UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 22nd August 2024 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Profit of store C in 2021 = ₹21 lakh

Investment of store C in 2021 = ₹9 lakh

Profit of store D in 2021 = ₹9 lakh

We need to find the investment of store D to get an income double that of store C in 2021.

Formula used:

Income = Profit + Investment

Let the required investment of store D be X.

Income of store D = 2 × Income of store C

Income of store C = Profit of C + Investment of C

Calculation:

Income of store C in 2021:

⇒ Income of C = 21 + 9 = ₹30 lakh

Income of store D should be double that of store C:

⇒ Income of D = 2 × 30 = ₹60 lakh

Income of D = Profit of D + Investment of D

⇒ 60 = 9 + X

⇒ X = 60 - 9 = ₹51 lakh

∴ The required investment of store D is ₹51 lakh.

Given:

Profit of Store D in 2020 = Rs. 18 Lakh

Profit Percent = 30%

Profit = Income - Investment

Formula used:

Profit Percent = (Profit / Investment) × 100

Rearranging for Income:

Income = Profit + Investment

Investment = Profit × 100 / Profit Percent

Calculations:

Step 1: Calculate Investment:

Investment = (18 × 100) / 30

Investment = 1800 / 30

Investment = Rs. 60 Lakh

Step 2: Calculate Income:

Income = Profit + Investment

Income = 18 + 60

Income = Rs. 78 Lakh

∴ The income of Store D in 2020 should be Rs. 78 Lakh.

Given:

Profit of store A in 2023 = ₹30 lakh

Profit of store A in 2019 = ₹18 lakh

Formula used:

Percentage increase = [(Profit in 2023 - Profit in 2019) / Profit in 2019] × 100

Calculation:

Percentage increase = [(30 - 18) / 18] × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = (12 / 18) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 66.67%

∴ The profit earned by Store A in 2023 is approximately 66.67% more than that in 2019.

Given:

Profits for the following stores and years are given:

Store A: 2018 = ₹12 lakh, 2019 = ₹18 lakh

Store B: 2018 = ₹9 lakh, 2019 = ₹15 lakh

Store D: 2018 = ₹15 lakh, 2022 = ₹21 lakh

Store E: 2018 = ₹18 lakh, 2022 = ₹12 lakh

Formula used:

Percentage change in profit = [(Profit in second year - Profit in first year) / Profit in first year] × 100

Calculation:

Store A (2018 and 2019):

Percentage change = [(18 - 12) / 12] × 100 = (6 / 12) × 100 = 50%

Store B (2018 and 2019):

Percentage change = [(15 - 9) / 9] × 100 = (6 / 9) × 100 = 66.67%

Store D (2018 and 2022):

Percentage change = [(21 - 15) / 15] × 100 = (6 / 15) × 100 = 40%

Store E (2018 and 2022):

Percentage change = [(12 - 18) / 18] × 100 = (-6 / 18) × 100 = -33.33%

Conclusion:

Store B has the maximum percentage change in profits for the pair of years mentioned, with a change of 66.67%.

Given:

Profit of store C in 2019 = ₹33 lakh

Profit of store E in 2019 = ₹21 lakh

Both stores want to earn a profit of 20%.

Formula used:

Profit percent = (Profit / Investment) × 100

Investment = Profit / (Profit percent / 100)

Let the investments made by store C and store E be I_C and I_E respectively.

Calculation:

For store C:

⇒ I_C = Profit of C / (20 / 100)

⇒ I_C = 33 / 0.2 = ₹165 lakh

For store E:

⇒ I_E = Profit of E / (20 / 100)

⇒ I_E = 21 / 0.2 = ₹105 lakh

Ratio of investments made by C to E:

⇒ I_C : I_E = 165 : 105

⇒ I_C : I_E = 11 : 7

∴ The ratio of investments made by C to that of E is 11:7.

The correct answer is - C, D, E, A only

Key Points

• Biodiesel
• Biodiesel is a renewable, biodegradable fuel manufactured domestically from vegetable oils, animal fats, or recycled restaurant grease.
• It can be used in existing diesel engines with little or no modification.
• It helps to reduce greenhouse gas emissions compared to traditional diesel.
• Solar Energy
• Solar energy is harnessed using solar panels that convert sunlight into electricity or heat.
• It is a clean and abundant source of energy that can significantly reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
• It has a wide range of applications, including residential, commercial, and industrial uses.
• Hydroelectric Energy
• Hydroelectric energy is generated by harnessing the power of moving water, typically using dams and turbines.
• It is one of the oldest and most established forms of renewable energy.
• It provides a stable and reliable source of electricity with very low greenhouse gas emissions.
• Wind Energy
• Wind energy is captured using wind turbines that convert the kinetic energy of wind into electrical power.
• It is a rapidly growing source of renewable energy and is widely used around the world.
• It helps to diversify energy sources and reduce carbon footprint.

Additional Information

• Nuclear Energy
• Nuclear energy is produced by splitting atoms in a reactor to heat water into steam, which then turns a turbine to generate electricity.
• While it is a low-carbon source of energy, it is not considered renewable because it relies on finite resources like uranium.
• It also poses challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and the potential for catastrophic accidents.

The correct answer is - Adaptation Response

Key Points

• Adaptation Response
• Indigenous Knowledge and Resource Management Systems are highly localized and adapted to specific environmental and socio-economic conditions.
• They include traditional practices, customs, and knowledge that help communities adapt to environmental changes and ensure sustainable resource use.
• Examples include crop diversification, water conservation techniques, and traditional land management practices that enhance resilience to climate variability.
• Such systems are flexible and dynamic, allowing for adjustments based on changing environmental conditions.

Additional Information

• Mitigation Response
• Mitigation responses focus on reducing or preventing the emission of greenhouse gases to limit climate change.
• Examples include renewable energy projects, reforestation, and carbon capture and storage technologies.
• Decarbonization Response
• Decarbonization involves reducing carbon dioxide emissions through technological changes, energy efficiency, and transitioning to low-carbon energy sources.
• Examples include transitioning from fossil fuels to renewable energy, improving energy efficiency in buildings and transportation.
• Ethical Response
• Ethical responses emphasize moral principles and values in addressing environmental and social issues.
• This includes principles of justice, equity, and responsibility towards future generations and non-human species.

The correct answer is - D, B, C, A

Key Points

• D. Doug Engelbart tells the story of how he invented the mouse.
• This sentence sets the context for the narrative, introducing the main subject – the invention of the mouse by Doug Engelbart.
• B. Doug Engelbart was bored at a conference and started thinking about tracking movement of a plane using two sets of wheels moving in orthogonal directions.
• This sentence provides the initial inspiration or thought process that led to the invention, indicating the problem Engelbart was trying to solve.
• C. Doug Engelbart remembered these notes when he was trying to come up with a device to select objects on a computer screen.
• This sentence connects Engelbart’s initial thoughts to his later efforts in creating a device for computer interaction, showing a progression in his thinking.
• A. We use the mouse today because it is the pointing device that is easiest to use compared to others such as joysticks, trackballs etc.
• This sentence concludes the narrative by explaining why the mouse became the preferred pointing device, tying the historical account to its practical outcome.

Additional Information

• Option A, B, C, D
• Incorrect as it starts with the current usage of the mouse without introducing the inventor or the invention process.
• Option B, C, D, A
• Incorrect as it doesn’t start with the introduction of Doug Engelbart telling his story. It jumps into the thought process without proper context.
• Option D, C, B, A
• Incorrect as it doesn’t follow the logical sequence of inspiration, thought process, invention, and current use.

The correct answer is - Option 4 (B and C only)

Key Points

• Process of sending, receiving, and interpreting the message (B)
• This definition encompasses the key elements of communication, which involve the transmission of information from a sender to a receiver and the interpretation of that information.
• It highlights the dynamic and interactive nature of communication, where both parties are actively involved.
• Communication is social interaction through messages (C)
• This definition focuses on the social aspect of communication, emphasizing that it is a form of interaction that occurs through the exchange of messages.
• It underscores the role of communication in facilitating social relationships and interactions.

Additional Information

• Process of ideating, searching, and telling (A)
• This definition is not entirely accurate as it does not cover the complete process of communication.
• It focuses more on the idea generation and dissemination aspect, missing the crucial components of receiving and interpreting the message.
• Process of thinking, writing, and channelising the messages (D)
• This definition is also incomplete as it does not address the receiving and interpreting parts of communication.
• It emphasizes the preparation and distribution of messages but overlooks the interactive nature of communication.

The correct answer is - To intimidate and hamper self-confidence

Key Points

• To intimidate and hamper self-confidence
• This motive is counterproductive and goes against the fundamental principles of effective teaching.
• The purpose of the Question-Answer technique is to facilitate learning, not to create a fearful or hostile environment.
• Intimidating students can lead to anxiety, reduce participation, and ultimately hinder the learning process.
• A supportive and encouraging atmosphere is essential for fostering growth and development in students.

Additional Information

• To test the knowledge
• The Question-Answer technique is commonly used to assess students' understanding and retention of the material.
• It helps teachers identify which concepts students have mastered and which they may need more help with.
• To locate the difficulty
• This technique can help teachers pinpoint specific areas where students are struggling.
• By identifying these difficulties, teachers can provide targeted assistance to address these challenges.
• To promote thinking and originality
• Encouraging students to think critically and come up with original answers is one of the key objectives of this technique.
• It fosters creativity, problem-solving skills, and independent thinking among students.

The correct answer is - A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Key Points

• A: Nominal - III. Type of forest
• Nominal variables are used for labeling variables without any quantitative value.
• Examples include categories like type of forest (e.g., tropical, deciduous).
• B: Ordinal - I. Anger level
• Ordinal variables are used to depict ordered relationships between variables.
• Anger level can be ranked as low, medium, or high, making it an ordinal variable.
• C: Interval - IV. Temperature in Fahrenheit
• Interval variables have meaningful intervals between values but no true zero point.
• Temperature in Fahrenheit is an interval variable because the difference between measurements is meaningful, but it does not have a true zero point.
• D: Ratio - II. Crop yield
• Ratio variables have all the properties of interval variables, and they also have a true zero point.
• Crop yield is a ratio variable because it has a meaningful zero point and the differences between measurements are meaningful.

Additional Information

• Nominal Variables
• These variables are used for naming or labeling categories without any order or priority.
• Examples include gender, nationality, or types of forests.
• Ordinal Variables
• These variables depict some order among the values but the intervals between the values are not defined.
• Examples include rankings, such as satisfaction levels or anger levels.
• Interval Variables
• These variables have meaningful differences between measurements, but they do not have a true zero point.
• Examples include temperature scales like Celsius and Fahrenheit.
• Ratio Variables
• These variables have all the properties of interval variables and also have a true zero point.
• Examples include height, weight, and crop yield.

The correct answer is - Hypertext

Key Points

• Hypertext
• Hypertext refers to the organization of information in a non-linear manner, allowing users to navigate between different pieces of content via hyperlinks.
• In the given statement, the underlined word is a hyperlink that links to another webpage, demonstrating the use of hypertext.
• Hypertext is a foundational concept for the World Wide Web, enabling the creation of interconnected documents and resources.

Additional Information

• HTML
• HTML stands for HyperText Markup Language and is used to create the structure of webpages.
• While HTML is related to hypertext, it is the language used to write web pages rather than a method of data organization.
• Storyboard
• A storyboard is a visual representation of a sequence of events or a narrative, often used in planning films or presentations.
• It is not related to the organization of data in the manner described in the question.
• Data Scheme
• A data scheme refers to the structure and organization of data within a database or other data management system.
• It involves defining tables, fields, relationships, and data types, which is different from the concept of hypertext linking.

The correct answer is - Suniti Kumar Chatterji

Key Points

• Suniti Kumar Chatterji
• Suniti Kumar Chatterji was an eminent Indian linguist, educationist, and litterateur.
• He chaired the Sanskrit Commission (1956-57), which was established to evaluate and recommend the promotion of Sanskrit in India.
• His work significantly contributed to the revival and dissemination of Sanskrit education and literature.
• Chatterji was also associated with the Asiatic Society and held prestigious academic positions.

Additional Information

• Sukumar Sen
• Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.
• He played a crucial role in overseeing the first general elections in independent India in 1951-52.
• U.N. Dhebar
• U.N. Dhebar was an Indian politician and leader of the Indian National Congress.
• He served as the President of the Indian National Congress from 1955 to 1959.
• V.T. Krishnamachari
• V.T. Krishnamachari was an Indian administrator and statesman.
• He held various significant positions, including Vice-President of the Planning Commission of India.

The correct answer is - A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Key Points

• Judging learners (A-III)
• Judging learners are concerned with knowing the essentials and taking actions quickly.
• They prefer structure, clear course, and outcomes.
• They are intolerant to ambiguity and prefer making decisions to move forward.
• Extrovert learners (B-I)
• Extrovert learners depend on outside stimulation and interaction for engaging in learning.
• They often prefer group activities, discussions, and collaborative projects.
• They gain energy and ideas through social interaction.
• The intuitors (C-IV)
• Intuitive learners seek out patterns and relationships among the facts they gather.
• They prefer to infer and guess from the context rather than relying solely on concrete information.
• They enjoy exploring possibilities and abstract concepts.
• The thinkers (D-II)
• Thinkers choose to decide things impersonally based on analysis, self-discipline, and logic.
• They value clear reasoning and prefer to rely on objective data rather than subjective feelings.
• They typically prefer structured environments where outcomes are predictable.

Additional Information

• Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
• The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a widely used personality assessment tool that categorizes individuals into 16 different personality types based on preferences in four dichotomies:
• Extroversion (E) vs. Introversion (I)
• Sensing (S) vs. Intuition (N)
• Thinking (T) vs. Feeling (F)
• Judging (J) vs. Perceiving (P)
• Each personality type has unique characteristics and learning preferences.
• Learning Styles
• Learning styles refer to the preferred way an individual processes information and learns new concepts.
• Understanding one's learning style can help in choosing effective learning strategies and environments.
• Some common learning styles include visual, auditory, reading/writing, and kinesthetic.

The correct answer is - D$1 + E$3 + 5

Key Points

• Explanation of the Correct Answer
• When a formula in Excel is copied from one cell to another, relative and absolute references change accordingly.
• In the formula = B$1 + C$3 + 5:
• B$1 and C$3 are mixed references where the row is fixed (absolute) but the column is relative.
• Copying this formula from D9 to F12:
• Column B shifts to column D (2 columns to the right), resulting in D$1.
• Column C shifts to column E (2 columns to the right), resulting in E$3.
• The formula becomes D$1 + E$3 + 5.

Additional Information

• Understanding Mixed References in Excel
• Mixed references in Excel are a combination of absolute and relative references.
• For example, in B$1, the column B is relative, so it changes when copied, but the row 1 is absolute, so it remains the same.
• In C$3, the column C is relative and changes when copied, but the row 3 is absolute and remains the same.
• Overview of Incorrect Options
• B$2 + C$4 + 5: This option incorrectly assumes that both the row and column should change, which is not the case with mixed references.
• C$1 + D$3 + 5: This option assumes an incorrect shift in the relative position of columns.
• D1 + E3 = 5: This option ignores the absolute row references, which should remain fixed.

The correct answer is - False Alternatives

Key Points

• False Alternatives
• Also known as a False Dichotomy or False Dilemma, this fallacy occurs when only two choices are presented yet more exist.
• This fallacy is not a fallacy of relevance; it is a fallacy of defective induction or presumption.
• It forces a choice between two options as if they are the only possible ones, neglecting other viable alternatives.

Additional Information

• Ad Hominem (Personal Attack)
• This is a fallacy where one attacks the person making an argument rather than the argument itself.
• Example: "You can't trust John's opinion on climate change; he's not a scientist."
• Attacking the Motive
• This fallacy occurs when an argument attacks a person's motives rather than addressing the argument itself.
• Example: "Of course he supports lower taxes; he's rich and wants to keep more money."
• Tu Quoque (Look who’s talking)
• This is a type of ad hominem fallacy where one counters an accusation with a similar accusation.
• Example: "You say I shouldn't smoke, but you smoke too!"

The correct answer is - B and D only

Key Points

• Premise: Science is based on experiment, as a willingness to see the universe as it really is.
• The statement emphasizes that science relies on experimental methods and an openness to perceive the universe accurately.
• This forms the foundation or premise for the argument about the nature of science.
• Conclusion: Science sometimes requires courage.
• It is concluded that science demands courage, particularly the courage to question established beliefs and conventional wisdom.
• This conclusion is directly derived from the premise that science requires challenging old dogma and conventional wisdom.

Additional Information

• Premise and Conclusion in Arguments
• A premise is a statement that provides the foundation or basis for an argument.
• A conclusion is a statement that logically follows from the premises.
• In the given statement, the premise provides the basis for understanding why science requires courage.
• Illustrations vs. Arguments
• Illustrations are examples that help explain or clarify a point but do not form the basis of an argument.
• An argument, on the other hand, is a series of statements (premises) that lead to a conclusion.
• The given statement is an argument because it uses premises to lead to a conclusion about the nature of science.
• Understanding Conventional Wisdom
• Conventional wisdom refers to commonly accepted beliefs or opinions.
• Challenging conventional wisdom is often a critical aspect of scientific progress, as new discoveries can overturn established ideas.

The correct answer is - B, D, C, A

Key Points

• Coefficient of Variation (CV)
• The Coefficient of Variation (CV) is calculated as the ratio of the standard deviation (σ) to the mean (x̅), expressed as a percentage.
• Formula: CV = (σ/x̅) * 100
• Calculate CV for each dataset
• A: x̅ = 25, σ = 9
• CV = (9/25) * 100 = 36%
• B: x̅ = 40, σ = 12
• CV = (12/40) * 100 = 30%
• C: x̅ = 30, σ = 10
• CV = (10/30) * 100 = 33.33%
• D: x̅ = 35, σ = 11
• CV = (11/35) * 100 = 31.43%
• Arrange CVs in increasing order
• B: 30%
• D: 31.43%
• C: 33.33%
• A: 36%

Additional Information

• Understanding CV
• The Coefficient of Variation (CV) is a standardized measure of the dispersion of a probability distribution or frequency distribution.
• It is particularly useful when comparing the degree of variation from one data series to another, even if the means are drastically different from each other.
• Applications of CV
• CV is widely used in the field of finance to assess the risk-to-reward ratio of an investment.
• In the field of biology and ecology, CV is used to measure the relative variability of population sizes.

The correct answer is - C, B, A, D

Key Points

• Stages of Communication
• Sender (C): The communication process begins with the sender, who has an idea or message to communicate.
• Encoding (B): The sender then converts the idea into a message that can be transmitted. This involves selecting words, symbols, or gestures.
• Transmission (A): The encoded message is transmitted through a chosen medium, such as speech, text, or visual aids.
• Feedback (D): After the message is received, the receiver processes it and provides feedback to the sender, completing the communication loop.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Overview
• Option B, A, C, D: Incorrect sequence as it starts with encoding, which cannot happen without a sender.
• Option D, C, B, A: Incorrect sequence as it starts with feedback, which is the last stage in the communication process.
• Option A, B, C, D: Incorrect sequence as it starts with transmission, which cannot occur without encoding and a sender.

The correct answer is - A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Key Points

• Authentication
• Authentication verifies that data comes from a secure and trusted source and works with encryption to strengthen internet security.
• This process ensures that the data or user trying to access a system is who or what it claims to be.
• Biometrics
• Biometrics relies on certain unique characteristics of human beings such as retina scans, fingerprints, and facial recognition.
• This method is widely used for identification and access control.
• IP Address
• An IP Address identifies where on the network a device is located.
• It is a unique string of numbers separated by periods that identifies each computer using the Internet Protocol to communicate over a network.
• MAC Address
• A MAC Address identifies which device is connected at a given IP address.
• It is a hardware identification number that uniquely identifies each device on a network.

Additional Information

• IP Address
• An IP Address (Internet Protocol Address) is a numerical label assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication.
• The format of an IP address is a 32-bit numeric address written as four numbers separated by periods.

Each number can be zero to 255.

• MAC Address
• A MAC Address (Media Access Control Address) is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller (NIC) for use as a network address in communications within a network segment.
• MAC addresses are primarily assigned by the NIC manufacturer and are stored in its hardware.
• Biometrics
• Biometric systems are used in various sectors for different purposes, including security, attendance tracking, and identification verification.
• Common biometric traits include fingerprints, facial recognition, iris recognition, and voice recognition.
• Authentication
• Authentication methods can include passwords, biometric data, security tokens, and multi-factor authentication (MFA).
• It is a critical component of information security, ensuring that only authorized users can access resources.

The correct answer is - Inductive approach

Key Points

• Inductive approach
• Qualitative research is often associated with an inductive approach, where the aim is to generate new theories and insights from the data collected.
• This approach involves gathering detailed and rich qualitative data and analyzing it to identify patterns, themes, and concepts.
• The process is often iterative, with researchers moving back and forth between data collection and analysis.
• Inductive reasoning allows for the development of new theories based on the observed data, rather than testing existing hypotheses.

Additional Information

• Deductive approach
• Involves testing hypotheses and theories that are already established.
• More commonly associated with quantitative research.
• Starts with a general theory and works towards specific observations.
• Positivism
• A philosophical stance that emphasizes the use of the scientific method and empirical evidence.
• Often linked with quantitative research, where the goal is to test hypotheses using measurable data.
• Objectivism
• A philosophy that asserts the existence of an objective reality independent of human perception.
• In research, it implies that findings should be free from researcher bias and subjectivity.

The correct answer is: 'A, B and C only'.

Key Points

• Plagiarism Levels According to UGC Regulations 2018
• Level 0: Similarities up to 10% - Minor Similarities, no penalty.
• For similarities up to 10%, there is no penalty imposed. Minor similarities are considered acceptable within this range.
• Therefore, Statement (A) with 12% does not fall under this category and requires action.
• Level 1: Similarities above 10% to 40% - Submit revised script.
• If similarities are found to be above 10% and up to 40%, the student is required to submit a revised thesis within a stipulated time period not exceeding 6 months.
• Statement (A) with 12% and (B) with 27% fall under this category, so these statements are correct for submitting a revised thesis.
• Level 2: Similarities above 40% to 60% - Debarment for one year.
• Students with similarities above 40% and up to 60% are debarred from submitting a revised script for a period of one year.
• After the debarment period, they can submit a revised thesis.
• Statement (C) with 46% falls under this category, so this statement is also correct for submitting a revised thesis after one year.
• Level 3: Similarities above 60% - Cancellation of registration.
• If similarities exceed 60%, the student's registration for that program shall be cancelled.
• Statements (D) with 66% and (E) with 70% fall under this category, hence these statements are incorrect for submitting a revised thesis, as the registration will be cancelled.

Hence, Statements A (12%), B (27%), and C (46%) are correct regarding the requirement to submit a revised thesis, while Statements D (66%) and E (70%) are incorrect.

The correct answer is - Longitudinal

Key Points

• Longitudinal
• Longitudinal research design involves the collection of data at multiple points in time.
• It allows researchers to track changes and developments over a period.
• Qualitative content analysis of documents from different time periods fits this design as it examines the evolution and patterns over time.
• For example, analyzing newspaper articles from different decades to study changes in public opinion.

Additional Information

• Cross-sectional
• This design collects data at a single point in time.
• It provides a snapshot of a particular phenomenon at one moment.
• Case study
• This design involves an in-depth analysis of a specific case or cases within a real-world context.
• It is often used to gain a deep understanding of complex issues.
• Comparative
• This design compares two or more cases, groups, or phenomena to identify similarities and differences.
• It can be used to understand contrasting outcomes or characteristics.

The correct answer is - Stable Atmosphere

Key Points

• Stable Atmosphere
• A cloudless night with low wind speed typically leads to rapid radiative cooling of the Earth's surface.
• This cooling causes the air near the ground to cool down significantly, creating a temperature inversion where the air temperature increases with height.
• Temperature inversions inhibit vertical air movement, contributing to atmospheric stability.
• In a stable atmosphere, air parcels resist vertical displacement, leading to minimal turbulence and reduced mixing of air layers.

Additional Information

• Turbulent Atmosphere
• A turbulent atmosphere is characterized by chaotic and irregular air movements.
• It is typically associated with high wind speeds and conditions where air is actively rising and falling.
• Such conditions are more common during the daytime when solar heating causes strong vertical air currents.
• Unstable Atmosphere
• An unstable atmosphere occurs when air parcels are warmer and less dense than the surrounding air, prompting them to rise rapidly.
• This condition is usually observed during the day when the ground heats up, causing the air above to become buoyant.
• Unstable atmospheres lead to convection, cloud formation, and potentially thunderstorms.
• Neutral Atmosphere
• A neutral atmosphere is one where the air is neither strongly stable nor unstable.
• In such conditions, there is a balance between the forces promoting vertical motion and those resisting it.
• These conditions are often transitional and do not lead to significant vertical air movement.

The logic followed here is:

A) PRIME is coded as

B) SIGHT is coded as

C) QUITE is coded as

D) RHYME is coded as

So, the List - I will match with List - II as follows:

A) PRIME ⇒ (I) NPGKC

B) SIGHT ⇒ (II) QGEFR

C) QUITE ⇒ (III) OSGRC

D) RHYME ⇒ (IV) PFWKC

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given:

Length of the train = 200 m

Speed of the train = 20 m/s

Length of the platform = 1000 m

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Distance to be covered = Length of the train + Length of the platform

Distance to be covered = 200 m + 1000 m

Distance to be covered = 1200 m

Speed of the train = 20 m/s

Time = Distance / Speed

Time = 1200 m / 20 m/s

Time = 60 s

Time in minutes = 60 s / 60

Time in minutes = 1 minute

The correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is - Receiver

Key Points

• Receiver
• The receiver is a critical component in the communication process.
• Without a receiver, the message cannot be understood, interpreted, or acted upon.
• The receiver decodes the message sent by the sender, making communication effective and complete.
• Feedback from the receiver helps the sender understand if the message was correctly interpreted.

Additional Information

• Media
• Media acts as a channel or medium to transmit messages from the sender to the receiver.
• While essential for long-distance or mass communication, media alone cannot complete the communication process without a receiver.
• Writer
• The writer is often the sender of the message.
• They create and encode the message but require a receiver to complete the communication cycle.
• Expert
• An expert may provide specialized information or insights.
• However, their role is not always essential in every communication process.

The correct answer is - C, B, D, E, A

Key Points

• Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS)
• Established in 1965.
• Located in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.
• Focuses on higher studies in the humanities and social sciences.
• Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)
• Established in 1969.
• Headquartered in New Delhi.
• Promotes research in social sciences in India.
• Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)
• Established in 1972.
• Located in New Delhi.
• Supports and encourages research in the field of history.
• Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR)
• Established in 1977.
• Headquartered in New Delhi.
• Promotes research in philosophy.
• National Council of Rural Institutes (NCRI)
• Established in 1995.
• Located in Hyderabad, Telangana.
• Focuses on higher education and training in rural development.

Additional Information

• Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS)
• Initially set up by the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• The building housing IIAS was earlier the residence of the British Viceroy of India.
• Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)
• ICSSR provides grants for research projects, fellowships, and international collaboration.
• It also publishes research journals and books in social sciences.
• Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)
• ICHR provides financial assistance to historians and scholars through fellowships and grants.
• It organizes seminars, symposia, and conferences to promote historical research.
• Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR)
• ICPR aims to promote the study and research in philosophy through fellowships, workshops, and seminars.
• It also publishes journals and books to disseminate philosophical research.
• National Council of Rural Institutes (NCRI)
• NCRI works under the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India.
• It aims to promote rural higher education and improve the quality of life in rural areas through education.

The correct answer is - A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Key Points

• Formal Communication
• Formal communication refers to the exchange of information officially and follows a prescribed structure.
• Example: Taking part in a meeting is a typical instance of formal communication. It involves a structured setup, often with a predefined agenda and formal language.
• Informal Communication
• Informal communication is more casual and spontaneous, lacking a defined structure.
• Example: Conversations in a canteen are informal. These interactions are casual and do not follow any official protocol.
• Group Communication
• Group communication involves interactions within a group of people, often sharing common interests or goals.
• Example: Religious discourses can be considered group communication, as they involve interactions among a group with shared religious interests or beliefs.
• Intra-personal Communication
• Intra-personal communication refers to internal communication within an individual, such as self-reflection or internal dialogue.
• Example: Questioning oneself after making a mistake is a form of intra-personal communication, where an individual reflects on their actions internally.

Additional Information

• Formal Communication
• Usually follows a hierarchical structure and is often documented.
• Examples include official emails, business reports, and company meetings.
• Informal Communication
• Occurs naturally and spontaneously without a formal structure.
• It can be seen in social interactions, casual conversations, and friendships.
• Group Communication
• Can be formal or informal, depending on the group's nature and purpose.
• Examples include team meetings, study groups, and community gatherings.
• Intra-personal Communication
• It is crucial for self-awareness and personal growth.
• Examples include self-reflection, meditation, and personal planning.

The correct answer is - A, B and C only

Key Points

• (512.125)₁₀ = (1000.1)₈
• To verify this, convert (512.125)₁₀ to base-8:
• 512 in decimal is equivalent to 1000 in base-8.
• 0.125 in decimal is equivalent to 0.1 in base-8.
• Thus, (512.125)₁₀ = (1000.1)₈.
• (512.125)₁₀ = (200.2)₁₆
• To verify this, convert (512.125)₁₀ to base-16:
• 512 in decimal is equivalent to 200 in base-16.
• 0.125 in decimal is equivalent to 0.2 in base-16.
• Thus, (512.125)₁₀ = (200.2)₁₆.
• (512.125)₁₀ = (1000000000.001)₂
• To verify this, convert (512.125)₁₀ to base-2:
• 512 in decimal is equivalent to 1000000000 in base-2.
• 0.125 in decimal is equivalent to 0.001 in base-2.
• Thus, (512.125)₁₀ = (1000000000.001)₂.

Additional Information

• Base Conversion Concepts
• Converting a decimal number to another base involves dividing the number by the base and recording the remainders.
• For fractional parts, multiply the fraction by the base and record the integer part.
• Repeat the process until the fractional part becomes zero or a repeating pattern is observed.

The correct answer is - A, C, D and E only

Key Points

• Nyaya's Syllogism:
• Nyaya philosophy, one of the six orthodox schools of Hindu philosophy, emphasizes logical and epistemological methodologies.
• Its syllogism is a form of argument that includes five components: Pratijna (Proposition), Hetu (Reason), Udaharana (Example), Upanaya (Application), and Nigamana (Conclusion).
• Sadhya:
• Sadhya is the major term or the proposition that is to be proved.
• Hetu:
• Hetu is the middle term or the reason used in the argument.
• Paksa:
• Paksa is the minor term or the subject of the proposition.
• Anumana:
• Anumana is the inferential knowledge or conclusion derived from the syllogism.

Additional Information

• Pratijna:
• Pratijna is the proposition or statement that needs to be proved.
• Udaharana:
• Udaharana is the example that illustrates the reason (Hetu).
• Upanaya:
• Upanaya is the application or the reaffirmation of the reason (Hetu) to the subject (Paksa).
• Nigamana:
• Nigamana is the conclusion derived from the previous steps in the syllogism.

The correct answer is - Astronomy

Key Points

• Ujjain
• Ujjain, an ancient city in India, was a renowned center for the study of astronomy.
• It was home to many famous astronomers, including the notable mathematician and astronomer Varahamihira.
• The city had observatories that were used to study celestial bodies and calculate astronomical events.
• Ujjain's geographical location on the Tropic of Cancer made it an ideal place for astronomical observations.
• The city was part of the cultural and scientific hub in ancient India, contributing significantly to the field of astronomy.

Additional Information

• Anthropology
• The study of humans, human behavior, and societies in the past and present.
• Involves understanding cultural, social, and physical aspects of human beings.
• Archaeology
• The scientific study of human history and prehistory through the excavation of sites and the analysis of artifacts and other physical remains.
• It provides insights into ancient civilizations and their ways of life.
• Geology
• The science that deals with the Earth's physical structure and substance, its history, and the processes that act on it.
• Geologists study rocks, minerals, and the processes that have shaped the Earth's structure.

The correct answer is - UNESCO and UNEP

Key Points

• International Environmental Education Programme
• The programme was a collaborative effort between UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) and UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme).
• It was launched in 1975 with the aim to promote environmental education worldwide.
• The programme sought to integrate environmental education into both formal and non-formal education systems.
• It aimed to foster awareness, knowledge, attitudes, skills, and participation in environmental conservation and sustainable development.

Additional Information

• UNESCO
• UNESCO is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at promoting world peace and security through international cooperation in education, arts, sciences, and culture.
• It was founded in 1945 and is headquartered in Paris, France.
• UNESCO's work includes promoting literacy, technical training, education, and protecting cultural and natural heritage.
• UNEP
• UNEP is the leading global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda.
• It was established in 1972 and is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
• UNEP's mission is to provide leadership and encourage partnerships in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations.
• IUCN
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
• Founded in 1948, IUCN is composed of both government and civil society organizations.
• Its mission is to influence, encourage, and assist societies throughout the world to conserve the integrity and diversity of nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable.

Shortcut Trick

Effective discount = 12 - 20 - (12 × 20)/100

⇒ - 8 - 12/5

⇒ - 8 - 2.4 = - 10.4%

Hence, the Actual discount is 10.4%

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial price of the item = P

Price after 12% increase = P + 0.12P = 1.12P

Discount given = 20%

Formula Used:

Actual Price after discount = Price after increase - (Discount × Price after increase)

Actual discount on original price = Original price - Actual Price after discount

Calculation:

Price after 20% discount on increased price:

Price after discount = 1.12P - (0.20 × 1.12P)

⇒ Price after discount = 1.12P - 0.224P

⇒ Price after discount = 0.896P

Actual discount on original price:

Discount = P - 0.896P

⇒ Discount = 0.104P

Actual discount on original price in percentage:

Discount percentage = (0.104P / P) × 100

⇒ Discount percentage = 10.4%

The actual discount on the original price is 10.4% (option 2).

The correct answer is - Argument from Analogy

Key Points

• Argument from Analogy
• Involves comparing two different things based on their similarities.
• Assumes that because two things are similar in one or more ways, they are likely similar in another way.
• In this case, 'A' and 'B' are compared based on shared characteristics 'X' and 'Y'.
• Because 'A' has characteristic 'Z', it is concluded that 'B' also has characteristic 'Z'.

Additional Information

• Statistical Argument
• Relies on statistical data to support a conclusion.
• Often involves probabilities or percentages, not used in this argument.
• An argument from Authority
• Based on the credibility or expertise of a source.
• Typically involves citing an expert or authoritative source, not applicable here.
• Mathematical Argument
• Uses mathematical principles or formulas to reach a conclusion.
• Involves logical steps that are mathematically verifiable, not relevant in this context.

The correct answer is - A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Key Points

• Zero Hunger (A-III, SDG-2)
• The goal aims to end hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture.
• SDG-2 targets to ensure that everyone has access to sufficient and nutritious food all year round by 2030.
• Sustainable Cities and Communities (B-IV, SDG-11)
• This goal focuses on making cities inclusive, safe, resilient, and sustainable.It addresses the challenges of urbanization, including housing, transportation, and environmental impact.
• Affordable and Clean Energy (C-II, SDG-7)
• The aim is to ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all.
• It promotes increased use of renewable energy sources and improvements in energy efficiency.
• Climate Action (D-I, SDG-13)
• This goal urges taking urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts.It calls for integrating climate change measures into national policies, strategies, and planning.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
• The SDGs are a set of 17 global goals established by the United Nations in 2015 to address various global challenges by 2030.
• They cover a wide range of social, economic, and environmental issues.
• The goals are designed to be interconnected, with progress in one area often contributing to progress in others.
• Importance of SDG-2 (Zero Hunger)
• SDG-2 aims to ensure that everyone has access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food all year round.
• It also aims to end all forms of malnutrition and promote sustainable food production systems.
• Focus of SDG-11 (Sustainable Cities and Communities)
• SDG-11 addresses challenges like urban sprawl, pollution, and lack of basic services in urban areas.
• It promotes inclusive and sustainable urbanization and the capacity for participatory, integrated, and sustainable human settlement planning and management.

The logic followed here is:

So, the number that occurs in the series are (B) 511 and (C) 215.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - Study Webs of Active learning for Young Aspiring Minds

Key Points

• Study Webs of Active learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM)
• SWAYAM is an initiative by the Government of India designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of education policy, namely, access, equity, and quality.
• The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching and learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged.
• The platform hosts courses from school (Class 9-12) till post-graduation, covering diverse fields such as arts, science, commerce, and professional courses.
• SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.

Additional Information

• Scopus
• Scopus is a bibliographic database containing abstracts and citations for academic journal articles.
• It covers a wide range of scientific disciplines but is unrelated to SWAYAM.
• Agent Learning
• Agent learning typically refers to a subset of artificial intelligence where agents are programmed to learn from their environment.
• This term is not relevant to SWAYAM's mission or objectives.
• Science Web
• Science Web is a generic term that could refer to any online platform dedicated to science education or resources.
• SWAYAM, however, is broader and includes a variety of subjects beyond science.

The correct answer is - D only

Key Points

• Art in Education
• NEP-2020 emphasizes a holistic and multidisciplinary approach to education, but "Art in Education" specifically is not listed under the curriculum framework for adult education.
• It is more commonly included in school curricula to foster creativity and cultural awareness among younger students.

Additional Information

• Critical Life Skills
• These include skills such as financial literacy, digital literacy, health and wellness, and other essential life skills necessary for effective functioning in society.
• NEP-2020 includes these as part of the adult education curriculum framework to ensure that adults can navigate daily life and work environments successfully.
• Vocational Skills Development
• This component is crucial for adult education as it focuses on providing specific job-related skills and training, enhancing employability and economic productivity.
• Vocational training helps in bridging the skill gaps in various sectors, thereby contributing to economic growth.
• Continuing Education
• This includes programs for lifelong learning, allowing adults to continue their education at any stage of life.
• It is aimed at personal development and professional advancement, ensuring that learning is a continuous process.
• Basic Education
• This ensures that adults achieve foundational literacy and numeracy, which are essential for personal and professional development.
• NEP-2020 strongly advocates for basic education as a fundamental right for all adults to ensure societal progress and individual empowerment.

The correct answer is - A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Key Points

• Simple Resources
• These are physical objects that can be directly bought, adjusted, and measured.
• Examples include textbooks, blackboards, and chalks.
• They are straightforward and tangible resources used in the classroom.
• Compound Resources
• These involve the use of two or more resources simultaneously.
• Examples include class size reduction combined with the use of technology.
• They often enhance the effectiveness of teaching by leveraging multiple tools and techniques.
• Complex Resources
• These resources are difficult to discern and measure.
• They are often embedded in a web of relationships and practices, such as decision-making and teacher accountability.
• These resources require a nuanced understanding and are integral to the educational environment.
• Abstract Resources
• These resources are not easily bought, measured, or adjusted.
• Examples include instructional approaches and teaching philosophies.
• They are intangible and often relate to the underlying principles guiding education.

Additional Information

• Understanding Classroom Resources
• Classroom resources are varied and can be categorized based on their complexity and tangibility.
• Effective use of these resources can significantly enhance the learning experience.
• Teachers must be adept at integrating both tangible and intangible resources to create a holistic educational environment.
• Importance of Resource Categorization
• Identifying and categorizing resources help in better planning and utilization.
• It ensures that the right mix of resources is employed to meet educational objectives.
• This categorization also aids in resource allocation and budget planning.

Given:

Fractions:

(A) = 17/21

(B) = 15/19

(C) = 13/16

(D) = 14/17

Formula used:

We will convert each fraction to its decimal equivalent to arrange them in decreasing order.

Calculation:

(A) 17/21 ≈ 0.8095

(B) 15/19 ≈ 0.7895

(C) 13/16 = 0.8125

(D) 14/17 ≈ 0.8235

Arranging in decreasing order:

(D) > (C) > (A) > (B)

∴ The correct order is: D > C > A > B.

The correct answer is - B, A, D, E, C

Key Points

• Jharkhand (B)
• Jharkhand is considered one of the most climate-vulnerable states in India due to its socioeconomic conditions, high dependence on natural resources, and significant forest cover.
• The state faces challenges such as extreme weather events, changes in rainfall patterns, and increased frequency of droughts.
• Uttar Pradesh (A)
• Uttar Pradesh is highly vulnerable to climate change impacts due to its large population, agriculture-dependent economy, and frequent occurrences of extreme weather events like heatwaves and floods.
• Its geographic location makes it susceptible to both droughts and floods, further exacerbating its vulnerability.
• Manipur (D)
• Manipur is vulnerable due to its geographic and climatic conditions, which include frequent landslides, heavy rainfall, and changing weather patterns.
• Its socio-economic factors, such as limited infrastructure and reliance on agriculture, contribute to its climate vulnerability.
• Punjab (E)
• Punjab is vulnerable to climate change, particularly in terms of water scarcity and changing agricultural patterns.
• It faces challenges like declining water tables, reduced crop yields, and increased temperatures.
• Maharashtra (C)
• Maharashtra, while still vulnerable to climate change, is less so compared to the other states listed.
• The state experiences issues such as droughts, water scarcity, and urban heat islands, especially in cities like Mumbai.

Additional Information

• Climate Vulnerability in Indian States
• Climate vulnerability refers to the susceptibility of a region to the adverse impacts of climate change, including extreme weather events, sea-level rise, and shifts in agricultural productivity.
• Socio-economic factors, such as population density, economic dependence on climate-sensitive sectors, and existing infrastructure, play a significant role in determining a state's vulnerability.
• States with high poverty levels, significant rural populations, and dependence on agriculture are generally more vulnerable to climate impacts.
• Adaptation and Mitigation Measures
• States can undertake various adaptation measures to reduce their climate vulnerability, such as improving infrastructure, promoting sustainable agricultural practices, and enhancing water management systems.
• Mitigation efforts, such as reducing greenhouse gas emissions and increasing green cover, also play a crucial role in addressing climate change impacts.

The correct answer is - A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Key Points

• Strawman Fallacy
• In the Strawman fallacy, the arguer distorts an opponent’s claim to make it easier to attack.
• For example, Person A makes a claim, Person B misrepresents Person A’s claim, and then attacks the distorted version.
• This is a common tactic in debates and discussions where one party wants to discredit the other without addressing the actual argument.
• Red Herring Fallacy
• The Red Herring fallacy occurs when an arguer tries to sidetrack the audience by raising an irrelevant issue.
• Instead of addressing the original issue, the arguer shifts the focus to a different topic, thus avoiding the original argument.
• It is used to divert attention from the real issue at hand.
• Equivocation Fallacy
• Equivocation happens when a key word is used in two or more senses in the same argument.
• This can create confusion or make an argument misleading because the word’s meaning changes in the course of the argument.
• For example, using the word "bank" to mean both a financial institution and the side of a river.
• Begging the Question Fallacy
• Begging the Question occurs when an arguer states or assumes as a premise the very thing they are trying to prove as a conclusion.
• This form of circular reasoning doesn’t provide any actual proof and assumes the conclusion within the premises.
• For instance, "Reading is fundamental because it's essential to read."

Additional Information

• Types of Fallacies
• Ad Hominem: Attacks the person rather than the argument.
• Slippery Slope: Argues that a small step will inevitably lead to a chain of related (negative) events.
• Appeal to Authority: Argues something is true because an authority or expert says it is.
• False Dichotomy: Presents only two options when more exist.
• Hasty Generalization: Makes a broad generalization based on a small sample.

The correct answer is - Bhimbetka

Key Points

• Bhimbetka
• The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an archaeological site located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• The site contains the earliest traces of human life in India, with evidence of Stone Age rock paintings that date back to around 30,000 years ago.
• The rock paintings provide a visual account of human life, showing animals, human figures, and daily activities.
• This site is considered one of the oldest known forms of human communication in India through pictorial representations.
• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2003.

Additional Information

• Dholavira
• Dholavira is an archaeological site located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, India.
• It is one of the five largest Harappan sites and the most prominent archaeological site in India belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Dholavira is known for its advanced urban planning, architecture, and water conservation systems.
• Ropar
• Ropar, also known as Rupnagar, is an archaeological site in Punjab, India.
• It is one of the sites associated with the Indus Valley Civilization.
• The site includes evidence of Harappan and post-Harappan settlements.
• Sinauli
• Sinauli is an archaeological site located in Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The site gained attention due to its discovery of ancient chariots, weapons, and burials, dating back to the Bronze Age.
• The findings at Sinauli provide insights into the Vedic period and early Indian history.

The correct answer is - A, B, D, and E only

Key Points

• A - To identify the problems
• Identifying problems is the first step in critical thinking. It involves recognizing and understanding the issues that need to be addressed.
• This component lays the foundation for further analysis and solution finding.
• B - To analyse the problems
• Analyzing problems involves breaking down complex issues into smaller, more manageable parts.This step is crucial for understanding the underlying causes and potential impacts of the problem.
• It enables a deeper understanding and facilitates the development of effective solutions.
• D - To select relevant facts and principles
• Selecting relevant facts and principles is essential for informed decision-making.
• This involves distinguishing between important and trivial information and focusing on what is most pertinent to the issue at hand.
• E - To draw inferences and conclusions
• Drawing inferences and conclusions is the final step in the critical thinking process.
• It involves synthesizing information, analyzing evidence, and making logical judgments based on the data collected.
• This step helps in forming reasoned opinions and making sound decisions.

Additional Information

• Critical Thinking
• Critical thinking is the ability to think clearly and rationally, understanding the logical connection between ideas.
• It involves systematic evaluation of information and arguments, identifying biases, and making reasoned judgments.
• Critical thinking is essential for problem-solving, decision-making, and effective communication.
• Logical Thinking
• Logical thinking involves reasoning in a structured and coherent manner.
• It includes deductive and inductive reasoning, where conclusions are drawn based on logical progression of ideas.
• Logical thinking helps in constructing valid arguments and solving complex problems efficiently.
• Subjective Truths
• Subjective truths are based on personal perspectives, feelings, and opinions.
• They are inherently biased and can vary from person to person.
• While subjective truths have value in personal contexts, they are less reliable for objective analysis and decision-making.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that "one can see architecture belonging to the Chalukya (Solanki) period at Adalaj, a heritage site protected by the Archaeological Survey of India in the Gandhinagar district."
• This indicates that Adalaj is the specific heritage site being referenced.
• Other options like Khumbor, Dholavira, and Shihor are mentioned in the passage but not as heritage sites in Gandhinagar district.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Khumbor is mentioned in the context of stone carvings and symbolism.
• Option 3: Dholavira is referenced as a site for the Indus Valley Civilisation.
• Option 4: Shihor is mentioned in relation to metal craft traditions.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that "Maru-Gurjara or Chalukyan style architecture can also be seen in the Sun Temple of Modhera."
• This indicates that Maru-Gurjara is the specific style of architecture seen in the Sun Temple of Modhera.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Solanki is another name for the Chalukya dynasty mentioned in the passage, but the specific style named is Maru-Gurjara.
• Option 3: Cholan style refers to the architecture of the Chola dynasty, not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 4: Khamboj is not mentioned in the context of the passage.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that "Copper has been in use in Gujarat since the times of the Chalcolithic Age. Its traces are found in the ruins of the Indus Valley Civilisation at Lothal and Dholavira." This indicates Lothal and Dholavira are associated with traces of copper.
• It also mentions "The town of Shihor is still continuing that glorious tradition of metal craft with its 'Kansa' (Bell metal) works especially pots and pitchers of various sizes." This indicates Shihor is associated with copper works.
• Modhera is mentioned in the passage in the context of Maru-Gurjara or Chalukyan style architecture seen in the Sun Temple of Modhera, not related to copper or copper works.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Shihor is mentioned for its 'Kansa' (Bell metal) works.
• Option 2: Lothal is mentioned in connection with traces of copper from the Indus Valley Civilisation.
• Option 3: Dholavira is also mentioned in connection with traces of copper from the Indus Valley Civilisation.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that "The city Junagadh is adorned with beautiful shrines of Hindus, Jains and Muslims."
• This indicates that Junagadh has beautiful shrines of Hinduism, Jainism, and Islam.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Hinduism, Buddhism, Christianity - Buddhism and Christianity are not mentioned in relation to Junagadh's shrines.
• Option 2: Christianity, Hinduism, Jainism - Christianity is not mentioned in relation to Junagadh's shrines.
• Option 3: Hinduism, Buddhism, Islam - Buddhism is not mentioned in relation to Junagadh's shrines.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that "The city Junagadh is adorned with beautiful shrines of Hindus, Jains and Muslims."
• This indicates that Junagadh has beautiful shrines of Hinduism, Jainism, and Islam.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Hinduism, Buddhism, Christianity - Buddhism and Christianity are not mentioned in relation to Junagadh's shrines.
• Option 2: Christianity, Hinduism, Jainism - Christianity is not mentioned in relation to Junagadh's shrines.
• Option 3: Hinduism, Buddhism, Islam - Buddhism is not mentioned in relation to Junagadh's shrines.