Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Jul 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2023

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

  1. Variance
  2. Violence
  3. Vanquish
  4. Vampire
  5. Valiant
  6. Victorious
  1. AOption (a)

    4, 5, 3, 1, 2, 6

  2. BOption (b)

    5, 3, 4, 1, 6, 2

  3. COption (c)

    5, 4, 3, 1, 6, 2

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 3, 5, 2, 1, 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5, 4, 3, 1, 6, 2

Why this answer is correct

The arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary is as shown below :

  1. Valiant
  2. Vampire
  3. Vanquish
  4. Variance
  5. Victorious
  6. Violence

Hence, the correct answer is "5, 4, 3, 1, 6, 2".

Question 2

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

756 ÷ 252 + 89 × 180 - 63 = 384

  1. AOption (a)
    • and × 
  2. BOption (b)

    ÷ and -

  3. COption (c)
    • and +
  4. DOption (d)

    ÷ and +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.
  • and × 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

By using BODMAS RULE :

Option 1) : + and × 

Given equation is  : 756 ÷ 252 + 89 × 180 - 63 = 384

After interchanging the two signs the equation is as follows : 756 ÷ 252 × 89 + 180 - 63 = 384

⇒ 756 ÷ 252 × 89 + 180 - 63 = 384

⇒ 3 × 89 + 180 - 63 = 384

⇒ 267 + 180 - 63 = 384

⇒ 447 - 63 = 384

⇒ 384 = 384

LHS = RHS

Option 2) : ÷ and -

Given equation is  : 756 ÷ 252 + 89 × 180 - 63 = 384

After interchanging the two signs the equation is as follows : 756 - 252 + 89 × 180 ÷ 63 = 384

⇒ 756 - 252 + 89 × 180 ÷ 63 = 384

⇒ 756 - 252 + 89 × 2.857 = 384

⇒ 756 - 252 + 254.2857 = 384

⇒ 1010.2857 - 252 = 384

⇒ 758.2857 ≠ 384

LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) : - and +

Given equation is  : 756 ÷ 252 + 89 × 180 - 63 = 384

After interchanging the two signs the equation is as follows : 756 ÷ 252 - 89 × 180 + 63 = 384

⇒ 756 ÷ 252 - 89 × 180 + 63 = 384

⇒ 3 - 89 × 180 + 63 = 384

⇒ 3 - 16020 + 63 = 384

⇒ 66 - 16020 = 384

⇒ 15954 ≠ 384

LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) : ÷ and +

Given equation is  : 756 ÷ 252 + 89 × 180 - 63 = 384

After interchanging the two signs the equation is as follows : 756 + 252 ÷ 89 × 180 - 63 = 384

⇒ 756 + 252 ÷ 89 × 180 - 63 = 384

⇒ 756 + 2.831 × 180 - 63 = 384

⇒ 756 + 509.66 - 63 = 384

⇒ 1265.66 - 63 = 384

⇒ 1202.66 ≠ 384

LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "+ and ×".

Question 3

Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series.

AESO_WDAE _ _ MWDA_SOM_D_ESOMW_

  1. AOption (a)

    MOSEDAW

  2. BOption (b)

    MSOEDAW

  3. COption (c)

    MOESWAD

  4. DOption (d)

    MSOEWAD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MSOEWAD

Why this answer is correct

Given :- AESO_WDAE _ _ MWDA_SOM_D_ESOMW_

By checking options and substituting accordingly.

1) MOSEDAW → A E S O M W D - A E O S M W D - A E S O M D D - A E S O M W W

2) MSOEDAW → A E S O M W D - A E S O M W D - A E S O M D D - A E S O M W W

3) MOESWAD → A E S O M W D - A E O E M W D - A S S O M W D - A E S O M W D

4) MSOEWAD → A E S O M W D -  A E S O M W D - A E S O M W D - A E S O M W D

  • Here, 'AESOMWD' is repeated.
  • Option (4) gives the pattern of :- A E S O M W D -  A E S O M W D - A E S O M W D - A E S O M W D

Hence, the correct answer is "MSOEWAD".

Question 4

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below :

Detailed Explanation:

  • The line MN is the mirror.
  • The word 'em2BLKi' ends with second letter 'K'. So, the mirror image should be '

' ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

  • The word 'em2BLKi' ends with third letter 'L'. So, the mirror image will be '

' ⇒ Option 2 is eliminated.

  • The word 'em2BLKi' starts with third number as '2'. So, the mirror will be '

' ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 5

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

7 : 21 :: 14 : 42 :: 18 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    57

  2. BOption (b)

    54

  3. COption (c)

    63

  4. DOption (d)

    72

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

54

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

First number × 3 = Second number

  • 7 : 21 → 7 × 3 = 21

and

  • 14 : 42 → 14 × 3 = 42

Similarly,

  • 18 : ? → 18 × 3 = 54

Hence, the correct answer is "54".

Question 6

'Wilt’ is related to ‘Droop’ in the same way as ‘Thrive’ is related to '_______'

  1. AOption (a)

    Decline 

  2. BOption (b)

    Careful 

  3. COption (c)

    Deteriorate 

  4. DOption (d)

    Flourish 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Flourish 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Wilt synonym is Droop.

Similarly,

Thrive synonym is Flourish.

Hence, the correct answer is "Flourish".

Question 7

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 8

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded? 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

After unfolding the given paper the figure formed is as shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 9

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

BCE, GHJ, LMO, QRT, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    VWY

  2. BOption (b)

    VWX

  3. COption (c)

    WXZ

  4. DOption (d)

    UVX

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

VWY

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Hence, the correct answer is "VWY".

Question 10

In a certain code language,

‘time has come’ is coded as ‘et im ak’;

‘come with money’ is coded as ‘nd ak co’ and

‘money has power’ is coded as ‘fu et nd’.

(All the codes are two-letter codes only.)

How will ‘with power’ be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    et mp

  2. BOption (b)

    td fu

  3. COption (c)

    fu co

  4. DOption (d)

    co mp

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

fu co

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

 

∴ Here, 'with power' is coded as 'fu co'.

Hence, the correct answer is "fu co".

Question 11

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Cotton : Cloth :: Sugarcane : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Salt

  2. BOption (b)

    Coffee

  3. COption (c)

    Sugar

  4. DOption (d)

    Chocolate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sugar

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Cotton is used to make clothes.

Similarly,

Sugarcane is used to make sugar.

Hence, the correct answer is "Sugar".

Question 12

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 — Operations on 13 such as adding /Subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(15, 21, 10)

(25, 36,17)

  1. AOption (a)

    (100, 45, 87) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (100, 33, 31)

  3. COption (c)

    (123, 23, 56) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (50, 45, 31)  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(100, 33, 31)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number ÷ 5) + (2nd number ÷ 3) = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (15, 21, 10)

→ (15 ÷ 5) + (21 ÷ 3)

→ 3 + 7 = 10.

For, (25, 36,17)

→ (25 ÷ 5) + (36 ÷ 3)

→ 5 + 12 = 17.

Similarly, for (100, 33, 31)

→ (100 ÷ 5) + (33 ÷ 3)

→ 20 + 11 = 31.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 13

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 — Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(13, 64, 5)

(10, 1, 9)

  1. AOption (a)

    (15, 144, 9) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (16, 256, 9) 

  3. COption (c)

    (15, 306, 9) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (16, 49, 9) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(16, 49, 9) 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

(First number - Third number)2

  • (13, 64, 5) → (13 - 5)2 = 82 = 64

and

  • (10, 1, 9) → (10 - 9)2 = 12 =1

Similarly,

  • (16, 49, 9) → (16 - 9)2 = 72 = 49

Hence, the correct answer is "(16, 49, 9)".

Question 14

In a certain code language, ‘DESIGN’ is coded as 8-10-38-18-14-28 and ‘FOREST’ is coded as 12-30-36-10-38-40. How will ‘PLAYER’ be coded in the same language?  

  1. AOption (a)

    32-24-2-50-10-36  

  2. BOption (b)

    32-26-2-50-12-38 

  3. COption (c)

    36-24-2-50-10-34 

  4. DOption (d)

    32-22-2-50-12-36 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

32-24-2-50-10-36  

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

‘DESIGN’ is coded as 8-10-38-18-14-28.

and

‘FOREST’ is coded as 12-30-36-10-38-40.

Similarly,

‘PLAYER’ will be coded as :

Hence, the correct answer is "32-24-2-50-10-36".

Question 15

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Fathers, Brothers and Males

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given relation is as shown below :

  • Some fathers are brothers.
  • All fathers are males.
  • All brothers are males.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 16

Select the figure that will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following figure series. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following figure series is as shown below :

  • Right side vertical line is placed on bottom step by step horizontal lines.
  • Left side vertical line is placed on bottom step by step horizontal lines.
  • This process repeated alternately from left once and right once from figure to figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 17

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

36 * 12 * 6 * 12 * 3 = 63

  1. AOption (a)

    ×, ÷, -, +

  2. BOption (b)

    ÷, -, +, × 

  3. COption (c)

    ÷, +, -, × 

  4. DOption (d)

    +, ÷, ×, -

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

×, ÷, -, +

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

By using BODMAS RULE :

Option 1) : ×, ÷, -, +

Given equation : 36 * 12 * 6 * 12 * 3 = 63

After inserting the mathematical operators in given equation the equation is as follows : 36 × 12 ÷ 6 - 12 + 3 = 63

⇒ 36 × 12 ÷ 6 - 12 + 3 = 63

⇒ 36 × 2 - 12 + 3 = 63

⇒ 72 - 12 + 3 = 63

⇒ 75 - 12 = 63

⇒ 63 = 63

LHS = RHS

Option 2) : ÷, -, +, × 

Given equation : 36 * 12 * 6 * 12 * 3 = 63

After inserting the mathematical operators in given equation the equation is as follows : 36 ÷ 12 - 6 + 12 × 3 = 63

⇒ 36 ÷ 12 - 6 + 12 × 3 = 63

⇒ 3 - 6 + 12 × 3 = 63

⇒ 3 - 6 + 36 = 63

⇒ 39 - 6 = 63

⇒ 33 ≠ 63

LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) : ÷, +, -, × 

Given equation : 36 * 12 * 6 * 12 * 3 = 63

After inserting the mathematical operators in given equation the equation is as follows : 36 ÷ 12 + 6 - 12 × 3 = 63

⇒ 36 ÷ 12 + 6 - 12 × 3 = 63

⇒ 3 + 6 - 12 × 3 = 63

⇒ 3 + 6 - 36 = 63

⇒ 9 - 36 = 63

⇒ 27 ≠ 63

LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) : +, ÷, ×, -

Given equation : 36 * 12 * 6 * 12 * 3 = 63

After inserting the mathematical operators in given equation the equation is as follows : 36 + 12 ÷ 6 × 12 - 3 = 63

⇒ 36 + 12 ÷ 6 × 12 - 3 = 63

⇒ 36 + 2 × 12 - 3 = 63

⇒ 36 + 24 - 3 = 63

⇒ 60 - 3 = 63

⇒ 57 ≠ 63

LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "×, ÷, -, +".

Question 18

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing ‘3'.  

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Opposite surface of the open dice can be found by the below method:- 

  • Alternate surfaces are opposite to each other.
  • No two opposite surface are touched by side or by corners

From the positions 1, 2, 3 of Dice the opposite faces identified as :

From dice First, second and third:

NumbersOpposite
24
56
31

∴ Here, The opposite side of '3' is '1'.

Hence, the correct answer is "1".

Question 19

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series is as shown below :

  • The slant line is added from figure to figure inside triangel.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 20

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Clothes, Shirts, Linen

Clothes = C

Shirts = S

Linen = L

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given relations is as shown below :

  • All shirts are clothes.
  • Some shirts are made from Linen.

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 21

A % B means ‘A is the daughter of B’

A = B means ‘A is the sister of B’

A $ B means ‘A is the father of B’

X % Y = Z % W $ V, then how is Z related to V?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother's mother

  3. COption (c)

    Sister 

  4. DOption (d)

    Brother  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sister 

Why this answer is correct

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

A % B means ‘A is the daughter of B’

A = B means ‘A is the sister of B’

A $ B means ‘A is the father of B’

Symbol%=$
MeaningDaughterSisterFather

The given expression is :-

'X % Y = Z % W $ V' → X is daughter of Y, Y is sister of Z, Z is daughter of W, W is father of V.

∴ Here, 'Z' is sister to 'V'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Sister".

Question 22

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

3, 12, ?, 39, 57, 78

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

24

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

Question 23

Select the set In which the numbers are related In the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers Into Its constituent digits. E.g. 13 — Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(47, 108, 169)

(22, 83, 144)

  1. AOption (a)

    (11, 73, 133) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (51, 112, 173) 

  3. COption (c)

    (33, 121, 181) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (8, 64, 130)  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(51, 112, 173) 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (2nd number × 2) - 1st number = 3rd number.

(47, 108, 169)

⇒ (108 × 2) - 47

⇒ 216 - 47 = 169.

(22, 83, 144) 

⇒ (83 × 2) - 22

⇒ 166 - 22 = 144.

Similarly, (51, 112, 173) 

⇒ (112 × 2) - 51

⇒ 224 - 51 = 173.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Alternate Method

The logic followed here is :-

Second number = First number + 61 

Third number = First number + 122

  • (47, 108, 169) → (47, 47 + 61, 47 + 122)

and

  • (22, 83, 144) → (22, 22 + 61, 22 + 122)

Similarly,

  • (51, 112, 173) → (51, 51 + 61, 51 + 122)

Hence, the correct answer is "(51, 112, 173)".

Question 24

The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) are followed in all the number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair. 

  1. AOption (a)

    23 : 153

  2. BOption (b)

    15 : 97

  3. COption (c)

    16 : 106

  4. DOption (d)

    26 : 174

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16 : 106

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

(First number × 7) - 8

1) 23 : 153 → (23 × 7) - 8 = 161 - 8 = 153

2) 15 : 97 → (15 × 7) - 8 = 105 - 8 = 97

3) 16 : 106 → (16 × 7) - 8 = 112 - 8 = 104 ≠ 106.

4) 26 : 174 → (26 × 7) - 8 = 182 - 8 = 174

Hence, the correct answer is "16 : 106".

Question 25

Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

  1. AOption (a)

    HJNU

  2. BOption (b)

    TXBG

  3. COption (c)

    ACGN

  4. DOption (d)

    PRVC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

TXBG

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

1) HJNU

2) TXBG

3) ACGN

4) PRVC

∴ Here, 'TXBG' is different from other three alternatives.

Hence, the correct answer is "TXBG".

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

The National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021 (MPI) was released by which of the following?  

  1. AOption (a)

    World Bank 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Finance 

  3. COption (c)

    NITl Aayog 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NITl Aayog 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NITl Aayog.

Key Points

  • National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021 (MPI):-
  • It is a comprehensive measure of poverty that captures multiple deprivations faced by households across the three macro dimensions of health, education, and living standards.
  • It is the first-of-its-kind index developed for India, and it is based on the latest National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) data.
  • It was released by NITI Aayog.
  • NITl Aayog:-
  • NITI Aayog, also known as the National Institution for Transforming India, is a public policy think tank of the Government of India.
  • It was established with the aim of achieving sustainable development and good governance.
  • It was formed on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission of India.

Additional Information

  • World Bank:-
  • The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
  • Ministry of Finance:-
  • The Ministry of Finance (MoF) is a ministry within the Government of India responsible for the economy of India, serving as the Treasury of India.
  • The MoF is headed by the Minister of Finance, who is a member of the Cabinet of India.
  • Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment:-
  • It is a Government of India ministry that is responsible for welfare, social justice, and empowerment of disadvantaged and marginalized sections of society.
  • These sections include Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), Other Backward Classes (OBCs), persons with disabilities, minorities, and victims of atrocities.
  • The MSJE is headed by a Cabinet minister and assisted by two Ministers of State.

Question 27

In which year did E Gorter and F Grendel make a breakthrough by examining the surface area of lipids and concluded that the lipid surface surrounding cells must be of two layers?  

  1. AOption (a)

    1910

  2. BOption (b)

    1925

  3. COption (c)

    1945

  4. DOption (d)

    1962

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1925

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1925.

Key Points

  • Langmuir Trough Experiment:-
  • E Gorter and F Grendel made a breakthrough by examining the surface area of lipids and concluded that the lipid surface surrounding cells must be of two layers in the year 1925.
  • Their experiment involved extracting lipids from red blood cells and then spreading them out on a water surface to form a monolayer.
  • They then measured the area of the monolayer and found that it was twice the area of the surface area of the red blood cells.
  • This led them to conclude that the lipid bilayer model of the cell membrane must be correct.
  • Gorter and Grendel's work was a major breakthrough in the understanding of cell structure and function.
  • It helped to establish the lipid bilayer model of the cell membrane, which is still the accepted model today.

Question 28

Who among the following advocated the ideology of “oru jati, oru matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one caste, one religion, one god for humankind)?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Birsa Munda 

  2. BOption (b)

    Narayana Guru 

  3. COption (c)

    Swami Shradhanand 

  4. DOption (d)

    Keshub Chunder Sen 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Narayana Guru 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Narayana Guru .

Key Points

  • Narayana Guru:-
  • He was a great saint and social reformer of India. He preached for religious unity and social equality in Hinduism.
  • He is considered to be one of the greatest religious and social leaders of Kerala.
  • Narayana Guru gave his first sermon in 1884. He preached for religious unity and social equality in Hinduism.
  • He opposed the caste system, discrimination, and other social evils.
  • The ideology of “oru jati, oru matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one caste, one religion, one god for humankind) was advocated by Shri Narayana Guru only.

Additional Information

  • Swami Shraddhanand:-
  • He was an Arya Samaj sannyasi and an Indian Independence activist who propagated the teachings of Dayananda Saraswati.
  • He was a key figure in the Hindu Sangathan movement in the early 20th century, which aimed to unite Hindus and promote Hindu nationalism.
  • Birsa Munda:-
  • He was an Indian tribal freedom fighter and folk hero who belonged to the Munda tribe.
  • He led a tribal religious millenarian movement that arose in the Bengal Presidency (now Jharkhand) in the late 19th century, during the British Raj, thereby making him an important figure in the history of the Indian independence movement.
  • Keshub Chunder Sen:-
  • He was a Hindu philosopher and social reformer who attempted to incorporate Christian theology within the framework of Hindu thought.
  • He became a member of the Brahmo Samaj in 1857 but established his own breakaway "Bharatvarshiya Brahmo Samaj" in 1866 while the Brahmo Samaj remained under the leadership of Debendranath Tagore (who headed the Brahmo Samaj till his death in 1905).

Question 29

In November 2022, the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the naming of Greenfield Airport at Hollongi, ltanagar as: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport 

  2. BOption (b)

    East Siang Airport 

  3. COption (c)

    Changlang Airport 

  4. DOption (d)

    Donyi Polo Airport 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Donyi Polo Airport 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Donyi Polo Airport.

Key Points

  • Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar:-
  • It is a domestic airport serving Itanagar, the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh, India.
  • It is located at Hollongi, situated 14 km south from the city centre, in the Papum Pare district.
  • The airport is named after Donyi Polo, the supreme deity of the Tani people, the indigenous people of Arunachal Pradesh. The name "Donyi Polo" means "Sun and Moon" in the Tani language.
  • In November 2022, the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the naming of Greenfield Airport at Hollongi, Itanagar as Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar. (Hence option 4 is correct)

 Additional Information

  • Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport:-
  • It is an international airport serving Guwahati, the largest city in North-East India in Assam, India.
  • It is the 12th busiest airport in India.
  • The airport is named after Gopinath Bordoloi, a freedom fighter and the first Chief Minister of Assam after India's independence.

Question 30

According to the 2011 Census of India, which state has the highest population in India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar 

  2. BOption (b)

    West Bengal 

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh 

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uttar Pradesh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • 2011 Census of India:-
  • C M Chandramauli was the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India for the 2011 Indian Census.
  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state with a population of 199,812,341. This makes up 16.51% of the total population of India. (Hence option 3 is correct)
  • Maharashtra is the second most populous state in India.
  • The sex ratio in the country was is 943 females per 1000 males.
  • Haryana has the lowest sex ratio with just 877 women per 1000 males.
  • Bihar has the highest population density.
  • The overall literacy rate in India is 74% according to the 2011 census.
  • Bihar is the least literate state in India, with a literacy of 63.82%.
  • Goa was the most urbanized state with 62.17% of the population living in urban areas.

Additional Information

  • The top 10 most populous states in India according to the 2011 Census:
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Maharashtra
  • Bihar
  • West Bengal
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Rajasthan
  • Karnataka
  • Gujarat
  • Andhra Pradesh

Question 31

According to a written reply to the Lok Sabha by Government of India, as on 20 July 2022, approximately _______unorganised sector workers are registered on the e-Shram portal.  

  1. AOption (a)

    27 crores

  2. BOption (b)

    26 crores

  3. COption (c)

    28 crores

  4. DOption (d)

    25 crores

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

28 crores

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 28 crores.

Key Points

  • e-Shram portal:-
  • It is a national database of unorganized workers, which was launched in August 2021.
  • It is a one-stop shop for unorganized workers to access information and services related to social security schemes.
  • The portal also provides a platform for workers to register themselves and get a Universal Account Number (UAN), which can be used to access various social security schemes.
  • As of July 2022, approximately 28.96 crore unorganized sector workers are registered on the e-Shram portal.
  • This number is constantly increasing, as the government is encouraging more and more workers to register on the portal.

Additional Information

  • Unorganised sector workers:-
  • These are those who work in enterprises that are not registered under any law or which employ less than 10 workers.
  • They are also known as informal workers. Unorganised sector workers make up the majority of the workforce in India, accounting for over 90% of all employment.

Question 32

Moplahs, or Muslim peasants, created a powerful anti-zamindar movement in:

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu 

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Moplahs:-
  • The Moplahs, also known as Mappilas, are a Muslim community indigenous to the Malabar Coast of Kerala, India.
  • They are believed to have descended from Arab traders who settled in the region in the 9th century and intermarried with the local population.
  • The Moplahs have a distinct culture and language, which is a mix of Malayalam and Arabic.
  • They were one of the leading communities in the Malabar Rebellion of 1921, which was a peasant uprising against British colonial rule and the prevailing feudal system.
  • The Moplahs have also made significant contributions to the fields of art, literature, and politics.

Additional Information

  • Moplah Rebellion of 1921:-
  • It​ was the culmination of a series of riots by Moplahs (Muslims of Malabar) in the 19th and early 20th centuries against the British and the Hindu landlords in Malabar (Northern Kerala).
  • Most Moplahs were predominantly converted Hindus during Tipu Sultan's capture of Malabar.
  • The prominent leaders of the rebellion were Ali Musaliyar and Variyankunnath Kunjahammed Haji.
  • In November 1921, 67 Moplah prisoners were killed when they were being transported in a closed freight wagon from Tirur to the Central Prison in Podanur. They died of suffocation. This event is called Wagon Tragedy.

Question 33

Match the animals in column A with the phylum they belong to in column B  

Column-AColumn-B
i.Jelly fisha.Mollusca
ii.Cray fishb.Mammal
iii.Whale fishc.Arthropoda
iv.Devil fishd.Coelenterate
  1. AOption (a)

    i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d

  2. BOption (b)

    i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c

  3. COption (c)

    i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d

  4. DOption (d)

    i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a.

Key Points

  • Jellyfish:-
  • These are gelatinous marine animals with umbrella-shaped bells and trailing tentacles.
  • They are members of the phylum Cnidaria, which also includes corals, sea anemones, and hydras.
  • Jellyfish are found in all of the world's oceans, from the surface to the deep sea.
  • Jellyfish are coelenterates.
  • Coelenterates are a phylum of aquatic animals that are characterized by their radially symmetrical bodies, two layers of cells (ectoderm and endoderm), and a gastrovascular cavity (coelenteron).
  • Crayfish:-
  • It is also known as crawfish, crawdads, mudbugs, or freshwater lobsters, are aquatic crustaceans that live in freshwater habitats such as rivers, streams, lakes, and ponds.
  • It belongs to the arthropoda phlyum.
  • They are found all over the world except for Antarctica, and there are over 500 species of crayfish known to science.
  • Whalefish:-
  • They are a family of deep-sea fish that are related to anglerfish and barbeled dragonfish and belongs to mammal.
  • They are named for their resemblance to whales, with large heads, gaping mouths, and streamlined bodies.
  • Whalefish are found in all the world's oceans, at depths of up to 3,000 meters.
  • Devilfish:-
  • The devilfish, also known as the giant Pacific octopus, is a cephalopod mollusk native to the northern Pacific Ocean.
  • Devil fish belongs to Mollusca.
  • It is the largest octopus species in the world, with females growing up to 15 meters (50 feet) in arm span and weighing up to 50 kilograms (110 pounds).
Column-AColumn-B
i.Jelly fishd.Coelenterate
ii.Cray fishc.Arthropoda
iii.Whale fishb.Mammal
iv.Devil fisha.Mollusca

Question 34

Which part of the Constitution of India incorporates the Directive Principles of State Policy? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Part IV

  2. BOption (b)

    Part V

  3. COption (c)

    Part VI

  4. DOption (d)

    Part III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Part IV

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Part IV.

Key Points

  • Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of our State Policy (DPSP)
  • It includes Articles 36-51.
  • The provisions contained in this Part cannot be enforced by any court, but these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
  • The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
  • While most of the Fundamental Rights are negative obligations on the state, DPSPs are positive obligations on the state, though not enforceable in a court of law.

Additional Information

Parts of the Indian Constitution - 

PartsSubject MatterArticles Covered
IThe Union and its territory1 to 4
IICitizenship5 to 11
IIIFundamental Rights12 to 35
IVDirective Principles of State Policy36 to 51
IV-AFundamental Duties51-A
VThe Union Government52 to 151
Chapter I - The Executive52 to 78
Chapter II - Parliament79 to 122
Chapter III - Legislative Powers of the President123
Chapter IV - The Union Judiciary124 to 147
Chapter V - Comptroller and Auditor-General of India148 to 151
VIThe State Governments152 to 237
Chapter I - General152
Chapter II - The Executive153 to 167
Chapter III - The State Legislature168 to 212
Chapter IV - Legislative Powers of the Governor213
Chapter V - The High Courts214 to 232
Chapter VI - Subordinate Courts233 to 237
VIIIThe Union Territories239 to 242
IXThe Panchayats243 to 243-O
IX-AThe Municipalities243-P to 243-ZG
IX-BThe Co-operative Societies243-ZH to 243-ZT
XThe Scheduled and Tribal Areas244 to 244-A
XIRelations between the Union and the States245 to 263
Chapter I - Legislative Relations245 to 255
Chapter II - Administrative Relations256 to 263
XIIFinance, Property, Contracts, and Suits264 to 300-A
Chapter I - Finance264 to 291
Chapter II - Borrowing292 to 293
Chapter III - Property, Contracts, Rights, Liabilities, Obligations, and Suits294 to 300
Chapter IV - Right to Property300-A
XIIITrade, Commerce, and Intercourse within the Territory of India301 to 307
XIVServices under the Union and the States308 to 323
Chapter I - Services308 to 314
Chapter II - Public Service Commissions315 to 323
XIV-ATribunals323-A to 323-B
XVElections324 to 329-A
XVISpecial Provisions Relating to Certain Classes330 to 342
XVIIOfficial Language343 to 351
Chapter I - Language of the Union343 to 344
Chapter II - Regional Languages345 to 347
Chapter III-Language of the Supreme Court, High Courts, and so on348 to 349
Chapter IV-Special Directives350 to 351
XVIIIEmergency Provisions352 to 360
XIXMiscellaneous361 to 367
XXAmendment of the Constitution368
XXITemporary, Transitional, and Special Provisions369 to 392
XXIIShort title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi, and Repeals393 to 395

Question 35

Imadshahi family was known for the foundation of which state?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Berar

  2. BOption (b)

    Bidar

  3. COption (c)

    Ahmednagar

  4. DOption (d)

    Golkonda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Berar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Berar.

Key Points

  • Berar Sultanate:-
  • It was one of the Deccan sultanates, which was founded by an Indian Muslim.
  • It was established in 1490 following the disintegration of the Bahmani Sultanate.
  • The Imadshahi family ruled Berar for over a century, until it was conquered by the Mughal Empire in 1595. (Hence option 1 is correct)

Additional Information

  • Bidar Sultanate:-
  • It is also known as the Barid Shahi dynasty, and was one of the Deccan sultanates of late medieval southern India.
  • The sultanate emerged under the rule of Qasim Barid I in 1492 and leadership passed to his sons.
  • Ahmednagar Sultanate:-
  • It was also known as the Nizam Shahi Sultanate.
  • It was a late medieval Indian Muslim kingdom located in the northwestern Deccan, between the sultanates of Gujarat and Bijapur, ruled by the Nizam Shahi or Bahri dynasty.
  • Golconda Sultanate:-
  • It is also known as the Qutb Shahi dynasty.
  • It was a medieval South Indian Muslim sultanate founded in 1518.
  • It is located near the city of Hyderabad in the present-day state of Telangana, India.

Question 36

The activity of making a human pyramid and putting efforts to break an earthen pot filled with buttermilk is associated with which festival?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Holi

  2. BOption (b)

    Janmashtami 

  3. COption (c)

    Dushara

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahashivaratri 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Janmashtami 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Janmashtami.

Key Points

  • Janmashtami:-
  • Janmashtami is a Hindu festival that celebrates the birth of Lord Krishna, the eighth avatar of Vishnu.
  • The festival is celebrated on the eighth day of the dark moon in the month of Shravan, which usually falls in August or September.
  • The activity of making a human pyramid and putting efforts to break an earthen pot filled with buttermilk is associated with the festival of Janmashtami. (Hence option 2 is correct)

Additional Information

  • Dussehra:-
  • It is a major Hindu festival celebrated on the tenth day of the month of Ashvin, which usually falls in September or October.
  • The festival marks the victory of good over evil, and it is celebrated in different ways across India.
  • Mahashivaratri:-
  • It is a major Hindu festival dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • It is celebrated on the 14th day of the dark moon in the month of Phalguna, which usually falls in February or March.
  • Mahashivaratri is also celebrated as the wedding day of Lord Shiva and Parvati.
  • Holi:-
  • It is a Hindu spring festival celebrated on the last full moon day of the lunar month Phalguna, which usually falls in late February or early March.
  • The festival marks the end of winter and the beginning of spring, and it is a time for people to come together and celebrate the renewal of life.

Question 37

Who among the following was the author of ‘Indica’, an account of India under the reign of the Maurya dynasty? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Strabo

  2. BOption (b)

    Pliny 

  3. COption (c)

    Diodorus Siculus 

  4. DOption (d)

    Megasthenes 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Megasthenes 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Megasthenes.

Key Points

  • The author of 'Indica' was Megasthenes.
  • He was a Greek ambassador sent to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire, by Seleucus I Nicator.
  • Seleucus I Nicator was one of the generals of Alexander the Great who, after Alexander's death, took control of the eastern part of his empire, which included territories in Asia Minor, Persia, and parts of India.
  • His work 'Indica' is a significant source of information about India, providing valuable details about its geography, society, and culture during the Mauryan period.

Additional InformationMegasthenes wrote an account of his observations about India in his book named "Indica"..

  • Geographical Details: Megasthenes provided an account of India's geography, including its mountains, rivers, flora and fauna, and climatic conditions.
  • Description of Society: "Indica" included distinct details about social divisions, including the caste system and occupations of various groups.
  • Urban Centers: Megasthenes described the city of Pataliputra (modern Patna), capital of the Maurya empire, in detail. This gave us information about city life, architecture, and administration.
  • Administration and Military: The book portrayed the organized administrative structures and gave an account of the Mauryan army, with descriptions of elephants in warfare.
  • Customs and Practices: "Indica" included information about contemporary customs, diets, festivals, and religious practices, and reported that India had no slavery.
  • Megasthenes also provided an account of Chandragupta Maurya’s reign and wrote about the prosperity and peace within the empire.
  • It is important to note that "Indica" had some inaccuracies or exaggerations possibly due to misunderstandings or cultural differences. For example, Megasthenes reported on creatures such as giant ants that dug up gold dust and humans with no mouths, which are widely considered to be based on misunderstandings or myths.

Important Points

BookAuthorDescription
"Arthashastra"Chanakya/ KautilyaThis ancient treatise on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy provides valuable insights into the political and economic life of the Mauryan period.
"Buddhacharita"AshvaghoshaThis is a biography of the Buddha, giving an account of his life and teachings, and offers insights into the contemporary society and culture.
"Ashtadhyayi"PaniniThis work is a comprehensive descriptive grammar of Sanskrit, giving us an understanding of the development of the language as well as some sociocultural aspects.
"Ain-i-Akbari"Abu'l FazlDescribes the administration, culture, and society during the reign of Akbar in the Mughal empire. While not as ancient as the others in this list, it's a crucial historical account.

Question 38

Which is the first integrated steel plant in the public sector in India?  

  1. AOption (a)

    The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Limited 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rourkela Steel Plant 

  3. COption (c)

    The Salem Steel Plant 

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Iron and Steel Company  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rourkela Steel Plant 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rourkela Steel Plant 

Key Points

  • Rourkela Steel Plant:-
  • RSP is a public sector, integrated steel plant in Rourkela, Odisha state, India.
  • It was established on the 3rd of February 1959 with the help of West German industrial corporations on approximately 19,000 acres of land acquired from tribal inhabitants.
  • The plant is operated by the Steel Authority of India (SAIL), a Central PSU.
  • RSP was the first integrated steel plant in the public sector in India and is one of the largest steel plants in the country. (Hence option 2 is correct).
  • It has a production capacity of 4.5 million tonnes of Hot Metal, 4.2 million tonnes of Crude Steel and 3.9 million tonnes of Saleable Steel.

Additional Information

  • Indian Iron and Steel Company"-
  • IISCO is an integrated steel plant located at Burnpur, West Bengal, India.
  • It is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), the largest steel producer in India.
  • IISCO has a crude steel production capacity of 2.5 million tonnes per year.
  • Salem Steel Plant:-
  • SSP is a steel plant located in the city of Salem, Tamil Nadu, India.
  • It is a unit of the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), the largest steel producer in India.
  • SSP is a pioneer in the production of stainless steel in India.
  • Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Limited:-
  • VISL is a steel plant located in the city of Bhadravathi, Karnataka, India.
  • It is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), the largest steel producer in India.
  • VISL is a pioneer in the production of high quality alloy & special steels and pig iron.

Question 39

Kamalini and Nalini Asthana were conferred the Padma Shri in 2022 for which of the following? 

  1. AOption (a)

    For teaching and propagating Kathak globally  

  2. BOption (b)

    For taking Indian cuisine to the world  

  3. COption (c)

    For disaster relief work in Gujarat 

  4. DOption (d)

    For specialising in the study of Indian society  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

For teaching and propagating Kathak globally  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is For teaching and propagating Kathak globally  

Key Points

  • Kamalini Asthana and Nalini Asthana are a sister duo from Agra in Uttar Pradesh known for their great performances of the Banaras Gharana style of Kathak.
  • They are also known for their contributions to the popularisation of the Benaras Gharana style of Kathak both in India and abroad.
  • In 2022, Govt of India conferred the Padma Shri award, the third highest award in the Padma series of awards, on Kamalini Asthana and Nalini Asthana for teaching and propagating Kathak globally.
  • The award is in recognition of his service as an "Acclaimed Kathak Dancer Duo from Agra known for teaching and propagating it globally.

Question 40

Net Investment plus Depreciation gives an estimate of which of the following? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Gross Domestic Product 

  2. BOption (b)

    Personal income  

  3. COption (c)

    Gross investment 

  4. DOption (d)

    Private investment  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gross investment 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gross investment 

Key Points

  • Gross investment:-
  • It is the total expenditure on new capital goods during a period of time.
  • It includes investment in both fixed assets, such as machinery and equipment, and inventory.
  • Gross investment is an important component of economic growth, as it increases the productive capacity of the economy.
  • Net Investment plus Depreciation gives an estimate of Gross investment.
  • Gross investment can be divided into two categories: public investment and private investment.
  • Public investment is an investment made by the government, such as on infrastructure projects.
  • Private investment is investment made by businesses, such as on new factories and equipment.

Additional Information

  • Personal income:-
  • It is the total amount of money that an individual or household receives in a given period of time, typically a year.
  • It includes all forms of income, such as wages, salaries, bonuses, commissions, investment income, rental income, and government benefits.
  • Personal income is often used as a measure of an individual's or household's financial well-being.
  • Gross domestic product:-
  • GDP is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services made within a country during a specific period.
  • As a broad measure of overall domestic production, it functions as a comprehensive scorecard of a given country's economic health.

Question 41

Who among the following Indian classical tabla players was called ‘Abbaji’'? He collaborated with American jazz drummer Buddy Rich to create a music album in 1968.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Taufiq Qureshi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Zakir Hussain 

  3. COption (c)

    Fazal Qureshi 

  4. DOption (d)

    Alla Rakha 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Alla Rakha 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alla Rakha. 

Key Points

  • Alla Rakha:-
  • He is also known as A.R. Qureshi, was born in 1919 in Phagwal, Jammu, India.
  • He was a renowned tabla player of the Punjab gharana (community of musicians sharing a distinctive musical style).
  • He was also a devoted teacher and founded the Alla Rakha Institute of Music in Bombay in 1985.
  • The Indian classical tabla player who was called ‘Abbaji’ and collaborated with American jazz drummer Buddy Rich to create a music album in 1968 is Alla Rakha.
  • Rakha is best known for his collaboration with sitar virtuoso Ravi Shankar in the 1960s and '70s. The duo toured extensively and helped to popularize Indian classical music in the West.

Additional Information

  • Taufiq Qureshi:-
  • Taufiq Qureshi is an Indian classical musician and percussionist.
  • He is the son of the legendary tabla player Alla Rakha and the younger brother of Zakir Hussain, who is also a renowned tabla player.
  • Zakir Hussain:-
  • Zakir Hussain is an Indian tabla player, composer, educator, and producer.
  • He is widely regarded as "one of the world's greatest tabla players."
  • Fazal Qureshi:-
  • He is an Indian tabla player and the son of the legendary tabla maestro Ustad Allah Rakha.
  • He was born in Mumbai, India, in 1963 and began learning the tabla from his father at a young age.
  • He also studied under other renowned tabla players, including Ustad Zakir Hussain and Ustad Aashish Khan.

Question 42

The first phase of the ‘action plan for introduction of the Cheetah in India’ witnessed ________ being released in the Kuno National Park of Madhya Pradesh in September 2022.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 cheetahs 

  2. BOption (b)

    6 cheetahs 

  3. COption (c)

    8 cheetahs 

  4. DOption (d)

    12 cheetahs 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8 cheetahs 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 8 cheetahs.

Key Points

  • Action plan for the introduction of the Cheetah in India:-
  • The first phase of the ‘action plan for the introduction of the Cheetah in India’ witnessed 8 cheetahs being released in the Kuno National Park of Madhya Pradesh in September 2022.
  • These cheetahs were brought from Namibia, and their release marked a historic moment for India, as the cheetah had been declared extinct in the country in 1952.
  • The reintroduction of the cheetah is a significant conservation effort, and it is hoped that the cheetahs will thrive in Kuno National Park and eventually repopulate their historic range in India.

Question 43

The famous physicist Victor Franz Hess is known for the discovery of: 

  1. AOption (a)

    cosmic radiation 

  2. BOption (b)

    quantum statistics  

  3. COption (c)

    expanding universe 

  4. DOption (d)

    theory of super conductivity 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

cosmic radiation 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is cosmic radiation. 

Key Points

  • Cosmic Radiation:-
  • These are high-energy particles that travel through space and bombard Earth's atmosphere.
  • They were discovered by Victor Franz Hess in 1912, when he made a series of balloon ascents to measure the ionization of the atmosphere at different altitudes. (Hence option 1 is correct).
  • He found that the ionization increased with altitude, even though the atmosphere becomes less dense at higher altitudes.
  • This led him to conclude that there must be a source of radiation coming from outside the atmosphere.

Additional Information

  • Quantum statistics:-
  • It is the application of statistical mechanics to quantum mechanical systems.
  • It describes the behavior of large ensembles of identical quantum particles, taking into account the restrictions imposed by quantum mechanics, such as the Pauli exclusion principle and the wave-like nature of matter.
  • Expanding universe:-
  • It is one of the most important discoveries in modern physics.
  • It was first proposed by Edwin Hubble in the 1920s, and it has since been confirmed by many other observations.
  • Theory of Superconductivity:-
  • It is a microscopic theory that explains the phenomenon of superconductivity.
  • Superconductivity is the ability of certain materials to conduct electricity without resistance and to expel magnetic fields below a certain critical temperature.

Question 44

Identify the water harvesting system in Western Himalayas. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Khadins 

  2. BOption (b)

    Johads 

  3. COption (c)

    None of these 

  4. DOption (d)

    Guls 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Guls 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Guls.

Key Points

  • Guls:-
  • Guls are diversion channels that are built along the contours of hillsides to collect and transport water from streams and springs to villages and agricultural fields.
  • The most common water harvesting system in the Western Himalayas is the gul, also known as a kul.
  • Guls are typically made of stone or earth and are lined with clay or plastic to prevent leakage.
  • They can be several kilometers long and may have several branches to distribute water to different areas.

 Additional Information

  • Johads:-
  • These are traditional rainwater harvesting systems that are practiced in the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, Punjab, and western Uttar Pradesh of North India.
  • Johads are community-owned and managed, and they are used to store rainwater throughout the year.
  • Khadins:-
  • These are traditional rainwater harvesting systems that are practiced in the Thar Desert region of India, particularly in the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan.
  • Khadins are also known as dhoras.

Question 45

Which of the following states has won the 2022 Santosh Trophy? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu 

  2. BOption (b)

    West Bengal 

  3. COption (c)

    Goa 

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka

 Key Points

  • 2022 Santosh Trophy:-
  • It was the 76th edition of the Santosh Trophy, the premier competition in India for teams representing their regional and state football associations.
  • The tournament was held from 23 December 2022 to 4 March 2023, with the final being played at the King Fahd Stadium in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
  • The tournament was contested by a total of 36 teams, which were divided into six groups of six teams each.
  • Karnataka won the 2022 Santosh Trophy, defeating Meghalaya in the final with 3-2 scoreline.

Question 46

Which of the following statements are correct regarding composition of the State Legislative Council? 

A. The maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Assembly.

B. The minimum strength of the Council is fixed at 40.

C. A total of 56\frac{5}{6} of the total number of members of a Legislative Council are indirectly elected and 16\frac{1}{6} members are nominated.

D. The nominations (nominated members) made by the Governor can be challenged in the court.

  1. AOption (a)

    B, C and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, C and D

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B and C only.

Key Points

State Legislative Council:-

  • It is​ referred to as Vidhan Parishad, is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature whereas the lower house is the State Legislative Assembly.
  • There are 6 states that have a State Legislative Council. These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • The size of the State Legislative Council cannot be more than one-third of the members of the State Legislative Assembly. But,the minimum number of members cannot be less than 40 members. (Hence A and B are correct)
  • Compositions- 
  • One third of member of the council are elected by the members of local bodies such as municipalities, Gram panchayats, Panchayat samitis and district councils.
  • One third of member are elected by the members of Legislative Assembly of the State from among the persons who are not members of the State Legislative Assembly.
  • One sixth member are nominated by the Governor from the persons having knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, arts, the cooperative movement and social services.
  • One twelfth member are elected by persons who are graduates of three years' standing as residents of that state.
  • One twelfth member are elected by teachers who had at least three years of experience in teaching in educational institutions within the state not below secondary schools, including colleges and universities.

Question 47

In which of the following Sessions of the IOC Executive Board Meeting was Brisbane voted to host the 2032 Olympics and Paralympics? 

  1. AOption (a)

    139th Session held in Beijing

  2. BOption (b)

    138th Session held in Tokyo

  3. COption (c)

    137th Session held in Lausanne

  4. DOption (d)

    140th Session held in India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

138th Session held in Tokyo

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 138th Session held in Tokyo.

Key Points

  • 138th Session held in Tokyo:- 
  • Brisbane was voted to host the 2032 Olympics and Paralympics at the 138th IOC Session on 21 July 2021 in Tokyo, Japan.
  • Following changes in the bidding rules, the International Olympic Committee selected and announced Brisbane as the winning bid on 21 July 2021, two days before the start of the 2020 Summer Olympics.
  • Brisbane was first announced as the preferred bid on 24 February 2021, gaining the formal approval of the IOC Executive Board on 10 June 2021.
  • Brisbane became the first host city to be selected to host the Olympics through the new bid process.
  • The 138th IOC Session was held under strict COVID-19 restrictions, and the vote was held in a secret ballot. Brisbane received 72 yes and 5 no votes from 77 valid votes.

Additional Information

  • 140th Session of the International Olympic Committee:-
  • It will be held in Mumbai, India from October 15 to 17, 2023.
  • This will be the second time that India has hosted an IOC Session, the first being in New Delhi in 1983.
  • 139th Session of the International Olympic Committee:-
  • It was held in Beijing, China on February 3 and 19, 2022 and in Lausanne, Switzerland on May 20, 2022.
  • The Session was held just ahead of the 2022 Winter Olympic Games in Beijing.
  • The Session was attended by IOC members from all over the world, and it covered a wide range of topics, including the following:
  • 137th IOC Session:-
  • It was held in Lausanne, Switzerland from March 10 to 12, 2021.
  • The Session was held virtually due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Question 48

When did Henry Cavendish report the measurement of the gravitational constant with the mass and density of the Earth?  

  1. AOption (a)

    March 1795 

  2. BOption (b)

    June 1798 

  3. COption (c)

    April 1796 

  4. DOption (d)

    May 1797 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

June 1798 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is June 1798.

 Key Points

  • Henry Cavendish:-
  • He was a brilliant scientist who made significant contributions to chemistry and physics.
  • He discovered hydrogen in 1766 and measured the gravitational constant in 1798.
  • His work on the gravitational constant was particularly important, as it provided the first accurate measurement of the force of gravity between masses in the laboratory.
  • He reported the measurement of the gravitational constant with the mass and density of the Earth in June 1798. His results were published in a 57-page paper in the Transactions of the Royal Society entitled “Experiments to Determine the Density of the Earth.”
  • Cavendish's experiment was the first to measure the force of gravity between masses in the laboratory and the first to yield accurate values for the gravitational constant. He used a torsion balance to measure the tiny gravitational attraction between two small lead balls and two much larger stationary lead balls.
  • Cavendish's results were surprisingly accurate, and they remained the best available measurement of the gravitational constant for over a century. His experiment is considered to be one of the most important and influential experiments in the history of physics.

Question 49

Which of the following have been characteristics of Green Revolution?

A. Spurt in crop productivity.

B. Shift away from commercial farming to subsistence farming.

C. Rise in acreage.

  1. AOption (a)

    All - A, B and C

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B and C

  3. COption (c)

    Only A and C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A and B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only A and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only A and C

Key Points

  • Green Revolution:-
  • ​The Green Revolution was started in the period 1960s.
  • It commenced in India in the year 1966 under the premiership of Congress leader Lal Bahadur Shastri.
  • It is also known as the Third Agricultural Revolution.
  • In India, Dr. M.S Swaminathan is known as the Father of the Green Revolution.
  • Green Revolution is related to the increase in the production of Foodgrains, especially rice and wheat. (Hence A is correct)
  • It leads to an increase in the production of food grains in the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Punjab.
  • The Green Revolution did not lead to a shift away from commercial farming. In fact, it helped to make commercial farming more efficient and profitable. (Hence B is incorrect)
  • It also resulted in a rise in acreage. (Hence C is also correct).

Question 50

Which of the following awards was received by Pandit Birju Maharaj in 1986?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Padma Shri 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sangeet Natak Akademi 

  3. COption (c)

    Padma Vibhushan 

  4. DOption (d)

    Padma Bhushan  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Padma Vibhushan 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padma Vibhushan.

 Key Points

  • Pandit Birju Maharaj:-
  • He was a renowned Indian Kathak dancer, composer, singer, and artist.
  • He was a leading exponent of the Lucknow Kalka-Bindadin Gharana of Kathak dance in India.
  • Birju Maharaj made several important contributions to the field of Kathak dance.
  • He refined the technique and style of the dance, and he helped to popularize Kathak dance to a wider audience.
  • He also choreographed several dance dramas that used Kathak dance as a form of storytelling.
  • Birju Maharaj was honored with several awards for his work, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1964), Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan (1986).

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

An 11-digit number 7823326867X is divisible by 18. What is the value of X? 

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a number to be divisible by 18, it must be even and the sum of its digits must be divisible by 9.

Sum of digits of 7823326867X = 7 + 8 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 6 + 8 + 6 + 7 + X = 52 + X.

The nearest multiple of 9 greater than 52 is 54.

Equating: 52 + X = 54 ⇒ X = 2.

Since 2 is even, both conditions are satisfied.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Alternate Method

Given: The 11-digit number is 7823326867X and it is divisible by 18.

Divisibility Rule of 18: A number is divisible by 18 if it is divisible by both its co-prime factors, 2 and 9.

⇒ Condition 1: The number must be divisible by 2, which means the last digit X must be an even number (0, 2, 4, 6, or 8).

⇒ Condition 2: The number must be divisible by 9, which means the sum of its digits must be a multiple of 9.

⇒ Sum of digits = 7 + 8 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 6 + 8 + 6 + 7 + X

⇒ Sum = 52 + X

⇒ For (52 + X) to be divisible by 9, we check possible values of X from the options:

⇒ If X = 6, Sum = 52 + 6 = 58 (Not divisible by 9)

⇒ If X = 4, Sum = 52 + 4 = 56 (Not divisible by 9)

⇒ If X = 8, Sum = 52 + 8 = 60 (Not divisible by 9)

⇒ If X = 2, Sum = 52 + 2 = 54 (Divisible by 9, as 9 × 6 = 54)

⇒ Since X = 2 is even, it also satisfies the divisibility rule for 2.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of all its digits is exactly divisible by 9.

Divisibility Rule of 2

A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit is 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8.

Composite Divisibility

To check divisibility by a composite number n, the number must be divisible by the co-prime factors of n (e.g., for 12, check 3 and 4; for 15, check 3 and 5).

Question 52

(N +18) persons, each working for 7.5 hours a day, can complete 48% of a work in 20 days. (N + 12) persons can complete the remaining work in 30 days, if each of them works for 6.5 hours per day. Determine the value of N. 

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

18

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

(N +18) persons, each working for 7.5 hours a day, can complete 48% of a work in 20 days.

(N + 12) persons can complete the remaining work in 30 days, if each of them works for 6.5 hours per day.

Calculation : 

⇒ (N + 18) × 7.5 × 20/48 = (N + 12) × 30 × 6.5/52

⇒ (N + 18) × 7800 = (N + 12) × 9360

⇒ (N + 18) × 780 = (N + 12) × 936

⇒ 780 N + 14040 = 936N + 11232

⇒ 156N = 2808

⇒ N = 2808/156 = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Question 53

If Mohit can complete 23\frac{2}{3}rd of a work in 24 days, then in how many days can 19th\rm\frac{1}{9}^{th} of the work be completed by him?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

Mohit can complete 23\frac{2}{3}rd of a work in 24 days.

Calculation : 

Let the time taken be x,

According to question,

⇒ M × 24/2/3 = M × x/1/9

⇒ M × 24 × 3/2 = M × x × 9

⇒ 24 × 3/2 = x × 9

⇒ 12 × 3 = x × 9

⇒ x = 4 days

∴ The correct answer is 4 days.

Question 54

If (x+1x)=22\rm \left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)=2\sqrt2 and x > 1, what is the value of (x6−1x6)\rm \left(x^6-\frac{1}{x^6}\right)?

  1. AOption (a)

    140√2

  2. BOption (b)

    116√2

  3. COption (c)

    144√2

  4. DOption (d)

    128√2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

140√2

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

• If (x + 1/x) = a then (x - 1/x) = √(a2 - 4)

• If x + 1/x = a, then (x3 + 1/x3) = a3 - 3a

• If x - 1/x = a, then (x3 - 1/x3) = a3 + 3a

Calculation:

(x+1x)=2√2\rm \left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)=2√2, then  (x - 1/x) = √(8 - 4) = 2

(x6−1x6)\rm \left(x^6-\frac{1}{x^6}\right)

⇒ (x3)2 - (1/x3)2

⇒ (x3 + 1/x3) (x3 - 1/x3)

⇒ [(2√2)3 - 3(2√2)] [23 + 3 × 2]

⇒ [16√2 - 6√2] × 14

⇒ 10√2 × 14

⇒ 140√2

∴ The correct answer is 140√2

Question 55

If sin⁡x−cos⁡xsin⁡x+cos⁡x=25\rm \frac{\sin x-\cos x}{\sin x+\cos x}=\frac{2}{5}, then the value of 1+cot⁡2x1−cot⁡2x\rm \frac{1+\cot^2x}{1-\cot^2x} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2.25

  2. BOption (b)

    1.45

  3. COption (c)

    3.75

  4. DOption (d)

    5.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.45

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

sin⁡x−cos⁡xsin⁡x+cos⁡x=25\rm \frac{\sin x-\cos x}{\sin x+\cos x}=\frac{2}{5}

⇒ sin⁡x+cos⁡xsin⁡x−cos⁡x=52\rm \frac{\sin x+\cos x}{\sin x-\cos x}=\frac{5}{2} 

Applying C & D rule, we get

⇒ sin⁡xcos⁡x=5+25−2\rm \frac{\sin x}{\cos x}=\frac{5 + 2}{5 -2} 

⇒ tan x = 7/3

⇒ cot x = 3/7

Now, the value of

 1+cot⁡2x1−cot⁡2x\rm \frac{1+\cot^2x}{1-\cot^2x}

⇒ 1+(37)21−(37)2\rm \frac{1+(\frac{3}{7})^2}{1-(\frac{3}{7})^2} 

⇒ 58/40

⇒ 1.45

∴ The correct answer is 1.45

Question 56

Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.

The pie-chart displays the percentage of fruits sold (in kg) by a fruit seller in one month.

 

<br>

If the total fruits sold by a frult seller In one month was 50,000 kg, find the approximate difference of the quantity (in kg) of pomegranates and that of berries.

  1. AOption (a)

    11,480

  2. BOption (b)

    13,535

  3. COption (c)

    21,408

  4. DOption (d)

    12,465

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11,480

Why this answer is correct

Calculation : 

⇒ 100% = 50000 kg

⇒ 1 % = 500 kg

⇒ Difference = 31.07% - 8.11% = 22.96%

⇒ 22.96 × 500 = 11480

∴ The correct answer is 11480.

Question 57

Simplify the given expression, 

432×432+247×247−432×247432×432×432+247×247×247\frac{432\times 432+247\times 247-432\times 247}{432\times 432\times 432+247\times 247\times 247}

  1. AOption (a)

    1259\frac{1}{259}

  2. BOption (b)

    1185\frac{1}{185}

  3. COption (c)

    1679\frac{1}{679}

  4. DOption (d)

    1450\frac{1}{450}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1679\frac{1}{679}

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used : 

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 + b2 - ab)

Calculation : 

⇒ 432×432+247×247−432×247432×432×432+247×247×247\frac{432× 432+247× 247-432× 247}{432× 432× 432+247× 247× 247}

⇒ (432)2+(247)2−432×247(432)3+(247)3\frac{(432)^2 + (247)^2 - 432 × 247}{(432)^3 + (247)^3}

⇒ [(432)2+(247)2−432×247][(432)+(247)](4322+2472−432×247)\frac{[(432)^2 + (247)^2 - 432 × 247]}{[(432) + (247)](432^2 + 247^2 - 432 \times 247)}

⇒ 1432+247\frac{1}{432 + 247}

⇒ 1679\frac{1}{679}

∴ The correct answer is 1/679.

Question 58

Simplify the following.  

3a+b2−a−3b3+2b\rm \frac{3a+b}{2}-\frac{a-3b}{3}+2b

  1. AOption (a)

    5(a+3b)6\rm \frac{5(a+3b)}{6}

  2. BOption (b)

    7a+3b6\rm \frac{7a+3b}{6}

  3. COption (c)

    7(a+3b)6\rm \frac{7(a+3b)}{6}

  4. DOption (d)

    (a+3b)6\rm \frac{(a+3b)}{6}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7(a+3b)6\rm \frac{7(a+3b)}{6}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation : 

⇒ 3a+b2−a−3b3+2b\rm \frac{3a+b}{2}-\frac{a-3b}{3}+2b

⇒ 3(3a+b)−2(a−3b)+12b6\frac{3(3a + b) - 2(a - 3b) + 12b}{6}

⇒ 9a+3b−2a+6b+12b6\frac{9a + 3b - 2a + 6b + 12b}{6}

⇒ 7a+21b6\frac{7a + 21b}{6}

⇒ 7(a+3b)6\frac{7(a + 3b)}{6}

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Question 59

Suhas mistakenly took as dividend a number which was 10% less than the original dividend. He also mistakenly took as divisor a number which was 20% less than the original divisor. If the correct quotient of the original question of division was 24 and the remainder was 0, then what quotient did Suhas obtain, assuming there was no error in his calculations?

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    21.6

  3. COption (c)

    26.4

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

27

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

New Quotient = (New Dividend % ÷ New Divisor %) × Original Quotient

New Quotient = [(100% − 10%) ÷ (100% − 20%)] × 24

New Quotient = (90% ÷ 80%) × 24

New Quotient = (9 ÷ 8) × 24 = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original Quotient = 24

Original Remainder = 0

New Dividend is 10% less than the Original Dividend.

New Divisor is 20% less than the Original Divisor.

Formula Used:

Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Original Dividend be D and the Original Divisor be d.

⇒ D = (d × 24) + 0

⇒ D ÷ d = 24

⇒ New Dividend = D − (10% of D) = 0.9D

⇒ New Divisor = d − (20% of d) = 0.8d

⇒ New Quotient = New Dividend ÷ New Divisor

⇒ New Quotient = 0.9D ÷ 0.8d

⇒ New Quotient = (0.9 ÷ 0.8) × (D ÷ d)

⇒ Substitute D ÷ d = 24:

⇒ New Quotient = (9 ÷ 8) × 24

⇒ New Quotient = 9 × 3 = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Additional Information

Division Algorithm

The foundational rule of division states that Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder. When the remainder is exactly zero, the dividend is a perfect multiple of the divisor.

Percentage Change in Fractions

If the numerator of a fraction changes by x% and the denominator changes by y%, the resulting fraction becomes [(100 ± x) ÷ (100 ± y)] × Original Fraction.

Base Change

When any given quantity is decreased by R%, the remaining quantity is computed directly as (100 − R)% of its original value. For example, a 10% decrease perfectly leaves 90% of the original value.

Question 60

On day one, with speed v, R covers a distance x, in t time. On the next day, he covers a distance 2.5x in 0.75t time. What is his speed the next day? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3.5 v

  2. BOption (b)

    103\frac{10}{3} v

  3. COption (c)

    4.5 v

  4. DOption (d)

    53\frac{5}{3} v

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

103\frac{10}{3} v

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used : 

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation : 

v = x/t

⇒ Speed = 2.5x/0.75t 

⇒ 25/10 × 100/75 × x/t

⇒ 250/75 × x/t

By putting v = x/t

⇒ 10v/3

∴ The correct answer is 10v/3.

Question 61

In a 1170 m race, Raman reaches the final point in 65 seconds and Mohan reaches the final point in 90 seconds. By how much distance does Raman beat Mohan?

  1. AOption (a)

    325 m

  2. BOption (b)

    300 m

  3. COption (c)

    375 m

  4. DOption (d)

    350 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

325 m

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

The speed of Mohan = 1170/90 = 13 m/s

Raman reaches the final point in 65 seconds, so Mohan covers in 65 sec is = (65 × 13) = 845 m

So, the distance by which Raman beats Mohan = 1170 m – 845 m = 325 m 

∴ The correct answer is 325 m

Question 62

It takes A and B, 3 and 6 hours, respectively, to complete a certain work. If they work on the alternate hour. How long will it take them to accomplish the task? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    4 hours

  3. COption (c)

    2 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    4.5 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4 hours

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

A can do work in 3 hours.

B can do work in 6 hours.

Formula Used : 

Work done = time × efficiency

Calculation : 

Total work = LCM(3, 6) = 6 

Efficiency of A = 2

Efficiency of B = 1

Since they work on alternate days starting with A,

So,

⇒ 2 hours = 3 units 

Now to complete 6 units of work 

⇒ 2 × 2 hours = 3 × 2 units

⇒ 4 hours = 6 units

∴ The correct answer is 4 hours.

Question 63

Two chords of a circle, AB‾\rm \overline{AB} and CD‾\rm \overline{CD}, meet outside the circle at the point P. If m(AP‾\rm \overline{AP}) = 200 mm, m(AB‾\rm \overline{AB}) = 120 mm, and m(CP‾\rm \overline{CP}) = 160 mm, what is the length of CD‾\rm \overline{CD}?

  1. AOption (a)

    100 mm

  2. BOption (b)

    75 mm

  3. COption (c)

    60 mm

  4. DOption (d)

    150 mm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

60 mm

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

m(AP‾\rm \overline{AP}) = 200 mm, m(AB‾\rm \overline{AB}) = 120 mm, and m(CP‾\rm \overline{CP}) = 160 mm

Calculation : 

Let the length of CD be x.

⇒ AP × BP = CP × DP

⇒ 200 × 80 = 160 × (160 -x)

⇒ 16000 = 160 × (160 -x)

⇒ 16000 = 25600 - 160x

⇒ x = 9600/160

⇒ x = 60 mm

∴ The correct answer is 60 mm.

Question 64

Two circles of same radius 6 cm, intersect each other at P and Q. If PQ = 10 cm, then what is the distance between the centres of the two circles? 

  1. AOption (a)

    10 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    8 cm

  3. COption (c)

    6√11 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    2√11 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2√11 cm

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

According to the given picture, O1 and O2 be the centres of the two circles,

The line joining the centers O1O2 bisect PQ at R

So, the ΔPRO1 is a right-angle triangle, right angle at ∠R

From Pythagoras theorem,

O1R = √(62 - 52)

⇒ O1R = √11

Now, distance between O1 and O2 is 2 × O1R = 2√11 cm

∴ The correct answer is 2√11 cm

Question 65

Find the value of (sin θ + cos θ)2 + (sin θ - cos θ)2.

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used : 

Sin2θ + Cos2θ = 1

Calculation : 

⇒ (sin θ + cos θ)2 + (sin θ - cos θ)2

⇒ sin2θ + cos2θ + 2sinθcosθ + sin2θ + cos2θ - 2sinθcosθ 

⇒ 2(sin2θ + cos2θ)

⇒ 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Question 66

A grocer claims that he is selling sugar at Rs. 48/kg, which costs him Rs. 50/kg, but he is giving 900 g instead of 1000 g. What will be the approximate percentage profit? 

  1. AOption (a)

    7.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    5.5%

  3. COption (c)

    8.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    6.7%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6.7%

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

A grocer claims that he is selling sugar at Rs. 48/kg, which costs him Rs. 50/kg.

He is giving 900 g instead of 1000 g.

Calculation : 

According to question,

⇒ 48/50 × 1000/900

⇒ 480/(50 × 9)

⇒ 480/450

Percentage Profit = 3/45 × 100 = 100/15 = 6.66% ≈ 6.7%

∴ The correct answer is 6.7%.

Question 67

Which of the following numbers is divisible by 36 ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    8840

  2. BOption (b)

    1542

  3. COption (c)

    96272

  4. DOption (d)

    55512

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

55512

Why this answer is correct

Calculation : 

By going through options,

⇒ 8840/36 = 245.55

⇒ 1542/36 = 42.833

⇒ 96272/36 = 2674.22

⇒ 55512/36 = 1542

We can see out of 4 options only fourth option is divisible by 36.

∴ The correct answer is 55512.

Question 68

Find the length of the arc of the sector of a circle of diameter 7 cm with a central angle of 108°. [Use π = 22/7]  

  1. AOption (a)

    6.6 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    5.6 cm

  3. COption (c)

    13.2 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    11.2 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6.6 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

Diameter = 7 cm

Central Angle = 108° 

Formula Used :

Length of the Arc = θ/360° × 2πr

Calculation : 

Length of arc = 108° /360° × 2 × 22/7 × 7/2

⇒ 2 × 11 × 108°/360° 

⇒ 2 × 11 × 12/40

⇒ 11 × 3/5

⇒ 33/5 = 6.6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6.6 cm.

Question 69

How much simple interest will Rs. 6,000 earn in 21 months at 8% per annum? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 750

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 880

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 620

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 840

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 840

Why this answer is correct

Given :

Principal = Rs.6000

Time = 21months

Rate = 8% per annum

Formula Used : 

SI = (P × R × T)/100

Calculation : 

⇒ SI = 6000 × 21 × 8/(100 × 12)

⇒ 60 × 21 × 8/12

⇒ 5 × 21 × 8 

⇒ 40 × 21

⇒ 840

∴ The correct answer is 840.

Question 70

A varies directly as (B + 18) and A = 108 when B = 36. Find the value of A when B = 68. 

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    86

  3. COption (c)

    127

  4. DOption (d)

    172

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

172

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A = k(B + 18), A = 108, B = 36

Calculation : 

⇒ A = k(B + 18)

⇒ 108 = k(36 + 18)

⇒ k = 108/54 = 2

A = 2 × (68 + 18)

⇒ 2 × 86 = 172

∴ The correct answer is 172.

Question 71

A conical tent has a radius of 7 m and a vertical height of 24 m. How many full bags of rice can be emptied in it if the space occupied by the rice in each bag is 2 m3?

  1. AOption (a)

    566

  2. BOption (b)

    616

  3. COption (c)

    716

  4. DOption (d)

    650

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

616

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

Radius = 7 m 

Height = 24 m

Space occupied by the rice in each bag is 2 m3.

Formula Used : 

Volume = 1/3πr2h

Calculation : 

Volume = 

⇒ 1/3 × 22/7 × 7 × 7 × 24 = n × 2

⇒ 22 × 7 × 8 = 2 × n 

⇒ n = 11 × 7 × 8 

⇒ n = 616

∴ The correct answer is 616.

Question 72

The following figure shows the scores of students in three tests organised by a coaching institution. Who scored the best on average? 

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    E

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

E

Why this answer is correct

Calculation : 

A = (84 + 71 + 95)/3 = 250/3 = 83.33

B = (93 + 76 + 101)/3 = 270/3 = 90

C = (99 + 79 + 71)/3 = 249/3 = 83

D = (80 + 90 + 94)/3 = 264/3 = 88

E = (88 + 93 + 90)/3 = 271/3 = 90.33

∴ The correct answer is 90.33.

Question 73

A man drives his car for 24 km at a speed of 48 km/h, and for the next 1.5 hours he drives at a speed of 80 km/h. Find his average speed (in km/h) for the entire journey. 

  1. AOption (a)

    64

  2. BOption (b)

    72

  3. COption (c)

    68

  4. DOption (d)

    75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

72

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

A man drives his car for 24 km at a speed of 48 km/h.

Next 1.5 hours he drives at a speed of 80 km/h. 

Formula Used : 

Average Speed = Total distance travelled/Total time taken

Calculation : 

Time taken for 24 km = 24/48 = 0.5 hours

Distance covered in 1.5 hours = 80 × 1.5 = 120 km

Average Speed = 120 + 24/(1.5 + 0.5)

⇒ 144/2 = 72 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 72 km/hr.

Question 74

If (cos⁡A1−sin⁡A)+(cos⁡A1+sin⁡A)=4\rm \left(\frac{\cos A}{1-\sin A}\right)+\rm \left(\frac{\cos A}{1+\sin A}\right)=4, then what will be the value of A? (0° < A < 90°)

  1. AOption (a)

    90°

  2. BOption (b)

    45°

  3. COption (c)

    60°

  4. DOption (d)

    30°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

60°

Why this answer is correct

Calculation :

⇒ cosA(1+sinA)+cosA(1−sinA)(1+sinA)(1−sinA)\frac{cosA(1 + sinA) + cosA(1 - sinA)}{{(1 + sinA)}{(1 -sinA)}} = 4

⇒ cosA+cosA.sinA+cosA−cosAsinA(1−sinA)(1+sinA)\frac{cosA + cosA.sinA + cosA - cosAsinA}{{(1 - sinA)}{(1 + sinA)}} = 4

⇒ 2/cosA = 4

⇒ cosA = 1/2

⇒ A = 60° 

∴ The correct answer is 60°.

Question 75

A dealer purchased a washing machine for Rs. 9,000. He allows a discount of 10% on its marked price and still gains 10%. Find the marked price of the machine.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 11,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 12,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 13,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 10,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 11,000

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

CP = Rs.9000

Discount = 10%

Profit = 10%

Calculation : 

By going through ratio method,

Now by making SP same

CP = 90 unit = 9000

⇒ 1 unit = 100

MP = 110 unit × 100 = 11000

∴ The correct answer is 11000.

English Comprehension (25 questions)

Question 76

Select the grammatically correct sentence. 

  1. AOption (a)

    The rider who met with a accident was not wearing a helmet, the police said.  

  2. BOption (b)

    The rider who met with an accident was not wearing an helmet, the police said. 

  3. COption (c)

    A rider who met with the accident was not wearing the helmet, an police said. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The rider who met with the accident was not wearing a helmet, the police said.  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The rider who met with the accident was not wearing a helmet, the police said.  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The rider who met with the accident was not wearing a helmet, the police said.'

Key Points

  • The sentence uses proper grammar and structure.
  • It correctly includes the definite article "the" before both "accident" and "police."
  • This usage indicates specificity, referring to a particular accident and a particular group of police officers.
  • The sentence is clear and precise in conveying the information about the rider, the accident, and the absence of a helmet.
  • The overall structure of the sentence ensures grammatical correctness and effective communication.
  • Proper usage of articles is crucial for grammatical accuracy and clarity in conveying specific information.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4.'

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect due to missing articles before "accident" and "police," affecting the specificity of the statement.
  • Option 2: Incorrect due to the incorrect article "an" before "helmet"; it should be "a" helmet.
  • Option 3: Incorrect due to the incorrect use of "an" before "police"; it should be "the" police.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Gift of the gab

  1. AOption (a)

    Fluency of speech 

  2. BOption (b)

    Freedom of speech 

  3. COption (c)

    First speech 

  4. DOption (d)

    Figures of speech 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fluency of speech 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (1)- Fluency of speech.

 Key Points

  • The idiom "gift of the gab" refers to the ability to speak fluently and persuasively. - It is often used to describe someone who is skilled at public speaking or persuasive communication. - The word "gift" in this context refers to a natural talent or ability, rather than a physical present. - The phrase likely originated in Ireland, where "gab" is a slang term for talk or conversation.

 Additional Information

  • Option 2 - Freedom of speech - This phrase refers to the legal right to express one's opinions without censorship or restraint by the government or other authorities. -
  • Option 3 - First speech - This phrase does not have a specific idiomatic meaning and is not related to the given idiom. -
  • Option 4 - Figures of speech - This phrase refers to rhetorical devices or literary techniques used to create vivid or expressive language, such as metaphors, similes, or hyperbole.

Question 78

Select the correct homonym to fill in the blank in the given sentence.

I will just _______ some figures for comparison.

  1. AOption (a)

    cete

  2. BOption (b)

    cite

  3. COption (c)

    site

  4. DOption (d)

    sight

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cite

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (2) 'cite'.

 Key Points

  • 'Cite' means to quote or refer to (a passage, book, or author) as evidence or justification for an argument or statement.
  • In the given sentence, the speaker is talking about mentioning some figures for comparison, which fits the meaning of 'cite'.(उल्लेख करना)

Therefore the correct answer is option no.(2)

 Additional Information

  • The other options have different meanings: -
  • 'Cete' is not a commonly used word in English and does not fit the context.
  • 'Site' refers to a location or place.(कार्य स्थल)
  • 'Sight' refers to the ability to see or a view.(दृष्टि)

Question 79

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

“Do you want to join us for lunch?” / “I'm sorry / my physics class will start at 1 p.m. / and don't finish till 3 p.m.”

  1. AOption (a)

    my physics class will start at 1 p.m. 

  2. BOption (b)

    I'm sorry 

  3. COption (c)

    and don't finish till 3 p.m. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Do you want to join us for lunch? 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

and don't finish till 3 p.m. 

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is: and don't finish till 3 p.m.

 Key Points

  • According to the rules of sub-verb agreement, singular subjects take singular verbs and plural subjects take plural verbs.
  • The subject and verb must agree in number: both must be singular, or both must be plural.
  • In the question, the subject of the sentence "physics class" is actually singular (as it refers to one class), but the verb "don't" is a contraction of "do not," which is plural.
  • Hence, there is a mismatch in the subject-verb agreement. With a singular subject "physics class," the verb also has to be in its singular form.
  • The correct form would be "doesn't," the contraction of "does not."

So, the corrected sentence would be: "I'm sorry, my physics class will start at 1 p.m. and doesn't finish till 3 p.m."

Question 80

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Tedious

  1. AOption (a)

    Tiresome 

  2. BOption (b)

    Wholesome 

  3. COption (c)

    Repetitive 

  4. DOption (d)

    Threescore 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tiresome 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (1) 'Tiresome'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Tedious' means too long, slow, or dull; tiresome or monotonous.(थकाऊ)
  • Example:-  The journey was too much tedious.
  • The word 'Tiresome' means causing one to feel bored or annoyed. (थकाने वाला)
  • Example:- Weeding is a tiresome but essential job.

As both the words Tiresome and Tedious are similar in meaning.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no.(1)

Additional Information

  • Other options are:
  • Wholesome- conducive to or suggestive of good health and physical well-being.(लाभदायक)
  • Repetitive- containing or characterized by repetition, especially when unnecessary or tiresome.(दुहराना/दुहराया हुआ)
  • Threescore- being three times twenty;sixty.(साठ)

Question 81

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word In the given sentence.

He just needs to calm down a wee bit.

  1. AOption (a)

    understand 

  2. BOption (b)

    agitate

  3. COption (c)

    question

  4. DOption (d)

    dissipate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

agitate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (2) 'agitate'.

 Key Points

  • Antonym of "calm down" is "agitate." - "Agitate" means to make someone feel anxious or troubled.
  • The word 'Calm down' means become quiet or calm, especially after a state of agitation. 
  • Example: Instead of calming down, the news agitated him even more.
  • As both the words calm down (शांत) and agitate (परेशान) are opposite in meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option no.(2)

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Understand" (समझना) is not an antonym of "calm down" and does not make sense in the given sentence.
  • Option 3: "Question"(प्रश्न) is not an antonym of "calm down" and does not make sense in the given sentence.
  • Option 4: "Dissipate"(गायब होना) means to disperse or disappear.

Question 82

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The benevolent gesture of the rich merchant was appreciated by all.

  1. AOption (a)

    Generous 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sombre 

  3. COption (c)

    Numb 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sober 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Generous 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no.(1) 'Generous'. 

 Key Points

  • The word 'benevolent' (परोपकारी) means kind and generous. - The synonym of 'benevolent' is 'generous'.
  • 'Generous' (उदार) means showing a readiness to give more of something, especially money, than is strictly necessary or expected 
  • Example: The rich merchant's gesture was appreciated by all because he was kind and generous.
  • As both the words benevolent and generous are similar in meaning.
  • Therefore,the correct answer is option no.(1)

 Additional Information

  • Option 2 'Sombre' means dark or dull in color or tone; gloomy. (गंभीर, उदास)
  • Option 3 'Numb' means deprived of the power of sensation; deadened. (सुन्न, असंवेदनशील)
  • Option 4 'Sober' means not affected by alcohol; not drunk. (संयमी, होश में)

Question 83

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

He is very _______ (Eager) to join the Air Force.

  1. AOption (a)

    irksome 

  2. BOption (b)

    keen 

  3. COption (c)

    dubious 

  4. DOption (d)

    unconcerned 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

keen 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option no. (2) "keen". 

 Key Points

  • "Eager" means enthusiastic, excited, or willing to do something.(इक्छुक)
  • "Keen" is a synonym of "eager", meaning having a strong desire or interest in something.(चाहत रखने वाला)
  • Grammatically, "keen" is an adjective that can describe a person or their feelings.
  • As both the words eager and keen are similar in meaning.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no.(2)

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "irksome", means annoying or irritating**.(कष्टप्रद)**
  • Option 3, "dubious", means uncertain or doubtful**.(संदिग्ध)**
  • Option 4, "unconcerned", means not caring or showing interest in something.(बेखबर)

Question 84

Select the option that expresses the given sentence In passive voice.

The company is launching a new product next month.

  1. AOption (a)

    The new product will be launched by the company next month. 

  2. BOption (b)

    A new product is being launched by the company next month. 

  3. COption (c)

    The launching of a new product by the company is next month. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Next month, the company will launch a new product. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A new product is being launched by the company next month. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'  'A new product is being launched by the company next month.'

 Key Points

  • The sentence is in active voice with the subject 'the company' performing the action 'is launching'.
  • To convert it into passive voice, the object 'a new product' becomes the subject, 'is launching' becomes 'is being launched', and the doer 'the company' is added with 'by'.
  • The sentence in passive voice is grammatically correct and conveys the same meaning as the active voice sentence.
  • The correct passive voice is: A new product is being launched by the company next month.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no**.(2)**

 Additional Information

  • Option 1: The sentence is in future tense and uses 'will be launched' instead of 'is being launched' which is not required in passive voice. -
  • Option 3: The sentence is in passive voice but the structure is incorrect. It should be 'The launching of a new product by the company is scheduled next month.'
  • Option 4: The sentence is in active voice and does not convey the same meaning as the original sentence.

Question 85

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Get into a scrape

  1. AOption (a)

    Creating a problem 

  2. BOption (b)

    Solving a problem 

  3. COption (c)

    Explaining a problem 

  4. DOption (d)

    Involved in a problem 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Involved in a problem 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (4) 'Involved in a problem'

 Key Points

  • The idiom "get into a scrape" means to become involved in a difficult or unpleasant situation.
  • The word "scrape" here refers to a tricky or troublesome situation.
  • The above phrase is often used to describe a situation where someone has done something wrong or foolish and now finds themselves in trouble.
  • The idiom can also be used to describe situations where someone has unintentionally become involved in a difficult or dangerous situation. 
  • Example: He got into a scrap by embezzling public funds.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no.(4)

Question 86

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Person who betrays his own country.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mascot 

  2. BOption (b)

    Traitor 

  3. COption (c)

    Icon

  4. DOption (d)

    Paragon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Traitor 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (2) "Traitor". 

 Key Points

  • A traitor is someone who betrays their own country.
  • The word "traitor" is a noun and is used to describe someone who commits treason.(देश द्रोही)
  • Other synonyms for traitor include betrayer, turncoat, and renegade.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no. (2)

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "Mascot", refers to a symbol or character that represents a team or organization.(शुभंकर प्रतिक)
  • Option 3, "Icon", refers to a symbol or representation of something that is widely recognized and respected.(मूर्ति /प्रतिक)
  • Option 4, "Paragon", refers to a person or thing that is considered a perfect example of a particular quality or trait.(अत्युत्म /आदर्श)

Question 87

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Devide 

  2. BOption (b)

    Provide 

  3. COption (c)

    Subside 

  4. DOption (d)

    Confide  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Devide 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (1) "Devide".

 Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the word is "divide".
  • It is a verb that means to separate into parts or groups.
  • Example: Please divide the pizza into equal slices for everyone.

Additional Information

  • ​Option 2, "Provide", is correctly spelled and means to give or supply something.(उपलब्ध कराना)
  • Option 3, "Subside", is correctly spelled and means to become less intense or severe.(घट जाना /कम हो जाना)
  • Option 4, "Confide", is correctly spelled and means to trust someone and tell them personal information**.(गुप्त बात बताना)**

Question 88

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order, Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. But at the same time, this is also true that when one reads a few works of the same genre, one naturally comes to know a rough structure of that genre.

B. The essence of suspense is whether the reader will be able to gauge the criminal before the detective tells who he is.

C. This leads to a different kind of approach to understanding literature in general and detective fiction in particular.

D It is found that when one knows a genre and its structure and rules, it may often not make us enjoy a piece of literary work in the same manner as one usually does.

  1. AOption (a)

    DACB 

  2. BOption (b)

    BDCA

  3. COption (c)

    CBAD

  4. DOption (d)

    ADCB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

DACB 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option no. (1)  'DACB'.

 Key Points

  • Sentence D talks about how knowing the structure and rules of a genre may not necessarily make us enjoy a literary work in the same way.
  • Sentence A adds that reading multiple works of the same genre helps us understand its structure and rules.
  • Sentence C implies that this understanding leads to a different approach to understanding literature, specifically detective fiction.
  • Sentence B defines the essence of suspense in detective fiction.
  • The meaning arrangement of the sentences will be: It is found that when knows a genre and its structure and rules, it may often not make us enjoy a piece of literary work in the same manner as one usually does.But at the same time, this is also true that when one reads a few works of the same genre,one naturally comes to know a rough structure of that genre.This leads to a different kind of approach to understanding literature in general and detective fiction in particular.The essence of suspense is whether the reader will be able to gauge the criminal before the detective tells who he is.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no.(1)

 Additional Information

  • Option 2 (BDCA): Starts with the definition of suspense in detective fiction and then talks about how understanding the structure of the genre may affect our enjoyment of it, before ending with a vague statement about a different approach to literature. -
  • Option 3 (CBAD): Starts with a statement about understanding the structure of a genre, then jumps to how this understanding affects our enjoyment of it, before ending with a statement about a different approach to literature and detective fiction.
  • Option 4 (ADCB): Starts with a statement about understanding the structure of a genre and how it affects our enjoyment of it, then jumps to a vague statement about a different approach to literature, before ending with the definition of suspense in detective fiction.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

In today's digital age, information is widely available to everyone by many means of media such as television, newspapers, films, and social media.

  1. AOption (a)

    with quite enough of mechanisms  

  2. BOption (b)

    through any strategies 

  3. COption (c)

    via various forms 

  4. DOption (d)

    among many techniques  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

via various forms 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option no.(3) "via various forms." 

  • "Via" means "through" or "by many means of." - "Various" means**"different kinds"** or "diverse." - "Forms" refers to the different types or formats of media mentioned in the sentence.
  • This option accurately conveys the idea that information is available through multiple types of media.

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "with quite enough of mechanisms," is grammatically incorrect. It should be "with quite enough mechanisms" or "with enough mechanisms." Option 2, "through any strategies," doesn't accurately convey the idea that there are specific types of media being used to disseminate information.
  • Option 4, "among many techniques," is a bit awkward and doesn't fit as well with the sentence structure.

Question 90

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bonafide  

  2. BOption (b)

    Cultural

  3. COption (c)

    Solusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Trustworthy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Solusion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (3), "Solusion."

 Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the word is "solution."
  • The incorrect spelling in option 3 has an extra letter "u" in it. - The word "solution" means a means of solving a problem or dealing with a difficult situation.  Example: The company found a solution to the issue by implementing a new policy.

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "Bonafide," is spelled correctly and means genuine or authentic.
  • Option 2, "Cultural," is spelled correctly and relates to the arts, customs, and social institutions of a particular group or society.
  • Option 4, "Trustworthy," is spelled correctly and means reliable or dependable.

Question 91

Describe how you will tell your friends that someone has picked Suman’s pocket in passive voice.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Someone has being picked Suman’s pocket. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Suman'’s pocket had picked. 

  3. COption (c)

    Suman's pocket been picked. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Suman’s pocket has been picked.  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Suman’s pocket has been picked.  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (4) "Suman's pocket has been picked."

 Key Points

  • The sentence is in passive voice, which means the subject of given sentence will not do any work itself.
  • Instead, the focus is on the object (Suman's pocket) and the action that was done to it (picked).
  • The verb "picked" is in the past participle form, which is used in passive voice constructions.
  • It is formed by adding "-ed" to regular verbs or using the third form of irregular verbs.
  • The auxiliary verb "has been" is used to form the present perfect passive tense. This indicates that the action happened at an unspecified time before now and has ongoing effects.
  • In active voice, the sentence would be "Someone has picked Suman's pocket." The subject (someone) is doing the action (picking), and the object (Suman's pocket) is receiving the action.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no.(4)

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "Someone has being picked Suman's pocket," is incorrect because "being" is not needed in passive voice constructions. It also uses the wrong form of the verb "pick." -
  • Option 2, "Suman's pocket had picked," is incorrect because it uses the wrong form of the verb "pick" and the wrong tense. "Had picked" is past perfect, which is used to indicate an action that was completed before another past action. -
  • Option 3, "Suman's pocket been picked," is incorrect because it is missing the auxiliary verb "has been" and the main verb "picked" is in the wrong form.

Question 92

Select the most appropriate option to fill In the blank.

‘Habitual’ may be replaced by '_______'.

  1. AOption (a)

    Stagnant 

  2. BOption (b)

    Continual 

  3. COption (c)

    Temperate  

  4. DOption (d)

    Holistic 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Continual 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option no. (2) 'Continual.' 

 Key Points

  • **"Habitual"(लगातार किसी कार्य में लगा हुआ)**means something that is done regularly or repeatedly. - "Continual"(लगातार) means something that happens frequently or without interruption.
  • Both words have similar meanings, but "continual" emphasizes the frequency or uninterrupted nature of the action.

 Additional Information

  • Stagnant means not moving or changing.(अचल/स्थिर)
  • Temperate means mild or moderate in temperature or behavior.(आत्मसंयमी)
  • Holistic means considering the whole rather than just the parts.(पूर्णतावादी)

Question 93

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The match schedule was disturbed due to _______ rains.

  1. AOption (a)

    detestable 

  2. BOption (b)

    incessant 

  3. COption (c)

    venerable 

  4. DOption (d)

    soothing 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

incessant 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (2) "incessant".

 Key Points

  • "incessant" means continuous and without interruption.(बिना किसी बाधा के/लगातार)
  • It is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank as it explains why the match schedule was disturbed. - The word is an adjective and modifies the noun "rains".
  • The sentence structure is Subject-Verb-Object, with "due to" introducing the cause of the disturbance.

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "detestable"(घ्रिनास्पद), means deserving intense dislike or hatred. It does not make sense in the context of the sentence.
  • Option 3, "venerable"(सम्मान योग्य), means respected due to age, wisdom, or character. It does not relate to the sentence.
  • Option 4, "soothing"(आराम पहुचाने वाला), means having a calming or comforting effect. It is the opposite of what is needed in the sentence.

Question 94

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It could possibly lead to serious injuries, hence a mate for N' Pongo became inevitable.

B. Within the span of one year, N' Pongo grew double the size and the need to obtain a mate for him arose, for it becomes unsafe for the humans around.

C. Every afternoon he was brought out onto the lawn to show off his skills in front of his admirers.

D. Owing to his attractive appearance and disposition, good manners and a well- developed sense of humor, N' Pongo soon became the darling of the zoo.

  1. AOption (a)

    DCBA 

  2. BOption (b)

    DABC 

  3. COption (c)

    CDAB 

  4. DOption (d)

    BDAC 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

DCBA 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option no. (1) 'DCBA'. 

Key Points

  • The paragraph talks about N' Pongo, a zoo animal who grew double in size within a year, making it unsafe for humans around him.
  • Due to this, the need to obtain a mate for him arose to avoid serious injuries.
  • N' Pongo became popular among visitors due to his attractive appearance, good manners, and sense of humor.
  • Every afternoon, he was brought out onto the lawn to showcase his skills in front of his admirers.
  • The above sentences describe the connection and meaning of the passage.
  • The complete passage will be:Owing to his attractive and disposition,good manners and a well-developed sense of humor, N'Pongo soon became the darling of the zoo.Every afternoon he was brought out onto the lawn to show off his skills in front of his admirers.Within the span of one year,N'Pongo grew doubel the size and the need to obtain a mate for him arose,for it becomes unsafe for the humans around.It could possibly need to serious injuries,hence a mate for N'Pongo became inevitable.

Therefore,the correct answer is option no. (1)

 Additional Information

  • Option 2 - DABC: The first two sentences are in the correct order, but the last two are swapped.
  • Option 3 - CDAB: The first and last sentences are swapped, and the remaining two are in the correct order.
  • Option 4 - BDAC: The first and last sentences are swapped, and the second and third sentences are also swapped.

Question 95

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The study of evolution of mankind

  1. AOption (a)

    Biology

  2. BOption (b)

    Anthology 

  3. COption (c)

    Anthropology 

  4. DOption (d)

    Psychology 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Anthropology 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (3) 'Anthropology'.

 Key Points

  • Anthropology is the study of human societies, cultures, and development.
  • It includes the study of human evolution, behavior, and physical characteristics. The word is derived from the Greek words "anthropos" meaning human and "logos" meaning study. - Anthropology is a social science that combines elements of biology, history, and sociology.

 Additional Information

  • Biology (Option 1) is the study of living organisms and their interactions with each other and their environment.
  • Anthology (Option 2) is a collection of literary works, such as poems, stories, or essays.
  • Psychology (Option 4) is the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

This book (1) _______ writing practice to pre-schoolers to help them learn to write (2) _______ of the English alphabet. Directional arrows, (3) _______ with the letters and numbers, guide children in writing. (4) ______ and copying activities encourage children to read and write letters and numbers (5) _______ to count.

Question 96

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    provides 

  2. BOption (b)

    provide 

  3. COption (c)

    is providing 

  4. DOption (d)

    had provided 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

provides 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option no. (1) 'provides'

 Key Points

  • Let's take a look at the phrase: This book (1) _______ writing practice to pre-schoolers to help them,
  • Let's take a look at the options:
  • The subject of the sentence is singular ("Select"), so we need a singular verb.
  • "Provides" is the correct singular form of the verb. - "Provide" is the plural form of the verb, so it would be incorrect in this sentence. -
  • "Is providing" is the present continuous tense, which suggests an ongoing action. This tense would not make sense in this context. -
  • "Had provided" is the past perfect tense, which suggests an action that was completed before another past action. This tense would also not make sense in this context.
  • Having explained the options we find 'provides' will be the most appropriate option for the given blank.
  • The complete phrase will be: This book provides writing practice to pre-schoolers to help them,

Therefore, the correct answer is option no.(1)

 Additional Information

  • Option 2, "provide", is the plural form of the verb and would not be correct with a singular subject.
  • Option 3, "is providing", suggests an ongoing action and does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 4, "had provided", suggests a completed action in the past and does not fit the context of the sentence.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2. 

  1. AOption (a)

    letter

  2. BOption (b)

    letters

  3. COption (c)

    phrases

  4. DOption (d)

    words

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

letters

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option no. (2), "letters".

Key Points

  • "Letters" is the correct option as it is grammatically correct to use plural form when referring to multiple letters.
  • The use of singular form "letter" would be incorrect in this context. - Options 3 and 4, "phrases" and "words", are not applicable as the question specifically refers to filling in a blank with a certain type of unit.
  • The complete phrase will be: to write letters of the English alphabet.

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "letter", is incorrect as it does not match the grammatical requirements of the sentence.
  • Option 3, "phrases", refers to a group of words that express a single idea or concept.
  • Option 4, "words", refers to individual units of language that have meaning on their own.

Question 98

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3. 

  1. AOption (a)

    given

  2. BOption (b)

    giving

  3. COption (c)

    give

  4. DOption (d)

    gave

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

given

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option no. (1) "given".

Key Points

  • Let's take a look at the phrase: Directional arrows, (3) _______ with the letters and numbers, guide children in writing.
  • The sentence is in past tense, so the correct option should also be in past tense.
  • "Given" is the past participle form of the verb "give", which is the correct option in this context.
  • The complete phrase will be: Directional arrows,given with the letters and numbers,guide children in writing.

Therefore, the correct answer is option no.(1)

 Additional Information

  • Option 2, "giving", is the present participle form of the verb and is incorrect in past tense context.
  • Option 3, "give", is the base form of the verb and is also incorrect in past tense context.
  • Option 4, "gave", is the simple past form of the verb and could be correct in some contexts, but not in this particular sentence.

Question 99

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Traced

  2. BOption (b)

    Being traced

  3. COption (c)

    Tracing

  4. DOption (d)

    Trace

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tracing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option (3), "Tracing."

 Key PointsLet's take a look at the phrase:  ______ and copying activities encourage children to read and write letters

  • Tracing" is the present participle form of the verb "trace," indicating an ongoing action.
  • The sentence suggests that someone or something is in the process of tracing.
  • Grammatically, "being traced" (option 2) is also a valid option, but it implies a passive voice rather than an active one.
  • The complete phrase will be:  Tracing and copying activities encourage children to read and write letters

 Additional Information

  • "Traced" (option 1) is in the past tense, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • "Trace" (option 4) is the infinitive form of the verb and does not fit grammatically or contextually.
  • "Being traced"(option 2) is in the passive voice and does not fit the active voice context of the sentence.

Question 100

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5. 

  1. AOption (a)

    as well as

  2. BOption (b)

    but

  3. COption (c)

    for

  4. DOption (d)

    yet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

as well as

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (1) "as well as".

 Key Points

  • Let's take a look at the phrase:  to read and write letters and numbers (5) _______ to count.
  • "As well as" is a conjunction that is used to connect two ideas that are of equal importance.
  • It is often used to add additional information to the first idea.
  • Example: John enjoys playing basketball as well as football.
  • The complete phrase will be:  to read and write letters and numbers as well as to count.

 Additional Information

  • Option 2, "but", is a conjunction that is used to contrast two ideas.
  • Option 3, "for", is a conjunction that is used to give a reason or explanation.
  • Option 4, "yet", is a conjunction that is used to show contrast or opposition.

100 questions in the full paper