Previous Year Paper

SSC GD Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 9th December 2021 Shift 1)

Held in 2021

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

23, 23, 46, 138, 552, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    2850

  2. BOption (b)

    2520

  3. COption (c)

    2760

  4. DOption (d)

    2650

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2760

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Hence, the correct answer is "2760".

Question 2

In a certain code language, PLACARD is coded as 29-3-23, and DORMATS is coded as 37-13-40. How will CONFUSE be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    32-6-45

  2. BOption (b)

    35-6-42

  3. COption (c)

    32-7-40

  4. DOption (d)

    30-6-44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

32-6-45

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Sum of first three alphabet positional value - Fourth alphabet positional value - Sum of last three alphabet positional value.

PLACARD is coded as 29-3-23.

= (16 + 12 + 1) - 3 - (1 + 18 + 4)

= 29-3-23

And

DORMATS is coded as 37-13-40.

= (4 + 15 + 18) - 13 - (1 + 20 + 19)

= 37-13-40

Similarly,

CONFUSE will be coded as :

= (3 + 15 + 14) - 6 - (21 + 19 + 5)

= 32-6-45

Hence, the correct answer is "32-6-45".

Question 3

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the number of employed youths who are NOT graduates?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

18

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given is as shown below :-

∴ Here, the number of employed youths who are NOT graduates are 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "18".

Question 4

Six friends, Priya, Arun, Vansh, Rajat, Bhavna and Manju, are sitting around a circular table, with their backs towards the centre. Vansh is sitting second to the right of Rajat. Arun and Priya are not the neighbours of Rajat. Manju is sitting between Rajat and Arun.

Who is sitting between Vansh and Rajat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhavna

  2. BOption (b)

    Arun

  3. COption (c)

    Manju

  4. DOption (d)

    Priya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bhavna

Why this answer is correct

Six friends, Priya, Arun, Vansh, Rajat, Bhavna and Manju, are sitting around a circular table, with their backs towards the centre.

1) Vansh is sitting second to the right of Rajat.

2) Manju is sitting between Rajat and Arun.

3) Arun and Priya are not the neighbours of Rajat.

 

∴ Here, 'Bhavna' is sitting in between Vansh and Rajat

Hence, the correct answer is "Bhavna".

Question 5

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The image formed in given series at ? is as shown below :-

  • The bottom right symbol is moving to middle from figure to figure.
  • On left side lower part is empty in first and upper part is empty in second repeated simultaneously.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 6

Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. AOption (a)

    DKR

  2. BOption (b)

    GAH

  3. COption (c)

    VCJ

  4. DOption (d)

    MTA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

GAH

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

1) DKR

2) GAH

3) VCJ

4) MTA

∴ Here, "GAH" is different from other three alternatives.

Hence, the correct answer is "GAH".

Question 7

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Brave : Courageous :: Stupid : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sensible

  2. BOption (b)

    Wise

  3. COption (c)

    Insane

  4. DOption (d)

    Timid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Insane

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Courageous is synonym of Brave.

Similarly,

Insane is synonym of Stupid.

Hence, the correct answer is "Insane".

Question 8

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.

  1. Target
  2. Tarnish
  3. Tarot
  4. Tamarind
  5. Tenacity
  1. AOption (a)

    4, 1, 2, 3, 5

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 1, 4, 3, 5

  3. COption (c)

    4, 1, 2, 5, 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 4, 2, 3, 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4, 1, 2, 3, 5

Why this answer is correct

The arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary is as shown below :

  1. Tamarind
  2. Target
  3. Tarnish
  4. Tarot
  5. Tenacity

Hence, the correct answer is "4, 1, 2, 3, 5".

Question 9

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the letter that will be on the face opposite to the one having 'Z'.

  1. AOption (a)

    P

  2. BOption (b)

    J

  3. COption (c)

    V

  4. DOption (d)

    U

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P

Why this answer is correct

Opposite surface of the open dice can be found by the below method:- 

  • Alternate surfaces are opposite to each other.
  • No two opposite surface are touched by side or by corners

From the positions 1, 2, 3 of Dice the opposite faces identified as :

From dice First, second and third:

AlphabetsOpposite
UJ
VW
ZP

∴ Here, the opposite side of 'Z' is 'P'.

Hence, the correct answer is "P".

Question 10

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

85 : 6 :: 97 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Second number = (First digit of number - Second digit of number) × 2

85 : 6 → (8 - 5) × 2 = 3 × 2 = 6

Similarly,

97 : ? → (9 - 7) × 2 = 2 × 2 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

Question 11

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

  1. AOption (a)

    58

  2. BOption (b)

    70

  3. COption (c)

    62

  4. DOption (d)

    68

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

70

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is as shown below :-

 → (a × b) - c = d

Similarly,

1) 

 → (7 × 5) - 11 = 35 - 11 = 24

2) 

 → (9 × 8) - 15 = 72 - 15 = 57

3) 

 → (12 × 3) - 3 = 36 - 3 = 33

4) 

 → (13 × 7) - 21 = 91 - 21 = 70

Hence, the correct answer is "70".

Question 12

In a certain code language, TURTLE is written as RWPVJG. How will OCTOPUS be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    MEVMRSU

  2. BOption (b)

    MERQMSU

  3. COption (c)

    QARQNWQ

  4. DOption (d)

    MERQNWQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MERQNWQ

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Odd position letter of given word is -2.

Even position letter of given word is +2.

TURTLE is written as RWPVJG.

Similarly,

OCTOPUS will be written as :

Hence, the correct answer is "MERQNWQ".

Question 13

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

12553
128?7
121112
  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

In a given row : (Middle number)Last number = First number

1) 

12553

⇒ 53 = 125

2) 

128?7

Consider ? = X

⇒ X7 = 128

⇒ X7 = 27

⇒ X = 2

3) 

121112

⇒ 112 = 121

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

Question 14

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

25, 150, 145, 580, 577, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    980

  2. BOption (b)

    1154

  3. COption (c)

    1020

  4. DOption (d)

    1731

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1154

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Hence, the correct answer is "1154".

Question 15

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The image not embedded in given figure is as shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2".

Question 16

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

After unfolding the given paper the figure formed is as shown below :-

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 17

Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

SBQN : UEVU :: LRFH : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    NUKO

  2. BOption (b)

    NVLO

  3. COption (c)

    OULO

  4. DOption (d)

    MVKO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

NUKO

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

SBQN : UEVU

Similarly,

LRFH : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "NUKO".

Question 18

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

DMI, GNL, JOO, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    NTS

  2. BOption (b)

    OQR

  3. COption (c)

    LPQ

  4. DOption (d)

    MPR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MPR

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Hence, the correct answer is "MPR".

Question 19

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

D _ C T _ O _ T D O C _ D O _ T

  1. AOption (a)

    T D C T C

  2. BOption (b)

    O D C T C

  3. COption (c)

    O D T T C

  4. DOption (d)

    O D C T D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

O D C T C

Why this answer is correct

Given :- D _ C T _ O _ T D O C _ D O _ T 

By checking options and substituting accordingly.

1) T D C T C → D T C T - D O C T - D O C T - D O C T

2) O D C T C → D O C T - D O C T - D O C T - D O C T

  • Here "DOCT" is repeated.

3) O D T T C → D O C T - D O T T - D O C T - D O C T

4) O D C T D → D O C T - D O C T - D O C T - D O D T

  • Option (2) gives the pattern of :- D O C T - D O C T - D O C T - D O C T

Hence, the correct answer is "O D C T C".

Question 20

In a certain code language, KINGDOM is written as LKPHFQN. How will TRIVIAL be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    UTKWKCM

  2. BOption (b)

    UTLWKBM

  3. COption (c)

    UTLWKCM

  4. DOption (d)

    UTLWLBM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

UTKWKCM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

First letter is added with +1 and next two letter of word is added with +2 it is repeated.

KINGDOM is written as LKPHFQN.

Similarly,

TRIVIAL will be written as :

Hence, the correct answer is "UTKWKCM".

Question 21

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed to the right side of the combination.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at PQ is as shown below :-

Detailed Explanation:

  • The line "PQ" is the mirror.
  • The word "54RQXZ" ends with letter "Z". So, the mirror image starts with "

" ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

  • The word "54RQXZ" has last third letter "Q". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 2 and 4 are eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 22

F, G, H, I and J are sitting in a line facing south while R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing north. I is second to the right of F, F is opposite to S. H and S are diagonally opposite to each other and at the extreme ends. G is opposite to V who is just next to the left of S. T who is the second to the left of V, is opposite to J. R is at one end of the line. Which of the following pairs is opposite to each other?

  1. AOption (a)

    HU, IV

  2. BOption (b)

    GS, FR

  3. COption (c)

    HR, IU

  4. DOption (d)

    JR, IT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

HR, IU

Why this answer is correct

F, G, H, I and J are sitting in a line facing south while R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing north.

1) I is second to the right of F, F is opposite to S.

2) G is opposite to V who is just next to the left of S.

3) T who is the second to the left of V, is opposite to J.

4) R is at one end of the line and H and S are diagonally opposite to each other and at the extreme ends.

∴ Here, "HR, IU" pairs are opposite to each other.

Hence, the correct answer is "HR, IU".

Question 23

If '+' represents '×', '−' represents '+', '×' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '−', then what will be the value of the following expression?

47 + 12 ÷ 288 × 18

  1. AOption (a)

    470

  2. BOption (b)

    47.75

  3. COption (c)

    454

  4. DOption (d)

    548

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

548

Why this answer is correct

By using BODMAS RULE :

Given :-

SymbolsStands for
+×
-+
×÷
÷-

Given expression : 47 + 12 ÷ 288 × 18

After interchanging the given symbols the expression formed is : 

= 47 × 12 - 288 ÷ 18

= 47 × 12 - 16

= 564 - 16

= 548

Hence, the correct answer is "548".

Question 24

Ranjan is the father of Ritesh, who is the maternal grandfather of Sunny. Dakshita is the only daughter of Reema. Shikha is the mother-in-law of Reema. Ritesh is the only son of Shikha. Pallavi is the sister of Sunny. How is Dakshita related to Sunny?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son

  2. BOption (b)

    Aunt

  3. COption (c)

    Sister

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mother

Why this answer is correct

Family chart :-

Family Tree :

1) Ranjan is the father of Ritesh.

2) Ritesh is the only son of Shikha.

3) Shikha is the mother-in-law of Reema.

4) Dakshita is the only daughter of Reema.

5) Ritesh, who is the maternal grandfather of Sunny and Pallavi is the sister of Sunny.

∴ Here, Dakshita is mother of sunny.

Hence, the correct answer is "Mother".

Question 25

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All clothes are flowers.

Some flowers are vegetables.

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are clothes.

II. Some vegetables are flowers.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Either of the conclusions follow

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion I follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both conclusions I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :-

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are clothes → True (As All clothes are flowers so, Some flowers are clothes is true)

II. Some vegetables are flowers → True (As Some flowers are vegetables so, Some vegetables are flowers is true)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follow".

General Knowledge and General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of 'soil'?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is made up of inorganic matter.

  2. BOption (b)

    It covers the surface of the earth.

  3. COption (c)

    It is a thin layer of grainy substance.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is made up of minerals.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It is made up of inorganic matter.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is made up of inorganic matter.

Key Points

  • Soil
  • Soil is a combination of organic matter, gases, liquids, and organisms that support life.
  • Soil is a living natural element.
  • It is made up of both mineral and organic material.
  • Soil properties are determined by the parent rock.
  • Most soils have a dry bulk density of 1.1 to 1.6 g/cm3.​

Additional Information

  • There is 8 main Type soil :
  • Alluvial Soil:
  • Found in the river plains and deltas of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Indus.
  • Rich in potash but deficient in phosphorus.
  • Suitable for crops like wheat, rice, sugarcane, and cotton.
  • Black Soil:
  • Also known as Regur soil, found in the Deccan Plateau (Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu).
  • Rich in lime, iron, magnesium, and alumina; retains moisture.
  • Suitable for cotton, known as "Black Cotton Soil."
  • Red and Yellow Soil:
  • Found in the Eastern and Southern parts of the Deccan Plateau (Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the Middle Ganga plain, and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats).
  • Rich in iron but poor in nitrogen, phosphorus, and humus.
  • Suitable for crops like rice, ragi, tobacco, and vegetables.
  • Laterite Soil:
  • Found in areas with high rainfall (Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, parts of Odisha, and Meghalaya).
  • Rich in iron and aluminum but poor in nitrogen, potassium, and organic matter.
  • Suitable for crops like tea, coffee, cashew nuts, and tapioca.
  • Arid and Desert Soil:
  • Found in the arid regions of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and the northern parts of Karnataka.
  • Sandy and saline, low in organic matter and moisture content.
  • Suitable for drought-resistant crops like bajra, jowar, and pulses.
  • Saline and Alkaline Soil:
  • Found in arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • Contains high amounts of sodium, potassium, and magnesium salts.
  • Requires soil treatment for cultivation; suitable for salt-tolerant crops like barley, cotton, and sugar beet.
  • Peaty and Marshy Soil:
  • Found in areas with heavy rainfall and high humidity, such as Kerala, coastal areas of Odisha, and West Bengal.
  • Rich in organic matter but deficient in potash and phosphate.
  • Suitable for rice and jute cultivation.
  • Forest and Mountain Soil:
  • Found in the Himalayan region, Western and Eastern Ghats, and some parts of the peninsular plateau.
  • Rich in humus but poor in potash, phosphorus, and lime.
  • Suitable for tea, coffee, spices, and temperate fruits.

Question 27

Who among the following is associated with Third Anglo Mysore War and introduction of civil services in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Cornwallis

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Hastings

  3. COption (c)

    Lord William Bentinc

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Wellesley

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord Cornwallis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lord Cornwallis.

Key Points

  • Third Anglo- Mysore war (1790–92).
  • The third Anglo-Mysore war began in 1790.
  • Lord Cornwallis formed a triple alliance against Tipu Sultan in 1790.
  • The triple alliance consisted of the British, Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas.
  • Third, Anglo-Mysore war (1790-92) Britishers attacked Seringpatnam, Tipu suffered a huge loss in the war.
  • It ended with the Treaty of Seringapatam in 1792.

 Additional Information

  • First Anglo-Mysore war (1766-69).
  • The Treaty of Madras (1769) ended the First Anglo-Mysore war.
  • It was signed between the British and Hyder Ali of Mysore.
  • Haider Ali defeated the British.
  • Second Anglo Mysore war (1780-84):
  • Warren Hastings attacked the French port Mahe, which was in Haider Ali's territory.
  • Haider Ali made an alliance with Marathas and Nizams and attacked British
  • In 1781, Haider Ali was defeated at Porto Novo by Eyre Coot.
  • The war ended with a treaty of Mangalore, signed between the Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company in 1784.
  • Haider Ali died during the second Anglo-Mysore war.

Question 28

Which of the following is defined as the ratio of liquid assets to net demand and time liabilities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cash Debt Ratio

  2. BOption (b)

    Asset Liability Ratio

  3. COption (c)

    Statutory Liquidity Ratio

  4. DOption (d)

    Cash Reserve Ratio

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio.

Key Points

  • Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the reserve requirement that commercial banks in India are required to maintain in the form of cash, gold reserves, and government-approved securities before providing credit to customers.
  • When SLR is reduced, banks have more money to lend which may lead to a decrease in lending rates.
  • By changing the level of SLR, the Reserve Bank of India can increase or decrease bank credit expansion.
  • By reducing the level of SLR, the RBI can increase liquidity with commercial banks, resulting in increased investment.
  • This is done to fuel growth and demand.

Additional Information

  • Corporate social responsibility(CSR).
  • The title corporate social responsibility has two meanings, First, it’s a general name for any theory of the corporation that emphasizes both the responsibility to make money and the responsibility to interact ethically with the surrounding community.
  • Corporate social responsibility is also a specific conception of that responsibility to profit while playing a role in broader questions of community welfare, Corporate social responsibility is composed of four obligations.
  • Ecological responsibility
  • Legal responsibility
  • Social responsibility
  • Philanthropic responsibility

Question 29

India's first exclusive private jet terminal was inaugurated on 17 September 2020 in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Chennai

  3. COption (c)

    Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Mumbai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

  • Civil Aviation Minister Hardeep Singh Puri has inaugurated India's first General Aviation Terminal at Delhi airport.
  • The exclusive terminal will handle the flight operations of private jets.
  • The new terminal has been built to support the movement and processing of passengers flying through chartered flights from IGI Airport.

Additional Information

Airport Authority of India (AAI)

  • It is a statutory authority.
  • It was founded on 1st April 1965.
  • It works under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
  • It is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure in India.
  • Headquarters - New Delhi.
  • Chairman -**Sanjeev Kumar(as of oct-2022).**​

Important Points

CityInternational Airport
MumbaiChhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport
KolkataNetaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport
ChennaiChennai International Airport
GoaDabolim Airport

Question 30

The ‘Mahamagham’ festival is celebrated once in every 12 years in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Nagaland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • Mahamaham Festival is a bathing ritual observed every 12 years and said to atone for one of their sins.
  • Thousands of Hindu devotees who take a plunge in the Mahamaham tank attend the event in Kumbakonam.
  • The Hindu festival of Mahamaham is also known as Mahamagham or Mamangam.

 Additional Information

FestivalState
PongalTamil Nadu
Lohri, BaisakhiPunjab
OnamKerala
Makar SakrantiNorth India
BihuAssam
NuakhaiOrissa
Gudi PadwaMaharashtra
WangalaMeghalaya and  Assam
UgadiAndhra Pradesh and Karnataka
VishuKerala and Karnataka

Question 31

'Shantaram' is a novel written by ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Chetan Bhagat

  2. BOption (b)

    Amitav Ghosh

  3. COption (c)

    Salman Rushdie

  4. DOption (d)

    Gregory David Roberts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gregory David Roberts

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gregory David Roberts.

Key Points

  • Gregory David Roberts is an Australian author.
  • He wrote the Shantaram novel in 2003.
  • It is a story of the life of the author escaping from a maximum security prison and travelling with a fake passport arriving in Bombay, India.
  • The book's title is named after his best friend's mother gave him, which means Man of Peace.

Additional Information 

AuthorBooks
Chetan Bhagat- Five Point Someone (2004) - One Night at the Call Center (2005) - The 3 Mistakes Of My Life (2008)
Amitav Ghosh- The Circle of Reason (1986) - The Shadow Lines (1988) - The Calcutta Chromosome (1995)
Salman Rushdie- Grimus (1975) - Midnight's Children (1981) - Shame (1983)

Question 32

Viswanathan Anand was the first recipient of the ______ in 1991-92.

  1. AOption (a)

    Arjuna Award

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

  3. COption (c)

    Ekalavya Award

  4. DOption (d)

    Dronacharya Award

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.

Key Points

  • Viswanathan Anand is an Indian chess player.
  • He was born on 11 December 1969 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India.
  • He won the FIDE World Rapid Chess Championship in 2003 and 2017, and the World Blitz Cup in 2000.
  • He was the first Indian to be conferred with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 1991-1992.
  • He was honoured with Padma Vibhushan in the year 2007.

Additional Information Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (Now called Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award)

  • It was instituted in 1991.
  • This is the highest sporting award given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • It is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson over a period of four years.
  • The winner of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award gets a reward of 7.5 lac rupees previously now increased to 25 lakhs(As of 2022).​

Important Points Arjuna Award

  • Arjuna Award is the second-highest sporting honour in India, the highest being the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
  • It is given by the President of India.
  • The selection of candidates is done by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

 Dronacharya Award

  • Dronacharya Award is given to those coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams and enabled them to achieve outstanding results in international competitions.
  • This eminent award was started in the year 1985.
  • This award is named after the legendary guru or teacher Dronacharya.

Question 33

Seventy Forth Amendment Act, 1992 of the Constitution of India is related to ___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    municipalities

  2. BOption (b)

    citizenship

  3. COption (c)

    emergency provisions

  4. DOption (d)

    the fundamental duties

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

municipalities

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is municipalities.

Key Points

  • 74th amendment act 1992 gave constitutional recognition to Municipalities.
  • It added a new part in the constitution Part IX A with articles 243 P To Article 243 ZG.
  • It also included a 12th Schedule in the constitution which contains 18 functional items of Municipalities mentioned in Article 243 W.
  • It was done to revitalise and strengthen the urban governments which are also known as Urban local self-government.
  • With the 74th amendment act, it was compulsory to constitute Nagar Panchayats, Municipal councils and ,Municipal corporations in urban areas.
  • It included a reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population.
  • It made the compulsory reservations of one-third of seats for women.
  • It fixed the tenure at five years and in case of earlier dissolution fresh elections are held within six months.

Additional Information

  • The first municipal corporation in India was created in Madras in 1688.
  • Lord Ripon was the viceroy who created local self-government in 1882 in India and was also called the father of local self-government.
  • 65th Constitutional Amendment Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha in August 1989 to constitutionalize, strengthen and revamp the municipal bodies but couldn't get passed.

Important Points 

Important ProvisionPart and Article
CitizenshipPart II, Articles 5 to 11
Emergency provisionsXVIII, Article 352 to 360
The fundamental dutiesIV A, Article 51A

Question 34

The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional recognition to the panchayats by adding a new part ________to the constitution.

  1. AOption (a)

    X

  2. BOption (b)

    XI

  3. COption (c)

    XII

  4. DOption (d)

    IX

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

IX

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IX.

Key Points

  • 73rd amendment act 1992 gave constitutional recognition to Panchayats.
  • It added a new part to the constitution Part IX with articles Articles 243 to 243 (O).
  • It also included an 11th Schedule in the constitution which contains 29 functional items of Municipalities mentioned in Article 243-G.
  • It was done to revitalise and strengthen the rural governments which are also known as Rural local self-government.
  • With the 73rd amendment act, it was compulsory to constitute Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad in rural areas.
  • It included a reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population.
  • It made the compulsory reservations of one-third of seats for women.
  • It fixed the tenure at five years and in case of earlier dissolution fresh elections are held within six months.
  • Establishment of the state election commission to conduct its election.
  • Constitution of the state finance commission after every 5 years to review the financial position of the panchayats.

Additional Information

  • Lord Ripon was the viceroy who created local self-government in 1882 in India and was also called the father of local self-government.
  • It had been established after the advice of the Balwant Rai Mehta committee, which is established by the Govt. of India in 1957.
  • The first Panchayat system was introduced in Rajasthan in 1959.
  • The Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI) consists of three levels:
  • Gram Panchayat at the village level
  • Block Panchayat or Panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level
  • Zilla Panchayat at the district level

Important Points

Part and ArticlesProvision
Part X, Articles 244 to 244-AThe schedule and Tribal areas
Part XI, Articles 245 to 263Relation between the Union and States
Part XII, Articles 264 to 300-AFinance, Property, Contracts and Suits

Question 35

In which year was the Hunter Commission appointed by Lord Ripon?

  1. AOption (a)

    1881

  2. BOption (b)

    1882

  3. COption (c)

    1883

  4. DOption (d)

    1880

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1882

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1882.

Key Points

  • The Hunter Commission of 1882 was presided over by Sir William Hunter and was appointed by Lord Ripon, the then-viceroy of India.
  • It was constituted on 3rd April 1882 to examine the implementation of the Dispatch of 1854.
  • It recommended the introduction of practical subjects in secondary schools so as to divert them into different walks of life.
  • Sir William Hunter was an Indian Civil Service officer and a member of the Executive Council of the Viceroy.
  • The following were the main objectives :
  • Consider different aspects of education in India, paying particular attention to primary education.
  • Enquire into the execution of Wood’s Despatch of 1854 and suggest ways to improve outcomes of the same.

Additional Information Lord Ripon (1880-1884)

  • He is known as the father of local self-government as the resolution was passed in his tenure.
  • The first factory act (1881) was passed him which prohibited the working of children below seven years and a limited number of working hours for children below 12 years.
  • He also increased the age requirement for civil services from 18 years to 21 years.
  • He repealed Vernacular Press Act and allowed freedom of the press.
  • He continued the policy of financial devolution inaugurated under Lord Mayo

Question 36

With reference to the Iron and Steel industries, which of the following pairs of cities and states is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bokaro - Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhilai - Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Durgapur - Assam

  4. DOption (d)

    Rourkela - Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bhilai - Chhattisgarh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhilai - Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

  • Bhilai Steel Plant is situated in Chhattisgarh.
  • Bhilai is a city in the district of Durg.
  • The Bhilai Steel Plant (BSP) is India's first and main producer of steel rails.
  • Last 50 years, the Bhilai Steel Plant, which is India's largest integrated steel plant has gotten its supply of iron ore from Dalli Rajhara's mines.
  • Bhilai Steel Plant was set up in 1955 with the help of the USSR (Russia).
  • Bhilai is known as the "Steel City of Central India".

 Additional Information

  • The largest producer of steel in India is Tata Steel.
  • Tata Steel is followed by Steel Authority of India Ltd in terms of production.
  • Bokaro Steel Plants were set up with Soviet collaboration.

Important Points

Steel PlantLocation
Rourkela Steel PlantOdisha
Bokaro Steel PlantJharkhand
Durgapur Steel PlantWest Bengal
Salem Steel PlantTamil Nadu
Tata SteelJamshedpur, Jharkhand
Visvesvaraya Steel Plant, BhadravatiKarnataka

Question 37

As per a circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India in August 2021, banks will be charged a penalty of ₹10,000 per ATM in case the ATM remains out of cash for a total period of ______ hours in a month from 1 October 2021 onwards.

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India has proposed penalties for banks and White Label ATM operators if their ATMs are found to be lying without replenishment for more than ten hours to ensure customers and not inconvenienced.
  • The regulator also directed banks and White Label ATM Operators to ensure a minimum duration of cashouts in ATMs.
  • Cash-out will attract a flat penalty of Rs. 10,000 per ATM.

Additional Information

  • RBI:
  • Governor - Shaktikanta Das.
  • Headquarters - Mumbai.
  • Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.

Question 38

Apart from Gujarat, Jiviti (Jivti/Jivati) Puja is performed by married women, mainly in the state/union territory of _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nagaland

  2. BOption (b)

    Bihar

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Jammu and Kashmir

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • Jivati puja is celebrated in the states of Gujarat and Maharashtra.
  • It is celebrated in the month of Shravan(July-August).
  • Puja is performed by married women mainly.
  • Jivti is an incarnation of Parvati, a goddess who is believed to protect children.
  • Roasted chana mixed with milk and sugar is served after the puja.

Additional Information 

StatesFestivals
NagalandHornbill Festival
BiharChhath Puja
Jammu and KashmirShikara Festival

Question 39

In December 2020, IIT _______ researchers have demonstrated how with the use of a micro-structured hour-glass-shaped metastructure in the lattice unit, one can get a wider variation of propagation and stop bands.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ropar

  2. BOption (b)

    Kharagpur

  3. COption (c)

    Kanpur

  4. DOption (d)

    Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kanpur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kanpur.

Key Points

  • IIT Kanpur researchers demonstrated how with the use of a micro-structured hour-glass-shaped metastructure in the lattice unit.
  • The hourglasses are developed using additive manufacturing.
  • With help of it, one can get a wider variation of propagation and stop bands.
  • They got the inspiration to create lattice from a two-headed drum called ‘Dambaru’ or ‘Damaru’ which is used in ancient Hinduism and Tibetan Buddhism.
  • It has wide applications in the field of vibration isolation in high-speed trains, stealth submarines and helicopter rotors.
  • The application has shown that the nature of stiffness of a vibrating medium could be altered drastically by controlling the lattice micro-structure from regular honeycomb to auxetic honeycomb structure.

Additional Information 

IITState/UTResearch
IIT RoparPunjabIoT (Internet of Things) device – AmbiTag
IIT KharagpurWest BengalLaser-heating technique
IIT DelhiDelhiPRACRITI dashboard for predicting the spread of Covid-19

Question 40

_____ was the first woman Governor of Goa.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sarla Grewal

  2. BOption (b)

    Padmaja Naidu

  3. COption (c)

    Kumudben Joshi

  4. DOption (d)

    Mridula Sinha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mridula Sinha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mridula Sinha.

Key Points

  • Mridula Sinha, the first female governor of Goa.
  • She was a prolific writer and 'Jyon Mehandi Ko Rang', 'Nayi Devyani' and 'Gharwaas' are some of her novels.
  • She also served as the head of the BJP's women's wing and chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board in the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
  • She was awarded the Padma Shri posthumously in 2021.

Additional Information 

Sarla GrewalGovernor of Madhya Pradesh (1989–1990)
Padmaja NaiduGovernor of West Bengal (1956-1967)
Kumudben JoshiGovernor of Andhra Pradesh (1985–1990)

Question 41

Which of the following metals is susceptible to fire if kept in the open?

  1. AOption (a)

    Potassium

  2. BOption (b)

    Lead

  3. COption (c)

    Lithium

  4. DOption (d)

    Mercury

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Potassium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potassium.

Key Points

  • Potassium is a chemical element with the atomic number 19 and the symbol K.
  • It is extremely reactive and reacts with air as well as water vigorously due to these characteristics they are easily susceptible to fire when kept in open.
  • Potassium is a silvery-white metal that can be cut with a knife with little effort.
  • They have low melting points and low densities
  • In the periodic table, potassium is an alkali metal, which all have a single valence electron in the outer electron shell.
  • In nature, Potassium occurs only in ionic salts.
  • Uses of potassium:
  • It is used as a heat exchange medium and in nuclear power plants.
  • Potassium salts are a component of fertiliser.
  • It is one of the most important nutrients for the human body.
  • Potash can be used to make glass, soap, and a variety of other products.

Additional Information 

MetalsProperties
LeadIt is a soft, silvery white or greyish metal with a low melting point.
LithiumIt has high specific heat capacity, high thermic conductivity, low viscosity and very low density.
MercuryIt is a less active metal, It does not react with oxygen in the air and reacts with few acids.

Question 42

The Mahajan Commission Report 2020 is related to the border issue of _____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam, Nagaland and Mizoram

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Odisha, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • The border dispute between the states of Maharashtra and Karnataka is also called the “Belgaum border dispute.
  • Belgaum is currently part of Karnataka but is claimed by Maharashtra.
  • When the states were divided based on linguistic and administrative lines under the State Reorganization Act in 1956 Belgaum district was included under Mysore state (now Karnataka).
  • Belgaum was originally part of the erstwhile Bombay Presidency which was a multi-lingual province.
  • After India's independence in 1947, Belgaum came under the Bombay Presidency.

Additional Information

  • Mahajan Commission report:
  • The Commission in its report in August 1967 recommended that 264 villages be transferred to Maharashtra (which was formed in 1960) and that Belgaum and 247 villages remain with Karnataka.
  • Maharashtra rejected the report, calling it biased and illogical, and demanded another review.
  • ​Maharashtra continues to claim over 814 villages along the border, as well as Belgaum city, which is currently part of Karnataka.

Question 43

The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) declared Koraput Traditional Agriculture as a 'Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System' (GIAHS) in the year ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    2012

  2. BOption (b)

    2011

  3. COption (c)

    2013

  4. DOption (d)

    2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2012

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2012.

Key Points

  • Koraput Traditional Agriculture is India's Traditional system in the Koraput Region of Odisha which is strongly linked to the local traditional communities.
  • Through this system, high biodiversity has been conserved through in-situ conservation preserving endemic species.
  • The system has helped conserve the rich floristic diversity consisting of about 2500 species of flowering plants.
  • The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) declared Koraput Traditional Agriculture as a 'Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System' (GIAHS) in the year 2012.​

Additional Information

  • Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)
  • The program is led by The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
  • It safeguards and supports the world's agricultural heritage systems.
  • ​It helps identify ways to mitigate threats faced by these systems and their people and enhance the benefits derived from these dynamic systems.
  • There are three recognised GIAHS sites in India - Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala, Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha and Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.

Question 44

The Maurya dynasty ruled over Magadha after the reign of the ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nanda dynasty

  2. BOption (b)

    Gupta dynasty

  3. COption (c)

    Sunga dynasty

  4. DOption (d)

    Kushana dynasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nanda dynasty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nanda Dynasty.

Key Points

  • The Maurya dynasty ruled over Magadha after the Nanda dynasty.
  • Mahapadma Nanda, murdered Kalasoka to become the king and acquired the throne.
  • The empire developed and grew under his reign.
  • It expanded from the Kuru country in the north to the south of Godavari Valley and from Magadha in the east to West in Narmada.
  • Mahapadma Nanda conquered several kingdoms including Kalinga.
  • Nandas were very fond of wealth and were disliked because of their heavy taxes and undue exaction from the public.
  • According to the Greek writers the army of the Nandas consisted of 20,00,000 infantry, 20,000 cavalries, 2,000 four-horsed charioteers, and 30,000 elephants.
  • The last ruler was Dhana Nanda who was overthrown by Chandra Gupta Maurya thus founding Mauryan Empire in 321 BC.

Additional Information

  • Magadha was an ancient Indian kingdom in Bihar.
  • The First capital of Magadha was Rajgir.
  • The first ruling dynasty of Magadha was the Haryak dynasty.
  • Bimbasar ruled Magadha Empire for almost 52 years.
  • Nanda Dynasty ruled the Magadha Empire during the Alexander invasion of India.
  • The last of the Nanda Dynasty, Dhana Nanda was overthrown by Chandragupta Maurya.
  • Bimbisara on the throne of Magadha 545 BC Was sitting in
  • Bimbisara was the founder of the Harayak dynasty.
  • Bimbisara defeated Brahmadatta and merged with the Anga kingdom in Magadha.
  • Bimbisara was a follower of Buddhism.
  • Nanda dynasty:
  • Nanda Dynasty ruled during 344 BC-323 BC.
  • Mandivardhana the last ruler of the Shishunaga dynasty was overthrown by Mahapadma Nanda and started the Nanda dynasty.
  • It is considered to be the first non-Kshatriya dynasty and ruled for 100 years. 
  • Mahapadma is known as Sarvashatrantak i.e., uprooter of all the Kshatriyas and  Ugrasena, i.e., owner of a huge army.
  • Dhanananda was The last king of the Nanda Dynasty.

Question 45

Who among the following rulers propounded a new way of life/religion called ‘Din-i-Ilahi’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Akbar

  2. BOption (b)

    Shah Jahan

  3. COption (c)

    Jahangir

  4. DOption (d)

    Bahadur Shah II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Akbar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

  • Din-i-ilahi was a religious path suggested by Akbar.
  • It was a code of moral conduct which reflected Akbar's secular ideas and his desire to achieve peace, unity, and tolerance in his empire.
  • Belief in one god, worship of a source of light, non-killing of animals, and having peace with all were some features of Din-i-ilahi.
  • It didn't have any rituals, holy books, temples or priests.
  • The elements were primarily drawn from Islam, Hinduism, and Zoroastrianism, but some others were also taken from Christianity, Jainism, and Buddhism.

Additional Information

  • Akbar (1556-1605): He was the third Mughal emperor.
  • Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun.
  • He built a hall called the Ibadat Khana ("House of Worship") at Fatehpur Sikri.
  • He built the Agra fort. He built Fatehpur Sikri city.
  • Shah Jahan was the fifth Mughal emperor, His full name was  Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Khurram.
  • He is known by the name because of his inclination toward architecture.
  • He built Taj Mahal, Shahjahanabad (Delhi) city, Red Fort, Jama Masjid, Pearl Mosque, and Peacock throne.
  • He was born on 5th January 1592 and reigned from 1628 - 1658.
  • Jahangir (1605 AD-1627 AD):
  • He was the son of Akbar.
  • His real name was Salim.
  • In 1608 AD, Captain William Hawkins, a representative of East India Company, came to Jahangir’s court.
  • Sir Thomas Roe, an ambassador of King James I of England, also came to his court had hence ;Jahangir granted permission to the English to establish a trading port at Surat.
  • Pietxa Valle, a famous traveller came during his reign.
  • He wrote his memories Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri in Persian.

Question 46

Amoeba pushes out one or more finger-like projections called ______ or false feet for movement and capture of food.

  1. AOption (a)

    food vacuoles

  2. BOption (b)

    endoplasm

  3. COption (c)

    pseudopodia

  4. DOption (d)

    contractile vacuoles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

pseudopodia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is pseudopodia.

Key Points

  • An amoeba often known as an amoeboid is a microscopic unicellular animal found in pond water.
  • It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus, and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm.
  • It constantly changes its shape and position.
  • It pushes out one, or more finger-like projections, called pseudopodia or false feet for movement and capture of food.
  • It feeds on some microscopic organisms.
  • When it senses food, it pushes out one or more finger-like projections pseudopodia around the food particle and engulfs it.

Additional Information

  • Food vacuoles - These helps digests the food in Amoeba.
  • Contractile vacuoles - Wastes and excess water are transported outside the cell by it.
  • Endoplasm - It refers to the inner and dense part of the cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 47

In November 2020, what was the prediction of Moody’s Investors Service for India’s FY21 GDP?

  1. AOption (a)

    -9.6%

  2. BOption (b)

    -11.6%

  3. COption (c)

    -10.6%

  4. DOption (d)

    -8.6%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

-10.6%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is -10.6%

Key Points

  • A credit rating agency (CRA) is a company that rates debtors on the basis of their ability to pay back their interests and loan amount on time and the probability of them defaulting.
  • Moody's, is the credit rating agency.
  • Estate**-1909 (USA).**
  • Headquarters**-Newyork(USA).**
  • In India, there are six credit rating agencies registered under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) namely, CRISIL, ICRA, CARE, SMERA, Fitch India and Brickwork Ratings.

 Additional Information

  • Moody’s Investor Services has raised India’s GDP forecast for the calendar year 2022 by 250 basis points to 9.5 per cent.
  • This also translates the growth estimate for FY23 to 8.4 per cent.
  • While India’s Economic Survey has projected India’s GDP to expand between 8% and 8.5% in 2022-23.
  • The Budget has assumed a GDP growth between 7.6% and 8.1% in real terms.
  • ​India’s Economic Survey has projected India’s GDP to expand between 8**% and 8.5% in 2022-23.**
  • The Budget has assumed a GDP growth between 7.6% and 8.1% in real terms.
  • The agency has estimated the Indian economy to clock a 6.4% growth in 2023-24.
  • The 2022-23 Union Budget has prioritized growth, with a 36% increase in allocation to capital expenditure (compared to BE of 2021-22) to 2.9% of GDP for the fiscal year 2022-23.

Question 48

The video assistant referee (VAR) system is used in the game of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    cricket

  2. BOption (b)

    basketball

  3. COption (c)

    hockey

  4. DOption (d)

    football

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

football

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Football

Key Points

  • VAR is a match official in association football who reviews decisions made by the referee.
  • It was first written into the Laws of the Game by the International Football Association Board (IFAB) in 2021.
  • Operating under the philosophy of "minimal interference, maximum benefit.
  • This system seeks to provide a way for "clear and obvious errors" and "serious missed incidents" to be corrected.

Additional Information

  • IFAB. 
  • The International Football Association Board (IFAB) is the body that determines the Laws of the Game of association football
  • Formation-2 June 1886.
  • Headquarters-Zurich Switzerland
  • secretary-Lukas brud(As of Sep 2022).

Question 49

How many times does blood pass through the heart of a fish in one cardiac cycle?

  1. AOption (a)

    Twice

  2. BOption (b)

    Four times

  3. COption (c)

    Thrice

  4. DOption (d)

    Once

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Once

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Once.

Key Points

  • It goes only one time because first the deoxygenated blood goes into the atrium and then into the ventricle (fish's heart has only two chambers) and gets pumped towards the gills.
  • There the blood gets oxygenated and is pumped to all body parts.
  • The heart of the fish has two chambers namely.
  • Atrium
  • Ventricle
  • Valves between the chambers and contraction of all chambers except the bulbs maintain a unidirectional blood flow through the heart.

Additional Information

  • Amphibians and reptiles have three-chambered hearts.
  • Birds have four-chambered hearts.
  • Worms and their ilk have one chamber heart.
  • Humans have 4 chambered hearts.

Question 50

With his 92nd victory at the 2020 Portuguese Grand Prix, who among the following became Formula One's record all time race-winner to surpass Michael Schumacher and top the list?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lewis Hamilton

  2. BOption (b)

    Max Verstappen

  3. COption (c)

    Sebastian Vettel

  4. DOption (d)

    Charles Leclerc

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lewis Hamilton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lewis Hamilton.

Key Points

  • Lewis Hamilton was born on 7 January 1985 in Stevenage, Hertfordshire, England.
  • He currently competes in Formula One for Mercedes(as of 2022), having previously driven for McLaren from 2007 to 2012.
  • He began his car racing career in the 2001 British Formula Renault Winter Series, finishing fifth in the standings.
  • In 2020, Lewis Hamilton became the most successful F1 driver with the most career wins, overtaking Michael Schumacher.
  • He became the most successful Formula One driver of all time in terms of race wins with a dominant 92nd career victory at the Portuguese Grand Prix.

Additional Information 

PlayerTeam
Max VerstappenRed Bull Racing
Sebastian VettelAston Martin Aramco Cognizant
Charles LeclercScuderia Ferrari

Elementary Mathematics (25 questions)

Question 51

In an election contested by two parties, Party D secured 12% of the total votes more than Party R. If Party R got 176000 votes, by how many votes did it lose the election?

  1. AOption (a)

    48000

  2. BOption (b)

    62000

  3. COption (c)

    40000

  4. DOption (d)

    24000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

48000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Party D secured 12% of the total votes more than Party R.

Ratio method

(50 + 6) = (50 - 6)

⇒ 56 : 44

⇒ 14 : 11

⇒ Required = 176000 × 3113\over11 = 48000

∴ Party R lost the election with 48000 votes.

Given:

Party D secured 12% of the total votes more than Party R.

If Party R got 176000 votes.

Calculation;

According to the question

D - 12% = R

⇒ D = R + 12% ––––(1)

Now, D + R = 100% ––––(2)

From equations (1) and (2), we have

⇒ R + 12% + R = 100%

⇒ 2R = 88%

⇒ R = 44%

And D = R + 12% = (44 + 12)% = 56%

If Party R got 176000 votes.

⇒ 44% = 176000

⇒ 1% = 17600044176000\over44 = 4000

Party D secured 12% of the total votes more.

⇒ 12 × 4000 = 48000

∴ Party R lose the election with 48000 votes

Question 52

The population of a particular city is 5,00,000. If the annual birth rate is 5% and the annual death rate is 1%, then what will be the population of the city after 3 years?

  1. AOption (a)

    5,95,502

  2. BOption (b)

    5,62,432

  3. COption (c)

    4,44,498

  4. DOption (d)

    4,42,368

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5,62,432

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The  Population of a town = 5,00,000

The annual birth rate is 5 %

The annual death rate is 1 %

Calculation:

Net change = Birth rate - death rate

⇒ 5 % - 1 % = 4%

Increasing after one year = 5,00,000 × 104 % =5,20,000

Increasing after two year = 5,20,000 × 104 % = 5,40,800

Increasing after three year = 5,40,800 × 104 % = 5,62,432

Total population after three year 5,62,432

Question 53

A sum of Rs. 15,500 amounts to Rs. 19,189 in 3123\frac{1}{2} years at a certain rate per cent per annum, at simple interest. The simple interest on the same sum at the same rate for 6236\frac{2}{3} years will be (nearest to a Rs.):

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 8,060

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 7,012

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 8,057

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 7,027

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 7,027

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal = Rs.15500

Amount = Rs.19189

Time = 7/2 years

Formula used:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

Rate = I(one year)/P

Calculation:

A = P + 7/2 × I

⇒ 15500 + 7/2 × I = 19189

⇒ 7/2 × I = 3689

I(one year) = 1054

Rate = I/P × 100

⇒ 1054/15500 × 100

⇒ 6.8%

SI = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ (15500 × 6.8 × 20)/(3 × 100)

⇒ (155 × 68 × 2)/3

⇒ 7026.66 = 7027(nearest)

∴ The correct answer is Rs.7027.

Question 54

The greatest number of six digits which is divisible by 42, 44, 26, 39 and 40 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    960954

  2. BOption (b)

    960960

  3. COption (c)

    960945

  4. DOption (d)

    960958

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

960960

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

LCM of 42, 44, 26, 39, and 40 is 120120

Now the greatest 6 digit number is 999999

120120 × 7 = 840840 (6 digits but not maximum)

120120 × 8 = 960960 (6-digit maximum)

120120 × 9 = 1081080 (7 digits)

Now the greatest 6-digit no which is divisible by 42, 44, 26, 39, 40 is 960960

∴ 960960 is the greatest number 6 digit number divisible by 42, 44, 26, 39, and 40

Question 55

Find the ratio between the fourth proportional of 2, 4, 6 and the third proportional of 4, 8.

  1. AOption (a)

    6 ∶ 11

  2. BOption (b)

    4 ∶ 3

  3. COption (c)

    5 ∶ 9

  4. DOption (d)

    3 ∶ 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 ∶ 4

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Fourth proportional = (B × C) / 2

Third proportional of = (B × B) / C

Calculation:

Fourth proportional of 2, 4, 6 = (4 × 6) / 2

⇒ 12

Third proportional of 4, 8 = (8 × 8) / 4

⇒ 16

Ratio = 12 : 16 = 3 : 4

Ration between the fourth proportional of 2, 4, 6 and the third proportional of 4, 8 = 3 : 4

Question 56

The value of 25 - [20 - {10 - (7 - 2)}] is:

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

25 - [20 - {10 - (7 - 2)}]

Concept used:-

Calculation:-

⇒ 25 - [20 - {10 - (7 - 2)}]

⇒ 25 - [20 - {10 - 5}]

⇒ 25 - [20 - 5]

⇒ 25 - 15

⇒ 10

∴ option 2 is right.

Question 57

A solid metallic cuboid of dimensions 64 cm × 36 cm × 44 cm is melted and solid balls, each of radius 12 cm, are made from this material. The number of balls will be (Take π = 227\frac{22}{7}):

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

For Cuboid-

( l × b × h) = 64 cm × 36 cm × 44 cm

Radius of Solid ball = 12 cm

Formula used :- 

<br>

Volume of Cuboid = lbh cm3

Volume of Solid ball = 43×πr3\large{\frac{4}{3} × \pi r^3} cm3

Calculation:-

Volume of Cuboid = 64 × 36 × 44

= 101376 cm3

Volume of Solid ball = 43×227×123\large{\frac{4}{3} × \frac{22}{7} \times 12^3}

= 50688/7

= 7241.14 cm3

∴ No of balls = (Volume of Cuboid)/(Volume of Solid ball)

= 101376/7241.14

= 14 balls

∴ option 4 is right.

Question 58

Badri loses 15% when he sells his scooter for Rs. 17,000. At what price (in Rs.), should he sell it to earn 18% profit?

  1. AOption (a)

    22,400

  2. BOption (b)

    23,900

  3. COption (c)

    24,200

  4. DOption (d)

    23,600

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

23,600

Why this answer is correct

Given:

SP = Rs. 17000

Loss = 15%

Formula used:

 CP=100100−Loss%×SPCP = \frac{100}{100 - Loss\%}× SP

SP=100+Gain%100×CPSP = \frac{100 + Gain\%}{100}× CP

Calculation:

CP=100100−15×17000CP = \frac{100}{100 - 15}× 17000

⇒ 1700000/85

CP = Rs. 20000

Now,

If to earn 18% profit

Then,

SP=100+18100×20000SP = \frac{100 + 18}{100}× 20000

⇒ 118 × 200

SP = Rs. 23600

Alternate Method 

SP2=[100+Profit%100−Loss%]×SP1SP_2 =[ \frac{100 + Profit\%}{100 - Loss\%}]× SP_1

SP2=[100+18100−15]×17000SP_2 =[ \frac{100 + 18}{100 -15 }]× 17000

⇒ (118/85) × 17000

∴ SP2 = SP = Rs. 23600

Question 59

A and B can complete a work in 6 days. B and C can complete the same work in 10 days. A, B and C together can complete the same work in 5 days. In how many days can A and C complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    8128\frac{1}{2} days

  2. BOption (b)

    8 days

  3. COption (c)

    7 days

  4. DOption (d)

    7127\frac{1}{2} days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7127\frac{1}{2} days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(6, 10, 5) = 30 units.

Efficiency of (A + B) = 5, (B + C) = 3, and (A + B + C) = 6.

Efficiency of A = (A + B + C) − (B + C) = 6 − 3 = 3 units/day.

Efficiency of C = (A + B + C) − (A + B) = 6 − 5 = 1 unit/day.

Time for (A + C) = Total Work ÷ Efficiency(A + C) = 30 ÷ (3 + 1) = 7.5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 7½ days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A and B together = 6 days

Time taken by B and C together = 10 days

Time taken by A, B, and C together = 5 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A + B6305
B + C103
A + B + C56

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency of A = Efficiency of (A + B + C) − Efficiency of (B + C)

⇒ Efficiency of A = 6 − 3 = 3 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of C = Efficiency of (A + B + C) − Efficiency of (A + B)

⇒ Efficiency of C = 6 − 5 = 1 unit/day

⇒ Combined Efficiency of (A + C) = 3 + 1 = 4 units/day

⇒ Time taken by (A + C) = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time = 30 ÷ 4 = 15/2 = 7.5 days

∴ The correct answer is 7½ days.

Additional Information

Pipes & Cisterns

Conceptually identical to Time & Work. The only difference is an emptying pipe (leak) acts as negative efficiency, while a filling pipe acts as positive efficiency.

Alternate Day Work

For people working on alternate days, calculate the combined work done in one complete cycle to approach the total work, then find the remaining single days.

Work & Wages

Wages are directly distributed in proportion to the amount of total work completed by each individual, not by the time spent working.

Question 60

If A is one third of B, B is twice of C, D is two-third of A and the average of A, B, C and D is 74, then the difference between A and C is:

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    28

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

24

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

A = B/3

B = 2C

D = 2A/3

Average of A, B, C, D = 74

Formula used:-

Average = (Sum of all Values)/(Total Number of Values)

Calculation:-

Average = ( A + B + C + D)/4

According to question-

⇒ ( A + B + C + D)/4 = 74

⇒ B/3 + B + B/2 + 2B/9 = 74 × 4

taking LCM -

⇒ (6B + 18B + 9B + 4B)/18 = 296

⇒ 37B = 18 × 296

B = 5328/37

B = 144

A = B/3

A = 144/3

A = 48

C = B/2

C = 144/2

C = 72

∴ C - A = 72 - 48

= 24

∴ Option 4 is right.

Question 61

The distance between two towns is covered in 8 h at a speed of 55 km/h. How much time (in hours and minutes) will be saved if the speed is increased by 25 km/h?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 h 30 min

  2. BOption (b)

    3 h 50 min

  3. COption (c)

    2 h 30 min

  4. DOption (d)

    2 h 50 min

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 h 30 min

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Tiem = 8 hours

Speed = 55 km/hr

Formula: 

Distance = speed × time

Calculation: 

Distance = 8 × 55 = 440 km

New speed = 55 + 25 = 80 km/hr

New time = 440 / 80 = 5.5 hr

Difference in time = 8 - 5.5 = 2.5 hours

∴ 2 hour 30 minutes can be saved

Question 62

When a number is divided by 3, 4, 6, 15 and 20, the remainder in each case is 1. Also, the number is the greatest 3-digit number. The sum of the digits of the number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The number are 3, 4, 6, 15, and 20.

Concept:

The greatest 3-digit number is 999.

Calculation:

LCM of 3, 4, 6, 15, and 20 is 60.

The greatest number of 3-digits = 999

⇒ 999 ÷ 60

Reminder = 39

3-digit greatest numbers = 999 - 39 = 960

When a number is divided by 3, 4, 6, 15, and 20, the remainder in each case is 1.

So, 3-digit greatest numbers = 960 + 1 = 961

The sum of the digits of the number = 9 + 6 + 1 = 16

∴ The sum of the digits of the number is 16.

Question 63

Sachin takes 50 minutes more than Prem to walk 35 km. But if Sachin doubles his speed, he is ahead of Prem by 1121\frac{1}{2} hours. Sachin's speed is:

  1. AOption (a)

    7 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    7127\frac{1}{2} km/h

  3. COption (c)

    8128\frac{1}{2} km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    8 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7127\frac{1}{2} km/h

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Distance to walk 35km.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Let the speed of Sachin be x km/hr. and the speed of Prem be y km/hr. 

ATQ,

⇒ 35x35 \over x – 35y35 \over y = 50/60

⇒ 35(y−xxyy - x \over xy) = 5/6

⇒ xy(y−x)xy \over (y-x) = 42

⇒ xy = 42(y – x)      ....(1)

Now,

⇒ 35y35 \over y – 352x35 \over 2x = 3/2

⇒ 35(2x−y2xy2x - y \over 2xy) = 3/2

⇒ 2xy(2x−y)2xy \over (2x - y) = 70/3

⇒ xy = 35/3(2x – y)      ....(2)

Comparing eq. 1 & 2, we get,

⇒ 42(y – x) = 35/3(2x – y)

⇒ 18(y – x) = 5(2x – y)

⇒ 18y – 18x = 10x – 5y

⇒ 23y = 28x

⇒ y = 282328 \over 23(x)

Putting the value of y in eq. (1)

⇒ x × 282328 \over 23x = 42[282328 \over 23x – x]

⇒ 282328 \over 23x = 425235 \over 23

⇒ x = (6×5)4(6 \times 5) \over 4

⇒ x = 30/4 = 7121 \over 2 km/hr.

∴ The speed of Sachin is 7121 \over 2 km/hr.

Question 64

The cost price of an article is Rs. 1,545, which is 25% below the marked price. If the article is sold at 18% discount, what profit percent is made on the transaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    9.67

  2. BOption (b)

    13.33

  3. COption (c)

    9.33

  4. DOption (d)

    13.67

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9.33

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost price = Rs.1545

Cost price is 25% below Market Price

Discount = 18%

Formula used:

Profit = (SP -CP)/CP × 100

Calculation:

Cost price = Rs.1545

Since,

CP is 25% less than SP,   (25% = 1/4)

⇒ 1545/3 = 515

∴ MP = 515 × 4

⇒ Rs.2060

Discount  =18%    (18% = 9/50)

⇒ 2060/50 = 41.2

⇒ SP = 41.2 × 41 

⇒ Rs.1689.2

Profit = (1689.2 - 1545)/1545 × 100

⇒ 9.33

∴ The correct answer is 9.33.

Question 65

Nine umbrellas are bought for Rs. 800 and sold at 7 for Rs. 800. What is the gain percentage (correct to 2 decimal places)?

  1. AOption (a)

    28.57

  2. BOption (b)

    28

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    26.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

28.57

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Nine umbrellas are bought for Rs. 800

CP = Rs. 800 

Formula used:

Profit % = [(SP - CP)× 100]/ CP 

Calculation:

⇒ 7 umbrellas are sold for Rs. 800

∴ 9 umbrellas are sold = (800/7) × 9 = Rs. 1028.52

Then,

SP = Rs. 1028.52

Profit % = [(SP - CP)× 100]/ CP 

⇒ [(1028.52 - 800)× 100]/ 800

⇒ 22852/800

⇒ 28.57%

∴ The gain percentage is 28.57%

Question 66

The value of 18×4÷2 of 3−42×(9−7)+1−2×3÷4 of 12\frac{{18 \times 4 \div 2\ of\ 3 - 4}}{{2 \times \left( {9 - 7} \right) + 1 - 2 \times 3 \div 4\ of\ \frac{1}{2}}} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    16\frac{1}{6}

  4. DOption (d)

    12\frac{1}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

18×4÷2 of 3−42×(9−7)+1−2×3÷4 of 12\frac{{18 \times 4 \div 2\ of\ 3 - 4}}{{2 \times \left( {9 - 7} \right) + 1 - 2 \times 3 \div 4\ of\ \frac{1}{2}}}

Concept:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

18×4÷2 of 3−42×(9−7)+1−2×3÷4 of 12\frac{{18 \times 4 \div 2\ of\ 3 - 4}}{{2 \times \left( {9 - 7} \right) + 1 - 2 \times 3 \div 4\ of\ \frac{1}{2}}}

⇒ 18×4÷2× 3−42×2+1−2×3÷4×12\frac{{18 \times 4 \div 2\times\ 3 - 4}}{{2 \times2+ 1 - 2 \times 3 \div 4\times \frac{1}{2}}}

⇒ 18×4×16−44+1−2×3×12{{18\times4\times{1\over6}}-4}\over{4+1-2\times3\times{1\over2}} 

⇒ (12−4)(5−3)(12-4)\over(5-3)

⇒ 828\over2 = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Question 67

If 60% of tax is deducted from Rahul's salary, then Rs. 12,800 is left to be paid as tax. The total tax to be paid by Rahul is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 30,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 35,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 32,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 28,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 32,000

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Let, The total tax to be paid by Rahul is x

After deducted tax 

Rahul paid as tax = 100 - 60 = 40%

Then,

x×40100=12800\frac{x\times 40}{100} = 12800

x = 1280000/40

x = Rs. 32000

∴ The total tax to be paid by Rahul is Rs. 32000

Question 68

The average of seven odd numbers, taken in increasing order, is 79. What is the average of the first five numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    78

  2. BOption (b)

    77

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    76

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

77

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

The average of seven odd numbers is 79

Concept used:

Average = Sum of the total quantity/ Number of quantity

Odd number: - A number that is not divisible by two is called an odd number 

Example: 1,3,5,7,9,11 etc

Calculation:

Let, First odd number = x

Then next odd numbers : x + 2, x+ 4, x + 6, x + 8, x + 10, x + 12

Average of seven odd numbers = [x + x + 2 + x+ 4 + x + 6 + x + 8 + x + 10 + x + 12]/ 7

⇒ 79 = [x + x + 2 + x+ 4 + x + 6 + x + 8 + x + 10 + x + 12]/ 7

7x + 42 = 79 × 7

7x = 553 - 42  

x = 511/7

x = 73

Average off first five odd numbers = [ 73 + 75 + 77 + 79 + 81]/5

⇒ 385\5

⇒ 77

∴ The average of the first five odd numbers is 77.

Question 69

For an item, a manufacturer gains 12%, a wholesaler gains 10%, and a retailer gains 15%. Find the cost price of the item for the manufacturer, if its retail price is Rs. 56,672.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 35,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 28,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 32,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 40,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 40,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The manufacturer gains = 12%

wholesale dealer gain = 10%

the retailer gain = 15%

Calculation: 

Let the cost of production be Rs P

As per the question, 

⇒ 112/100 × 110/100 × 115/100 × P = 56672

⇒ 1771/1250 × P = 56672

⇒ P = 40000

∴ The cost price of the item = 40000

Question 70

The 8% interest earned on a sum of money of Rs. 1,40,000 is to be used for awarding 20 scholarships of equal value every year in a school. What is the value (in Rs.) of each scholarship?

  1. AOption (a)

    660

  2. BOption (b)

    560

  3. COption (c)

    700

  4. DOption (d)

    600

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

560

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

Rate of interest = 8%

Principal = 1,40,000

Time = 1 year

Formula used:-

SI = ( P × R × T)/100

Calculation:-

SI = (140000 × 8 × 1)/100

SI = 1400 × 8

SI = Rs.11200

According to the question-

For 20 equal scholarships-

Scholarship Amount = 11200/20

Scholarship Amount = Rs. 560

∴ The correct answer is 560 Rs.

Question 71

The ratio of the market price of wheat and rice is 3 ∶ 8 and the ratio of their quantities consumed in a family is 4 ∶ 9. What is the ratio of expenditure on wheat and rice?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 ∶ 1

  2. BOption (b)

    3 ∶ 2

  3. COption (c)

    1 ∶ 6

  4. DOption (d)

    2 ∶ 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 ∶ 6

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The ratio of the market price of wheat is 3 : 8

The ratio of the quantities consumed is 4 : 9

Formula used:

Expenditure = Price × Quantity

Calculation:

Let the market price of wheat are 3x and 8x

And quantities consumed are 4y and 9y

Now the ratio of the expenditure is (3x) × (4y) : (8x) × (9y)

⇒ 12xy : 72xy

⇒ 1 : 6

∴ The required ratio is 1 : 6.

Question 72

The cost of one chair is Rs. 450. Ravi buys 10 chairs for Rs. 3,825. The discount per cent he gets in buying the 10 chairs is:

  1. AOption (a)

    12%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    8%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost of one chair = Rs.450

Cost of 10 chairs for Ravi = Rs.3825

Formula used:

Discount = (MP - SP)/MP × 100

Calculation:

MP = Rs.450 × 10 = Rs.4500

SP of 10 chairs = Rs.3825

Discount = (4500 - 3835)/4500 × 100

⇒ 675/4500 × 100

⇒ 675/45

⇒ 15

∴ The correct answer is 15%.

Question 73

If the sides of a rectangle, whose area is 154 cm2, differ by 3 cm, then find the length (in cm) of the longer side.

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    12.5

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    14.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Area = 154 cm2

L(Length) - B(Breadth) = 3 cm

Formula used:

Area of Rectangle = L × B

Calculation:

L - B = 3 cm (Given)

⇒ L = B + 3

⇒ 154 = B × (B + 3)

⇒ B2 + 3B - 154 = 0

⇒ B2 + 14B - 11B - 154 = 0

⇒ B(B + 14) - 11(B + 14) = 0

⇒ (B + 14) (B - 11) = 0

⇒ B = -14 ,11(Correct value)

⇒ L = 11 + 3 

⇒ L = 14 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14 cm.

**Important Points:**1. Here in the above solution we took length as the longer side.

  1. Similarly, Breadth can also be considered as a longer side.
  2. In both cases the answer will be the same.

Question 74

A bag contains coins of denominations Rs. 1, Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 only in the ratio of 12 ∶ 5 ∶ 3. If the total amount in the bag is Rs. 3,626, then what is the number of coins of Rs. 5 in the bag?

  1. AOption (a)

    285

  2. BOption (b)

    297

  3. COption (c)

    291

  4. DOption (d)

    294

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

294

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of denominations = 1 : 2 : 5

Ratio of number of coins = 12 : 5 : 3

Ratio of total value = (1 × 12) : (2 × 5) : (5 × 3) = 12 : 10 : 15

Sum of ratio units = 12 + 10 + 15 = 37 units → ₹3,626

1 unit = ₹98 ∴ Number of ₹5 coins = 3 × 98 = 294

∴ The correct answer is 294.

Alternate Method

Given: Denominations are ₹1, ₹2, and ₹5. Ratio of coins = 12 : 5 : 3. Total amount = ₹3,626.

Let the number of coins be 12x, 5x, and 3x respectively.

⇒ Total Value = (1 × 12x) + (2 × 5x) + (5 × 3x) = 3626

⇒ 12x + 10x + 15x = 3626

⇒ 37x = 3626

⇒ x = 3626 ÷ 37

⇒ x = 98

⇒ Number of ₹5 coins = 3x = 3 × 98 = 294

∴ The correct answer is 294.

Additional Information

Coin Ratio Formula

Total Value = ∑ (Denomination × Number of Coins). Always convert all denominations to the same unit (all ₹ or all paise).

Ratio and Proportion

If a quantity is divided in the ratio a : b : c, then the parts are ax, bx, and cx where x is the common multiplier found by dividing the total sum by (a + b + c).

Question 75

Madhu and Shiney can complete a piece of work in 20 days, Shiney and Rosy can complete it in 12 days and Rosy and Madhu can complete it in 15 days. In how many days will they complete it together?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 days

  2. BOption (b)

    10 days

  3. COption (c)

    8 days

  4. DOption (d)

    12 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Madhu and Shiney can complete a piece of work in 20 days

Shiney and Rosy can complete the work in 12 days

Rosy and Madhu can complete the work in 15 days

Calculation:

Total work = 60 unit

total efficiency = Madhu + Shiney + Shiney + Rosy + Rosy + Madhu = 3 + 5 + 4 

⇒ 2 (Madhu + Shiney + Rosy) = 12

⇒ Madhu + Shiney + Rosy = 6

So the efficiency of Madhu, Shiney and Rosy is 6 

∴ When they work together, They complete the work in = 60/6 = 10 days

English (25 questions)

Question 76

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Last week, I saw a TV programme about the ______ of global warming on agriculture.

  1. AOption (a)

    shock

  2. BOption (b)

    import

  3. COption (c)

    impact

  4. DOption (d)

    relief

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

impact

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: impact

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words:
  • Shock means to cause an unpleasant feeling of surprise in somebody.
  • Import means to bring from a foreign or external source.
  • Impact means an effect or impression.
  • Relief means the removal or reduction of pain, worry, etc.
  • As per the meaning of the given words. Impact is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.
  • Corrected sentence: Last week, I saw a TV programme about the impact of global warming on agriculture.

Question 77

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The music / blared out / and was impossible / to have a conversation.

  1. AOption (a)

    to have a conversation

  2. BOption (b)

    and was impossible

  3. COption (c)

    blared out

  4. DOption (d)

    The music

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

and was impossible

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part of the sentence is: and was impossible

Key Points

  • We have to add "it" before and to make the sentence correct.
  • It is the third-person singular personal pronoun. It is often used to refer to animals or non-living things.
  • We commonly use the pronoun it as both a subject and an object pronoun:
  • Example - 
  • Don't drink the milk. It smells terrible.
  • It was cold, so we lit a fire.
  • Without "it" the given sentence does not make any sense.
  • So, the correct answer is option 2.
  • Corrected sentence: The music blared out and it was impossible to have a conversation.

Question 78

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Auxillary

  2. BOption (b)

    Capillary

  3. COption (c)

    Ancillary

  4. DOption (d)

    Corollary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Auxillary

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous spelling is:  Auxillary.

Key Points 

  • The correct spelling should be 'Auxiliary'.
  • Auxiliary means something that helps by providing backup or support. 
  • Example - The hospital has an auxiliary power system in case of a blackout.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1 which is incorrectly spelt.

Additional Information 

  • Capillary means any of the smallest tubes in the body that carry blood.
  • Ancillary means providing necessary support to the main work or activities of an organization.
  • Corollary means a situation, a statement or a fact that is the natural and direct result of another one.

Question 79

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Dig up dirt on someone

  1. AOption (a)

    Bury the dead in the ground

  2. BOption (b)

    Discover damaging information about someone

  3. COption (c)

    Take revenge on somebody

  4. DOption (d)

    Protest against someone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Discover damaging information about someone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Damage caused by use.

Key Points

  • "Dig up dirt on someone" means searching for any information about someone that may damage their reputation.
  • Example - They hired a detective firm to dig up dirt on their rival.
  • So, it is clear that the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom "Dig up dirt on someone" is "Discover damaging information about someone"
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 80

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who treats female ailments

  1. AOption (a)

    Neurologist

  2. BOption (b)

    Chiropodist

  3. COption (c)

    Gynaecologist

  4. DOption (d)

    Psychiatrist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gynaecologist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Gynaecologist

Key Points

  • Gynaecologist means a doctor skilled in the treatment of women's diseases, especially those of the reproductive organs.
  • Example - Gail said her gynecologist tells her all the abnormal cells are gone for now.
  • So, it is clear that the 'Gynaecologist' can be used as a one-word substitute for 'One who treats female ailments'

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Neurologist means a medical doctor who specializes in treating diseases of the nervous system.
  • Chiropodist means the study and treatment of problems and diseases of people's feet.
  • Psychiatrist means a doctor who is trained to treat people with mental illness.

Question 81

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Belonging to very distant past and no longer in existence

  1. AOption (a)

    Historic

  2. BOption (b)

    Aged

  3. COption (c)

    Ancient

  4. DOption (d)

    Old-fashioned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ancient

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Ancient

Key Points

  • Ancient means belonging to a period of history that is thousands of years in the past.
  • Example - They believed ancient Greece and Rome were vital sources of learning.
  • So, it is clear that the 'Ancient' can be used as a one-word substitute for 'Belonging to very distant past and no longer in existence'
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 82

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To land a job

  1. AOption (a)

    To plough the land

  2. BOption (b)

    To be dismissed

  3. COption (c)

    To do farming

  4. DOption (d)

    To be hired

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To be hired

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: To be hired

Key Points 

  • "To land a job" means to successfully acquire something, such as a job or piece of information.
  • Example - As soon as I land a job and start to bring in some money, I'm going to get a stereo.
  • So, it is clear that the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom **"**To land a job" is **"**To be hired"
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 83

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Choosy

  1. AOption (a)

    Precious

  2. BOption (b)

    Critical

  3. COption (c)

    Boring

  4. DOption (d)

    Picky

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Picky

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Picky

Key Points

  • Choosy means difficult to please because they will only accept something if it is exactly what they want or if it is of very high quality.
  • Example - You can't be too choosy if you want a job right away.
  • Marked option Picky means liking only certain things and difficult to please.
  • Example - I'm not sure if she is pregnant, but recently she's been extremely picky with food and doesn't eat much.
  • It is clear that 'Choosy' and 'Picky' are similar in meaning.

Therefore the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Precious means of very great value or worth.
  • Critical means inclined to criticize severely and unfavorably.
  • Boring means not at all interesting; dull.

Question 84

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Treacherous

  1. AOption (a)

    Retarded

  2. BOption (b)

    Unfaithful

  3. COption (c)

    Sluggish

  4. DOption (d)

    Steadfast

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Unfaithful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Unfaithful

Key Points

  • Treacherous is used about a person that means you cannot trust and who may do something to harm you.
  • Example - He was weak, cowardly and treacherous.
  • Marked option Unfaithful means not adhering to vows, allegiance, or duty: disloyal.
  • Example - James had been unfaithful to Christine for the entire four years they'd been together.
  • It is clear that 'Treacherous' and 'Unfaithful' are similar in meaning.
  • Therefore the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Retarded means characterized by a slowness or limitation in intellectual understanding and awareness.
  • Sluggish means moving or operating more slowly than usual and with less energy or power.
  • Steadfast means staying the same for a long time and not changing quickly or unexpectedly.

Question 85

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Relating to a festival

  1. AOption (a)

    Festoon

  2. BOption (b)

    Fulvous

  3. COption (c)

    Frenzy

  4. DOption (d)

    Festal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Festal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Festal

Key Points 

  • Festal means relating to or characteristic of a celebration or festival.
  • Example - Plum pudding was originally served on festal days as the main course.
  • So, it is clear that the 'Festal' can be used as a one-word substitute for 'Relating to a festival'
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information 

  • Festoon means decorating a room or other place for a special occasion by hanging coloured paper, lights, or flowers around it, especially in curves.
  • Fulvous means a dull brownish yellow: tawny.
  • Frenzy means a state of great emotion or activity that is not under control.

Question 86

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

Which planet is most closer to the sun?

  1. AOption (a)

    the closest

  2. BOption (b)

    No improvement required

  3. COption (c)

    most close

  4. DOption (d)

    more close

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the closest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: the closest

Key Points

  • 'More' is considered a comparative form
  • 'More' refers to a larger amount or degree
  • Example - She advised him to be more careful.
  • 'Most' is considered a superlative form
  • 'Most' refers to the largest amount or degree.
  • Example - You are the most beautiful woman I have ever seen.
  • In the given sentence, Closest itself is a superlative adjective, So we should not use two superlatives in one sentence.
  • The is used to refer to specific or particular nouns.
  • Example - Where is the closest Mexican restaurant?

Therefore the correct answer is option 1.

Corrected sentence: Which planet is the closest to the sun?

Question 87

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

One or the other / of those men have / stolen my / grandfather’s umbrella.

  1. AOption (a)

    One or the other

  2. BOption (b)

    of those men have

  3. COption (c)

    grandfather’s umbrella

  4. DOption (d)

    stolen my

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

of those men have

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part of the sentence is: of those men have

Key Points

  • Replace "have" with "has" to make the sentence correct.
  • Subject-Verb Agreement: The basic rule states that a singular subject takes a singular verb while a plural subject takes a plural verb.
  • “One” is the subject, so “has” is the verb.
  • One is a singular subject so “has” should be used as a singular verb.
  • “One or the other of those men” refers to one of a group and is singular. So we must use “has,” not “have.”
  • ​Example - One of the children has brought a tarantula to the picnic.

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Corrected sentence: One or the other of those men has stolen my grandfather’s umbrella.

Question 88

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Work hard lest you should not fail.

  1. AOption (a)

    lest you shall fail

  2. BOption (b)

    lest you should fail 

  3. COption (c)

    No substitution required

  4. DOption (d)

    lest you will fail

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

lest you should fail 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: lest you should fail 

Key Points

  • Lest is used in order to prevent any possibility that something will happen.
  • Example - He fled the country lest he be captured.
  • The conjunction "lest" is not very common in modern English. This word has a negative meaning. Therefore, it should not be used with not.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.
  • Corrected sentence: Work hard lest you should fail.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Kolkata is a capital of the Indian state of West Bengal.

  1. AOption (a)

    was a capital of the

  2. BOption (b)

    No substitution required

  3. COption (c)

    is the capital of the

  4. DOption (d)

    is a capital of a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

is the capital of the

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: is the capital of the

Key Points

  • Replace 'a' with 'the' to make the sentence correct.
  • The definite article (The) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader.
  • The indefinite article (A, An) is used before a noun that is general or when its identity is not known.
  • Example - 
  • We live in a city. [ Here we use the indefinite article (A, An) because we are not referring to any particular city.]
  • The city (Kolkata) is very big. [ Here we use the definite article (The) ]
  • Because we are referring to a particular city in the given sentence so "The" should be used.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Corrected sentence: Kolkata is the capital of the Indian state of West Bengal.

Question 90

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Here into / the main campus of the hospital / comes the trained doctors / led by the Principal.

  1. AOption (a)

    the main campus of the hospital

  2. BOption (b)

    Here into

  3. COption (c)

    led by the Principal

  4. DOption (d)

    comes the trained doctors

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

comes the trained doctors

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part of the sentence is: comes the trained doctors

Key Points

  • Use "came" instead of "comes" to make the sentence correct.
  • As we can see in the given sentence "Led" is used as it is the correct way to spell the past tense of lead.
  • From here we understand the sentence should be in past tense completely.
  • The past tense or simple past tense of come is "came."
  • "Comes" is used as the 3rd person present form.
  • Example -
  • He daily comes to school by car.
  • She came downstairs with a letter in her hand.

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Corrected sentence: Here into the main campus of the hospital came the trained doctors led by the Principal.

Question 91

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She ______ her breath, surprised by the suddenness of the question.

  1. AOption (a)

    caught

  2. BOption (b)

    gasped

  3. COption (c)

    shook

  4. DOption (d)

    clicked

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

caught

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Caught

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Caught means Capturing or taking possession of things.
  • Gasped means to take a short, quick breath through the mouth.
  • Shook means the feeling when someone saw or heard something that makes him/her feel excited or you feel blessed about it.
  • Clicked means to emit or make a slight, sharp sound, or series of such sounds.
  • From the above meanings, we can say that "caught" is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
  • Here, in the given sentence 'caught' is used to say that, She held her breath.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete sentence: She caught her breath, surprised by the suddenness of the question.

Question 92

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Confeguration

  2. BOption (b)

    Configuretiun

  3. COption (c)

    Confeguretion

  4. DOption (d)

    Configuration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Configuration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Configuration

Key Points

  • Configuration means the way in which the parts of something, or a group of things, are arranged.
  • Example - Geographers study the configuration of the mountains.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4, which is spelt correctly.

The rest of the options are misspelt.

Question 93

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

A doctor’s first concern is the ______ of his patients.

  1. AOption (a)

    profit

  2. BOption (b)

    well-being

  3. COption (c)

    benefit

  4. DOption (d)

    advantage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

well-being

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: well-being

Key Points 

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words:
  • Profit means the amount of money that a business earns above what it costs to produce and sell goods and services.
  • Well-being means the state of feeling healthy and happy.
  • Benefit means to produce a good or useful effect.
  • Advantage means specially favourable to success, interest, or any desired end.
  • As per the meaning of the given words. well-being is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.
  • Corrected sentence: A doctor’s first concern is the well-being of his patients.

Question 94

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Allure

  1. AOption (a)

    Repulsion

  2. BOption (b)

    Charm

  3. COption (c)

    Appeal

  4. DOption (d)

    Magic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Repulsion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Repulsion

Key Points

  • Allure means to attract or tempt by something flattering or desirable.
  • Example - Rewards allure men to brave danger.​
  • Marked option Repulsion means a strong feeling of not liking something that you find extremely unpleasant.
  • Example - She gave a dramatic shudder of repulsion.
  • It is clear that 'Allure' and 'Repulsion' are opposite in meaning.
  • Therefore the correct answer is option 1.​

Additional Information

  • Charm means a quality that pleases and attracts people
  • Appeal means to make a serious request for something you need or want very much.
  • Magic means the skill of performing tricks to entertain people.

Question 95

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Obedient

  1. AOption (a)

    Voluntary

  2. BOption (b)

    Disobedient

  3. COption (c)

    Flexible

  4. DOption (d)

    Willing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Disobedient

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Disobedient

Key Points

  • Obedient means obeying or willing to obey.
  • Example - As a child, he was always obedient to his parents.
  • Marked option Disobedient means refusing or failing to obey.
  • Example - The parents punished their disobedient child.
  • It is clear that 'Obedient' and 'Disobedient' are opposite in meaning.
  • Therefore the correct answer is option 2.​

Additional Information

  • Voluntary means to do or work without payment.
  • Flexible means that can be changed easily.
  • Willing means being happy to do something, or having no reason for not doing something.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another (1) ______ – a floating post office on the Dal Lake (2)______ on a carved maroon houseboat. It is fastened (3) ______ the western edge of the Dal Lake. It (4) ______ all regular postal services while being (5) ______ on the lake.

Question 96

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.1.

  1. AOption (a)

    attention

  2. BOption (b)

    addiction

  3. COption (c)

    attraction

  4. DOption (d)

    invitation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

attraction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: attraction

Key Points

  • Let's take a look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Attention means the act or the power of fixing the mind on something.
  • Addiction means a compulsive, chronic, physiological or psychological need for a habit-forming substance, behaviour, or activity.
  • Attraction means something that is interesting or enjoyable.
  • Invitation means a request, a solicitation, or an attempt to get another person to join you at a specific event.
  • As per the given meaning of the words "attraction" is the most appropriate option to fill the blank.
  • The implied meaning of the given sentence is that "Another draw for visitors to Jammu & Kashmir is a floating post office on Dal Lake."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete passage: Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another (1) attraction– a floating post office on the Dal Lake (2)______ on a carved maroon houseboat. It is fastened (3) ______ the western edge of the Dal Lake. It (4) ______ all regular postal services while being (5) ______ on the lake.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.2.

  1. AOption (a)

    assembled

  2. BOption (b)

    built

  3. COption (c)

    produced

  4. DOption (d)

    completed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

built

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: built

Key Points

  • Let's take a look at the meaning of the given words. 
  • Assembled means to fit the parts of something together.
  • Built is used for describing the size and shape of something, especially a building or structure.
  • Produced means to create something or bring it into existence.
  • Completed means to finish something; to bring something to an end.
  • As per the given meaning of the words "built" is the most appropriate option to fill the blank.
  • The implied meaning of the given sentence is "A maroon houseboat-style floating post office is built on the Dal Lake."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete passage: Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another (1) attraction– a floating post office on the Dal Lake (2) built on a carved maroon houseboat. It is fastened (3) ______ the western edge of the Dal Lake. It (4) ______ all regular postal services while being (5) ______ on the lake.

Question 98

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.3.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    by

  3. COption (c)

    to

  4. DOption (d)

    of

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: to

Key Points

  • Let's take a look at the use of the given prepositions. 
  • "In" is used to indicate location or position within or inside something.
  • "By" is used to show how something is done.
  • "To" is used as a preposition to indicate a destination or direction
  • "Of" is used for something that belongs to or relates to something else or to reference something.
  • As per the given uses of the prepositions "to" is the most appropriate option to fill the blank.
  • The implied meaning of the given sentence is "It is attached to the Dal Lake's western shore."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete passage: Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another (1) attraction– a floating post office on the Dal Lake (2) built on a carved maroon houseboat. It is fastened (3) to the western edge of the Dal Lake. It (4) ______ all regular postal services while being (5) ______ on the lake.

Question 99

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.4.

  1. AOption (a)

    offered

  2. BOption (b)

    offer

  3. COption (c)

    offers

  4. DOption (d)

    has offered

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

offers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: offers

Key Points

  • Here we need to understand what is a Subject-Verb agreement.
  • The basic rule states that a singular subject takes a singular verb while a plural subject takes a plural verb.
  • We use "offered" when we are talking about the past and it is no longer present in the current situation.
  • When we should use "offer" and "offers" depends on what is doing the offering.
  • If the platform is doing the offering, then the platform is singular so it offers.
  • If the technology and software are doing the offering, then they are plural and so they offer.
  • "Has offered" is used in Past perfect tense when a verb tense is used to talk about actions that were completed before some point in the past.
  • Here, in the given sentence we are talking about a particular thing that is The Dal Lake, so "offers" should be used as it is a continuous process.

Therefore, it is clear that option 3 is the correct answer.

Complete passage: Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another (1) attraction– a floating post office on the Dal Lake (2) built on a carved maroon houseboat. It is fastened (3) to the western edge of the Dal Lake. It (4) offers all regular postal services while being (5) ______ on the lake.

Question 100

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no.5.

  1. AOption (a)

    afloat

  2. BOption (b)

    boating

  3. COption (c)

    floating

  4. DOption (d)

    ashore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

afloat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: afloat

Key Points

  • Let's take a look at the meaning of the given words. 
  • Afloat means on the surface of the water; not sinking.
  • Boating means ravelling on a lake or river in a small boat for pleasure.
  • Floating means to stay or move easily on or over the surface of a liquid.
  • Ashore means toward or onto land from an area of water.
  • As per the given meaning of the words "afloat" is the most appropriate option to fill the blank.
  • The implied meaning of the given sentence is "while it is floating on the lake"

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete passage: Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another (1) attraction– a floating post office on the Dal Lake (2) built on a carved maroon houseboat. It is fastened (3) to the western edge of the Dal Lake. It (4) offers all regular postal services while being (5) afloat on the lake. 

Confusion Points

  • Though "afloat" and "floating" are similar in meaning.
  • We cannot use "being + main verb + ing" in a sentence.

100 questions in the full paper