Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2024: Official Paper (Held On: 09 Jul, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Our plane / arrived at / the Mumbai airport / at the right time.

  1. AOption (a)

    Our plane

  2. BOption (b)

    arrived at 

  3. COption (c)

    the Mumbai airport

  4. DOption (d)

    at the right time

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the Mumbai airport

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • In the third part of the given sentence, the use of the definite article 'the' is incorrect.
  • In sentences where the name of the airport is mentioned, the definite article 'the' is typically not used.
  • Therefore, the correct form should be 'Mumbai airport' instead of 'the Mumbai airport'.

Hence, the correct sentence is: Our plane arrived at Mumbai airport at the right time.

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Additional Information

  • When referring to a specific airport by its name, the definite article 'the' is usually omitted.
  • Example: He is flying to Los Angeles International Airport.
  • However, when referring to an airport in a general sense without its specific name, the definite article 'the' can be used.
  • Example: He is waiting at the airport.

Question 2

Identify the error in the given sentence and select the correct sentence from the given options.

This is the story of eight round planets, the few rocks in between, and some comets.

  1. AOption (a)

    This is the story of eight round planets, few rocks in between, and some comets. 

  2. BOption (b)

    This is the story of eight round planets, a few rocks in between, and some comets

  3. COption (c)

    This is a story of eight round planets, few rocks in between, and some comets.

  4. DOption (d)

    This is story of eight round planets, few rocks in between, and some comets.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

This is the story of eight round planets, a few rocks in between, and some comets

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the word 'few' is used to denote an indefinite, small number of rocks, but it should be 'a few' to indicate a small number of rocks specifically.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence should be: This is the story of eight round planets, a few rocks in between, and some comets.

Hence, the correct statement is: This is the story of eight round planets, a few rocks in between, and some comets.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The term 'a few' is used to indicate a small number of something, which is not zero, but not many.
  • The term 'few' generally implies almost none, which is not the intended meaning in the given sentence.

Question 3

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Everyone have/ to join health orientation/ classes before/ going for trekking.

  1. AOption (a)

    to join health orientation

  2. BOption (b)

    classes before

  3. COption (c)

    going for trekking

  4. DOption (d)

    Everyone have 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Everyone have 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • In the first part of the given sentence, the plural form of the verb 'have' is incorrect.
  • In the given sentence, the subject 'Everyone' is singular.
  • The verb should agree with the singular subject, thus the singular form of the verb should be used.
  • Example: Everyone has the right to speak.
  • Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'has' should be used in place of the plural form 'have'.

Hence, the correct statement is: Everyone has to join health orientation classes before going for trekking.

Question 4

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

It was noticed / that he truthful / answered the questions / raised by the Headmistress.

  1. AOption (a)

    It was noticed 

  2. BOption (b)

    raised by the Headmistress

  3. COption (c)

    answered the questions

  4. DOption (d)

    that he truthful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

that he truthful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • In the fourth part of the given sentence, the adjective form 'truthful' is incorrect.
  • The correct form should be the adverb form 'truthfully', as it describes the verb 'answered'.
  • Example: He truthfully answered the questions.

Hence, the correct statement is: It was noticed that he truthfully answered the questions raised by the Headmistress.

<br>

Additional Information

  • Adjectives describe nouns, while adverbs describe verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.
  • Using the correct form ensures that the sentence is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning.
  • Example: She is a quick runner. (adjective describing the noun 'runner')
  • Example: She runs quickly. (adverb describing the verb 'runs')

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Our country, India, is one of the 12 mega bio-diversity countries of the world. With about 47,000 plant species, India (1)_____ tenth place in the world and fourth in Asia in plant diversity. There are (2)______ 15,000 flowering plants in India, which account for 6 per cent of the world’s (3)_____ number of flowering plants. The country has many non-flowering plants, (4)_____ as ferns, algae and fungi. India also has approximately 90,000 (5)____ of animals, as well as a rich variety of fish in its fresh and marine waters.

Question 5

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. 

  1. AOption (a)

    occupies

  2. BOption (b)

    have

  3. COption (c)

    had

  4. DOption (d)

    occupy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

occupies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • "Occupies" is a third-person singular present tense verb which correctly matches the singular subject "India."
  • This choice maintains grammatical agreement between the subject "India" and the verb.
  • It accurately conveys the current status of India holding the tenth place**, implying present relevance.**
  • The context of the passage suggests a factual statement about India’s current ranking in plant species, needing the present tense.
  • Using "occupies" ensures clarity and precision, highlighting India's position in the present context.
  • The use of "occupies" smoothly integrates into the narrative flow of the passage, aligning with other present tense verbs.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • "Have" is incorrect because it does not agree in number with the singular subject "India."
  • "Had" implies past tense, which is not appropriate for the current context of the passage.
  • "Occupy" is incorrect as it is a base form and does not match the singular subject "India."

Question 6

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    about 

  2. BOption (b)

    of

  3. COption (c)

    a

  4. DOption (d)

    many

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

about 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • "About" appropriately estimates the approximate number of flowering plants, aligning with "47,000 plant species" mentioned earlier.
  • The word "about" correctly conveys an approximation and fits the context of providing an estimated figure.
  • It maintains coherence with the general nature of scientific description, which often uses approximations.
  • In the context, "about" is needed to introduce an approximate figure, ensuring the text remains informative and accurate.
  • The use of "about" helps maintain a flow and continuity in the passage, corresponding with how numbers and quantities are presented.
  • It correctly modifies the following numeral, providing clarity and precision in the enumeration of plant species.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • "Of" would not make sense in this context as it doesn’t indicate approximation.
  • "A" is not appropriate as it implies a singular item, not an approximate number.
  • "Many" indicates a large, unspecified quantity and does not fit well with the context which requires an approximate figure.

Question 7

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. 

  1. AOption (a)

    total

  2. BOption (b)

    exactly

  3. COption (c)

    exact

  4. DOption (d)

    nearly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

total

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • "Total" is the most appropriate term to describe the sum or entirety of the world's flowering plants.
  • It provides a clear and accurate quantification, which is essential for scientific and factual statements.
  • Using "total" ensures the sentence makes logical sense, indicating that 15,000 flowering plants in India account for 6 percent of the world's complete number.
  • This choice is grammatically correct and fits naturally within the context of the sentence.
  • It aligns with the preceding passage which uses specific figures and percentages to describe biodiversity.
  • "Total" succinctly summarizes the idea of encompassing all flowering plants globally, reinforcing the comprehensiveness of the data provided.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • "Exactly" would incorrectly imply precision in counting, which is unnecessary and shifts the focus from the entirety to precision.
  • "Exact" functions as an adjective but does not modify "number" appropriately in this context.
  • "Nearly" implies approximation, which is inconsistent with the context requiring a description of the complete number.

Question 8

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    for

  3. COption (c)

    such

  4. DOption (d)

    as

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

such

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • "Such" is used to introduce examples, fitting well with the examples given (ferns, algae, and fungi).
  • It correctly forms the phrase "such as," which is commonly used for listing examples.
  • This choice maintains the grammatical flow of the sentence, ensuring clarity and precision.
  • "Such as" is more specific than just "as," providing context that the items listed are representative examples.
  • Using "such" avoids ambiguity and directly tells the reader that the following items are types of non-flowering plants.
  • It aligns with common usage in scientific and informative texts to provide clear examples.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

  • "In" does not fit the context; it is generally used to specify location or a situation.
  • "For" would imply a purpose or reason, which is not relevant here.
  • "As" alone would not effectively introduce the examples in this context without "such".

Question 9

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    species

  2. BOption (b)

    specie

  3. COption (c)

    kind

  4. DOption (d)

    type

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

species

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The term "species" is used in biology to refer to groups of organisms that share common characteristics and can interbreed.
  • India has a vast range of animal diversity, so the word "species" accurately reflects this variety.
  • "Species" is the correct plural form for multiple groups of animals, which aligns with the context provided.
  • The previous sentence mentions "non-flowering plants" in plural, thus harmonizing with plural "species."
  • "Species" covers all kinds of animal groups, which include mammals, birds, reptiles, and insects among others.
  • In scientific terms, "species" is consistently used to classify and discuss biodiversity matters.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • "Specie" is an incorrect singular form and not suitable for the plural context of the sentence.
  • "Kind" is less specific and doesn't accurately represent the wide range of animals.
  • "Type" is too general and not typically used in biological classification for groups of animals.

Question 10

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Imprisonment 

  2. BOption (b)

    Condimnation 

  3. COption (c)

    Intermingled 

  4. DOption (d)

    Conglomerate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Condimnation 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "Condimnation" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Condemnation".
  • Example: The government's condemnation of the attack was swift and unequivocal.
  • "Condemnation" means the expression of very strong disapproval; censure. (निंदा)
  • Example: The judge's condemnation of the crime was harsh but fair.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2)

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Imprisonment (कैद): The state of being imprisoned; confinement.
  • Example: He was sentenced to five years of imprisonment for the crime.
  • Intermingled (मिश्रित): Mixed together.
  • Example: The cultures intermingled to create a unique community.
  • Conglomerate (संघ): A large corporation formed by the merging of separate and diverse firms.
  • Example: The company grew into a massive conglomerate with interests in various industries.

Question 11

There is a spelling error in the given sentence. Select the option that contains the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

He was thrilled when he heard about there journey to wonderland

  1. AOption (a)

    there

  2. BOption (b)

    thrilled

  3. COption (c)

    heard

  4. DOption (d)

    journey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

there

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "there" is used to refer to a place, location, or position. (वहाँ)
  • Example: She stood there waiting for the bus.
  • The correct word should be "their", which is a possessive pronoun used to indicate ownership by a group of people. (उनका/उनकी/उनके)
  • Example: They took their dog for a walk in the park.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Option 1.'

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Thrilled (रोमांचित): Feeling intense excitement.
  • Example: She was thrilled to receive the award.
  • Heard (सुना): Past tense of hear; to have perceived sound.
  • Example: He heard a strange noise coming from the attic.
  • Journey (यात्रा): An act of traveling from one place to another.
  • Example: Their journey to the mountains was breathtaking.

Question 12

Select the sentence which gives the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. A piece of cake

  1. AOption (a)

    After months of practice, Emily performed her piano piece flawlessly during the concert

  2. BOption (b)

    The restaurant was crowded, but they found a table without any difficulty. 

  3. COption (c)

    Despite the heavy rain, they managed to have a successful outdoor event.

  4. DOption (d)

    The puzzle was so challenging that it took hours for Sam to solve it.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The restaurant was crowded, but they found a table without any difficulty. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Optional 2)

Key Points

  • The idiom "A piece of cake" means something that is very easy to do. (बहुत आसान काम)
  • Example: The exam was a piece of cake for Sarah; she finished it in just 20 minutes.
  • Option 2: The restaurant was crowded, but they found a table without any difficulty. (रेस्टोरेंट भीड़भाड़ वाला था, लेकिन उन्हें आसानी से एक टेबल मिल गई।)
  • Example: Finding a parking spot was a piece of cake today.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Option 2.'

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: After months of practice, Emily performed her piano piece flawlessly during the concert. (कई महीनों के अभ्यास के बाद, एमिली ने कॉन्सर्ट में अपने पियानो का टुकड़ा बिना गलती के प्रस्तुत किया।)
  • Example: The project was challenging, but after hard work, it was completed successfully.
  • Option 3: Despite the heavy rain, they managed to have a successful outdoor event. (भारी बारिश के बावजूद, उन्होंने एक सफल आउटडोर कार्यक्रम आयोजित किया।)
  • Example: The event was not a piece of cake, but they managed to pull it off.
  • Option 4: The puzzle was so challenging that it took hours for Sam to solve it. (पहेली इतनी चुनौतीपूर्ण थी कि सैम को इसे हल करने में घंटों लग गए।)
  • Example: Solving that puzzle was definitely not a piece of cake.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the following sentence.

I consider that every matter must be considered in every point of view

  1. AOption (a)

    on every point

  2. BOption (b)

    from every point

  3. COption (c)

    of every point

  4. DOption (d)

    at every point

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

from every point

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The phrase "considered in every point of view" means to examine or think about something from all possible angles or perspectives. (हर दृष्टिकोण से विचार करना)
  • Example: In order to make a fair decision, the judge considered the case in every point of view.
  • "from every point" indicates examining something from every perspective or angle. (हर दृष्टिकोण से)
  • Example: We need to analyze the project from every point before moving forward.
  • Hence, we can infer that the correct phrase to use in the given context is 'from every point'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Option 2.'

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • on every point (हर बिंदु पर): This phrase is not commonly used and does not fit well in the given context.
  • Example: He insisted on every point without considering the overall picture.
  • of every point (हर बिंदु का): This phrase is also not commonly used and is not appropriate in the given context.
  • Example: The analysis of every point was thorough, but it missed the broader perspective.
  • at every point (हर बिंदु पर): This phrase is incorrect for the given context as it implies specific locations rather than perspectives.
  • Example: Security checks were conducted at every point along the route.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Once bitten, thrice shy.

  1. AOption (a)

    never shy

  2. BOption (b)

    twice shy

  3. COption (c)

    always shy

  4. DOption (d)

    once shy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

twice shy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The phrase "Once bitten, twice shy" means that after having a bad experience, one is likely to be more cautious in the future. (एक बार काटा, दो बार शर्मिंदा)
  • Example: After losing a lot of money in the stock market, he's now twice shy about investing.
  • "Twice shy" refers to being cautious or wary after a previous bad experience. (दो बार शर्मिंदा)
  • Example: She was twice shy after her first relationship ended badly.
  • Hence, we can infer that the correct substitution for the underlined segment is 'twice shy'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: twice shy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Never shy (कभी शर्मिंदा नहीं): Indicates a person who is never hesitant or shy.
  • Example: He is never shy when it comes to speaking in public.
  • Always shy (हमेशा शर्मिंदा): Indicates a person who is always hesitant or shy.
  • Example: She is always shy in social gatherings.
  • Once shy (एक बार शर्मिंदा): Refers to being shy or cautious just once.
  • Example: After the incident, he was once shy but soon gained confidence.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Under the weather

  1. AOption (a)

    To enjoy the weather

  2. BOption (b)

    To feel secure

  3. COption (c)

    To work against the weather

  4. DOption (d)

    To feel unwell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To feel unwell

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The idiom "Under the weather" means to feel unwell or sick. (बीमार महसूस करना)
  • Example: I've been feeling under the weather since yesterday, so I decided to stay home from work.
  • "To feel unwell" refers to a state of not feeling healthy or experiencing discomfort. (अस्वस्थ महसूस करना)
  • Example: She has been feeling unwell and needs to see a doctor.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: To feel unwell.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • To enjoy the weather (मौसम का आनंद लेना): To take pleasure in the current weather conditions.
  • Example: We went to the beach to enjoy the weather.
  • To feel secure (सुरक्षित महसूस करना): To feel safe and free from danger or threat.
  • Example: She felt secure knowing that the doors were locked.
  • To work against the weather (मौसम के खिलाफ काम करना): To perform tasks despite unfavorable weather conditions.
  • Example: The construction workers continued to work against the weather to complete the project on time.

Question 16

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I have observed that there is proper natural ____________ even at 6 o'clock on summer mornings.

  1. AOption (a)

    light

  2. BOption (b)

    lucent

  3. COption (c)

    sparkle

  4. DOption (d)

    gelam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

light

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "light" means the natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible. (प्रकाश)
  • Example: The room was filled with natural light coming through the large windows.
  • "Light" refers to the brightness from the sun, a lamp, etc., that allows you to see things. (प्रकाश)
  • Example: The light from the streetlamp cast a soft glow over the park.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'light.'

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Lucent (प्रकाशमान): Glowing with or giving off light.
  • Example: The lucent moon shone brightly in the night sky.
  • Sparkle (चमक): To shine brightly with flashes of light.
  • Example: The diamond ring sparkled under the light.
  • Gelam (अज्ञात शब्द): This word does not have a widely recognized meaning in English.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hypocrisy

  1. AOption (a)

    Sincerity

  2. BOption (b)

    Harm

  3. COption (c)

    Deceit

  4. DOption (d)

    Truth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Deceit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "Hypocrisy" means the practice of claiming to have moral standards or beliefs to which one's own behavior does not conform; pretense. (पाखंड)
  • Example: His hypocrisy was evident when he criticized others for cheating while he himself was dishonest.
  • "Deceit" refers to the action or practice of deceiving someone by concealing or misrepresenting the truth. (धोखा)
  • Example: She was accused of deceit for lying about her qualifications on her resume.

Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'hypocrisy' is 'deceit'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Sincerity (ईमानदारी): The quality of being free from pretense, deceit, or hypocrisy.
  • Example: Her sincerity was evident in her heartfelt apology.
  • Harm (हानि): Physical injury, especially that which is deliberately inflicted.
  • Example: Smoking can cause serious harm to your health.
  • Truth (सत्य): The quality or state of being true.
  • Example: The truth is often stranger than fiction.

Question 18

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

Lewis was aggressive, ________ (normal), moody, and brilliantly clever.

  1. AOption (a)

    selfish

  2. BOption (b)

    feeble

  3. COption (c)

    eccentric 

  4. DOption (d)

    dogmatic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

eccentric 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "normal" means something that is usual, typical, or expected. (सामान्य)
  • Example: It is normal to feel nervous before an exam.
  • "Eccentric" refers to someone or something that is unconventional and slightly strange; it deviates from what is considered normal. (असामान्य)
  • Example: His eccentric behavior often left people baffled.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'normal' is 'eccentric'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: eccentric.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Selfish (स्वार्थी): Lacking consideration for others; concerned chiefly with one's own personal profit or pleasure.
  • Example: His selfish actions alienated his friends.
  • Feeble (निर्बल ): Lacking physical strength, especially as a result of age or illness.
  • Example: After the long illness, she felt extremely feeble.
  • Dogmatic (हठी): Inclined to lay down principles as incontrovertibly true.
  • Example: He was dogmatic in his beliefs and would not listen to anyone else's opinion.

Question 19

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am scared of snakes; likewise, you are ________ of lizards.

  1. AOption (a)

    passionate

  2. BOption (b)

    critical

  3. COption (c)

    fond

  4. DOption (d)

    fearful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

fearful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "fearful" means feeling afraid or showing fear; full of fear. (डरपोक)
  • Example: She was fearful of the dark and always kept a light on at night.
  • "fearful" refers to being afraid of something, similar to how someone can be scared of snakes. (डरपोक)
  • Example: He is fearful of heights and avoids tall buildings.

Therefore, the correct answer is: fearful.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Passionate (उत्साही): Having or showing strong feelings or a strong belief.
  • Example: She is passionate about painting and spends hours at her canvas.
  • Critical (आलोचनात्मक): Expressing adverse or disapproving comments or judgments.
  • Example: He is critical of every decision made by the management.
  • Fond (प्रेमी): Having an affection or liking for.
  • Example: She is very fond of children and enjoys spending time with them.

Question 20

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Bliss

  1. AOption (a)

    Consecration

  2. BOption (b)

    Pleasure

  3. COption (c)

    Avail

  4. DOption (d)

    Genesis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pleasure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "Bliss" means a state of extreme happiness or joy. (परमानंद)
  • Example: She felt pure bliss when she held her newborn baby for the first time.
  • "Pleasure" refers to a feeling of happy satisfaction and enjoyment. (सुख)
  • Example: He took great pleasure in listening to classical music.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Bliss' is 'Pleasure'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Option 2.'

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Consecration (अभिषेक): The action of making or declaring something sacred.
  • Example: The consecration of the new church took place last Sunday.
  • Avail (लाभ): Use or take advantage of an opportunity or available resource.
  • Example: He tried to fix the problem, but to no avail.
  • Genesis (उत्पत्ति): The origin or mode of formation of something.
  • Example: The genesis of the idea can be traced back to his early childhood.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The sun was shining bright and intense in the sky.

  1. AOption (a)

    Weak

  2. BOption (b)

    Subtle

  3. COption (c)

    Mild

  4. DOption (d)

    Strong

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Strong

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "intense" means something that is very strong, extreme, or having a high degree of strength or force. (तीव्र)
  • Example: The intense heat of the desert made it difficult to travel during the day.
  • "Strong" refers to having great physical power or force; it can also mean something that is intense or powerful. (मजबूत)
  • Example: The strong winds caused the trees to sway violently.

Hence, we can infer that the synonym of "intense" is "strong".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Weak (कमजोर): Lacking physical strength or power.
  • Example: The weak bridge could not withstand the heavy load.
  • Subtle (सूक्ष्म): So delicate or precise as to be difficult to analyze or describe.
  • Example: There was a subtle change in her expression that only a few noticed.
  • Mild (हल्का): Not severe or strong; gentle.
  • Example: The weather was mild and pleasant, perfect for a walk in the park.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

She finished her quickly breakfast and rushed to school.

  1. AOption (a)

    her breakfast finished quickly

  2. BOption (b)

    quickly her breakfast finished 

  3. COption (c)

    finished her breakfast quickly

  4. DOption (d)

    finished breakfast hers quickly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

finished her breakfast quickly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • "Finished her breakfast quickly" accurately and grammatically places the adverb "quickly" to describe the manner in which she finished her breakfast.
  • This option ensures that the subject "She" and the verb "finished" are correctly aligned, maintaining clear subject-verb agreement.
  • It logically orders the sentence, making it easy to understand that she finished eating her breakfast in a quick manner.
  • The structure adheres to standard English.
  • syntax: subject + verb + object + adverb.
  • Placing "quickly" after "breakfast" avoids misplaced modifiers and ensures that "quickly" modifies how she finished her breakfast.
  • This construction provides a natural, fluent reading experience, enhancing readability.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

  • "Her breakfast finished quickly" incorrectly suggests that the breakfast itself is performing the action of finishing.
  • "Quickly her breakfast finished" is awkward and does not follow standard English syntax; it also implies the breakfast is finishing itself.
  • "Finished breakfast hers quickly" is ungrammatical and incorrectly orders the possessive pronoun and breakfast.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Attire

  1. AOption (a)

    Hotel

  2. BOption (b)

    Theatre

  3. COption (c)

    Park

  4. DOption (d)

    Dress 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dress 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "Attire" refers to the clothes, especially fine or formal ones, that someone is wearing. (पोशाक)
  • Example: His attire for the wedding included a tailored suit and a bow tie.
  • "Dress" is a synonym for attire, meaning clothing or garments. (कपड़े)
  • Example: She wore a beautiful dress to the party.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dress.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Hotel (होटल): A place that provides lodging, meals, and other services for travelers and tourists.
  • Example: We stayed at a luxurious hotel during our vacation.
  • Theatre (थियेटर): A building or outdoor area where plays, films, or other performances are presented.
  • Example: We went to the theatre to watch a new play.
  • Park (पार्क): A large public green area in a town, used for recreation.
  • Example: Children love to play in the park.

Question 24

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The dog was agitated and bit the child.

  1. AOption (a)

    steady

  2. BOption (b)

    quiescent 

  3. COption (c)

    nerveless

  4. DOption (d)

    serene

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

serene

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "agitated" means feeling or appearing troubled or nervous. (चिंतित या व्याकुल)
  • Example: The speaker was visibly agitated during the heated debate.
  • "Serene" refers to being calm, peaceful, and untroubled. (शांत)
  • Example: The serene landscape helped her relax and forget her worries.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'agitated' is 'serene'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Steady (स्थिर): Firmly fixed, supported, or balanced; not shaking or moving.
  • Example: He kept a steady hand while drawing the intricate design.
  • Quiescent (शांत): In a state or period of inactivity or dormancy.
  • Example: The volcano has been quiescent for years.
  • Nerveless (निर्भीक): Lacking in nervousness or anxiety; calm.
  • Example: The nerveless player took the game-winning shot with ease.

Question 25

Select the option that can substitute the bracketed word segment meaningfully.

Writing can instil a number of emotions (as in a reader).

  1. AOption (a)

    within a reader 

  2. BOption (b)

    instead a reader

  3. COption (c)

    until a reader

  4. DOption (d)

    among a reader

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

within a reader 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "within" means inside or enclosed in something; it denotes being in the interior of something. (के भीतर)
  • Example: She felt a sense of peace within her heart.
  • "Within a reader" refers to the internal emotional or mental state of a reader, suggesting that writing can evoke emotions inside a reader. (पाठक के भीतर)
  • Example: The story stirred deep emotions within a reader, making them reflect on their own life experiences.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Option 1.'

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Instead a reader (इसके बजाय एक पाठक): This phrase is grammatically incorrect and does not convey any meaningful sense.
  • Example: Incorrect usage: Writing can instil a number of emotions instead a reader.
  • Until a reader (जब तक एक पाठक): This phrase suggests a condition or a point in time, which is not applicable in the context of the sentence.
  • Example: Incorrect usage: Writing can instil a number of emotions until a reader.
  • Among a reader (एक पाठक के बीच): This phrase is incorrect as "among" is used for more than one person or thing.
  • Example: Incorrect usage: Writing can instil a number of emotions among a reader.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(180, 45, 90)

(128, 32, 64)

  1. AOption (a)

    (224, 56, 112)

  2. BOption (b)

    (170, 43, 85) 

  3. COption (c)

    (186, 46, 93)

  4. DOption (d)

    (248, 60, 124) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(224, 56, 112)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 3rd number) ÷ 6 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, (180, 45, 90)

⇒ (180 + 90) ÷ 6

= 270 ÷ 6 = 45.

For, (128, 32, 64)

⇒ (128 + 64) ÷ 6

= 192 ÷ 6 = 32.

Similarly, For (224, 56, 112)

⇒ (224 + 112) ÷ 6

= 336 ÷ 6 = 56.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 27

What should come in place of the question mark (?) to complete the following lettercluster series?

UME, OPG, ISJ, EVN, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    AYS

  2. BOption (b)

    AXS

  3. COption (c)

    AYR

  4. DOption (d)

    BYS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

AYS

Why this answer is correct

Logic: 

First letter → Alternately (6) and (5) are subtracted from the position values according to the English alphabetic series.

Second letter → (3) is added to the position values according to the English alphabetic series.

Third letter → Increasing number series is added to the position values according to the English alphabetic series.

​​So,

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 28

In a certain code language, 'get enough sleep' is coded as 'ab de jf' and 'go get it' is coded as 'jk ab gh'. How is 'get' coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    jf

  2. BOption (b)

    jk

  3. COption (c)

    de

  4. DOption (d)

    ab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ab

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes 'ab' is the code for the word 'get'.

Hence, the correct answer is "ab".

Question 29

Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : Elements shift in the clockwise direction subsequently.

Thus, the final series is :

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 30

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    17

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17

Why this answer is correct

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

Here, as marked there are a total of 17 triangles.

Hence, "17" is the correct answer.

Question 31

[1741]\left[\frac{17}{41}\right]  is related to [3441]\left[\frac{34}{41}\right] following a certain logic. Following the same logic, [1185]\left[\frac{11}{85}\right] is related to [2285]\left[\frac{22}{85}\right]. To which of the following is [1377]\left[\frac{13}{77}\right] related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    [2475]\left[\frac{24}{75}\right]

  2. BOption (b)

    [2377]\left[\frac{23}{77}\right]

  3. COption (c)

    [2977]\left[\frac{29}{77}\right]

  4. DOption (d)

    [2677]\left[\frac{26}{77}\right]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

[2677]\left[\frac{26}{77}\right]

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: (1st number × 2) = 2nd number

So,

[1741]\left[\frac{17}{41}\right] is related to [3441]\left[\frac{34}{41}\right]

→[1741]\left[\frac{17}{41}\right] × 2 = [3441]\left[\frac{34}{41}\right]

→[3441]\left[\frac{34}{41}\right] = [3441]\left[\frac{34}{41}\right] (LHS = RHS)

And,

[1185]\left[\frac{11}{85}\right] is related to [2285]\left[\frac{22}{85}\right]

→[1185]\left[\frac{11}{85}\right] × 2 = [2285]\left[\frac{22}{85}\right]

→[2285]\left[\frac{22}{85}\right] = [2285]\left[\frac{22}{85}\right]

Similarly,

[1377]\left[\frac{13}{77}\right] is related to :

→[1377]\left[\frac{13}{77}\right] × 2 = [2677]\left[\frac{26}{77}\right]

→[2677]\left[\frac{26}{77}\right] = [2677]\left[\frac{26}{77}\right]

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 32

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 13 39 46 138 146 438 447 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1341

  2. BOption (b)

    1138

  3. COption (c)

    1146

  4. DOption (d)

    1247

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1341

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Alternately increasing number series and (3) are added and multiplied respectively.

Hence, "1341" is the correct answer.

Question 33

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

216 × 9 + 52 - 7 ÷ 7 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    19

  3. COption (c)

    22

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21

Why this answer is correct

Given : 216 × 9 + 52 - 7 ÷ 7 = ? 

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

216 ÷ 9 - 52 + 7 × 7 = ?

24 - 52 + 7 × 7 = ?

24 + 49 - 52 = ?

73 - 52 = ?

21 = ?

Hence, "21" is the correct answer.

Question 34

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

58, 73, 90, 109, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    310

  2. BOption (b)

    103

  3. COption (c)

    130

  4. DOption (d)

    301

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

130

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Odd number series is added subsequently.

Hence, "130" is the correct answer.

Question 35

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 36

If 25 October 2004 was Monday, then what was the day of the week on 2 November 2007?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friday

  2. BOption (b)

    Thursday

  3. COption (c)

    Wednesday

  4. DOption (d)

    Saturday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Friday

Why this answer is correct

Given: 25 October 2004 was Monday.

Now,

2004 to 2007 = 3 Years (3 Ordinary Years).

And, 3 Ordinary Years have 3 odd days.

then, 25 October 2007 will be Monday + 3 = Thursday.

Now, the number of days between 25 October 2007 to 2 November 2007

= 6 days (October) + 2 days (November) = 8 days.

= 8 days → 8/7 = 1 week and 1 odd days.

So, 2 November 2007 will be Thursday + 1 = Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 37

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '×' are interchanged and '-' and '÷' are interchanged?

98 - 14 × 11 + 6 ÷ 23 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    55

  3. COption (c)

    50

  4. DOption (d)

    56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

50

Why this answer is correct

Given : 98 - 14 × 11 + 6 ÷ 23 = ? 

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged 

‘-’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

98 ÷ 14 + 11 × 6 - 23 = ?

7 + 11 × 6 - 23 = ?

7 + 66 - 23 = ?

73 - 23 = ?

50 = ?

Hence, "50" is the correct answer.

Question 38

Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option Figure - 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 39

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

[375],[325],[275],[225],[175],?\left[\frac{37}{5}\right], \left[\frac{32}{5}\right], \left[\frac{27}{5}\right],\left[\frac{22}{5}\right], \left[\frac{17}{5}\right] , ?

  1. AOption (a)

    [165]\left[\frac{16}{5}\right]

  2. BOption (b)

    [125]\left[\frac{12}{5}\right]

  3. COption (c)

    [95]\left[\frac{9}{5}\right]

  4. DOption (d)

    [145]\left[\frac{14}{5}\right]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

[125]\left[\frac{12}{5}\right]

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (1) subtracted from each number subsequently.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 40

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 41

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 42

In a certain code language

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’

A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’

A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’

A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’

Based on the above, how is G related to K if ‘G + J ÷ H × I − K’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brother’s wife’s sister

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother’s wife’s father’s mother

  3. COption (c)

    Brother’s wife’s father’s sister 

  4. DOption (d)

    Brother’s wife’s mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Brother’s wife’s father’s mother

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the Symbols:

Symbol+–×÷
MeaningMotherBrotherWifeFather

Given: G + J ÷ H × I − K 

G + J → G is the mother of J.

J ÷ H  → J is the father of H.

H × I → H is the wife of I.

​

I − K → I is the brother of K.

Here, G is the brother’s wife’s father’s mother of K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 43

'STEM' is related to 'HGVN' in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way. QUIT' is related to 'JFRG'. To which of the following is 'ACCOUNTABLE' related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    ZXXFLMGZYOV

  2. BOption (b)

    ZXXLFMGZYOU

  3. COption (c)

    ZXXLFMZGYOV

  4. DOption (d)

    ZXXLFMGZYOV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ZXXLFMGZYOV

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Opposite letter according to the English alphabetic series is written.

​​So,

'STEM' is related to 'HGVN'

​ 

​And,

'QUIT' is related to 'JFRG'

​ 

​Similarly,

'ACCOUNTABLE' is related to

​ 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 44

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Trim : Hair

  1. AOption (a)

    Prune : Hedge

  2. BOption (b)

    Harvest : Corn

  3. COption (c)

    Clip : Clothes

  4. DOption (d)

    Pluck : Flower

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Prune : Hedge

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Actions performed on objects to maintain or improve them.

Here,

Trim : Hair → Trim is an action performed on Hair to maintain or improve it.

Similarly,

Prune : Hedge → Prune is an action performed on Hedge to maintain or improve it.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 45

Three statements are followed by conclusions numbered I, II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statements:

All dresses are clouds.

Some clouds are tables.

Some tables are stones.

Conclusion (I): All stones are dresses.

Conclusion (II): Some dresses are tables.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (I) follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion (II) follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All stones are dresses → Does not follow (As all dresses are clouds, some clouds are tables and some tables are stones. So it is possible but not definite.)

II. Some dresses are tables → Does not follow (As all dresses are clouds and some clouds are tables. So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows"

Question 46

Based on the alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    ILO

  2. BOption (b)

    DGK

  3. COption (c)

    JMQ

  4. DOption (d)

    NQU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ILO

Why this answer is correct

Logic: ​

Option (1): ILO

Option (2): DGK

Option (3): JMQ

Option (4): NQU

Thus, out of all the options "ILO" is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 47

If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘–’, then the resultant of which of the following will be 428?

  1. AOption (a)

    113 B 4 A 62 D 2 C 7

  2. BOption (b)

    113 A 4 D 62 B 2 C 7

  3. COption (c)

    113 B 4 C 62 A 2 D 7 

  4. DOption (d)

    113 B 4 D 62 A 2 C 7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

113 B 4 D 62 A 2 C 7

Why this answer is correct

LetterABCD
Stands for÷×+-

Required resultant: 428

After changing the letters, the equations we get: 

Option - (1): 113 B 4 A 62 D 2 C 7

⇒113 × 4 ÷ 62 - 2 + 7

⇒113 × 0.06 - 2 + 7

⇒6.78 + 7 - 2

⇒13.78 - 2 = 11.78

Option - (2): 113 A 4 D 62 B 2 C 7

⇒113 ÷ 4 - 62 × 2 + 7

⇒28.25 - 62 × 2 + 7

⇒28.25 + 7 - 124

⇒35.25 - 124 = -88.75

Option - (3): 113 B 4 C 62 A 2 D 7 

⇒113 × 4 + 62 ÷ 2 - 7 

⇒113 × 4 + 31 - 7

⇒452 + 31 - 7

⇒483 - 7 = 476

Option - (4): 113 B 4 D 62 A 2 C 7

⇒113 × 4 - 62 ÷ 2 + 7 

⇒113 × 4 - 31 + 7

⇒452 + 7 - 31

⇒459 - 31 = 428

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 48

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ACW, FHB, KMG, PRL,?

  1. AOption (a)

    VQW

  2. BOption (b)

    UWQ

  3. COption (c)

    UQW

  4. DOption (d)

    VWQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

UWQ

Why this answer is correct

Logic: (5) is subtracted from the position values according to the English alphabetic series.

​​So,

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 49

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 50

If 29 July 2001 is Sunday, then what will be the day of the week on 20 February 2015?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tuesday

  2. BOption (b)

    Friday

  3. COption (c)

    Sunday

  4. DOption (d)

    Monday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Friday

Why this answer is correct

Given: 29 July 2001 was Sunday.

Now,

2001 to 2015 = 14 Years (11 Ordinary Years and 3 Leap Years).

So, 3 Leap Years have 6 odd days,

And, 11 Ordinary Years have 11 odd days.

Total odd days = 6 + 11 = 17.

18 odd days → 17/7 = 2 weeks and 3 odd days.

then, 29 July 2015 will be Sunday + 3 = Wednesday.

Now, the number of days between 20 February 2015 to 29 July 2015.

= 8 (Feb) + 31 (March) + 30 (Apr) + 31 (May) + 30 (June) + 29 (July) = 159 days.

= 159 days → 159/7 = 22 weeks and 5 odd day.

So, 20 February 2015 will be Wednesday - 5 = Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

Consider AD is a tangent to a circle of radius 6 cm. AC is a secant meeting the circle at B and CD is a diameter. If AB is 7 cm, then the value of AC (in cm) is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of the circle (r) = 6 cm

AB = 7 cm

CD = 2 × 6 = 12 cm

Formula used:

AD2 = AC × AB

AC2 - CD2 = AD2

Calculations:

Substituting the values in the Tangent-Secant Theorem:

AC2 - 122 = AC × 7

⇒ AC2 - 144 = 7AC

⇒ AC2 - 7AC - 144 = 0

This is a quadratic equation, solving using the quadratic formula:

⇒ AC2 - 16AC + 9AC - 144 = 0

⇒ AC(AC - 16) + 9(AC - 16) = 0

⇒ (AC - 16)(AC + 9) = 0

⇒ AC = 16 or AC = -9

⇒ AC = 16 cm (since length cannot be negative)

∴ The value of AC is 16 cm.

Question 52

PQ is the diameter of a circle with centre O. PT is a tangent touching the circle at P. The secant QT intersects the circle at S. O and S are joined. If ∠SOP = 104°, what is the measure (in degrees) of ∠PTQ?

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    62

  4. DOption (d)

    76

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

38

Why this answer is correct

Given:

PQ is the diameter of a circle with centre O. PT is a tangent touching the circle at P. The secant QT intersects the circle at S. O and S are joined. If ∠SOP = 104º, what is the measure (in degrees) of ∠PTQ?

Calculation:

∠OQS = ∠OSQ  Since, (OS = OQ (radius)

But ∠SOP = ∠OQS + ∠OSQ (Exterior angle theorem)

104° = 2 ∠OQS

∠OQS = 52°

In Tringle QPT

∠PTQ = 180° - ∠OQS - ∠QPT

∠PTQ = 180°- 52° - 90°

∠PTQ = 38°

Therefore, ∠PTQ = 38°

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 53

30 men working 5 hours a day can do work in 18 days. In how many days will 20 men working 7 hours a day do the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    192719\frac{2}{7}

  2. BOption (b)

    165716\frac{5}{7}

  3. COption (c)

    131713\frac{1}{7}

  4. DOption (d)

    113711\frac{3}{7}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

192719\frac{2}{7}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

30 men working 5 hours a day can do work in 18 days.

Formula used:

Work = Men × Hours/Day × Days

Calculation:

Work done by 30 men in 18 days working 5 hours/day:

Work = 30 × 5 × 18

Work = 2700 man-hours

Let x be the number of days required for 20 men working 7 hours/day to complete the same work.

Work = 20 × 7 × x

Since the amount of work is the same:

2700 = 20 × 7 × x

⇒ 2700 = 140x

⇒ x = 2700 / 140

⇒ x = 192/7

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 54

The average salary of a group of 12 employees in an institution is ₹3,950 per month and that of another group of employees is ₹1,850. If the average salary of all employees is ₹2,150, then the total number of employees is:

  1. AOption (a)

    88

  2. BOption (b)

    84

  3. COption (c)

    100

  4. DOption (d)

    72

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

84

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Using the Alligation Method on the average salaries:

Ratio of employees (Group 1 : Group 2) = (2150 − 1850) : (3950 − 2150) = 300 : 1800 = 1 : 6.

The number of employees in Group 1 is 12, which represents 1 ratio unit.

So, the number of employees in Group 2 = 6 × 12 = 72.

Total number of employees = 12 + 72 = 84.

∴ The correct answer is 84 employees.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of employees in Group 1 = 12

Average salary of Group 1 = ₹3,950

Average salary of Group 2 = ₹1,850

Overall average salary = ₹2,150

Let the number of employees in Group 2 be x.

Formula Used:

Total Salary = Average Salary × Number of Employees

Combined Average = (Total Salary of Group 1 + Total Salary of Group 2) ÷ Total Employees

Calculations:

⇒ Total salary of Group 1 = 12 × 3950 = ₹47,400

⇒ Total salary of Group 2 = x × 1850 = ₹1850x

⇒ Combined Average = (47400 + 1850x) ÷ (12 + x)

⇒ 2150 = (47400 + 1850x) ÷ (12 + x)

⇒ 2150 × (12 + x) = 47400 + 1850x

⇒ 25800 + 2150x = 47400 + 1850x

⇒ 2150x − 1850x = 47400 − 25800

⇒ 300x = 21600

⇒ x = 21600 ÷ 300 = 72

⇒ Total number of employees = 12 + 72 = 84

∴ The correct answer is 84 employees.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Method

When two groups with averages A1 and A2 and sizes N1 and N2 are combined, the overall average is given by: A = (N1A1 + N2A2) ÷ (N1 + N2).

Rule of Alligation

A visual cross-multiplication technique used to find the ratio in which two quantities or groups with known averages are mixed to get a desired overall average. Ratio = (Difference of Cheaper Group) : (Difference of Dearer Group).

Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of individual group averages from the overall combined average, weighted by their respective group sizes, is always zero: N1(A1 − A) + N2(A2 − A) = 0.

Question 55

If a sum of ₹3,260 on simple interest amounts to ₹5,420 in 6 years, then what will this sum amount to in 4 years at the same rate of interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹3,900

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹3,700

  3. COption (c)

    ₹4,700

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹4,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹4,700

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,260

Amount (A) = ₹5,420

Time (t) = 6 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = P × r × t / 100

Amount (A) = P + SI

Calculation:

5420 = 3260 + (3260 × r × 6 / 100)

⇒ 5420 - 3260 = 3260 × r × 6 / 100

⇒ 2160 = 3260 × r × 6 / 100

⇒ 2160 × 100 = 3260 × r × 6

⇒ 216000 = 19560 × r

⇒ r = 216000 / 19560

⇒ r = 11.04%

To find the amount in 4 years:

SI for 4 years = 3260 × 11.04 × 4 / 100

⇒ SI = 1440.77

Amount = P + SI

⇒ Amount = 3260 + 1440.77

⇒ Amount = 4700 (Approx)

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 56

△XYZ is similar to △PQR. If the ratio of the perimeter of △XYZ to the perimeter of △PQR is 16 : 9 and PQ = 3.6 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of XY?

  1. AOption (a)

    3453\frac{4}{5}

  2. BOption (b)

    4354\frac{3}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    2352\frac{3}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    6256\frac{2}{5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6256\frac{2}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

△XYZ is similar to △PQR

Ratio of the perimeter of △XYZ to the perimeter of △PQR = 16 : 9

PQ = 3.6 cm

Formula used:

Since the triangles are similar, the ratio of their corresponding sides is equal to the ratio of their perimeters.

Calculations:

Let the length of XY be x cm.

Ratio of perimeters = Ratio of corresponding sides

⇒ XYPQ=169\dfrac{XY}{PQ} = \dfrac{16}{9}

⇒ x3.6=169\dfrac{x}{3.6} = \dfrac{16}{9}

⇒ x = 3.6 × 169\dfrac{16}{9}

⇒ x = 6256\frac{2}{5}

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 57

The following table shows the number of employees working in four organisations during six years. Answer the questions that follow.

OrganizationYear
201020112012201320142015
X528262346876
Y1058012016095100
Z1038688212180129
T15322112812697106
<br>

What is the average number of employees in organisations Y, Z and T in 2013?

  1. AOption (a)

    172

  2. BOption (b)

    166

  3. COption (c)

    170

  4. DOption (d)

    168

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

166

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of employees in organization Y (2013) = 160

Number of employees in organization Z (2013) = 212

Number of employees in organization T (2013) = 126

Formula used:

Average = (Y + Z + T) ÷ 3

Calculation:

⇒ Average = (160 + 212 + 126) ÷ 3

⇒ Average = 498 ÷ 3

⇒ Average = 166

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 58

A shopkeeper allows a discount of 22% to his customers and still gains 36%. Find the marked price (in ₹) of an article which costs ₹1,092 to the shopkeeper.

  1. AOption (a)

    1,904

  2. BOption (b)

    1,792

  3. COption (c)

    1,872

  4. DOption (d)

    2,024

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1,904

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹1,092

Discount = 22%

Gain = 36%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + Gain%)

Marked Price (MP) = SP / (1 - Discount%)

Calculations:

SP = 1092 × (1 + 36/100)

⇒ SP = 1092 × 1.36

⇒ SP = 1485.12

MP = 1485.12 / (1 - 22/100)

⇒ MP = 1485.12 / 0.78

⇒ MP = 1904

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 59

The age of a tree depends on the number of rings in the trunk. The value of a such tree is proportional to its age. If a tree with 40 rings and 50 years of age has a value of Rs.50,000, then a tree with 30 rings is ________ years of age and its value is Rs. ________

  1. AOption (a)

    37.5, 37500

  2. BOption (b)

    57.5, 57500

  3. COption (c)

    57.5, 37500

  4. DOption (d)

    37.5, 57500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

37.5, 37500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The age of a tree depends on the number of rings in the trunk. The value of such a tree is proportional to its age.

A tree with 40 rings and 50 years of age has a value of Rs.50,000.

Formula used:

Age of tree = Number of rings

Value of tree = Proportional to age

Calculations:

Tree with 40 rings has an age of 50 years.

⇒ Age per ring = 50 years / 40 rings = 1.25 years per ring

Tree with 30 rings:

⇒ Age = 30 rings × 1.25 years per ring = 37.5 years

Value of tree:

⇒ Value per year = Rs.50,000 / 50 years = Rs.1,000 per year

⇒ Value of tree with 37.5 years of age = 37.5 years × Rs.1,000 per year = Rs.37,500

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 60

How many cubes of edge 15 cm can be put in a cubical box of 3 m edge?

  1. AOption (a)

    9000

  2. BOption (b)

    8000

  3. COption (c)

    1050

  4. DOption (d)

    2000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Edge of small cube = 15 cm

Edge of cubical box = 3 m = 300 cm

Formula used:

Number of small cubes = (Volume of cubical box) / (Volume of one small cube)

Volume of cube = edge3

Calculation:

Volume of cubical box = 3003 cm3

Volume of one small cube = 153 cm3

⇒ Number of small cubes = 3003 / 153

⇒ Number of small cubes = (300 / 15)3

⇒ Number of small cubes = 203

⇒ Number of small cubes = 8000

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 61

The pie chart below depicts the percentage distribution of the costs associated with publishing a book.

<br>

What will be the royalty rate for these books if the publisher is required to pay Rs. 30,600 in printing costs for a specific number of volumes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 22,950

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 19,450

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 21,200

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 26,150

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 22,950

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Printing cost percentage = 20%

Printing cost (P) = ₹30,600

Royalty percentage = 15%

Formula used:

Royalty = (Royalty % / Printing % ) × Printing cost

Calculation:

⇒ Royalty = (15 ÷ 20) × 30,600

⇒ Royalty = 0.75 × 30,600

⇒ Royalty = ₹22,950

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 62

A closed cylindrical tank of radius 1.5 m and height 3 m is made from a sheet of metal, how much sheet of metal is required to do it?

  1. AOption (a)

    42.42 square metre

  2. BOption (b)

    42.24 square metre

  3. COption (c)

    24.24 square metre

  4. DOption (d)

    24.42 square metre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

42.42 square metre

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius (r) = 1.5 m

Height (h) = 3 m

Formula used:

Surface area of a closed cylindrical tank = 2πrh + 2πr2

Calculation:

Surface area = 2π × 1.5 × 3 + 2π × (1.5)2

⇒ Surface area = 2π × 4.5 + 2π × 2.25

⇒ Surface area = 9π + 4.5π

⇒ Surface area = 13.5π

⇒ Surface area = 13.5 × 22/7

⇒ Surface area = 42.42 square metre

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 63

If the intersection point of the equations 3p − 2q + 23 = 0 and −2p + q − 13 = 0 on the graph is (p, q), then the value of (3p + q) is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    -2

  4. DOption (d)

    -1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

-2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The equations are:

3p - 2q + 23 = 0

-2p + q - 13 = 0

Formula used:

Substitution method to find the values of p and q.

Calculation:

From the second equation:

-2p + q - 13 = 0

⇒ q = 2p + 13

Substitute q in the first equation:

3p - 2(2p + 13) + 23 = 0

⇒ 3p - 4p - 26 + 23 = 0

⇒ -p - 3 = 0

⇒ p = -3

Substitute p in q = 2p + 13:

q = 2(-3) + 13

⇒ q = -6 + 13

⇒ q = 7

Now, we need to find the value of (3p + q):

3p + q = 3(-3) + 7

⇒ 3p + q = -9 + 7

⇒ 3p + q = -2

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 64

Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.

<br>

How many students obtained more than 135 marks?

  1. AOption (a)

    13

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

18

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Marks greater than 135 are 140, 145, 150, and 160

No. of students who obtained 140 marks = 8

No. of students who obtained 145 marks = 5

No. of students who obtained 150 marks = 4

No. of students who obtained 160 marks = 1

Formula used:

Total students = Sum of students who obtained more than 135 marks

Calculation:

⇒ Total students = 8 + 5 + 4 + 1

⇒ Total students = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18 students.

Question 65

A number is first decreased by 18% and the resulting number is then increased by 25%. What is the overall percentage change in the original number?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increase by 3.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    Decrease by 3.5%

  3. COption (c)

    Decrease by 2.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase by 2.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Increase by 2.5%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A number is first decreased by 18% and the resulting number is then increased by 25%.

Formula used:

Overall Percentage Change = (Final Value - Initial Value) / Initial Value × 100

Calculation:

Let the original number be 100.

After 18% decrease:

⇒ 100 - 18 = 82

After 25% increase on 82:

⇒ 82 + (25% of 82)

⇒ 82 + 20.5 = 102.5

Overall Percentage Change:

⇒ (102.5 - 100) / 100 × 100

⇒ 2.5%

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 66

Simply the following expression. 

469÷[270÷(37×35)+(19×3)−(212−52)]469\div \left[270\div \left(\frac{3}{7}\times 35\right)+(19\times 3)-\left(\frac{21}{2}-\frac{5}{2}\right)\right]

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given:

469÷[270÷(37×35)+(19×3)−(212−52)]469\div \left[270\div \left(\frac{3}{7}\times 35\right)+(19\times 3)-\left(\frac{21}{2}-\frac{5}{2}\right)\right]

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Order, Division and Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction)

Calculation:

⇒ 469÷[270÷(37×35)+(19×3)−(212−52)]469\div \left[270\div \left(\frac{3}{7}\times 35\right)+(19\times 3)-\left(\frac{21}{2}-\frac{5}{2}\right)\right]

⇒ 469 ÷ [ 270 ÷ 15 + 57 − (10.5 − 2.5) ]

⇒ 469 ÷ [ 270 ÷ 15 + 57 − 8 ]

⇒ 469 ÷ [ 18 + 57 − 8 ]

⇒ 469 ÷ [ 67 ]

⇒ 469 ÷ 67 = 7

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 67

Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 1 : 125. Find the ratio of their surface areas

  1. AOption (a)

    1 : 5

  2. BOption (b)

    25 : 1

  3. COption (c)

    1 : 25

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 125

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 : 25

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 1 : 125.

Formula used:

If the volume ratio of two cubes is a3 : b3, then the surface area ratio is a2 : b2.

Calculation:

Volume ratio = 1 : 125

⇒ Side ratio = 1 : 5 (since cube root of 125 is 5)

Surface area ratio = (Side ratio)2

⇒ Surface area ratio = 12 : 52

⇒ Surface area ratio = 1 : 25

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 68

Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows. The bar-graph represents the number of boys and girls in different sections of class 12.

The average number of girls in each section is:

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    43

  3. COption (c)

    37

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of girls in each section:

Class XII A: 34 girls

Class XII B: 41 girls

Class XII C: 40 girls

Class XII D: 39 girls

Class XII E: 45 girls

Class XII F: 41 girls

Formula used:

Average number of girls = Total number of girls ÷ Number of sections

Calculation:

⇒ Average = (34 + 41 + 40 + 39 + 45 + 41) ÷ 6

⇒ Average = 240 ÷ 6

⇒ Average = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40 girls.

Question 69

The total income of three families is ₹72,000. Their expenditures are 80%, 85% and 75%, respectively. If the savings are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 20, then the income of the second family is:

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹32,000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹40,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹16,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹24,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹24,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The total income of three families is ₹72,000. Their expenditures are 80%, 85%, and 75%, respectively. The savings are in the ratio 8:9:20.

Formula used:

Income = Expenditure + Savings

Calculation:

Let the incomes of the three families be I1, I2, and I3.

Given: I1 + I2 + I3 = 72000

Expenditures: 0.8I1, 0.85I2, 0.75I3

Savings: 0.2I1, 0.15I2, 0.25I3

Given savings ratio: 8:9:20

Let savings be 8k, 9k, and 20k, respectively.

⇒ 0.2I1 = 8k

⇒ 0.15I2 = 9k

⇒ 0.25I3 = 20k

⇒ I1 = 40k

⇒ I2 = 60k

⇒ I3 = 80k

Total income: I1 + I2 + I3 = 72000

⇒ 40k + 60k + 80k = 72000

⇒ 180k = 72000

⇒ k = 400

⇒ I2 = 60k = 60 × 400 = 24000

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Question 70

A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 850 grams per 1 kg weight. Find the percentage of his gain. (Correct up to two decimal places)

  1. AOption (a)

    17.65%

  2. BOption (b)

    17.45%

  3. COption (c)

    17.56%

  4. DOption (d)

    17.54%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

17.65%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 850 grams per 1 kg weight.

Formula used:

Percentage gain = (True Weight−False WeightFalse Weight)×\left(\dfrac{\text{True Weight} - \text{False Weight}}{\text{False Weight}}\right) × 100

Calculation:

True Weight = 1000 grams

False Weight = 850 grams

⇒ Percentage gain = (1000−850850)×\left(\dfrac{1000 - 850}{850}\right) × 100

⇒ Percentage gain = (150850)×\left(\dfrac{150}{850}\right) × 100

⇒ Percentage gain = 0.1765 × 100

⇒ Percentage gain = 17.65%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 71

A part of the journey is covered in 22.5 minutes at a speed of 68 km/h and the remaining part in 12 minutes at a speed of 72 km/h. The total distance of the journey is (to the nearest integer):

  1. AOption (a)

    35 km

  2. BOption (b)

    42 km

  3. COption (c)

    38 km

  4. DOption (d)

    40 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A part of the journey is covered in 22.5 minutes at a speed of 68 km/h and the remaining part in 12 minutes at a speed of 72 km/h.

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

First part of journey:

Time = 22.5 minutes = 22.5/60 hours

Speed = 68 km/h

⇒ Distance1 = Speed × Time

⇒ Distance1 = 68 × (22.5/60)

⇒ Distance1 = 68 × 0.375

⇒ Distance1 = 25.5 km

Second part of journey:

Time = 12 minutes = 12/60 hours

Speed = 72 km/h

⇒ Distance2 = Speed × Time

⇒ Distance2 = 72 × (12/60)

⇒ Distance2 = 72 × 0.2

⇒ Distance2 = 14.4 km

Total Distance:

⇒ Total Distance = Distance1 + Distance2

⇒ Total Distance = 25.5 + 14.4 = 39.9 km 

⇒ Total Distance = 40 km (Approx)

∴ The correct answer is option (4) 40 km.

Question 72

PQ and RS are two chords on the same side of a circle such that PQ = 12 cm and RS = 20 cm and PQ is parallel to RS. If the distance between PQ and RS is 4 cm, find the diameter of the circle.

  1. AOption (a)

    4344\sqrt{34} cm

  2. BOption (b)

    3343\sqrt{34} cm

  3. COption (c)

    2342\sqrt{34} cm

  4. DOption (d)

    6346\sqrt{34} cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4344\sqrt{34} cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

RS = 20 cm

PQ = 12 cm

Distance between the chord (AB) = 4 cm

Calculation:

AR = 20/2 = 10 cm

BP = 12/2 = 6 cm

In ΔORA,

OR2 = AR2 + OA2

⇒ OR2 = 102 + OA2

Now,

In ΔOPB,

OP2 = BP2 + (OA + 4)2

⇒ OP2 = 62 + (OA + 4)2

Since, OR and OP are the radius of the circle

So, OR = OP

Now,

OR2 = OP2

⇒ 102 + OA2 = 62 + (OA + 4)2

⇒ 100 + OA2 = 36 + OA2 + 16 + 8OA

⇒ 100 = 52 + 8OA

⇒ 8OA = 100 - 52 = 48

⇒ OA = 48/8 = 6 cm

Thus, Radius:

OR2 = 102 + OA2 = 102 + 62 = 100 + 36 = 136 cm

OR = √136 = 2√34 cm

Hence, diameter of the circle = 2OR = 4√34 cm.

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 73

If tan⁡θ=74\rm \tan \theta=\frac{7}{4}, then the value of 4sin⁡θ−3cos⁡θ4sin⁡θ+3cos⁡θ\rm \frac{4\sin \theta-3\cos \theta}{4\sin \theta+3\cos \theta} is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    25\frac{2}{5}

  2. BOption (b)

    35\frac{3}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    13\frac{1}{3}

  4. DOption (d)

    45\frac{4}{5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25\frac{2}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

tanθ = 7/4

Concept:

tanθ=sinθcosθ{\rm{tan\theta }} = \frac{{{\rm{sin\theta }}}}{{{\rm{cos\theta }}}}

Calculation:

4sinθ−3cosθ4sinθ+3cosθ;;;;;−−−−(1)\frac{{4{\rm{sin\theta }} - 3{\rm{cos\theta }}}}{{4{\rm{sin\theta }} + 3{\rm{cos\theta }}}};;;;; - - - - \left( 1 \right)

take cosθ common from equation (1)

⇒;4sinθcosθ−34sinθcosθ+3 \Rightarrow ;\frac{{\frac{{4{\rm{sin\theta }}}}{{{\rm{cos\theta }}}} - 3}}{{\frac{{4{\rm{sin\theta }}}}{{{\rm{cos\theta }}}} + 3}}

⇒4tanθ−34tanθ+3 \Rightarrow \frac{{4{\rm{tan\theta }} - 3}}{{4{\rm{tan\theta }} + 3}}

⇒ (4 × 7/4 - 3)/(4 × 7/4 + 3)

⇒ (7 - 3)/(7 + 3)

⇒ 4/10 = 2/5

∴The;value;of;4sinθ−3cosθ4sinθ+3cosθ;is;25.\therefore {\bf{The}};{\bf{value}};{\bf{of}};\frac{{4{\bf{sin\theta }} - 3{\bf{cos\theta }}}}{{4{\bf{sin\theta }} + 3{\bf{cos\theta }}}};{\bf{is}};\frac{{2}}{5}.

Question 74

If Ramu’s salary is 30% less than Somu’s salary, then by how much percent is Somu’s salary more than Ramu’s salary?

  1. AOption (a)

    45.47%

  2. BOption (b)

    34.56%

  3. COption (c)

    42.86%

  4. DOption (d)

    42.67%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

42.86%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ramu's salary is 30% less than Somu's salary.

Formula used:

Let Somu's salary be S and Ramu's salary be R.

R = S - 0.3S

Somu's salary more than Ramu's salary = S−RR×\dfrac{S - R}{R} \times 100

Calculation:

R = 0.7S

⇒ S−0.7S0.7S×\dfrac{S - 0.7S}{0.7S} \times 100

⇒ 0.3S0.7S×\dfrac{0.3S}{0.7S} \times 100

⇒ 0.30.7×\dfrac{0.3}{0.7} \times 100

⇒ 37×\dfrac{3}{7} \times 100

⇒ 42.86%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 75

What is the value of the following expression?

(24÷3 of 16)×(45÷98×35)÷(47÷314 of 314)\rm \left(24\div 3\ of\ \frac{1}{6}\right)\times \rm \left(\frac{4}{5}\div \frac{9}{8}\times \frac{3}{5}\right)\div \left(\frac{4}{7}\div \frac{3}{14} \ of \ \frac{3}{14}\right)

  1. AOption (a)

    579459\frac{579}{459}

  2. BOption (b)

    379179\frac{379}{179}

  3. COption (c)

    288175\frac{288}{175}

  4. DOption (d)

    363553\frac{363}{553}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

288175\frac{288}{175}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(24÷3 of 16)×(45÷98×35)÷(47÷314 of 314)\left(24 \div 3 \text{ of } \dfrac{1}{6}\right) \times \left(\dfrac{4}{5} \div \dfrac{9}{8} \times \dfrac{3}{5}\right) \div \left(\dfrac{4}{7} \div \dfrac{3}{14} \text{ of } \dfrac{3}{14}\right)

Formula used:

Use the BODMAS/BIDMAS rule (Bracket, Order, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction).

Calculation:

(24÷3 of 16)×(45÷98×35)÷(47÷314 of 314)\left(24 \div 3 \text{ of } \dfrac{1}{6}\right) \times \left(\dfrac{4}{5} \div \dfrac{9}{8} \times \dfrac{3}{5}\right) \div \left(\dfrac{4}{7} \div \dfrac{3}{14} \text{ of } \dfrac{3}{14}\right)

⇒ (24÷3×16)×(45÷98×35)÷(47÷(314×314))\left(24 \div 3 \times \dfrac{1}{6}\right) \times \left(\dfrac{4}{5} \div \dfrac{9}{8} \times \dfrac{3}{5}\right) \div \left(\dfrac{4}{7} \div \left(\dfrac{3}{14} \times \dfrac{3}{14}\right)\right)

⇒ (24÷3×16)×(45÷98×35)÷(47÷9196)\left(24 \div 3 \times \dfrac{1}{6}\right) \times \left(\dfrac{4}{5} \div \dfrac{9}{8} \times \dfrac{3}{5}\right) \div \left(\dfrac{4}{7} \div \dfrac{9}{196}\right)

⇒ (24÷12)×(45×89×35)÷(47×1969)\left(24 \div \dfrac{1}{2}\right) \times \left(\dfrac{4}{5} \times \dfrac{8}{9} \times \dfrac{3}{5}\right) \div \left(\dfrac{4}{7} \times \dfrac{196}{9}\right)

⇒ (48)×(4×8×35×9×5)÷(4×1967×9)\left(48\right) \times \left(\dfrac{4 \times 8 \times 3}{5 \times 9 \times 5}\right) \div \left(\dfrac{4 \times 196}{7 \times 9}\right)

⇒ 48×96225÷7846348 \times \dfrac{96}{225} \div \dfrac{784}{63}

⇒ 48×96225×6378448 \times \dfrac{96}{225} \times \dfrac{63}{784}

⇒ 48×96×63225×78448 \times \dfrac{96 \times 63}{225 \times 784}

⇒ 48×604817640048 \times \dfrac{6048}{176400}

⇒ 288175\dfrac{288}{175}

 

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Which of the following countries was the host of the ICC World Test Championship Cricket final played between India and New Zealand from 18-23 June 2021? 

  1. AOption (a)

    England

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    Australia

  4. DOption (d)

    South Africa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

England

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is England

Key Points

  • England was the host of the ICC World Test Championship Cricket final played between India and New Zealand from 18-23 June 2021.
  • The match was held at the Rose Bowl in Southampton, England.
  • The ICC World Test Championship is an international cricket competition run by the International Cricket Council (ICC).
  • The final match saw New Zealand emerge victorious, claiming the championship title.

Additional Information

  • The ICC World Test Championship was introduced to bring context and relevance to Test cricket, which is considered the longest and most traditional format of the game.
  • The championship aims to crown the best Test cricket team in the world over a two-year period.
  • Teams earn points based on their performance in Test matches played during the championship period.
  • The top two teams at the end of the period compete in the final to determine the winner.
  • The inaugural ICC World Test Championship began in 2019 and concluded with the final in 2021.

Question 77

Which of the following statements is/are correct

I– Maximum National Parks in India are located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.

II – Mudumalai National Park is located in Kerala.

III – The Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History is located in Tamil Nadu.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only I is correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and III are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and III are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and III are correct

Key Points

  • Maximum National Parks in India are located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History is located in Tamil Nadu.
  • Mudumalai National Park is actually located in Tamil Nadu, not Kerala.

Additional Information

  • Madhya Pradesh is known for its rich biodiversity and has the highest number of national parks in India, including Kanha, Bandhavgarh, and Pench National Parks.
  • The Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History is a premier institute for ornithology and natural history research in India, named after the renowned ornithologist Dr. Salim Ali.
  • Mudumalai National Park is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is located at the tri-junction of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka.

Question 78

If an object of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 10 metres, what will be the ratio of its potential energy and kinetic energy at the height of 5 metres (g = 10m/sec2 )

  1. AOption (a)

    1 : 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 1

  3. COption (c)

    4 : 1

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 : 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 : 1

Key Points

  • Potential Energy (PE) at a height of 10 meters is given by the formula: PE = m * g * h
  • For m = 2 kg, g = 10 m/s², and h = 10 m, PE = 2 * 10 * 10 = 200 Joules
  • Potential Energy at a height of 5 meters: PE = m * g * h = 2 * 10 * 5 = 100 Joules
  • Kinetic Energy (KE) at a height of 5 meters can be found using the conservation of energy principle: Total Energy at 10 meters = Total Energy at 5 meters
  • Total Energy = PE at 10 meters = 200 Joules
  • At 5 meters, Total Energy = PE (5 meters) + KE (5 meters) = 100 + KE
  • Therefore, KE at 5 meters = 200 - 100 = 100 Joules
  • The ratio of Potential Energy to Kinetic Energy at 5 meters is PE : KE = 100 : 100 = 1 : 1

Additional Information

  • Potential Energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position relative to a reference point.
  • Kinetic Energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.
  • The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.
  • In free fall, the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy remains constant if air resistance is neglected.

Question 79

Which keyboard key is used to jump the cursor to the next cell of the table in MS Word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Home

  2. BOption (b)

    Shift

  3. COption (c)

    Tab

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tab

Key Points

  • The Tab key is used to jump the cursor to the next cell of the table in MS Word.
  • Using the Tab key allows for quick navigation between cells without using a mouse.
  • It enhances efficiency when working with tables in documents.
  • Pressing Tab in the last cell of a table will create a new row.

Additional Information

  • In addition to moving to the next cell, the Tab key can also be used to indent text within a cell if the cell is not the last one in the row.
  • To move to the previous cell, the Shift + Tab key combination is used.
  • Other navigation keys like Arrow keys can also be used to move between cells, but they do not create new rows.

Question 80

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India as scheduled languages?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    23

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

22

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 22

Key Points

  • There are currently 22 languages included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  • The Eighth Schedule lists the official languages recognized by the Indian Constitution.
  • Initially, the Eighth Schedule included 14 languages, but subsequent amendments have added more languages to the list.
  • Languages in the Eighth Schedule include Hindi, Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil, Urdu, Gujarati, Malayalam, Kannada, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Maithili, and others.
  • The recognition of these languages aims to promote and preserve the linguistic diversity of India.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • Languages added to the Eighth Schedule are often included to recognize the cultural and linguistic significance of various regions and communities in India.

Question 81

In March 2023, Rashmi Shukla was appointed as the Director General of which organisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sashastra Seema Bal

  2. BOption (b)

    Border Security Force

  3. COption (c)

    Central Reserve Police Force

  4. DOption (d)

    Indo-Tibetan Border Police

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sashastra Seema Bal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sashastra Seema Bal

Key Points

  • Rashmi Shukla was appointed as the Director General of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) in March 2023.
  • The SSB is one of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) of India, under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
  • The primary objective of the SSB is to safeguard the security of borders of India and promote a sense of security among the people living in border areas.
  • Rashmi Shukla is a senior Indian Police Service (IPS) officer, known for her extensive experience and contributions to national security.

Additional Information

  • The Sashastra Seema Bal was originally set up in 1963, following the Sino-Indian War, and was initially known as the Special Service Bureau.
  • The SSB operates under the motto of "Service, Security, and Brotherhood."
  • It is responsible for the security of the borders with Nepal and Bhutan, and it also performs internal security duties when required.
  • The SSB has been actively involved in various humanitarian and disaster relief operations across the country.

Question 82

Which of the following is NOT a way to acquire citizenship in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Registration

  2. BOption (b)

    Birth

  3. COption (c)

    Incorporation of territory

  4. DOption (d)

    Renunciation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Renunciation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Renunciation

Key Points

  • Renunciation is not a way to acquire citizenship in India; rather, it is a way to voluntarily give up Indian citizenship.
  • The Citizenship Act, 1955, provides various modes for acquiring Indian citizenship, including by birth, descent, registration, and naturalization.
  • Incorporation of territory is another mode where a new territory becomes a part of India, and the government may specify the persons who shall be citizens of India.
  • Citizenship by registration is available to certain categories of persons such as persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India and other specified categories.
  • Citizenship by birth is applicable to individuals born in India on or after January 26, 1950, but before July 1, 1987, and to individuals born on or after July 1, 1987, if either parent is a citizen of India.

Additional Information

  • The Citizenship Act, 1955, also provides for the termination and deprivation of citizenship under specific conditions.
  • Renunciation of citizenship is a voluntary act and can be done by any citizen of India who is also a citizen or national of another country.
  • Upon renunciation, the individual ceases to be a citizen of India, and any minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship.
  • The process of renunciation is outlined in the Citizenship Rules, and it requires the individual to make a declaration in the prescribed manner.
  • It's important for individuals to be aware of the implications of renunciation, including the loss of rights and privileges associated with Indian citizenship.

Question 83

The point in the orbit of an object (such as a satellite) orbiting the earth that is at the greatest distance from the centre of the earth is known as: 

  1. AOption (a)

    aphelion

  2. BOption (b)

    perigee

  3. COption (c)

    perihelion

  4. DOption (d)

    apogee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

apogee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is apogee

Key Points

  • The point in the orbit of an object (such as a satellite) orbiting the earth that is at the greatest distance from the centre of the earth is known as apogee.
  • Apogee is derived from the Greek words "apo," meaning away, and "ge," meaning Earth.
  • It contrasts with perigee, which is the point in the orbit of an object where it is closest to the Earth.
  • Understanding apogee and perigee is crucial for satellite operations and space missions, as it affects communication signals and orbital dynamics.

Additional Information

  • Aphelion and perihelion are terms used to describe the farthest and nearest points of an object's orbit around the Sun, respectively.
  • The term perigee is used specifically for objects orbiting the Earth, while perihelion is for objects orbiting the Sun.
  • Knowledge of these orbital points is important for understanding the mechanics of celestial bodies and for planning space missions.
  • Orbital mechanics is a fundamental aspect of astrophysics and aerospace engineering, guiding the design and operation of spacecraft.

Question 84

With reference to the Directive Principles of State policy contained in the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Article 37 of the Constitution of India provides that the Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable in the High Courts only.
  2. Article 38 provides that the State shall strive to minimise the inequalities in income amongst individuals and groups of people.
  3. Article 39 provides that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2 and 3

Key Points

  • Article 37 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court, but the principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
  • Article 38 provides that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order in which justice, social, economic, and political, shall inform all the institutions of national life. It also directs the State to minimize inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
  • Article 39 mandates the State to direct its policy towards securing that men and women equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood, that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women, and that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused.

Additional Information

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government and are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, though they are non-justiciable in nature.
  • These principles aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.
  • The principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland and also by the principles of Gandhism.
  • While the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, they act as a guide to the state in the matter of governance and law-making and are fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • The Constitution aims to achieve the goal of a welfare state by implementing these principles.

Question 85

Easter is a religious festival of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Hindus

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikhs

  3. COption (c)

    Buddhists

  4. DOption (d)

    Christians

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Christians

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Christians

Key Points

  • Easter is a religious festival celebrated by Christians.
  • It commemorates the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead, described in the New Testament as having occurred on the third day after his burial following his crucifixion by the Romans at Calvary c. 30 AD.
  • Easter is the culmination of the Passion of Jesus, preceded by Lent (or Great Lent), a 40-day period of fasting, prayer, and penance.
  • The week before Easter is known as Holy Week, and it contains the days of the Easter Triduum, including Maundy Thursday (commemorating the Maundy and Last Supper), and Good Friday (commemorating the crucifixion and death of Jesus).

Additional Information

  • Easter is linked to the Jewish Passover by much of its symbolism, as well as by its position in the calendar.
  • In many languages, the words for "Easter" and "Passover" are identical or very similar.
  • Easter customs vary across the Christian world, and include sunrise services, exclaiming the Paschal greeting, clipping the church, and decorating Easter eggs.
  • The Easter lily, a symbol of the resurrection in Western Christianity, traditionally decorates the chancel area of churches on Easter Day and throughout the Eastertide season.
  • Additional customs include egg hunting, the Easter Bunny, and Easter parades.

Question 86

BVR Subrahmanyam was appointed as the ________ in February 2023.

  1. AOption (a)

    Chairman of UPSC

  2. BOption (b)

    Chairman of NITI Aayog

  3. COption (c)

    CEO of IBRD

  4. DOption (d)

    CEO of NITI Aayog

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CEO of NITI Aayog

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CEO of NITI Aayog

Key Points

  • BVR Subrahmanyam was appointed as the CEO of NITI Aayog in February 2023.
  • The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to foster involvement and participation in the economic policy-making process by the State Governments of India.
  • NITI Aayog provides both directional and policy inputs, and it designs strategic and long-term policies and programs for the Government of India and also provides relevant technical advice to the Center and States.
  • As the CEO of NITI Aayog, Subrahmanyam is expected to lead and coordinate the efforts of the institution in various developmental and policy initiatives.
  • Prior to this appointment, BVR Subrahmanyam has held various key positions in the Indian administration and has a rich experience in governance and public administration.

Additional Information

  • NITI Aayog was established on 1st January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission of India.
  • The primary objectives of NITI Aayog include fostering cooperative federalism, promoting sustainable development, and enhancing the involvement of States in the policy-making process.
  • NITI Aayog operates through a structure comprising the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, a Governing Council, a Vice-Chairperson, and other full-time and part-time members.
  • The institution is instrumental in the formulation of various strategic and long-term policies and programs for the economic development of India.

Question 87

Which city will host 2028 Olympics games? 

  1. AOption (a)

    San Diego, USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Boston, USA

  3. COption (c)

    Los Angles, USA

  4. DOption (d)

    New York, USA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Los Angles, USA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Los Angeles, USA

Key Points

  • Los Angeles, USA will host the 2028 Olympic Games.
  • The International Olympic Committee (IOC) announced Los Angeles as the host city for the 2028 Summer Olympics on September 13, 2017.
  • This will be the third time Los Angeles has hosted the Olympic Games, previously hosting in 1932 and 1984.
  • Los Angeles was awarded the 2028 Olympics after an agreement was reached with Paris, which will host the 2024 Olympics.
  • The decision was part of the IOC's new process to ensure the long-term stability of the Olympic Games.

Additional Information

  • The Olympic Games are a major international multi-sport event held every four years, featuring summer and winter sports competitions.
  • The Games are overseen by the International Olympic Committee (IOC), which was established in 1894.
  • Los Angeles is known for its strong sports culture, with numerous professional sports teams and world-class facilities.
  • The 2028 Olympics are expected to bring significant economic benefits to the city and further enhance its global reputation.
  • Los Angeles' bid for the Olympics emphasized sustainability, the use of existing venues, and the involvement of local communities.

Question 88

Which of the following is NOT a mutation-based disease?

  1. AOption (a)

    Down syndrome

  2. BOption (b)

    Sickle cell anaemia

  3. COption (c)

    Malaria

  4. DOption (d)

    Phenylketonuria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Malaria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Malaria

Key Points

  • Malaria is not a mutation-based disease; it is caused by the Plasmodium parasite, which is transmitted through the bites of infected Anopheles mosquitoes.
  • On the other hand, Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21.
  • Sickle cell anaemia is a hereditary blood disorder caused by a mutation in the gene that tells the body to make hemoglobin.
  • Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder resulting from a mutation in the gene for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to a buildup of phenylalanine in the body.

Additional Information

  • Malaria can be prevented and treated with antimalarial medications and measures to prevent mosquito bites.
  • Genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, Sickle cell anaemia, and Phenylketonuria often require long-term management and care.
  • Advancements in genetic research and therapy are ongoing to better understand and treat these genetic conditions.

Question 89

India's first indigenous Aircraft Carrier, _____, conducted its maiden sea travel in August 2021 marking a significant step towards making military equipment in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    INS Vayudooth

  2. BOption (b)

    INS Kranti

  3. COption (c)

    INS Swades

  4. DOption (d)

    INS Vikrant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

INS Vikrant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is INS Vikrant

Key Points

  • INS Vikrant is India's first indigenous Aircraft Carrier.
  • It conducted its maiden sea travel in August 2021, marking a significant step towards making military equipment in India.
  • The carrier has been built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) and signifies a major milestone in India's self-reliance in defense manufacturing.
  • It is named after India's first aircraft carrier which played a key role in the 1971 war.
  • INS Vikrant will contribute significantly to the Indian Navy's operational capabilities and maritime security.

Additional Information

  • Aircraft carriers are crucial for power projection and maintaining a naval presence in strategic regions.
  • The construction of INS Vikrant involved collaboration among various public and private sector enterprises in India.
  • The carrier is equipped with modern systems and technologies, including a ski-jump for launching aircraft and advanced radar systems.
  • Its induction into the Indian Navy is expected to enhance India's maritime capabilities and contribute to regional stability.
  • The indigenous construction of such a complex warship showcases India's engineering and manufacturing prowess in the defense sector.

Question 90

Rotating Savings and Credit Association (ROSCA) was introduced by Shirley Ardener in the year ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    1963

  2. BOption (b)

    1964

  3. COption (c)

    1955

  4. DOption (d)

    1970

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1964

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1964

Key Points

  • The Rotating Savings and Credit Association (ROSCA) was introduced by Shirley Ardener in the year 1964.
  • ROSCA is a group of individuals who come together to save and borrow collectively from a common fund.
  • Each member of the group contributes a fixed amount to the fund at regular intervals, and one member gets the entire sum collected at each interval.
  • This process continues until all members have received the sum once.
  • ROSCA is a traditional form of savings and credit, widely practiced in various parts of the world, particularly in developing countries.
  • It provides an alternative to formal banking systems, particularly for individuals who may not have access to traditional financial services.

Additional Information

  • Shirley Ardener is an anthropologist and researcher who has extensively studied and documented ROSCAs.
  • ROSCAs are known by various names in different cultures, such as "tandas" in Latin America, "susus" in West Africa, and "chit funds" in India.
  • They play a crucial role in financial inclusion by providing a mechanism for saving and accessing credit outside of formal financial institutions.
  • ROSCAs can also foster a sense of community and mutual support among members.
  • Despite their benefits, ROSCAs also carry risks, such as the potential for members to default on their contributions.

Question 91

Who was the founder of the Bahmani Sultanate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Feroz Shah Bahmani

  2. BOption (b)

    Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

  3. COption (c)

    Muhammad Shah

  4. DOption (d)

    Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah

Key Points

  • Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah was the founder of the Bahmani Sultanate.
  • The Bahmani Sultanate was established in 1347 in the Deccan region of South India.
  • Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah originally served as a commander under the Delhi Sultanate before declaring independence.
  • The Bahmani Sultanate was one of the major medieval Indian kingdoms and was known for its cultural contributions and architectural advancements.
  • The Sultanate played a significant role in the history of the Deccan region and laid the foundation for the Deccan Sultanates that followed.

Additional Information

  • The Bahmani Sultanate was divided into five smaller kingdoms known as the Deccan Sultanates after its decline.
  • The capital of the Bahmani Sultanate was initially Gulbarga and later shifted to Bidar.
  • The Bahmani rulers were known for their patronage of Persian culture and language, which greatly influenced the region's art, architecture, and literature.
  • The Bahmani Sultanate engaged in frequent conflicts with the Vijayanagara Empire, another major kingdom in South India.
  • The legacy of the Bahmani Sultanate can still be seen in the form of various monuments, forts, and mosques scattered across the Deccan region.

Question 92

The Mundra Thermal Power Plant is located in which district of Gujarat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kheda

  2. BOption (b)

    Jamnagar

  3. COption (c)

    Kutch

  4. DOption (d)

    Gandhinagar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kutch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kutch

Key Points

  • Mundra Thermal Power Plant is located in the Kutch district of Gujarat.
  • It is one of the largest thermal power plants in India.
  • The plant is operated by Adani Power, a subsidiary of the Adani Group.
  • Mundra Thermal Power Plant has a total installed capacity of 4,620 MW.
  • It plays a significant role in supplying power to the western region of India.

Additional Information

  • The Adani Group has invested heavily in the development of the Mundra Port and Special Economic Zone (SEZ) to facilitate trade and commerce.
  • Mundra Port is the largest private port in India and is strategically important for both industrial and agricultural sectors.
  • The power plant uses imported coal to generate electricity, ensuring a steady supply of power to the region.
  • The plant incorporates advanced technologies to minimize environmental impact, including flue gas desulfurization and electrostatic precipitators.
  • The Mundra Thermal Power Plant has been instrumental in boosting the economic development of the Kutch region.

Question 93

Who founded the Bombay Presidency Association in 1885 along with Pherozeshah Mehta and KT Telang? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Badruddin Tyabji

  2. BOption (b)

    Behramji M Malabari

  3. COption (c)

    AK Fazlul Haq

  4. DOption (d)

    Zakir Husain 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Badruddin Tyabji

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Badruddin Tyabji

Key Points

  • Badruddin Tyabji was one of the founders of the Bombay Presidency Association in 1885.
  • He was a prominent lawyer and politician in India during the British rule.
  • Tyabji, along with Pherozeshah Mehta and KT Telang, established the association to address the issues and concerns of the people in the Bombay Presidency.
  • The Bombay Presidency Association played a significant role in the Indian freedom movement by voicing the demands of the Indian populace to the British authorities.

Additional Information

  • Badruddin Tyabji was also the first Indian to practice as a barrister of the High Court of Bombay.
  • He served as the third President of the Indian National Congress in 1887.
  • Tyabji was a strong advocate for social reforms, especially in the areas of women's education and rights.
  • His efforts contributed significantly to the socio-political awakening in India during the late 19th century.

Question 94

In which year was the 15th National Census Survey of India conducted?

  1. AOption (a)

    2001

  2. BOption (b)

    2021

  3. COption (c)

    1991

  4. DOption (d)

    2011

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2011

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2011

Key Points

  • 2011 was the year when the 15th National Census Survey of India was conducted.
  • The National Census Survey is conducted every ten years by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • The census collects comprehensive demographic data which is crucial for planning and policy-making.
  • The data includes information on population, economic activity, literacy and education, housing and household amenities, urbanization, fertility and mortality, and many other socio-economic parameters.
  • The first census in India was conducted in 1872, and since 1881, it has been conducted every ten years without a break.

Additional Information

  • The 2021 census was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic, making the 2011 census the most recent one.
  • India's census is one of the largest administrative exercises in the world.
  • The census data is used for redrawing constituencies, allocation of government resources, and various other administrative functions.
  • The census also provides a detailed picture of the socio-economic and demographic changes over the decade.
  • Data from the census is used extensively for academic research and by international organizations.

Question 95

Select the musical instrument which is NOT played by way of percussion or NOT played by way of striking any object?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shehnai

  2. BOption (b)

    Pakhawaj

  3. COption (c)

    Drum

  4. DOption (d)

    Tabla

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shehnai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shehnai

Key Points

  • Shehnai is a wind instrument, which means it is played by blowing air into it, not by percussion or striking.
  • The other options listed, such as Pakhawaj, Drum, and Tabla, are all percussion instruments that produce sound by being struck.
  • The Shehnai is commonly used in traditional Indian music, especially in auspicious occasions and ceremonies.
  • It has a distinct, melodious sound that is different from the rhythmic beats produced by percussion instruments.

Additional Information

  • The Shehnai is believed to bring good luck and is an integral part of North Indian weddings and festivals.
  • It is made of wood with a double reed at one end and a metal or wooden flared bell at the other end.
  • The instrument has been popularized globally by renowned musicians like Ustad Bismillah Khan.
  • Learning to play the Shehnai requires significant practice and skill, as the musician must control the breath and finger movements precisely.

Question 96

The Bhotia dance form is a folk-dance from which of the following Indian states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Uttarakhand

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uttarakhand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttarakhand

Key Points

  • Bhotia dance form is a traditional folk dance from the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
  • This dance is performed by the Bhotia community, who reside in the higher altitudes of the state.
  • The dance is characterized by its energetic and vibrant movements, often performed during festivals and special occasions.
  • Bhotia dance reflects the rich cultural heritage and traditions of the Bhotia tribe.

Additional Information

  • Uttarakhand is known for its diverse and vibrant cultural traditions, including various folk dances and music forms.
  • Other notable folk dances from Uttarakhand include Chholiya, Jhora, and Barada Nati.
  • The state is often referred to as the "Land of Gods" due to its numerous Hindu temples and pilgrimage sites.
  • Uttarakhand was carved out of the northern part of Uttar Pradesh on 9th November 2000.
  • It is famous for its scenic beauty, with the Himalayas, rivers, and forests adding to its picturesque landscape.

Question 97

Which of the following is a cyclic arrangement of time units in Hindustani classical music?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jati

  2. BOption (b)

    Nyasa

  3. COption (c)

    Raga

  4. DOption (d)

    Tala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tala

Key Points

  • Tala is the term used in Hindustani classical music to denote a cyclic arrangement of time units.
  • It serves as a rhythmic framework for the performance and is essential for the structuring of the music.
  • Each tala is characterized by a specific number of beats, known as matras, which are grouped into sections called vibhags.
  • Common talas in Hindustani music include Teentaal, Ektaal, and Jhaptaal.
  • The tala system is crucial for both the composition and improvisation in performances, guiding the timing and rhythm.

Additional Information

  • Hindustani classical music, one of the two main sub-genres of Indian classical music, has a rich tradition and history dating back to the Vedic times.
  • It is characterized by a wide variety of ragas (melodic frameworks) and talas (rhythmic cycles), each with specific rules and structures.
  • Unlike Western classical music, Hindustani music places a significant emphasis on improvisation within the set frameworks of raga and tala.
  • The performance of a piece in Hindustani classical music often involves a gradual development from slow, meditative sections to fast, intricate passages.
  • This genre of music has been influenced by various cultural and historical factors, including Persian and Mughal traditions.

Question 98

What is the penalty for a wide ball in cricket?

  1. AOption (a)

    One run

  2. BOption (b)

    Six runs

  3. COption (c)

    Four runs

  4. DOption (d)

    A free hit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

One run

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is One run

Key Points

  • One run is awarded to the batting team for a wide ball in cricket.
  • A wide ball is a delivery that the umpire judges to be too wide or high to be hit by the batsman by means of a normal cricket shot.
  • In addition to the one run, an extra delivery is also bowled to compensate for the wide ball.
  • The rule ensures fairness and maintains the challenge for the bowler to deliver within the acceptable area.

Additional Information

  • The Laws of Cricket are maintained by the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) and are known as the Code of Laws.
  • Wide ball rules are specified in Law 22 of the MCC's Laws of Cricket.
  • Wide balls contribute to the batting team's total score and can impact the game's outcome significantly.
  • Other penalties in cricket include no-balls, which also result in extra runs and an extra delivery.
  • The umpire signals a wide ball by extending both arms horizontally.

Question 99

What is the keyboard shortcut for opening a blank new document in MS-Word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + B

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + S

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + C

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ctrl + N

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ctrl + N

Key Points

  • Ctrl + N is the keyboard shortcut for opening a blank new document in MS-Word.
  • Using this shortcut allows users to quickly start a new document without navigating through the menu options.
  • Keyboard shortcuts can significantly enhance productivity by reducing the time taken to perform common tasks.
  • Other common keyboard shortcuts in MS-Word include Ctrl + S to save a document, Ctrl + C to copy selected text, and Ctrl + V to paste copied text.

Additional Information

  • MS-Word is a widely used word processing software developed by Microsoft.
  • It is part of the Microsoft Office suite and is available for both Windows and macOS operating systems.
  • MS-Word offers a variety of features including text formatting, spell check, grammar check, and the ability to insert images, tables, and charts.
  • Understanding and utilizing keyboard shortcuts can greatly improve efficiency when working with MS-Word.

Question 100

Match the items in List I with those in List II.

List IList II
(i)Garibi Hatao(a)Fifth Five-Year Plan
(ii)LPG policies(b)Ninth Five-Year Plan
(iii)Rolling Plan(c)1978-80
(iv)Growth with justice and equity(d)Eighth Five-Year Plan
  1. AOption (a)

    i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

  2. BOption (b)

    i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b 

  3. COption (c)

    i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

  4. DOption (d)

    i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b

Key Points

  • Garibi Hatao is matched with the Fifth Five-Year Plan (Option a).
  • LPG policies are matched with the Eighth Five-Year Plan (Option d).
  • Rolling Plan is matched with the 1978-80 (Option c).
  • Growth with justice and equity is matched with the Ninth Five-Year Plan (Option b).
  • Thus, the correct matching is: i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b.

Additional Information

  • The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-1979) focused on poverty alleviation and was associated with the slogan "Garibi Hatao."
  • The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992-1997) introduced the Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) policies.
  • The Rolling Plan was introduced during 1978-1980, allowing for flexibility and annual adjustments.
  • The Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997-2002) emphasized "Growth with justice and equity."

100 questions in the full paper