UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 23rd August 2024 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Population of City-C in Age > 60 = 24000

Population of City-D in Age > 60 = 24000

Percentage of Age > 60 in City-C = 15%

Percentage of Age > 60 in City-D = 20%

Formula used:

Total Population = \(\dfrac{\text{Population in Age Group}}{\text{Percentage of Age Group}}\)

Calculation:

For City-C:

⇒ Total Population of City-C = \(\dfrac{24000}{15/100}\)

⇒ Total Population of City-C = 24000 × 100 / 15

⇒ Total Population of City-C = 160000

For City-D:

⇒ Total Population of City-D = \(\dfrac{24000}{20/100}\)

⇒ Total Population of City-D = 24000 × 100 / 20

⇒ Total Population of City-D = 120000

Therefore, the sum of the total population of City-C and City-D = 160000 + 120000 = 280000 = 2.8 lakh

Given:

Population of City-A in Age (19 - 35] = 31680

Percentage of Age (19 - 35] in City-A = 24%

Percentage of Age > 60 in City-A = 16%

Formula used:

Total Population = \(\dfrac{\text{Population in Age Group}}{\text{Percentage of Age Group}}\)

Population in Age > 60 = \(\text{Total Population} \times \dfrac{\text{Percentage of Age > 60}}{100}\)

Calculation:

Total Population of City-A:

⇒ Total Population of City-A = \(\dfrac{31680}{24/100}\)

⇒ Total Population of City-A = 31680 × 100 / 24

⇒ Total Population of City-A = 132000

For Age > 60:

⇒ Population in Age > 60 = 132000 × 16 / 100

⇒ Population in Age > 60 = 21120

Therefore, the number of people in the age group of more than 60 years is 21120.

Given:

Population of City-A in Age (19 - 35] = 17280

Population of City-B in Age (19 - 35] = 21120

Percentage of Age (19 - 35] in City-A = 24%

Percentage of Age (19 - 35] in City-B = 22%

Formula used:

Total Population = \(\dfrac{\text{Population in Age Group}}{\text{Percentage of Age Group}}\)

Ratio = \(\dfrac{\text{Total Population of City-A}}{\text{Total Population of City-B}}\)

Calculation:

Total Population of City-A:

⇒ Total Population of City-A = \(\dfrac{17280}{24/100}\)

⇒ Total Population of City-A = 17280 × 100 / 24

⇒ Total Population of City-A = 72000

Total Population of City-B:

⇒ Total Population of City-B = \(\dfrac{21120}{22/100}\)

⇒ Total Population of City-B = 21120 × 100 / 22

⇒ Total Population of City-B = 96000

Ratio of Total Population of City-A to City-B:

⇒ Ratio = 72000 / 96000

⇒ Ratio = 3:4

Therefore, the ratio of the total population of City-A to City-B is 3:4.

Given:

Population of City-E in Age (0 - 13] = 16200

Percentage of Age (13 - 19] in City-E = 15%

Formula used:

Total Population = \(\dfrac{\text{Population in Age Group}}{\text{Percentage of Age Group}}\)

Percentage of Age (0 - 13] = \(\dfrac{\text{Population in Age Group (0 - 13]}}{\text{Population in Age Group (13 - 19]}} \times 100\)

Calculation:

Total Population of City-E:

⇒ Total Population of City-E = \(\dfrac{16200}{18/100}\)

⇒ Total Population of City-E = 16200 × 100 / 18

⇒ Total Population of City-E = 90000

Population in Age (13 - 19] of City-E:

⇒ Population in Age (13 - 19] = 90000 × 15 / 100

⇒ Population in Age (13 - 19] = 13500

Percentage of Age (0 - 13] relative to Age (13 - 19]:

⇒ Percentage = (16200 / 13500) × 100

⇒ Percentage = 120%

Therefore, the population in the age group of (0 - 13] years is 120% of the population in the age group of (13 - 19] years of City-E.

Given:

Total Population of City-B = 96000

Total Population of City-E = 130000

Percentage of Age (0 - 13] in City-B = 16%

Percentage of Age (0 - 13] in City-E = 18%

Formula used:

Population in Age Group = \(\text{Total Population} \times \dfrac{\text{Percentage of Age Group}}{100}\)

Percentage more = \(\dfrac{\text{Population of City-E - Population of City-B}}{\text{Population of City-B}} \times 100\)

Calculation:

Population of City-B in Age (0 - 13]:

⇒ Population of City-B = 96000 × 16 / 100

⇒ Population of City-B = 15360

Population of City-E in Age (0 - 13]:

⇒ Population of City-E = 130000 × 18 / 100

⇒ Population of City-E = 23400

Percentage more:

⇒ Percentage more = (23400 - 15360) / 15360 × 100

⇒ Percentage more = 8040 / 15360 × 100

⇒ Percentage more ≈ 52.34%

Therefore, the population of City-E in the age group of (0 - 13] years is approximately 52.34% more than the population of City-B in the same age group.

The correct answer is -  It's a non-argument, it's an Explanation

Key Points

• An explanation provides reasons for why something happened or is the case.
• In the statement "I ate because I was hungry," the phrase "because I was hungry" gives the reason for the action "I ate."
• Explanations aim to make an event or fact understandable by providing context or reasons behind it.
• An argument, on the other hand, aims to persuade or provide evidence to support a conclusion.
• The structure of the given statement does not involve premises leading to a conclusion but rather a cause (hunger) leading to an effect (eating).

Additional Information

• Understanding the difference between an argument and an explanation helps in properly analyzing statements and their purposes.
• An argument requires a supportive structure with premises and a conclusion, while an explanation provides clarity on why or how something occurred.
• In our daily interactions, recognizing explanations helps in understanding the reasons behind actions, such as eating in response to hunger.

The correct answer is - D, E, A and B Only.

Key Points

• National Solar Mission:
• This mission was launched to promote the development and use of solar energy for power generation and other uses, aiming to increase the share of solar energy in the total energy mix.
• It is part of the National Action Plan for Climate Change (NAPCC).
• National Water Mission:
• The goal of this mission is to conserve water, minimize wastage, and ensure the integrated development and management of water resources.
• This mission comes under the NAPCC.
• National Green Hydrogen Mission:
• Although it is focused on promoting green hydrogen, it is not currently a part of the National Action Plan for Climate Change (NAPCC).
• National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture:
• This mission aims to enhance agricultural productivity, especially in rainfed areas focusing on integrated farming, water use efficiency, soil health management, and synergizing resource conservation.
• It is a part of the NAPCC.
• National Mission on Sustainable Habitat:
• This mission promotes energy efficiency in buildings, urban planning, and improved management of solid and liquid waste.
• It also comes under the NAPCC.

Additional Information

• The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched by the Government of India in 2008 to address the country's countermeasures to climate change.
• It comprises eight missions:
• National Solar Mission
• National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
• National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
• National Water Mission
• National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
• National Mission for a Green India
• National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
• National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

Hence, statement 4 (D, E, A and B Only) is correct.

The correct answer is -  A, B and D Only.

Key Points

• Statement A: Data files of customers stored on the cloud can be accessed at any time from any device anywhere in the world provided internet access is available.
• This is a key advantage of cloud storage as it allows for accessibility and convenience.
• Users can access their data from any location with an internet connection.
• Statement B: There is no need for customers to carry an external storage device with them or use the same computer to store and retrieve information.
• This is another significant benefit of cloud storage.
• Users do not need to rely on physical storage devices, which can be cumbersome and prone to loss or damage.
• Statement C: If the computers have slow internet connection, then they would not face any problems accessing or downloading their data files.
• This statement is incorrect.
• Slow internet connections can significantly affect the ability to quickly access or download data from the cloud, making this a potential disadvantage.
• Statement D: Cloud storage is typically delivered by a cloud service provider.
• This is true.
• Cloud storage services are provided by various providers, such as Amazon Web Services (AWS), Google Cloud, Microsoft Azure, and others.

Additional Information

• Cloud storage provides benefits such as scalability, cost-efficiency, data protection, and disaster recovery. However, reliance on a stable and high-speed internet connection is crucial for the optimal use of cloud services.
• Common cloud storage providers offer different services and plans tailored to various needs, including personal, business, and enterprise-level storage solutions.

The incorrect claim in the context of Vyapti is - For Cārvakās, it is possible to ascertain that smoke is invariably and universally attended with fire all the time

Key Points

• Vyapti:
• Vyapti refers to the invariable concomitance or universal correlation between the hetu (middle term) and the sadhya (major term) in Indian logic.
• It is a crucial concept for establishing inferential reasoning.
• Cārvakās:
• The Cārvakās, also known as Lokāyatas, are a school of Indian philosophy that advocates a materialistic and atheistic worldview.
• They deny the validity of inference (anumana) and, consequently, the concept of Vyapti.
• Thus, claiming that Cārvakās believe in the ascertainment of an invariable relation (Vyapti) between smoke and fire is incorrect, as they do not accept the validity of such inferential knowledge.
• Buddhists:
• Buddhists accept the concept of Vyapti and maintain that the universal relation between smoke and fire can be ascertained without examining all possible cases.
• They advocate the use of logical reasoning to establish the concomitance between terms.
• Vedāntins:
• The Vedāntins accept Vyapti and believe that it is derived from the co-existence of hetu (smoke) and sadhya (fire) and from the fact that smoke is never known not to accompany fire.
• This is a realistic view of universal relations.
• Naiyayikas:
• The Naiyayikas argue that it is neither easy nor necessary to ascertain any relation of causality or identity between two phenomena for the formation of a universal proposition.
• They emphasize the necessity of observational evidence to confirm Vyapti.

Additional Information

• The different schools of Indian philosophy have unique approaches and criteria for establishing Vyapti, reflecting their broader epistemological and metaphysical commitments.
• Understanding these differences is crucial for comprehending the nuances of Indian logical and philosophical traditions.

The correct answer is - Highly selective admission to colleges

Key Points

• Highly selective admission to colleges
• The Sargeant Plan, officially known as the Sargent Report, was a post-World War II educational reform proposal in India.
• One of its major criticisms was the plan's recommendation for highly selective admissions to higher education institutions.
• This selectivity aimed to maintain a high standard of education but resulted in limited access for many potential students.
• The plan's emphasis on selectivity was seen as a barrier to achieving widespread educational inclusion.

Additional Information

• Integration of education with economic institutions
• This concept involves aligning educational programs with the needs of economic sectors to ensure that students acquire relevant skills for the job market.
• While important, this was not the primary focus of criticism for the Sargeant Plan.
• Emphasis on social sector
• The Sargeant Plan did highlight the importance of social sectors like health and education, but this emphasis was generally seen as a positive aspect of the plan.
• Too much importance to technical education
• Technical education is crucial for the development of skilled labor, but the Sargeant Plan did not face major criticism for overemphasizing this area.

The correct answer is - Calcium and Magnesium ions

Key Points

• Groundwater and Hardness:
• Groundwater refers to the water found beneath the Earth's surface, stored in the cracks and spaces in soil, sand, and rock. Groundwater is a major source of drinking water.
• Water hardness is caused by the presence of dissolved minerals, primarily calcium (Ca²⁺) and magnesium (Mg²⁺) ions.
• Calcium Ions (Ca²⁺):
• Calcium ions are commonly found in groundwater as it percolates through limestone, gypsum, and other calcium-containing minerals.
• Calcium contributes significantly to water hardness, leading to scale formation in pipes and boilers, soap scum, and reduced effectiveness of detergents.
• Magnesium Ions (Mg²⁺):
• Magnesium ions often originate from the weathering of rocks such as dolomite and magnesium-rich minerals.
• Similar to calcium, magnesium also contributes to the hardness of water and shares many of the same deposition and scaling issues.
• Distinction from Other Ions:
• Sodium ions (Na⁺) and potassium ions (K⁺), while present in water, do not contribute to hardness. They do not cause the same scaling issues as calcium and magnesium.
• Hence, combinations involving sodium or potassium (like Options 1, 3, and 4) do not account for the primary cause of water hardness.

Additional Information

• Hard Water:
• Hard water affects soap and detergent performance, leading to more soap being used to achieve the desired lather and cleaning effect.
• Scale buildup from hard water can reduce the efficiency of water heaters, leading to higher energy costs.
• Hard water can cause mineral deposits on dishes, glassware, and fixtures, leaving unsightly spots and residues.
• In industrial settings, hard water can lead to significant maintenance issues and reduce the lifespan of machinery, pipes, and boilers.
• Hard water is not harmful to health. In fact, the minerals in hard water can contribute to dietary calcium and magnesium intake.
• Water softening processes, such as ion exchange or reverse osmosis, are commonly used to address water hardness.
• Measures to treat hard water include the use of water softeners that replace calcium and magnesium ions with sodium or potassium ions, thus reducing hardness.

The correct answer is - Education Commission (1964-66)

Key Points

• Education Commission (1964-66)
• Also known as the Kothari Commission, it was established to overhaul the Indian education system.
• The commission recommended linking universities with external autonomous research organizations to promote advanced research and innovation.
• The goal was to foster collaboration between academic institutions and research bodies to enhance the quality and relevance of higher education.
• Its recommendations led to significant reforms in the Indian educational landscape.

Additional Information

• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
• ICMR is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
• Its primary focus is on medical research and public health issues.
• Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
• ICAR is responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India.
• It aims to promote sustainable agriculture and improve the productivity and quality of agricultural resources.
• Calcutta University Commission
• Also known as the Sadler Commission, it was appointed in 1917 to study and recommend reforms for the University of Calcutta.
• Its focus was primarily on higher education reforms within the university and did not emphasize linkages with external research organizations.

The correct answer is: D, B, C, A

Key Points

Coefficient of Variation (CV):

• Definition:
• The coefficient of variation (CV) is a statistical measure of the relative variability or dispersion of data points in a data series around the mean.
• It is defined as the ratio of the standard deviation (σ) to the mean (x̅), expressed as a percentage. The formula is CV = (σ / x̅) × 100%.
• Purpose:
• CV is used to compare the degree of variation between data sets with different units or widely different means.
• It is particularly useful when comparing the relative risk or volatility between investments, populations, or experimental results.
• Calculation of CV for Each Dataset:
• Dataset A: x̅ = 14, σ = 2.8
• CV_A = (2.8 / 14) × 100% = 20%
• Dataset B: x̅ = 9, σ = 1.5
• CV_B = (1.5 / 9) × 100% = 16.67%
• Dataset C: x̅ = 12, σ = 2.1
• CV_C = (2.1 / 12) × 100% = 17.5%
• Dataset D: x̅ = 8, σ = 1.2
• CV_D = (1.2 / 8) × 100% = 15%

Additional Information

• Implications of CV:
• A lower CV signifies less relative variability, indicating that the data points are closer to the mean, thus implying higher consistency or lower risk.
• A higher CV indicates greater relative variability, signifying that the data points are more spread out, which implies higher inconsistency or greater risk.
• Application of CV:
• In finance, a lower CV can imply a more stable investment, while a higher CV may indicate higher volatility and risk.
• In quality control and research, lower CV values can indicate consistent and reliable experimental outcomes or product quality.
• In environmental studies, comparing the CV of pollutant concentrations across different regions can help identify areas with higher variability and potential risk.

The correct answer is - Goa

Key Points

• Historical Context:
• The first printing press in India was established in 1556.
• It was brought to India by the Portuguese, who were the first European colonizers in the region.
• Location:
• The press was set up in Goa, which was then a Portuguese colony.
• Goa became a significant center for missionary activities and the spread of Christianity, necessitating the need for printed materials.
• Significance:
• The printing press played a crucial role in the dissemination of knowledge and religious texts.
• It contributed to the cultural and educational development of the region.

Additional Information

• The printing press is a device used to apply pressure to an inked surface resting upon a print medium (such as paper or cloth), thereby transferring the ink.
• It revolutionized the way information was disseminated, paving the way for the mass production of books and the wider spread of literacy.
• Johannes Gutenberg is credited with the invention of the movable type printing press around 1440 in Europe, which greatly influenced the development of the modern printing press in other parts of the world, including India.
• The introduction of the printing press in India marked a significant milestone in the country's educational and cultural history.

The correct answer is - Dehoaxing.

Key Points

• Dehoaxing:
• Dehoaxing refers to the process of revealing any deception or ruses used in a research study to the participants.
• This is an important ethical practice to ensure that participants understand the full scope of the study and the reasons behind the deception.
• It helps maintain trust between researchers and participants and ensures the integrity of the research process.

Additional Information

• Active deception:
• Active deception involves deliberately misleading participants by providing them with false information.
• This technique is sometimes used in psychological research to study behavior in specific situations.
• Passive deception:
• Passive deception occurs when information is withheld from participants, rather than providing false information.
• It is used to prevent participants from altering their natural responses due to knowledge of the study's true purpose.
• Desensitization:
• Desensitization refers to the process of reducing sensitivity to certain stimuli or situations, often through repeated exposure.
• It is a concept more commonly applied in areas like therapy and conditioning, rather than the ethical practice in research studies.

The correct answer is -  Transferability.

Key Points

• Transferability:
• Transferability refers to the extent to which qualitative research findings can be transferred to other contexts or settings.
• It is the qualitative equivalent of external validity in quantitative research.
• Researchers provide detailed descriptions of the context, enabling others to determine if the findings can be applied to different situations.

Additional Information

• Credibility:
• Credibility relates to the confidence in the truth of the research findings.
• It is achieved through techniques like member checking, triangulation, and prolonged engagement.
• Internal validity:
• Internal validity is primarily a concern in quantitative research and refers to the extent to which a study establishes a trustworthy cause-and-effect relationship.
• It does not typically apply to qualitative research, where the focus is on understanding phenomena in-depth.
• Confirmability:
• Confirmability refers to the degree to which the findings of a study are shaped by the participants and not researcher bias, motivation, or interest.
• It is analogous to objectivity in quantitative research and can be achieved through practices like audit trails and reflexivity.

The correct answer is - 'A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II'.

Key Points

• Nominal - Blood Group
• The nominal type of variable is used for categorizing data without any order or priority.
• Examples include categories like blood groups (A, B, AB, O), gender, and colors.
• There is no intrinsic ranking between these categories; they are just different groups.
• Ordinal - Happiness Level
• Ordinal variables represent categories with a meaningful order, but the intervals between the entries are not necessarily consistent.
• Examples include happiness levels (happy, neutral, unhappy), educational grades (A, B, C), and rankings in a competition.
• It allows for rank ordering, but the difference between ranks might not be equal.
• Interval - Year of Birth
• Interval variables have ordered categories with equal intervals between values, but they do not have a true zero point.
• Examples include temperature in Celsius or Fahrenheit and dates (years, months).
• In this case, the year of birth is an interval variable since the differences are meaningful, but there is no true zero year.
• Ratio - Height
• Ratio variables have all the properties of interval variables, plus they have a true zero point, which allows for the calculation of ratios.
• Examples include height, weight, time, and distance.
• Height is a ratio variable because it has a meaningful zero point (no height) and allows for comparisons like twice as tall.

Additional Information

Understanding the different types of variables is crucial in research design and data analysis as it dictates the type of statistical tests to be used and how data should be interpreted.

• Nominal variables are analyzed using counts and percentages.
• Ordinal variables might use median and mode values, along with non-parametric tests.
• Interval and Ratio variables are suitable for a wide range of statistical analyses, including means and standard deviations, parametric tests, and correlation and regression analyses.

The correct answer is - (E6B)₁₆

Key Points

• Base-16 (Hexadecimal) Number System
• Hexadecimal (base-16) uses digits 0-9 and letters A-F to represent values.
• Each hexadecimal digit represents a power of 16.
• For instance, the number (4AC)₁₆ can be broken down as 4*(16^2) + A*(16^1) + C*(16^0).
• Here, A stands for 10 and C stands for 12 in decimal.
• Conversion and Addition
• Convert (4AC)₁₆ and (9BF)₁₆ to decimal for easy addition:
• (4AC)₁₆ = 4*(16^2) + 10*(16^1) + 12*(16^0) = 4256 + 1016 + 12 = 1024 + 160 + 12 = 1196
• (9BF)₁₆ = 9*(16^2) + 11*(16^1) + 15*(16^0) = 9256 + 1116 + 15 = 2304 + 176 + 15 = 2495
• Add the decimal equivalents: 1196 + 2495 = 3691
• Convert the sum back to hexadecimal:
• 3691 in hexadecimal is E6B.

Additional Information

• Base-16 (Hexadecimal) Arithmetic
• When adding hexadecimal numbers directly, it’s crucial to remember the carry-over rules, similar to decimal addition but with base 16.
• Example: Adding A (10) and C (12) gives a total of 22 in decimal, which equals 16 + 6 in base-16, resulting in a carry of 1 and a sum of 6.
• Other Options
• (A7BF)₁₆, (CFC)₁₆, and (D68)₁₆ are not the correct sums of (4AC)₁₆ and (9BF)₁₆.
• These options represent different hexadecimal values when converted back to decimal, which do not match the sum of 3691.

The correct answer is - A, B and D Only

Key Points

• A. It is a software system used for automated scoring
• Artificial Intelligence (AI) systems are widely used for automated scoring in educational settings.
• They can efficiently grade large volumes of student responses, saving time and reducing the workload for instructors.
• B. 'AI' technique is applied to learn how an instructor grades a problem/response
• AI can be trained using machine learning techniques to understand the grading patterns of instructors.
• This involves analyzing the criteria and standards used by instructors to assign grades, enabling the AI system to replicate this process.
• D. The instructor evaluates a sample set of students responses and 'AI' system creates a computer model incorporating rules inferred
• Instructors provide a sample set of graded responses, which the AI system uses to develop a model of the grading criteria.
• This model incorporates the inferred rules and patterns from the instructor's grading, allowing the AI to grade new responses consistently.

Additional Information

• Understanding the role of AI in education
• AI in education goes beyond grading and scoring; it includes personalized learning, predictive analytics, and adaptive learning environments.
• AI can help identify students' strengths and weaknesses, providing targeted support to improve learning outcomes.
• Limitations of AI in education
• While AI can automate many tasks, it is not infallible and requires continuous monitoring and updates to ensure accuracy.
• AI systems may lack the nuanced understanding of context that human instructors possess, potentially leading to errors in judgment.
• Ethical considerations
• The use of AI in education raises ethical questions about data privacy, bias, and the transparency of AI decision-making processes.
• It is crucial to ensure that AI systems are designed and used in a way that is fair, , and respects the privacy of students.

The correct answer is - 2) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Key Points

• A. High Sensation Seeker - III. Gets involved in new challenging activities
• High sensation seekers are individuals who are attracted to novel and intense experiences.
• They thrive on new challenges and often seek out activities that stimulate their senses and emotions.
• B. Goal-Oriented Achievers - IV. One who sets learning goals which are generally hard and specific and has confidence to achieve the goals
• Goal-oriented achievers are highly focused on setting and accomplishing specific, often challenging, goals.
• They possess the determination and self-confidence to achieve their targets.
• C. Emotionally Intelligent Achiever - II. Learns from their mistakes, possess a scientific, detached and autonomous learning style, processes information in an emotionally intelligent manner
• These achievers are adept at managing their emotions and learning from past experiences.
• They approach learning with a balanced and rational mindset, integrating emotional intelligence into their learning process.
• D. Conscientious Achiever - I. Responsible, rational learners, endowed with an urge to explore the world so that positive goals can be achieved
• Conscientious achievers are characterized by their responsibility and rationality.
• They are motivated by a desire to achieve positive outcomes through disciplined and thoughtful exploration.

Additional Information

• High Sensation Seekers
• Often engage in risk-taking behaviors and seek out thrilling activities.
• They are driven by a need for varied, novel, and complex sensations and experiences.
• Goal-Oriented Achievers
• These individuals are highly organized and strategic in their approach to achieving goals.
• They often set SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound) goals.
• Emotionally Intelligent Achievers
• Possess high emotional intelligence (EQ), which involves self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills.
• They use their emotional insights to navigate complex situations effectively.
• Conscientious Achievers
• Characterized by a strong sense of duty and responsibility.
• They are diligent, organized, and reliable, often leading to consistent achievement of their goals.

The correct answer is - A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

Key Points

• e-ShodhSindhu
• Purpose: Subscription-based scholarly information (e-books and e-journals) at lower rates.
• This initiative aims to provide access to quality electronic resources to academic institutions at lower costs.
• It helps in enhancing the research and academic environment in India.
• This initiative merges three consortia: UGC-INFONET Digital Library Consortium, INDEST-AICTE Consortium, and NLIST.
• Provides access to more than 15,000 core and peer-reviewed journals and several bibliographic databases.
• e-Yantra
• Purpose: Robotics outreach project run by IIT, Mumbai.
• It focuses on the educational use of robotics and aims to provide hands-on learning experiences.
• The project encourages students to develop skills in robotics and embedded systems.
• Sponsored by the Ministry of Education under the National Mission on Education through ICT (NMEICT).
• It includes initiatives like competitions, workshops, and setting up e-Yantra labs in colleges.
• e-Vidwan
• Purpose: Expert database and National Researcher’s Network.
• It serves as a platform for researchers and experts to share their knowledge and collaborate.
• The database helps in networking and finding subject experts in various fields.
• Managed by the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre.
• It is a comprehensive database for profiles of scientists, researchers, and other faculty members working at leading academic institutions and other R&D organizations involved in teaching and research in India.
• e-Kalpa
• Purpose: Digital-learning environment for design.
• The initiative aims to create a digital learning space for design education.
• It provides resources and tools for design students and professionals.
• Part of the National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT).
• Developed by the Department of Design at IIT Guwahati.
• Provides digital resources for learning and teaching design.

The correct answer is - A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Key Points

• Academic Year
• Description: Two consecutive (one odd and one even) semesters.
• Explanation: An academic year typically consists of two semesters, one occurring in the fall (odd) and the other in the spring (even). This period is used to measure the duration of an educational program.
• Credit Point
• Description: The product of grade point and number of credits for a course.
• Explanation: Credit points are calculated by multiplying the grade point earned in a course by the number of credits assigned to that course. It reflects the student's performance and course load.
• Credit
• Description: A unit by which the course work is measured. It defines the number of hours of instruction required per week.
• Explanation: Credits quantify the amount of work required in a course, typically measured in hours per week. This helps in standardizing the workload across different courses and programs.
• Course
• Description: Papers taught under the programme duly defining the learning objectives and outcomes.
• Explanation: A course is a unit of teaching that includes specific subjects, learning objectives, and outcomes. It is a part of the curriculum designed to impart knowledge and skills in a particular area.

The correct answer is - A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Key Points

• Mass media
• Mass media refers to the various platforms and technologies used to communicate information to a large audience.
• Examples include radio, television, newspapers, and the internet.
• FM - Radio Mirchee
• FM stands for Frequency Modulation, a method of radio broadcasting.
• Radio Mirchee is a popular FM radio station in India.
• Newspaper - The Tribune
• Newspapers are printed publications containing news, articles, advertisements, and other information.
• The Tribune is a major English-language daily newspaper in India.
• TV Channel - CNBC
• TV channels broadcast television programs, news, and other content.
• CNBC is a well-known business news television channel.
• Internet - Rediff.com
• The internet is a global network providing a variety of information and communication facilities.
• Rediff.com is a popular Indian news, information, entertainment, and shopping web portal.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options
• Option 1: A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
• This option incorrectly matches "Newspaper" with "Rediff.com" and "TV Channel" with "The Tribune".
• Option 3: A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
• This option incorrectly matches "FM" with "The Tribune" and "Newspaper" with "Rediff.com".
• Option 4: A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
• This option incorrectly matches "FM" with "Rediff.com" and "TV Channel" with "Radio Mirchee".

The correct answer is - A and D Only

Key Points

• Recitation and Memorization
• These techniques focus on rote learning where students memorize information without necessarily understanding it deeply.
• They lack interactive elements and do not make use of modern educational technology.
• Such methods are often criticized for not fostering critical thinking or problem-solving skills.
• Chalk and Talk Method
• This is a traditional teaching method where the teacher uses a chalkboard to present information while talking to the class.
• It involves one-way communication and does not incorporate interactive or digital tools.
• While effective for certain subjects, it is often considered outdated in the context of modern, technology-enhanced learning environments.

Additional Information

• Flipped Classroom
• In this modern teaching method, students are introduced to learning material before class, and classroom time is used to deepen understanding through discussion and problem-solving activities.
• It leverages ICT tools such as video lectures and online resources.
• Mind Maps
• Mind maps are visual tools that help in organizing information and ideas in a structured manner, often using software.
• They support critical thinking, brainstorming, and better retention of information.
• Gamification
• This technique applies game-design elements in non-game contexts, such as education, to engage and motivate students.
• It often involves digital tools and platforms to create interactive learning experiences.

The correct answer is - Hasty Generalization.

Key Points

• Hasty Generalization:
• This fallacy occurs when a conclusion is drawn from an insufficient or unrepresentative sample.
• In the statement, the speaker concludes that all Ford cars are faulty based on their experience with just two cars.
• It involves making a broad generalization without adequate evidence.

Additional Information

• Inappropriate Appeal to Authority:
• This fallacy occurs when someone argues that a claim is true simply because an authority figure believes it is true, without any supporting evidence.
• Example: "A famous actor says this diet works, so it must be true." This is irrelevant to the reliability of Ford cars.
• Hence, this is incorrect because the statement does not rely on an authority figure’s opinion.
• False Alternative:
• This fallacy presents limited options as the only possibilities when more options exist.
• Example: "You are either with us or against us." It forces a choice between two extremes.
• Hence, this is incorrect because the statement is not about presenting limited options.

The correct answer is - 5.5

Key Points

• National Credit Framework (NCrF)
• The National Credit Framework (NCrF) is a unified system that integrates credits earned through various means of education and training, including formal, non-formal, and informal learning.
• This framework ensures that the credits earned at different stages of education can be accumulated and transferred, promoting lifelong learning and skill development.
• It aims to create an inclusive and holistic approach to education, recognizing diverse forms of learning and skill acquisition.
• Credit Levels
• In the NCrF, credits are assigned based on the learning outcomes and competencies achieved by an individual.
• These credits are a measure of the time and effort invested in learning, as well as the skills and knowledge acquired.
• For a Bachelor's degree (three years of undergraduate program), the credit level earned is specified as 5.5.

Additional Information

• Credit Level 7
• This level typically represents advanced postgraduate education, such as a Master's degree or equivalent.
• It indicates a higher level of expertise and specialization in a particular field.
• Credit Level 6.5
• This credit level might be associated with integrated master's programs or certain postgraduate certifications that require additional study beyond a bachelor's degree.
• Credit Level 5
• This level might represent the credit earned for completing certain professional or vocational courses that are shorter than a full undergraduate program.

The correct answer is - A, B and D Only

Key Points

• Self Interest
• Refers to the listener's personal motivation or reason for listening.
• Increased self-interest can lead to better focus and retention of information.
• Speaker
• The individual delivering the message or information.
• Effective communication by the speaker can significantly enhance the listening experience.
• Style of Speaking
• Refers to the manner in which the speaker conveys the message, including tone, pace, and clarity.
• A clear and engaging style of speaking can make it easier for listeners to understand and retain information.

Additional Information

• Facts
• Refers to the actual data or information being presented.
• While important, facts alone do not encompass the full scope of effective listening factors.
• Atmosphere
• Refers to the environment or setting in which listening takes place.
• A conducive atmosphere can aid in effective listening, but it is not as central as self-interest, the speaker, and the style of speaking.

The correct answer is - Speed

Key Points

• Speed
• Speed is not a type of transition effect in Microsoft PowerPoint.
• Microsoft PowerPoint categorizes its transition effects into three primary categories: Subtle, Exciting, and Dynamic Content.
• Each category offers a range of transitions designed to enhance presentations visually.

Additional Information

• Subtle
• Subtle transitions are simple and professional, designed for minimal distraction.
• Examples include Fade, Push, and Wipe.
• Exciting
• Exciting transitions are more dynamic and attention-grabbing.
• Examples include Blinds, Checkerboard, and Flash.
• Dynamic Content
• Dynamic Content transitions are specifically designed to move content in a dynamic way.
• Examples include Pan and Zoom, which are useful for photo albums or detailed content.

The correct answer is: - A, D, B, C

Key Points

Chronological Order of Launch of Flagship Programmes:

• Naya Savera - Free Coaching and Allied Scheme (A):
• Launched in 2006.
• Provides free coaching to students from minority communities for competitive exams.
• Aims to enhance employability and academic performance of minority community students.
• Maulana Azad National Fellowship (D):
• Launched in 2009.
• Aimed at providing financial assistance to students belonging to minority communities to pursue higher education such as M.Phil and Ph.D.
• Implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs and UGC.
• USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) (B):
• Launched in 2015.
• Aims to preserve and promote the rich heritage of traditional arts and crafts of minority communities.
• Provides training and skill development to artisans to enhance their competitiveness in the market.
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (C):
• Launched in 2018, evolved from the Multi-sectoral Development Programme (MsDP) started in 2008.
• Focuses on the development of minority concentration areas through education, skill development, and infrastructure.
• Aims to ensure inclusive growth and development of minority communities.

Additional Information

• Naya Savera provides those from economically disadvantaged minority communities equal opportunities for competitive exam preparations, reducing financial constraints.
• The Maulana Azad National Fellowship is a significant initiative promoting higher education among minority students, helping them pursue advanced studies.
• USTTAD not only aims at skill development but also involves marketing support, helping artisans reach a broader audience and improve their livelihood.
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram also addresses social infrastructure gaps, ensuring that minority communities have better access to facilities like schools and health centers.
• These schemes collectively work towards the socio-economic empowerment of minority communities, integrating them into the broader national progress.

The correct answer is - D, E, A, C, B

Key Points

• California Smog (D)
• The first major smog event in California, specifically in Los Angeles, occurred in the 1940s.
• It was one of the earliest major air pollution crises in the United States, leading to significant public health concerns and environmental regulations.
• London Smog (E)
• The Great Smog of London took place in December 1952.
• This event was a severe air pollution episode, caused by a combination of industrial pollution and weather conditions, leading to thousands of deaths.
• Bhopal Gas Tragedy (A)
• The Bhopal disaster occurred on the night of December 2-3, 1984.
• It is considered one of the world's worst industrial disasters, resulting from a gas leak at the Union Carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal, India.
• Chernobyl Disaster (C)
• The Chernobyl nuclear disaster happened on April 26, 1986.
• This catastrophic nuclear accident occurred at the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant in the Soviet Union, leading to widespread radioactive contamination.
• Fukushima Disaster (B)
• The Fukushima Daiichi nuclear disaster occurred on March 11, 2011.
• This disaster was triggered by a massive earthquake and subsequent tsunami, leading to severe nuclear meltdowns in Japan.

Additional Information

• Key Events Chronology:
• California Smog: Occurred in the 1940s, marking one of the first major urban air pollution crises in the United States.
• London Smog: The Great Smog of London in 1952 was a significant environmental disaster in the UK, leading to thousands of deaths and changes in environmental policy.
• Bhopal Gas Tragedy: In 1984, this industrial disaster in India highlighted the dangers of chemical manufacturing and inadequate safety measures.
• Chernobyl Disaster: The 1986 nuclear accident in the Soviet Union had long-term health and environmental impacts, influencing global nuclear safety regulations.
• Fukushima Disaster: The 2011 nuclear disaster in Japan was caused by a natural disaster, leading to significant discussions on the safety of nuclear energy.

The correct answer is (C and D only).

Key PointsUGC Regulations 2018 on Plagiarism

• Level 3 Plagiarism (60% to 80% similarity)
• For faculty members, this level of plagiarism leads to denial of two successive annual increments and barring from supervising any student(s) for a period of three years.
• Hence, faculty members with 62% (D) and 76% (C) similarity will face these penalties.

Additional Information

• Other Levels of Plagiarism
• Level 1 (10% to 40% similarity): Warning and resubmission of the manuscript by the author.
• Level 2 (40% to 60% similarity): No increments for one year and resubmission of the manuscript after the 6-month period.
• In this case, options 42% (A), 52% (E), and 58% (B) fall under Level 2, hence not severe enough for two successive increments denial.

Hence the correct option is 4 (C and D only).

The correct answer is: Undistributed Middle

Key Points

• Undistributed Middle Fallacy
• The fallacy of undistributed middle occurs when the middle term in a categorical syllogism is not distributed at least once.
• In the given argument:
• Premise 1: All textbooks are books intended for careful study. (Middle term: books intended for careful study)
• Premise 2: Some reference books are books intended for careful study. (Middle term: books intended for careful study)
• Conclusion: Therefore, some reference books are textbooks.
• Error: The middle term "books intended for careful study" is not distributed, leading to an incorrect conclusion.
• Since the middle term does not properly connect the premises, the fallacy of undistributed middle is committed.

Additional Information

• Fallacy of Illicit Minor:
• Occurs when the minor term in the conclusion is not distributed in the premises.
• Fallacy of Illicit Major:
• Occurs when the major term in the conclusion is not distributed in the premises.
• Fallacy of Four Terms:
• Occurs when more than three terms are used in a categorical syllogism.

The correct answer is - C, E, B, D, A

Key Points

• Understanding the Storage Units:
• 1 KiloByte (KB) = 1024 Bytes
• 1 MegaByte (MB) = 1024 KiloBytes
• 1 GigaByte (GB) = 1024 MegaBytes
• 1 TeraByte (TB) = 1024 GigaBytes
• Conversion of Given Values:
• A. 1000000 KB = 1000000 * 1024 Bytes = 1,024,000,000 Bytes
• B. 100000 MB = 100000 * 1024 KB = 100000 * 1024 * 1024 Bytes = 104,857,600,000 Bytes
• C. 1 TB = 1 * 1024 GB = 1 * 1024 * 1024 MB = 1 * 1024 * 1024 * 1024 KB = 1 * 1024 * 1024 * 1024 * 1024 Bytes = 1,099,511,627,776 Bytes
• D. 10000000000 Bytes
• E. 100 GB = 100 * 1024 MB = 100 * 1024 * 1024 KB = 100 * 1024 * 1024 * 1024 Bytes = 107,374,182,400 Bytes
• Order from Largest to Smallest:
• C. 1 TB = 1,099,511,627,776 Bytes
• E. 100 GB = 107,374,182,400 Bytes
• B. 100000 MB = 104,857,600,000 Bytes
• D. 10000000000 Bytes
• A. 1000000 KB = 1,024,000,000 Bytes

Additional Information

• Storage Units and Their Hierarchy:
• In digital storage, the hierarchy from smallest to largest is: Bytes, KiloBytes (KB), MegaBytes (MB), GigaBytes (GB), TeraBytes (TB).
• Understanding the hierarchy is crucial for comparing and ordering different storage capacities accurately.
• Practical Applications:
• In real-world scenarios, such as purchasing storage devices or analyzing data capacity, knowing how to convert and compare storage units is essential.
• This knowledge helps in making informed decisions about data storage and management.

The correct answer is - A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II​

Key Points

• Matching Organisms to Their Trophic Levels:
• Lion - Fourth Trophic Level
• Lions are apex predators and occupy the highest level in a food chain.
• They feed on herbivores and sometimes on other carnivores.
• Trees - First Trophic Level
• Trees are primary producers that convert sunlight into energy through photosynthesis.
• They form the base of the food chain by providing energy to primary consumers (herbivores).
• Fish - Third Trophic Level
• Many fish species are secondary consumers that feed on smaller fish or aquatic organisms.
• They occupy a middle position in the aquatic food chain.
• Grasshopper - Second Trophic Level
• Grasshoppers are primary consumers that feed on plants.
• They are herbivores and form a crucial link between producers and higher-level consumers.

Additional Information

• Understanding Trophic Levels:
• First Trophic Level:
• Composed of primary producers such as plants and algae.
• These organisms produce energy through photosynthesis.
• Second Trophic Level:
• Consists of primary consumers (herbivores) that eat plants.
• Third Trophic Level:
• Contains secondary consumers, primarily carnivores that eat herbivores.
• Fourth Trophic Level:
• Occupies tertiary consumers, which are apex predators at the top of the food chain.

Given:

A. (7)/(11)

B. (11)/(17)

C. (9)/(13)

D. (13)/(21)

Formula used:

To compare fractions, we can convert them to decimal form.

Calculations:

A = (7)/(11) ≈ 0.636

B = (11)/(17) ≈ 0.647

C = (9)/(13) ≈ 0.692

D = (13)/(21) ≈ 0.619

⇒ Arranging in increasing order: D, A, B, C

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is - Education and awareness among the rural population

Key Points

• Education and awareness among the rural population
• When television was first introduced in India, the primary goal was to use it as a tool for education and to spread awareness among the rural population.
• The Indian government aimed to leverage television to address issues such as illiteracy, agricultural techniques, health, and hygiene.
• Doordarshan, the national broadcaster, was established in 1959 and initially focused on educational programs.
• This initiative was part of a larger effort to modernize rural India and improve the socio-economic conditions of the rural populace.

Additional Information

• News
• While news is a significant function of television, it was not the primary objective during its initial establishment in India.
• News broadcasting became more prominent later as the television network expanded and technology improved.
• Entertainment
• Entertainment programs, including dramas and movies, became popular on Indian television, but the initial focus was not on entertainment.
• The shift towards entertainment-oriented programming occurred as the medium evolved and commercial interests grew.
• Scientific development
• While scientific development and technological advancements were significant, the introduction of television in India aimed more at social and educational reforms.
• Scientific content did find its way into programming, but it was not the primary reason for television's establishment.

Given:

The cost price of two articles is the same. One of them is sold at a profit of 13%, while the other one is sold at a profit of 19%. The difference between their selling prices is Rs. 126.

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 + Profit % / 100)

Calculation:

Let the cost price of each article be Rs. x.

Selling Price of the first article, SP₁ = x × (1 + 13 / 100) = x × 1.13

Selling Price of the second article, SP₂ = x × (1 + 19 / 100) = x × 1.19

The difference between their selling prices:

SP₂ - SP₁ = 126

⇒ x × 1.19 - x × 1.13 = 126

⇒ x (1.19 - 1.13) = 126

⇒ x × 0.06 = 126

⇒ x = 126 / 0.06

⇒ x = 2100

∴ The cost price of each article is Rs. 2100.

The correct answer is - Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry

Key Points

• Automated: Emphasizes the system's capability to manage records without manual intervention, ensuring efficiency, accuracy, and consistency in maintaining student data.
• Permanent: Signifies that the student ID and related academic records are designed to last indefinitely, crucial for tracking students' academic history throughout their educational journey.
• Academic Account: Refers to the comprehensive record of a student's academic performance, credentials, and personal information within the education system.
• Registry: Denotes a formal, organized system that maintains and organizes data, ensuring a reliable way to manage student information and provide seamless academic mobility.

Additional Information

• Introduced under NEP 2020 and NCrF, the APAAR ID supports the vision of "One Nation, One Student ID," providing a unified academic identity for students across India.
• APAAR ensures data security and confidentiality by sharing information only with necessary government agencies and maintaining consent-based document sharing.
• It facilitates lifelong tracking of academic progress, enabling personalized study plans, and supports smooth transitions between different levels of education.

Ākamkṣā refers to 'Expectancy'

Key Points

• Ākamkṣā - Expectancy
• Ākamkṣā refers to the syntactical expectancy between words, ensuring they fit together in a grammatically correct way to convey a coherent meaning.

Additional Information

• Āsatti:
• Refers to the connection or relation between words and their meanings in a sentence.
• Ensures that words are placed in a context that makes sense semantically.
• Yogyatā:
• Deals with the appropriateness or compatibility of words in a sentence.
• Ensures that the combination of words is meaningful and appropriate.
• Tātparya Jñāna:
• Refers to the intended meaning or purpose behind a sentence or phrase.
• Captures the overall message or intention of the speaker.

The logic followed here is:

A) Q U A K E is coded as

B) O F T E N is coded as

C) P E A C H is coded as

D) D R I V E is coded as

So, the List - I will match with List - II as follows:

A) Q U A K E ⇒ (III) R T B J F

B) O F T E N ⇒ (IV) P E U D O

C) P E A C H ⇒ (I) Q D B B I

D) D R I V E ⇒ (II) E Q J U F

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'B and E Only'

Key Points

• Role of a teacher:
• Teachers play a crucial role in shaping the minds and future of students. Their responsibilities extend beyond just delivering academic content.
• They must be role models, guiding students in their personal and academic growth while maintaining a supportive and respectful environment.
• Explanation of the correct answer (B and E):
• Openly criticizing colleagues in public, especially in front of students (B):
• This behavior undermines professional respect and can create a negative learning environment. It is unprofessional and can damage the trust and collaboration necessary among educators.
• Such actions can also negatively impact students' perceptions of their teachers and the educational institution.
• Reporting theories and content but avoiding explanation (E):
• A teacher's role is not just to present information but to ensure that students understand and can apply that information. Avoiding explanations fails to fulfill this duty.
• Effective teaching involves breaking down complex concepts and engaging students in a way that makes the material accessible and comprehensible.

Additional Information

• Other options explained:
• To be strict and fair but not harsh (A):
• This is a positive attribute for a teacher. Maintaining discipline while being fair helps create a conducive learning environment.
• Hard working (C):
• A teacher needs to be dedicated and put in the effort to prepare lessons, grade assignments, and support students' learning.
• Motivates students and encourages them (D):
• Encouraging students and motivating them to achieve their best is a fundamental role of a teacher. It helps students build confidence and strive for excellence.

Given:

Ship Distance from shore = 32 miles

Plane speed = 15 × Ship speed

Formula used:

Let the speed of the ship be S miles/hr

Speed of the plane = 15S miles/hr

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let the distance from the shore where the plane catches up with the ship be D miles

Time taken by the ship to cover (32 - D) miles = (32 - D)/S

Time taken by the plane to cover D miles = D/(15S)

Since both times are equal:

⇒ (32 - D)/S = D/(15S)

⇒ 32 - D = D/15

⇒ 32 = D/15 + D

⇒ 32 = D(1 + 1/15)

⇒ 32 = D(16/15)

⇒ D = (32 × 15)/16

⇒ D = 30 miles

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

The correct answer is - E, D, C, B and A

Key Points

• Clear (E)
• Communication should be free from ambiguity and easily understandable.
• Clear communication ensures that the message is interpreted as intended.
• Concise (D)
• Concise communication is brief and to the point, avoiding unnecessary details.
• This helps in maintaining the audience's attention and understanding.
• Compelling (C)
• Compelling communication captures the audience's interest and persuades them.
• It often involves storytelling and emotional appeal to make the message memorable.
• Curious (B)
• Curious communication involves asking questions and showing a genuine interest in the audience's perspective.
• This fosters engagement and deeper understanding between the communicator and the audience.
• Compassionate (A)
• Compassionate communication shows empathy and understanding towards the audience's feelings and concerns.
• It helps in building trust and a strong connection with the audience.

Additional Information

• Understanding the 5 Cs
• Clear: Ensures the message is easy to understand and free of confusion.
• Concise: Keeps the message brief and direct, avoiding extraneous information.
• Compelling: Engages and persuades the audience with an interesting and memorable message.
• Curious: Invites interaction and shows interest in the audience's thoughts and feelings.
• Compassionate: Demonstrates empathy and consideration for the audience's emotions and perspectives.

The logic followed here is:

So, the number that occurs in the series are (A) 55, (B) 78, (D) 105 and (E) 136.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - Soil Moisture Deficit

Key Points

• Soil Moisture Deficit
• It is the amount of water required to bring the soil moisture level to field capacity.
• This term refers to the shortage of water in the soil, representing how much rainfall is needed to saturate the soil.

Additional Information

• Field Capacity
• It is the amount of soil moisture or water content held in the soil after excess water has drained away and the rate of downward movement has decreased.
• Soil Moisture Content
• It refers to the amount of water present in the soil at any given time.
• Wilting Coefficient
• It is the minimal point of soil moisture the plant requires not to wilt. Below this point, the plant cannot recover its turgidity.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that Asomiya, or Assamese, is considered to have evolved out of Magadhi, a form of old Prakrit language.
• None of the other options (Tibetan, Angika, Thai) are mentioned in relation to the evolution of Asomiya.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• "Tibetan" is not mentioned in the context of the evolution of Asomiya.
• "Angika" is not mentioned in the passage.
• "Thai" is also not mentioned in the context of this passage.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that the eastern group of dialects is spoken mainly in the Sibsagar district and its adjoining areas.
• None of the other options (Southern, Western, Northern) are mentioned in relation to Sibsagar and its adjoining areas.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• "Southern" is not mentioned in the passage.
• "Western" is mentioned in relation to Goalparia and Kamrupi groups, but not with Sibsagar.
• "Northern" is not mentioned in the passage.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that in the western regions of Assam, there are two distinct groups of dialects: the Goalparia and the Kamrupi groups.
• None of the other options (Dimasa, Karbi, Nalbaria) are mentioned in relation to the dialects spoken in the western regions of Assam.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• "Goalparia" and "Dimasa" are not mentioned together in the passage.
• "Kamrupi" and "Karbi" are not mentioned together in the passage.
• "Goalparia" and "Nalbaria" are not mentioned together in the passage.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that Assamese or 'Asomiya' serves the purpose of a link language in the whole region.
• None of the other options (Bodo, Nagamese, Kamrupi) are mentioned as link languages in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• "Bodo" is an important spoken language but is not mentioned as the link language.
• "Nagamese" is not mentioned in the passage.
• "Kamrupi" is a group of dialects in the western part of Assam but is not mentioned as the link language.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that Bodo or 'Bo-Ro' is mostly spoken in the areas coming under the Bodoland Territorial Council, where it is the official language.
• None of the other options (Rava, Asomiya, Garo) are mentioned as the official language of the areas under the Bodoland Territorial Council.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• "Rava" is not mentioned as the official language in the passage.
• "Asomiya" serves as a link language but is not mentioned as the official language in the Bodoland Territorial Council areas.
• "Garo" is not mentioned as the official language in the passage.