
  • This method promotes interaction and allows for real-time feedback from participants.

3.Folk Songs:

  • Using cultural expressions like folk songs as a method to gather information about community values, traditions, and issues.
  • It encourages participation and engagement in a culturally relevant way.

4.Key Informant Interviews:

  • Conducting structured or semi-structured interviews with individuals who have specific knowledge about the community or topic of interest.
  • This method provides valuable insights and qualitative data.

These methods are integral to participatory approaches, enabling community engagement and fostering inclusive dialogue.

Question 46

The three enzymes produced by the pancreas which continue breaking down proteins into simpler substances.

(A) Amylase

(B) Trypsin

(C) Hydrochloric Acid

(D) Chymotrypsin

(E) Carboxypeptidases

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (D), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(B), (D), (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (D), (E) Only.

Key Point

1. Trypsin 

  • Trypsin is a key enzyme produced by the pancreas and released into the small intestine.
  • It is responsible for cleaving peptide bonds, specifically at the carboxyl side of lysine and arginine amino acids. This action breaks down larger protein molecules into smaller peptides.

2. Chymotrypsin

  • Chymotrypsin works alongside trypsin in the small intestine to further digest proteins.
  • It targets peptide bonds adjacent to aromatic amino acids like phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine. Like trypsin, chymotrypsin is secreted as an inactive precursor (chymotrypsinogen) and is activated by trypsin.

3. Carboxypeptidases 

  • Carboxypeptidases are enzymes that hydrolyze peptide bonds at the carboxyl end of peptides.
  • They play a crucial role in the final stages of protein digestion by breaking down small peptides into individual amino acids or dipeptides.

Question 47

Arrange the absorption and metabolism of iodine in correct sequence.

(A) Iodide

(B) Tri-iodothyronine (T3)

(C) Dietary Iodide

(D) Iodine

(E) Thyroxine (T4)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (A), (D), (E), (B) 

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D), (A), (B), (E) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (B), (D), (E), (A)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(C), (A), (D), (E), (B) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (A), (D), (E), (B).

Key Points

1. Dietary Iodide 

  • Iodine is primarily consumed in the diet as iodide, a negatively charged ion.
  • Common dietary sources include iodized salt, seafood, dairy products, and some grains.
  • Adequate iodine intake is essential for thyroid hormone production and overall health.

2. Iodide 

  • Once dietary iodide is ingested, it is absorbed in the intestines and enters the bloodstream.
  • The body regulates iodide levels, ensuring that there is enough available for the thyroid gland to use in hormone synthesis.

3. Iodine 

  • After absorption, iodide is transported to the thyroid gland, where it undergoes oxidation to form iodine.
  • This conversion is necessary for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. The thyroid gland has a high capacity to concentrate iodide from the blood, making it crucial for hormone production.

4. Thyroxine (T4)

  • In the thyroid gland, iodine combines with the amino acid tyrosine to produce thyroxine (T4).
  • T4 is the main hormone secreted by the thyroid and is relatively inactive but is essential for regulating metabolism. About 90% of the hormone produced by the thyroid is T4.

5. Tri-iodothyronine (T3) 

  • While T4 is the predominant hormone released into the bloodstream, it is converted into triiodothyronine (T3) in peripheral tissues (like the liver and kidneys) through the removal of one iodine atom.
  • T3 is the more active form of the hormone and plays a critical role in regulating various metabolic processes, including energy production, temperature regulation, and growth.

Question 48

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Kitchen zones)List II (Items stored)
(A)Consumable Zone(I)Knife, cutting board and gadgets
(B)Cleaning Zone(III)Pots, lids and other utensils
(C)Preparation Zone(III)Sink, dishwasher and supplies
(D)Cooking Zone(IV)Spices, sugar, tea, coffee and oil

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Key Points

1. Consumable Zone 

  • This zone is dedicated to storing food items that are meant to be consumed.
  • It includes staples and condiments such as spices, sugar, tea, coffee, and oil. These items are often used in cooking and meal preparation and should be easily accessible for daily use.

2. Cleaning Zone 

  • The cleaning zone is focused on maintaining hygiene in the kitchen. It typically includes the sink, dishwasher, and cleaning supplies like sponges, detergents, and sanitizers.
  • This area is crucial for washing dishes, utensils, and food items, ensuring a clean and safe cooking environment.
  • This zone is set up for the actual preparation of meals. It usually contains items such as knives, cutting boards, and various gadgets (like peelers and graters).

4. Cooking Zone 

  • The cooking zone is where the actual cooking takes place. It typically includes pots, lids, and other cooking utensils (such as spatulas and ladles).
  • This area is equipped for stovetop cooking or baking, ensuring that all necessary tools are at hand for preparing dishes.

Question 49

The single cell which divides again and again and is the beginning of life is :  

  1. AOption (a)

    DNA 

  2. BOption (b)

    Autosome 

  3. COption (c)

    Zygote 

  4. DOption (d)

    Chromosome 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Zygote 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zygote.

Key Points

  • A zygote is formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell, resulting in a single diploid cell.
  • This zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division (mitosis) to develop into an embryo.
  • The process marks the initial stage of development in multicellular organisms, ultimately leading to the formation of a new individual.
  • The zygote contains all the genetic information necessary for the development of the organism, making it a crucial starting point for life.

Additional Information

While DNA, autosomes, and chromosomes are fundamental to understanding genetics and heredity, they do not represent the process or entity of the zygote itself. The zygote is a unique, single cell formed after fertilization that serves as the starting point for the development of a new organism. In contrast, DNA, autosomes, and chromosomes describe the genetic material and structures within that zygote.

Question 50

Which one is the property of Hemicellulose ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    indigestible and insoluble in water 

  2. BOption (b)

    indigestible but soluble in water 

  3. COption (c)

    on hydrolysis yields galacturonic acid and small amounts of galactose and arabinose

  4. DOption (d)

    Highly fermented by colonic bacteria 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

indigestible and insoluble in water 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​indigestible and insoluble in water .

Key Points

  • Hemicellulose is a complex carbohydrate found in plant cell walls, providing structural support.
  • Unlike cellulose, hemicellulose has a branched structure and is composed of various sugars. It is generally resistant to digestion by human enzymes, making it indigestible.
  • Additionally, hemicellulose does not dissolve in water, contributing to its role in maintaining the integrity and stability of plant cell walls.

Question 51

Dimensions of well-being during middle adulthood are:

(A) Self-acceptance

(B) Autonomy

(C) Grief and resentment

(D) Midlife crises

(E) Personal growth

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D), (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B), (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (E) Only.

Key Points

A.Self-acceptance: This dimension involves a positive evaluation of oneself, acknowledging strengths and weaknesses, which contributes to overall well-being.

B.Autonomy: Autonomy refers to the ability to make independent decisions and manage one’s life, which is crucial for maintaining a sense of control and personal agency in middle adulthood.

E.Personal growth: Personal growth signifies the ongoing development and realization of one’s potential, embracing new experiences, and seeking self-improvement, which is vital for well-being during this life stage.

Additional Information

C) Grief and resentment

 While these feelings can arise during middle adulthood—often related to loss or unmet expectations—they are not dimensions of well-being. Instead, they are negative emotions that can detract from one’s overall sense of health and fulfillment.

D) Midlife crises

 A midlife crisis is often characterized by anxiety, dissatisfaction, or turmoil as individuals reevaluate their lives. Like grief and resentment, it represents a potential challenge rather than a positive aspect of well-being.

Question 52

Utensil to keep food hot without actually boiling by standing the dish containing the food in a large pan filled with water which is kept just below boiling point is called : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Casserole 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hot case 

  3. COption (c)

    Steamer 

  4. DOption (d)

    Bain - Marie  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bain - Marie  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Bain-Marie.

A Bain-Marie, also known as a water bath or double boiler, is a utensil or setup used in cooking to gently heat food by placing the container with food inside another larger container filled with hot water. The water is maintained just below boiling point, ensuring that the food is kept hot without direct exposure to flame or overheating. This method helps in preventing scorching or overcooking.

Key Points

  • Definition:
  • Bain-Marie is a utensil setup where food is placed in one container and that container is immersed in a larger vessel filled with hot water maintained below boiling point.
  • Purpose:
  • It keeps food warm without bringing it to a boil.
  • Prevents burning, curdling, or uneven heating of delicate dishes.
  • Applications in Cooking:
  • Used in melting chocolate, preparing custards, sauces, or delicate dishes that require gentle and uniform heating.
  • Also commonly used in buffets or catering to keep prepared food hot for serving.
  • Working Principle:
  • The water absorbs and distributes heat evenly, preventing direct high heat on the food container.
  • This indirect heating method maintains temperature control and protects the food’s texture and taste.

Additional Information

  • Casserole: A deep dish used for cooking and serving, not for water-bath heating.
  • Hot Case: An insulated container used to keep food warm but without water heating.
  • Steamer: Used for cooking food by steam, not for keeping food hot indirectly.
  • Bain-Marie: Specifically designed to keep food warm by indirect heating using hot water, preventing overheating and maintaining food quality.

Question 53

Mention the common changes in motor abilities experienced by elderly.

(A) Reduced income and entertainment

(B) Decline in mascular strength

(C) Decrease in speed in skilled movements

(D) Reduced reasoning and memory skills

(E) Delay in learning of new skills

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (C), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(B), (C), (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C), (E) Only.

Key Points

(B) Decline in Muscular Strength

  • As people age, there is a natural decrease in muscle mass and strength, a condition known as sarcopenia.
  • This decline can affect overall physical capabilities, making everyday activities like lifting, climbing stairs, or carrying objects more challenging.

(C) Decrease in Speed in Skilled Movements

  • Aging often leads to slower reaction times and reduced speed in executing skilled movements.
  • This can affect coordination and balance, making tasks that require quick responses, like sports or driving, more difficult.

(E) Delay in Learning of New Skills

  • Older adults may experience difficulties in acquiring new skills, partly due to changes in cognitive functions and neural processing speed.
  • This can make it harder to adapt to new technologies, learn new sports, or master new physical activities.

Question 54

Which one of the following is not a technique for noise reduction at source ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Use of quiet machines 

  2. BOption (b)

    Enclose noisy machines 

  3. COption (c)

    Using ear-plugs or muffs 

  4. DOption (d)

    Regular maintenance of machines 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Using ear-plugs or muffs 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Using ear-plugs or muffs.

Key Points

Noise Reduction at Source: This refers to methods that aim to minimize noise at its origin. Techniques include designing quieter machinery, using sound-absorbing materials, or implementing engineering controls.

Ear-plugs or Muffs: These are forms of personal protective equipment (PPE) that reduce the amount of noise reaching the ears of individuals, but they do not address the noise being generated at the source. Instead, they protect the user from the noise after it has been produced.

Additional Information

 Following options is considered a technique for noise reduction at the source, meaning they directly address the noise being generated:

1. Use of Quiet Machines

Selecting or designing machines that operate more quietly reduces noise at its origin. For example, using electric engines instead of combustion engines can significantly lower noise levels. This approach targets the source of the noise directly.

2. Regular Maintenance of Machines

 Keeping machines well-maintained can prevent noise from increasing due to wear and tear. Proper lubrication, tightening loose components, and replacing worn parts help minimize noise produced during operation, effectively addressing the source.

3. Enclose Noisy Machines

 Creating enclosures or barriers around noisy machines can contain and reduce the noise emitted into the environment. This method directly targets the source by limiting how much sound escapes, making it a valid noise reduction strategy.

Question 55

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Type of Play)List II (Meaning)
(A)Functional play(I)Play involving use of materials or objects to draw or make something
(B)Symbolic play(II)Play involving repetitive motor activity
(C)Constructive play(III)Play involving social interactions, physical activity and rules
(D)Formal games(IV)Play involving creating settings, characteristics and scripts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).

Key Points

(A) Functional Play →

  • Play involving repetitive motor activity
  • Functional play, also known as practice play, involves simple, repetitive activities that help children refine their motor skills. Examples include running, jumping, or stacking blocks. This type of play is crucial for developing coordination and physical abilities.

(B) Symbolic Play →

  • Play involving creating settings, characteristics, and scripts
  • Symbolic play, often referred to as imaginative or pretend play, allows children to use their imagination to create scenarios and roles.
  • They might pretend to be doctors, superheroes, or animals, inventing settings and characters. This type of play fosters creativity and social skills.

(C) Constructive Play → 

  • Play involving use of materials or objects to draw or make something
  • Constructive play involves using materials (like blocks, clay, or art supplies) to build or create something.
  • It encourages problem-solving and creativity as children learn how to manipulate objects and understand spatial relationships.

(D) Formal Games →  

  • Play involving social interactions, physical activity, and rules
  • Formal games include structured activities with established rules, such as board games, sports, or card games.
  • These games promote social interaction, teamwork, and the understanding of rules and competition

Question 56

Arrange the stages of language development during infancy.

(A) Intonation

(B) Crying

(C) Babbling

(D) Echolalia

(E) Cooing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D), (E), (A), (C), (B) 

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (E), (C), (D), (A) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (D), (A), (B), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (E), (C), (D), (A) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (E), (C), (D), (A).

Key Points

(B) Crying

  • Crying is the first form of communication for infants.
  • It starts at birth and serves as a way for babies to express their needs, such as hunger, discomfort, or the need for attention. Different types of cries can convey different messages, helping caregivers respond appropriately.

(E) Cooing

  • Around 2 to 3 months, infants begin to produce cooing sounds, which are soft vowel sounds like "oo" and "aa."
  • This stage is important for vocal experimentation and helps infants practice controlling their vocal cords, laying the groundwork for later speech.

(C) Babbling

  • Starting around 4 to 6 months, babbling involves the repetition of consonant-vowel combinations (e.g., "ba-ba," "da-da").
  • This stage marks a significant advancement in vocal development as infants begin to explore different sounds and experiment with speech patterns, even though they may not yet have meaning.

(D) Echolalia

  • Typically occurring between 8 to 12 months, echolalia is the stage where infants imitate sounds, words, or phrases they hear from caregivers or their environment.
  • This imitation helps them learn the rhythm and intonation of speech, even if they don’t fully understand the meaning yet.

(A) Intonation

  • As infants approach their first birthday, they begin to use intonation, which involves varying pitch and tone in their vocalizations.
  • This stage is crucial for conveying emotions and intentions, helping infants communicate more effectively as they start to form real words.

Question 57

According to the nature of personnel involved which one of the following is not a type of channel in communication ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Personal localite 

  2. BOption (b)

    Impersonal localite 

  3. COption (c)

    Personal cosmopolite  

  4. DOption (d)

    Impersonal cosmopolite  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Impersonal localite 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Impersonal localite.

Key Points

In communication theory, channels are typically categorized based on the nature of personnel involved, such as:

  1. Interpersonal Communication: Direct, face-to-face interactions between individuals.
  2. Group Communication: Involves communication among a small group of people, fostering discussion and collaboration.
  3. Mass Communication: Aimed at a large audience, often using media like television, radio, or print.

Impersonal localite does not fit within these recognized categories. "Impersonal" suggests a lack of personal interaction, while "localite" is not a standard term in communication studies. Therefore, it does not represent a defined channel of communication.

Question 58

Arrange the steps in the manufacture of Cellulose Xanthate solution.

(A) Ripening of viscose and filtration for the removal of foreign particles

(B) Deaeration

(C) Reaction with carbon disulphide for conversion to alkali-soluble cellulose xanthate and dissolution in dilute alkali

(D) Reaction with strong alkali, known as steeping and shredding into small crumbs or lumps

(E) Ageing of alkali cellulose for lowering the degree of polymerisation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (E), (C), (A), (B) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D), (E), (B), (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (D), (E), (A)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(D), (E), (C), (A), (B) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (D), (E), (C), (A), (B).

Key Points

(D) Reaction with Strong Alkali

  • In this initial step, cellulose (typically derived from wood pulp) is treated with a strong alkali, usually sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
  • This process is known as steeping. The strong alkali breaks down the cellulose structure, allowing it to be transformed into alkali cellulose.

(E) Ageing of Alkali Cellulose

  • After steeping, the alkali cellulose undergoes an aging process. This involves allowing it to sit for a specified period, which helps lower the degree of polymerization.
  • Reducing the polymerization degree is crucial because it increases the reactivity of the cellulose, making it more amenable to the next steps in the process.

(C) Reaction with Carbon Disulphide

  • Once the cellulose is aged, it is reacted with carbon disulfide (CS₂). This reaction converts the alkali cellulose into cellulose xanthate, which is soluble in dilute alkali.
  • The cellulose xanthate formed is essential for the production of viscose, which can be further processed into regenerated cellulose fibers.

(A) Ripening of Viscose and Filtration

  • After the formation of cellulose xanthate, the resulting viscose solution undergoes a ripening process. This step allows for further reactions and stabilization of the viscose.
  • Following ripening, the solution is filtered to remove any foreign particles or impurities that may have been introduced during the manufacturing process, ensuring a high-quality final product.

(B) Deaeration

  • The final step is deaeration, which involves removing trapped air bubbles from the viscose solution.
  • This is important for ensuring that the solution is uniform and free of defects when it is later spun into fibers.

Question 59

Identify the advantages of individual contact method:

(A) Helps in teaching complex practices to the community

(B) Helps in building rapport with the community

(C) Helps in gaining first-hand knowledge from the community

(D) Help in selection of state and national level leaders

(E) Helps in maintaining social norms and rituals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B), (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only.

Key Points

(A) Helps in teaching complex practices to the community: Individual contact allows for tailored instruction, making it easier to teach complex skills and practices.

(B) Helps in building rapport with the community: Direct interaction fosters trust and relationship-building, enhancing community engagement.

(C) Helps in gaining first-hand knowledge from the community: This method enables the collection of valuable insights and experiences directly from community members, facilitating better understanding and responsiveness to their needs.

Additional Information

 Options D and E are not considered advantages of the individual contact method:

(D) Help in selection of state and national level leaders:

 The individual contact method primarily focuses on building relationships and understanding community needs at a local level. While it can contribute to community leadership development, it does not specifically aid in the selection of leaders at higher state or national levels, which typically involves broader political processes and organizational frameworks.

(E) Helps in maintaining social norms and rituals:

 While individual contact can facilitate discussions about social norms and rituals, it is not inherently aimed at maintaining them. Social norms and rituals are usually upheld through community consensus and shared practices rather than through individual interactions. Maintaining such norms often requires collective participation and cultural reinforcement, which goes beyond the scope of one-on-one contact.

Question 60

The natural colourants used in food are:

(A) Annatto

(B) Carmosine

(C) Indigo carmine

(D) Betalaines

(E) Anthocyanins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D), (E) Only 

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (D), (E) Only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (D), (E) Only.

Key Points

(A) Annatto: A natural colorant derived from the seeds of the achiote tree, commonly used to add a yellow to orange hue to foods.

(D) Betalaines: Natural pigments found in beets and other plants, providing red and yellow colors, often used in food products.

(E) Anthocyanins: Water-soluble pigments that give red, purple, and blue colors to many fruits and vegetables, used as natural colorants in various food items.

Additional Information

(B) Carmosine

Carmosine, also known as E120, is a red dye derived from cochineal insects. While it is technically derived from a natural source, it is classified as an animal-derived colorant rather than a plant-based natural colorant. 

(C) Indigo Carmine

 Indigo carmine, also known as E132, is a synthetic dye that mimics the color of indigo. Although it can be derived from natural sources, it is primarily produced synthetically for commercial use. As a result, it does not fit the criteria of being a natural colorant in the same way that plant-derived colorants do.

Question 61

Fabrics prepared by two layers of fabrics combined onto one fabric with foam. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bonded fabric 

  2. BOption (b)

    Laminated fabric 

  3. COption (c)

    Coated fabric 

  4. DOption (d)

    Poromeric fabric 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Laminated fabric 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Laminated fabric 

Key Points

  • Laminated fabric is created by bonding two layers of fabric together with a foam layer in between.
  • This process results in a material that is often water-resistant, durable, and suitable for various applications, including outdoor gear, upholstery, and fashion.
  • The combination of the fabrics and foam provides added insulation and structure, making it a versatile choice for both functional and aesthetic purposes.

Additional Information

1.Bonded Fabric

Bonded fabric consists of two or more layers of fabric that are adhered together using heat, adhesive, or other methods. This creates a single, unified material that can enhance durability and performance. 

2.Coated Fabric

Coated fabric has a protective layer applied to its surface, typically made from materials like polyurethane or PVC. This coating provides water resistance, durability, and ease of cleaning. Coated fabrics are commonly used in rainwear, outdoor equipment, and industrial applications.

3.Poromeric Fabric

Poromeric fabric is a type of synthetic material that is breathable, waterproof, and typically made using a microporous membrane. This allows moisture vapor to escape while preventing water from penetrating, making it ideal for activewear and outdoor gear. Common examples include Gore-Tex and other similar fabrics.

Question 62

Which of the following is not the “probability method” of sampling ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Systematic sampling 

  2. BOption (b)

    Stratified sampling 

  3. COption (c)

    Cluster sampling 

  4. DOption (d)

    Quota sampling  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quota sampling  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Quota sampling.

Key Points

  • Quota sampling is not a probability method of sampling. In quota sampling, the researcher selects a specific number of participants from various subgroups based on certain characteristics, but this selection is not random.
  • Instead, it relies on the researcher’s judgment, making it a non-probability sampling technique. In contrast, probability sampling methods involve random selection, ensuring that every individual has a known chance of being included in the sample.

Additional Information

Systematic Sampling

In systematic sampling, researchers select every nth individual from a list or population. For example, if you have a list of 100 people and want a sample of 10, you would select every 10th person. This method is simple and ensures a spread across the population.

Stratified Sampling

Stratified sampling involves dividing the population into distinct subgroups (strata) based on specific characteristics (like age, gender, or income). Researchers then randomly sample from each stratum to ensure representation of all groups in the final sample.

Cluster Sampling

In cluster sampling, the population is divided into clusters, often geographically. A few clusters are randomly selected, and all individuals within those clusters are included in the sample. This method is useful for large populations and can be more cost-effective.

Question 63

Culture possesses specific characteristics that shape it :

(A) Culture in transferred

(B) Culture is common sense

(C) Culture is permanent and rewarding

(D) Culture is an adaptable category

(E) Culture in shared among members of the society

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (A), (C), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C), (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (D), (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (C), (D), (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (C), (D), (E) Only.

Key Points

A) Culture is transferred

  • Culture is passed down from generation to generation through various means such as language, traditions, rituals, and social practices.
  • This transfer can occur through storytelling, education, family customs, and community involvement, ensuring that cultural values and knowledge are preserved over time.

C) Culture is permanent and rewarding

  • While culture can provide rewards, such as a sense of belonging and identity, it is not entirely permanent.
  • Cultures can evolve, adapt, and change in response to social, economic, and technological influences.
  • However, the aspects that do provide rewards, like social cohesion and shared values, can enhance community ties and individual satisfaction.

D) Culture is an adaptable category

  • Culture is not static; it adapts to new circumstances, influences, and interactions with other cultures.
  • This adaptability allows societies to integrate new ideas, practices, and technologies, ensuring their relevance and survival in a changing world.
  • For example, globalization can lead to cultural exchange and innovation.

E) Culture is shared among members of the society

  • Culture is fundamentally a collective phenomenon, shaped by the shared beliefs, norms, and practices of a group.
  • This shared aspect fosters a sense of identity and community among members, as they engage in common traditions and values.
  • It helps individuals understand their place within a larger social framework.

Question 64

Arrange the processing of linen in correct sequence:

(A) Harvesting

(B) Drawing

(C) Retting

(D) Spinning

(E) Rippling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (E), (D), (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (E), (C), (B), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (A), (D), (C), (E) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (E), (C), (B), (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (E), (C), (B), (D).

Key Points

A) Harvesting

  • The process begins with harvesting the flax plants when they are mature.
  • This involves cutting the plants at the base to gather the stalks, which contain the valuable fibers needed for linen production.

E) Rippling

  • After harvesting, the next step is rippling, where the flax plants are processed to remove the seeds.
  • This is done by passing the stalks through a rippling machine, which pulls the seeds off while leaving the fibers intact.

C) Retting

  • Retting is a crucial step that involves soaking the flax stalks in water or exposing them to moisture to break down the pectins that hold the fibers together.
  • This process helps separate the fibers from the woody parts of the stalk, making it easier to extract the usable linen fibers.

B) Drawing

  • Finally, drawing refers to the process of stretching the spun yarn to align the fibers and improve its strength and uniformity. This prepares the yarn for weaving into linen fabric.
  • Together, these steps outline the journey from flax plant to linen fabric, highlighting the importance of each stage in producing high-quality linen.

D) Spinning

  • Once the fibers are separated and cleaned, they are spun into yarn.
  • This involves twisting the fibers together to create a continuous thread that can be used for weaving or knitting into fabric.

Question 65

In static continuous exertions : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Blood flow is irregular 

  2. BOption (b)

    Blood flow is fast 

  3. COption (c)

    Blood flow is normal 

  4. DOption (d)

    Blood flow is diminished 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Blood flow is diminished 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 

Key Points

In static continuous exertions, such as holding a position for an extended period, blood flow can be diminished due to several factors:

  • Muscle Contraction: Sustained muscle contractions can compress blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the muscles involved.
  • Reduced Venous Return: The lack of movement can hinder the pumping action of muscles that assist in venous return, leading to decreased blood circulation.
  • Metabolic Waste Accumulation: Diminished blood flow can result in the buildup of metabolic byproducts, which can cause fatigue and discomfort.
  • Tissue Hypoxia: Reduced oxygen delivery to the muscles may occur, leading to a sensation of heaviness or weakness.
  • Potential for Injury: Prolonged static exertion with decreased blood flow increases the risk of muscle strain or injury.

Question 66

World Diabetes Day is celebrated on : 

  1. AOption (a)

    12th November 

  2. BOption (b)

    13th November 

  3. COption (c)

    14th November 

  4. DOption (d)

    15th November 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14th November 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '14th November'

Key Points

  • World Diabetes Day:
  • World Diabetes Day is observed annually on 14th November.
  • The day was established in 1991 by the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) and the World Health Organization (WHO) in response to the growing concerns about the escalating health threat posed by diabetes.
  • It marks the birthday of Sir Frederick Banting, who co-discovered insulin along with Charles Best in 1922.
  • The purpose of World Diabetes Day is to raise global awareness of diabetes, its prevention, and complications, and the care that people with the condition need.

Additional Information

  • Incorrect Options:
  • 12th November: This date is not related to World Diabetes Day. It is observed as World Pneumonia Day to raise awareness about pneumonia.
  • 13th November: This date is not recognized for World Diabetes Day. It is celebrated as World Kindness Day.
  • 15th November: This date is not associated with World Diabetes Day. It is celebrated as Jharkhand Foundation Day in India.

Question 67

Arrange the steps of designing a chart in sequence:

(A) Divide content into headings and subheadings

(B) Research the topic from credible sources

(C) Prepare a draft layout with text and visuals

(D) Identify visuals and colour scheme

(E) Design the final layout with text and visuals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (A), (E), (D), (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D), (A), (C), (E), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (A), (D), (C), (E) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (A), (E), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (A), (D), (C), (E) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (A), (D), (C), (E).

Key Points

B - Research the topic from credible sources: The foundation of any effective chart lies in thorough research. Begin by gathering information from reliable sources. This ensures that the data you present is accurate and credible, providing a solid base for your chart.

A - Divide content into headings and subheadings: Once you have your research, organize the information into clear headings and subheadings. This step helps you identify the main ideas and supporting details, making the content easier to digest for your audience. A well-structured outline enhances clarity and guides viewers through the information logically.

D - Identify visuals and colour scheme: With your content organized, think about how to visually represent the data. Choose appropriate visuals—such as graphs, charts, or icons—that best illustrate your points. Additionally, select a color scheme that complements the visuals while enhancing readability. A cohesive visual style makes your chart more engaging and helps convey your message effectively.

C - Prepare a draft layout with text and visuals: Next, create a draft layout that integrates your text and visuals. This stage is about experimenting with different arrangements to find the most visually appealing and informative design. Consider the flow of information and how each element interacts with one another. This draft serves as a blueprint for your final design.

E - Design the final layout with text and visuals: Finally, refine your draft into a polished final layout. Pay attention to details such as font choices, alignment, and spacing to ensure a professional appearance. This step is crucial, as a well-designed chart not only conveys information effectively but also captures the audience's attention.

By following this sequence, you ensure that your chart is not only informative but also visually appealing and easy to understand, ultimately enhancing its impact on your audience.

Question 68

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Type of Risk)List II (Uncertainty of Future Returns)
(A)Financial Risk(I)Investor Psychology
(B)Market Risk(II)Capital Market
(C)Purchasing Power Risk(III)Financial Capacity
(D)Political and Social Risk(IV)Price Level

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).

Key Point

A. Financial Risk → Financial Capacity

Financial risk refers to the possibility that an investor or business may not be able to meet its financial obligations. This risk depends on the financial capacity of the individual or firm, such as income level, savings, and ability to absorb losses.

B. Market Risk → Capital Market

Market risk arises due to fluctuations in the capital market, including changes in stock prices, interest rates, and overall market conditions. These factors directly affect the returns on investments.

C. Purchasing Power Risk → Price Level

Purchasing power risk occurs when inflation increases the price level, reducing the real value of money. As prices rise, the same amount of money buys fewer goods and services, lowering real returns.

D. Political and Social Risk → Investor Psychology

Political and social risk results from changes in government policies, political instability, or social unrest. These uncertainties influence investor psychology, often leading to fear, reduced confidence, and changes in investment decisions.

Question 69

The process of learning appropriate social behaviour chiefly by observing and imitating is known as: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Cognitive learning 

  2. BOption (b)

    Reinforcement 

  3. COption (c)

    Conditioning 

  4. DOption (d)

    Observational learning 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Observational learning 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Observational learning.

Key Points

Observational learning is a fundamental process through which individuals learn new behaviors and social skills by watching and imitating others, particularly significant for children. This learning process includes several key components:

  • Attention: Learners must focus on the behavior of a model, with factors such as the model's attractiveness or expertise enhancing attention.
  • Retention: Observers need to remember what they have seen, which involves cognitive processes for storing information.
  • Reproduction: The learner then attempts to mimic the observed behavior, requiring both the physical ability and the confidence to act.
  • Motivation: Finally, an observer's desire to imitate is influenced by anticipated rewards or social approval.

Through these steps, observational learning illustrates how social influences shape behavior and facilitate personal development, making it a vital mechanism in socialization and the acquisition of skills

Additional Information

1.Cognitive Development

Cognitive development refers to the growth of mental processes such as thinking, reasoning, and problem-solving. It encompasses how individuals, especially children, acquire and process information. Key theories, like those of Jean Piaget, outline stages (sensorimotor, preoperational, etc.) that characterize different ways of understanding the world.

2.Reinforcement

Reinforcement is a behavioral psychology concept that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. It can be positive (adding a reward) or negative (removing an aversive stimulus), playing a crucial role in shaping behavior by encouraging desirable actions.

3.Conditioning

Conditioning is a learning process that involves associating a stimulus with a response. There are two main types:

  • Classical Conditioning (e.g., Pavlov’s dogs) involves learning through association.
  • Operant Conditioning (e.g., Skinner) involves learning through consequences, where behaviors are strengthened or weakened based on rewards or punishments.

 

Together, these concepts explain how learning and behavior are influenced by cognitive processes and environmental interactions.

Question 70

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Cost)List II (Examples)
(A)Hidden Cost(I)Payroll payments
(B)Semi-Variable Overhead Cost(III)Pilferage in delivery points
(C)Food Cost(III)Loss due to repair and maintenance
(D)Labour Cost(IV)Loss due to spillage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Key Points

  • Hidden Cost ((A) - (IV))
  • Hidden costs refer to expenses that are not directly visible or apparent, such as loss due to spillage.
  • These costs are often overlooked during budgeting or cost analysis but can significantly impact overall profitability.
  • Semi-Variable Overhead Cost ((B) - (III))
  • Semi-variable costs are a mix of fixed and variable components. Examples include pilferage in delivery points, as it depends partially on operational levels.
  • These costs vary with usage but have a fixed base component.
  • Food Cost ((C) - (II))
  • Food cost refers to the direct expenses incurred in preparing food, such as loss due to repair and maintenance in food storage or processing equipment.
  • It is a significant component in industries like hospitality and catering.
  • Labour Cost ((D) - (I))
  • Labour cost includes expenses related to employee compensation, such as payroll payments.
  • It is a fixed or variable cost depending on the nature of the workforce (e.g., permanent staff vs. temporary workers).

Additional Information

  • Understanding Cost Categories
  • Fixed Costs: Do not vary with production levels (e.g., rent, salaries).
  • Variable Costs: Change directly with production (e.g., raw materials).
  • Semi-Variable Costs: Have both fixed and variable components (e.g., utility bills).
  • Relevance of Cost Analysis
  • Cost analysis helps identify areas for cost reduction and efficiency improvement.
  • It is crucial for decision-making, especially in pricing and budgeting.
  • Examples and Applications
  • Hidden Costs: May include unforeseen damages, inefficiencies, or losses.
  • Labour Costs: Critical in industries heavily reliant on human resources, such as manufacturing or services.
  • Food Costs: Vital in food service industries to ensure profitability and minimize wastage.

Question 71

All persons throughout life, as indicated by the Recommended Dietary Allowances need : 

  1. AOption (a)

    the same nutrients in varying amounts 

  2. BOption (b)

    the same amount of nutrients in any state of health 

  3. COption (c)

    the same nutrients at any stage in the same amounts 

  4. DOption (d)

    different nutrients in mixed amounts 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the same nutrients in varying amounts 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the same nutrients in varying amounts.

Key Points

  • All persons throughout life, as indicated by the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs), need the same nutrient in different amounts.
  • For example, the RDA for calcium varies by age and life stage: infants, children, adolescents, adults, and seniors all have different requirements for calcium to support growth, bone health, and overall physiological functions.
  • Similarly, other nutrients like iron and vitamin D also have varying recommendations depending on age, gender, and life circumstances, such as pregnancy or lactation.

Question 72

A group of genetic disorders of haemoglobin synethesis which result from a defective rate of synthesis of one er more of the globin chains, but there is no defect in the amino acid structure of globin chains. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Methemoglobinemias 

  2. BOption (b)

    Thallasemias 

  3. COption (c)

    Agammaglobinemias 

  4. DOption (d)

    Aminoaciduria  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Thallasemias 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thallasemias.

Key Points

  • Thalassemias are a group of genetic disorders characterized by the impaired synthesis of hemoglobin, specifically affecting the production of one or more globin chains.
  • Unlike other hemoglobinopathies, thalassemias do not involve alterations in the amino acid structure of the globin chains; instead, the primary issue lies in the rate at which these chains are produced.
  • Hemoglobin is composed of two types of globin chains: alpha and beta. In thalassemia, an individual may produce insufficient amounts of one type, leading to an imbalance. For instance, in alpha thalassemia, the synthesis of alpha globin chains is reduced, while in beta thalassemia, the beta globin chains are affected.
  • This imbalance can result in a range of symptoms, including anemia, fatigue, and various complications, depending on the severity of the disorder.

Additional Information

Methemoglobinemias: This condition involves the presence of methemoglobin, a form of hemoglobin that cannot effectively release oxygen to tissues. It results from a chemical alteration in the hemoglobin molecule, rather than a defect in the rate of globin chain synthesis.

Agammaglobinemias: These are disorders characterized by the absence or significantly reduced levels of immunoglobulins (antibodies) due to a defect in B cell function. This affects the immune system rather than hemoglobin production.

Aminoaciduria: This condition refers to the presence of abnormal amounts of amino acids in the urine, typically due to metabolic disorders affecting amino acid metabolism or reabsorption. It does not involve hemoglobin synthesis or globin chain production.

Question 73

Well planned accent lighting puts the focus on: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Lighting source 

  2. BOption (b)

    Lighting fixture 

  3. COption (c)

    On desired objects 

  4. DOption (d)

    On work surfaces 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

On desired objects 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is On desired objects.

Key Points

  • Well-planned accent lighting is designed to highlight specific areas or objects within a space, drawing attention to them and enhancing their visual appeal.
  • This type of lighting can create a dramatic effect, adding depth and interest to a room. By directing light onto desired objects—such as artwork, sculptures, architectural features, or decorative elements—accent lighting helps to create focal points that enrich the overall design.
  • Effective accent lighting typically uses a higher intensity of light than general illumination, allowing the highlighted objects to stand out. It can be achieved through various fixtures, such as spotlights, track lighting, or wall sconces, strategically positioned to illuminate the chosen subjects without overpowering the surrounding area.

Question 74

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Extension Education ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Heterogenous learners 

  2. BOption (b)

    Choice of subject matter is with learners  

  3. COption (c)

    Fixed curriculum 

  4. DOption (d)

    Teaching with the help of local leaders 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fixed curriculum 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fixed curriculum.

Key Points

  • In Extension Education, the focus is on meeting the specific needs of communities rather than sticking to a fixed curriculum.
  • This flexibility allows educators to adapt their programs based on local interests and issues, ensuring that the learning is relevant and meaningful.
  • By prioritizing hands-on experiences and community involvement, Extension Education creates an engaging environment where participants can develop practical skills that directly benefit their lives. This dynamic approach is what makes Extension Education so effective and valuable.

Additional Information

Heterogeneous Learners: Extension Education often involves diverse groups of learners with varying backgrounds, skills, and experiences. This diversity enriches the learning environment, allowing for a range of perspectives and ideas to be shared. Educators can tailor their approaches to meet the needs of different learners, fostering inclusivity and collaboration.

Choice of Subject Matter: In Extension Education, learners have a say in the topics covered. This choice empowers participants, making them more invested in their learning. By allowing learners to express their interests and priorities, the education becomes more relevant and applicable to their real-life situations, increasing engagement and motivation.

Teaching with the Help of Local Leaders: Collaborating with local leaders and community members enhances the educational process. These leaders often have a deep understanding of local issues and can provide valuable insights and credibility. This approach not only fosters trust but also encourages community involvement, making the learning more applicable and sustainable.

Together, these characteristics make Extension Education a dynamic and effective way to promote learning, skill development, and community engagement.

Question 75

Which of the following is not the part of components of Investment Portfolio ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Financial Investments 

  2. BOption (b)

    Cash funds 

  3. COption (c)

    Defensive Investments 

  4. DOption (d)

    Aggressive Investments 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Financial Investments 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Financial Investments.

Key Points

An investment portfolio is a collection of various assets that an individual or institution holds to achieve specific financial goals. The key components typically include:

1.Stocks: Equity investments that represent ownership in a company.

2.Bonds: Debt securities that represent loans made to corporations or governments.

3.Real Estate: Physical properties or real estate investment trusts (REITs) that generate income or appreciate in value.

4.Cash Equivalents: Short-term, highly liquid assets like money market accounts or treasury bills.

While "financial investments" is a broad term that encompasses these asset types, it is not a specific component of a portfolio itself. Instead, the portfolio consists of the actual assets (like stocks or bonds) that the investor chooses to include based on their risk tolerance, investment goals, and market conditions. Therefore, "financial investments" as a general term does not fit as a distinct component within an investment portfolio.

Additional Information

1.Cash Funds: These include highly liquid assets such as cash, money market accounts, or short-term treasury bills. They provide stability and liquidity, making them useful for investors who want to maintain easy access to their funds while minimizing risk.

2.Defensive Investments: These are investments that tend to be more stable and less sensitive to market fluctuations. Examples include utilities, consumer staples, and bonds. Defensive investments aim to provide steady income and preserve capital, making them ideal for risk-averse investors or those looking to reduce portfolio volatility, especially during economic downturns.

3.Aggressive Investments: These investments are geared toward higher potential returns and often come with increased risk. Examples include growth stocks, emerging market equities, and venture capital. Aggressive investments are suitable for investors with a higher risk tolerance and a longer time horizon, as they aim to capitalize on market opportunities and drive significant portfolio growth.

By including a mix of cash funds, defensive investments, and aggressive investments, investors can create a balanced portfolio that aligns with their risk tolerance, financial goals, and market conditions. This diversification helps manage risk while pursuing growth.

Question 76

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Stages of Group Development)List II (Purpose)
(A)Forming(I)Learning to work with each-other and co-exist
(B)Storming(III)Getting in action as a cohesive group
(C)Norming(III)Getting to know about each-other
(D)Performing(IV)Challenging each-other

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Key Points

A.Forming: This is the initial stage where group members come together. The purpose is primarily about getting to know each other, establishing relationships, and understanding the group’s goals. Members are often polite and cautious as they explore their new environment.

B.Storming: In this stage, conflicts and challenges often arise as members express their differing opinions and ideas. The purpose here is to challenge each other, which is crucial for the group to address tensions and establish roles. This phase can be uncomfortable but is essential for growth.

C.Norming: Once the group has navigated the storming phase, they move into norming, where members start to establish norms and practices for working together. The purpose is to learn how to coexist and collaborate effectively, creating a supportive and cooperative environment.

D.Performing: At this stage, the group is functioning as a cohesive unit. The focus shifts to getting in action and achieving the group’s goals. Members are more confident in their roles and work collaboratively towards shared objectives.

Understanding these stages helps in managing group dynamics effectively and fostering a productive team environment.

Question 77

Which one of the following is not a group method of communication ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Result Demonstration  

  2. BOption (b)

    Exhibition 

  3. COption (c)

    Field Day 

  4. DOption (d)

    Study Tour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Exhibition 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Exhibition.

Key Points

  • Exhibitions typically involve displaying information, products, or ideas to an audience but do not facilitate direct interaction or discussion among participants.
  • In contrast, group methods of communication, such as meetings, workshops, or discussions, encourage active participation and dialogue, allowing group members to exchange ideas and collaborate.
  • Exhibitions are more about presentation rather than interactive communication, making them distinct from true group communication methods.

Additional Information

1.Result Demonstration: This method involves showcasing the outcomes of specific projects or practices, allowing group members to observe and understand the results in a practical context. It encourages discussion and questions, enhancing collective learning.

2.Field Day: This is an event where participants visit a specific location, such as a farm or research facility, to learn about particular practices or innovations. Field days promote hands-on learning and direct interaction among participants, fostering collaboration and shared insights.

3.Study Tour: This involves organized trips to various sites for educational purposes, allowing groups to explore new ideas, techniques, or successful models in different contexts. Study tours encourage group reflection and discussion, enriching the learning experience.

Together, these methods promote active participation, discussion, and practical learning, making them effective for group communication in educational or community settings.

Question 78

In which textile finishing process, the surface fibres are burned off to produce smooth surface ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Raising

  2. BOption (b)

    Singeing 

  3. COption (c)

    Calendaring 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sanforizing 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Singeing 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Singeing.

Key Points

  • The textile finishing process in which surface fibers are burned off to produce a smooth surface is called singeing.
  • This process involves passing the fabric over a flame or hot metal plate, which removes loose fibers and creates a cleaner, smoother finish.
  • Singeing helps improve the appearance of the fabric and can enhance its performance by reducing pilling and fraying.

Additional Information

1.Raising: This process involves using mechanical means to lift the fibers on the surface of the fabric, creating a soft, fuzzy texture known as "nap." Raising is commonly used on fabrics like wool and cotton to enhance warmth and comfort. 

2.Calendering: Calendering is a finishing process that involves passing fabric through a series of heated rollers. This technique smooths and compresses the fabric, giving it a sleek, glossy finish. Calendering can also enhance the fabric's strength and durability. I

3.Sanforizing: Sanforizing is a specific process designed to reduce the shrinkage of cotton fabrics. During this finishing method, the fabric is stretched while being moistened and then allowed to dry under tension. This pre-shrinking treatment ensures that the finished garment will maintain its size and shape after washing. 

Together, these processes enhance the quality, appearance, and performance of textiles, making them more suitable for various applications.

Question 79

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Therapeutic Diet)List II (Different health conditions)
(A)Alkaline - ash Diet(I)Celiac Disease
(B)Low purine diet(III)Cystine Calculi
(C)Moderate to low fat diet(III)Obesity
(D)Low calorie diet(IV)Gout

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).

Key Points

A.Alkaline - Ash Diet Cystine Calculi: This diet focuses on promoting an alkaline environment in the body, which can help manage certain types of kidney stones, particularly cystine calculi. By limiting acidic foods, this diet aims to reduce the formation of stones.

B.Low Purine Diet  Gout: Gout is caused by elevated levels of uric acid, which can form crystals in the joints. A low purine diet limits foods high in purines (like red meat and seafood), helping to manage and prevent gout attacks.

C.Moderate to Low Fat Diet  Celiac Disease: While managing celiac disease primarily requires a strict gluten-free diet, some individuals may also benefit from a moderate to low fat diet to improve digestion and manage overall health, particularly if they experience weight gain or digestive issues.

D.Low Calorie Diet  Obesity: A low calorie diet is often recommended for individuals with obesity to promote weight loss. This diet helps reduce caloric intake while ensuring essential nutrients are still consumed.

Each of these diets is tailored to address specific health issues, making them essential components of effective dietary management for those conditions.

Question 80

Match List - I with List - IL. 

List I (Techniques of Work Simplification)List II (Description)
(A)Micromotion Film Analysis(I)Step-by-step description of the worker performing entire task
(B)Process Chart(III)Pin and String Method
(C)Operation Chart(III)Photographic Device
(D)Pathway/Flow Chart(IV)One particular step is studied in a whole process

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

Key Points

A. Micromotion Film Analysis -Photographic Device: This technique uses a photographic device to capture detailed movements of a worker performing a task. The film allows for in-depth analysis of each motion, helping to identify inefficiencies and areas for improvement.

B.Process Chart: Step-by-step description of the worker performing entire task: A process chart provides a comprehensive step-by-step outline of a worker's entire task. It visualizes each step involved, making it easier to identify redundancies or unnecessary actions.

C.Operation Chart: One particular step is studied in a whole process: This chart focuses specifically on analyzing one step within a larger process. It helps to understand the details of that step, assessing its efficiency and how it contributes to the overall workflow.

D.Pathway/Flow Chart - Pin and String Method:The pathway or flow chart visualizes the sequence of actions in a process, often represented by strings or pins on a board. It illustrates how tasks flow from one to another, helping to identify the most efficient path and any potential bottlenecks.

Together, these techniques help streamline work processes, enhance efficiency, and improve productivity by providing different ways to analyze tasks and workflows.

Question 81

The traditional textile which is mordant and resist block printed on both sides (of the fabric) with geometrical motifs with a strong grid pattern in the shades of blue and red. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ajrakh

  2. BOption (b)

    Sanganeri

  3. COption (c)

    Rogan

  4. DOption (d)

    Bagh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ajrakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ajrakh.

Key Points

  • This beautiful fabric is known for its intricate mordant and resist block printing on both sides, showcasing geometric motifs and a strong grid pattern.
  • The rich shades of blue and red are characteristic of Ajrak, which originates from the Sindh region of Pakistan and parts of India.
  • Ajrak's vibrant colors and detailed designs reflect the cultural heritage of the area, and it is often used in clothing, home decor, and artisanal crafts.
  • The craftsmanship involved in creating Ajrak is labor-intensive, highlighting the skills passed down through generations of artisans. This textile is not only functional but also a symbol of identity and pride in Sindhi culture.

Additional Information

Sanganeri, Rogan, and Bagh are all traditional Indian textile printing techniques, each with its unique style and history:

1. Sanganeri:

**Origin:**Sanganer, a town near Jaipur in Rajasthan.

Technique: Known for its hand-block printing, Sanganeri textiles often feature intricate floral and paisley designs.

Colors: Traditionally uses natural dyes, resulting in vibrant colors, especially in shades of indigo, red, and yellow.

Fabric: Commonly printed on cotton and used for garments, bed linens, and home decor.

2. Rogan:

Origin: A traditional art form from the Kutch region of Gujarat.

Technique: Involves a unique painting technique where designs are created using a paste made from oil and colors. The process is quite labor-intensive and requires precision.

Designs: Often features bold, intricate patterns and motifs inspired by nature and traditional themes.

Fabric: Typically used on cotton and silk, producing vibrant, textured pieces often seen in garments and wall hangings.

3. Bagh:

Origin: Bagh, a village in Madhya Pradesh.

Technique: Bagh printing is characterized by its use of natural dyes and intricate block printing, often featuring floral and geometric patterns.

Colors: Known for rich colors, especially deep reds, blacks, and greens, achieved using natural dyes derived from plants.

Fabric: Commonly used on cotton, Bagh textiles are popular for sarees, dupattas, and other traditional garments.

Each of these techniques showcases the rich textile heritage of India, highlighting regional artistry and craftsmanship.

Question 82

Generous bustline, shapely waist, pronounced hips are the characteristics of : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Round body type 

  2. BOption (b)

    Pear body type 

  3. COption (c)

    Diamond body type 

  4. DOption (d)

    Hourglass body type 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hourglass body type 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hourglass body type.

Key Points

The hourglass figure is characterized by a balanced proportion between the bust and hips, both of which are fuller, contrasted by a well-defined, shapely waist. This silhouette typically features:

1.Generous Bustline: The bust is prominent, contributing to the overall curves of the figure.

2.Shapely Waist: The waist is significantly narrower than both the bust and hips, creating an appealing curve that emphasizes the body's natural shape.

3.Pronounced Hips: The hips are rounded and fuller, adding to the curviness of the figure and providing a balanced look.

This body type is often associated with femininity and is celebrated in various cultures for its classic appeal. Fashion styles that enhance the hourglass silhouette include fitted dresses, cinched waistlines, and tailored pieces that highlight the curves.

Additional Information

1. Round Body Shape-

  • Characteristics: Fuller bust, rounded waist, and overall curvy appearance.
  • Proportions: Less defined waist, similar width of shoulders and hips.
  • Style Tips: Use empire waist dresses and A-line skirts to create definition.

2. Pear Body Shape-

  • Characteristics: Narrow upper body with wider hips and thighs; well-defined waist.
  • Proportions: Triangle shape, with hips as the widest part.
  • Style Tips: Emphasize the waist and balance with fitted tops and A-line skirts.

3. Diamond Body Shape-

  • Characteristics: Wider midsection, narrower shoulders and hips; less defined waist.

  • Proportions: Widest part is around the midsection.

  • Style Tips: Draw attention to shoulders and legs with structured tops and flowing skirts.

These body shapes each have their unique features and styling tips to enhance natural beauty.

Question 83

Arrange the sequence of Erickson's stages of psychosocial development:

(A) Initiative Vs. Guilt

(B) Generativity Vs. Stagnation

(C) Identity Vs. Role Diffusion

(D) Ego Integrity Vs. Despair

(E) Trust Vs. Mistrust

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (E), (A), (C), (B), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (E), (B), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (E), (D), (B), (A) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (E), (A), (D), (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(E), (A), (C), (B), (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (E), (A), (C), (B), (D).

Key Points

Erik Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development outline eight key conflicts that shape psychological growth throughout life. Here’s a brief explanation of each of the stages listed:

1.Trust Vs. Mistrust (Infancy):

  • In the first year of life, infants learn to trust their caregivers and the world around them when their needs are consistently met.
  • A failure to do so can lead to mistrust.

2.Initiative Vs. Guilt (Preschool Age):

  • During early childhood, children begin to assert control and take initiative in their play and other activities.
  • Successful navigation leads to a sense of initiative, while failure may result in feelings of guilt.

3.Identity Vs. Role Diffusion (Adolescence):

  • In this stage, adolescents explore their personal identity and sense of self.
  • Successful resolution leads to a strong sense of identity, whereas failure may result in confusion about one’s role in society.

4.Generativity Vs. Stagnation (Middle Adulthood):

  • Adults in this stage focus on contributing to society and helping guide the next generation.
  • Success leads to feelings of productivity and usefulness, while stagnation may occur if one feels unproductive or disconnected.

5.Ego Integrity Vs. Despair (Late Adulthood):

  • In older age, individuals reflect on their lives. Achieving a sense of fulfillment and acceptance leads to ego integrity, while regret or dissatisfaction may result in despair.
  • These stages highlight the importance of social relationships and the impact of experiences at different life stages on overall psychological development.

Additional Information

 Erikson's eight stages of psychosocial development:

1.Trust Vs. Mistrust (Infancy)

2.Autonomy Vs. Shame and Doubt (Toddlerhood)

3.Initiative Vs. Guilt (Preschool Age)

4.Industry Vs. Inferiority (School Age)

5.Identity Vs. Role Confusion (Adolescence)

6.Intimacy Vs. Isolation (Young Adulthood)

  1. Generativity Vs. Stagnation (Middle Adulthood)

8.Ego Integrity Vs. Despair (Late Adulthood)

Question 84

Which one of the following is not a category of adopters ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Early Suggestors 

  2. BOption (b)

    Early Adoptors 

  3. COption (c)

    Early Majority  

  4. DOption (d)

    Late Majority 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Early Suggestors 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Early Suggestors.

Key Points

  • "Early suggestors" is not a recognized category of adopters in the diffusion of innovations theory because it doesn't align with the established terminology and concepts developed by Everett Rogers.
  • In this framework, the categories of adopters are clearly defined based on their behaviors and timing in relation to adopting new innovations:

A.Innovators: The first individuals to adopt an innovation. They are adventurous and willing to take risks.

B.Early Adopters: These are opinion leaders who embrace new ideas early on and influence others.

C.Early Majority: Individuals who adopt innovations after a varying degree of time. They are more deliberate and weigh the pros and cons.

D.Late Majority: Skeptical individuals who adopt an innovation only after the majority has done so.

E.Laggards: The last to adopt an innovation, often resistant to change.

  • The term "early suggestors" is not defined within this framework and may imply a role of recommending or suggesting innovations rather than adopting them.
  • Therefore, it lacks the specific criteria and behaviors that characterize the established categories of adopters, which focus on the timing and willingness to embrace innovations.

Question 85

The first step in Extension teaching is : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Interest 

  2. BOption (b)

    Satisfaction 

  3. COption (c)

    Action 

  4. DOption (d)

    Attention 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Attention 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Attention.

Key Points

  • The first step in extension teaching is attention. This step involves capturing the interest of the audience to ensure they are engaged and receptive to the information being presented.
  • Without attention, learners are unlikely to absorb or retain the content. Effective strategies to gain attention can include using relevant examples, asking thought-provoking questions, or employing engaging visuals.
  • Establishing a connection with the audience at this stage lays the groundwork for effective learning and participation throughout the teaching process.

Question 86

The Public Provident Fund Account deposits are qualified for Income Tax Rebate under : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Section 80 L of IT Act 

  2. BOption (b)

    Section 80 DD of IT Act 

  3. COption (c)

    Section 80 CCA of LT. Act 

  4. DOption (d)

    Section 88 of LT. Act 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Section 80 CCA of LT. Act 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Section 88 of LT. Act.

Key Points

  • PPF Deposits: Money deposited in a Public Provident Fund account qualifies for tax benefits.
  • Applicable Section: Income tax rebate is allowed under Section 80 CCA of the Income Tax Act.
  • Tax Benefit: The deposited amount can be deducted from the total taxable income, reducing tax liability.
  • Limit: There is a maximum limit on the eligible deduction as prescribed under the Income Tax Act.
  • Purpose: Encourages long-term savings and investment while providing tax relief to individuals.

Additional Information

 

1) Section 80 L of IT Act

  • This section does not exist in the Income Tax Act.
  • Sometimes confused with other sections, but it is incorrect for PPF.

2) Section 80 DD of IT Act

  • Purpose: Provides tax deduction for expenses incurred on the medical treatment or maintenance of dependent with disability.
  • Not related to PPF deposits or general savings schemes.

4) Section 88 of IT Act

  • Purpose: Used for rebate on total income for resident individuals with income below a certain threshold (old rebate provisions).
  • Does not cover PPF deposits; it is for general rebate on income tax, not specific savings schemes.

 

Only Section 80 CCA is applicable for tax deduction on PPF deposits.

Question 87

In 1973, Henry Mintzberg provided one of the first comprehensive studies on : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Scientific Management 

  2. BOption (b)

    The nature of managerial work 

  3. COption (c)

    Styles of leadership  

  4. DOption (d)

    The wealth of nations 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The nature of managerial work 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The nature of managerial work.

Key Points

  • In 1973, Henry Mintzberg provided one of the first comprehensive studies on managerial roles.
  • His work, presented in the book "The Nature of Managerial Work," identified ten roles that managers typically assume, categorized into three main groups: interpersonal, informational, and decisional roles.
  • This framework helped to clarify the diverse functions and responsibilities of managers, emphasizing that management is not just about decision-making but also involves communication, relationship-building, and information processing. Mintzberg's insights have significantly influenced the understanding of management practices.

Question 88

Arrange the steps involved in staff employment in an organisation.

(A) Orientation

(B) Selection and Placement

(C) Advertising

(D) Recruiting

(E) Training

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (A), (B), (E), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D), (B), (A), (E) 

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D), (A), (B), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(C), (D), (B), (A), (E) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (D), (B), (A), (E).

Key Points

The steps involved in staff employment in an organization can be explained as follows:

C.Advertising: The process begins with advertising job vacancies to attract potential candidates. This can involve posting job descriptions on various platforms, including job boards, company websites, and social media.

D.Recruiting: After advertising, the organization engages in recruiting, which involves actively searching for and inviting suitable candidates to apply. This may include reaching out to passive candidates and leveraging networks.

B.Selection and Placement: Once applications are received, the organization conducts the selection process, which includes reviewing resumes, conducting interviews, and assessing candidates to determine the best fit for the role. After selecting the candidates, they are placed in their respective positions.

A.Orientation: After placement, new employees go through an orientation program to familiarize them with the organization’s culture, policies, and procedures. This step helps new hires acclimate to their work environment.

E.Training: Finally, training is provided to equip employees with the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their jobs effectively. This can include on-the-job training, workshops, or formal training programs.

This sequence ensures that the organization effectively attracts, selects, integrates, and develops its workforce.

Question 89

Which of the following is the characteristic Motif of the Kullu shawls ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Kalash 

  2. BOption (b)

    Swastika 

  3. COption (c)

    Panbhat 

  4. DOption (d)

    Chinar leaf 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Swastika 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Swastika.

Key Points

  • The Swastika is a significant and characteristic motif in Kullu shawls, symbolizing good fortune, well-being, and prosperity in many cultures, including Indian traditions. In the context of Kullu shawls, this motif is intricately woven into the fabric, often alongside other designs.
  • Kullu shawls are renowned for their vibrant colors and geometric patterns, and the inclusion of the Swastika reflects the region's rich cultural heritage and beliefs.
  • The motif not only enhances the aesthetic appeal of the shawls but also embodies positive connotations that resonate deeply with the local community. This integration of traditional symbols like the Swastika makes Kullu shawls not just a fashion statement but also a representation of cultural identity and values.

Additional Information

1.Kalash: Although this motif symbolizes abundance and is used in various crafts, it is more commonly associated with rituals and decorative arts rather than being a defining feature of Kullu shawls.

2.Panbhat: This motif often represents a leaf design, which can appear in different textiles. However, it lacks the distinctive recognition that the Swastika has in the context of Kullu shawls.

3.Chinar Leaf: While the Chinar leaf motif reflects the natural beauty of the region and is used in some Kullu shawls, it is not as emblematic or prevalent as the Swastika, which is a more prominent and culturally significant symbol in Kullu textile art.

Question 90

One of the reasons due to which Extension programs fail is : 

  1. AOption (a)

    Commitment to goals 

  2. BOption (b)

    Recognition of limiting factors 

  3. COption (c)

    Authoritarian management 

  4. DOption (d)

    Use of strategies for change 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Authoritarian management 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Authoritarian management.

Key Points

  • One of the key reasons extension programs fail is authoritarian management. When leaders adopt a top-down approach, it often stifles creativity and collaboration among team members. This can lead to a lack of buy-in from both staff and participants, diminishing the program's effectiveness.
  • Instead, fostering a participatory environment where input and feedback are valued tends to enhance engagement and overall success. Encouraging collaboration and open communication can help build trust and ensure that the program meets the needs of its target audience

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Rusa Manjhi was a woman Panchayat worker of the Lahiripur Gram Panchayat in the Sunderbans of West Bengal. She showcased the success of women power in rural development in the 1980s. Rusa chose to be a Panchayat functionary as she knew it was the right forum to plan programmes for women, address their needs and have them believe in taking hold on their lives. Earlier, women in the Sunderbans had to depend entirely on the earnings of their men, most of whom were engaged in fishing or collecting honey from the wild. The Panchayat Samitis in early 1980s introduced schemes Like DWCRA, TRYSEM and ICDS in the region. This lead to the participation of women, especially the neo-literate and illiterate women, in entrepreneurial programmes. Change was also apparent in the growth of social awareness about women's rights. Women came forward to fight their own battles regarding wife-beating, dowry, dessertion and bigamy. Often husbands did not agree with wives becoming self-sufficient. However, the women did not give up on their dream of self-empowerment.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

To which state did Rusa Manjhi belong ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Jharkhand 

  2. BOption (b)

    West Bengal 

  3. COption (c)

    Orissa

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

West Bengal 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Rusa Manjhi was identified as a woman Panchayat worker in the Lahiripur Gram Panchayat, which is located in the Sunderbans region of West Bengal. The passage explicitly mentions her role and the geographical context, indicating that she was active in this state, showcasing the impact of women in rural development there.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which one of the following PLA technique will be most suitable to locate and identify families engaged in fishing ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Resource Inventory 

  2. BOption (b)

    Transect Walk 

  3. COption (c)

    Venn Diagram 

  4. DOption (d)

    Resource Map 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Resource Map 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Resource Map.

The most suitable Participatory Learning and Action (PLA) technique to locate and identify families engaged in fishing would be "resource mapping." This technique involves community members mapping out their local resources, which can help identify fishing families and their specific locations and practices within the community.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The main earnings of the men in the Sunderbans was from ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agriculture 

  2. BOption (b)

    Floriculture 

  3. COption (c)

    Fishing 

  4. DOption (d)

    Hunting 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fishing 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fishing.

The main earnings of the men in the Sunderbans were from fishing and collecting honey from the wild.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What role did Rusa choose ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    DWCRA functionary 

  2. BOption (b)

    Panchayat functionary 

  3. COption (c)

    ICDS functionary 

  4. DOption (d)

    TRYSEM functionary 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Panchayat functionary 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Panchayat functionary.

Rusa Manjhi chose the role of a Panchayat functionary. This position allowed her to plan programs for women and address their needs, empowering them to take control of their lives.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which Development Program was not introduced in the Sunderbans ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    DWCRA 

  2. BOption (b)

    TRYSEM 

  3. COption (c)

    ICDS 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sukanya Samridhi Yojna 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sukanya Samridhi Yojna 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sukanya Samridhi Yojna.

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

FM radio stations, satellite radio and television channels are major avenues for the growth of the music industry. Much of the programming on FM radio channels, like AIR's 'Vividh Bharti', is dedicated to music, primarily to film music. This is equally true of round-the-clock music channels on television. But besides the dedicated music channels, television programming on all 'General Entertainment Channels' in the various Indian languages includes several music-based genres. "Talent Hunt' programmes focused on singing, dancing and acting are based largely on Indian film music. One of the channels organised a Talent Hunt programme called 'Popstars' which involved the nationwide search for a five member all-girl band of singers. Called 'Viva', the winning band of girls released two albums. In a similar vein a music project called, 'The Underground' was conducted by Saregama India in Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata in 1980 to select 30 music performers (Bands, Artistes and DJs).

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The full form of GEC is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Generic Electric Channels 

  2. BOption (b)

    Generic Editing Channels 

  3. COption (c)

    General Entertainment Channels 

  4. DOption (d)

    General Educational Channels 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

General Entertainment Channels 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is General Entertainment Channels.

General Entertainment Channel (GEC) refers to television channels that offer a variety of entertainment content, including dramas, comedies, reality shows, and music programs. Unlike channels dedicated solely to one genre, GECs provide a broad range of programming aimed at attracting a diverse audience

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

AIR’s ‘Vividh Bharati’ is dedicated primarily to ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    News 

  2. BOption (b)

    Film Music 

  3. COption (c)

    Talent Hunt 

  4. DOption (d)

    Documentary 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Film Music 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Film Music.

AIR's 'Vividh Bharati' is dedicated primarily to music, with a focus on film music.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

‘Popstar’ Talent Hunt programme involved the national wide search for a five member band of singers that included : 

  1. AOption (a)

    All girls 

  2. BOption (b)

    All Women

  3. COption (c)

    All boys

  4. DOption (d)

    All men 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All girls 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All girls.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is not a music based programme ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Talent Hunt 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Underground 

  3. COption (c)

    Popstar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Shark Tank 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shark Tank 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shark Tank.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In which one of the following cities, Saregama Production did not introduce a music project ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai 

  3. COption (c)

    Chennai 

  4. DOption (d)

    Kolkata 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chennai 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chennai.

100 questions in the full paper