SSC GD Constable (2022) Official Paper (Held On : 24 Jan 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: Addition of the positional values of the alphabet.

'ECTOPIC' is written as ‘71’ →

‘EDIFY’ is written as ‘49’ →

Similarly, 'ECONOMY' will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "90".

The sitting arrangement as per the given information is as:

1. Q is at the extreme right end of the row.

2. R is an immediate neighbour of Q.

3. S is an immediate neighbour of both T and R.

Here, 'U' is sitting at the extreme left end.

Hence, the correct answer is "U".

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: First and last alphabet's opposite letter is written, (1) is added in the second and fourth letter and (2) is added in the third letter.

AGENT is coded as ZHGOG →

CHAIR is coded as XICJI →

Similarly, 'FAITH' will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "UBKUS".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Letters are rearranged diagonally.

CAPABLE : PACELBA →

AUCTION : CUANOIT →

Similarly, for 'CAREFUL : ?' →

Hence, the correct answer is "RACLUFE".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given data:

 

 

 

 

 

Given expression: 'A # B + C & D – E'

B is the sister of A, C is the father of B, D is the wife of C and E is the mother of D.

Here, E is the mother's mother of A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Mother’s mother".

The correct order of words as they would appear in the English dictionary is:

3. Different 2. Discipline 5. Disregard 1. Distinct 4. Distinguish

Hence, the correct answer is "3, 2, 5, 1, 4".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: Second number = [( First number)³ + (First number)]

Let's check as per the logic,

8: 520 →

⇒ [(8)³ + (8)]

​ ⇒ (512 + 8) = 520

10: 1010 →

⇒ [(10)3 + (10)]

​⇒ (1000 + 10) = 1010

Similarly, '9 : ?' →

⇒ [(9)3 + (9)]

​⇒ (729 + 9) = 738

Here, '9 : 738' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "738".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 6 + 9 - 7 = 23

(1) 7 and 9

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 6 + 9 - 7 = 23

After changing the signs:

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 6 + 7 - 9

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 14 × 6 + 7 - 9

⇒ 84 + 7 - 9

⇒ 91 - 9 = 82

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) 3 and 7

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 6 + 9 - 7 = 23

After changing the signs:

⇒ 42 ÷ 7 × 6 + 9 - 3

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 6 × 6 + 9 - 3

⇒ 36 + 9 - 3

⇒ 45 - 3 = 42

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) 6 and 7

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 6 + 9 - 7 = 23

After changing the signs:

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 7 + 9 - 6

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 14 × 7 + 9 - 6

⇒ 98 + 9 - 6

⇒ 107 - 6 = 101

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) 3 and 6

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 6 + 9 - 7 = 23

After changing the signs:

⇒ 42 ÷ 6 × 3 + 9 - 7

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 7 × 3 + 9 - 7

⇒ 21 + 9 - 7

⇒ 30 - 7 = 23

⇒ '42 ÷ 6 × 3 + 9 - 7 = 23'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "3 and 6".

The least possible venn diagram from the given statement is shown below:

Conclusions:

I. All pullovers are pants. → Follows (All pullovers are bottoms, and all bottoms are pants, which means all pullovers are pants is definitely true)

II. All pants are tops. → Not follows (All tops are bottoms, and all bottoms are pants, which means some pants are tops can be possible but not definitely true)

III. Some pants are pullovers. → Follows (All pullovers are bottoms, and all bottoms are pants, which means some pants are pullovers is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusions I and III follow".

The mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: Addition of 3, 5, 7 and 9 (consecutive odd numbers) in the position value of the First, second, third and fourth alphabet.

Here, 'FNTS' is the missing term.

Hence, the correct answer is "FNTS".

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: (4), (3) and (2) are added in the first, second and third letter's positional value and written diagonally.

PLC : EOT →

DLG : IOH →

Similarly,  for 'HCN : ?' →

Hence, the correct answer is "PFL".

The logic followed in the given series:

Here, '400' is the missing number.

Hence, the correct answer is "400".

As per the given positions of dice:

Here, (4) and (3) are common, which means (2) is opposite to the (1).

Here, the opposite face of the face showing (2) is the face showing (1).

Hence, the correct answer is "1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (17) is added in each term.

Hence, the correct answer is "64".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: Addition of consecutive prime numbers in the first letter and addition of consecutive natural numbers in the second letter.

Here, 'GT' is the next term.

Hence, the correct answer is "GT".

The sitting arrangement as per the given information is as:

1. Ajay is to the immediate left of Boby.

2. Arun is the immediate neighbour of Krishna and Boby.

3. Shama is the immediate neighbour of Ajay and Suman.

Here, Arun is to the immediate right of Boby.

Hence, the correct answer is "Arun".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The Shaded part move as shown in the figure.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The Shaded part move as shown in the figure.

From Figure (3) to Answer Figure (4):

The Shaded part move as shown in the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

As per the given data:

Given:

28 A 80 B 16 C 5 D 21

After putting the signs:

⇒ 28 - 80 ÷16 × 5 + 21

⇒ 28 - 5 × 5 + 21

⇒ 28 - 25 + 21

⇒ 49 - 25 = 24

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Priyanka Gandhi Vadra joined "Bharat Jodo Yatra" for the first time in Madhya Pradesh in November 2022.
• The "Bharat Jodo Yatra" is a political campaign aimed at uniting people from different backgrounds and regions of India.
• Karnataka is a state in southern India known for its IT industry and historical landmarks such as Hampi and Mysore Palace.
• Kerala is a state in southern India known for its backwaters, beaches, and Ayurvedic treatments.
• Uttar Pradesh is a state in northern India known for its rich history, including the Taj Mahal and the ancient city of Varanasi.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1, Madhya Pradesh.

The correct answer is National Development Council.

Key Points

• The National Development Council (NDC) was the final approval authority for the five year plans in India.
• The NDC was established in August 1952 as a non-statutory body to facilitate coordination between the Centre and the States on matters of national development.
• The Prime Minister of India was the ex-officio chairman of the NDC, and the members included Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of States, and experts from various fields.
• The NDC played a crucial role in formulating and implementing the five year plans, which aimed at achieving rapid economic growth, social justice, and self-reliance.
• The International Development Council, National Agriculture and Development Council, and National Development Centre are not valid options as they are not relevant to the context and do not exist in India.

Additional Information 

• The five year plans were a series of national development plans that were initiated by the Indian government after independence in 1947.
• The first five year plan was launched in 1951, and a total of 12 plans were implemented until 2017.
• The five year plans focused on various sectors such as agriculture, industry, infrastructure, education, health, and social welfare.
• The five year plans were based on the principles of democratic socialism, which emphasized the role of the state in promoting economic growth and social welfare.
• Hence, the statement "The National Development Council was the final approval authority for the five year plans in India" is correct.

The correct answer is Moral Suasion.

Key Points

• Moral suasion is a qualitative monetary instrument used by the RBI to persuade banks to act in a certain way without actually mandating them to do so.
• It involves using informal communication and persuasion techniques to influence the behavior of banks and other financial institutions.
• This instrument is used to maintain financial stability, regulate credit flow, and ensure compliance with monetary policy objectives.
• Cash reserve ratio, bank rate, and open market operations are all quantitative monetary instruments that involve controlling the supply of money in the economy through direct interventions in the money market.

Additional Information

• Cash reserve ratio is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to keep with the RBI as a reserve.
• Bank rate is the interest rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks.
• Open market operations involve buying and selling government securities to control the money supply.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1 - Moral suasion.

The correct answer is 1961.

Key Points

• The Arjuna Award was instituted in the year 1961 by the Government of India to recognize outstanding achievement in sports.
• The award is named after Arjuna, a famous character from the Indian epic Mahabharata who was a skilled archer.
• The award is given annually to Indian sportspersons who have made remarkable achievements in their respective fields.
• The first recipient of the Arjuna Award was wrestler Gurbachan Singh Randhawa in 1961.
• Option 1 (1978) and Option 4 (1972) are incorrect as the Arjuna Award was instituted in 1961, and Option 2 (1970) is also incorrect.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (1978) is the year when the Dhyan Chand Award was instituted by the Government of India to recognize lifetime achievement in sports.
• Option 2 (1970) and Option 4 (1972) do not have any significance in the context of the Arjuna Award.
• Hence, the correct option is Option 3 (1961).

The correct answer is Kalbaisakhi.

Key Points

• The phenomenon of heavy showers with thunder occurring in the West Bengal region during the hot weather season is called Kalbaisakhi.
• Kalbaisakhi is a local term derived from two Bengali words: Kal (time) and Baisakhi (the first month of the Bengali calendar).
• These showers are accompanied by strong winds, lightning, and hailstorms, and can cause damage to crops, houses, and electric poles.
• Kalbaisakhi typically occurs between April and June, and is caused by the collision of hot and humid air from the Bay of Bengal with cooler air from the Himalayas.​

Additional Information

• Loo is a term used in North India for hot and dry winds that blow during the summer season, and can cause dehydration and heat strokes.
• Retreating monsoon refers to the withdrawal of the southwest monsoon from the Indian subcontinent, which usually begins in September and ends in October.
• Mango showers, also known as pre-monsoon showers, are a phenomenon that occurs in the southern and western parts of India in the months of April and May, and are named so because they coincide with the flowering of mango trees.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points 

• Shumang Leela is a popular theatre festival in the state of Manipur, showcasing traditional plays and performances.
• The festival is a celebration of the state's rich cultural heritage and is held annually in various parts of Manipur.
• It is often referred to as the "theatre of the masses" as it is accessible and enjoyed by people from all walks of life.
• The festival has been recognized by the Government of India as an important event in the country's cultural calendar.

Additional Information

• Option 1, Jharkhand, is not associated with the Shumang Leela festival.
• Jharkhand has its own unique cultural traditions and festivals.
• Option 2, Bihar, is also not associated with the Shumang Leela festival.
• Bihar has several popular festivals such as Chhath Puja, but Shumang Leela is not one of them.
• Option 4, Assam, is also not associated with the Shumang Leela festival.
• Assam has its own unique cultural traditions and festivals such as Bihu, but Shumang Leela is not one of them.

The correct answer is Sama.

Key Points

• The Sama Veda, as mentioned in the statement, is the shortest among the four Vedas and is known for its collection of **melodies and chants.**​

Additional Information

• The Rig Veda is considered the oldest and most important of the four Vedas.
• The Yajur Veda contains instructions for rituals and sacrifices.
• The Atharva Veda includes spells and charms for various purposes.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra won the maximum number of bronze medals in the 36th edition of the National Games 2022 of India.
• The National Games are a biennial multi-sport event comprising various disciplines, organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
• The 36th edition of the National Games was scheduled to be held in Goa in 2020 but was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic and was eventually held in February 2022.
• Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Kerala were also among the top-performing states in the National Games 2022, with Uttar Pradesh winning the maximum number of gold medals and Haryana winning the maximum number of silver medals.
• Maharashtra's success in the National Games 2022 can be attributed to the state's strong sporting culture and infrastructure, as well as the efforts of its athletes and coaches.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh won 102 gold medals, 78 silver medals, and 63 bronze medals in the National Games 2022, making it the overall champion of the event.
• Haryana won 72 silver medals and 58 bronze medals, finishing second in the overall medal tally.
• Kerala won 56 gold medals, 44 silver medals, and 60 bronze medals, finishing third in the overall medal tally.
• These states' performances highlight the importance of investing in sports infrastructure, training, and development programs to nurture and support talented athletes.

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

• The proclamation of emergency in India can only be made by the President of India, who is the head of state and the commander-in-chief of the armed forces.
• The Constitution of India provides for three types of emergencies: national emergency, state emergency, and financial emergency.
• In case of a national emergency, the President can declare emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• The decision to impose emergency must be approved by the Union Cabinet and ratified by both houses of Parliament.
• The Governor of a state can declare state emergency in case of failure of constitutional machinery in the state, but only on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
• The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers in a state and is responsible for the administration of the state.
• However, the Chief Minister does not have the power to proclaim emergency in India.

Additional Information

• The Governor of a state is appointed by the President and is the constitutional head of the state, but acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
• The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and is the leader of the ruling party or coalition in the state legislature.
• The Chief Minister is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the state and for implementing the policies of the state government.
• The Prime Minister is the head of the Union Council of Ministers and is responsible for the overall administration of the country.
• However, the Prime Minister does not have the power to proclaim emergency in India.
• The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states.
• The President is the head of state and represents the unity of the nation.

The correct answer is Annie Abraham. 

Key Points

• Annie Abraham was appointed as the first woman inspector general to head the Rapid Action Force (RAF) in February 2020.
• RAF is a specialized wing of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) that deals with riots and crowd control.
• Annie Abraham had earlier served as the CRPF's first woman spokesperson and had also headed the force's Srinagar sector.

Additional Information

• Seema Dhundiya is also a woman IPS officer who has made a mark in the field of law enforcement.
• She is known for her work in the area of women's safety and has been awarded the President's Police Medal for Distinguished Service.
• Sanjukta Parashar is a woman IPS officer from Assam who has been recognized for her work in counter-insurgency operations.
• She has been awarded the President's Police Medal for Gallantry and the Police Medal for Meritorious Service.
• Merin Joseph is a woman IPS officer from Kerala who gained popularity on social media for her good looks.
• She has also been recognized for her work in law enforcement, including cracking down on cybercrime.
• Hence, the statement "The correct answer is option 1, Annie Abraham" is correct.

The correct option is Queen Victoria.

Key Points

• Viceroy Lytton organised the Durbar in Delhi to acknowledge Queen Victoria as the Empress of India.
• Queen Angelia is not a historical figure and is not related to this event.
• Queen Elizabeth was not the Empress of India, and her reign began much later than 1877.
• Queen Elizabeth II was also not the Empress of India, and her reign began in the 20th century.
• Queen Victoria was the Queen of England and Ireland from 1837 until her death in 1901.
• She was also the Empress of India from 1877 until 1901, after the British government decided to bestow this title upon her.

Additional Information

• The Durbar was a grand ceremony that was held to mark the proclamation of Queen Victoria as the Empress of India.
• It was attended by Indian princes and British officials, and it was a symbol of British imperial power.
• The Durbar was held in three different cities: Allahabad, Delhi, and Lahore.
• The Delhi Durbar was the most famous one, and it was attended by around 68,000 people.
• Queen Victoria never visited India during her reign as Empress, but she was very interested in Indian culture and history.
• She owned several Indian artefacts, and she was known to have a fondness for Indian cuisine.
• Queen Elizabeth II visited India several times during her reign, but she did not hold the title of Empress of India.
• The title was dropped after India gained independence in 1947.

The correct answer is multicellular.

Key Points

• Multicellular organisms are made up of more than one cell and are complex in structure compared to unicellular organisms.
• Multicellular organisms have specialized cells that perform specific functions and work together to maintain the organism's survival.
• Examples of multicellular organisms include plants, animals, and fungi.
• Subcellular refers to structures or processes that occur within a single cell, while paracellular refers to the movement of substances between cells.
• Unicellular organisms are made up of a single cell and can carry out all necessary functions for survival within that cell.

Additional Information

• Subcellular: Examples of subcellular structures include organelles such as the nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes.
• Paracellular: This movement can occur through gaps between adjacent cells or through specialized protein channels that span the cell membrane.
• Unicellular: Examples of unicellular organisms include bacteria and protists.

The correct answer is Part V.

Key Points

• Part V of the Constitution of India deals with the powers and functioning of the Union Judiciary, which includes the Supreme Court of India.
• Part VI deals with the powers and functioning of the High Courts in the states.
• Part X deals with the The Scheduled and Tribal Area.
• Part XI deals with the relations between the Union and the states.
• Hence, the correct option is option 1 - Part V.

Additional Information

• The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India that lays down the framework for the governance of the country.
• The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial forum and final court of appeal in India.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

• Bhama Kalapam is a famous dance-drama that is associated with the Kuchipudi dance form.
• It originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh in India.
• The performance usually tells the story of the love between Lord Krishna and his beloved Radha, and is characterized by intricate footwork, graceful movements, and vivid facial expressions.

Additional Information

• Sattriya is another classical dance form that originated in the northeastern state of Assam, and is known for its devotional themes and use of traditional instruments like the khol and taal.
• Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form from the southern state of Kerala, and is characterized by slow, graceful movements and elaborate costumes and jewelry.
• Odissi is a classical dance form from the eastern state of Odisha, and is known for its fluid movements, intricate hand gestures, and use of the tribhangi posture.
• Hence, the correct answer to the question is option 2) Kuchipudi.

The correct answer is Mrinalini Sarabhai.

Key Points

• The correct answer to the question is option 4, Mrinalini Sarabhai, who received a gold medal for choreography for the Ballet Folklorico of Mexico.
• Mrinalini Sarabhai was an Indian classical dancer and choreographer, who was known for her contributions to the development of the classical dance form of Bharatanatyam.

Additional Information

• Jatin Goswami was an Indian theatre director, actor, and playwright, known for his contributions to the theatre scene in Assam and Northeast India.
• Alarmel Valli is a Bharatanatyam dancer and choreographer from Chennai, who has received several awards and accolades for her contributions to the field of classical dance.
• Amala Akkineni is an Indian film actress and dancer, who has worked in Telugu and Tamil films, and has also been involved in social and environmental causes.
• Hence, the statement is correct that Mrinalini Sarabhai received a gold medal for choreography for the Ballet Folklorico of Mexico.

The correct answer is Brazing.

Key Points

• Brazing is the process in which two close-fitting parts are joined by using a filler material which is heated above its melting point and distributed in the gap by capillary action.
• Hardening: This option is incorrect as it does not involve joining two parts using a filler material.
• Soldering: This option is incorrect as it involves joining two parts using a filler material but the filler material is not heated above its melting point.
• Welding: This option is incorrect as it involves joining two parts by melting the surfaces of the parts and not by using a filler material.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 4, Brazing.

Additional Information

• Hardening: It is a process of making a metal harder by heating it and then cooling it rapidly.
• Soldering: It is a process in which two or more metal items are joined together by melting and flowing a filler metal into the joint.
• Welding: It is a process of joining two or more metal parts by heating the surfaces to their melting point and joining them together.

The correct answer is 15 years.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 2, which states that people of 15 years and above are included while calculating adult literacy rate.
• This means that only those individuals who have crossed the age of 15 are considered for calculating the adult literacy rate.
• Option 1, which states 18 years, is incorrect as it excludes those who are between the ages of 15 and 18.
• Option 3, which states 14 years, is also incorrect as it excludes those who are above the age of 14.
• Option 4, which states 12 years, is too low as it excludes most of the individuals who are above the age of 12.

Additional Information

• Adult literacy rate refers to the percentage of adults in a population who can read and write with understanding a simple statement related to their daily life.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Goa is not a major wheat producing state in India.
• Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana are among the top wheat producing states in India, along with Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Bihar.
• Punjab is the largest wheat producing state in India, accounting for about 40% of the total wheat production in the country.
• Uttar Pradesh and Haryana are also significant wheat producing states, contributing about 17% and 11% of the total production, respectively.
• Goa, on the other hand, is a small state in western India known for its beaches and tourism industry.
• It does not have a significant agricultural sector and is not known for wheat production.

Additional Information

• Punjab: Apart from wheat, Punjab is also a major producer of rice, sugarcane, and cotton.
• The state is often referred to as the "breadbasket of India" due to its high agricultural productivity.
• Uttar Pradesh: In addition to wheat, Uttar Pradesh is a major producer of rice, sugarcane, and potatoes.
• The state is also known for its dairy industry and is the largest producer of milk in India.
• Haryana: Apart from wheat, Haryana is known for its production of rice, sugarcane, and mustard.
• The state is also a major hub for automobile and IT industries.

The correct answer is 8 years.

Key Points

• 'Make in India' completed 8 years on September 25, 2022.
• 'Make in India' is a flagship programme launched by the Government of India in September 2014 to encourage domestic and foreign companies to manufacture their products in India.
• The programme aims to boost the manufacturing sector and create job opportunities in India.
• In the last 8 years, the programme has attracted significant investments in various sectors such as automobiles, electronics, defence, and pharmaceuticals.

Additional Information

• Option 1 - '5 years' is incorrect as it refers to the completion of the programme in 2019.
• Option 2 - '9 years' and option 3 - '4 years' are also incorrect as they do not match with the timeline of the programme.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 4 - '8 years'.

The correct answer is private goods.

Key Points

• Private goods are those goods that are directly sold to the consumers and are exclusive in nature.
• These goods are owned by individuals and not shared by the public.
• Cars, clothes, and chocolates are examples of private goods as they are sold to the consumers directly and are **owned by individuals.**​

Additional Information

• Expensive goods are not a correct option as the price of the goods does not determine whether they are private or public goods.
• Public goods are those goods that are available for use by the public, and their consumption by one individual does not reduce their availability for others.
• Examples of public goods include parks, streetlights, and public libraries.
• Capital goods are goods that are used in the production of other goods and services, such as machinery, equipment, and factories.
• Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 1, private goods.

Given:

The winner got 75% votes and won by 520 votes.

Calculation:

Let the total votes polled be 100x

Votes of winning candidate = 75% of 100x = 75x

⇒ Votes of losing candidate = 100x - 75x = 25x

According to the question,

75x - 25x = 520

⇒ 50x = 520

⇒ x = 10.4

So, total votes polled = 10.4 × 100 = 1040

∴ The total number of votes polled is 1040.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 5,00,000

Rate of interest for Kiran (r1) = 12% per annum

Rate of interest for Kishore (r2) = 15% per annum

Time period (t) = 3 years

Concept:

Compound interest = P[(1 + r1/n)^nt - 1]

Simple Interest = PRT/100

Solution:

Compound interest earned by Kiran = P[(1 + r1/n)nt - 1], 

= 500000 × [(1 + 0.12/1)³ - 1]

= 500000 × [1.404928 - 1]

= 500000 × 0.404928 = Rs. 202464

Simple interest earned by Kishore  = (Pr2t)/100

⇒ (500000 × 15 × 3)/100 = Rs. 2,25,000

⇒ Difference = 2,25,000 - 202464 = Rs. 22536

Therefore, difference in the interest earned by Kiran and Kishore after 3 years is Rs. 22536.

Given:

Akash can do a piece of work in 63 days.

Disha can do the same work in 84 days.

Concept:

Total work = Time × Efficiency

Solution:

Total work = LCM(63, 84) = 252 units

Efficiency of Akash = 252/63 = 4

Efficiency of Disha = 252/84 = 3

Work completed by Akash and Disha in 12 days by working together = (4 + 3) × 12 = 84 units

Remaining work = 252 - 84 = 168 units

Number of days required by Akash to complete the remaining work = 168/4 = 42 days

Total number of days required to finish the work = 42 + 12 = 54 days

Therefore, total number of days required to finish the work is 54 days.

Shortcut Trick

Total items bought = 12 (pencils) + 20 (pens) = 32 items.

Total cost incurred = 60 + 200 = Rs. 260.

Average cost = Total Cost ÷ Total Items.

Average cost = 260 ÷ 32 = 8.125.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 8.125.

Alternate Method

Given:

Quantity of pencils = 1 dozen = 12

Total cost of 12 pencils = Rs. 60

Quantity of pens = 20

Total cost of 20 pens = Rs. 200

12 Pencils Rs. 60

20 Pens Rs. 200

32 Items Total: Rs. 260

Formula Used:

Average Cost = Total Cost ÷ Total Number of Items

Calculations:

⇒ Total items = 12 (pencils) + 20 (pens)

⇒ Total items = 32

⇒ Total cost = Cost of pencils + Cost of pens

⇒ Total cost = 60 + 200 = Rs. 260

⇒ Average cost = 260 ÷ 32

⇒ Average cost = 130 ÷ 16

⇒ Average cost = 65 ÷ 8

⇒ Average cost = 8.125

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 8.125.

Additional Information

Average

Average is calculated by dividing the sum of all observations by the total number of observations. Formula: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations.

Weighted Average

When combining two different groups with separate averages and quantities, the combined average is calculated as: Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where 'n' represents the quantities and 'A' represents the averages.

Given:

Marks of 7 students = 70, 85, 95, 86, 74, 83, 67.

Concept:

Average = Sum of values / Number of values.

Solution:

⇒ Sum of marks = 70 + 85 + 95 + 86 + 74 + 83 + 67 = 560

⇒ Average marks = Sum of marks / Number of students = 560/7 = 80

Therefore, the average mark obtained by the students is 80.

Shortcut Trick

Total Surface Area (TSA) = Curved Surface Area (CSA) + 2 × Base Area

Base Area = πr² = (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 154 cm²

TSA = 3520 + 2 × 154 = 3520 + 308 = 3828 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 3828 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) of the cylinder = 7 cm

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 3520 cm²

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area (TSA) = 2πrh + 2πr²

Where, 2πrh = Curved Surface Area (CSA)

Calculations:

⇒ Total Surface Area (TSA) = CSA + 2 × π × r²

⇒ TSA = 3520 + 2 × (22/7) × 7 × 7

⇒ TSA = 3520 + 2 × 22 × 7

⇒ TSA = 3520 + 308

⇒ TSA = 3828 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 3828 cm².

Additional Information

Volume of a Cylinder

The capacity of the cylinder is given by the formula V = πr²h, where r is the radius and h is the height.

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

CSA refers to the area of the side surface only, calculated as CSA = 2πrh.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

TSA includes both the curved surface and the areas of the two circular bases: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Base Area of a Cylinder

Each base of a cylinder is a circle with an area of πr².

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 13,200, Discount = 12%

Concept:

SP = Marked Price (MP) - Discount

Solution:

⇒ Using the discount formula, MP = SP/(1 - Discount%) = 13,200 / (1 - 0.12) = Rs. 15,000

Therefore, the marked price of the item is Rs. 15,000.

Given:

Mark up on cost price = 20%

Discount offered = 10%

Faulty weight = 800 g for 1 kg

Concept:

Overall profit can be calculated by understanding how the marked-up price, discount, and the use of faulty weight impact the selling price compared to the cost price.

Solution:

Selling price per kg due to markup and discount

⇒ SP = (1 + 20/100) × (1 - 10/100) = 1.08

Due to faulty weight, the actual selling price

⇒ Actual_SP = SP/(800/1000) = 1.08/0.8 = 1.35

Overall profit percentage ⇒ Profit_percentage = (Actual_SP - 1) × 100

⇒ (1.35 - 1) × 100 = 35%

Therefore, the shopkeeper's overall profit percentage is 35%.

Given:

N = (243 + 253 + 263 + 273)

Concept:

(a3 + b3) = (a + b)(a2 - ab + b2) and 

(a + b) always divides a3 + b3

Calculation:

N = (243 + 253 + 263 + 273)

⇒ N = (243 + 253 + 263 + 273)

By using the above formula

⇒ N = (24 + 27)(24² - 24 × 27 + 27²) + (25 + 26)(25² - 25 × 26 + 26²) 

⇒ N = 51(odd number) + 51(odd number) 

As the sum of two odd numbers is even.

⇒ N = 51 × (even number) 

Now, required remainder 

R = 51 × even number/(51 × 2)

R = even number / 2

Hence, the remainder will be zero.

Alternate MethodConcept:

The remainder when a number is divided by 102 is the same as the remainder when the sum of the individual remainder of its parts divided by 102 is taken.

Calculation:

First, calculate the value of N:

N =  (243 + 253 + 263 + 273) = 13824 + 15625 + 17576 + 19683 = 66708

⇒ (66708) ÷ 102 = 654

So the given expression is completely divided by 102.

Therefore, N divided by 102 leaves a remainder 0.

Shortcut Trick

Area of Rhombus = (1/2) × Product of Diagonals

Area = (1/2) × 7 × 6

Area = 7 × 3 = 21 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 21 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Diagonal 1 (d₁) = 7 cm

Diagonal 2 (d₂) = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a Rhombus = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂

Calculations:

⇒ Area = (1/2) × 7 cm × 6 cm

⇒ Area = (42 / 2) cm²

⇒ Area = 21 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 21 cm².

Additional Information

Properties of a Rhombus

All sides are equal, and diagonals bisect each other at right angles (90°).

Side of Rhombus

The side 'a' can be calculated using diagonals: a = (1/2) × √(d₁² + d₂²).

Perimeter of Rhombus

Perimeter = 4 × side = 4a.

Alternative Area Formula

Area = Base × Height (if the perpendicular height and base are known).

Given:

Speed of going = 40 km/h,

Speed of returning = 60 km/h

Concept:

Average speed = Total distance / Total time.

The total distance for the round trip is twice the one-way distance.

Solution:

One-way distance = d

⇒ Total time = d/40 + d/60 = (3d + 2d)/120 = d/24

⇒ Average speed = 2d/(d/24) = 48 km/h

Hence, her average speed is 48 km/h.

Given:

Marked price (MP) = ₹48,000,

Discount = 12%, Gain = 10%

Concept:

Selling Price (SP) = MP - Discount,

Cost Price (CP) = SP/(1 + Gain %),

New Gain % = (MP/CP - 1) × 100

Solution:

⇒ Selling price (SP) = MP × (1 - Discount%) = 48000 × (1 - 0.12) = ₹42,240

⇒ Cost price (CP) = SP/(1 + 10%) = ₹42,240/1.1 = ₹38,400

⇒ New Gain % = (MP/CP - 1) × 100 = (48000/38400 - 1) × 100 = 25%

Therefore, if no discount is allowed, his gain percentage is 25 percent.

Given:

Speed of the boat in still water is 50% more than its speed in upstream,

Time taken downstream = 20 minutes

Concept:

Speed in downstream = Speed of the boat in still water + current's speed

Solution:

Let the speed of the boat upstream be denoted as S (km/hr).

The speed of the boat in still water is then 1.5S.

Upstream Speed = Boat in still water - Current speed

S = 1.5S - C

C = 0.5S

Downstream Speed = 1.5S + 0.5S = 2S

Given that the time for the boat to go downstream is 20 minutes (or 1/3 hour), we have:

⇒ 1/3 = D/(2S)

⇒ D = 2S/3 ---- (i).

The time it takes to go upstream is given by the distance (D) divided by the speed upstream, which is D/S.

⇒ Upstream time = (2S/3)/S

⇒ Upstream time = 2/3 hours = 40 minutes

Therefore, It will take the boat 2/3 of an hour (or 40 minutes) to reach point P from point Q in upstream.

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency Ratio (Amrit : Bhagat) = 3 : 1

Time Ratio (Amrit : Bhagat) = 1 : 3 (Inversely proportional to efficiency)

Difference in time units = 3 − 1 = 2 units → 50 days

1 unit = 25 days ∴ Amrit = 25 days, Bhagat = 75 days

Together time = (Product of Days) ÷ (Sum of Days) = (25 × 75) ÷ 100 = 75 ÷ 4 = 18 3/4 days

∴ The correct answer is 18 3/4 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amrit is thrice as good as Bhagat. Let Bhagat's efficiency be 1 unit/day, then Amrit's efficiency is 3 units/day.

Time difference between Amrit and Bhagat = 50 days.

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Efficiency ∝ 1 / Time

⇒ Let the time taken by Bhagat be 3x and Amrit be x.

⇒ 3x − x = 50 ⇒ 2x = 50 ⇒ x = 25.

⇒ Amrit finishes in 25 days and Bhagat in 75 days.

⇒ Total work (LCM of 25 and 75) = 75 units.

⇒ Combined efficiency of Amrit and Bhagat = 3 + 1 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Time taken together = 75 ÷ 4 = 18 3/4 days.

∴ The correct answer is 18 3/4 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency-Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. If the efficiency ratio is a:b, the time ratio is b:a.

Combined Work Formula

For two people taking x and y days respectively, the combined time is (x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the work done, which is equivalent to the ratio of their efficiencies if they work for the same duration.

Given

The remainder when divided by 4, 5, and 6 is always 3

Concept:

A number that satisfies such condition is of the form LCM(4, 5, 6) × k + 3

Solution:

The LCM of 4, 5, and 6 which is 60.

⇒ The smallest three-digit number of the form 60k + 3 is when k = 2, so the number is 60 × 2 + 3 = 123

Therefore, the smallest possible three-digit natural number is 123.

Given:

Vendor sells 40% and throws away 10% of the remaining. Next day he sells 50% of the remaining and throws away the rest.

Concept:

To find the percentage of oranges thrown away, calculate the quantity of oranges thrown each day based on the given percentages.

Solution:

⇒ Initial quantity = 100 (assuming)

⇒ After selling 40%, remaining = 60%

⇒ Throwing 10% of remaining, thrown = 10% of 60 = 6%

⇒ New quantity = 60% - 6% = 54%

⇒ Next day, 50% sold of remaining, remaining = 50% of 54 = 27%

⇒ All of remaining is thrown = 27%

⇒ Total percentage of oranges thrown = 6% + 27% = 33%

Hence, the vendor throws away 33 percent of his oranges.

Given:

Cost price of mobile = Rs. 3,200,

Repair cost = Rs. 800,

Selling price = Rs. 4,800

Concept:

Gain percent = ((Selling price - Total cost price)/Total cost price) x 100

Solution:

⇒ Total cost price = Cost of mobile + Repair cost = Rs. 3,200 + Rs. 800 = Rs. 4,000

⇒ Gain percent = ((Rs. 4,800 - Rs. 4,000)/Rs. 4,000) x 100 = 20%

Therefore, Raju's gain percentage is 20%.

Given:

Total money = ₹1,900,

Number of boys = 4,

girls = 5,

women = 6.

Ratio of share, Boy : Girl : Woman = 9 : 8 : 4

Concept:

Total money = Number of individual  × Ratio of individual share

Solution:

Let individual share of a boy = 9y

then

Individual share of a girl = 8y

Individual share of a woman = 4y

Total money = 9y × number of boys + 8y × number of girls + 4y × number of women

⇒ Total money = 9y × 4 + 8y × 5 + 6y × 4 = 100y

⇒ 100y = 1900

⇒ y = 19

So

Individiual share of a girl = 19 × 8 = 152

Hence, the share of a girl is ₹152.

Given:

l : m = 2 : 7, m : n = 3 : 4 and n : k = 14 : 5

Concept:

If a : b = c : d, then we can represent it as a/c = b/d or ad = bc. Similarly, we can do this for more than two ratios.

Solution:

l : m = 2 : 7    ...........(i)

m : n = 3 : 4     ...........(ii)

n : k = 14 : 5     ...........(iii)

Make the value of n qual in (ii) and (iii) by multiplying (ii) by 7 and (iii) by 2

m : n = 21 : 28

n : k = 28 : 10

Now multiply (i) by 3 to make the value of m = 21

l : m = 6 : 21

Hence, l : m : n : k is 6 : 21 : 28 : 10.

Given:

MRP of speaker = ₹ 3500

Cash down = ₹ 1000

No of instalment = 3

Rate = 12.5% p.a. compound interest

Formula used:

Amount borrowed = $x\left[ {\left( {\frac{{100}}{{100 + r}}} \right) + {{\left( {\frac{{100}}{{100 + r}}} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {\frac{{100}}{{100 + r}}} \right)}^3}} \right]$

Calculation:

Cost of Bluetooth speaker on cash payment = ₹ 3500

Down payment (i.e. payment made at present) = ₹ 1000

∴ Rest amount = ₹ (3500 – 1000) = ₹ 2500

Suppose the amount of each instalment be ₹ x

⇒ $2500 = x\left[ {\left( {\frac{{100}}{{100 + 12.5}}} \right) + {{\left( {\frac{{100}}{{100 + 12.5}}} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {\frac{{100}}{{100 + 12.5}}} \right)}^3}} \right]$

⇒ $2500 = x\left[ {\left( {\frac{{8}}{{9}}} \right) + {{\left( {\frac{{8}}{{9}}} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {\frac{{8}}{{9}}} \right)}^3}} \right]$

⇒ $2500 = x\left[ {\frac{{648 + 576 + 512}}{{729}}} \right]$

⇒ x × (1736/729) = 2500

⇒ x = 2500 × 729/1736

⇒ x = ₹1,049.83

Therefore, the amount of instalment is ₹1,049.83.

The correct answer is 'Gloomy'.

Key Points

• "Jovial", means cheerful and friendly. ("हंसमुख" or "भावुक").
• For example, everyone enjoyed Peter's jovial personality at the party.
• "Gloomy", means sad, or depressed. ("उदासीन" or "मलिन").
• For example, the  gloomy weather often makes John feel sad.​

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 1".

Additional Information

• "Abrupt", in English means sudden and unexpectedly. ("आकस्मिक" or "अकस्मात").
• "Cheerful" means noticeably happy and optimistic. ("खुश" or "आनंदित").
• "Nauseating", means causing or liable to cause a feeling of nausea or disgust. ("मतली करने वाला" or "घिनौना").

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Cancelletion'.

Key Points

• The word 'Cancelletion' does not exist in English language and seems to be a misspelling.
• The correct spelling for this intended word is 'Cancellation'(रद्द) which means the action of cancelling something that has been arranged or planned.
• For example: due to the heavy rain, there was a cancellation of the outdoor concert.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 3 i.e. Cancelletion.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: Conscious(जागरूक): It means being awake and aware of one's surroundings.
• Option 2**: Credible(विश्वसनीय):** It refers to the ability to be believed or convincing.
• Option 4: Convertible(परिवर्तनीय): This wOrd means capable of being converted into a different form or use.

The correct answer is 'Pleasant'.

Key Points

• The word "Horrible" describes something that causes or is likely to cause horror; shockingly dreadful. ("भयंकर" or "भीषण").
• Example: The horrible accident left the car completely destroyed.
• "Pleasant", suggests an experience that brings happiness or satisfaction. ("मनोहर" or "सुखद").
• Example: His pleasant demeanor made him popular amongst his peers.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

• 'Surgical' relates to or involves surgery or surgeons. ("शल्य चिकित्सा संबंधी" or "सर्जिकल").
• 'Ugly' often relates to an unpleasant or repugnant appearance. ("भद्दा" or "कुरूप").
• 'Frightful' is a synonym for 'horrible', meaning something that is very alarming, frightening, or intense. ("भयावह" or "डरावना").

The correct answer is "aims to". 

Key Points

• Here's the explanation for each option:
• "Aims for" - This phrase is used when there is a particular goal or target that one wants to achieve.
• However, considering that the sentence is about the purpose (not the goal) of education, this option isn't the most suitable.
• "Aim at" - This phrase is used to mean targeting in a physical sense, or directing effort or a criticism towards a literal or metaphorical target.
• It's not the best fit for the sentence because education isn't 'aiming at' something, it's carrying out a purpose.
• "Get rid at" - This phrase is grammatically incorrect.
• If we're discussing eliminating something, the correct term would be "get rid of", not "get rid at".
• However, this isn't suitable here because the sentence isn't about getting rid of something.
• "Aims to" - This phrase is used to express an objective or purpose that someone or something intends to achieve.
• This perfectly fits the context, showing the purpose of education.
• Therefore, the complete sentence reads: "Education, no doubt, aims to bring about the all-round development of a child."
• It explains that one of the main purposes of education is to foster holistic development in a child.
• So, "aims to" is the most appropriate option to fill the blank.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is 'Gained'.

Key Points

• The word "Earned" generally refers to receiving something in return for work or services done. ("कमाया" or "अर्जित").
• Example: She has earned a reputation for being reliable and hardworking.
• "Gained" means to obtain or secure something especially as a result of effort. ("प्राप्त किया" or "हासिल किया").
• Example: Through continuous efforts, he gained the support of the community.

Therefore, the correct answer is**- 'Option 3'.**

Additional Information

• 'Offered' generally implies making something available or providing something willingly. ("प्रस्तावित" or "पेश की").
• 'Gave' signifies a voluntary act of providing or transferring something to someone. It doesn't infer a return or reward for services done or work performed, like "earned". ("दिया" or "प्रदान की").
• 'Accorded' usually means to give someone special treatment or a particular status. ("प्रदान की गई" or "स्वीकृत").

The correct answer is 'Feeling overwhelming fear or worry'.

Key Points

• The idiom "Beside oneself" is traditionally used to express a state of being intensely affected emotionally.
• This could mean being very upset, shocked, excited.
• Example - "When she found out that her daughter had been accepted into Oxford, she was beside herself with joy."
• In this sense, 'Feeling overwhelming fear or worry' describes a person who is so overcome with fear or worry that they almost lose control of their emotions, which aligns with the idiom "Beside oneself".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• 'To remain silent' refers to a state of intense emotion rather than a response of silence.
• 'Very shocked or distraught' could be a plausible interpretation for 'beside oneself', but it does not cover all the emotional range that this idiom could imply, such as the intense worry or fear highlighted in 'Option 3'.
• 'To be happy' is not the best fit as the idiom 'beside oneself' often relates to heightened emotional states that are frequently of a negative or distressed nature rather than happiness.

The correct answer is 'an open book'.

Key Points

• The phrase "straightforward and honest" describes someone who is easy to understand or interpret; someone who is not hiding anything. In simple terms, a person who is straightforward and honest tends to be frank, truthful and transparent in their actions, thoughts and speech.
• The idiomatic phrase that can replace is "an open book".
• This idiom is used to describe a person who is easy to understand or interpret; their thoughts, feelings and intentions are readily apparent, much like a book that is open and can be read easily.

Therefore, the correct answer is**- 'Option 2'.**

Additional Information

• 'Bad blood' is an idiom that describes feelings of anger or hostility between people, often due to past conflicts or disagreements.
• 'An apple of one’s eyes' is an idiom which refers to someone very precious or cherished by someone, often a reference to a beloved person.
• 'A big hit' is an idiom that describes something highly successful or popular, commonly used to refer to a successful movie, song, or other production.

The correct answer is 'Useful'.

Key Points

• The word "Handy" describes something that is useful or convenient. ("उपयोगी" or "सहज").
• Example: A swiss army knife is a handy tool to have when camping.
• "Useful" suggests something that can be used beneficially or advantageously. ("उपयोगी" or "लाभदायक").
• Example: A map is very useful for someone who is traveling to an unfamiliar place.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• 'Near' generally refers to a short distance in space or time. "नज़दीक" or "समीप".
• 'Simple' implies something that is easy to understand or do, and does not directly mean useful or handy. ("साधारण" or "सरल").
• 'Nice' often refers to something pleasing or agreeable, and does not imply usefulness. ("अच्छा" or "सुंदर").

The correct answer is: No substitution

Key Points

• The subject "You" is paired with the correct verb "do not," maintaining subject-verb agreement.
• In this context, "have" is used to indicate possession, but not in a physical sense. Instead, it conveys the idea that the subject (you) has the right or authorization to access the specified content.
• The word choices, such as "access" and "currently," are contextually accurate and contribute to the precise expression of the message.
• Thus, the sentence is both grammatically and conceptually correct.
• Hence, no substitution is required.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'Daring'.

Key Points

• The word "Brave" refers to someone who has the ability to face danger, fear, or difficulty without showing fear. ("बहादुर" or "साहसी").
• Example: Firefighters are brave individuals who risk their lives to save others.
• "Daring" suggests the courage to take risks or face danger. ("साहसिक" or "धीरजवान").
• Example: The daring actions of the soldier saved many lives during the battle.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• 'Cautious' implies a careful attitude to avoid danger or risks, so it is not a match for brave. ("सतर्क" or "सावधान").
• 'Timid' signifies a lack of courage or confidence, which is actually the opposite of brave. ("बुज़दिल" or "डरपोक").
• 'Mild' often describes a gentle or soft nature or something not severe or extreme. ("नरम" or "हल्का").

The correct answer is "accomplish a restricted set of tasks". 

Key Points

• In the sentence, "Machines can only accomplish a maximum set of tasks, as machines do not hold any thought process of their own," the underlined segment is "accomplish a maximum set of tasks".
• ​It indicates the scope or extent of tasks that machinery is able to perform with its inherent limitations, since machines lack independent thinking abilities.
• Looking at the options provided:
• "accomplish a valued set of tasks" - this phrase implies that the tasks have some inherent value, but it does not indicate that there's an upper limit to what machines can do, which is a key point in the original sentence.
• "accomplish a gist set of tasks" - the term "gist" means the essence or the main point of something. Here, it would not make sense as machines perform specific tasks rather than the "gist" of tasks.
• "accomplish a restricted set of tasks" - this phrase correctly conveys the idea that there is a certain limit to the tasks that machinery can complete due to their lack of own thought processes, making this option a fitting substitute for the original segment.
• "accomplish a difficult set of tasks" - this signifies the level of complexity in tasks, not the limit that machines have in their capabilities.
• Therefore, the best option that substitutes the underlined segment in the given sentence is: "accomplish a restricted set of tasks"
• Thus, the revised sentence reads: "Machines can only accomplish a restricted set of tasks, as machines do not hold any thought process of their own."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is: Calandar

Key Points

• Here, "Calandar" is an incorrectly spelt word.
• The correct spelling is 'Calendar'.
• Calendar is the system for organizing and measuring time, typically divided into days, weeks, months, and years, often with special events or holidays marked. (समय को व्यवस्थित करने और मापने की प्रणाली, आमतौर पर दिनों, हफ्तों, महीनों और वर्षों में विभाजित होती है, जिसमें अक्सर विशेष घटनाओं या छुट्टियों को चिह्नित किया जाता है)
• Example: She marked important dates on her calendar, including birthdays, appointments, and upcoming events.

​Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Cherish: To hold dear or value; to treat with affection and care. (प्रिय या मूल्य रखना; स्नेह और देखभाल से व्यवहार करना)
• Wisdom: The ability to make sound decisions and judgments based on knowledge and experience. (ज्ञान और अनुभव के आधार पर ठोस निर्णय और निर्णय लेने की क्षमता)
• Mice: Plural of "mouse," a small rodent typically found in various habitats. (एक छोटा कृंतक जो आमतौर पर विभिन्न आवासों में पाया जाता है)

The correct answer is: "he had want"

Key Points

• The segment that contains a grammatical error is: "he had want"
• The correct version should be: "he had wanted"
• In the sentence, the verb "had" is used as an auxiliary verb indicating past perfect tense, and it is followed by the base form of the verb "want."
• However, in English, when using the past perfect tense, the past participle form of the verb is required after the auxiliary verb "had."
• The past participle of "want" is "wanted," so the correct construction in the past perfect tense is "he had wanted."
• The past perfect tense is formed by combining the past tense of the auxiliary verb "have" (had) with the past participle of the main verb ("wanted").
• This tense is used to indicate an action that was completed before another past action.
• Therefore, the corrected sentence is: He said that he had wanted to read a novel by Enid Blyton.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Superior'.

Key Points

• The underlined word 'subordinate' refers to someone who holds a lower or lesser position or rank. (अधीनस्थ) 
• Example: The manager asked his subordinates to complete the project on time.
• The chosen antonym 'superior' indicates someone who is higher in rank, position, or status. ('श्रेष्ठ' or 'अधिकारी')
• Example: She had a meeting with her superior to discuss her annual performance.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Superior.

Additional Information

• 'Inferior' suggests less worth or lower quality or rank. Its Hindi equivalent is 'हीन' or 'नीचे'.
• 'Ordinary' means with no special or distinctive features; normal. Its Hindi equivalent is 'साधारण'.
• 'Mediocre' refers to only moderate quality; not very good. Its Hindi equivalent is 'माध्यमिक'.

The correct answer is 'Cruelty'.

Key Points

• The word "benevolence" describes an inclination to do good or display kindness and compassion. ("उदारता" or "दया").
• Example: Mother Teresa was known for her benevolence towards the poor.
• "Cruelty", which suggests a disposition to inflict harm or suffering. ("क्रूरता" or "निर्दयता").
• Example: Cruelty towards animals is punishable by law.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• 'Hardness' can refer to the state of being physically solid, firm, or rigid. It can also suggest a lack of emotion or sympathy, but this meaning is less direct and commonly used. ("कठिनाई" or "कठोरता").
• 'Pardon' implies forgiveness or the action of forgiving. ("क्षमा" or "माफी").
• 'Kindness' is in fact a synonym for 'benevolence', implying goodwill and a caring attitude. ("दयालुता" or "कृपा").

The correct answer is: efficiency

Key Points

• Efficiency means the ability to achieve maximum productivity with minimum wasted effort, time, or resources. (न्यूनतम बर्बाद प्रयास, समय या संसाधनों के साथ अधिकतम उत्पादकता प्राप्त करने की क्षमता)
• Example: In a manufacturing plant, the implementation of new technology significantly improved efficiency.
• In the context of the sentence, "efficiency" is a key aspect of the improvements brought about by technological innovations in the extension of financial services.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Adequacy: Having enough or sufficient quality or quantity; meeting the requirements or standards. (पर्याप्त या पर्याप्त गुणवत्ता या मात्रा होना; आवश्यकताओं या मानकों को पूरा करना)
• Inadequacy: Lacking in quality, quantity, or meeting the required standards; insufficient or not up to the mark. (गुणवत्ता, मात्रा या आवश्यक मानकों को पूरा करने में कमी; अपर्याप्त या लक्ष्य के अनुरूप नहीं)
• Inefficiency: Not achieving maximum productivity or effectiveness; lacking in efficiency or competence. (अधिकतम उत्पादकता या प्रभावशीलता प्राप्त नहीं करना; दक्षता या योग्यता में कमी)

The correct answer is: unintended

Key Points

• Unintended means not intended or done deliberately; happening by accident. (इरादा नहीं या जानबूझकर किया गया; दुर्घटनावश हो रहा है)
• Example: The unintended consequence of the new policy was a decrease in employee morale.
• In the given context, "unintended" is used to convey that the consequences arising from increased reliance on third-party lending service providers were not planned or desired and have had negative effects, particularly with regard to mis-selling to unsuspecting customers.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Intentional: Deliberate and done on purpose. (जानबूझकर किया गया)
• Expected: Anticipated or likely to happen. (घटित होने की आशा या संभावना)
• Planned: Prearranged or designed with a specific purpose in mind. (किसी विशिष्ट उद्देश्य को ध्यान में रखकर पूर्व-व्यवस्थित या डिज़ाइन किया गया)

The correct answer is: breach

Key Points

• Breach means the violation or infraction of a law, obligation, agreement, or standard. (किसी कानून, दायित्व, समझौते या मानक का उल्लंघन)
• Example: The employee's unauthorized access to sensitive company information constituted a breach of the company's security policies.
• In this context, "breach" is a comprehensive term that captures various violations or infractions related to data privacy, ethical conduct in business, and the legitimacy of operations.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Agreement: Mutual understanding or harmony between parties. (पार्टियों के बीच आपसी समझ या सामंजस्य)
• Closure: Bringing something to an end or resolution. (किसी बात को अंत या समाधान तक पहुंचाना)
• Spread: The extent or distribution of something over an area or range. (किसी क्षेत्र या सीमा पर किसी चीज़ का विस्तार या वितरण)

The correct answer is: compelling

Key Points

• Compelling means evoking interest, attention, or admiration; convincing and persuasive. (रुचि, ध्यान या प्रशंसा जगाना; आश्वस्त करने वाला और प्रेरक)
• Example: The speaker delivered a compelling argument that convinced the audience.
• In the context of the given passage, "compelling" is used to stress the persuasive and significant nature of the stability implications related to the growth of digital lending in the financial sector.

Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Optional: Not mandatory; left to one's choice. (अनिवार्य नहीं; किसी की पसंद पर छोड़ दिया गया)
• Discretional: Subject to one's discretion or judgment. (किसी के विवेक या निर्णय के अधीन)
• Insignificant: Lacking importance or relevance; not significant. (महत्व या प्रासंगिकता का अभाव; महत्वपूर्ण नहीं है)

The correct answer is: ensuring

Key Points

• Ensuring means making certain that something will happen or be the case; securing or guaranteeing. (यह निश्चित करना कि कुछ घटित होगा या वैसा ही होगा; सुरक्षित करना या गारंटी देना)
• Example: The company implemented strict quality control measures, ensuring that all products meet the highest standards before reaching the market.
• ​So, here "ensuring" is chosen to underscore the proactive and committed efforts needed to protect customers and facilitate orderly growth in the context of the discussed issue.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Invalidating: Making something void or legally ineffective. (किसी चीज़ को शून्य या कानूनी रूप से अप्रभावी बनाना)
• Rejecting: Refusing to accept or consider something. (किसी बात को स्वीकार करने या विचार करने से इंकार करना)
• Repudiating: Denying the validity or refusing to acknowledge something. (किसी बात की वैधता को नकारना या स्वीकार करने से इंकार करना)

संप्रदान कारक का बहुवचन रूप "हमारे लिए" है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

• संप्रदान कारक में मुझे, मेरे लिए का बहुवचन रूप हमारे लिए है।
• अतः हमारे लिए संप्रदान कारक का बहुवचन रूप है।

Important Points

• सं��्रदान कारक- 
• जिसके लिए कोई क्रिया की जाती हैं या किसी को कुछ दिया जाता है, तो उसे सम्प्रदान कारक कहते है।
• इसकी विभक्ति 'को' और 'के लिए' है।
• जैसे- वह अरुण के लिए मिठाई लाया।

जिसके हृदय में ममता नहीं है वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द "निर्मम" है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• जिसके हृदय में ममता नहीं है- निर्मम।
• अन्य विकल्प -

Important Pointsअन्य महत्वपूर्ण** **उदाहरण- 

ऊँची दुकान फीके पकवान मुहावरे का सही अर्थ- **"नाममात्र का बड़प्पन"**है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

Important Points कुछ अन्य महत्त्वपूर्ण मुहवारें- 

वह जो पढ़ता हो वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द पाठक है**।** अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

• वह जो पढ़ता हो- पाठक।

अन्य विकल्प-

Important Pointsअन्य महत्वपूर्ण उदाहरण-

आकासवानी से समाचार प्रसारित हो रहे हैं। वाक्य के "आकासवानी" खंड मे अशुद्धि है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• वाक्य-  आकासवानी से समाचार प्रसारित हो रहे हैं।
• इस वाक्य में प्रयुक्त शब्द आकासवानी वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है।
• आकासवानी शब्द की शुद्ध वर्तनी आकाशवाणी है।
• शुद्ध वर्तनी युक्त वाक्य है-  आकाशवाणी से समाचार प्रसारित हो रहे हैं।

Important Pointsअन्य महत्वपूर्ण उदाहरण-

राहुल ने सभी मित्रों में कहानी सुनाई। वाक्य में कारक सम्बन्धी त्रुटि है। इसका शुद्धतम वाक्य राहुल ने सभी मित्रों को कहानी सुनाई है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• वाक्य-  राहुल ने सभी मित्रों में कहानी सुनाई।
• इस वाक्य में प्रयुक्त में शब्द में कारक सम्बन्धी त्रुटि है।
• में कारक चिन्ह के स्थान पर को कारक चिन्ह का प्रयोग होगा।
• शुद्ध वाक्य है-  राहुल ने सभी मित्रों को कहानी सुनाई।

Important Points

• कारक सम्बन्धी त्रुटि-
• वाक्यों में कारक संबंधी गलत प्रयोग भी किए जाते हैं, जिस कारण वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है।
• जैसे- अशुद्ध-  मैं सारी पुस्तक पढ़ डाली।
• शुद्ध- मैंने सारी पुस्तक पढ़ डाली।

वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द के स्थान पर उपयुक्त शब्द "बांधकर" होगा। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• वाक्य- पगड़ी ओढ़कर आओ
• वाक्य में प्रयुक्त शब्द ओढ़कर रेखांकित शब्द के स्थान पर बांधकर शब्द का प्रयोग होगा।
• सही वाक्य - पगड़ी बांधकर आओ।
• बांधकर अर्थ- लपेटना, आबद्ध करना।

Important Points अन्य विकल्प-