Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2024: Official Paper (Held On: 01 Jul, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

100 questions60 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the option with the correct use of article(s).

  1. AOption (a)

    She kept lot of rules in her life, due to which she is flourishing today.

  2. BOption (b)

    She kept an lot of rules in her life, due to which she is flourishing today.

  3. COption (c)

    She kept a lot of rules in her life, due to which she is flourishing today.

  4. DOption (d)

    She kept the lot of rules in her life, due to which she is flourishing today.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

She kept a lot of rules in her life, due to which she is flourishing today.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'C'' i.e. "She kept a lot of rules in her life, due to which she is flourishing today." which uses the article correctly..

Key Points

  • The article 'a' is used before words that begin with a consonant sound.
  • The article 'an' is used before words that begin with a vowel sound.
  • The phrase "a lot of" is correct because "lot" starts with a consonant sound.
  • The use of "an lot" is incorrect because "lot" does not begin with a vowel sound.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: She kept a lot of rules in her life, due to which she is flourishing today.

Question 2

There is an error in the given sentence. From the options given, identify the sentence that corrects the error to make it a grammatically accurate sentence.

Harmit is not innocent such as Uday.

  1. AOption (a)

    Harmit is not as much as innocent as Uday.

  2. BOption (b)

    Harmit is not innocent than Uday.

  3. COption (c)

    Harmit is not as innocent more than Uday.

  4. DOption (d)

    Harmit is not as innocent as Uday.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Harmit is not as innocent as Uday.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'D'' i.e. "Harmit is not as innocent as Uday." which corrects the error and makes the sentence grammatically accurate..

Key Points

  • The correct structure for making comparisons of equality is "as + adjective + as".
  • For example, "She is as tall as her brother."
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 do not use the correct comparative structure and hence are incorrect.
  • Option 4 uses the correct comparative structure "as innocent as".

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: Harmit is not as innocent as Uday.

Additional Information

  • The phrase "such as" is used to introduce examples, not to make comparisons.
  • When comparing the degree of an adjective between two subjects, use the "as...as" structure.
  • Example: "He is as intelligent as she is."

Question 3

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

The project was completed / more quicker / than expected.

  1. AOption (a)

    The project was completed

  2. BOption (b)

    than expected

  3. COption (c)

    No error

  4. DOption (d)

    more quicker

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

more quicker

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'D'' i.e. "more quicker" contains the error..

Key Points

  • "Quicker" is the comparative form of "quick", so "more" should not be used with it.
  • The correct comparative form is "quicker".
  • Therefore, the phrase should be "completed quicker" instead of "more quicker".

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: The project was completed quicker than expected.

Question 4

The following sentence has an error in its tense. Identify the error and select the correct sentence from the options.

If you had apprised me about your problem earlier, I would have allow you to go.

  1. AOption (a)

    If you had apprised me about your problem earlier, I would allow you to go.

  2. BOption (b)

    If you can apprise me about your problem earlier, I would have allowed you to go.

  3. COption (c)

    If you had apprised me about your problem earlier, I would have allowed you to go.

  4. DOption (d)

    If you apprised me about your problem earlier, I would have allowed you to go.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

If you had apprised me about your problem earlier, I would have allowed you to go.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'C'' i.e. "If you had apprised me about your problem earlier, I would have allowed you to go." which corrects the tense error in the sentence..

Key Points

  • In conditional sentences that discuss hypothetical past events, the correct structure is "If + past perfect, would have + past participle".
  • The original sentence incorrectly uses "allow" instead of the correct form "allowed".
  • Option 3 correctly uses both the past perfect ("had apprised") and the past participle ("would have allowed").
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 do not follow the correct conditional structure or tense.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: If you had apprised me about your problem earlier, I would have allowed you to go.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Many parents think of overweight children as ‘cute’ and cuddly. However, obesity must not be (1)_________ as a healthy sign. (2) _________ obese children grow up, they will be more prone (3) _________ health problems like high blood pressure (4) _________ diabetes. Today, overweight children are becoming a common (5) _________ in many countries.

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    seen

  2. BOption (b)

    saw

  3. COption (c)

    seeing

  4. DOption (d)

    see

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

seen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'seen'.

 

Key Points

  • The context of the passage is about perceptions and misconceptions related to child obesity.
  • The word to fill the blank should imply how parents perceive or regard obesity in their children.
  • "Seen" is appropriate as it aligns with the idea of how something is viewed or perceived.
  • Other options ("saw", "seeing", "see") do not fit grammatically or contextually in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: Many parents think of overweight children as ‘cute’ and cuddly. However, obesity must not be 1. seen as a healthy sign. 2. As obese children grow up, they will be more prone 3. to health problems like high blood pressure 4. and diabetes. Today, overweight children are becoming a common 5. sight in many countries.

 

Additional Information

  • Seen (देखा गया): "Seen" is correct as it indicates how obesity should be regarded or considered.
  • Saw (देखा): “Saw” is the past tense of see and does not fit the tense and structure of the sentence.
  • Seeing (देखना): “Seeing” is the present participle and does not fit the grammatical context here.
  • See (देखना): “See” is the base form of the verb and does not fit the context of how obesity is regarded.

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    Where

  2. BOption (b)

    Who

  3. COption (c)

    When

  4. DOption (d)

    What

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

When

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'When'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the long-term health issues that obese children might face as they grow older.
  • The word to fill the blank should refer to the time context related to growing up.
  • "When" is appropriate as it refers to the time at which something happens—in this case, when children grow up.
  • Other options ("Where", "Who", "What") do not fit the context of referring to time.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: Many parents think of overweight children as ‘cute’ and cuddly. However, obesity must not be 1. seen as a healthy sign. 2. When obese children grow up, they will be more prone 3. to health problems like high blood pressure 4. and diabetes. Today, overweight children are becoming a common 5. sight in many countries.

 

Additional Information

  • Where (कहाँ): "Where" refers to a place, which does not fit the context of time.
  • Who (कौन): “Who” refers to a person or people, which doesn’t fit the context of time.
  • What (क्या): “What” refers to a thing or an event and doesn’t fit the context of time.

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    at

  2. BOption (b)

    in

  3. COption (c)

    on

  4. DOption (d)

    to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses how obese children are more likely to suffer from health issues as they grow up.
  • The preposition that correctly fits with the phrase "prone to" is "to."
  • "To" is appropriate because "prone" is commonly followed by the preposition "to" to indicate susceptibility.
  • Other options ("at", "in", "on") do not fit grammatically or contextually in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Many parents think of overweight children as ‘cute’ and cuddly. However, obesity must not be 1. seen as a healthy sign. 2. When obese children grow up, they will be more prone 3. to health problems like high blood pressure 4. and diabetes. Today, overweight children are becoming a common 5. sight in many countries.

 

Additional Information

  • At (पर): "At" does not grammatically fit with "prone."
  • In (में): "In" does not grammatically fit with "prone."
  • On (पर): "On" does not grammatically fit with "prone."

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    neither

  2. BOption (b)

    nor

  3. COption (c)

    or

  4. DOption (d)

    never

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

or

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'or'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the health problems that obese children might face as they grow up.
  • The conjunction in the blank needs to link "high blood pressure" and "diabetes" as two that obese children might face.
  • "Or" is the appropriate conjunction for listing alternative possibilities in this context.
  • Other options ("neither", "nor", "never") do not fit grammatically or logically in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: Many parents think of overweight children as ‘cute’ and cuddly. However, obesity must not be 1. seen as a healthy sign. 2. When obese children grow up, they will be more prone 3. to health problems like high blood pressure 4. or diabetes. Today, overweight children are becoming a common 5. sight in many countries.

 

Additional Information

  • Neither (ना ही) : "Neither" is used to negate two or more items and does not fit this positive context.
  • Nor (और ना ही): "Nor" normally follows "neither" and does not fit without it.
  • Never (कभी नहीं): "Never" is an adverb indicating negation over time, which does not fit the context here.

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    might

  2. BOption (b)

    light

  3. COption (c)

    tight

  4. DOption (d)

    sight

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

sight

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'sight'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the increasing visibility of overweight children.
  • The word in the blank should describe how overweight children are frequently seen in many countries.
  • "Sight" accurately fits as it refers to something that is visible or can be seen often.
  • Other options ("might", "light", "tight") do not fit the context of describing an observable phenomenon.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Many parents think of overweight children as ‘cute’ and cuddly. However, obesity must not be 1. seen as a healthy sign. 2. When obese children grow up, they will be more prone 3. to health problems like high blood pressure 4. or diabetes. Today, overweight children are becoming a common 5. sight in many countries.

 

Additional Information

  • Might (संभावना): "Might" expresses possibility and does not fit the context here.
  • Light (प्रकाश): "Light" does not fit contextually as it refers to illumination.
  • Tight (कसा हुआ): "Tight" refers to being firmly fixed and does not fit the context.

Question 10

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

‘Vande Mataram’, a poignant poem, is obviously and indisputebly the premier national song of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Premier

  2. BOption (b)

    Indisputebly

  3. COption (c)

    Poignant

  4. DOption (d)

    Obviously

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indisputebly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Indisputebly.

Key Points

  • The word "Indisputebly" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Indisputably" which means something that cannot be disputed or questioned. (निर्विवाद रूप से)
  • Example: It is indisputably true that exercise is good for health.
  • "Premier" means first in importance, order, or position; leading. (प्रधान)
  • Example: He is one of the premier scientists in the field of genetics.
  • "Poignant" means evoking a keen sense of sadness or regret. (मर्मस्पर्शी)
  • Example: The movie's poignant ending left the audience in tears.
  • "Obviously" means in a way that is easily perceived or understood; clearly. (स्पष्ट रूप से)
  • Example: She was obviously upset after hearing the bad news.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Indisputebly.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Premier (प्रधान): First in importance, order, or position; leading.
  • Example: He is one of the premier scientists in the field of genetics.
  • Poignant (मर्मस्पर्शी): Evoking a keen sense of sadness or regret.
  • Example: The movie's poignant ending left the audience in tears.
  • Obviously (स्पष्ट रूप से): In a way that is easily perceived or understood; clearly.
  • Example: She was obviously upset after hearing the bad news.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

His opponents viewed him as stubborn, dogmatic, and inflexible.

  1. AOption (a)

    Biased

  2. BOption (b)

    Amenable

  3. COption (c)

    Careless

  4. DOption (d)

    Dishonest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Amenable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Amenable.

Key Points

  • The word "dogmatic" means asserting opinions in an arrogant and inflexible manner, often without sufficient evidence. (कट्टर)
  • Example: The professor's dogmatic approach to teaching left no room for student input or discussion.
  • "Amenable" refers to someone who is open and responsive to suggestions; easily persuaded or controlled. (सहमत होने वाला)
  • Example: She was amenable to the idea of extending the deadline to allow for more thorough research.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'dogmatic' is 'amenable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Amenable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Biased (पक्षपाती): Unfairly prejudiced for or against someone or something.
  • Example: The judge was criticized for being biased towards the prosecution.
  • Careless (लापरवाह): Not giving sufficient attention or thought to avoiding harm or errors.
  • Example: His careless handling of the equipment led to a serious accident.
  • Dishonest (बेईमान): Behaving or prone to behave in an untrustworthy or fraudulent way.
  • Example: The company fired him for dishonest practices after finding discrepancies in the accounts.

Question 12

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.

The company do not broke the law at any time.

  1. AOption (a)

    did not breaking

  2. BOption (b)

    does not break

  3. COption (c)

    do not brakes

  4. DOption (d)

    did not broken

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

does not break

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'B'' i.e. "does not break" which corrects the verb tense and subject-verb agreement in the sentence..

Key Points

  • The original sentence uses the incorrect form "do not broke," which mixes present tense "do not" with past tense "broke" and is grammatically incorrect.
  • "The company" is a singular noun, so we should use "does" instead of "do" to match the subject-verb agreement.
  • Option 2 correctly uses the present tense "does not break" to match the subject "The company" and maintain the correct verb tense.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 do not follow the correct verb tense or subject-verb agreement rules.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: The company does not break the law at any time.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

It is no exaggeration to say the Hussain Sagar Lake is an integral element of Hyderabad and Hyderabad’s history.

  1. AOption (a)

    essential

  2. BOption (b)

    total

  3. COption (c)

    inherent

  4. DOption (d)

    extra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

extra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. extra.

Key Points

  • The word "integral" means something that is essential or necessary for completeness. (अभिन्न)
  • Example: An engine is an integral part of a car.
  • "Extra" refers to something that is additional or not necessary. (अतिरिक्त)
  • Example: She added some extra toppings to her pizza.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'integral' is 'extra'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. extra.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Essential (आवश्यक): Absolutely necessary or extremely important.
  • Example: Water is essential for life.
  • Total (कुल): Comprising the whole number or amount.
  • Example: The total cost of the project was $5000.
  • Inherent (अंतर्निहित): Existing in something as a permanent, essential, or characteristic attribute.
  • Example: The inherent risks of skydiving are well-known$.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Respect

  1. AOption (a)

    Honour

  2. BOption (b)

    Disrespect

  3. COption (c)

    Invalidate

  4. DOption (d)

    Attend

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Honour

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Honour.

Key Points

  • The word "Respect" means a feeling of deep admiration for someone or something elicited by their abilities, qualities, or achievements. (सम्मान)
  • Example: He has great respect for his teachers.
  • "Honour" refers to high respect or great esteem. (सम्मान)
  • Example: It is an honour to receive this award.
  • Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate synonym of 'Respect' is 'Honour'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Honour.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Disrespect (असम्मान): Lack of respect or courtesy.
  • Example: His rude behavior showed a clear disrespect for authority.
  • Invalidate (अमान्य करना): To make an argument, statement, or theory unsound or erroneous.
  • Example: The new evidence will invalidate the previous theory.
  • Attend (भाग लेना): To be present at an event, meeting, or function.
  • Example: She will attend the conference next week.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Shame

  1. AOption (a)

    Fear

  2. BOption (b)

    Disgrace

  3. COption (c)

    Defamation

  4. DOption (d)

    Pride

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pride

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Shame" means a painful feeling of humiliation or distress caused by the consciousness of wrong or foolish behavior. (शर्मिंदगी)
  • Example: She felt deep shame for her actions after realizing the harm they had caused.
  • "Pride" refers to a feeling of deep satisfaction derived from one's own achievements or the achievements of those with whom one is closely associated; it is the opposite of shame. (गर्व)
  • Example: He felt immense pride in his daughter's accomplishments.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Shame' is 'Pride'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Fear (डर): An unpleasant emotion caused by the threat of danger, pain, or harm.
  • Example: She was paralyzed by fear when she saw the snake.
  • Disgrace (अपमान ): Loss of reputation or respect, especially as the result of a dishonorable action.
  • Example: He brought disgrace to his family with his criminal activities.
  • Defamation (मानहानि): The action of damaging the good reputation of someone; slander or libel.
  • Example: The actor sued the newspaper for defamation.

Question 16

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

The family was saved from the burning building by the brave firefighter.

  1. AOption (a)

    fearless

  2. BOption (b)

    unafraid

  3. COption (c)

    timid

  4. DOption (d)

    cowardly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

fearless

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: fearless.

Key Points

  • The word "brave" means having or showing courage. (साहसी)
  • Example: Despite the danger, the brave soldier went ahead to rescue his comrades.
  • "fearless" refers to someone who shows a lack of fear; they are bold and courageous. (निर्भीक)
  • Example: The fearless explorer ventured into the uncharted territory without hesitation.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'brave' is 'fearless'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: fearless.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Unafraid (निडर): Not feeling fear.
  • Example: She was unafraid to speak her mind in the meeting.
  • Timid (डरपोक): Showing a lack of courage or confidence.
  • Example: The timid child hid behind his mother during the thunderstorm.
  • Cowardly (कायर): Lacking courage; excessively afraid of danger or pain.
  • Example: His cowardly behavior during the crisis disappointed everyone.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘bold’ in the given sentence.

A person can be friendly, timid, clever, or fearless based on the context of the situation.

  1. AOption (a)

    timid

  2. BOption (b)

    clever

  3. COption (c)

    friendly

  4. DOption (d)

    fearless

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

timid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. 'timid'.

Key Points

  • The word "bold" means showing a willingness to take risks; confident and courageous. (साहसी)
  • Example: The bold explorer ventured into the unknown territories without hesitation.
  • "Timid" refers to someone who is easily frightened and lacks self-confidence. (डरपोक)
  • Example: The timid child hid behind his mother when strangers approached.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'bold' is 'timid'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. 'timid'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Friendly (मित्रवत): Showing kindness and pleasantness.
  • Example: She was friendly to everyone she met, always offering a warm smile.
  • Clever (चतुर): Quick to understand, learn, and devise or apply ideas; intelligent.
  • Example: The clever student solved the complex problem in just a few minutes.
  • Fearless (निर्भय): Lacking fear; brave.
  • Example: The fearless firefighter rushed into the burning building to save the trapped residents.

Question 18

Select the most appropriate homonym to fill in the blank.

Sonu eats _______ like a rabbit.

  1. AOption (a)

    caret

  2. BOption (b)

    karat

  3. COption (c)

    carrot

  4. DOption (d)

    carat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

carrot

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. carrot.

Key Points

  • The word "carrot" means a tapering orange-colored root eaten as a vegetable. (गाजर)
  • Example: She added chopped carrot to the salad for extra crunch.
  • "Carrot" is the correct word to describe the vegetable that Sonu eats like a rabbit. (गाजर)
  • Example: Sonu eats carrot like a rabbit.

Therefore, the correct answer is: carrot.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Caret (कैरट): A mark (^) used in writing to show where something is to be added.
  • Example: The editor used a caret to indicate where the missing word should be inserted.
  • Karat (कैरेट): A measure of the purity of gold.
  • Example: The ring was made of 24-karat gold.
  • Carat (कैरेट): A unit of weight for precious stones and pearls, equivalent to 200 milligrams.
  • Example: The diamond was over two carats in weight.

Question 19

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Blowing smoke

  1. AOption (a)

    To hide something

  2. BOption (b)

    To lie to perplex others

  3. COption (c)

    To tease someone relentlessly

  4. DOption (d)

    To burn something important

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To lie to perplex others

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Blowing smoke" means to lie to perplex others or to make insubstantial or misleading statements. (धोखा देने के लिए झूठ बोलना)
  • Example: He was just blowing smoke when he said he could finish the project in one day.
  • "Lie to perplex others" refers to making false statements to confuse or mislead someone. (दूसरों को भ्रमित करने के लिए झूठ बोलना)
  • Example: The politician was accused of lying to perplex others about his involvement in the scandal.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • To hide something (कुछ छिपाना): To keep something secret or concealed.
  • Example: He tried to hide something by not mentioning the crucial details.
  • To tease someone relentlessly (किसी को लगातार चिढ़ाना): To mock or make fun of someone continuously.
  • Example: They would tease someone relentlessly about his new haircut.
  • To burn something important (कुछ महत्वपूर्ण जलाना): To destroy something of significance by burning it.
  • Example: He accidentally burned something important, which contained all the project details.

Question 20

Select the option that will most suitably substitute the underlined part of the given sentence.

He was not happy until he gave up his job and live as a fakir in the forests.

  1. AOption (a)

    until he gave up his job and lives

  2. BOption (b)

    until he gave up his job and lived

  3. COption (c)

    unless he gave up his job and lives

  4. DOption (d)

    until he gives up his job and lived

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

until he gave up his job and lived

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. "until he gave up his job and lived".

Key Points

  • The original sentence uses the past tense "gave up" and the present tense "live," which is inconsistent.
  • For parallel structure and correct verb tense, both actions ("gave up" and "lived") should be in the past tense.
  • Option 2 correctly uses the past tense for both verbs: "gave up" and "lived."
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 do not maintain the correct tense consistency or parallel structure.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: He was not happy until he gave up his job and lived as a fakir in the forests.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Dhruv’s anger blazed of uncontrollably.

  1. AOption (a)

    anger blazed after

  2. BOption (b)

    anger blazed up

  3. COption (c)

    anger blazed into

  4. DOption (d)

    anger blazed onwards

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

anger blazed up

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. 'anger blazed up'.

Key Points

  • The word "blazed" means to burn fiercely or brightly; it can also refer to something that is displayed intensely. (जल उठना)
  • Example: The campfire blazed brightly in the night, providing warmth to the campers.
  • "Blazed up" refers to the sudden or intense outburst of something, usually fire or emotion. (भड़क उठना)
  • Example: His anger blazed up when he heard the unfair decision.
  • Hence, we can infer that the correct phrase is 'anger blazed up'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. 'anger blazed up'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • anger blazed after (क्रोध बाद में भड़क उठा): This phrase is incorrect as it suggests a sequence of events rather than an immediate reaction.
  • Example: His anger blazed after he learned the truth, but this is not the same context as the sentence given.
  • anger blazed into (क्रोध में बदल गया): This phrase is incorrect as it implies transformation rather than an outburst.
  • Example: His frustration blazed into anger, but it changes the meaning of the original sentence.
  • anger blazed onwards (क्रोध आगे बढ़ गया): This phrase is incorrect as it suggests continuation rather than an outburst.
  • Example: His anger blazed onwards, but it does not fit the context of the original sentence.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Riding a horse was a piece of cake for him.

  1. AOption (a)

    a very difficult task

  2. BOption (b)

    an everyday affair

  3. COption (c)

    a very easy task

  4. DOption (d)

    confusing work

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a very easy task

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The phrase "a piece of cake" means something that is very easy to do or accomplish. (बहुत आसान काम)
  • Example: For him, solving complex mathematical problems is a piece of cake.
  • "A very easy task" refers to something that can be done with minimal effort or difficulty. (बहुत आसान काम)
  • Example: Setting up the new software was a very easy task for the IT team.
  • Hence, we can infer that the phrase "a piece of cake" is synonymous with "a very easy task".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • A very difficult task (बहुत कठिन कार्य): Something that requires a lot of effort and is hard to accomplish.
  • Example: Climbing Mount Everest is a very difficult task that only a few can achieve.
  • An everyday affair (रोजमर्रा का काम): Something that happens regularly or is a common occurrence.
  • Example: For her, going to the gym has become an everyday affair.
  • Confusing work (उलझाने वाला काम): Tasks that are difficult to understand or that cause confusion.
  • Example: The instructions for assembling the furniture were so vague that it turned into confusing work.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate homonyms from the given alternatives to fill in the blanks.

He ________ imitate the playful movement of the ________.

Alternatives:

A. does (female deer)

B. does

C. dose

  1. AOption (a)

    A, C

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B

  3. COption (c)

    C, B

  4. DOption (d)

    B, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B, A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'D' 'i.e.' "B, A" which uses the correct homonyms for the given sentence.

Key Points

  • The first blank requires a verb that fits "he," which is "does" (meaning performs an action).
  • The second blank requires a noun referring to female deer, which is "does" (plural form of "doe").
  • Option 4 ("B, A") matches these requirements correctly.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 either use incorrect homonyms or do not fit the context of the sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: He does imitate the playful movement of the does.

Question 24

Select the most appropriate option that can best replace the bracketed word to fill in the blank

His ________ stature was not a measure of his overall personality. (scrawny)

  1. AOption (a)

    sickly

  2. BOption (b)

    keen

  3. COption (c)

    thin

  4. DOption (d)

    muscular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

thin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "scrawny" means unattractively thin and bony. (दुबला-पतला)
  • Example: The scrawny cat looked like it hadn't eaten in days.
  • "Thin" refers to having little, or too little, flesh or fat on the body. (पतला)
  • Example: He was tall and thin, with a serious expression on his face.
  • Hence, we can infer that the word "thin" is a suitable replacement for "scrawny".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Sickly (अस्वस्थ): Often ill; in poor health.
  • Example: The sickly child had to stay home from school.
  • Keen (तेज): Having or showing eagerness or enthusiasm.
  • Example: She was keen to start her new job.
  • Muscular (मांसल): Having well-developed muscles.
  • Example: The muscular athlete won the weightlifting competition.

Question 25

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Seize

  2. BOption (b)

    Dissappoint

  3. COption (c)

    Rebuke

  4. DOption (d)

    Foresee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dissappoint

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "Dissappoint" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Disappoint". (निराश करना)
  • Example: His failure to appear on time did not disappoint me.
  • "Disappoint" means to fail to fulfill someone's hopes or expectations. (निराश करना)
  • Example: The movie did not disappoint the audience; it was fantastic.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Seize (पकड़ना): To take hold of something suddenly and forcibly.
  • Example: The police managed to seize the stolen goods.
  • Rebuke (फटकार): To express sharp disapproval or criticism.
  • Example: She rebuked him for being late.
  • Foresee (पूर्वानुमान): To be aware of beforehand; predict.
  • Example: He could not foresee the consequences of his actions.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

105 is related to 15 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 154 is related to 22.To which of the following is 189 related following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    29

  3. COption (c)

    27

  4. DOption (d)

    23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

27

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: (1st number ÷ 7 = 2nd number).

Now,

For, 105 : 15

⇒ 105 ÷ 7 = 15.

For, 154 : 22

⇒ 154 ÷ 7 = 22.

Similarly, for 189 : ?

⇒ 189 ÷ 7 = 27.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 27

What would be the symbol on the opposite side of '@' if the given sheet is folded to form a cube?

  1. AOption (a)
  2. BOption (b)

    }

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    &

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

&

Why this answer is correct

Opposite surface of the open dice can be found by the below methods: -

  • Alternate surfaces are opposite to each other.
  • No two opposite surface are touched by side or by corners.

So, by using the above rule we can find the opposite surface of open dice.

Below are the opposite surfaces: -

Here, we can see that the symbol on the opposite side of '@' is '&'.

Hence, the correct answer is "&".

Question 28

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

Modest : Humble

  1. AOption (a)

    Knowledge : Ignorance

  2. BOption (b)

    Success : Failure

  3. COption (c)

    Obvious : Evident

  4. DOption (d)

    Brave : Fearful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Obvious : Evident

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Synonyms.

Here,

Modest : Humble  → Modest and Humble are synonyms.

Similarly,

Obvious : Evident → Obvious and Evident are synonyms.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 29

In a certain code language, 'CERTAIN' is coded as '9643821' and 'UNCERTAIN' is coded as '964382117'. What is the code for 'U' in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

'CERTAIN' is coded as '9643821',

'UNCERTAIN' is coded as '964382117',

Here, we can see that the code for 'U' is '7'.

Hence, the correct answer is "7".

Question 30

In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’

A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’

A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’

A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’

Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P × Q − R + S ÷ T ’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brother’s wife

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother’s wife’s mother

  3. COption (c)

    Sister

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Brother’s wife

Why this answer is correct

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

Given equation: P × Q − R + S ÷ T

Code+-×÷
RelationSonBrotherWifeFather

The family tree can be drawn using the given information,

Here, we can see that P is brother’s wife of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Brother’s wife".

Question 31

Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

CJM : FMP

AHL : DKO

  1. AOption (a)

    KOQ : PLJ

  2. BOption (b)

    LTV : TVL

  3. COption (c)

    GHA : AHG

  4. DOption (d)

    NRS : QUV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

NRS : QUV

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

CJM : FMP

AHL : DKO

Let's check each option,

1) KOQ : PLJ

2) LTV : TVL

3) GHA : AHG

4) NRS : QUV

Hence, the correct answer is "NRS : QUV".

Question 32

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 33

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

119 171 223 275 327 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    379

  2. BOption (b)

    357

  3. COption (c)

    386

  4. DOption (d)

    369

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

379

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "379".

Question 34

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '×' are interchanged and '-' and '÷' are interchanged?

46 × 17 + 4 ÷ 98 - 7 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    90

  2. BOption (b)

    85

  3. COption (c)

    80

  4. DOption (d)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

100

Why this answer is correct

Given equation: 46 × 17 + 4 ÷ 98 - 7 = ?

Now, if '+' and '×' are interchanged and '-' and '÷' are interchanged, then:

⇒ 46 + 17 × 4 - 98 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 46 + 17 × 4 - 14 = ?

⇒ 46 + 68 - 14 = ?

⇒ 114 - 14 = 100.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 35

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14

Why this answer is correct

Let's count the number of triangles in the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is "14".

Question 36

What would be the number on the opposite side of '20' if the given sheet is folded to form a cube?

  1. AOption (a)

    23

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21

Why this answer is correct

Opposite surface of the open dice can be found by the below methods: -

  • Alternate surfaces are opposite to each other.
  • No two opposite surface are touched by side or by corners.

So, by using the above rule we can find the opposite surface of open dice.

Below are the opposite surfaces: -

Here, we can see that the number on the opposite side of '20' is '21'.

Hence, the correct answer is "21".

Question 37

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(111, 16, 7)

(167, 14, 12)

  1. AOption (a)

    (108, 9, 12)

  2. BOption (b)

    (190, 21, 9)

  3. COption (c)

    (140, 8, 17)

  4. DOption (d)

    (131, 12, 11)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(131, 12, 11)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: (2nd number × 3rd number) - 1 = 1st number.

Now,

For, (111, 16, 7)

⇒ (16 × 7) - 1

= 112 - 1 = 111.

For, (167, 14, 12)

⇒ (14 × 12) - 1

= 168 - 1 = 167.

Similarly, for (131, 12, 11)

⇒ (12 × 11) - 1

= 132 - 1 = 131.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 38

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

LDP, GHO, BLN, WPM, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    QSM

  2. BOption (b)

    QSN

  3. COption (c)

    RSN

  4. DOption (d)

    RTL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RTL

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "RTL".

Question 39

What should come in place of? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

CKS LRC ? DFW MMG

  1. AOption (a)

    YAM

  2. BOption (b)

    VMO

  3. COption (c)

    HGO

  4. DOption (d)

    UYM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

UYM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "UYM".

Question 40

If 15 August 2006 is a Tuesday, then what will the day of the week on 19 February 2012?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friday

  2. BOption (b)

    Saturday

  3. COption (c)

    Sunday

  4. DOption (d)

    ​Tuesday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sunday

Why this answer is correct

Given: 15 August 2006 was Tuesday.

Now,

2006 to 2011 = 5 Years (4 Ordinary Years and 1 Leap Year).

And, In 5 Years = 1 Leap year and 4 Ordinary Years.

So, 1 Leap Year has 2 odd days,

And, 4 Ordinary Years have 4 odd days.

Total odd days = 2 + 4 = 6.

6 odd days → 6/7 = 0 weeks and 6 odd days.

then, 15 August 2011 will be Tuesday + 6 = Monday.

Now, the number of days between 15 August 2011 to 19 February 2012

= 16(August) + 30(September) + 31(October) + 30(November) + 31(December) + 31(January) + 19(February) = 188 days.

= 188 days → 188/7 = 26 weeks and 6 odd days.

So, 19 February 2012 will be Monday + 6 = Sunday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 41

In a certain language, 'this is music' is written as 'Ta Bu Ka' and 'who touched this' is written as 'Pi Ka Bi'. How is 'this' written in the given language?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ta

  2. BOption (b)

    Ka

  3. COption (c)

    Bi

  4. DOption (d)

    Bu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ka

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Here, we can see that the code for 'this' is 'ka'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Ka".

Question 42

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 43

What will come in the place of '?' in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

14 + 6 × 3 ÷ 7 - 2 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 14 + 6 × 3 ÷ 7 - 2 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ interchanged and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 14 - 6 ÷ 3 × 7 + 2 = ?

⇒ 14 - 2 × 7 + 2 = ?

⇒ 14 - 14 + 2 = ?

⇒ 16 - 14 = 2

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 44

How many meaningful English words can be formed with letters CKIK, using each letter only once in each word?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows is:

Given letters: CKIK

Now, using each letter only once in each word, the meaningful word is: KICK

So, there is only one meaningful English words can be formed from the given letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 45

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 46

Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The series follows Step 1 and Step 2 on alternative basis to get the subsequent images of the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 47

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

91 × 7 + 27 - 7 ÷ 13 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    99

  2. BOption (b)

    77

  3. COption (c)

    66

  4. DOption (d)

    88

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

77

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 91 × 7 + 27 - 7 ÷ 13 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 91 ÷ 7 - 27 + 7 × 13 = ?

⇒ 13 - 27 + 7 × 13 = ?

⇒ 13 - 27 + 91 = ?

⇒ 104 - 27 = 77.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 48

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster does NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    MNQL

  2. BOption (b)

    EFHD

  3. COption (c)

    VWZU

  4. DOption (d)

    OPSN

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

EFHD

Why this answer is correct

Let's check each option,

  1. MNQL

  2. EFHD

  3. VWZU

  4. OPSN

Here, we can see that Option 2 is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is "EFHD".

Question 49

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some handles are bars.

All bars are rods.

No rod is a stick.

Conclusions:

(I) Some handles are rods.

(II) No bar is a stick.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. COption (c)

    None of the conclusions follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both conclusions I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

The least possible venn diagram is shown below,

Conclusions:

(I) Some handles are rods → True (Some handles are bars and all bars are rods implies that some handles which are bars are also rods).

(II) No bar is a stick → True (All bars are rods and no rod is a stick implies that no bar is a stick).

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follow".

Question 50

What should come in place of? in the given series?

4 13 ? 58 94 139 193

  1. AOption (a)

    26

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    31

  4. DOption (d)

    27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

31

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "31".

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

In an election between two candidates A and B, A got 33% of total votes casted and still lost by 55,522 votes. Find the total number of votes got by B.

  1. AOption (a)

    1,09,114

  2. BOption (b)

    1,09,411

  3. COption (c)

    1,09,141

  4. DOption (d)

    1,04,911

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1,09,411

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the total votes be 100%.

Candidate A got 33%, so Candidate B got (100 − 33) = 67%.

Difference in votes = 67% − 33% = 34%.

Given 34% → 55,522 votes.

Votes of Candidate B (67%) = (55,522 ÷ 34) × 67 = 1,633 × 67 = 1,09,411.

∴ The correct answer is 1,09,411 votes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Votes of Candidate A = 33% of total.

Victory Margin (Loss margin for A) = 55,522 votes.

Calculations:

⇒ Let Total Votes = V

⇒ Votes of B = V − 0.33V = 0.67V

⇒ Difference = Votes of B − Votes of A

⇒ 55,522 = 0.67V − 0.33V

⇒ 55,522 = 0.34V

⇒ V = 55,522 ÷ 0.34 = 1,63,300

⇒ Votes of B = 0.67 × 1,63,300

⇒ Votes of B = 1,09,411

∴ The correct answer is 1,09,411 votes.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

Percentage change is calculated as (Difference ÷ Original Value) × 100.

Valid and Invalid Votes

Total Casted Votes = Valid Votes + Invalid Votes. Winning/Losing margins are usually calculated on valid votes unless specified.

Two Candidate Election Rule

In a two-way contest, if one candidate gets x%, the other must get (100 − x)% of the total votes.

Question 52

The bar graph represents the production of different spare parts of computer in different months.

The ratio between the number of pen drives produced in the month of Jan, March and April is:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 ∶ 1 ∶ 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1

  3. COption (c)

    1 ∶ 1 ∶ 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 ∶ 1 ∶ 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 ∶ 1 ∶ 2

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Jan = 1500

March = 1500

April = 3000

According to the question, 

1500 : 1500 : 3000

⇒ 1 : 1: 2

∴ The ratio between the number of pen drives produced in the month of Jan, March and April is 1 : 1: 2.

Question 53

An amount becomes double in 7 years on simple interest. The amount would be four times in ______ years on the same rate of simple interest.

  1. AOption (a)

    28

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Interest for amount to double (n1=2) = 2 − 1 = 1 unit.

Interest for amount to be four times (n2=4) = 4 − 1 = 3 units.

As Simple Interest is directly proportional to time (SI ∝ T):

1 unit interest → 7 years

3 units interest → 7 × 3 = 21 years

∴ The correct answer is 21.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal = P, Case 1 Amount = 2P, Time = 7 years, Case 2 Amount = 4P.

Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100 | Amount = P + SI

P 2P 4P

7 Years

T = ? SI = P Total SI = 3P

⇒ SI1 = Amount1 − P = 2P − P = P

⇒ R = (SI1 × 100) ÷ (P × T1) = (P × 100) ÷ (P × 7) = 100 ÷ 7 %

⇒ SI2 = Amount2 − P = 4P − P = 3P

⇒ T2 = (SI2 × 100) ÷ (P × R)

⇒ T2 = (3P × 100) ÷ (P × (100 ÷ 7))

⇒ T2 = 3 × 100 × 7 ÷ 100 = 21 years

∴ The correct answer is 21.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Rate Formula

If an amount becomes n times in T years, the rate of interest is R = 100 × (n − 1) ÷ T.

Compound Interest Basics

In Compound Interest, the amount A after T years is A = P(1 + R/100)T. Interest is calculated on the updated balance every cycle.

SI vs CI Relationship

For the first year (or first interest period), the Simple Interest and Compound Interest on the same principal and rate are always equal.

Rule of 72

A quick way to estimate the time to double money with Compound Interest: T ≈ 72 ÷ R (where R is the annual interest rate).

Question 54

CD is a tangent to a circle of circumference of 88 cm with its centre at O. OC cuts the circle at P while OD cuts circle at V such that ∠COD = 90°. Length of PC is 6 cm. What is half of CD (in cm) if OD exceeds OC by 1 cm?

  1. AOption (a)

    15.5

  2. BOption (b)

    16.5

  3. COption (c)

    14.5

  4. DOption (d)

    31

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14.5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Radius r = (88 × 7) ÷ (2 × 22) = 14 cm.

OC = r + PC = 14 + 6 = 20 cm.

OD = OC + 1 = 21 cm.

CD = √(202 + 212) = √(400 + 441) = 29 cm.

Half of CD = 29 ÷ 2 = 14.5 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 14.5 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Circumference = 88 cm

PC = 6 cm, OD = OC + 1 cm

∠COD = 90°

Formula Used:

Circumference = 2 × π × r

Hypotenuse2 = Base2 + Perpendicular2

O (Center)

C

D

P

V

r = 14 PC = 6 r = 14 CD = 29

Step 1: Find the radius (r) of the circle.

⇒ 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × r = 88

⇒ 44 ÷ 7 × r = 88

⇒ r = 88 × (7 ÷ 44)

⇒ r = 2 × 7 = 14 cm

Step 2: Find the lengths of OC and OD.

⇒ OC = OP + PC = r + 6 = 14 + 6 = 20 cm

⇒ OD = OC + 1 = 20 + 1 = 21 cm

Step 3: Calculate the length of CD using Pythagoras theorem in ΔCOD.

⇒ CD2 = OC2 + OD2

⇒ CD2 = 202 + 212

⇒ CD2 = 400 + 441 = 841

⇒ CD = √841 = 29 cm

Step 4: Find half of CD.

⇒ Half of CD = 29 ÷ 2 = 14.5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14.5 cm.

Additional Information

Circle Properties

Circumference C = 2πr and Area A = πr2. The radius is the distance from the center to any point on the boundary.

Pythagorean Triplets

Sets of three integers (a, b, c) such that a2 + b2 = c2. Common triplets include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (20, 21, 29).

Tangent Property

A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact. The length of the perpendicular from center (0,0) to line ax + by + c = 0 is |c| ÷ √(a2+b2).

Question 55

Simplify:

(36 ÷ 6) ÷ 3 + (18 ÷ 9) × 4 - (12 ÷ 6) × (5 ÷ 2) =

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Simplify: (36 ÷ 6) ÷ 3 + (18 ÷ 9) × 4 - (12 ÷ 6) × (5 ÷ 2)

Concept:

To simplify the expression, follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses/Brackets, Exponents/Orders, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).

Calculation:

⇒ (36 ÷ 6) ÷ 3 + (18 ÷ 9) × 4 - (12 ÷ 6) × (5 ÷ 2)

⇒ 6 ÷ 3 + 2 × 4 - 2 × 2.5

⇒ 2 + 8 - 5

⇒ 10 - 5

⇒ 5

∴ The correct answer is option 4 (5).

Question 56

The cost price of an item increased from Rs. 2,500 to Rs. 3,000. Find the increase percentage.

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    30%

  3. COption (c)

    25%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost price increased from Rs. 2,500 to Rs. 3,000.

Concept:

The percentage increase is calculated by the formula:

Percentage Increase = ((New Value - Old Value) / Old Value) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Old Value = Rs. 2,500

⇒ New Value = Rs. 3,000

⇒ Increase = New Value - Old Value

⇒ Increase = 3,000 - 2,500

⇒ Increase = 500

⇒ Percentage Increase = (500 / 2,500) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 0.2 × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 20%

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 57

Given below is the observed data of the ages of various children.

Age in yearsNumber of children
68
73
87
92
1020

What is the difference between the mean and mode of the ages?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.425 years

  2. BOption (b)

    2.425 years

  3. COption (c)

    4.425 years

  4. DOption (d)

    3.425 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1.425 years

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Mean = (6 × 8 + 7 × 3 + 8 × 7 + 9 × 2 + 10 × 20)/(8 + 3 + 7 + 2 + 20)

⇒ (48 + 21 + 56 + 18 + 200)/40

⇒ 343/40

Mean = 8.575

Mode Most frequent, Mode = 10, due to the number of children maximum in the 20 children.

The difference between the mean and mode of the ages

⇒ 10 - 8.575

⇒ 1.425 years

∴ The difference between the mean and mode of the ages is 1.425 years.

Question 58

A man can row 18 km/h in still water. It takes him two times as long to row up as to row down the river. Find the rate of the stream.

  1. AOption (a)

    24 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    6 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    12 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    9 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The speed of the man in still water is 18 km/h.

The time to row upstream is twice the time to row downstream.

Concept:

Let the speed of the stream be x km/h.

Speed upstream = (18 - x) km/h

Speed downstream = (18 + x) km/h

Since time is inversely proportional to speed, and the time to row upstream is twice the time to row downstream, we can use the relationship between upstream and downstream speeds.

Formula Used:

Time ratio = Speed ratio

Calculation:

Given, time to row upstream = 2 × time to row downstream

⇒ (18 - x) = (1/2) × (18 + x)

⇒ 2(18 - x) = 18 + x

⇒ 36 - 2x = 18 + x

⇒ 36 - 18 = 3x

⇒ 18 = 3x

⇒ x = 6

∴ The rate of the stream is 6 km/h.

Question 59

The curved surface area of a cone is 2200 cm2 and its radius is 25 cm, what is the slant height (in cm) of the cone?

(Use π=227\pi=\frac{22}{7})

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    28

  4. DOption (d)

    23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

28

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Curved surface area of a cone (CSA) = 2200 cm2

Radius (r) = 25 cm

Use π = 22/7

Concept:

The formula for the curved surface area of a cone is:

CSA = π × r × l

where l is the slant height.

Calculation:

We have:

⇒ 2200 = (22/7) × 25 × l

⇒ l = 2200 × (7/22) × (1/25)

⇒ l = 4 × 7

⇒ l = 28

∴ The slant height (l) of the cone is 28 cm.

Question 60

Following Pie chart presents monthly expenditure by Sushma and Preeti in different heads. Sushma and Preeti make equal expenditure every month.

 

What is the difference between the expenditure (in Rs.) done on Food by Sushma and Preeti?

  1. AOption (a)

    1000

  2. BOption (b)

    500

  3. COption (c)

    1500

  4. DOption (d)

    750

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1500

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Sushma Expenditure = 6000

Total expenditure of Sushma = 6000 + 7200 + 2500 + 7500 + 1800 + 5000

⇒ 30000

According to the question, 

Preeti expenditure in food = 15%

⇒ 30000 × 15/100

⇒ 4500

∴ The difference between the expenditure (in Rs.) done on Food by Sushma and Preeti is 6000 - 4500 = 1500.

Question 61

In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs. 60 and Rs. 75 per kg, respectively, so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 65 per kg?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 ∶ 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 ∶ 1

  3. COption (c)

    3 ∶ 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 ∶ 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 ∶ 1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost of first variety of pulses = Rs. 60 per kg

Cost of second variety of pulses = Rs. 75 per kg

Cost of the mixture = Rs. 65 per kg

Concept:

To find the ratio in which two varieties should be mixed to get a mixture of a given price, we use the rule of alligation.

Formula Used:

If two ingredients are mixed, their ratio is given by:

Ratio = (Price of second ingredient - Price of mixture) : (Price of mixture - Price of first ingredient)

Calculation:

We have,

⇒ Price of first variety = Rs. 60 per kg

⇒ Price of second variety = Rs. 75 per kg

⇒ Price of mixture = Rs. 65 per kg

⇒ Ratio = (75 - 65) : (65 - 60)

⇒ Ratio = 10 : 5

⇒ Ratio = 2 : 1

∴ The grocer must mix the pulses in the ratio 2:1.

Question 62

The radius of a roller is 49 cm and its length is 200 cm . It takes 700 complete revolutions to move once over to level a playground. Find the area of the playground.

(Use π=227\pi=\frac{22}{7}.)

  1. AOption (a)

    4322 × 104 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    4312 × 104 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    4312 × 102 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    4312 × 103 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4312 × 104 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of roller (r) = 49 cm

Length of roller (h) = 200 cm

Number of revolutions (n) = 700

Use π = 22/7

Concept:

The area covered by the roller in one revolution is the lateral surface area of the cylinder.

Formula Used:

Lateral Surface Area of Cylinder = 2πrh

Total Area = Lateral Surface Area × Number of Revolutions

Calculation:

We have,

⇒ r = 49 cm, h = 200 cm, π = 22/7

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 2 × (22/7) × 49 × 200

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 2 × 22 × 49 × 200 / 7

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 2 × 22 × 7 × 200

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 2 × 22 × 1400

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 61600 cm²

⇒ Total Area = 61600 × 700

⇒ Total Area = 43120000 cm²

∴ The area of the playground is 4312 × 104 cm².

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 63

P pays Q a sum of Rs. 150 using coins of Rs. 2, Rs. 5 and Rs. 10. He uses a total of 50 coins. If the ratio of Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 coins used is 5 : 2, then how many coins of Rs. 10 are used in the payment?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sum = Rs. 150

Total coins = 50

Ratio of Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 coins = 5 : 2

Concept:

We need to find the number of Rs. 10 coins used. Let the number of Rs. 2 coins be 5x and Rs. 5 coins be 2x, where x is a common factor.

Calculation:

Total coins equation:

⇒ 5x + 2x + Number of Rs. 10 coins = 50

⇒ 7x + Number of Rs. 10 coins = 50     ...(1)

Total amount equation:

⇒ 2(5x) + 5(2x) + 10(Number of Rs. 10 coins) = 150

⇒ 10x + 10x + 10(Number of Rs. 10 coins) = 150

⇒ 20x + 10(Number of Rs. 10 coins) = 150     ...(2)

Solving equation (1):

⇒ Number of Rs. 10 coins = 50 - 7x

Substitute into equation (2):

⇒ 20x + 10(50 - 7x) = 150

⇒ 20x + 500 - 70x = 150

⇒ -50x + 500 = 150

⇒ -50x = 150 - 500

⇒ -50x = -350

⇒ x = 7

Now, find the Number of Rs. 10 coins:

⇒ Number of Rs. 10 coins = 50 - 7x

⇒ Number of Rs. 10 coins = 50 - 7(7)

⇒ Number of Rs. 10 coins = 50 - 49

⇒ Number of Rs. 10 coins = 1

∴ The correct answer is option 1

Question 64

If the selling price of 100 pens is equal to the cost price of 140 pens, find the profit percentage.

  1. AOption (a)

    45%

  2. BOption (b)

    36%

  3. COption (c)

    40%

  4. DOption (d)

    30%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Selling price of 100 pens = Cost price of 140 pens

Concept:

To find the profit percentage, we need to determine the cost price (CP) and selling price (SP) for one pen and then use the profit percentage formula.

Formula Used:

Profit Percentage = ((SP - CP) / CP) × 100%

Calculation:

Let the cost price of one pen be CP.

Then, the cost price of 140 pens = 140 × CP

Given that the selling price of 100 pens is equal to the cost price of 140 pens,

⇒ Selling price of 100 pens = 140 × CP

⇒ Selling price of one pen = (140 × CP) / 100

⇒ Selling price of one pen = 1.4 × CP

Now, we calculate the profit percentage:

⇒ Profit Percentage = ((1.4 × CP - CP) / CP) × 100%

⇒ Profit Percentage = (0.4 × CP / CP) × 100%

⇒ Profit Percentage = 0.4 × 100%

⇒ Profit Percentage = 40%

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Question 65

If the price of an article is raised by 35%, by how much per cent must a householder reduce his consumption of that article, so as not to increase his expenditure?

  1. AOption (a)

    252227%25 \frac{22}{27} \%

  2. BOption (b)

    252527%25 \frac{25}{27} \%

  3. COption (c)

    252427%25 \frac{24}{27} \%

  4. DOption (d)

    252327%25 \frac{23}{27} \%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

252527%25 \frac{25}{27} \%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The price of an article is raised by 35%.

Concept Used:

To maintain the same expenditure when the price increases, the consumption must decrease proportionally. This can be calculated using the formula for percentage decrease.

Formula Used:

Percentage decrease in consumption = (Percentage increase in price) / (100 + Percentage increase in price) × 100

Calculation:

We have,

Percentage increase in price = 35%

⇒ Percentage decrease in consumption = (35 / (100 + 35)) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in consumption = (35 / 135) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in consumption = (7 / 27) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in consumption = 25 (25/27)%

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 66

The given pie-charts show the distribution of Graduate and Post-graduate level students in five different colleges A, B, C, D and E.

             

What is the ratio between the number of students studying at Post-Graduate and Graduate levels, respectively, from college E?

  1. AOption (a)

    44 ∶ 45

  2. BOption (b)

    48 ∶ 37

  3. COption (c)

    32 ∶ 43

  4. DOption (d)

    16 ∶ 17  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

44 ∶ 45

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

According to the question, 

16800 × 22/100 : 18900 × 20/100

⇒ 88 : 90

⇒ 44 : 45

∴ The ratio between the number of students studying at Post-Graduate and Graduate levels, respectively, from college E is 44 : 45.

Question 67

In a triangle ABC, AB = 6 units, BC = 8 units and AC = 10 units. Let M be a point on AC such that BM = 5 units. With a point D , a triangle BMD is formed and the triangle BMD is similar to the triangle ABC with BMAB=BDAC\rm \frac{{BM}}{{AB}}=\frac{{BD}}{{AC}}. What is the length of BD in units?

  1. AOption (a)

    253\frac{25}{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    353\frac{35}{3}

  3. COption (c)

    103\frac{10}{3}

  4. DOption (d)

    403\frac{40}{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

253\frac{25}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

AB = 6 units, BC = 8 units, AC = 10 units, BM = 5 units

BM/AB = BD/AC

Calculation:

We have,

BM/AB = BD/AC

⇒ 5/6 = BD/10

⇒ BD = (10 × 5)/6

⇒ BD = 50/6 = 25/3 units

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 68

Find the circumference of a circle whose area is 154 m2.

  1. AOption (a)

    44 m

  2. BOption (b)

    29.5 m

  3. COption (c)

    39 m

  4. DOption (d)

    52 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

44 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Area of the circle (A) = 154 m2

Concept:

The circumference of a circle is given by the formula C = 2πr.

Formula Used:

Area of the circle: A = πr2

Circumference of the circle: C = 2πr

Calculation:

We have,

⇒ A = 154 m2

⇒ πr2 = 154

⇒ r2 = 154 / π

Using π ≈ 22/7,

⇒ r2 = 154 × 7 / 22

⇒ r2 = 49

⇒ r = √49

⇒ r = 7 m

Now, using the radius to find the circumference:

⇒ C = 2πr

⇒ C = 2 × 22/7 × 7

⇒ C = 44 m

∴ The circumference of the circle is 44 m.

Question 69

If the radii of two circles are 6 cm and 3 cm and the length of the transverse common tangent is 8 cm, then the distance between the two circles is:

  1. AOption (a)

    143\sqrt{143}

  2. BOption (b)

    147 \sqrt{147}

  3. COption (c)

    145\sqrt{145}

  4. DOption (d)

    141\sqrt{141}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

145\sqrt{145}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

If the radii of two circles are 6 cm and 3 cm and the length of the transverse common tangent is 8 cm

Formula Used:

Length of transversal common tangent = √{(Distance between centres)2  –  (sum of radii)2}

Solution:

According to the question, 

8 = √(d2 - (6 + 3)2

⇒ d2 = 64 + 81 

⇒ d = √145 

∴ The distance between the two circles is √145 cm.

Question 70

In an isosceles triangle, the angle between equal sides is 40°. The bisectors of the other two angles will intersect each other at an angle of:

  1. AOption (a)

    100°

  2. BOption (b)

    120°

  3. COption (c)

    110°

  4. DOption (d)

    105°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

110°

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In an isosceles triangle, the angle between equal sides is 40º.

Concept Used:

The angle bisectors of a triangle intersect at the incenter, and the angle between the bisectors of the base angles in an isosceles triangle can be found using the properties of angle bisectors and triangle angles.

Calculation:

We have an isosceles triangle with the angle between the equal sides as 40º.

Since the triangle is isosceles, the base angles are equal.

⇒ Let each base angle be θ.

Sum of angles in a triangle is 180º.

⇒ θ + θ + 40º = 180º

⇒ 2θ = 140º

⇒ θ = 70º

Now, we need to find the angle between the angle bisectors of the base angles.

Each base angle is bisected into two equal parts, so:

⇒ Each bisected angle = 70º / 2 = 35º

The angle between the bisectors of the base angles is:

⇒ 180º - (35º + 35º)

⇒ 180º - 70º

⇒ 110º

∴ The bisectors of the other two angles will intersect each other at an angle of 110º.

Question 71

A shopkeeper gives a 10% discount and still earns 10% profit. The marked price of the item is how many times (correct to 2 decimal places) the cost price?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.24

  2. BOption (b)

    1.22

  3. COption (c)

    1.28

  4. DOption (d)

    1.20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.22

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick 

MP/CP = (100 + profit%) / (100 - discount%)

⇒ MP/CP = (100 + 10) / (100 - 10)

⇒ MP/CP = 110/90 = 11/9

⇒ MP/CP = 1.22

⇒ MP = 1.22 CP

Thus, the marked price of the item is 1.22 times the cost price.

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Alternate Method

Given:

A shopkeeper gives a 10% discount and still earns a 10% profit. The marked price of the item is how many times (correct to 2 decimal places) the cost price?

Concept:

To find the relationship between the marked price (MP) and the cost price (CP), considering the discount and profit percentage.

Formula Used:

Discounted Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (1 - Discount %)

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 + Profit %)

Calculation:

Let CP = ₹100 (assuming for simplicity)

Given profit = 10%

⇒ SP = CP × (1 + 0.10) = 100 × 1.10 = ₹110

Given discount = 10%

⇒ SP = MP × (1 - 0.10) = MP × 0.90

Equating both SP equations:

⇒ MP × 0.90 = ₹110

⇒ MP = ₹110 / 0.90

⇒ MP = ₹122.22

Therefore, the marked price (MP) is how many times the cost price (CP):

⇒ MP / CP = ₹122.22 / ₹100

⇒ MP / CP = 1.22

∴ The correct answer is option 2 (1.22).

Question 72

If A ∶ B = 3 ∶ 7 and B ∶ C = 2 ∶ 5, find A ∶ B ∶ C.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 ∶ 3 ∶ 4

  2. BOption (b)

    6 ∶ 14 ∶ 35

  3. COption (c)

    4 ∶ 10 ∶ 3

  4. DOption (d)

    4 ∶ 3 ∶ 10  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6 ∶ 14 ∶ 35

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A ∶ B = 3 ∶ 7 and B ∶ C = 2 ∶ 5

Concept:

To find the combined ratio A ∶ B ∶ C, we need to make the B values in both ratios equal.

Calculation:

We have,

A ∶ B = 3 ∶ 7

B ∶ C = 2 ∶ 5

First, find the common multiple of B in both ratios.

⇒ LCM of 7 and 2 is 14

Adjust the ratios to have the same B value:

⇒ A ∶ B = 3 × 2 ∶ 7 × 2 = 6 ∶ 14

⇒ B ∶ C = 2 × 7 ∶ 5 × 7 = 14 ∶ 35

Now, combine the ratios:

⇒ A ∶ B ∶ C = 6 ∶ 14 ∶ 35

∴ The correct answer is option 2 (6 ∶ 14 ∶ 35).

Question 73

If 1234567y is divisible by 11, then what is the value of y?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

If 1234567y is divisible by 11, then what is the value of y?

Concept:

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits in the odd positions and the sum of the digits in the even positions is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Calculation:

We have the number 1234567y.

Sum of the digits in odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th):

⇒ 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 = 16

Sum of the digits in even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th):

⇒ 2 + 4 + 6 + y = 12 + y

For the number to be divisible by 11:

⇒ (Sum of odd positions) - (Sum of even positions) = 0 or multiple of 11

⇒ 16 - (12 + y) = 0 or multiple of 11

⇒ 16 - 12 - y = 0 or multiple of 11

⇒ 4 - y = 0 or multiple of 11

⇒ y = 4 (since 4 is within the range 0-9 for a single digit)

∴ The value of y is 4.

Question 74

If cot A = 7, then the value of 5cos⁡A+4sin⁡Acos⁡3A+7sin⁡3A+6sin⁡A\frac{5 \cos A+4 \sin A}{\cos ^3 A+7 \sin ^3 A+6 \sin A} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Divide the numerator and denominator by sin3 A to express the expression in terms of cot A.

Numerator becomes: (5 cos A + 4 sin A) ÷ sin3 A = 5 cot A cosec2 A + 4 cosec2 A = (5 cot A + 4) (1 + cot2 A).

Denominator becomes: (cos3 A + 7 sin3 A + 6 sin A) ÷ sin3 A = cot3 A + 7 + 6 cosec2 A = cot3 A + 7 + 6(1 + cot2 A).

Substitute cot A = 7: Numerator = (5×7 + 4)(1 + 49) = 39 × 50 = 1950. Denominator = 343 + 7 + 6(50) = 350 + 300 = 650. Result = 1950 ÷ 650 = 3.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Alternate Method

Given: cot A = 7 ⇒ cos A / sin A = 7 ⇒ cos A = 7 sin A.

Substitute cos A = 7 sin A into the given expression:

⇒ Expression = [5(7 sin A) + 4 sin A] ÷ [(7 sin A)3 + 7 sin3 A + 6 sin A]

⇒ Expression = [35 sin A + 4 sin A] ÷ [343 sin3 A + 7 sin3 A + 6 sin A]

⇒ Expression = [39 sin A] ÷ [350 sin3 A + 6 sin A]

⇒ Expression = [39 sin A] ÷ [sin A (350 sin2 A + 6)]

⇒ Expression = 39 ÷ (350 sin2 A + 6)

Since cot A = 7, then cosec2 A = 1 + cot2 A = 1 + 49 = 50. ⇒ sin2 A = 1/50.

⇒ Expression = 39 ÷ [350 × (1/50) + 6]

⇒ Expression = 39 ÷ [7 + 6] = 39 ÷ 13

⇒ Expression = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identities

Fundamental relations: sin2 A + cos2 A = 1, 1 + tan2 A = sec2 A, and 1 + cot2 A = cosec2 A.

Ratio Conversion

To convert an expression containing sin and cos into tan or cot, divide the terms by cosn A or sinn A respectively where n is the highest power.

Reciprocal Relations

sin A = 1/cosec A, cos A = 1/sec A, and tan A = 1/cot A.

Question 75

A and B can do a piece of work in 9 days and 15 days, respectively. If they work together, then the work will be completed in: 

  1. AOption (a)

    2182 \frac{1}{8} days

  2. BOption (b)

    3383 \frac{3}{8} days

  3. COption (c)

    5585 \frac{5}{8} days

  4. DOption (d)

    4584 \frac{5}{8} days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5585 \frac{5}{8} days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A and B can do a piece of work in 9 days and 15 days

Solution:

A can do piece of work in 9 days

B can do piece of work in 15 days

Total Work = LCM of (9 and 15) = 45

Efficiency of A = 45/9 = 5

Efficiency of B = 45/15 = 3

The work will be = 45/(3 + 5)

⇒ ​​5(5/8) days​​

∴ The work will be completed in 5(5/8) Days.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

In field hockey, ________ occurs when a player pushes the ball and raises it off the ground.

  1. AOption (a)

    bully

  2. BOption (b)

    flick

  3. COption (c)

    slap

  4. DOption (d)

    centre pass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

flick

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is flick

Key Points

  • A flick occurs when a player pushes the ball and raises it off the ground in field hockey.
  • This technique is often used to lift the ball over an opponent's stick or to make an aerial pass.
  • It requires precise control and timing to execute effectively.
  • Flicks are also used in penalty corners to shoot at the goal.

Additional Information

  • The bully is a method used to restart play, similar to a face-off in ice hockey.
  • A slap involves hitting the ball with a slapping motion, keeping it close to the ground.
  • A centre pass is used to start or restart the game from the center of the field.
  • Field hockey is a game played between two teams of eleven players, using sticks to hit a ball into the opponent's goal.

Question 77

Who is the author of Natyashastra?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prabhupada

  2. BOption (b)

    Patanjali

  3. COption (c)

    Panini

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharatmuni

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bharatmuni

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatmuni

Key Points

  • Bharatmuni is traditionally considered the author of the ancient Indian treatise on performing arts called the Natyashastra.
  • The Natyashastra is a comprehensive text on ancient Indian dramaturgy, covering theatre, dance, and music.
  • It is believed to have been written between 200 BCE and 200 CE.
  • This work is highly influential and forms the foundation of Indian classical arts.
  • The treatise is divided into 36 chapters, and it provides detailed instructions on various aspects of performance, including stage design, music, dance, makeup, and the role of actors.

Additional Information

  • Bharatmuni is often referred to as the father of Indian theatrical arts.
  • The Natyashastra has had a significant impact on various classical dance forms in India, such as Bharatanatyam, Kathak, and Odissi.
  • The text also delves into the theory of Rasa, which is the emotional experience evoked in the audience by the performance.
  • The Natyashastra remains a critical reference for scholars and practitioners of Indian classical arts to this day.

Question 78

 What is the name of the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats?

  1. AOption (a)

    Khasi

  2. BOption (b)

    Anamudi

  3. COption (c)

    Kangchenjunga

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahendragiri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mahendragiri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mahendragiri

Key Points

  • Mahendragiri is the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats.
  • It is located in the state of Odisha.
  • The peak rises to an elevation of 1,501 meters (4,925 feet) above sea level.
  • Mahendragiri is a part of the Mahendragiri Hill Range.
  • The hill is known for its mythological significance and is mentioned in the Ramayana and Mahabharata.

Additional Information

  • The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern coast.
  • They run from the state of West Bengal in the north, through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu to the southern tip of India.
  • The Eastern Ghats are older than the Western Ghats and are characterized by eroded and broken hills.
  • They are home to a rich variety of flora and fauna, including several endemic species.
  • Conservation efforts are ongoing to protect the unique biodiversity of the Eastern Ghats.

Question 79

The method of separating a mixture of soluble solids by dissolving them in a suitable hot solvent and then lowering the temperature slowly is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    sublimation

  2. BOption (b)

    fractional crystallisation

  3. COption (c)

    azeotropic distillation

  4. DOption (d)

    dephlegmation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

fractional crystallisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is fractional crystallisation

Key Points

  • Fractional crystallisation is a method of separating a mixture of soluble solids.
  • This process involves dissolving the mixture in a suitable hot solvent.
  • The temperature is then slowly lowered, which causes the different components to crystallise at different temperatures.
  • This method is used to purify substances and separate components based on their solubility.

Additional Information

  • Sublimation is a process where a solid changes directly into a gas without going through a liquid phase.
  • Azeotropic distillation is used to separate components of a mixture by distillation, involving an azeotrope.
  • Dephlegmation is a process used in the distillation of mixtures to separate components with close boiling points.

Question 80

The Indian festival of Holi comes every year in the season of:

  1. AOption (a)

    autumn

  2. BOption (b)

    spring

  3. COption (c)

    winter

  4. DOption (d)

    summer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

spring

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is spring

Key Points

  • The Indian festival of Holi is celebrated every year in the season of spring.
  • Holi, also known as the "Festival of Colors," marks the arrival of spring and the end of winter.
  • It is celebrated with great enthusiasm across India and involves the throwing of colored powders and water.
  • The festival signifies the victory of good over evil and is associated with various legends, including the story of Prahlad and Holika.
  • Holi typically falls in the month of March, which corresponds to the spring season in India.

Additional Information

  • Holi is celebrated on the full moon day (Purnima) in the month of Phalguna in the Hindu calendar.
  • The festival is also a time for repairing broken relationships and forgiving past grievances.
  • Traditional foods and sweets, such as gujiya and thandai, are prepared and enjoyed during Holi.
  • In some parts of India, Holi celebrations can last for several days, featuring various cultural events, music, and dance.
  • Holi is not only celebrated in India but also in many other countries with significant Indian populations.

Question 81

How is the structure of health infrastructure and health care system in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two-tier system

  2. BOption (b)

    Four-tier system

  3. COption (c)

    Five-tier system

  4. DOption (d)

    Three-tier system

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Three-tier system

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Three-tier system

Key Points

  • The health infrastructure and health care system in India is organized in a three-tier system.
  • This system comprises the primary, secondary, and tertiary levels of care.
  • Primary level includes sub-centers and primary health centers (PHCs) which are the first point of contact for the community.
  • Secondary level includes community health centers (CHCs) and district hospitals that provide more specialized care.
  • Tertiary level includes medical colleges and specialized hospitals which offer advanced medical services and treatments.

Additional Information

  • India's health care system is governed by both the central and state governments, with public and private sectors playing significant roles.
  • The central government is responsible for formulating national health policies and providing technical and financial support to the states.
  • State governments are primarily responsible for the delivery of health services and implementation of health programs.
  • The National Health Mission (NHM) aims to strengthen the health system, particularly in rural and underserved areas.
  • India's health care system faces challenges such as resource constraints, unequal access to services, and the need for improved infrastructure and workforce.

Question 82

In which year did Indian archers participate in the Olympics for the first time?

  1. AOption (a)

    1988

  2. BOption (b)

    1975

  3. COption (c)

    1973

  4. DOption (d)

    1980

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1988

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1988

Key Points

  • Indian archers participated in the Olympics for the first time in the year 1988.
  • The 1988 Summer Olympics were held in Seoul, South Korea.
  • This marked the debut of Indian archery in the Olympic Games.
  • Since then, Indian archers have been regular participants in subsequent Olympic Games.

Additional Information

  • Archery was reintroduced to the Olympics in 1972 after a long hiatus since 1920.
  • The Archery Association of India (AAI) was established in 1973 and has been instrumental in promoting the sport in India.
  • India has made significant progress in archery over the years, with several archers achieving international recognition.
  • Olympic participation has been a crucial platform for Indian archers to showcase their talent on a global stage.

Question 83

As compared to monopolistic competition, the demand curve in a monopoly is:

  1. AOption (a)

    equally elastic

  2. BOption (b)

    less elastic

  3. COption (c)

    infinitely elastic

  4. DOption (d)

    more elastic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

less elastic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is less elastic

Key Points

  • In a monopoly, the demand curve is less elastic as compared to monopolistic competition.
  • This is because a monopolist is the sole provider of a good or service, and thus faces the entire market demand curve.
  • Monopolistic competition, on the other hand, involves many firms selling differentiated products, leading to more elastic demand curves for individual firms.
  • Elasticity of demand in monopolistic competition is higher due to the availability of close substitutes, which is not the case in a monopoly.

Additional Information

  • Monopoly refers to a market structure where a single firm controls the entire market for a product or service.
  • In a monopoly, the firm has significant control over the price, as there are no close substitutes available.
  • Monopolistic competition is a type of imperfect competition where many producers sell products that are differentiated from one another.
  • Examples of monopolistic competition include industries like restaurants, clothing brands, and consumer electronics.
  • The demand curve in monopolistic competition is more elastic due to the differentiation and availability of alternative products.

Question 84

In 2022, the National Green Tribunal advised which of the following Ministries to form a three-member panel to formulate safeguards and guidelines to be followed by the State Environment Impact Assessment Authorities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Home Affairs

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Law and Justice

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Key Points

  • In 2022, the National Green Tribunal advised the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to form a three-member panel.
  • This panel was tasked with formulating safeguards and guidelines to be followed by the State Environment Impact Assessment Authorities.
  • The initiative aimed to ensure that environmental assessments and clearances are conducted with greater rigor and transparency.

Additional Information

  • The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010) for expeditious disposal of cases pertaining to environmental issues.
  • The NGT aims to protect the environment, conserve forests, and other natural resources while ensuring the enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment.
  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal agency in the administrative structure of the Central Government for planning, promotion, coordination, and overseeing the implementation of India's environmental and forestry policies and programs.

Question 85

Which country do the ‘Veddas’ traditional forest dwellers who foraged, hunted and lived in close-knit groups in caves in the dense jungles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhutan

  2. BOption (b)

    Sri Lanka

  3. COption (c)

    Myanmar

  4. DOption (d)

    Nepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sri Lanka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sri Lanka

Key Points

  • The Veddas are the indigenous people of Sri Lanka, known for their traditional lifestyle of foraging, hunting, and living in close-knit groups.
  • They have historically resided in the dense jungles and caves of Sri Lanka, maintaining a distinct culture and way of life.
  • Despite modernization, some Veddas still practice their traditional customs and live in forested areas, preserving their heritage.
  • The Veddas are considered one of the oldest indigenous communities in Sri Lanka, with a history that dates back thousands of years.

Additional Information

  • The Veddas speak a distinct language known as Vedda, which is different from the Sinhala and Tamil languages spoken by the majority of Sri Lankans.
  • They have a rich cultural heritage, including unique rituals, dances, and folklore that are integral to their identity.
  • In recent years, there have been efforts to protect and promote Vedda culture and rights, as they face challenges from deforestation and modern encroachment.
  • The Sri Lankan government and various organizations are working to ensure the preservation of Vedda culture and their traditional way of life.

Question 86

What is the circumference of the International Football Association Board (IFAB) approved football?

  1. AOption (a)

    80 - 82 cms

  2. BOption (b)

    70 - 72 cms

  3. COption (c)

    68 - 70 cms

  4. DOption (d)

    78 - 80 cms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

68 - 70 cms

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 68 - 70 cms

Key Points

  • The circumference of the International Football Association Board (IFAB) approved football is 68 - 70 cms.
  • This standard ensures uniformity in the size of footballs used in official matches across the world.
  • The size regulation helps maintain consistency in gameplay and player performance.
  • These measurements are stipulated to ensure that the footballs are neither too large nor too small, which could affect the quality of the game.

Additional Information

  • The International Football Association Board (IFAB) is the body that determines the laws of the game of association football.
  • IFAB was founded in 1886 and consists of representatives from the football associations of England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland, as well as FIFA.
  • The laws set by IFAB are used worldwide and are designed to ensure fair play and the safety of players.
  • In addition to the circumference, IFAB also regulates other football specifications such as weight and pressure.

Question 87

Which group of animals has a segmented spinal column together with a few primitive forms in which the backbone is represented by a notochord?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vertebrata

  2. BOption (b)

    Echinodermata

  3. COption (c)

    Mollusca

  4. DOption (d)

    Arthropoda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vertebrata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vertebrata

Key Points

  • Vertebrata is the group of animals that have a segmented spinal column.
  • This group includes not only advanced organisms with a developed backbone but also some primitive forms in which the backbone is represented by a notochord.
  • The notochord is a flexible rod-like structure that forms the main support of the body in these primitive organisms.
  • Examples of vertebrates include mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fish.
  • The presence of a segmented spinal column is a key characteristic that differentiates vertebrates from other animal groups.

Additional Information

  • Vertebrates are part of the phylum Chordata, which is characterized by the presence of a notochord at some stage of development.
  • The notochord is replaced by the vertebral column in most adult vertebrates, providing more structural support and protection for the spinal cord.
  • Other distinguishing features of vertebrates include a well-developed brain, a closed circulatory system, and an endoskeleton made of bone or cartilage.
  • The evolutionary development of the vertebral column has allowed vertebrates to become highly adaptable and occupy a wide range of ecological niches.
  • Vertebrates are the most complex and diverse group of animals, with over 66,000 species described to date.

Question 88

How might ICT enhance the openness of e-land records?

  1. AOption (a)

    Enabling quick search and retrieval of land records

  2. BOption (b)

    Reducing the need for land surveys and assessments

  3. COption (c)

    Facilitating manual record updates and amendments

  4. DOption (d)

    Enforcing strict regulations on land transactions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Enabling quick search and retrieval of land records

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Enabling quick search and retrieval of land records

Key Points

  • Enabling quick search and retrieval of land records is one of the primary ways ICT can enhance the openness of e-land records.
  • ICT facilitates the digitization and online availability of land records, making it easier for stakeholders to access information efficiently.
  • With digital records, transparency is increased as the data is less prone to tampering and unauthorized alterations.
  • ICT systems can provide real-time updates and tracking of land records, reducing delays and increasing the reliability of information.

Additional Information

  • ICT stands for Information and Communication Technology, which encompasses various digital tools and systems used to manage, process, and share information.
  • Implementation of ICT in land records management can significantly reduce administrative costs and human errors.
  • By improving access to land records, ICT can help in resolving disputes and enhancing land tenure security.
  • ICT-driven platforms often include features like GIS mapping, which provides visual representation and spatial analysis of land data.
  • Electronic land records can also facilitate better planning and development by providing accurate and up-to-date information to policymakers.

Question 89

Which of the following is NOT associated with the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?

  1. AOption (a)

    A system of licenses for the private sector was introduced.

  2. BOption (b)

    It classified industries into three categories.

  3. COption (c)

    It formed the basis of the Third Five Year Plan.

  4. DOption (d)

    Regional equality was promoted.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It formed the basis of the Third Five Year Plan.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It formed the basis of the Third Five Year Plan.

Key Points

  • The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 did not form the basis of the Third Five Year Plan. The Third Five Year Plan was introduced in 1961 and had different objectives and goals.
  • The resolution did introduce a system of licenses for the private sector, classifying industries into three categories, and promoted regional equality.
  • The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 aimed at the establishment of a socialistic pattern of society where the state would play a dominant role in the industrial sector.
  • It laid the foundation for the development of public sector enterprises and sought to reduce regional imbalances.

Additional Information

  • The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was a significant policy document that shaped the industrial landscape of post-independence India.
  • It categorized industries into three schedules: Schedule A included industries exclusively under state control, Schedule B included industries where the state would play a dominant role, and Schedule C included all remaining industries.
  • The policy aimed to accelerate the rate of growth and industrialization, create more employment opportunities, and reduce income and wealth inequalities.
  • The policy also aimed at fostering the development of small-scale industries to promote balanced regional growth.

Question 90

Who is known as the ‘Father of Carnatic Music’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Purandara Dasa

  2. BOption (b)

    Vidyaranya

  3. COption (c)

    Thirunal Rama Varma

  4. DOption (d)

    Vishwanath Iyer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Purandara Dasa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Purandara Dasa

Key Points

  • Purandara Dasa is widely regarded as the 'Father of Carnatic Music'.
  • He was a renowned composer, vocalist, and a key figure in the development and structuring of Carnatic music, which is a classical music form of Southern India.
  • Purandara Dasa formulated the basic lessons for teaching Carnatic music, which are still followed today.
  • He composed thousands of devotional songs, known as 'Devaranamas', in praise of Lord Vishnu.
  • His contributions laid the foundation for the Carnatic music system, making it easier to learn and practice.

Additional Information

  • Purandara Dasa is believed to have lived between 1484 and 1564.
  • He is often referred to as the Karnataka Sangeetha Pitamaha (Grandfather of Carnatic Music).
  • His compositions are mostly in Kannada language, and they cover various aspects of devotion, ethics, and philosophy.
  • He is credited with structuring music lessons in a graded system which includes Sarale Varase, Janti Varase, Alankara, Lakshana Geethe, and so on.
  • Purandara Dasa's work has had a lasting impact on the Carnatic music tradition, influencing countless musicians and composers who followed him.

Question 91

Which folk music is based on the Mahabharata with Bhima portrayed as hero?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mando

  2. BOption (b)

    Pandavani

  3. COption (c)

    Dandiya

  4. DOption (d)

    Alha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pandavani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pandavani

Key Points

  • Pandavani is a folk music tradition of the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
  • This form of music narrates the tales of the Mahabharata, focusing primarily on the heroics of Bhima.
  • The performance usually involves a lead singer who is accompanied by musicians playing traditional instruments like the tambura and harmonium.
  • Pandavani is known for its dramatic storytelling style, where the performer often enacts the scenes while singing.

Additional Information

  • Mando is a form of Goan music that blends Indian and Western traditions.
  • Dandiya is a traditional folk dance of Gujarat, often performed during the Navratri festival.
  • Alha is a ballad tradition from the Bundelkhand region of India, narrating the heroic deeds of Alha and Udal.
  • Pandavani performances are an essential part of the cultural heritage of Chhattisgarh and are cherished for their rich narrative and musical tradition.

Question 92

Which of the following planets does NOT have a ring around it?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uranus

  2. BOption (b)

    Jupiter

  3. COption (c)

    Saturn

  4. DOption (d)

    Mercury

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mercury

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mercury

Key Points

  • Mercury is the planet that does NOT have a ring around it.
  • Among the given options, Uranus, Jupiter, and Saturn all have ring systems. Saturn's rings are the most prominent and well-known.
  • Mercury, being the closest planet to the Sun, does not possess any rings or moons.
  • The presence of rings is more common in the outer planets of our solar system.

Additional Information

  • Saturn is famous for its extensive and bright ring system, which can be seen from Earth with a small telescope.
  • Jupiter has faint rings composed mainly of dust particles from its moons and other debris.
  • Uranus has a complex ring system that was discovered in 1977, and it consists of 13 distinct rings.
  • Planetary rings are composed of dust, rock, and ice particles that orbit around the planet due to its gravitational pull.

Question 93

In his ‘Drain of Wealth’ argument, who among the following stated that Britain was completely draining India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dadabhai Naoroji

  2. BOption (b)

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  3. COption (c)

    Badruddin Tyabji

  4. DOption (d)

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dadabhai Naoroji

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji

Key Points

  • Dadabhai Naoroji was an Indian political leader, educator, and an early Indian nationalist who is credited with the 'Drain of Wealth' theory.
  • In his book, 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', Naoroji argued that a significant portion of India's wealth was being drained to Britain, causing widespread poverty in India.
  • His theory highlighted the economic exploitation of India under British rule and became a key point of criticism against colonial policies.
  • Naoroji's efforts were instrumental in raising awareness about the economic impact of British colonialism on India.

Additional Information

  • Dadabhai Naoroji was also known as the 'Grand Old Man of India' and was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress.
  • He was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament, where he advocated for Indian self-rule and economic reforms.
  • His work laid the foundation for subsequent economic theories and nationalist movements in India.
  • Naoroji's contributions were crucial in shaping the early phase of the Indian independence struggle.

Question 94

________ was sworn in as Central Vigilance Commissioner on 29 May 2023.

  1. AOption (a)

    Praveen Kumar Srivastava

  2. BOption (b)

    Arti C Srivastava

  3. COption (c)

    Sarvan Kumar

  4. DOption (d)

    Uday Veer Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Key Points

  • Praveen Kumar Srivastava was sworn in as Central Vigilance Commissioner on 29 May 2023.
  • The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption.
  • It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, charged with monitoring all vigilance activities under the Central Government of India.
  • The CVC advises various authorities in central government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work.

Additional Information

  • The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam.
  • The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry or Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.
  • The tenure of the Central Vigilance Commissioner is four years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
  • The CVC can have a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners.

Question 95

Which of the following states launched the first Migration Monitoring System in the year 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Goa

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra

Key Points

  • Maharashtra launched the first Migration Monitoring System in the year 2022.
  • The system aims to track the movement of migrant workers and ensure their welfare.
  • It is designed to collect data on various parameters including the health, education, and employment status of migrant workers.
  • The data collected will help the state government in formulating policies and programs tailored to the needs of migrant workers.
  • This initiative reflects Maharashtra's proactive approach towards addressing the challenges faced by migrant workers and ensuring their well-being.

Additional Information

  • Maharashtra is one of the most industrialized states in India and has a significant population of migrant workers.
  • The state government has been focusing on various initiatives to improve the living conditions and provide better opportunities for migrant workers.
  • The Migration Monitoring System is part of a broader strategy to integrate migrant workers into the state's socio-economic framework.
  • The system is expected to serve as a model for other states to follow in addressing the issues related to migration and labor welfare.

Question 96

In MS Word, which option allows you to align text in a way that it appears vertically at the bottom of a cell or text box?

  1. AOption (a)

    Center Alignment

  2. BOption (b)

    Bottom Alignment

  3. COption (c)

    Justify Alignment

  4. DOption (d)

    Distributed Alignment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bottom Alignment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bottom Alignment

Key Points

  • Bottom Alignment allows you to align text in a way that it appears vertically at the bottom of a cell or text box in MS Word.
  • This option is particularly useful when you want the text to start from the bottom edge of the cell or text box, leaving space above it.
  • To apply this alignment, select the cell or text box, then go to the "Layout" or "Table Tools Layout" tab, and choose the "Bottom Align" option from the "Alignment" group.
  • Bottom Alignment is one of several vertical alignment options available in MS Word, which also includes Top Alignment and Center Alignment.

Additional Information

  • In addition to vertical alignment, MS Word also offers horizontal alignment options such as Left, Center, Right, and Justify Alignment.
  • These alignment options can be accessed from the "Home" tab in the "Paragraph" group or through the "Table Tools Layout" tab when working within a table.
  • Using these alignment tools effectively can enhance the readability and presentation of your document.
  • Remember that proper alignment is a key aspect of formatting that contributes to the overall aesthetic and clarity of your document.

Question 97

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India CANNOT be amended with simple majority?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    169

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

21

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21

Key Points

  • Article 21 of the Constitution of India cannot be amended with a simple majority.
  • Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty, stating that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
  • This article is a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution and requires a more rigorous process for amendment as outlined in Article 368.
  • Simple majority amendments are generally for non-fundamental aspects of the Constitution, whereas fundamental rights require a special majority and, in some cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

Additional Information

  • Articles 2 and 3 relate to the admission or establishment of new states and the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states, respectively. These can be amended with a simple majority.
  • Article 169 provides for the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in states and can also be amended with a simple majority.
  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • The Constitution lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • Amendments to the Constitution can be made through a process outlined in Article 368.

Question 98

Which amongst the following terms was used for the land given to Brahmins during the Chola empire?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brahmadeya

  2. BOption (b)

    Shalabhoga

  3. COption (c)

    Tirunmatukkani

  4. DOption (d)

    Vellanvagai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Brahmadeya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brahmadeya

Key Points

  • Brahmadeya was the term used for the land grants given to Brahmins during the Chola empire.
  • These grants were usually tax-free and were provided to Brahmins to encourage settlement and agricultural development.
  • The land grants were an important aspect of the Chola administrative and social system, reflecting the high status and respect accorded to Brahmins in society.
  • Brahmadeya lands were often associated with temples and played a crucial role in the spread of education and culture.
  • Other terms related to land classification in the Chola period include Shalabhoga (land for maintenance of schools), Tirunmatukkani (land gifted to temples), and Vellanvagai (land of non-Brahmin peasants).

Additional Information

  • The Chola dynasty was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in South Indian history, known for its contributions to art, architecture, and administration.
  • The Chola rulers implemented an efficient administrative system with a well-organized bureaucracy and local self-government in villages.
  • The Chola period is also noted for its remarkable achievements in temple architecture, with the Brihadeeswarar Temple being a prime example.
  • The Chola navy was a dominant maritime force, facilitating trade and cultural exchanges with Southeast Asia.

Question 99

Writ of Mandamus is a Fundamental Right classifiable under:

  1. AOption (a)

    cultural and educational rights

  2. BOption (b)

    the right to equality

  3. COption (c)

    constitutional remedies

  4. DOption (d)

    the right to freedom of religion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

constitutional remedies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is constitutional remedies

Key Points

  • Writ of Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a court to any government, subordinate court, corporation, or public authority to do some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do.
  • It is classified under constitutional remedies, which is a fundamental right provided under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 32 provides the right to individuals to move to the Supreme Court for enforcement of their fundamental rights.
  • The Writ of Mandamus can be issued to enforce the performance of public duties by public authorities and to ensure that they fulfill their legal obligations.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India provides for five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, and Certiorari.
  • These writs are a crucial part of the judicial review mechanism in India, ensuring the protection of citizens' rights against any arbitrary actions of the state.
  • The right to constitutional remedies is considered the heart and soul of the Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, as it is the protector and guarantor of all other fundamental rights.
  • Article 32 is also known as the "Right to Constitutional Remedies" and is a fundamental right that cannot be suspended, except in cases of emergency as declared by the President of India.

Question 100

Which language is known as ‘Italian of the East’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kannada

  2. BOption (b)

    Malayalam

  3. COption (c)

    Telugu

  4. DOption (d)

    Marathi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Telugu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Telugu

  • Telugu is often referred to as the 'Italian of the East'.
  • The phrase highlights the melodious and rhythmic quality of the Telugu language, which is reminiscent of the Italian language's musicality.
  • Telugu is a Dravidian language spoken predominantly in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
  • It is one of the twenty-two scheduled languages of the Republic of India and is also a classical language of India.
  • Telugu has a rich literary tradition and has produced many notable works in literature, poetry, and drama.
  • Kannada is another Dravidian language spoken predominantly in the state of Karnataka.
  • Malayalam is the principal language of the Indian state of Kerala and the union territories of Lakshadweep and Puducherry.
  • Marathi is an Indo-Aryan language spoken predominantly by people of Maharashtra.
  • Each of these languages has its own unique linguistic features and cultural significance.
  • The term 'Italian of the East' specifically refers to the lyrical and rhythmic qualities of the Telugu language.

100 questions in the full paper