UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 22nd August 2024 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Total students enrolled = 6000

Total girls enrolled = 3500

Percentage of students enrolled in Cricket = 29% of 6000

Percentage of girls enrolled in Cricket = 20% of 3500

Percentage of students enrolled in Badminton = 14%

Percentage of girls enrolled in Badminton = 16%

Formula used:

Number of boys in Cricket = Number of students enrolled - number of girls enrolled in cricket

Number of students in Badminton = Percentage of students enrolled × Total students / 100

Percentage difference = [(Number of boys in Cricket - Number of students in Badminton) / Number of students in Badminton] × 100

Calculation:

Number of girls in Cricket = (3500 × 20)/100 = 700

Number of students in Cricket = (6000 × 29)/100 = 1740

Number of boys in Cricket = 1740 - 700 = 1040

Number of students in Badminton:

⇒ 14 × 6000 / 100 = 840

Percentage difference:

⇒ [(1040 - 840) / 840] × 100

⇒ (200 / 840) × 100 = 23.801 ≈ 23.81%

∴ The correct answer is 23.81%.

Given:

Total students enrolled = 6000

Total girls enrolled = 3500

Percentage of students enrolled in Soccer = 21% of 6000

Percentage of girls enrolled in Soccer = 28% of 3500

Formula used:

Number of boys in Soccer = Number of students enrolled - Number of girls enrolled in soccer

Total number of boys in all sports = Total students - Total girls

Percentage = (Number of boys in Soccer / Total number of boys in all sports) × 100

Calculation:

Number of girls in Soccer = (3500 × 28)/100 = 980

Number of students in Soccer = (6000 × 21)/100 = 1260

Number of boys in Soccer = 1260 - 980 = 280

Total number of boys in all sports:

⇒ 6000 - 3500 = 2500

Percentage of boys in Soccer:

⇒ (280 / 2500) × 100 = 11.2%

∴ The correct answer is 11.2.

Given:

Total students enrolled = 6000

Total girls enrolled = 3500

Percentage of students enrolled in Tennis = 20% of 6000

Percentage of girls enrolled in Tennis = 22% of 3500

Formula used:

Number of girls in Tennis = Percentage of girls enrolled in Tennis × Total girls / 100

Number of boys in Tennis = Total students enrolled - number of girls enrolled in tennis

Difference = Number of girls in Tennis - Number of boys in Tennis

Calculation:

Number of girls in Tennis:

⇒ 22 × 3500 / 100 = 770

Number of students in tennis = 20 × 6000/100 = 1200

Number of boys in Tennis = 1200 - 770 = 430

Difference between girls and boys:

⇒ 770 - 430 = 340

∴ The correct answer is 340.

6Given:

Total students enrolled = 6000

Total girls enrolled = 3500

Percentage of students enrolled in Basketball = 16% of 6000

Percentage of girls enrolled in Basketball = 14% of 3500

Formula used:

Number of boys in Basketball = number of students enrolled in basketball - number of girls enrolled

Calculation:

Number of students enrolled in basketball = 16 × 6000/100 = 960

Number of girls enrolled in basketball = 14 × 3500/100 = 490

Number of boys in Basketball = 960 - 490 = 470

∴ The number of boys enrolled in Basketball is 470.

Given:

Total students enrolled = 6000

Total girls enrolled = 3500

Percentage of students enrolled in Soccer = 21%

Percentage of girls enrolled in Soccer = 28%

Percentage of students enrolled in Tennis = 20%

Percentage of girls enrolled in Tennis = 22%

Formula used:

Number of boys in Soccer = Number of students enrolled in soccer- Number of girls enrolled in soccer

Number of boys in Tennis = Number of students enrolled in Tennis - Number of girls enrolled in Tennis 

Total boys in Soccer and Tennis = Number of boys in Soccer + Number of boys in Tennis

Calculation:

Number of girls in Soccer = (3500 × 28)/100 = 980

Number of students in Soccer = (6000 × 21)/100 = 1260

Number of boys in Soccer = 1260 - 980 = 280

Number of girls in Tennis = 22 × 3500 / 100 = 770

Number of students in tennis = 20 × 6000/100 = 1200

Number of boys in Tennis = 1200 - 770 = 430

Total boys in Soccer and Tennis:

⇒ 280 + 430 = 710

∴ The total number of boys enrolled in Soccer and Tennis together is 710.

The logic followed here is:

A) PRIME is coded as

B) SIGHT is coded as

C) QUITE is coded as

D) RHYME is coded as

 

So, the List - I will match with List - II as follows:

A) PRIME ⇒ (IV) 61

B) SIGHT ⇒ (III) 63

C) QUITE ⇒ (II) 72

D) RHYME ⇒ (I) 69

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - Predictive Argument

Key Points

• Predictive Argument
• A predictive argument makes a claim about the future based on past or present evidence.
• It is commonly used in inductive reasoning rather than deductive reasoning.
• Example: "Since it has rained on this date for the past three years, it will rain again today."

Additional Information

• Hypothetical Syllogism
• A form of deductive reasoning involving conditional ("if-then") statements.
• Example: "If it rains, the ground will be wet. If the ground is wet, the game will be canceled. Therefore, if it rains, the game will be canceled."
• Categorical Syllogism
• A form of deductive reasoning involving statements that relate categories or classes of things.
• Example: "All men are mortal. Socrates is a man. Therefore, Socrates is mortal."
• Argument from Definition
• A form of deductive reasoning that draws a conclusion from the definition of a term or concept.
• Example: "A bachelor is an unmarried man. John is a bachelor. Therefore, John is unmarried."

The correct answer is - Johannes Gutenberg

Key Points

• Johannes Gutenberg
• He is credited with inventing the movable-type printing press around 1440.
• The first major book printed using Gutenberg's press was the Gutenberg Bible.
• His invention played a key role in the spread of the Renaissance, Reformation, and the Scientific Revolution.
• Gutenberg's press allowed for the mass production of books, making literature and knowledge more accessible.

Additional Information

• Guglielmo Marconi
• He is known for his pioneering work on long-distance radio transmission and for his development of Marconi's law and a radio telegraph system.
• Marconi is often credited as the creator of the first practical radio.
• Tang Dynasty
• During the Tang Dynasty, woodblock printing was developed in China, around the 7^th century.
• This was an earlier form of printing but did not use movable type.
• William Caxton
• He was the first person to introduce a printing press into England in 1476.
• Although significant, Caxton built upon Gutenberg's earlier invention of the movable-type press.

The correct answer is: (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Key Points

• Upanaya - The application of the universal concomitance to the present case
• Upanaya refers to the logical process where a general rule (universal concomitance) is applied to a specific instance.
• For example, if "All humans are mortal" (universal rule), and "Socrates is a human" (specific instance), then Upanaya leads us to conclude "Socrates is mortal".
• Paramarsa - The knowledge of Paksadharmata as qualified by Vyapti
• Paramarsa involves recognizing that the condition observed (Paksadharmata) fits within a general rule (Vyapti).
• It's a critical component of the inferential process where one identifies the presence of a logical relationship.
• For example, seeing smoke (Paksadharmata) on a hill and knowing "where there is smoke, there is fire" (Vyapti), leads to the inference that there is fire on the hill.
• Vyapti - The invariable association of the middle term with the major term
• Vyapti is the universal and unconditional relationship between the middle term (hetu) and the major term (sadhya).
• For instance, in "All smoke is associated with fire," the presence of smoke (hetu) invariably means the presence of fire (sadhya).
• Vyapti is crucial for making valid inferences because it ensures consistent logical connections.
• Paksadharmata - The invariable relation or association of the middle term in the minor term
• Paksadharmata refers to the presence of the middle term (hetu) in the subject (paksha).
• For instance, in the example "This hill has smoke," smoke (hetu) is observed in the hill (paksha).
• It is the foundational observable condition that allows one to apply the general rule (Vyapti) to draw an inference.

The correct answer is "(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)".

Key Points

• Quadrant-I is e-Tutorial: which shall contain, Video and Audio Content in an organised form, Animation, Simulations, video demonstrations, Virtual Labs, etc.
• Quadrant-II is e-Content: which shall contain: PDF, Text, e-Books, illustrations, video demonstrations, documents and Interactive simulations wherever required.
• Quadrant-III is Web Resources: which shall contain: Related Links, Wikipedia Development of Course, Open source Content on the Internet, Case Studies, books including e-books, research papers & journals, Anecdotal information, Historical development of the subject, Articles, etc.
• Quadrant-IV is Self-Assessment: which shall contain: Problems solutions, which could be in the form of Multiple Choice Questions, Fill in the blanks, Matching Questions, Short Answer Questions, Long Answer Questions, Quizzes, Assignments and solutions, Discussion forum topics and setting up the FAQS, Clarifications on general misconceptions.

​

The correct answer is - O₃

Key Points 

• Ozone (O₃)
• Ozone is considered a secondary air pollutant.
• It is not emitted directly into the atmosphere, but is formed through chemical reactions involving primary pollutants such as NO_x and VOCs (Volatile Organic Compounds).
• These reactions usually occur in the presence of sunlight.

Additional Information 

• Carbon Monoxide (CO)
• CO is a primary air pollutant.
• It is directly emitted from sources such as motor vehicles, industrial processes, and residential heating.
• Nitric Oxide (NO)
• NO is also a primary air pollutant.
• It is released directly into the atmosphere from combustion processes, such as those in cars and power plants.
• Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂)
• SO₂ is a primary air pollutant.
• It is primarily emitted from the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.

The logic followed here is:

So, the number that occurs in the series are (A) 738, (C) 520, and (D) 222.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) Only.

Key Points

• The user does not have to install word processing software on the computer.
• This statement is true.
• Cloud computing word processing software, such as Google Docs or Microsoft Office 365, runs in the cloud and does not require installation on the user's device.
• This makes it accessible from any device with an internet connection.
• The user does not have to allocate space to install software in the hard disk.
• This statement is also true.
• Since the software operates in the cloud, users do not need to use their local hard disk space for installation, allowing them to conserve storage on their devices.
• Storage space to save the document is provided by the cloud provider. The user can open or edit the document from any computer which has Internet facility.
• This statement is correct as well.
• Cloud providers typically offer storage space for users to save their documents.
• Additionally, users can access and edit these documents from any computer with internet access, enhancing flexibility and collaboration.

The correct answer is - (D), (C), (A), (B)

Key Points

• Conversion of the Numbers to Base-10
• (D) (10011110)₂: This binary number converts to base-10 as follows:

(10011110)₂ = 1 × 2⁷ + 0 × 2⁶ + 0 × 2⁵ + 1 × 2⁴ + 1 × 2³ + 1 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ + 0 × 2⁰ = 128 + 0 + 0 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 0 = 158.

• (C) (313)₇: This base-7 number converts to base-10 as follows:

(313)₇ = 3 × 7² + 1 × 7¹ + 3 × 7⁰ = 147 + 7 + 3 = 157.

• (A) (9C)₁₆: This hexadecimal number converts to base-10 as follows:

(9C)₁₆ = 9 × 16¹ + 12 × 16⁰ = 144 + 12 = 156.

• (B) (233)₈: This octal number converts to base-10 as follows:

(233)₈ = 2 × 8² + 3 × 8¹ + 3 × 8⁰ = 128 + 24 + 3 = 155.

Additional Information

• Order of Converted Values
• After conversion, the decimal values of the options are as follows:

(D) = 158, (C) = 157, (A) = 156, (B) = 155.

• Therefore, the descending order is: (D), (C), (A), (B).

The correct answer is - Construct validity .

Key Points

• Construct validity
• Construct validity refers to how well a test or tool measures the concept that it is intended to measure.
• This validity ensures that the operationalization of a concept truly reflects the theoretical construct it aims to represent.
• For example, if a questionnaire is designed to measure intelligence, construct validity would evaluate whether the questions effectively represent the construct of intelligence.

Additional Information

• Internal validity
• Internal validity refers to the extent to which a study establishes a trustworthy cause-and-effect relationship between a treatment and an outcome.
• It focuses on eliminating confounding variables and ensuring that the results are genuinely due to the intended manipulations.
• Internal validity ensures the credibility of causal relationships but does not evaluate whether a test truly measures the concept it claims to measure.
• External validity
• External validity pertains to the generalizability of the study's findings to other contexts, settings, or groups.
• It evaluates whether the results of a study can be applied to situations outside the experimental conditions.
• External validity is important for the applicability of findings but does not address the accurate representation of a concept by a measurement tool.
• Transferability
• Transferability is similar to external validity but is often used in qualitative research.
• It refers to the extent to which the findings of a study can transfer to other settings or groups.
• This concept is concerned with the applicability of findings rather than evaluating the measurement's accuracy in representing the intended concept.

The correct answer is -  (A), (B), (E), (D), (C)

Key Points

• CO₂ (Carbon Dioxide)
• CO₂ is often used as a baseline (Global Warming Potential of 1) for comparing other greenhouse gases.
• It has the lowest GWP among the gases listed.
• Hence, CO₂ is placed first in ascending order.
• CH₄ (Methane)
• CH₄ has a GWP of approximately 28-36 over a 100-year period.
• It is more effective than CO₂ in trapping radiation.
• Therefore, Methane comes after CO₂ in ascending order.
• N₂O (Nitrous Oxide)
• N₂O has a GWP of about 298 over a 100-year period.
• It is significantly higher on the GWP scale compared to CO₂ and CH₄.
• Hence, N₂O is placed next in the order.
• CFC-11 (Chlorofluorocarbon-11)
• CFC-11 has a GWP of approximately 4660.
• It is much higher than CO₂, CH₄, and N₂O.
• Thus, CFC-11 is placed after N₂O.
• SF₆ (Sulfur Hexafluoride)
• SF₆ has an extremely high GWP of around 23,500.
• It is the highest among the listed gases.
• Therefore, SF₆ comes last in ascending order.

Additional Information

• Global Warming Potential (GWP)
• GWP is a measure of how much heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere over a specific time period, usually 100 years.
• It compares the amount of heat trapped by a certain mass of the gas to the amount of heat trapped by a similar mass of CO₂, which has a GWP of 1.
• Understanding Impact
• Higher GWP indicates greater potential for warming the Earth compared to CO₂.
• It's important to consider both the concentration and GWP of a gas to understand its impact on global warming.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

Key Points

• GIAN: Global Initiative for Academic Networks, aims to tap into the talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs internationally.
• The Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) is an initiative of the Indian Ministry of Education that brings together distinguished academics and researchers from across the globe to leverage global expertise.
• IMPRINT-2: Impacting Research Innovation and Technology, focuses on translating research knowledge into viable technology (products and processes).
• The Indian government's cutting-edge IMPRINT-2 program aims to promote technological innovation, specifically in the areas of product development and nanotechnology.
• DIGILOCKER: This initiative allows for the issuance and verification of documents and certificates in a digital way.
• As part of its Digital India initiative, the Indian Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology offers the digitization service DigiLocker.
• DigiLocker makes a variety of documents digitally accessible, such as academic mark sheets, driver's licenses, and certificates of vehicle registration.
• SWAYAM: An online education platform aimed at achieving the principles of access, equity, and quality in education.
• SWAYAM is an Indian government website that offers university and college students free open-access online courses.

The correct answer is - (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Key Points

• Kyoto Protocol (A) - Global Warming (I)
• The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions to combat global warming.
• It set legally binding targets for industrialized countries to reduce their emissions.
• Montreal Protocol (B) - Ozone Depletion (III)
• The Montreal Protocol is designed to phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
• It is considered one of the most successful environmental agreements to date.
• Rio Summit (C) - Biodiversity Conservation (II)
• The Rio Earth Summit, held in 1992, focused on sustainable development and included the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
• The summit aimed to promote conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use, and equitable sharing of benefits.
• Paris Agreement (D) - Solar Alliance (IV)
• While the Paris Agreement focuses broadly on climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance, a key objective linked to it is the promotion of renewable energy.
• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) emerged as an initiative to promote solar energy, closely linked to the goals of the Paris Agreement.

Additional Information

• Kyoto Protocol
• Adopted in 1997, came into force in 2005.
• Commits countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions based on agreed individual targets.
• Montreal Protocol
• Adopted in 1987, entered into force in 1989.
• Has successfully reduced the global production of ozone-depleting chemicals.
• Rio Summit
• Held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
• Led to key agreements like the CBD, UNFCCC, and Agenda 21.
• Paris Agreement
• Adopted in 2015 under the UNFCCC.
• Aims to limit global warming to below 2°C, preferably to 1.5°C, above pre-industrial levels.

The correct answer is "(A), (B) and (D) Only."

Key Points

• Siddha:- The word "Siddha" refers to accomplishments, and those who attained success in medicine were known as Siddhars.
• It was said that eighteen Siddhars had aided in the creation of this medical system.
• The majority of Siddha literature is practiced in Tamil-speaking regions of India and overseas.
• With an emphasis on iatrochemistry, the basic and applied fundamentals of this system bear a strong resemblance to Ayurveda.
• In this system, food and medication, no matter where they come from, are copies of the universe, just as the human body is.
• Sowa-Rigpa:- The Amchi medical system, also referred to as "Sowa-Rigpa," is one of the world's oldest, most lasting, and most thoroughly recorded medical traditions.
• It has been widely practiced in Tibet, Mongolia, Bhutan, Nepal, the Himalayan regions of India, and a few other places, including parts of the former Soviet Union and China.
• This system has been used in India in the Ladakh region of Jammu & Kashmir, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Darjeeling, Lahaul and Spiti (Himachal Pradesh), and Darjeeling.
• The Central Council for Tibetan Medicine, located in Dharmashala, oversees the Sowa-rigpa profession in India.
• It oversees the Sowa-Rigpa regulation mechanisms, practitioner registration, college standards, and other related matters.
• Homoeopathy is an individualistic drug therapy system that is holistic, rational, and philosophical. It is founded on established scientific principles, particularly the Law of Similars.
• It can be curative in all cases that do not have irreversible pathophysiological changes; in those cases, it produces a durable alleviation.
• More than 200 years ago, the eminent German physician SAMUEL HAHNEMANN (1755–1843) introduced this medical therapeutic system, which is most popular in the Indian Subcontinent.
• Its survival to this day can only be attributed to its efficacy in solving numerous difficult problems.

Given:

Fractions:

(A) = 12/19

(B) = 7/12

(C) = 11/17

(D) = 17/28

Formula used:

To compare fractions, we find the decimal equivalents.

Calculation:

(A) 12/19 = 0.6316

(B) 7/12 = 0.5833

(C) 11/17 = 0.6471

(D) 17/28 = 0.6071

Arranging in decreasing order:

(C) > (A) > (D) > (B)

∴ The correct order is: (C) > (A) > (D) > (B)

The correct answer is "It is what an individual feels about others."

Key Points

• Self-concept refers to an individual’s perception of themselves, encompassing their beliefs, traits, abilities, strengths, and weaknesses.
• It shapes how individuals think, feel, and behave in different situations.
• Self-concept is an internal reflection that influences one’s identity, self-esteem, and confidence.
• It is developed through experiences, interactions, and personal reflections, and it often includes how individuals believe others perceive them, a concept known as the "looking-glass self."

​ 

Additional Information

• It is what an individual feels about others: This statement does not describe self-concept but rather other-concept, which refers to how an individual perceives or feels about others. Self-concept is about self-perception, making this option incorrect in the context of self-concept.
• It is what an individual feels how others think/ perceive of him/her: This correctly represents self-concept, as individuals often form their self-image based on how they think others perceive them. This is an integral aspect of self-concept, particularly affecting self-esteem.
• It is an awareness of the individual about his/her strengths: Self-concept includes recognizing one’s strengths, which contributes to self-confidence and self-assurance.
• It is an awareness of the individual about his/her weaknesses: Understanding one's weaknesses is also a part of self-concept, as it helps in self-awareness and personal growth.

The correct answer is "He reports from the spot, mediates among the parties and thinks for the betterment of society."

Key Points

• Reporting from the spot: Narada is renowned for his frequent explorations of the heavenly, earthly, and even demonic domains to obtain firsthand knowledge.
• He accurately relays what he observes and knows as it happens.
• He is an active observer in his capacity as a messenger, informing humans and gods of information that is essential to preserving cosmic balance.
• Mediating among parties: Narada frequently mediates between conflicting parties, including gods, demons, and humans.
• He acts as a neutral figure, facilitating dialogue and resolving disputes.
• By understanding both sides, Narada helps de-escalate tensions and promote peaceful resolutions, ensuring harmony in relationships across the various realms.
• Thinking for the betterment of society: Narada uses his wisdom and foresight to promote societal welfare.
• He doesn't simply pass along messages; he considers the larger implications of his communication.
• Narada seeks to promote harmony, knowledge, and spiritual growth, often guiding individuals and communities toward actions that improve collective well-being.

The correct answer is Monasteries.

Key Points

• Monasteries are religious communities where monks, and sometimes nuns, live and practice their faith.
• These communities, particularly associated with Christian and Buddhist traditions, serve as centers for both spiritual and intellectual development.
• Monks in monasteries lead a life devoted to prayer, contemplation, and study. They often have libraries and scriptoria where they can read, write, and engage in scholarly pursuits.
• Monasteries were key locations for meditation, debate, and discussions with learned individuals, providing an environment dedicated to spiritual practice and intellectual exploration.

Additional Information

• Basadis are Jain temples primarily used for worship rather than scholarly activities. They do play an important role in the religious lives of Jains but are not typically centers for intellectual debate or study.
• Churches, on the other hand, serve as places of worship for Christians. While they may have some educational components, they are not typically designed for the intensive meditation, scholarly debate, and contemplation that monasteries offer.
• The term Ghatika can have various meanings depending on context, but it is not associated with monastic life or scholarly pursuits in the way monasteries are.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

Key Points

• (A) Effective verbal communication – (III) Effective speaking: Verbal communication relies on the ability to speak effectively. It involves clarity in language, proper articulation, and the use of appropriate tone and words to convey a message.
• (B) Effective communication – (I) Knowledge and skills: Effective communication requires both knowledge and communication skills. This includes understanding the subject matter and being able to convey it clearly and concisely, whether verbally or non-verbally.
• (C) Effective non-verbal communication – (IV) Body language: Non-verbal communication is largely based on body language, including gestures, facial expressions, posture, and eye contact. These elements often convey more than words can.
• (D) Barrier of communication – (II) Insufficient knowledge: A major barrier to communication is the lack of sufficient knowledge. When someone lacks knowledge on a subject, it can hinder their ability to communicate effectively, creating misunderstandings or gaps in the message.

Given:

90 persons consume 810 kg of food in 27 days.

Formula Used:

Food consumed per person per day = Total food consumed / (Number of persons × Number of days)

Food required for a number of persons for a specific number of days = Food consumed per person per day × Number of persons × Number of days

Calculation:

Food consumed per person per day = 810 kg / (90 persons × 27 days)

Food consumed per person per day = 810 / 2430

Food consumed per person per day = 1/3 kg

Now, we need to find the number of days (D) for 60 persons to consume 300 kg of food.

Food required for 60 persons for D days = 1/3 kg × 60 persons × D days

⇒ 300 kg = 1/3 × 60 × D

⇒ 300 = 20D

⇒ D = 300 / 20

⇒ D = 15

The correct answer is option 3 (15 days).

The correct answer is Albert Einstein.

Key Points

• “I never teach my pupils; I only provide the conditions in which they can learn” is attributed to Albert Einstein.
• This statement emphasizes the idea that effective teaching involves creating an environment conducive to learning rather than simply delivering information.
• Learner-centred teaching: Learner-centered teaching methods shift the focus of activity from the teacher to the learners.
• These methods include Active learning, in which students solve problems, answer questions, formulate questions of their own, discuss, explain, debate, or brainstorm during class.

The correct answer is: - (B), (D), (C), (A)

Key Points

Understanding Coefficient of Variation (CV):

• Definition:
• The Coefficient of Variation (CV) is a statistical measure of the relative variability of a data set.
• It is calculated as the ratio of the standard deviation (σ) to the mean (x̅), then multiplied by 100 to express it as a percentage.
• Formula: CV = (σ / x̅) × 100%
• Importance:
• CV provides insight into the extent of variability in relation to the mean of the data set.
• It is particularly useful for comparing the degree of variation between data sets with different units or widely differing means.
• A lower CV indicates less variability relative to the mean, while a higher CV indicates greater variability.

Calculation of CV for Each Data Set:

• (A) x̅ = 50, σ = 12
• CV_A = (12 / 50) × 100% = 24%
• (B) x̅ = 55, σ = 10
• CV_B = (10 / 55) × 100% ≈ 18.18%
• (C) x̅ = 60, σ = 14
• CV_C = (14 / 60) × 100% ≈ 23.33%
• (D) x̅ = 70, σ = 15
• CV_D = (15 / 70) × 100% ≈ 21.43%

Ranking Based on CV:

• Comparing the CVs:
• (B): 18.18%
• (D): 21.43%
• (C): 23.33%
• (A): 24%
• Ranking in increasing order of CV: (B), (D), (C), (A)

Additional Information

• The CV is particularly useful when you need to compare variability between data sets that do not share the same units or when the means are substantially different.
• In practical applications, the CV is often used in fields such as finance (to measure investment risk), biology (to assess experimental results), and quality control (to evaluate process consistency).
• While CV is a valuable measure of relative variability, it may not be appropriate for data sets with a mean close to zero, as it can lead to misleadingly high values.

The correct answer is - 'A - (II), B - (IV), C - (I), D - (III)'.

Key Points

• Statement (A) - (II): A sentence that can be viewed as True or False
• Definition: A statement is a declarative sentence that can be evaluated as true or false.
• Explanation: Statements are the basic units of logic, such as "Water boils at 100°C."
• Premise (B) - (IV): Reason why we should accept another statement or conclusion
• Definition: A premise provides support or reasons to accept another statement, usually the conclusion.
• Explanation: For example, "All birds can fly. A sparrow is a bird" serves as a premise for concluding that "A sparrow can fly."
• Conclusion (C) - (I): A statement in an argument that is intended to be proved or supported by the premises
• Definition: A conclusion is a statement that premises are intended to support or prove.
• Explanation: In the example, "A sparrow can fly" is the conclusion derived from the premises.
• Argument (D) - (III): Group of statements intended to prove or support another statement
• Definition: An argument is a set of statements where some statements (premises) support another statement (conclusion).
• Explanation: An example of an argument is "All birds can fly. A sparrow is a bird. Therefore, a sparrow can fly."

Additional Information

• Understanding these concepts helps in constructing logical arguments and critically evaluating others' arguments.
• Premises and conclusions are integral to deductive reasoning, which seeks to derive true conclusions from true premises.
• Identifying the structure of arguments improves critical thinking and analytical skills.

The correct answer is (D), (A), (E), (B), (C).

Key Points

• Kota Open University (D):
• Established in 1987, Kota Open University was one of the earliest open universities in India.
• It is primarily focused on providing distance education in science, technology, and engineering fields.
• Yashwant Rao Chavan Maharashtra Open University (A):
• Established in 1989, this university offers a wide range of undergraduate and postgraduate programs in various disciplines.
• It is named after the former Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Yashwant Rao Chavan.
• Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University (E):
• Established in 1992, this university is located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
• It offers various courses in arts, science, commerce, and professional studies.
• Karnataka State Open University (B):
• Established in 1996, this university is situated in Bangalore, Karnataka.
• It provides distance education in various fields, including arts, science, commerce, and management.
• UP. Rajarshi Tandon Open University (C):
• Established in 1999, this university is located in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
• It offers a wide range of undergraduate and postgraduate programs in various disciplines.

The correct answer is (A), (C) and (D) Only.

Key Points

• Teaching is an organized, methodical process with the goals of imparting knowledge, helping students develop their skills, and influencing their attitudes.
• It is defined by a number of elements that support efficient instruction.
• ​To provide guidance and training to students:
• This is a correct characteristic of teaching.
• Teachers guide and train students in various subjects, skills, and ethical behaviour, helping them to become more knowledgeable and capable individuals.
• To provide formal and informal education:
• This is correct.
• Teaching can occur in both formal settings (classrooms, institutions) and informal settings (family, social activities).
• Teachers educate students in structured environments and impart valuable knowledge informally as well.
• An art to impart knowledge to students in an effective way:
• This is also correct.
• Teaching is often regarded as an art, where the teacher utilizes creativity, methods, and techniques to deliver lessons in an engaging and effective manner, making it easier for students to absorb and retain knowledge.

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (IIl)

Key Points

• Converger:
• Good at Abstract Conceptualization and Active Experimentation.
• Strong in practical application of ideas and problem-solving.
• Less interested in people and emotional elements.
• Diverger:
• Best at concrete experience and reflective observation.
• Imaginative with a strong interest in people and emotional elements.
• Assimilator:
• Ability to create theoretical models and possess sound logic.
• Good at inductive reasoning and analytical thinking.
• Less interested in people.
• Accommodator:
• Enjoy and seek new experiences and adapt well to new situations.
• Intuitive, risk-takers, and open-minded.

The correct answer is - Case study

Key Points

• Case study
• A case study research design involves an in-depth investigation of a single entity or a small number of entities.
• This approach aims to uncover detailed features or intricate aspects of the subject's nature and context.
• It is particularly useful for understanding complex issues in real-life settings.
• This method provides rich qualitative data and can include various data sources like interviews, observations, and records.

Additional Information

• Cross-sectional
• This design involves the analysis of data collected at one specific point in time.
• It is commonly used for surveys and observational studies to identify patterns and correlations.
• Unlike a case study, it does not focus deeply on a single case but rather provides a snapshot of a larger population.
• Longitudinal
• This research design involves repeated observations of the same variables over a period of time.
• It aims to identify trends and changes over longer durations, often years or decades.
• It is different from a case study which typically provides a detailed look at a single subject at one point or over a short period.
• Comparative
• A comparative research design involves comparing two or more groups, cases, or phenomena.
• Its purpose is to identify similarities and differences and understand why they exist.
• Unlike the case study, it does not focus deeply on one unique case but rather examines multiple cases to draw broader conclusions.

The correct answer is - 50

Key Points

• SUMIF Function in MS Excel
• The SUMIF function in Excel is used to sum the values in a range that meet a specified condition.
• Syntax: SUMIF(range, criteria, [sum_range])
• range: The range of cells that you want to apply the criteria to.
• criteria: The condition that must be met for a cell to be included in the sum.
• sum_range (optional): The range of cells to sum. If omitted, Excel sums the cells specified in range.
• Applying the SUMIF Formula
• In the given worksheet, the formula is: =SUMIF(A1:A6, ">100", B1:B6)
• This means we need to sum the values in the range B1:B6 where the corresponding values in A1:A6 are greater than 100.
• Step-by-step calculation:
• Check each cell in A1:A6 to see if it is greater than 100.
• A1 (90) → No
• A2 (60) → No
• A3 (150) → Yes, include B3 (20)
• A4 (30) → No
• A5 (50) → No
• A6 (130) → Yes, include B6 (30)
• Only A3 and A6 meet the criteria (>100), so sum corresponding cells B3 and B6.
• B3 (20) + B6 (30) = 20 + 30 = 50
• The value in cell C1 is therefore 50.

Additional Information

• The SUMIF function is particularly useful for conditional summing, allowing the user to add up only the numbers that meet specific criteria.
• This function simplifies data analysis and ensures accuracy when handling large datasets with specific conditions.
• Understanding how to apply different functions like SUMIF can greatly enhance your efficiency and effectiveness when using Excel for data management and analysis.

The correct answer is - Swami Vivekananda

Key Points

• Swami Vivekananda
• Swami Vivekananda (1863-1902) was a key figure in the introduction of Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.
• He was a disciple of the Indian mystic Ramakrishna and played a key role in the revival of Hinduism in India.
• The statement “Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man” reflects his belief that education should bring out the inherent potential and virtues in individuals.

Additional Information

• Rabindranath Tagore
• Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941) was a polymath, poet, and the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.
• He founded the Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, emphasizing an education system that bridges Indian and Western traditions.
• Tagore’s educational philosophy focused on holistic development and creativity rather than rote learning, but the specific statement on education is not attributed to him.
• M.K. Gandhi
• Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi (1869-1948), also known as Mahatma Gandhi, was the leader of India's non-violent independence movement against British rule.
• He believed in ‘Nai Talim’ or Basic Education, which integrated handicrafts skills with academics for self-reliant education.
• While Gandhi had profound thoughts on education, the statement in question is not part of his philosophy.
• Sri Aurobindo
• Sri Aurobindo (1872-1950) was a philosopher, yogi, and nationalist who contributed extensively to literature and philosophy.
• He envisioned education as a means to develop integral consciousness and help one reach their highest potential.
• Though Aurobindo had insightful views on education, the given statement is not attributed to him.

The correct answer is - Chat Generative Pre-trained Transformer

Key Points

• Chat Generative Pre-trained Transformer
• Generative: ChatGPT is capable of generating human-like text based on the input it receives. It can produce responses, ideas, and more, making conversations feel natural.
• Pre-trained: The model is pre-trained on a diverse dataset, enabling it to understand and generate text in a coherent manner. The pre-training helps in understanding various contexts and nuances of language.
• Transformer: Transformer is a type of neural network architecture that has proven to be highly effective for natural language processing tasks. It allows the model to process and generate text efficiently by understanding context over sequential data.
• The combination of these aspects makes ChatGPT a powerful tool for various applications, including customer support, content creation, and conversational agents.

Additional Information

• Chat Generative Pre-trained Transmission
• This option incorrectly suggests the term "Transmission," which is not relevant to the model's architecture or function.
• Chat General Pre-trained Technology
• This option uses "General" and "Technology," which do not accurately describe the specific capabilities and foundational structure of the model.
• Chat Generalized Pre-trained Technique
• Similarly, this option mentions "Generalized" and "Technique," which are not accurate descriptors for the architecture used in ChatGPT.

The correct answer is (B) Only.

Key Points

• Sender sends messages to receiver:
• This is correct.
• In any communication process, the sender is the one who initiates the communication.
• They encode their thoughts or ideas into a message, using a channel (like speech, writing, or electronic media) to deliver this message to the receiver.
• The receiver then decodes the message to understand its meaning.

Additional Information

• Channel sends the message to sender:
• This is incorrect.
• The channel is not an active participant but rather the medium through which the message is transmitted from the sender to the receiver.
• For example, in verbal communication, the channel could be sound waves, while in written communication, the channel could be paper or electronic text.
• The sender does not receive the message from the channel; instead, they use the channel to send the message to the receiver.
• Sender sends the feedback to receiver:
• This is incorrect.
• Feedback is part of the communication loop but comes from the receiver, not the sender.
• After receiving and interpreting the message, the receiver provides feedback to the sender to indicate whether the message was understood or if any response is needed.
• Receiver sends messages to sender:
• This is partially correct but misleading in the context of the initial communication phase.
• The receiver does not send the original message; they receive it.
• However, they may provide feedback to the sender after receiving the message.

Given:

'A' takes twice as much time as 'B' to complete a work.

'C' does it in the same time as both 'A' and 'B' together do it.

All three of them work together and complete the work in 5 days.

Formula Used:

Work Rate of A = 1/(2x) (since A takes twice the time of B)

Work Rate of B = 1/x

Work Rate of C:

since C takes the same time as A and B together.

Work rate of C = 1/(2x) + 1/x = 3/(2x)

Total Work Rate = Work Rate of A + Work Rate of B + Work Rate of C

Time to complete the work together = 1 / Total Work Rate

Calculation:

Let B take x days to complete the work alone.

Then, A will take 2x days.

Work Rate of A = 1/(2x)

Work Rate of B = 1/x

Work Rate of C =  3/(2x)

Total Work Rate = 1/(2x) + 1/x + 3/(2x)

Total Work Rate = (1+2+3)/(2x)

Total Work Rate = 6/(2x)

Total Work Rate = (3/x)

Time to complete the work together = 5 days

So, 5 = 1 / (3/x)

⇒ 5 = x/3

⇒ x = 15

B takes 15 days to complete the work alone.

The time taken by 'B' to complete the work alone is 15 days.

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (D) Only

Key Points

• Ozone Layer Depletion (A)
• Ozone layer depletion is a global phenomenon as the ozone layer exists globally in the Earth's stratosphere.
• Depletion affects UV radiation exposure worldwide.
• Hence, it is considered a global scale phenomenon.
• Global Warming (B)
• Global warming refers to the long-term increase in Earth's average surface temperature due to anthropogenic emissions of greenhouse gases.
• This impacts climate systems globally, influencing weather patterns, ice melt, and sea levels worldwide.
• Hence, it is considered a global scale phenomenon.
• Forest Fire (C)
• Forest fires can have regional impacts but are not typically a global phenomenon.
• Though they can contribute to global problems like carbon emissions, the fires themselves are localized events.
• Hence, it is not considered a global scale phenomenon.
• Sea Level Rise (D)
• Sea level rise is caused by the melting of ice caps and glaciers and thermal expansion of seawater due to global warming.
• This phenomenon affects coastal regions worldwide.
• Hence, it is considered a global scale phenomenon.
• Air Pollution (E)
• Air pollution can have both local and regional impacts, with some pollutants traveling globally.
• While certain air pollution issues can be global, such as transboundary pollution, it is often more localized compared to phenomena like global warming or sea level rise.
• Hence, it is not entirely a global scale phenomenon in the same context.

Additional Information

• Ozone Layer Depletion
• Mainly caused by the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances.
• Montreal Protocol was established to control the emission of these substances.
• Global Warming
• Leads to erratic weather patterns, droughts, floods, and heatwaves.
• Major focus of international agreements like the Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement.
• Sea Level Rise
• Threatens coastal ecosystems and human settlements.
• Can lead to loss of habitat for plants, animals, and humans, especially in vulnerable areas.

Hence the options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect, and option 4 (A, B, and D) is correct.

The correct answer is - Trophic level.

Key Points

• Organisms in an ecosystem are classified into various levels based on their feeding behavior and their role in the flow of energy.
• These levels are known as trophic levels, starting from producers at the base to apex predators at the top.
• Each step in a food chain or web represents a different trophic level.
• Primary producers (e.g., plants) occupy the first trophic level, herbivores occupy the second, and so on.

Additional Information

• Standing crop
• Refers to the biomass of living organisms present in a given area at a specific moment.
• It is a snapshot measure, not a classification of organisms by their feeding behavior.
• Does not describe the position of an organism in the food chain.
• Top level organism
• Refers to apex predators or organisms at the top of the food chain.
• These organisms are not predated upon by others but their term does not cover all levels of a food chain.
• Does not encompass the entire trophic structure.
• Species level
• Used to classify organisms based on biological taxonomy, not their position in a food chain.
• Species level refers to the specific identity of organisms, not their trophic interactions.
• Does not define the role of organisms in the ecosystem’s energy flow.

The correct answer is - Deductive argument based on Mathematics

Key Points

• Deductive argument based on Mathematics
• A deductive argument is one where the conclusion necessarily follows from the premises.
• In this case, the premises are mathematical truths: x = 3 and y = 5.
• The conclusion, x + y = 8, follows directly and necessarily from these premises via basic arithmetic.
• Hence, the argument is deductive because it is based on mathematical logic where the premises provide conclusive evidence for the conclusion.

Additional Information

• Deductive argument based on elimination (Incorrect)
• This type of argument eliminates all other possibilities to reach a conclusion.
• However, the given argument directly uses given numerical values and arithmetic, not a process of elimination.
• Inductive argument from Authority (Incorrect)
• Inductive arguments use specific observations to make broader generalizations.
• An argument from authority relies on the opinion of an authority figure as evidence for a conclusion.
• The statement given is purely mathematical and doesn’t rely on authority or induction.
• Inductive argument from Principle of Charity (Incorrect)
• The Principle of Charity in arguments is where one interprets a speaker's statements in the most rational way possible.
• It involves reinterpreting an argument to make it stronger or more coherent.
• The given mathematical statement does not involve reinterpreting or strengthening an argument; it simply states a mathematical fact.

The correct answer is (D) and (E) Only.

Key Points

• Levels of Plagiarism:- Plagiarism would be quantified into the following levels in ascending order of severity for its definition:
• Level 0: Similarities up to 10%
• Level 1: Similarities above 10% to 40%
• Level 2: Similarities above 40% to 60%
• Level 3: Similarities above 60%
• ​Penalties
• Penalties in the cases of plagiarism shall be imposed on students pursuing studies at the level of Masters and Research programs and on researchers, faculty & staff of the HEI only after academic misconduct on the part of the individual has been established without doubt, when all avenues of appeal have been exhausted and the individual in question has been provided with enough opportunity to defend himself or herself fairly or transparently.
• Penalties in case of plagiarism in submission of thesis and dissertations
• The Institutional Academic Integrity Panel (IAIP) shall impose a penalty considering the severity of the Plagiarism.
• Level 0: Similarities up to 10% - Minor Similarities, no penalty.
• Level 1: Similarities above 10% to 40% - Such student shall be asked to submit a revised script within a stipulated time period not exceeding 6 months.
• Level 2: Similarities above 40% to 60% - Such student shall be debarred from submitting a revised script for a period of one year.
• Level 3: Similarities above 60% -Such student registration for that programme shall be cancelled.

The correct answer is - (B), (E), (A), (D), (C)

Key Points

Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) Themes in Order:

• Zero Hunger (Goal 2):
• Aims to end hunger, achieve food security, improve nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture.
• Targets include ensuring access to safe, nutritious, and sufficient food year-round.
• Quality Education (Goal 4):
• Seeks to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all.
• Key objectives include ensuring all girls and boys complete free, equitable, and quality primary and secondary education.
• Gender Equality (Goal 5):
• Aims to achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls.
• Focuses on ending all forms of discrimination against women and girls everywhere.
• Climate Action (Goal 13):
• Calls for urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts.
• Emphasizes integrating climate change measures into policies and planning.
• Peace and Justice (Goal 16):
• Promotes peaceful and inclusive societies, provides access to justice for all, and builds effective, accountable institutions.
• Key targets include significantly reducing all forms of violence and related death rates everywhere.

Additional Information

• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), adopted by the United Nations in 2015, consist of 17 goals designed to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all by 2030.
• Each goal has specific targets to be achieved over a 15-year period, unlike the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) that provided a blueprint for fighting poverty and hunger, diseases, literacy, and environmental degradation.
• The SDGs address global challenges, including those related to poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.
• Collaborative action by governments, international institutions, civil society, and the private sector is crucial for the successful achievement of these goals.

The correct answer is: (B), (D) and (E) Only

Key Points

• If the premises are true, then the conclusion must be true (B)
• This is a defining characteristic of a deductive argument.
• In a valid deductive argument, it is logically impossible for the premises to be true and the conclusion to be false.
• Therefore, if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.
• The conclusion follows necessarily from the premises (D)
• This means that the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion.
• In other words, the relationship between the premises and the conclusion is one of logical necessity.
• If the premises are accepted as true, the conclusion cannot be false.
• It is impossible for all the premises to be true and the conclusion false (E)
• This statement restates the concept of deductive validity.
• The premises, if true, provide complete and undeniable support for the conclusion.
• There is no scenario in which the premises are true and the conclusion is false in a valid deductive argument.

Additional Information

• Deductive Argument
• A form of reasoning where the truth of the premises is intended to provide definitive proof of the truth of the conclusion.
• Validity and soundness are key principles: a valid argument means the conclusion logically follows from the premises, and a sound argument means the argument is valid and the premises are true.
• Incorrect Statements:
• If the premises are true, then the conclusion is probably true (A):
• This statement characterizes inductive reasoning, not deductive reasoning.
• Inductive arguments provide probable support rather than certain support for their conclusions.
• It is unlikely for the premises to be true and the conclusion false (C):
• This statement implies a high probability but not the certainty required in deductive arguments.
• In deductive reasoning, the premise's truth makes the conclusion necessarily true, not just likely.
• Examples of Deductive Arguments:
• Example 1:
• Premise 1: All mammals are animals.
• Premise 2: All elephants are mammals.
• Conclusion: Therefore, all elephants are animals.
• Example 2:
• Premise 1: If it rains, then the ground will be wet.
• Premise 2: It is raining.
• Conclusion: Therefore, the ground is wet.

The correct answer is (D), (E) (A), (B) and (C).

Key Points

• Intrapersonal Communication (D)
• This type of communication occurs within an individual.
• It involves thoughts, self-reflection, and internal dialogue.
• It is the most basic and fundamental form of communication.
• Interpersonal Communication (E)
• This type of communication occurs between two individuals.
• It can be a one-on-one conversation, face-to-face or over a medium like the phone.
• It involves direct exchange of messages.
• Group Communication (A)
• This type of communication happens among members of a small group.
• It is used for decision-making, problem-solving, and discussion within a group setting.
• Examples include meetings, team discussions, and group projects.
• Public Communication (B)
• This type of communication involves one person communicating with a large audience.
• The speaker addresses an audience directly, often in a formal or structured setting.
• Examples include public speeches, presentations, and conferences.
• Mass Communication (C)
• This type of communication involves transmitting messages to a large, widespread audience.
• It is typically mediated through various forms of media such as television, radio, newspapers, and the internet.
• Mass communication aims to inform, entertain, or persuade a large population simultaneously.

The correct answer is - (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Key Points

• Nominal (A) - (II) Marital status:
• Nominal variables are categories without a specific order.
• Examples include gender, race, and marital status.
• Marital status categories could be single, married, divorced, etc.
• Ordinal (B) - (III) Movie ratings:
• Ordinal variables represent ordered categories.
• They show relative rankings but not the magnitude of difference.
• Movie ratings (e.g., 1 star to 5 stars) indicate a ranking system.
• Interval (C) - (IV) Location of places in Latitude degrees:
• Interval variables have order and consistent intervals but no true zero point.
• Examples include temperature in Celsius or Fahrenheit and calendar years.
• Location of places in Latitude degrees can have negative and positive values but not a natural zero.
• Ratio (D) - (I) Distance:
• Ratio variables have order, consistent intervals, and an absolute zero.
• Examples include height, weight, and distance.
• Distance measurements have a meaningful zero point and can compare absolute magnitudes.

Additional Information

• Understanding the types of variables is crucial for selecting the appropriate statistical analysis.
• Nominal and ordinal variables are often analyzed using non-parametric statistics.
• Interval and ratio variables allow for more complex analyses, such as correlation and regression.
• An interval scale allows for the measurement of the degree of difference between items, while a ratio scale allows for the measurement of the actual amount between items.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The organizational workshops mentioned in the passage are specifically described as "archaeological workshops."
• These workshops aim to create awareness about the State's built heritage.
• The focus is on educating people about historical and architecturally significant structures within the state.
• Thus, it is clear that the primary intention behind these workshops is to foster an understanding and appreciation of the built heritage of Jharkhand.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• "Arts and Crafts" are promoted through state festivals, not archaeological workshops.
• "Bamboo and woodcraft" are enriched by the State Government's initiatives but are separate from the context of the archaeological workshops.
• "Games and sports" achievements are mentioned as separate field where the state has gained national recognition and are not related to the purpose of the workshops.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that Ranchi was once considered to be a hub of quality education.
• It specifically states that Ranchi is regaining its reputation in the field of education.
• This indicates that Ranchi had a historical significance as an educational center.
• The other cities mentioned in the options do not have any reference to being educational hubs in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• "Deoghar" is known for the Baba Baidyanath Temple, not as a hub of education.
• "Jamshedpur" is an industrial city and is not mentioned in the context of education in the passage.
• "Koderma" is not mentioned in the passage and has no reference in the context of education.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage specifically mentions that Jharkhand has earned national recognition in the field of sports.
• It highlights that Jharkhand's sports achievements are particularly notable in hockey, archery, and cricket.
• These three sports are recognized at both the national and international levels.
• The other options include sports that are not mentioned in the passage, such as football, shooting, or croquet.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• "Cricket, archery and shooting" is incorrect as shooting is not mentioned in the passage.
• "Croquet, cricket and archery" is incorrect as croquet is not mentioned in the passage.
• "Cricket, football and hockey" is incorrect as football is not mentioned in the passage.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that Jharkhand has become a favourite destination for visitors due to its natural endowments.
• The specific places mentioned, such as Baba Baidyanath Temple, Suraj Kund, Maithon Dam, and Noori Masjid, are natural or cultural attractions.
• Although the State Government is committed to enriching bamboo and wood crafts, and stone carving activities, these are not highlighted as the primary reason for attracting tourists.
• The passage does not mention mineral wealth or central location as reasons for Jharkhand being a favorite destination for visitors from India and abroad.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• "Stone carving activities" are mentioned as a cultural enrichment effort but not as the main attraction for visitors.
• "Mineral wealth" is not discussed in the passage as a reason for tourism.
• "Central location" is not mentioned in the passage as a reason for Jharkhand being a favorite tourist destination.

The correct answer is: Rock Painting.

Key Points

• The passage clearly mentions the State Government's commitment to enriching specific crafts and arts.
• The activities explicitly noted for enrichment are bamboo and wood crafts, tribal paintings, and stone carving.
• The State is working to promote the traditional crafts of the local people, which includes bamboo and woodcraft and tribal paintings.
• Though not directly related to enrichment in the arts and crafts context, the workshops help create awareness about built heritage.
• These festivals support the arts and crafts of the local people, further promoting the specified crafts.
• The term 'rock painting' is not included in the listed activities supported for enrichment in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

• Identified as a focus area for the state's enrichment initiatives.
• Mentioned specifically as an art form to be enriched.
• Also mentioned explicitly as an activity receiving support.