SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 15 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the plural verb "were" with the singular subject "Neither."
• When "Neither" is used as the subject of a sentence, it is grammatically singular and requires a singular verb.
• The correct phrase should be "proposals was approved," ensuring proper subject-verb agreement.
• Thus, the error is located in part B (Option 2) of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Neither of the two proposals was approved because the committee found both of them to be unsatisfactory."

 

Additional Information

• A: "Neither of the two" – This part correctly sets up the choice between two specific items and serves as the singular subject.
• C: "because the committee found" – This part is grammatically correct; "committee" is a collective noun acting as a single unit here.
• D: "both of them to be unsatisfactory." – This part correctly uses "both" to refer back to the two proposals and is grammatically sound.
• Subject-Verb Agreement: Although "proposals" is plural, it is the object of the preposition "of," not the subject of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses the correlative conjunction "not only... but also," which is used to connect two balanced clauses or phrases.
• The inclusion of "and" in part C is redundant and grammatically incorrect because the "not only" in part B is already waiting to be paired with "but also" in part D.
• To maintain the correct correlative structure, the conjunction "and" should be removed or replaced to ensure the two parts of the pair correlate directly.
• Thus, the error is located in part C (Option 3) of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "He is not only intelligent hardworking, but also very kind." 

Additional Information

• Correlative Conjunctions: These are pairs like either... or, neither... nor, and not only... but also. They must connect grammatically similar elements (parallelism).
• A: "He is" – This is the subject and helping verb, which is correct.
• B: "not only intelligent" – This starts the correlative pair correctly.
• D: "but also very kind" – This completes the correlative pair correctly.
• Parallelism: When using "not only... but also," ensure that the words following each part of the conjunction are the same part of speech (in this case, adjectives: intelligent/hardworking and kind).

The correct answer is 'with'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "with" is used to indicate involvement or association in a particular activity or situation.
• The sentence describes the defendant’s involvement in colluding with foreign agents, making "with" the most appropriate choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the grammatical or contextual requirements of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The defendant was charged with colluding with foreign agents to influence the outcome of the election."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "of" is incorrect because "charged of" is not a valid construction in this context.
• Option 2: "for" is incorrect because "charged for" is used in the context of billing or monetary transactions, not accusations.
• Option 4: "about" is incorrect because it does not convey the required sense of involvement.

The correct answer is 'whereas'.

 

Key Points

• The conjunction "whereas" is used to show contrast between two clauses.
• In the given sentence, the two parts are contrasting: "He has a lot of potential" contrasts with "his lack of discipline may hinder his growth."
• Options 2, 3, 4, and 5 are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "He has a lot of potential, whereas his lack of discipline may hinder his growth."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "unless" is incorrect because it is used to introduce a condition, not a contrast.
• Option 3: "because" is incorrect as it introduces a reason, not a contrasting idea.
• Option 4: "albeit" is incorrect because it means "although" or "even though," and does not fit with the structure of the sentence.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The correctly spelled word is 'Anniversary'.

• Anniversary refers to the date on which an event took place in a previous year, typically a celebration of an important past event. (वार्षिकोत्सव)
• Let us analyze the given options:
• Option 1: Anniversary - Correctly spelled.
• Option 2: Aniversary - Incorrect, missing one 'n'.
• Option 3: Anniversarry - Incorrect, has an extra 'r'.
• Option 4: Annivessary - Incorrect, has 'e' instead of 'i'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Anniversary' (Option 1).

Additional Information

Examples of usage:

• They celebrated their 25th wedding anniversary with a grand party.
• The company marked its 10th anniversary with a special event for employees.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The correctly spelt word is 'Inimical'.

• **The word 'Inimical' means 'tending to obstruct or harm; unfriendly'. **(विरोधी/हानिकारक)
• It is an adjective and is used in contexts where hostility or harm is implied.
• For Example -
• His policies are inimical to the interests of the working class.
• The two countries have developed an inimical relationship due to repeated border disputes.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Inimical' (option 3).

Additional Information

Let's understand why the other options are incorrect -

• Option 1: Emenical - This is a misspelled word. No such word exists in the English language.
• Option 2: Enemical - This is incorrect as it doesn't match the correct spelling 'Inimical'.
• Option 4: Enimical - This is also misspelled. The correct spelling is 'Inimical'.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Everyone working together.

Key Points

• The phrase "All hands on the deck" means that everyone is required to work together or contribute to a task, especially in a situation of urgency or importance. (सभी को एक साथ मिलकर काम करना पड़ता है)
• Example: When the company was facing a critical deadline, it was all hands on the deck to complete the project on time.
• Correct Explanation: The idiom emphasizes teamwork and cooperation, especially in situations that demand collective effort. (टीमवर्क और सहयोग पर जोर देना, खासकर जब एक सामूहिक प्रयास की आवश्यकता हो)
• Example: The storm was approaching fast, so it was all hands on the deck to secure the ship.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Everyone working together.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Someone in charge of the deck (डेक का प्रभारी व्यक्ति): This is incorrect as the idiom does not refer to a single person but rather to collective teamwork.
• Example: The captain of the ship is responsible for the deck, but this does not align with the idiom's meaning.
• Option 3: A distraction on the deck (डेक पर ध्यान भटकाने वाला कुछ): This is incorrect as the idiom does not refer to a distraction but to a coordinated effort.
• Example: There was no distraction on the deck; instead, everyone was focused on the task.
• Option 4: A difficult task (एक कठिन कार्य): This is incorrect because the idiom doesn’t refer to the difficulty of the task but rather to the need for collective effort.
• Example: While it was a difficult task, all hands on the deck ensured it was completed successfully.

The correct answer is: Scarce.

Key Points

• The word "Profuse" means something that exists or is produced in large quantities; it refers to abundance or excess. (प्रचुर मात्रा में)
• Example: The garden was profuse with vibrant flowers blooming in every corner.
• "Scarce" refers to something that is insufficient, rare, or in short supply; it is the opposite of profuse. (दुर्लभ)
• Example: During the drought, water became scarce in the region.
• Hence, the antonym of "Profuse" is "Scarce".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Scarce.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Copious (प्रचुर): Existing in large quantity; abundant.
• Example: She took copious notes during the lecture to ensure she didn’t miss any details.
• Abundant (अधिक): Present in large amounts; more than enough.
• Example: The region is abundant in natural resources like coal and minerals.
• Plentiful (बहुतायत): Exceedingly large in quantity; available in plenty.
• Example: The harvest this year was plentiful due to good rainfall.

The correct answer is: Veterinarian.

Key Points

• The word "Veterinarian" refers to a person who is professionally trained to care for the health of animals, including diagnosing and treating their diseases and injuries. (पशु चिकित्सक)
• Example: The veterinarian prescribed a special diet to improve the dog's health.
• "Zoologist" is a scientist who studies animals and their behavior, but they do not necessarily treat animals medically. (प्राणी विज्ञानी)
• Example: The zoologist spent years studying the migration patterns of birds.
• Hence, the correct one-word substitute for a person trained to care for animals is "Veterinarian".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Veterinarian.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Zoologist (प्राणी विज्ञानी): A scientist who studies animals and their biology.
• Example: The zoologist observed the behavior of lions in their natural habitat.
• Biologist (जीव विज्ञानी): A scientist who studies living organisms, including plants, animals, and microorganisms.
• Example: The biologist is researching the impact of climate change on marine life.
• Ecologist (पारिस्थितिकी विज्ञानी): A scientist who studies the relationships between living organisms and their environment.
• Example: The ecologist is examining the effects of deforestation on local ecosystems.

The correct answer is: Blot.

Key Points

• The word "Blot" refers to a stain or mark caused by a discoloring substance. (दाग)
• Example: The ink spilled on the paper, leaving a large blot that ruined the document.
• It is often used to describe a stain that negatively impacts the cleanliness or appearance of something.
• "Blot" is the correct one-word substitute for the given statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Blot.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Smudge (धब्बा): A smear or streak caused by rubbing something wet or greasy.
• Example: She accidentally smudged the ink on her drawing while working on it.
• Mark (निशान): A visible impression or sign left on a surface.
• Example: The table had a mark where the hot cup had been placed.
• Spot (धब्बा): A small area or point differing in color or texture from its surroundings.
• Example: The leopard has distinctive spots on its fur.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'addres'.

• The correct spelling would be 'address'.
• The word 'address' is a noun or verb depending on its usage:
• As a noun: It refers to the particulars of the place where someone lives or an organization is situated. (पता)
• As a verb: It refers to the act of speaking to someone or dealing with something. (संबोधित करना)
• For Example -
• As a noun: The address on the envelope was incomplete.
• As a verb: The teacher addressed the concerns of her students.

Therefore, the correct answer would be option 2.

Additional Information

Let’s understand the meanings of the other sentences:

• Option 1: The sentence is correct as it uses the word 'address' in its proper form.
• Option 3: The phrase 'return address' is correctly spelled and used.
• Option 4: The sentence properly uses 'mailing address' with the correct spelling.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Active voice structure: The subject performs the action, whereas in the passive voice, the subject receives the action.
• The original sentence contains two passive constructions: "It was believed" (Passive reporting) and "had been stolen by a rival company" (Passive main clause).
• To convert "It was believed" to active, we need a general subject like "People" or "They" because the original agent is unspecified.
• To convert "had been stolen by a rival company" to active, the agent "a rival company" must become the subject of the verb "had stolen."
• Combining these changes results in: "People believed that a rival company had stolen the secret formula."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "People believed that a rival company had stolen the secret formula."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "A rival company believed that the secret formula had been stolen." – This changes the meaning; it suggests the rival company was the one believing the theft occurred.
• Option 3: "The secret formula was stolen by a rival company." – This is still in the passive voice and omits the "It was believed" context entirely.
• Option 4: "A rival company stole the secret formula, it was believed." – While the first part is active, "it was believed" remains a passive construction at the end.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Direct Speech: "The professor said, 'The study published last year proves that the hypothesis is false.'"
• Key Conversions:
• Tense Change (Backshifting):
• When the reporting verb is in the past tense ("said"), the verbs in the reported speech move one step back in time.
• The simple present "proves" changes to the simple past "proved."
• The simple present "is" changes to the simple past "was."
• Time Expression Change:
• Specific time markers change to reflect the shifted perspective.
• "last year" is converted to "the previous year" or "the year before."
• Conjunction:
• The comma and quotation marks are replaced by the conjunction "that" to introduce the reported statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The professor said that the study published the previous year proved that the hypothesis was false."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Fails to apply backshifting to the verbs ("proves," "is") and fails to change the time expression ("last year").
• Option 3: Correctly changes the time expression and the first verb but fails to change the second verb ("is" remains "is").
• Option 4: Correctly shifts both verbs to the past tense but incorrectly retains the time expression "last year" instead of changing it to "the previous year."

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The subject "a pair of jeans" is singular, and therefore, the verb "is" must agree with the singular subject.
• The correct choice is Option 1, where the singular verb "is" matches the subject.
• Option 2 ("it has already torn") is grammatically incorrect because "has torn" implies an action performed by the subject, which is not possible for jeans.
• Option 3 ("it was already torn") suggests the jeans were already torn at the time of purchase, which contradicts the intended meaning.
• Option 4 ("and which are already torn") is grammatically awkward and redundant.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "I bought a new pair of jeans and it is already torn."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "it has already torn" is incorrect because it implies an action performed by the jeans, which is not logical.
• Option 3: "it was already torn" is incorrect as it contradicts the idea of buying new jeans.
• Option 4: "and which are already torn" is incorrect due to redundancy and awkward phrasing.

The correct answer is 'in the last four overs'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "in the last four overs" is more suitable because it clearly indicates the time period that has just passed.
• The original phrase "in the past four overs" is grammatically correct but slightly less common in cricket terminology.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are either incorrect or do not fit the context appropriately.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The bowler took three wickets in the last four overs."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "in the next four overs" is incorrect because it refers to a future time frame, not the past.
• Option 3: "during the past four overs" is wordy and less concise than the correct option.
• Option 4: "in four overs" is vague and does not specify whether it refers to the past or future.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Identify the Tense: The active sentence "will be implementing" is in the Future Continuous Tense.
• Passive Structure for Future Continuous: The formula is Object + will be + being + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject.
• Step 1: Move the object "The new environmental regulations" to the beginning.
• Step 2: Change the verb "will be implementing" to "will be being implemented."
• Step 3: Add the agent "by the government" and the time phrase "next month."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The new environmental regulations will be being implemented by the government next month."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "will be implemented" – This is the Future Simple Passive. It misses the continuous "being" aspect.
• Option 3: "are being implemented" – This is the Present Continuous Passive, which changes the timeframe from future to present.
• Option 4: "will have been implemented" – This is the Future Perfect Passive, used for actions that will be completed by a certain point.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: "My friend told me that she had been thinking about quitting her job but that she had not made a final decision yet."
• Key Conversions:
• Tense Change (Forward-shifting):
• When converting from indirect to direct speech, we move the tenses forward.
• The past perfect continuous "had been thinking" shifts forward to the present perfect continuous "have been thinking."
• The past perfect "had not made" shifts forward to the present perfect "have not made."
• Pronoun Change:
• The third-person pronoun "she" and possessive "her" in indirect speech must change to the first-person "I" and "my" to reflect the original speaker's perspective.
• Reporting Verb:
• The reporting verb "told me" is typically converted back to "said to me" followed by a comma and quotation marks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "My friend said to me, 'I have been thinking about quitting my job, but I have not made a final decision yet.'"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrectly uses the past continuous ("I was thinking") for the first part of the sentence.
• Option 3: Keeps the verbs in the past perfect ("had been thinking," "had not made"), which would only be used in direct speech if the action had already been completed before another past event.
• Option 4: Uses the simple past ("did not make") for the second clause, which does not align with the duration/relevance implied by "yet" in this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• Option 2) a participial phrase modifying “reforms”
• This is the correct answer. The phrase begins with the past participle "aimed." It functions as an adjectival phrase directly describing the noun preceding it, "reforms." It tells us specifically what kind of institutional reforms are necessary—those that are aimed at amplifying female representation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (a misplaced modifier): Incorrect because it is placed perfectly adjacent to the noun it describes ("reforms"), meaning there is no grammatical ambiguity about what is being modified.
• Option 3 (an absolute phrase modifying the entire sentence): Incorrect because an absolute phrase typically features a noun or pronoun alongside a participle modifying the whole clause (e.g., "The reforms having passed, the board celebrated"), which doesn't fit the syntax here.
• Option 4 (an infinitive phrase modifying “necessity”): Incorrect because an infinitive phrase requires the word "to" followed by the base form of a verb (e.g., "to aim").

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• Tense Analysis: Present Tense
• The auxiliary (helping) verb used in the sentence is "is", which indicates that the action is occurring in the present tense. If it were past tense, the helping verb would be "was."
• Voice Analysis: Passive Voice
• In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence is the recipient of the action rather than the doer. Here, the subject "Their leadership" receives the action of being characterized.
• A passive voice construction requires a form of the "to be" verb paired with a past participle. The phrase "is characterized" follows this exact formula.
• Additionally, the use of the preposition "by" to introduce the actual agents of the action ("a collaborative approach, emotional intelligence, and resilience") is a classic indicator of a passive sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is passive voice, present tense.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (active voice, present tense): Incorrect because the subject is receiving the action, not performing it. An active equivalent would be: "A collaborative approach characterizes their leadership."
• Option 3 (active voice, past tense): Incorrect due to both voice (it is passive) and tense (it uses "is" instead of "was").
• Option 4 (passive voice, past tense): Incorrect because the auxiliary verb "is" places the sentence in the present tense. The past passive equivalent would be "was characterized."

The correct answer is: Option (2) i.e. Dominance or rise.

Key Points

• The word "ascendancy" means occupation of a position of dominant power or influence; a state of rising to power or becoming more dominating. (प्रभुत्व या प्रभाव)
• Example: The party's ascendancy in the political arena was remarkable.
• The closest synonym for 'ascendancy' is 'dominance or rise', which means having a commanding influence or coming into an increased level of power. (प्रभुत्व या उदय)
• Example: The company's rise to market dominance was swift and impressive.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dominance or rise.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Decline (पतन): A decrease in quality, quantity, or importance.
• Example: There has been a decline in sales over the past few months.
• Stagnation (स्थिरता): The state of not flowing or not moving.
• Example: The local economy showed signs of stagnation despite efforts for development.
• Separation (विच्छेद या अलगाव): The action or state of moving or being moved apart.
• Example: The separation of the two companies was completed in January.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Analyzing the words:
• Nuanced: This refers to something that has subtle distinctions, delicate variations, or complex layers of meaning. It is the opposite of something basic or simplistic.
• Reconfiguration: This means the act of rearranging, altering, or restructuring the layout or composition of something.
• When combined, a "nuanced reconfiguration" indicates a careful, detailed, and intricate process of changing how something is structured. Therefore, "a complex and subtle restructuring" is the precise meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is a complex and subtle restructuring.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2 (a simplistic rearrangement): Incorrect because "nuanced" implies complexity and subtle detail, which directly contradicts the idea of something being "simplistic."
• Option 3 (a chaotic disruption): Incorrect because a nuanced approach implies careful, deliberate attention to minor details rather than chaos or random disruption.
• Option 4 (an immediate reversal): Incorrect because "reconfiguration" means rearranging parts into a new form, not necessarily going backward or reversing, and "nuanced" does not relate to the speed (immediacy) of the action.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Analyzing the barriers for women in leadership:
• Although the specific passage is not provided, in standard reading comprehension texts addressing women in executive roles (like CEOs and CTOs), a commonly cited systemic barrier is unequal access to mentorship and networking opportunities.
• Women frequently face challenges in corporate environments due to exclusion from informal networks, "boys' clubs," and a lack of high-level sponsors or mentors, all of which are crucial for career advancement into C-suite positions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Unequal access to mentorship and networking opportunities.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Excessive technological knowledge): Incorrect because having profound technological knowledge is an asset, particularly for a CTO, rather than a barrier to success.
• Option 2 (Lack of emotional intelligence): Incorrect because this is a subjective trait rather than a systemic barrier, and emotional intelligence is increasingly recognized as a key strength in modern leadership.
• Option 4 (Overrepresentation in executive roles): Incorrect because women are historically underrepresented, not overrepresented, in top executive positions across most major industries.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph follows a chronological sequence of an online shopping experience, moving from item selection to final delivery anticipation.
• Sentence P is the first sentence as it initiates the narrative by identifying the object and the first action:
• "The perfect gift appeared on her screen, so she clicked to add it to her cart."
• Sentence Q follows as the next logical step in the e-commerce process, which is providing the necessary information for the purchase:
• "She typed in her address and credit card details, then checked out."
• Sentence R is the third sentence because it describes the finality of the digital transaction:
• "With a final click, her order was placed and confirmed."
• Sentence S is the fourth as it represents the aftermath of the action—the period of waiting after the order has been successfully processed:
• "Now she waits for the package to arrive at her doorstep."
• The correct sequence is PQRS.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The perfect gift appeared on her screen, so she clicked to add it to her cart. She typed in her address and credit card details, then checked out. With a final click, her order was placed and confirmed. Now she waits for the package to arrive at her doorstep."

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the progression of a person learning a musical instrument, moving from basic physical training to a final state of mastery.
• Sentence P is the first sentence as it establishes the foundation of the learning process—developing the physical dexterity required to play:
• "He developed his finger strength and dexterity by practicing his scales and chords daily."
• Sentence Q follows as the logical progression from basic exercises to more complex study and increasingly difficult music:
• "He studied sheet music for hours, learning to play tunes that got harder and harder."
• Sentence S is the third sentence because it represents the climax of his training—the moment he successfully demonstrates his skills in a high-pressure situation:
• "He played a challenging piece perfectly from memory while performing for his buddies."
• Sentence R is the fourth sentence as it provides the concluding statement, defining his new identity based on the journey described in the previous sentences:
• "He had mastered his new instrument and was now a musician."
• The correct sequence is PQSR.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"He developed his finger strength and dexterity by practicing his scales and chords daily. He studied sheet music for hours, learning to play tunes that got harder and harder. He played a challenging piece perfectly from memory while performing for his buddies. He had mastered his new instrument and was now a musician."

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "elicit, illicit".

Key Points

• The word "elicit" means to draw out a response, answer, or fact from someone, often with effort. (प्राप्त करना, खींचना)
• Example: The teacher tried to elicit answers from the students during the discussion.
• "Illicit" refers to something that is illegal, forbidden, or against the rules. (गैरकानूनी, अनुचित)
• Example: The police uncovered an illicit drug operation in the warehouse.
• In the given sentence, "elicit" fits the first blank as the officer is trying to draw a confession, and "illicit" fits the second blank as it describes the illegal activities of the gang.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: illicit, elicit
• Explanation: The order of these words is incorrect for the context of the sentence.
• Meaning: "Illicit" (गैरकानूनी) and "Elicit" (प्राप्त करना).
• Example: Incorrect usage in this case: "The officer managed to illicit a confession about the gang's elicit activities."
• Option 3: solstice, solicit
• Explanation: These words are unrelated to the context of the sentence.
• Meaning:
• "Solstice" (अयन): An astronomical event marking the longest or shortest day of the year.
• "Solicit" (अनुरोध करना): To ask for or try to obtain something from someone.
• Example:
• "The summer solstice occurs in June."
• "The charity is soliciting donations for the cause."
• Option 4: solicit, solstice
• Explanation: Same as Option 3, the words are misplaced in the sentence's context.
• Meaning: "Solicit" (अनुरोध करना) and "Solstice" (अयन).
• Example: Incorrect usage in this case: "The officer managed to solicit a confession about the gang's solstice activities."

Total students = 40

Ritu’s rank from top = 18

Rank from bottom = Total students − Rank from top + 1

⇒ Rank from bottom = 40 − 18 + 1

⇒ 22 + 1

⇒ 23

Hence the correct answer is Option 2.

A woman says: "His brother's father is the only son of my grandmother."

Reasoning:

⇒ The only son of my grandmother = My father

⇒ His brother's father = My father

⇒ So, the man's father is the woman's father

⇒ Therefore, the man and the woman have the same father

∴ The woman is the Sister of the man.

Hence the correct answer is Option 2.

 

⇒ A and B are siblings.

⇒ B and C are siblings.

⇒ Therefore A, B, C are siblings.

⇒ D is the mother of A ⇒ D is the mother of A, B, C.

⇒ E is the father of C ⇒ E is the father of A, B, C.

⇒ Hence D and E are parents of the same children.

∴ D is the Wife of E.

Hence the correct answer is Option 1.

A man says: “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son.”

⇒ The man has no brother or sister.

⇒ So, my father’s son = Myself

⇒ That man’s father = Myself

⇒ Therefore, the man in the photo is my son.

∴ The person in the photo is the man’s son.

Hence the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

Red balls = 45

Blue balls = 30

Formula used:

Ratio = Red : Blue

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio = 45 : 30

HCF of 45 and 30 = 15

⇒ 45 ÷ 15 : 30 ÷ 15

⇒ 3 : 2

∴ The ratio of red balls to blue balls is 3 : 2.

Given:

Speed of train = 90 km/hr

Time = 20 minutes

Convert minutes into hours:

20 minutes = 20 / 60 hours = 1 / 3 hour

Calculation:

Distance = 90 × (1/3)

Distance = 30 km

∴ The train will cover 30 km in 20 minutes.

Given:

15% of a number = 45

Let the number = x

15% of x = 45

⇒ 15/100 × x = 45

⇒ x = (45 × 100) / 15

⇒ x = 300

Now find 40% of the number:

40% of 300 = (40/100) × 300

⇒ 120

∴ 40% of the number = 120.

Let Sita’s age = x

Ram’s age = 2x

Given:

x + 2x = 45

3x = 45

x = 15

∴ Sita’s age = 15 years.

Series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ?

Pattern:

2 × 3 = 6

6 × 3 = 18

18 × 3 = 54

54 × 3 = 162

∴ Next number = 162

Cost Price (CP) = ₹1500

Selling Price (SP) = ₹1800

Profit = SP − CP

Profit = 1800 − 1500 = ₹300

Calculation:

Profit % = (300 / 1500) × 100

Profit % = 20%

∴ Profit percentage = 20%

Given:

Average of 4 numbers = 25

Three numbers = 20, 28, 32

Formula used:

Average = $\frac{\text{Sum of observations}}{\text{Number of observations}}$

Calculations:

Average = $\frac{\text{Total sum}}{4}$

⇒ 25 = $\frac{\text{Total sum}}{4}$

⇒ Total sum = 25 × 4 = 100

Sum of given numbers = 20 + 28 + 32 = 80

⇒ Fourth number = 100 − 80

⇒ Fourth number = 20

∴ The fourth number = 20.

Shortcut Trick

Assume original price = 100%

New price after 20% increase = 120%

Given: 120% → ₹600

Original price (100%) = (600 ÷ 120) × 100 = 5 × 100 = ₹500

∴ The correct answer is ₹500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increased Price = ₹600

Percentage Increase = 20%

Formula Used:

Original Price = New Price ÷ (1 + Increase%/100)

Original (100%) +20% New Price = 120% = ₹600 Price Increase Representation

Calculations:

⇒ Let Original Price be P

⇒ New Price = P × (1 + 20/100)

⇒ 600 = P × (120/100)

⇒ 600 = P × 1.2

⇒ P = 600 ÷ 1.2

⇒ P = 500

∴ The correct answer is ₹500.

Additional Information

Percentage Change Formula

New Value = Original Value × (100 ± Change%)/100, where + is for increase and − is for decrease.

Fractional Multiplier

An increase of 20% is equivalent to multiplying the base value by 6/5 (or 1.2), and a decrease of 20% is multiplying by 4/5 (or 0.8).

Reverse Percentage Calculation

To find the original value after an x% increase, use Original = Final ÷ (1 + x/100).

7 km south

24 km east

7 km north

Shortest distance = $\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$

7 km south and 7 km north cancel each other

⇒ Net vertical distance = 7 − 7 = 0

⇒ Net horizontal distance = 24 km east

⇒ Shortest distance = $\sqrt{24^2+0^2}$

⇒ Shortest distance = $\sqrt{576}$

⇒ Shortest distance = 24 km

∴ The shortest distance = 24 km.

Hence the correct answer is Option 1.

6 km east

4 km north

3 km west

Shortest distance = $\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$

Net horizontal distance = 6 − 3 = 3 km east

Net vertical distance = 4 km north

⇒ Distance from A = $\sqrt{3^2 + 4^2}$

⇒ Distance = $\sqrt{9 + 16}$

⇒ Distance = $\sqrt{25}$

⇒ Distance = 5 km

∴ Distance from point A = 5 km.

Hence the correct answer is Option 3.

8 km north

6 km west

8 km south

Opposite directions cancel each other

Vertical movement = 8 − 8 = 0

⇒ Net vertical distance = 0

Horizontal movement = 6 km west

⇒ Net position from starting point = 6 km west

∴ He is in the West direction from the starting point.

Hence the correct answer is Option 4.

5 km east

12 km north

5 km west

Shortest distance = $\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$

Net horizontal distance = 5 − 5 = 0

Net vertical distance = 12 km north

⇒ Distance from starting point = $\sqrt{0^2 + 12^2}$

⇒ Distance = $\sqrt{144}$

⇒ Distance = 12 km

∴ Distance from the starting point = 12 km.

Hence the correct answer is Option 2.

Friends: Riya, Aman, Sohan, Neha, Rahul

Sports: Cricket, Badminton, Football, Tennis, Hockey

Conditions:

Aman → Cricket

Neha → Hockey

Rahul → Football

Riya ≠ Football, Tennis

Sohan ≠ Football

Logical elimination method

Aman → Cricket

Neha → Hockey

Rahul → Football

Remaining sports = Badminton, Tennis

Remaining persons = Riya, Sohan

Riya ≠ Tennis

⇒ Riya → Badminton

⇒ Sohan → Tennis

∴ Riya plays Badminton.

Hence the correct answer is Option 1.

Boys: A, B, C, D, E, F

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday

A → Tuesday

D ≠ Wednesday, Saturday

D ≠ Friday

E ≠ Friday

C goes before D and after B

Logical arrangement method

Days order: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday

A → Tuesday

D ≠ Wednesday, Friday, Saturday

⇒ D → Monday or Thursday

C before D and after B

D cannot be Monday (no day before Monday for B and C)

⇒ D → Thursday

B before C and C before D

⇒ B → Monday

⇒ C → Wednesday

Remaining days: Friday, Saturday

E ≠ Friday

⇒ E → Saturday

⇒ F → Friday

∴ Correct combination: F → Friday. 

Hence the correct answer is Option 2.

Dog – Bark

Cat – Meow

Snake – Slither

Cow – Moo

Animal : Sound it makes

Dog → Bark (sound)

Cat → Meow (sound)

Cow → Moo (sound)

Snake → Slither (movement, not sound)

⇒ Only pair not showing sound

∴ Snake – Slither does not belong to the group.

Hence the correct answer is Option 3.

A – C – E – G

B – D – F – H

C – E – G – I

D – F – H – K

Alphabet position pattern (+2)

A(1) → C(3) → E(5) → G(7)

⇒ +2, +2, +2 

B(2) → D(4) → F(6) → H(8)

⇒ +2, +2, +2 

C(3) → E(5) → G(7) → I(9)

⇒ +2, +2, +2 

D(4) → F(6) → H(8) → K(11)

⇒ +2, +2, +3 ✖

∴ Odd sequence = D – F – H – K.

Hence the correct answer is Option 4.

Library : Books

Aquarium : Fish

Garage : Cars

Kitchen : Chef

Place : Things kept inside the place

Library → Books (books are kept in library)

Aquarium → Fish (fish are kept in aquarium)

Garage → Cars (cars are kept in garage)

Kitchen → Chef (chef works in kitchen, not kept inside)

⇒ Relation does not match

∴ Kitchen : Chef does not conform to the relationship.

Hence the correct answer is Option 4.

North-East

South-West

Upward

South-East

Standard compass directions → North, South, East, West and their combinations

North-East → Compass direction ✔

South-West → Compass direction ✔

South-East → Compass direction ✔

Upward → Vertical direction, not compass direction ✖

∴ Upward is inconsistent with standard compass logic.

Hence correct answer is Option 3.

11 – 22 – 44

3 – 6 – 12

5 – 10 – 21

7 – 14 – 28

Number pattern (×2)

11 → 22 → 44

⇒ 11 × 2 = 22

⇒ 22 × 2 = 44 ✔

3 → 6 → 12

⇒ 3 × 2 = 6

⇒ 6 × 2 = 12 ✔

7 → 14 → 28

⇒ 7 × 2 = 14

⇒ 14 × 2 = 28 ✔

5 → 10 → 21

⇒ 5 × 2 = 10

⇒ 10 × 2 = 20 ≠ 21 ✖

∴ Distinct pattern = 5 – 10 – 21.

Hence the correct answer is Option 3.

Two students accused of cheating

Student 1 → Prior record

Student 2 → No prior record

No evidence available

Options:

Suspend both immediately

Trust the student with no record

Wait for evidence before action

Punish only the repeat offender

Principle of fairness and evidence-based judgement

No proof of cheating

⇒ Prior record alone ≠ proof of current cheating

⇒ Punishment without evidence = unfair

⇒ Correct judgement → investigate first

∴ Best stance = Wait for evidence before action.

Hence the correct answer is Option3.

Word = MOVIETIME

Total letters = 9

Arrange letters in alphabetical order and compare positions

Original word:

M   O   V   I   E   T   I   M   E

Positions:

1   2   3   4   5   6   7   8   9

Alphabetical order:

E   E   I   I   M   M   O   T   V

Positions:

1   2   3   4   5   6   7   8   9

Compare positions:

Position 4 → I = I ✔

All other positions change

⇒ Unchanged letters = 1

∴ Number of letters whose position remains unchanged = 1.

Hence the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

0, 1, 2, 9

Formula Used:

Natural numbers start from 1 and include all positive integers.

Calculation:

⇒ Natural numbers: {1, 2, 3, 4, ...}

⇒ 0 is not part of the natural numbers.

∴ The correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

Natural numbers: {1, 2, 3, ...}

Integer numbers: {..., -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, ...}

Formula Used:

Natural numbers are positive whole numbers starting from 1.

Integers include all whole numbers, both positive and negative, including zero.

Calculation:

⇒ Number 0 is an integer but not a natural number.

⇒ Number 5 is both a natural number and an integer.

⇒ Number -5 is an integer but not a natural number.

⇒ None is not a valid option as there is a number common to both sets.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Given:

Number of boxes = 200

Cost per box = 120

Extra expense = 1800

100 boxes sold at 150 each

100 boxes sold at 130 each

Formula Used:

Profit% = (Profit ÷ Total Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Cost of 200 boxes = 200 × 120 = 24000

⇒ Total cost price = 24000 + 1800 = 25800

⇒ Selling price of first 100 boxes = 100 × 150 = 15000

⇒ Selling price of remaining 100 boxes = 100 × 130 = 13000

⇒ Total selling price = 15000 + 13000 = 28000

⇒ Profit = 28000 − 25800 = 2200

⇒ Profit% = (2200 ÷ 25800) × 100

⇒ Profit% ≈ 8.53

∴ The correct answer is 8.53%.

Given:

$\angle QOR = 110^\circ$

O is the incenter of triangle PQR

Formula Used:

$\angle BIC = 90^\circ + \frac{1}{2}\angle A$ (Angle at incenter)

Calculation:

⇒ $\angle QOR = 90^\circ + \frac{1}{2}\angle QPR$

⇒ $110 = 90 + \frac{1}{2}\angle QPR$

⇒ $\frac{1}{2}\angle QPR = 20$

⇒ $\angle QPR = 40^\circ$

∴ The correct answer is $40^\circ$.

Given:

(tan20°)² / (cosec70°)² + (cot20°)² / (sec70°)² + 2tan15° tan45° tan75°

Formula Used:

cosecθ = 1 / sinθ

secθ = 1 / cosθ

sin(70°) = cos(20°)

cos(70°) = sin(20°)

tan45° = 1

tan15° × tan75° = 1

Calculation:

⇒ (tan20°)² / (cosec70°)² = tan²20° × sin²70° = tan²20° × cos²20° = sin²20°

⇒ (cot20°)² / (sec70°)² = cot²20° × cos²70° = cot²20° × sin²20° = cos²20°

⇒ sin²20° + cos²20° = 1

⇒ 2tan15° tan45° tan75° = 2 × 1 × 1 = 2

⇒ Total value = 1 + 2 = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Given:

2 × sin q × cos(90° − q) = 1/2

0° < q < 90°

Formula Used:

cos(90° − θ) = sin θ

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

sin(2θ) = 2sinθcosθ

Calculation:

⇒ 2 × sin q × cos(90° − q) = 2 × sin q × sin q = 1/2

⇒ 2sin²q = 1/2

⇒ sin²q = 1/4

⇒ sin q = 1/2

⇒ q = 30°

⇒ sin(2q) + cos(2q) = sin60° + cos60°

⇒ = √3/2 + 1/2

⇒ = (√3 + 1)/2

∴ The correct answer is (√3 + 1)/2.

Given:

Amount after 4 years = 9504

Amount after 9 years = 12384

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ Interest for 5 years = 12384 − 9504 = 2880

⇒ Interest per year = 2880 ÷ 5 = 576

⇒ Interest for 4 years = 576 × 4 = 2304

⇒ Principal = 9504 − 2304 = 7200

⇒ 576 = (7200 × R) ÷ 100

⇒ R = (576 × 100) ÷ 7200

⇒ R = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Given:

Amount after 8 years = 240% of principal

Principal = 3000

Time = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ 240% = Principal + Interest

⇒ Interest in 8 years = 240% − 100% = 140%

⇒ Rate per year = 140 ÷ 8 = 17.5%

⇒ Simple interest = 3000 × 17.5 × 3 ÷ 100

⇒ Simple interest = 1575

∴ The correct answer is 1575.

Given:

70% of total money distributed between Priya and Meena

Ratio (Priya : Meena) = 5 : 9

Rates = 6% and 10%

Time = 4 years

Difference in interest = 2304

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let total money = T

⇒ Distributed money = 70% of T = 0.7T

⇒ Priya share = 0.7T × 5 ÷ 14 = 0.25T

⇒ Meena share = 0.7T × 9 ÷ 14 = 0.45T

⇒ Priya interest = 0.25T × 6 × 4 ÷ 100 = 0.06T

⇒ Meena interest = 0.45T × 10 × 4 ÷ 100 = 0.18T

⇒ Difference = 0.18T − 0.06T = 0.12T

⇒ 0.12T = 2304

⇒ T = 2304 ÷ 0.12 = 19200

∴ The correct answer is 19200.

Given:

Length of stick = 48 cm

Angle with floor = 60°

Formula Used:

Height = Hypotenuse × sin θ

Calculation:

⇒ Height = 48 × sin 60°

⇒ Height = 48 × (√3 ÷ 2)

⇒ Height = 24√3

∴ The correct answer is 24√3 cm.

Shortcut Trick

In a 30°−60°−90° triangle, the side opposite to the 30° angle is always half of the hypotenuse.

Here, the rope acts as the hypotenuse (16 m) and the house is the side opposite to 30°.

Height of house = Hypotenuse ÷ 2

Height of house = 16 ÷ 2 = 8 metres.

∴ The correct answer is 8 metres.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the rope (Hypotenuse, AC) = 16 metres

Angle of elevation (θ) = 30°

Formula Used:

sin θ = Perpendicular (Height) ÷ Hypotenuse

Calculations:

⇒ sin 30° = Height ÷ 16

⇒ 1/2 = Height ÷ 16

⇒ Height = 16 × (1/2)

⇒ Height = 8 metres

∴ The correct answer is 8 metres.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Ratios

Standard values: sin 30° = 1/2, cos 30° = √3/2, and tan 30° = 1/√3.

30°−60°−90° Triangle Rule

The sides of such a triangle are in the ratio 1 : √3 : 2, where 1 is opposite to 30° and 2 is the hypotenuse.

Angle of Elevation

The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when looking upwards at an object.

Given:

Pipe A fills the tank in 14 hours

Pipe B empties the tank in 8 hours

Initial water in tank = 1/4

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM of 14 and 8

Work per hour = Total work ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 14 and 8 = 56

⇒ Total work = 56 units

⇒ Work by A in 1 hour = 56 ÷ 14 = 4

⇒ Work emptied by B in 1 hour = 56 ÷ 8 = 7

⇒ Net work per hour = 4 − 7 = −3

⇒ Water initially in tank = 56 ÷ 4 = 14 units

⇒ Time to empty 14 units = 14 ÷ 3

⇒ Time = 4 hour 40 min

∴ The correct answer is 4 hour 40 min.

Given:

4 women + 6 girls can do work in 12 days

24 women + 46 girls can do work in 2 days

Let:

Work done by 1 woman in 1 day = W

Work done by 1 girl in 1 day = G

Formula used:

Work = Rate × Time

Calculations:

From first condition:

⇒ (4W + 6G) × 12 = Total work

From second condition:

⇒ (24W + 46G) × 2 = Total work

Since work is same:

⇒ (4W + 6G) × 12 = (24W + 46G) × 2

⇒ 48W + 72G = 48W + 92G

⇒ 48W cancel

⇒ 72G = 92G

⇒ 92G − 72G = 0

⇒ 20G = 0 ⇒ G = 0

⇒ Put G = 0 in (4W + 6G) × 12 = Work

⇒ (4W) × 12 = Work

⇒ Work = 48W

⇒ From second: (24W) × 2 = 48W 

Now for 15 women + 20 girls:

⇒ Work per day = 15W + 20G

⇒ = 15W + 0 = 15W

⇒ Time = Total work ÷ Rate

⇒ Time = 48W ÷ 15W

⇒ Time = 48 ÷ 15 = 3.2 days

⇒ 0.2 day = 0.2 × 24 = 4.8 hours

⇒ 0.8 hour = 0.8 × 60 = 48 minutes

∴ Required time = 3 days 4 hours 48 minutes

Shortcut Trick

Height of taller pole (H) = Height of smaller pole (h) + distance × tan(θ)

H = 10 + 50 × tan(30º)

H = 10 + 50 × (1 / √3) ≈ 10 + 50 × 0.57735

H = 10 + 28.87 = 38.87 m

∴ The correct answer is 38.87 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of smaller pole (AB) = 10 m

Distance between poles (BD) = 50 m

Angle of elevation from top of smaller pole (θ) = 30º

Let the taller pole be CD and the smaller pole be AB.

From the figure, AB = ED = 10 m and AE = BD = 50 m.

In right-angled triangle AEC:

⇒ tan(30º) = CE / AE

⇒ 1 / √3 = CE / 50

⇒ CE = 50 / √3

⇒ CE = 50 / 1.732

⇒ CE ≈ 28.87 m

Total height of the taller pole (CD) = CE + ED

⇒ CD = 28.87 + 10

⇒ CD = 38.87 m

∴ The correct answer is 38.87 m.

Additional Information

Angle of Elevation

The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when an object is viewed above the horizontal level.

Trigonometric Ratios

In a right-angled triangle, tan θ = Perpendicular / Base. Common value: tan 30º = 1/√3 ≈ 0.577, tan 45º = 1, tan 60º = √3 ≈ 1.732.

Angle of Depression

The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when an object is viewed below the horizontal level.

Shortcut Trick

The radius, distance from the center, and half of the chord always form a right-angled triangle.

Half of the chord = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 cm.

Using the standard Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5):

If the two sides are 3 cm and 4 cm, the hypotenuse (radius) must be 5 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Length of chord (AB) = 8 cm, Distance from center (OM) = 3 cm.

Formula: In a circle, the perpendicular from the center to a chord bisects the chord. Radius² = (Half-chord)² + (Distance)².

⇒ Let O be the center and AB be the chord.

⇒ OM ⊥ AB, so AM = MB = AB ÷ 2

⇒ AM = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 cm

⇒ In right ΔOMA, OA² = OM² + AM²

⇒ Radius² = 3² + 4²

⇒ Radius² = 9 + 16 = 25

⇒ Radius = √25 = 5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Additional Information

Perpendicular Bisector Property

The perpendicular drawn from the center of a circle to a chord bisects the chord into two equal segments.

Pythagorean Theorem

In any right-angled triangle, Hypotenuse² = Base² + Perpendicular². Common triplets include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17).

Diameter and Radius Relation

The diameter of a circle is the longest chord and its length is exactly 2 × radius.

Equal Chords Property

Chords of equal length are equidistant from the center of the circle.

Shortcut Trick

A chord is a line segment joining any two points on the circumference of a circle.

From a single fixed point on the circle, you can draw a line to any other point on the circle to form a chord.

Since a circle consists of an infinite number of points, you can join the fixed point to infinitely many other points.

∴ The correct answer is Infinite.

Alternate Method

Given: A circle with center O and a point P on the circumference.

Definition: A chord is a straight line segment whose endpoints both lie on the circle boundary.

⇒ Let P be a fixed point on the circle.

⇒ Let Q₁, Q₂, Q₃, ... be other distinct points on the circle.

⇒ By joining P to Q₁, we get chord PQ₁. By joining P to Q₂, we get chord PQ₂, and so on.

⇒ A circle is a set of infinitely many points in a plane that are at a given distance from a center.

⇒ Since there are infinite points available to be chosen as the second endpoint Q, the number of chords that can be drawn through P is infinite.

∴ The correct answer is Infinite.

Additional Information

Diameter as a Chord

The diameter is the longest chord in a circle and always passes through the center.

Chord Bisection

A perpendicular line segment from the center of a circle to a chord always bisects the chord into two equal segments.

Tangent vs Chord

A tangent touches the circle at only one point, whereas a chord connects two points and lies inside the circle.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of length and breadth is 14 : 11 ⇒ 2 × (14x + 11x) = 150 ⇒ x = 3.

Area of Rectangle = (14 × 3) × (11 × 3) = 42 × 33 = 1386 cm².

Top surface of cylinder is a circle: (22/7) × R² = 1386 ⇒ R² = 441 ⇒ R = 21 cm.

Height H = R / 1.05 = 21 / 1.05 = 20 cm.

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 20 = 2640 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 2640 cm².

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of L : B = 14 : 11, Perimeter = 150 cm, R = 105% of H, Area of rectangle = Top surface area of cylinder.

Formula Used: Perimeter = 2(L + B) | Area of circle = πR² | CSA of cylinder = 2πRH

Step 1: Find dimensions of the rectangle

⇒ Let L = 14x and B = 11x.

⇒ Perimeter = 2(14x + 11x) = 150

⇒ 2(25x) = 150 ⇒ 50x = 150 ⇒ x = 3

⇒ L = 14 × 3 = 42 cm, B = 11 × 3 = 33 cm

⇒ Area of rectangle = 42 × 33 = 1386 cm²

Step 2: Find radius (R) and height (H) of the cylinder

⇒ Area of top surface (πR²) = 1386

⇒ (22/7) × R² = 1386 ⇒ R² = 1386 × (7/22) = 63 × 7 = 441

⇒ R = √441 = 21 cm

⇒ Since R = 105% of H ⇒ 21 = 1.05 × H

⇒ H = 21 / 1.05 = 20 cm

Step 3: Calculate Curved Surface Area (CSA)

⇒ CSA = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 20

⇒ CSA = 2 × 22 × 3 × 20 = 2640 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 2640 cm².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cylinder

TSA includes the curved surface area plus the area of the two circular bases: TSA = 2πR(H + R).

Volume of Cylinder

The volume represents the space inside the cylinder: Volume = πR²H.

Rectangle Properties

Area = Length × Breadth and Diagonal = √(L² + B²).

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

105% can be written as 105/100 or 21/20 in simplified fraction form.

Shortcut Trick

In a circle where diameter BA is produced to meet tangent PC at point P:

Measure of ∠ACP = (90° − ∠BPC) ÷ 2

Given ∠BPC = 34°

∠ACP = (90° − 34°) ÷ 2 = 56° ÷ 2 = 28°

∴ The correct answer is 28°.

Alternate Method

Given: AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O. PT is a tangent at point C. BA produced meets PT at P. ∠BPC = 34°.

Formula Used: Sum of angles in a triangle = 180°; Angle in a semicircle = 90°; Radius is perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact.

PAOBC34°?

⇒ In ▵OCP, ∠OCP = 90° (Since OC ⊥ PT)

⇒ ∠COP = 180° − (∠OCP + ∠BPC)

⇒ ∠COP = 180° − (90° + 34°) = 56°

⇒ ∠COA = ∠COP = 56°

⇒ In ▵OAC, OA = OC (Radii of the same circle)

⇒ ∠OCA = ∠OAC (Angles opposite to equal sides)

⇒ ∠OCA = (180° − ∠COA) ÷ 2

⇒ ∠OCA = (180° − 56°) ÷ 2 = 124° ÷ 2 = 62°

⇒ Now, ∠ACP = ∠OCP − ∠OCA

⇒ ∠ACP = 90° − 62° = 28°

∴ The correct answer is 28°.

Additional Information

Alternate Segment Theorem

The angle between a tangent and a chord through the point of contact is equal to the angle in the alternate segment (∠ACP = ∠ABC).

Angle in a Semicircle

Any angle subtended by the diameter at the circumference of the circle is always a right angle (90°).

Radius and Tangent Property

The radius of a circle is always perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact (90° angle).

Given:

(√12 + √27) ÷ √3

Formula Used:

√(ab) = √a × √b

Calculation:

⇒ (√12 + √27) ÷ √3

⇒ (2√3 + 3√3) ÷ √3

⇒ 5√3 ÷ √3

⇒ 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Given:

(5 + 2√6)(5 − 2√6)

Formula Used:

(a + b)(a − b) = a² − b²

Calculation:

⇒ (5 + 2√6)(5 − 2√6)

⇒ 5² − (2√6)²

⇒ 25 − 4 × 6

⇒ 25 − 24

⇒ 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Shortcut Trick

The surd 9 ± 4√5 can be simplified as (√5 ± 2)² because 5 + 4 = 9 and 2 × 2 × √5 = 4√5.

√(9 + 4√5) = √5 + 2

√(9 − 4√5) = √5 − 2

To match the provided integer options, we evaluate the difference: (√5 + 2) − (√5 − 2) = 4.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Alternate Method

Given: √(9 + 4√5) and √(9 − 4√5)

Formula Used: (a ± b)² = a² + b² ± 2ab

⇒ 9 + 4√5 = 5 + 4 + 2 × 2 × √5 = (√5)² + 2² + 2 × 2 × √5 = (√5 + 2)²

⇒ ∴ √(9 + 4√5) = √5 + 2

⇒ 9 − 4√5 = 5 + 4 − 2 × 2 × √5 = (√5)² + 2² − 2 × 2 × √5 = (√5 − 2)²

⇒ ∴ √(9 − 4√5) = √5 − 2

⇒ Evaluating the difference to match options: (√5 + 2) − (√5 − 2)

⇒ √5 + 2 − √5 + 2 = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

Square root of a surd

To find √(x ± √y), express x as (a+b) and √y as 2√ab. The root is then √a ± √b.

Conjugate Surds

For a surd (a + √b), its conjugate is (a − √b). Their product (a + √b)(a − √b) = a² − b is always a rational number.

Difference of Squares

The identity (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b² is fundamental in simplifying nested radicals and rationalizing denominators.

Given:

1 / (√3 + √2)

Formula Used:

(a + b)(a − b) = a² − b²

Calculation:

⇒ 1 / (√3 + √2)

⇒ 1 / (√3 + √2) × (√3 − √2) / (√3 − √2)

⇒ (√3 − √2) / [(√3 + √2)(√3 − √2)]

⇒ (√3 − √2) / (3 − 2)

⇒ √3 − √2

∴ The correct answer is √3 − √2.

Given:

$(2\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2})^2$

Formula Used:

$(a + b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab$

Calculation:

⇒ $(2\sqrt{3})^2 + (\sqrt{2})^2 + 2(2\sqrt{3})(\sqrt{2})$

⇒ $4 \times 3 + 2 + 4\sqrt{6}$

⇒ $12 + 2 + 4\sqrt{6}$

⇒ $14 + 4\sqrt{6}$

∴ The correct answer is $14 + 4\sqrt{6}$.

Given:

$(\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{5})^2 + (\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{5})^2 + 2(\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{5})(\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{5})$

Formula Used:

$(a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab$

$(a-b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2ab$

$(a+b)(a-b) = a^2 - b^2$

Calculation:

⇒ $(\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{5})^2 = 3 + 5 + 2\sqrt{15} = 8 + 2\sqrt{15}$

⇒ $(\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{5})^2 = 3 + 5 - 2\sqrt{15} = 8 - 2\sqrt{15}$

⇒ $2(\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{5})(\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{5}) = 2(3 - 5) = -4$

⇒ $(8 + 2\sqrt{15}) + (8 - 2\sqrt{15}) - 4$

⇒ $16 - 4$

⇒ $12$

∴ The correct answer is $12$.

Shortcut Trick

Teacher's weight = New Average + (Initial students × Increase in Average)

Rise in average = 61 − 60 = 1 kg

Teacher's weight = 61 + (30 × 1)

Teacher's weight = 61 + 30 = 91 kg

∴ The correct answer is 91 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students = 30

Initial average weight = 60 kg

New average weight (including teacher) = 61 kg

Formula Used:

Total Weight = Number of items × Average

Calculations:

⇒ Total weight of 30 students = 30 × 60 = 1800 kg

⇒ Total number of people (30 students + 1 teacher) = 31

⇒ Total weight of 31 people = 31 × 61

⇒ Total weight of 31 people = 1891 kg

⇒ Teacher's weight = Total weight with teacher − Total weight of students

⇒ Teacher's weight = 1891 − 1800

⇒ Teacher's weight = 91 kg

∴ The correct answer is 91 kg.

Additional Information

Inclusion Rule

When one person joins a group, the weight of the new person = New Average + [Original Strength × (New Average − Old Average)].

Exclusion Rule

When one person leaves the group, the weight of the person who left = Old Average + [New Strength × (Old Average − New Average)].

Weighted Average

If two groups with sizes n₁ and n₂ and averages A₁ and A₂ are combined, the combined average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

The correct answer is Dehliwal.

Key Points

• The coins minted in Delhi during the reign of the Tomar and Chauhan dynasties were called Dehliwal.
• The term "Dehliwal" specifically refers to the local coins produced in the Delhi region during the medieval period under the rule of these dynasties.
• These coins were primarily made of silver and were used as a medium of exchange in commerce and trade during that era.
• The Dehliwal coins played a significant role in the economic activities of northern India during the reign of the Tomars and Chauhans, symbolizing their administrative and monetary systems.
• The coins reflected regional identity and sovereignty, and their minting was a mark of local governance and control over trade.

Additional Information

• Tomar Dynasty:
• The Tomar dynasty ruled Delhi before the Chauhan dynasty and was instrumental in establishing Delhi as a center of political and economic activity.
• They are credited with founding the city of Delhi, and their rule lasted until the Chauhans took over the region in the late 12th century.
• The reign of the Tomars witnessed significant developments in trade, and their coins like Dehliwal were widely used.
• The Tomar kings were known for their administrative capabilities and contributions to local governance.
• Chauhan Dynasty:
• The Chauhans succeeded the Tomars in Delhi, with Prithviraj Chauhan being one of the most prominent rulers of the dynasty.
• The Chauhan dynasty played a crucial role in resisting invasions, especially from the Ghurid Empire.
• Dehliwal coins continued to be minted during their reign, reflecting the continuity of the monetary system established by the Tomars.
• Prithviraj Chauhan’s reign marked the last phase of the Chauhan dynasty before Delhi fell to Muslim rulers.
• Other Coin Types:
• Rupees: The term "Rupee" became prominent much later, especially during the Mughal and British periods, and does not pertain to the Tomar or Chauhan era.
• Dinar: Dinar was a gold coin used in the Middle East and parts of India, but it was not associated with the Tomars or Chauhans.
• Tanka: The Tanka was introduced by Muslim rulers after the Chauhan dynasty, particularly by the Delhi Sultanate, and was not relevant to the question.
• Significance of Dehliwal Coins:
• These coins were symbols of regional autonomy and governance under the Tomar and Chauhan rulers.
• The use of Dehliwal coins highlights the economic and cultural significance of Delhi during the medieval period.
• They represent the early monetary systems in India before the advent of centralized coinage by later dynasties.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The Tomar and Chauhan dynasties laid the foundation for Delhi’s prominence as a political and trade hub in northern India.
• The transition from Tomar to Chauhan rule marked a continuation of local governance systems, including coin minting practices.
• Legacy:
• The Dehliwal coins are an important artifact of early Indian history, providing insights into the economic systems of medieval India.
• They reflect the cultural and political autonomy of Delhi before the establishment of Muslim rule in the region.

The correct answer is It was the numerical value determining a noble's rank and salary..

Key Points

• Zat in the Mughal Mansabdari system referred to the numerical value assigned to each mansabdar, which determined their rank and salary.
• The rank was primarily categorized by the Zat number, which indicated the status and hierarchy of the noble within the Mughal administration.
• The Zat value also determined the financial remuneration a mansabdar would receive, thereby signifying their social and economic standing in the empire.
• Higher Zat numbers were associated with greater privileges, larger salaries, and higher administrative responsibilities.
• This system was introduced by Akbar and was an integral part of the administrative structure of the Mughal Empire, aiding in efficient governance.

Additional Information

• Mughal Mansabdari System:
• The Mansabdari system was a unique administrative framework introduced by Akbar to manage the empire’s civil and military responsibilities.
• Under this system, every officer or noble was assigned a rank called Mansab, which was divided into two components: Zat and Sawar.
• Zat was the personal rank of the mansabdar, while Sawar denoted the number of horsemen a mansabdar was required to maintain for military service.
• The system aimed to ensure efficient administration and prevent hereditary claims to high-ranking positions.
• Functions of Zat:
• Zat was a numerical indicator of the noble's personal rank and the salary they would draw.
• It played a key role in determining the status of a mansabdar within the Mughal administrative hierarchy.
• The higher the Zat rank, the larger the jagir (land revenue assignment) granted to the individual.
• It ensured that nobles were paid adequately and maintained loyalty to the emperor.
• Comparison with Sawar:
• While Zat defined rank and salary, Sawar defined the military obligations of a mansabdar.
• Sawar denoted the number of cavalry personnel a noble was required to maintain, which varied according to their rank and responsibilities.
• Both components were interlinked but served different purposes in the administration.
• Historical Context:
• The system was crucial during the reign of Akbar, Jahangir, and Shah Jahan, helping to create a centralized bureaucracy.
• It eliminated feudal tendencies and ensured that administrative positions were merit-based rather than hereditary.
• It also helped maintain a stable military force, ensuring the empire's territorial integrity.

Important Points

• Zat ranks:
• The Zat ranks ranged from 10 to 5000, with higher ranks indicating greater influence and responsibilities.
• Ranks above 5000 were reserved for the highest-ranking officials and royal family members.
• Jagir Allocation:
• Based on the Zat, mansabdars were assigned jagirs, which were revenue-yielding lands to sustain their salaries and military expenses.
• This system ensured equitable distribution of resources and prevented concentration of power in the hands of a few nobles.
• Akbar’s Reforms:
• Akbar institutionalized the Mansabdari system as part of his broader administrative reforms to strengthen the Mughal Empire.
• He ensured that ranks were periodically reviewed, promoting efficiency and accountability among nobles.

The correct answer is 1997.

Key Points

• The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) was established in 1997 to promote regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region.
• IORA was initiated by India and South Africa to create a platform for economic, socio-cultural, and political collaboration among countries bordering the Indian Ocean.
• The association's founding meeting took place in Port Louis, Mauritius, where the Charter of the Indian Ocean Rim Association was adopted.
• IORA aims to enhance maritime security, trade facilitation, disaster management, scientific research, and capacity building among its member states.
• It includes 23 member countries from the Indian Ocean region and 10 dialogue partners, which contribute to its objectives by providing expertise and resources.

Additional Information

• Member Countries:
• The IORA comprises 23 member states, including countries like India, Australia, Indonesia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, and the UAE, among others.
• The organization includes countries that share a coastline with the Indian Ocean.
• Objectives of IORA:
• Promoting economic cooperation and sustainable growth within the Indian Ocean region.
• Enhancing maritime safety and security to ensure freedom of navigation and secure trade routes.
• Encouraging scientific and technological collaboration for the development of member states.
• Strengthening disaster risk management by sharing expertise and resources.
• Key Initiatives:
• IORA plays a significant role in addressing issues like illegal fishing, piracy, and maritime pollution.
• The organization has launched the Blue Economy Initiative, focusing on sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and ocean ecosystem health.
• It also conducts the annual Indian Ocean Dialogue to discuss regional cooperation and security challenges.
• Structure of IORA:
• The apex body of IORA is the Council of Ministers (COM), consisting of foreign ministers from member states.
• The Committee of Senior Officials (CSO) supports the COM and oversees the implementation of decisions.
• The organization has a Secretariat based in Ebène, Mauritius, which coordinates activities and communication among member states.

Important Points

• The Indian Ocean region is of strategic importance as it hosts some of the busiest shipping lanes, connecting the Middle East, Africa, and Asia.
• IORA promotes the concept of the Blue Economy, which includes sectors like fisheries, renewable energy, maritime transport, and tourism.
• IORA’s Dialogue Partners include countries like the United States, China, Japan, and Germany, which provide technical and financial assistance.
• The association is instrumental in fostering a rules-based maritime order in the Indian Ocean, aligning with international laws like the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

The correct answer is Sucheta Kripalani.

Key Points

• Sucheta Kripalani was the first woman Chief Minister of any state in India. She served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967.
• She was a prominent figure in the Indian freedom struggle and worked closely with Mahatma Gandhi during the Quit India Movement.
• Sucheta Kripalani represented Indian National Congress, the political party that played a pivotal role in India's independence and early governance.
• Her tenure as Chief Minister was marked by her efforts to improve administrative efficiency and address social issues, including those related to women’s welfare and education.
• She was known for her determination and leadership, especially during the state employees' strike in Uttar Pradesh, where she successfully negotiated and resolved the issues.
• She remains a symbol of women's empowerment in Indian politics, paving the way for future generations of female leaders.

Additional Information

• Other prominent women in Indian history:
• Aruna Asaf Ali: Known as the "Grand Old Lady" of the Indian Independence Movement, she played a pivotal role in the Quit India Movement and was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1997.
• Anna Chandy: She was the first woman judge in India and also one of the first women judges globally. She was appointed to the Kerala High Court in 1959.
• Kamala Nehru: She was the wife of Jawaharlal Nehru and a prominent freedom fighter, contributing to the civil disobedience movement and working for women’s rights in India.
• Historical significance of women leaders:
• Women leaders like Sucheta Kripalani paved the way for greater representation of women in Indian politics.
• Their contributions during the freedom struggle highlight their role in shaping India’s socio-political landscape.
• They have inspired initiatives for gender equality and efforts to empower women in various sectors.
• Key facts about Uttar Pradesh:
• Uttar Pradesh is India's most populous state and plays a significant role in the country's politics.
• It was the first state in India to have a woman Chief Minister, marking a milestone in Indian governance.
• It is known for its rich cultural heritage, historical landmarks, and diverse population.

Important Points

• Sucheta Kripalani’s legacy:
• She was one of the few women leaders in Indian politics during the 20th century, making her achievements even more remarkable.
• Her work as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh set a precedent for future women leaders in Indian states.
• Her participation in the freedom struggle and dedication to public service showcased her commitment to India’s development.
• Representation of women in Indian politics:
• Women’s participation in politics has steadily increased since independence, with leaders like Indira Gandhi and Pratibha Patil holding key positions such as Prime Minister and President, respectively.
• Various laws and initiatives have been implemented to promote gender equality and increase women’s representation in governance.

The correct answer is Asima Chatterjee.

Key Points

• Asima Chatterjee was the first female recipient of the prestigious Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology in 1961, awarded for her contributions to the field of organic chemistry.
• She is renowned for her groundbreaking work in the fields of medicinal chemistry, especially for her research on alkaloids and the development of anti-malarial and anti-epileptic drugs.
• Her research primarily revolved around the chemistry of natural products, including plant-based substances, which have significant applications in medicine.
• Asima Chatterjee made significant contributions to Indian science, becoming a trailblazer for women scientists in the country.
• The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize, established in 1958, is one of India’s highest science awards, given annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) for outstanding contributions to science and technology.

Additional Information

• Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize:
• Named after Dr. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar, the founder Director of CSIR, the prize recognizes exceptional achievements in various fields of science like Biological Sciences, Engineering, Mathematics, Medicine, Physical Sciences, and Chemical Sciences.
• Each award includes a citation, a plaque, and a cash prize of ₹5 lakh.
• The prize is awarded to scientists below the age of 45 years for their contributions to Indian science.
• Asima Chatterjee’s Legacy:
• Born on 23 September 1917 in Kolkata, she became the first woman to earn a Doctorate of Science from an Indian university (University of Calcutta).
• She served as the Chairperson of the Chemistry Department at Lady Brabourne College, Kolkata.
• Her pioneering work on natural products chemistry contributed significantly to drug development, especially in the areas of malaria, epilepsy, and cancer.
• She was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1975 for her contributions to science.
• Other female recipients of the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize:
• After Asima Chatterjee, other women scientists like Sudipta Sengupta (1983, Earth Sciences) and Archana Bhattacharyya (1998, Physical Sciences) have also received this prestigious award.
• This highlights the growing recognition of women in Indian science over the decades.
• Important Contributions of Other Options:
• Debala Mitra: An eminent Indian archaeologist who served as the Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). Her work focuses on ancient Indian monuments but she did not receive the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize.
• Sudipta Sengupta: A distinguished geologist who received the prize in 1983 for her work in Earth Sciences. However, she was not the first female recipient.
• Archana Bhattacharyya: A physicist who received the prize in 1998 for her contributions to space physics but was not the first woman to receive it.

Important Points

• Gender Representation in Science:
• Women’s contributions in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, Mathematics) fields in India have historically been underrepresented.
• Awards like the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize encourage greater participation and recognition of women in scientific research.
• Efforts by institutions like CSIR to promote diversity and inclusion in science are crucial for breaking gender barriers.
• Encouragement for Research:
• Such prestigious awards provide motivation for young scientists to pursue innovative research.
• They also highlight the importance of focusing on indigenous scientific advancements.

The correct answer is Pritam.

Key Points

• Pritam, one of India’s leading music directors, won the Best Music Direction (Songs) award at the National Film Awards 2024 for his remarkable work in the Hindi movie Brahmastra - Part 1: Shiva.
• Pritam is known for his versatile music composition and has been instrumental in delivering chart-topping songs in Bollywood. His work in Brahmastra was widely appreciated for blending modern and traditional musical elements seamlessly.
• The soundtrack of Brahmastra - Part 1: Shiva featured several hit songs such as Kesariya, Deva Deva, and Rasiya, which became instant favorites among audiences and critics alike.
• This award adds to Pritam’s illustrious career, which includes multiple awards like Filmfare Awards, IIFA Awards, and Zee Cine Awards for his exceptional contributions to Indian cinema.
• The National Film Awards, considered one of the most prestigious awards in Indian cinema, recognize excellence across various categories, including acting, direction, cinematography, and music composition.

Additional Information

• Pritam Chakraborty:
• Pritam was born on 14 June 1971 in Kolkata, West Bengal, India. He is a prominent Indian composer and playback singer.
• He is known for his ability to experiment with diverse genres, including pop, rock, classical, and traditional Indian music.
• Pritam has worked on numerous blockbuster movies such as Barfi!, Yeh Jawaani Hai Deewani, Dilwale, and Jab We Met.
• He is often praised for his ability to connect with audiences across different age groups through his memorable and melodious compositions.
• Brahmastra - Part 1: Shiva:
• It is a Hindi-language fantasy adventure movie directed by Ayan Mukerji and produced by Karan Johar under the banner of Dharma Productions.
• Released in 2022, the film stars Ranbir Kapoor, Alia Bhatt, Amitabh Bachchan, Nagarjuna Akkineni, and Mouni Roy.
• The movie revolves around the concept of astras (weapons of power) and combines elements of Indian mythology with modern-day storytelling.
• The music of the film played a pivotal role in enhancing its narrative and emotional appeal.
• National Film Awards:
• The National Film Awards are presented annually by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organization under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India.
• Established in 1954, these awards aim to encourage and honor excellence in Indian cinema across various languages and categories.
• Winners are selected by a national jury consisting of eminent personalities from the Indian film industry.
• The awards include categories like Best Actor, Best Actress, Best Director, Best Feature Film, and Best Music Direction, among others.
• Other Nominees for the Category:
• While Pritam won the award, other notable music directors like Mahesh Bhuvanend, Niki Joshi, and Ravi Varman were also recognized for their contributions in different films.
• However, Pritam’s work stood out for its innovation, emotional depth, and widespread popularity.

Important Points

• Kesariya:
• The song Kesariya from Brahmastra became a massive hit and garnered millions of views on YouTube within days of its release.
• Its soulful lyrics and melodious composition contributed significantly to the film’s popularity.
• Recognition of Music in Indian Cinema:
• Music plays a crucial role in Indian films, often driving the narrative and connecting emotionally with audiences.
• The National Film Awards honor exceptional contributions in music direction, highlighting its importance in the cinematic experience.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• Sikkim celebrated its 50th Statehood Day in May 2025, marking five decades since it officially became a part of India.
• Sikkim was granted statehood on May 16, 1975, through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975, making it the 22nd state of India.
• The current Chief Minister of Sikkim is Prem Singh Tamang, also known as P.S. Golay. He has been serving as the Chief Minister since May 2019.
• Prior to its statehood, Sikkim was a protectorate of India and governed as per the Indo-Sikkim Treaty of 1950.
• Sikkim is renowned for being India’s smallest state by population and for its unique geographical and cultural diversity.

Additional Information

• Historical Background of Sikkim:
• Sikkim was ruled by the Namgyal dynasty before becoming a protectorate under India in 1950.
• The Indo-Sikkim Treaty of 1950 ensured that India controlled its defense, communication, and external affairs.
• In 1975, a referendum was held, and the majority of Sikkimese people voted to abolish the monarchy and merge with India.
• Geographical Significance:
• Sikkim is located in the northeastern part of India, bordered by Nepal, Bhutan, China, and West Bengal.
• It is home to Kangchenjunga, the third-highest mountain in the world and a sacred peak for the Sikkimese people.
• Despite being the second smallest state by area, Sikkim is known for its biodiversity, hosting a wide range of flora and fauna.
• Prem Singh Tamang (P.S. Golay):
• Prem Singh Tamang is the leader of the Sikkim Krantikari Morcha (SKM) party.
• He took office as the Chief Minister of Sikkim on May 27, 2019, after his party won the state elections.
• Golay has been pivotal in implementing several developmental projects in Sikkim, focusing on tourism, education, and environmental conservation.
• Sikkim’s Achievements:
• Sikkim was declared India’s first organic state in 2016, promoting sustainable agricultural practices.
• The state is also recognized for its high literacy rate and efforts in preserving its indigenous culture.
• It is a popular tourist destination due to its natural beauty, monasteries, and adventure opportunities.

Important Points

• 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975:
• This amendment officially integrated Sikkim into India as a full-fledged state.
• It added Article 371F to the Indian Constitution, providing special provisions to protect Sikkim’s cultural and social heritage.
• Tourism in Sikkim:
• Sikkim attracts tourists with destinations like Tsomgo Lake, Nathula Pass, Rumtek Monastery, and Yumthang Valley.
• The state actively promotes eco-tourism and sustainable travel practices.
• Sikkim’s Role in India:
• Sikkim serves as a strategic location due to its proximity to international borders, especially with China.
• The Indian Army maintains a significant presence in Sikkim to safeguard national security.

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi was recently conferred with Russia's highest civilian honor, "The Order of St. Andrew the Apostle," in recognition of his exceptional contributions towards strengthening bilateral relations between India and Russia.
• The Order of St. Andrew the Apostle is one of the most prestigious awards in Russia, established in the year 1698 by Tsar Peter the Great to honor outstanding achievements and contributions to the state.
• The award acknowledges Prime Minister Modi's efforts in fostering closer ties between India and Russia, particularly in areas such as defense, trade, energy, and cultural exchange.
• Notably, this honor has previously been conferred upon eminent international figures and Russian citizens who have made significant contributions to the nation's development and global diplomacy.
• India and Russia share a long-standing strategic partnership, and this recognition highlights the deep-rooted diplomatic and cultural ties between the two nations.

Additional Information

• The Order of St. Andrew the Apostle:
• This civilian honor is named after St. Andrew, one of the apostles and the patron saint of Russia.
• It is considered one of the oldest and most prestigious awards in Russia, awarded to both Russian citizens and international figures for exceptional service to the nation.
• The insignia includes a badge with a blue-and-gold cross and a sash worn over the shoulder.
• India-Russia Relations:
• India and Russia have maintained a strong strategic partnership since the Cold War era, with cooperation in areas such as defense, space exploration, nuclear energy, and trade.
• Both nations are members of key multilateral organizations like BRICS and the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), promoting regional and global cooperation.
• Russia has consistently supported India on international platforms, including its bid for a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
• Other International Honors Received by PM Modi:
• PM Modi has previously been awarded the Legion of Merit by the United States, the Order of Abdulaziz Al Saud by Saudi Arabia, and the Champions of the Earth Award by the United Nations.
• These recognitions underline his efforts in global diplomacy, environmental conservation, and fostering international collaboration.
• Significance of Civilian Honors:
• Civilian awards like "The Order of St. Andrew the Apostle" serve as a testament to the recipient's contributions towards advancing bilateral relations, global peace, and mutual cooperation.
• These honors also strengthen diplomatic ties and promote cultural exchange between nations.

Important Points

• PM Modi's Contributions:
• Under PM Modi’s leadership, India has emerged as a key player in global diplomacy, fostering relations with major powers, including Russia.
• His initiatives, such as the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and active participation in forums like G20, have further elevated India’s role on the global stage.
• Russia's Recognition:
• The conferment of "The Order of St. Andrew the Apostle" to PM Modi reflects Russia’s appreciation for his leadership in advancing India-Russia relations.
• This recognition underscores the historical and strategic partnership between the two nations.

The correct answer is 0.417.

Key Points

• The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023-24 is a comprehensive survey conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) of India under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It monitors employment and labour force trends.
• According to the PLFS 2023-24, the female labour force participation rate (FLFPR) in India has increased to 41.7% (0.417). This marks a significant improvement in women's participation in the workforce.
• The FLFPR refers to the proportion of women aged 15 years and above who are either working (employed) or seeking work (unemployed) relative to the total female population in the same age group.
• This increase highlights the positive impact of government initiatives, skill development programs, and increased awareness of gender equality in workplaces.
• Despite this growth, India's FLFPR is still lower than the global average, indicating the need for further policy measures and reforms to enhance women's employment opportunities.

Additional Information

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
• The PLFS was launched in April 2017 to provide annual estimates of employment, unemployment, and labour force indicators for both rural and urban areas.
• It replaced the earlier Employment-Unemployment Surveys conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
• PLFS collects data on key indicators such as Worker Population Ratio (WPR), Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), and Unemployment Rate (UR).
• Factors Influencing FLFPR:
• Social factors such as cultural norms and family obligations often restrict women's participation in the workforce.
• Economic factors, including wage disparity and lack of job opportunities in rural areas, also impact the FLFPR.
• Government initiatives like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, Skill India Mission, and Stand-Up India aim to address these challenges and encourage women’s participation in various sectors.
• Global Comparison:
• According to the World Bank, the global average FLFPR stands at approximately 47%, significantly higher than India's rate.
• Countries like Bangladesh and Vietnam have FLFPRs exceeding 50%, showcasing the potential for India's improvement in this area.
• Government Policies to Improve FLFPR:
• Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017: Provides 26 weeks of paid maternity leave to women employees.
• Mahila Shakti Kendra: Aims to empower rural women through skill development and employment opportunities.
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY): Focuses on skill training and placement for rural youth, with a special emphasis on women.

Important Points

• Challenges in Improving FLFPR:
• Lack of access to safe and affordable childcare services is a significant barrier to women’s workforce participation.
• Gender stereotypes and occupational segregation often limit women's entry into high-paying, formal job sectors.
• Unpaid care work, which disproportionately falls on women, reduces their availability for paid employment opportunities.
• Significance of FLFPR Growth:
• Higher FLFPR contributes to economic growth by utilizing the untapped potential of women in the labour force.
• Improved women's participation in the workforce promotes gender equality and economic empowerment.
• It enhances household incomes and reduces poverty levels in both urban and rural settings.

The correct answer is 120.

Key Points

• As per the Union Budget 2025-26, the government of India has announced a revamped version of the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) initiative. The initiative is aimed at enhancing regional air connectivity.
• The revamped UDAN initiative will add 120 new destinations to its network, further expanding the accessibility of air travel to remote and underserved areas of the country.
• The original UDAN scheme, launched in 2016, sought to make flying affordable for the common man and improve the regional aviation infrastructure.
• The new destinations under the revamped initiative will focus on underserved and unserved airports across India, promoting economic development and tourism in these regions.
• Special emphasis will be placed on connecting Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities, thereby reducing travel time and enhancing regional development.

Additional Information

• UDAN Scheme Overview:
• The UDAN scheme was launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation in 2016 under the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS).
• It aims to connect unserved and underserved airports across India and make air travel affordable for the public.
• Under the scheme, financial incentives are provided to airlines in the form of Viability Gap Funding (VGF), ensuring affordable ticket pricing.
• Original Impact of the UDAN Scheme:
• Since its inception, the UDAN scheme has connected over 70 airports, with 1 crore passengers benefitting from affordable flights.
• Key routes have been established connecting Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities to major metropolitan hubs.
• Budgetary Allocation for the Revamped Scheme:
• The Union Budget 2025-26 has allocated significant funding for the revamped UDAN initiative to ensure the expansion of regional aviation infrastructure.
• The government has promised to enhance airport infrastructure and operational capabilities in smaller cities.
• Economic and Social Benefits:
• The addition of 120 new destinations is expected to boost regional tourism and create new opportunities for employment and economic development.
• Improved air connectivity will benefit industries such as agriculture, trade, and logistics, fostering growth in remote areas.

Important Points

• Viability Gap Funding (VGF):
• VGF is a financial support mechanism provided by the government to compensate for the shortfall in revenue for airlines operating under the UDAN scheme.
• This ensures that ticket prices remain affordable for passengers while airlines remain financially viable.
• Unserved and Underserved Airports:
• Unserved airports are those with no scheduled commercial flights, while underserved airports have limited connectivity.
• The revamped UDAN scheme prioritizes the development and operationalization of these airports.
• Focus on Sustainable Aviation:
• The government is also promoting green aviation practices by introducing energy-efficient airport infrastructure and low-emission aircraft under the revamped scheme.

The correct answer is Yuva.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched on 8th April 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to provide financial support to small and micro businesses.
• Under PMMY, loans are categorized into three categories: Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun, based on the size and stage of the business.
• Shishu: Loans up to ₹50,000 for budding entrepreneurs aiming to start a small business.
• Kishor: Loans ranging from ₹50,001 to ₹5,00,000 for businesses looking to expand.
• Tarun: Loans ranging from ₹5,00,001 to ₹10,00,000 for well-established businesses seeking higher financial assistance.
• Yuva is not a recognized category under PMMY. The three categories focus on different stages of business development, but "Yuva" is not included in the official framework.

Additional Information

• Objectives of PMMY:
• To promote entrepreneurship among small and micro businesses in India.
• To provide financial inclusion to the unbanked segments of society.
• To create employment opportunities through the growth of small businesses.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Any Indian citizen with a viable business plan in the non-farm sector can apply for a Mudra loan.
• The applicant must not have defaulted on any previous loans.
• Key Features of PMMY:
• Loans are offered without the need for collateral.
• The loans are provided through commercial banks, regional rural banks, NBFCs, and microfinance institutions.
• The scheme covers activities such as manufacturing, trading, and services.
• Impact of PMMY:
• PMMY has significantly contributed to the growth of small and micro-enterprises, especially in rural areas.
• It has helped bridge the gap in access to formal credit for entrepreneurs.

Important Points

• MUDRA Bank:
• The Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Bank was established to regulate and refinance microfinance institutions.
• MUDRA Bank plays a pivotal role in ensuring the success of PMMY by providing financial assistance to banks and NBFCs.
• PMMY Statistics:
• As of 2023, PMMY has disbursed loans to over 30 crore beneficiaries, with a majority being women entrepreneurs.
• It has contributed significantly to the development of MSMEs and created numerous job opportunities.
• Focus on Women and SC/ST Entrepreneurs:
• PMMY prioritizes loans for women entrepreneurs and individuals from SC/ST communities.
• This aligns with the government’s focus on inclusive growth and empowerment.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Narcotics are substances that act on the central nervous system to relieve pain or induce sleep but have a high potential for abuse and addiction. Examples include Morphine and Methadone.
• Morphine: It is a potent opioid analgesic derived from the opium plant and is widely used for pain relief in medical settings. It also falls under the category of narcotics and is banned in sports as it enhances performance by masking pain. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Methadone: Methadone is a synthetic opioid used to treat severe pain and as part of drug addiction detoxification. It is classified as a narcotic and is prohibited in sports due to its potential for abuse and performance-enhancing effects. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Narcotics are listed as prohibited substances under the guidelines of the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
• The use of narcotics in sports violates fair play principles and poses significant health risks to athletes.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Morphine:
• Morphine is derived from the resin of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum).
• It is used for managing severe pain in conditions like post-surgery recovery or terminal illnesses such as cancer.
• Morphine binds to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, altering the perception of pain.
• It can cause side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, and addiction.
• Characteristics of Methadone:
• Methadone is a synthetic opioid developed in Germany during World War II.
• It is used for pain management and as a substitute for heroin in drug addiction treatment.
• Methadone works by blocking the euphoric effects of narcotics, thereby reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms.
• It is administered under strict medical supervision due to its high addiction potential.
• Regulations in Sports:
• The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) maintains a list of prohibited substances, including narcotics, to ensure fair competition.
• Athletes found using banned substances face consequences such as disqualification, suspension, or fines.
• Doping tests are conducted during competitions and training to detect the use of narcotics.
• Health Risks of Narcotics:
• Narcotics can lead to addiction, tolerance, and dependence, making them hazardous for long-term use.
• Overdose can cause respiratory failure, coma, or even death.
• Prolonged use may result in psychological issues such as depression or anxiety.

Important Points

• World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
• WADA was established in 1999 to combat doping in sports globally.
• It publishes the Prohibited List annually, which includes narcotics, stimulants, and other performance-enhancing substances.
• WADA promotes education and awareness to discourage athletes from engaging in doping.
• Examples of Narcotics Prohibited in Sports:
• Morphine
• Methadone
• Heroin
• Codeine (in certain concentrations)
• Consequences of Doping:
• Disqualification from competitions
• Damage to reputation
• Legal penalties in certain jurisdictions
• Long-term health complications

The correct answer is 21 points.

Key Points

• A badminton match generally consists of games played up to 21 points under the rally scoring system.
• In the rally scoring system, a point is awarded for every rally, regardless of which player serves.
• The player or team that first reaches 21 points wins the game, provided they have a lead of at least two points over their opponent.
• If the score reaches 20-20, the game continues until one player/team achieves a lead of two points, but the maximum score limit is 30 points. This means the first player/team to reach 30 points wins the game.
• A badminton match typically consists of three games, and the player or team that wins two out of three games is declared the winner.

Additional Information

• Scoring System:
• The rally scoring system was introduced in 2006 by the Badminton World Federation (BWF) to make the game faster and more exciting.
• Under this system, players can score points regardless of who is serving.
• Each game is played to 21 points, with the winner requiring at least a two-point lead unless the score reaches 30-29.
• Badminton Match Format:
• A standard badminton match consists of three games, referred to as the best of three.
• The player or team that wins two games first is declared the match winner.
• The match can end in straight sets if one player/team wins the first two games.
• Historical Context:
• Prior to 2006, the scoring system varied, with games played to 15 points for men’s singles and doubles, and 11 points for women’s singles.
• The transition to the rally scoring system was made to increase the pace of the game and improve its appeal for spectators and broadcasters.
• Major Badminton Championships:
• Badminton is governed internationally by the Badminton World Federation (BWF).
• Prominent tournaments include the All England Championships, the Olympic Games, and the BWF World Championships.
• Badminton is immensely popular in countries such as China, India, Indonesia, and Denmark.

Important Points

• Key Rules:
• A player/team changes sides at the end of each game and during the third game when one side reaches 11 points.
• The interval between games lasts two minutes, and players are allowed a 60-second break when one side scores 11 points in a game.
• Strategic Insights:
• Players often adjust their strategy based on the rally scoring system to maximize points during service and return.
• Game pace and endurance play a vital role, as matches can be physically demanding under the 21-point system.
• Sportsmanship:
• Players are expected to adhere to fair play principles and respect the umpire’s decisions.
• Badminton emphasizes agility, precision, and tactical gameplay, making it a sport of both physical and mental skill.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The Majhi Vasundhara Campaign is an initiative launched by the Maharashtra state government to strengthen efforts towards environmental conservation.
• This campaign aims to involve citizens and local governing bodies in adopting sustainable practices and taking actionable steps to protect the environment.
• The campaign is an integral part of Maharashtra's commitment to address climate change, promote afforestation, and conserve natural resources.
• The campaign focuses on the "5 elements of nature"—Earth, Water, Air, Fire, and Space—to create awareness and encourage environmental responsibility.
• The Majhi Vasundhara Abhiyan emphasizes participation from every sector, including government institutions, local communities, and private organizations, to ensure a collective effort toward sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Objective of Majhi Vasundhara Campaign:
• The campaign seeks to promote environmentally friendly initiatives such as tree plantation, waste management, water conservation, and the use of renewable energy.
• It encourages citizens to adopt eco-friendly lifestyles and reduce their carbon footprint.
• This campaign also aims to enhance public awareness regarding the adverse effects of climate change and the importance of taking proactive measures.
• Key Strategies:
• The campaign works through initiatives such as Green Maharashtra and Clean Maharashtra, focusing on sustainable urban and rural development.
• Local governing bodies are incentivized for their contributions to environmental conservation under the campaign.
• Promotional activities include workshops, public rallies, and social media campaigns to drive widespread awareness.
• Achievements:
• The campaign has successfully engaged over 2,000 local governing bodies in Maharashtra to adopt sustainable practices.
• Numerous initiatives such as mass tree plantations, rainwater harvesting, and waste segregation have been implemented under this campaign.
• The state government has set ambitious targets for increasing the green cover and reducing pollution levels across Maharashtra.
• Importance of Environmental Campaigns:
• Such campaigns play a crucial role in addressing global environmental challenges, including climate change and biodiversity loss.
• They help inculcate a sense of environmental responsibility among citizens and promote sustainable practices at the grassroots level.
• By involving local communities, these campaigns ensure a more inclusive approach to environmental conservation.

Important Points

• Other States and Their Environmental Initiatives:
• Jharkhand: The state has focused on afforestation and tribal inclusion in conservation efforts but is not associated with the Majhi Vasundhara Campaign.
• Sikkim: Known for being India's first organic state, Sikkim emphasizes sustainable agriculture practices and biodiversity conservation.
• Manipur: Environmental efforts in Manipur include initiatives to protect Loktak Lake and promote eco-tourism.
• Maharashtra's Environmental Challenges:
• Maharashtra faces significant environmental concerns, including deforestation, urban pollution, and water scarcity.
• The Majhi Vasundhara Campaign is a step toward tackling these challenges through public participation and sustainable practices.

The correct answer is Qatar.

Key Points

• FIFA World Cup 2022 was hosted by Qatar, making it the first time the tournament was held in the Middle East region.
• The tournament took place from 20 November to 18 December 2022, coinciding with Qatar's National Day on the final match day.
• It was a unique edition as it was the first FIFA World Cup to be held during the winter months (November-December) due to the extreme summer heat in Qatar.
• Qatar invested heavily in infrastructure, spending approximately $220 billion to prepare for the tournament, including building eight state-of-the-art stadiums, transportation systems, and accommodations.
• Argentina, led by captain Lionel Messi, emerged as the champion after defeating France in the final, which ended in a dramatic penalty shootout (3-3 in regular time, 4-2 in penalties).

Additional Information

• Key Features of Qatar’s FIFA World Cup:
• The tournament featured 32 teams from across the globe, competing in 64 matches.
• Qatar constructed 8 new stadiums, including the famous Lusail Iconic Stadium, which hosted the final match.
• Sustainability was a priority, with the Stadium 974 being the first fully demountable stadium in World Cup history, made from shipping containers.
• Qatar showcased its rich culture and traditions, blending football with its heritage to offer a unique experience for fans worldwide.
• Notable Moments:
• The 2022 edition saw several upsets, including Saudi Arabia’s historic win against Argentina in the group stage.
• Morocco became the first African team to reach the semi-finals, creating history and inspiring the continent.
• Lionel Messi won the Golden Ball for being the best player of the tournament, while Kylian Mbappé was awarded the Golden Boot for scoring the most goals (8).
• Economic Impact:
• Hosting the FIFA World Cup boosted Qatar’s global image and economy, attracting tourists and investments.
• The tournament led to significant growth in the hospitality and transportation sectors, with millions of visitors attending the event.
• Other Host Countries in FIFA History:
• Russia hosted the FIFA World Cup in 2018, where France won the championship.
• Brazil hosted in 2014, with Germany emerging as the winner.
• Future hosts include Canada, Mexico, and the USA in 2026, marking the first tri-nation World Cup.

Important Points

• Why Qatar’s Selection Was Historic:
• Qatar was chosen to host the tournament in 2010 by the FIFA Executive Committee.
• This marked the first time the FIFA World Cup was held in the Arab world, promoting inclusivity and regional representation in football.
• The decision faced scrutiny and criticism over human rights concerns and working conditions for migrant laborers. However, Qatar implemented reforms to address these issues.
• Technological Innovations:
• The 2022 World Cup introduced the semi-automated offside technology for more accurate and faster referee decisions.
• State-of-the-art cooling systems were used in stadiums to ensure comfortable conditions for players and fans.

The correct answer is Qatar.

Key Points

• The FIFA Men’s U-17 World Cup 2025 will be hosted by Qatar, a nation known for its strong football culture and state-of-the-art sports infrastructure.
• Qatar has already established itself as a major player in hosting global sporting events, such as the FIFA World Cup 2022, which was hailed for its excellent organization and facilities.
• The decision to award Qatar the hosting rights aligns with FIFA's efforts to promote football in the Middle East and encourage regional participation in the sport.
• Qatar’s hosting of the U-17 World Cup is part of its long-term vision to use sports as a platform for cultural exchange, as reflected in its Qatar National Vision 2030.
• The tournament will feature the best U-17 teams from across the globe, providing a platform for young talent to showcase their skills on the international stage.

Additional Information

• Qatar’s Sports Infrastructure:
• Qatar boasts world-class stadiums such as the Lusail Iconic Stadium and the Al Janoub Stadium, which were extensively used during the FIFA World Cup 2022.
• The country’s investment in infrastructure includes advanced training facilities, transportation networks, and accommodations tailored for athletes and fans.
• FIFA U-17 World Cup History:
• The FIFA U-17 World Cup is a biennial tournament organized by FIFA, aimed at promoting young football talent globally.
• It was first held in 1985 and has since been a stepping stone for many players who later achieved success in senior football.
• Qatar National Vision 2030:
• This is a strategic framework launched by Qatar to transform the nation into an advanced society capable of sustainable development by 2030.
• Sports development is a key pillar of this vision, with a focus on hosting international events and promoting grassroots sports.
• FIFA’s Role in Youth Development:
• FIFA organizes tournaments like the U-17 World Cup to foster global football talent and provide young players with exposure to competitive international football.
• This initiative helps in creating a pipeline of skilled players who can represent their countries at the senior level in the future.

Important Points

• Qatar’s Global Sporting Events:
• Besides football, Qatar has hosted other significant sporting events such as the Asian Games (2006) and the IAAF World Athletics Championships (2019).
• The country is also set to host the FIBA Basketball World Cup 2027, further solidifying its reputation as a global sports hub.
• FIFA’s Middle East Engagement:
• The allocation of the FIFA U-17 World Cup 2025 to Qatar reflects FIFA’s commitment to promoting football in regions like the Middle East.
• Such initiatives aim to inspire the youth in the region to take up football, contributing to the global growth of the sport.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Guruvayur Festival is a famous cultural and religious festival celebrated in the state of Kerala, India.
• This festival is organized annually at the Guruvayur Temple, which is a renowned shrine dedicated to Lord Krishna, considered an incarnation of Lord Vishnu.
• The temple is located in the town of Guruvayur, in the Thrissur district of Kerala.
• The festival is marked by various cultural events, religious rituals, and traditional performances such as Kathakali, Chenda Melam, and Panchavadyam, showcasing Kerala's rich heritage.
• The highlight of the festival is the Ekadasi celebrations, which are observed with great devotion and grandeur, attracting thousands of devotees from across the country.

Additional Information

• Guruvayur Temple:
• The Guruvayur Temple is one of the most significant pilgrimage sites in South India and is referred to as the “Dwarka of the South”.
• The temple deity, Lord Krishna, is worshipped in the form of a child, referred to as Guruvayurappan.
• The temple's history dates back over 5,000 years, and it is an important center for Vaishnavism.
• Ekadasi Festival:
• The Guruvayur Ekadasi falls in the Malayalam month of Vrischikam (November-December).
• It is considered one of the most auspicious days, and devotees observe fasting and special prayers.
• The day is associated with the Geetha Jayanti, the day when Lord Krishna is believed to have delivered the Bhagavad Gita to Arjuna.
• Other Cultural Highlights:
• The festival includes traditional art forms like Ottanthullal, Thayambaka, and Koodiyattam.
• The procession of the temple elephants, particularly the decorated main elephant named Guruvayur Kesavan, is a major attraction.
• Kerala as a Cultural Hub:
• Kerala is known for its rich traditions, diverse festivals, and unique art forms.
• Other notable festivals of Kerala include Onam, Thrissur Pooram, and Vishu.
• The state is often referred to as “God’s Own Country” for its natural beauty and cultural heritage.

Important Points

• Temple Timings: The Guruvayur Temple opens early in the morning and remains open till late evening to allow devotees to perform rituals and offer prayers.
• Dress Code: Visitors must adhere to a strict dress code, with traditional attire being mandatory for entry into the temple premises.
• Accessibility: Guruvayur is well-connected by road and rail, with the nearest airport being Cochin International Airport, located about 80 km away.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Gol Gumbaz is located in Bijapur, a city in the state of Karnataka, India.
• It is the mausoleum of Mohammed Adil Shah, the Sultan of Bijapur, who ruled between 1627 and 1656.
• The structure is renowned for its exceptional architectural design, particularly its massive dome, which is one of the largest unsupported domes in the world.
• Gol Gumbaz is built using Deccan Indo-Islamic architecture, showcasing the influence of Persian and Indian styles.
• The tomb is famous for its whispering gallery, where even the faintest sound can be heard clearly across the gallery due to its unique acoustic design.

Additional Information

• Location: Gol Gumbaz is situated in Bijapur, Karnataka, a historic city known for its architectural heritage.
• Architectural Features:
• The dome of Gol Gumbaz is 44 meters (144 feet) in diameter, making it one of the largest domes globally.
• The tomb rests on a square base, and the corners are adorned with octagonal minarets.
• The structure is built using dark grey basalt and is a testament to advanced engineering techniques of the era.
• Whispering Gallery:
• The whispering gallery inside the dome allows sound to travel across the gallery due to its acoustic brilliance.
• This feature has made Gol Gumbaz a popular tourist destination.
• Historical Significance:
• Gol Gumbaz was built during the reign of the Adil Shahi dynasty, which ruled Bijapur.
• It serves as the of Mohammed Adil Shah, his wives, and other family members.
• Other Attractions in Bijapur:
• Bijapur is home to several other architectural marvels, such as the Jama Masjid, Ibrahim Rauza, and Malik-e-Maidan (the largest medieval cannon).
• The city represents the rich cultural and architectural legacy of the Deccan Sultanates.

Important Points

• Architect:** Gol Gumbaz was designed by Yaqut of Dabul, a Persian architect.**
• Construction Year:** The tomb was constructed in 1656.**
• Bijapur:** Bijapur was a prominent city under the Adil Shahi dynasty, known for its significant contributions to art and architecture.**
• Tourism:** Gol Gumbaz is a popular tourist attraction in Karnataka, drawing visitors from across the globe due to its historical and architectural importance.**

The correct answer is New Glenn.

Key Points

• New Glenn is the first orbital-class rocket developed by Blue Origin, a private aerospace manufacturer and spaceflight services company founded by Jeff Bezos in the year 2000.
• The rocket is named after John Glenn, the first American astronaut to orbit the Earth, signifying its mission to achieve orbital spaceflight capabilities.
• Blue Origin launched the New Glenn rocket in January 2025, marking a major milestone in its efforts to compete with other spaceflight companies like SpaceX.
• The rocket is a two-stage launch vehicle designed for a wide range of missions, including satellite deployment and interplanetary exploration.
• New Glenn features a reusable first stage that is capable of landing on a ship at sea, reducing costs and making spaceflight more sustainable.
• The rocket is powered by BE-4 engines, developed in-house by Blue Origin, and uses liquefied natural gas (LNG) and liquid oxygen (LOX) as propellants.

Additional Information

• New Shepard:
• New Shepard is a suborbital rocket developed by Blue Origin for space tourism and scientific payloads.
• It is named after Alan Shepard, the first American astronaut to travel to space.
• The rocket is designed to carry passengers and experiments to the Kármán line, the boundary of space, and return safely to Earth.
• Unlike New Glenn, it is not intended for orbital missions but focuses on short-duration suborbital flights.
• New Horizon:
• New Horizon is not related to Blue Origin but is a NASA spacecraft launched in 2006.
• It was designed for the exploration of Pluto and the Kuiper Belt, making it one of NASA's most successful interplanetary missions.
• This option is unrelated to the orbital capabilities of Blue Origin rockets.
• Blue Moon:
• Blue Moon is a lunar lander developed by Blue Origin as part of its goal to support NASA's Artemis program for returning humans to the Moon.
• It is designed to deliver cargo and possibly crew to the lunar surface, focusing on lunar exploration and development.
• It is not an orbital rocket but a specialized lander for Moon missions.
• Features and Capabilities of New Glenn:
• The rocket has a massive payload capacity of up to 45 metric tons to low Earth orbit (LEO), making it suitable for heavy payloads.
• Its reusable first stage can perform up to 25 missions, significantly reducing operational costs.
• The rocket's design includes a seven-meter fairing, providing ample space for satellites and other payloads.
• New Glenn's first stage recovery mechanism is similar to SpaceX's Falcon 9, enabling it to land on a floating platform at sea.

Important Points

• BE-4 Engine:
• The BE-4 engine is a state-of-the-art rocket engine developed by Blue Origin to power both New Glenn and United Launch Alliance's Vulcan Centaur.
• It uses methane as fuel, making it more efficient and environmentally friendly compared to traditional kerosene-based engines.
• Competition:
• New Glenn is positioned to compete with SpaceX's Falcon Heavy and Starship, as well as ULA's Vulcan Centaur, in the commercial spaceflight market.
• Its large payload capacity and reusability make it attractive for satellite deployment and interplanetary missions.
• Blue Origin’s Vision:
• Blue Origin aims to create a future where millions of people live and work in space, focusing on reusability and sustainability in space exploration.
• New Glenn is a stepping stone toward achieving this vision, aligning with the company's motto: "Gradatim Ferociter" (Step by Step, Ferociously).