Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 02 Dec 2022 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

abCD, fgHI, ?, stUV, abCD

  1. AOption (a)

    klMO

  2. BOption (b)

    lmNO

  3. COption (c)

    mnOP

  4. DOption (d)

    lnMO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

lmNO

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- 

  1. Consecutive number are added to each position value at each step according to English alphabetic series.
  2. First and second letter - Written in small English alphabetic series.
  3. Third and fourth letter - Written in small English alphabetic series.

​So,

So,

Hence, the correct answer is "lmNO".

Question 2

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

2, 4, 10, 28, ?, 244

  1. AOption (a)

    94

  2. BOption (b)

    90

  3. COption (c)

    88

  4. DOption (d)

    82

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

82

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : 

Hence, "82" is the correct answer.

Question 3

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(4, 13, 5)

(3, 12, 6)

  1. AOption (a)

    (4, 10, 3)

  2. BOption (b)

    (7, 16, 3)

  3. COption (c)

    (5, 17, 6)

  4. DOption (d)

    (5, 17, 7)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(5, 17, 7)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : (1st number × 2) = (2nd number - 3rd number)

Given :

  • (4, 13, 5)

4 × 2 = 13 - 5

8 = 8 (LHS = RHS)

  • (3, 12, 6)

3 × 2 = 12 - 6

6 = 6 (LHS = RHS)

So,

  • Option - (1) : (4, 10, 3)

​4 × 2 = 10 - 3

8 ≠ 7 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (7, 16, 3)​

​7 × 2 = 16 - 3

14 ≠ 13 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (5, 17, 6)​

​5 × 2 = 17 - 6

10 ≠ 11 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : (5, 17, 7)​

5 × 2 = 17 - 7

10 = 10 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 4

A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’.

A @ B means ‘A is the son of B’.

A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.

A % B means ‘A is the mother of B’.

If W @ Q % T & Y @ M % K, then how is Q related to K?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daughter

  2. BOption (b)

    Father’s mother

  3. COption (c)

    Mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother’s mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Father’s mother

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningSisterSonFatherMother
to B

Statement given : W @ Q % T & Y @ M % K

Explanation :

  • W @ Q → W is the son of Q.

​

  • Q % T → Q is the mother of T.

​

  • T & Y → T is the father of Y.

​

  • Y @ M → Y is the son of M.

​

  • M % K → M is mother of K.

​

Thus, from the final family tree, Q is the paternal grandmother or father's mother of K.

Hence, "Father’s mother" is the correct answer.

Question 5

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some fingers are toes.

Some toes are rings.

Some rings are hands.

Conclusions:

I. Some hands are toes.

II. Some rings are fingers.

III. Some hands are fingers.

IV. Some fingers are rings.

  1. AOption (a)

    None of the conclusions follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusions III and IV follow

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusions II and III follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusions I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

None of the conclusions follow

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some hands are toes → Does not follow (As some fingers are toes, some toes are rings and some rings are hands. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

II. Some rings are fingers → Does not follow (As some fingers are toes and some toes are rings. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

III. Some hands are fingers → Does not follow (As some fingers are toes, some toes are rings and some rings are hands. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

IV. Some fingers are rings → Does not follow (As some fingers are toes, some toes are rings and some rings are hands. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

∴ Here, None of the conclusions follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "None of the conclusions follow".

Question 6

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

According to given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 7

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

  1. For circle element : Shifting in the clockwise direction.

  2. For arrow element : Rotating at the same position in the anti-clockwise direction.

3) For letter element : Shifting in the clockwise direction along with replacement with immediate previous letter according to English alphabetic series.

Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (4)’ is the correct answer.

Question 8

By interchanging the given two signs which of the following equation will be not correct?

  • and –
  1. AOption (a)

    8 ÷ 4 × 6 + 5 – 9 = 16

  2. BOption (b)

    15 + 3 × 4 – 6 ÷ 2 = 6

  3. COption (c)

    3 × 2 – 72 ÷ 6 + 8 = 18

  4. DOption (d)

    3 + 4 – 2 × 5 ÷ 1 = 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 × 2 – 72 ÷ 6 + 8 = 18

Why this answer is correct

According to the question, after interchanging the given two signs + and – :

So,

  • Option - (1) : 8 ÷ 4 × 6 + 5 – 9 = 16

8 ÷ 4 × 6 - 5 + 9 = 16

2 × 6 - 5 + 9 = 16

12 + 9 - 5 = 16

21 - 5 = 16

16 = 16 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (2) : 15 + 3 × 4 – 6 ÷ 2 = 6

​15 - 3 × 4 + 6 ÷ 2 = 6

15 - 3 × 4 + 3 = 6

15 + 3 - 12 = 6

18 - 12 = 6

6 = 6 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (3) : 3 × 2 – 72 ÷ 6 + 8 = 18

3 × 2 + 72 ÷ 6 - 8 = 18

3 × 2 + 12 - 8 = 18

6 + 12 - 8 = 18

18 - 8 = 18

10 ≠ 18 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : 3 + 4 – 2 × 5 ÷ 1 = 9

​3 - 4 + 2 × 5 ÷ 1 = 9

3 - 4 + 2 × 5 = 9

3 + 10 - 4 = 9

13 - 4 = 9

9 = 9 (LHS = RHS)

Therefore, Option 3 is not satisfied the equation.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 9

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

HERO : JGPM :: FLOW : HNMU :: DIAL : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    KYFJ

  2. BOption (b)

    JFYK

  3. COption (c)

    FLIJ

  4. DOption (d)

    FKYJ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

FKYJ

Why this answer is correct

Logic :

  1. First  and second letter →  (2) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
  2. Third and fourth letter → (2) is subtracted from the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

​So,

  • HERO : JGPM

​

​And,

  • FLOW : HNMU

​

​Similarly,

  • DIAL :

​

Hence, "FKYJ" is the correct answer.

Question 10

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

ABCD, HGLO, OLUZ, VQDK, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    RTQV

  2. BOption (b)

    CYQR

  3. COption (c)

    CMVQ

  4. DOption (d)

    CVMV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CVMV

Why this answer is correct

Logic :

  1. First letter →  (7) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
  2. Second letter → (5) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
  3. Third letter → (9) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
  4. Fourth letter → (11) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

So,

Hence, "CVMV" is the correct answer.

Question 11

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. All A are D.

II. No D is E.

Conclusions:

I. No E is A.

II. All D are A.

III. All E are D.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion III follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion I follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. No E is A → Follow (As no D is E and all A are D. So, as whole A comes in D therefore, it is definitely true)

II. All D are A → Does not follow (As all A are D. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

III. All E are D → Does not follow (As no D is E. So, it is definitely false)

∴ Here, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

Question 12

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.)

(4, 25, 6)

(8, 25, 3)

  1. AOption (a)

    (3, 81, 6)

  2. BOption (b)

    (7, 22, 3)

  3. COption (c)

    (12, 96, 8)

  4. DOption (d)

    (14, 55, 4)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(7, 22, 3)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : (1st number × 3rd number) = (2nd number - 1)

Given :

  • (4, 25, 6)

​4 × 6 = 25 - 1

24 = 24 (LHS = RHS)

  • (8, 25, 3)​

​8 × 3 = 25 - 1

24 = 24 (LHS = RHS)

So,

  • Option - (1) : (3, 81, 6)​

​3 × 6 = 81 - 1

18 ≠ 80 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (7, 22, 3)​

​7 × 3 = 22 - 1

21 = 21 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (12, 96, 8)​

​12 × 8 = 96 - 1

96 ≠ 95 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : (14, 55, 4)​

​14 × 4 = 55 - 1

56 ≠ 54 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 13

By interchanging the given two signs and numbers which of the following equation will be correct?

× and ÷, 7 and 9

  1. AOption (a)

    9 – 7 × 2 + 6 ÷ 3 = 11

  2. BOption (b)

    9 + 4 × 3 – 7 ÷ 1 = 40

  3. COption (c)

    8 × 3 ÷ 6 + 9 – 7 = 14

  4. DOption (d)

    9 × 3 + 4 ÷ 2 – 7 = 18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8 × 3 ÷ 6 + 9 – 7 = 14

Why this answer is correct

According to the question, after interchanging the given two signs and numbers :

  1. × and ÷
  2. 7 and 9

So,

Option - (1) : 9 – 7 × 2 + 6 ÷ 3 = 11

7 – 9 ÷ 2 + 6 × 3 = 11

7 - 4.5 + 6 × 3 = 11

7 + 18 - 4.5 = 11

25 - 4.5 = 11

20.5 ≠ 11 (LHS ≠ RHS)

 

Option - (2) : 9 + 4 × 3 – 7 ÷ 1 = 40

7 + 4 ÷ 3 – 9 × 1 = 40

7 + 1.33 – 9 × 1 = 40

7 + 1.33 - 9 = 40

8.33 - 9 = 40

0.67 ≠ 40 (LHS ≠ RHS)

 

Option - (3) : 8 × 3 ÷ 6 + 9 – 7 = 14

8 ÷ 3 × 6 + 7 – 9 = 14

2.67 × 6 + 7 - 9 = 14

16 + 7 - 9 = 14

23 - 9 = 14

14 = 14 (LHS = RHS)

 

Option - (4) : 9 × 3 + 4 ÷ 2 – 7 = 18

7 ÷ 3 + 4 × 2 – 9 = 18

3.5 + 4 × 2 – 9 = 18

3.5 + 8 - 9 = 18

11.5 - 9 = 18

2.5 ≠ 18 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 14

Select the odd group of numbers. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13– Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

    (600 – 300 –150)

  2. BOption (b)

    (400 –200 –50)

  3. COption (c)

    (1000 –500 –250)

  4. DOption (d)

    (200–100 –50)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(400 –200 –50)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : 

  1. 3rd number × 2 = 2nd number
  2. 2nd number × 2 = 1st number

So,

  • Option - (1) : (600 – 300 –150)

​150 × 2 = 300

300 = 300 (LHS = RHS)

And,

300 × 2 = 600

600 = 600 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (400 –200 –50)​

​50 × 2 = 200

100 ≠ 200 (LHS ≠ RHS)

And,

200 × 2 = 400

400 = 400 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (1000 –500 –250)​

​250 × 2 = 500

500 = 500 (LHS = RHS)

And,

500 × 2 = 1000

1000 = 1000 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (4) : (200–100 –50)

​50 × 2 = 100

100 = 100 (LHS = RHS)

And,

100 × 2 = 200

200 = 200 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 15

If A – B means that A is the mother of B, A + B means that A is the father of B, A ÷ B means that A is the sister of B, then which of the following expression shows that P is the aunt of Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    P + R ÷ Q

  2. BOption (b)

    P - R + Q

  3. COption (c)

    P ÷ R – Q

  4. DOption (d)

    R ÷ P – Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

P ÷ R – Q

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol-+÷
MeaningMotherFatherSister
to B

So,

  • Option - (1) : P + R ÷ Q → P is the father of R who is the sister of Q.

​

Here, P is the father of Q.

  • Option - (2) : P - R + Q → P is the sister of R who is the father of Q.

​

Here, P is the grandmother of Q.

  • Option - (3) : P ÷ R – Q → P is the sister of R who is the mother of Q.

​

Here, P is the maternal aunt of Q.

  • Option - (4) : R ÷ P – Q → R is the sister of P who is the mother of Q.

​

Here, P is the mother of Q.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 16

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

 

(The words should be treated as meaningful English/Hindi words and should not be linked to each other on the basis of number of letters/number of consonants/number of vowels in the word.)

 

Panda : Bamboo :: Koala : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    bark

  2. BOption (b)

    Grass

  3. COption (c)

    eucalyptus

  4. DOption (d)

    Fish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

eucalyptus

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

  • Panda eats bamboo.

​Similarly,

  • Koala eats eucalyptus.

Hence, "Eucalyptus" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  1. Bark → It is the outermost layer of stems and roots of woody plants. Animals like black bear, mice, vole, rabbit etc eats bark.
  2. Grass → Animals like cows, goats and buffaloes eats grass.
  3. Fish → Different species of snake, crocodilians and big cats eats fish.

Question 17

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

  1. For 'Z' element :
  • Shifting in the clockwise direction.
  • No element is repeated more than twice subsequently, thus new elements '

' and '

' are introduced likewise.

  • Replacement by the new element is made at same position as the last element.

 

  1. For '

' element :

  • Shifting in the clockwise direction alternately.
  • No element is repeated subsequently, thus new elements ' 

and ''

are introduced likewise.

  • Replacement by the new element is made at next position according to the clockwise pattern.

​

Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (3)’ is the correct answer.

Question 18

Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Question 19

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Detailed Explanation:

  • The line MN is the mirror
  • The word "hk439map" the first letter is "h". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

  • The word "hk439map" the second letter is "k". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 3 is eliminated..

  • The word "hk439map" the second letter is "k". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

Question 20

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

10 : 45 :: 6 : 25 :: 9 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    38

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    42

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : (1st number - 1) 5 = 45

So,

  • 10 : 45

​**(10 - 1)** 5 = 45

9 × 5 = 45

45 = 45 (LHS = RHS)

​And,

  • 6 : 25​

​(6 - 1) 5 = 25

5 × 5 = 25

25 = 25 (LHS = RHS)

​Similarly,

  • 9 : ?​

​(9 - 1) 5 = ?

8 × 5 = ?

40 = ?

Hence, "40" is the correct answer.

Question 21

In a certain code language, ‘NUMERICAL’ is written as ‘ICALRNUME’ and ‘SCATTERED’is written as ‘EREDTSCAT’. How will ‘EXPLOSION’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    SIONOXEPL

  2. BOption (b)

    SIONOEXPL

  3. COption (c)

    SIONOXELP

  4. DOption (d)

    SIONOEXLP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

SIONOEXPL

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- 

​So,

  • ‘NUMERICAL’ is written as ‘ICALRNUME’

​

And,

  • ‘SCATTERED’ is written as ‘EREDTSCAT’

​

Similarly,

  • ‘EXPLOSION’ is written as :

Hence, the correct answer is "SIONOEXPL".

Question 22

Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    WDLF

  2. BOption (b)

    YBXR

  3. COption (c)

    PKSM

  4. DOption (d)

    IRMT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

IRMT

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Difference of the position values of the last two letters according to English alphabetic series is (6).

So,

  • WDLF

​

​

  • YBXR

​

  • PKSM

​

  • IRMT

Here, Only 'IRMT' the difference of the position values of the last two letters is (7).

Hence, "IRMT" is the correct answer.

Question 23

In a certain code language, 'BYE’ is coded as '245' and 'OLA' is coded as '265'. How will 'CAR' be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    280

  2. BOption (b)

    285

  3. COption (c)

    295

  4. DOption (d)

    300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

295

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- (5) is multiplied by the sum of the position values of the opposite letter according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

  • 'BYE’ is coded as '245'

​

And,

  • 'OLA' is coded as '265'

​

Similarly,

  • 'CAR' is written as :

Hence, the correct answer is "295".

Question 24

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the *signs and balance the given equation.

65 * 45 * 25 * 5 * 35 * 60

  1. AOption (a)

    -, +, -, +, =

  2. BOption (b)

    +, ×, +, -, = 

  3. COption (c)

    +, -, +, -, =

  4. DOption (d)

    -, +, ÷, +, =

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

-, +, ÷, +, =

Why this answer is correct

Given : 65 * 45 * 25 * 5 * 35 * 60

*According to the question, by replacing the signs :

So,

  • Option - (1) : -, +, -, +, =

​65 - 45 + 25 - 5 + 35 = 60

65 + 25 + 35 - 45 - 5 = 60

125 - 45 - 5 = 60

75 ≠ 60 (LHS ≠ RHS) 

  • Option - (2) : +, ×, +, -, =

65 + 45 × 25 + 5 - 35 = 60

65 + 1125 + 5 - 35 = 60

1195 - 35 = 60

1160 ≠ 60 (LHS ≠ RHS) 

  • Option - (3) : +, -, +, -, =

​65 + 45 - 25 + 5 - 35 = 60

110 - 25 + 5 - 35 = 60

55 ≠ 60 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : -, +, ÷, +, =

​65 - 45 + 25 ÷​ 5 + 35 = 60

65 + 5 + 35 - 45 = 60

105 - 45 = 60

60 = 60 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 25

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

1- Laudanum

2- Lattice

3- Laudation

4- Latterly

5- Laudable

  1. AOption (a)

    2, 4, 5, 3, 1

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 4, 1, 5, 3

  3. COption (c)

    4, 2, 3, 1, 5

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 2, 5, 1, 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4, 2, 5, 1, 3

Why this answer is correct

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

4- Latterly

2- Lattice

5- Laudable

1- Laudanum

3- Laudation

Hence, the correct option is "4, 2, 5, 1, 3".

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    two-member body

  2. BOption (b)

    three-member body

  3. COption (c)

    single-member body

  4. DOption (d)

    six-member body

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

single-member body

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is single-member body.

Key Points

  • According to Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is the country's top auditing body.
  • They have the authority to examine every rupee that the Indian government and the state governments receive and spend.
  • The CAG is also the statutory auditor of Government-owned corporations.
  • It performs extra audits of government-owned businesses or the subsidiaries of existing government-owned businesses in which the government owns at least a 51 per cent equity stake.
  • In terms of precedent, the CAG is placed ninth and has the same authority as a sitting Supreme Court of India judge.
  • The current CAG of India is Shri K Sanjay Murthy..​

Additional Information

  • The President of India appoints India's Comptroller and Auditor-General.
  • Through "The Comptroller and Auditor-General Act, 1971," the Indian Parliament sets the CAG's pay and other employment terms.
  • His pay is equal to that of an Indian Supreme Court Judge.
  • He can be removed from office by the president on the same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
  • The CAG resigns from the position when they reach the age of 65 or the end of their six-year term, whichever comes first, or **through impeachment processes.**​

Question 27

Which of the following led English company in Battle of Plassey (1757)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Dalhousie

  2. BOption (b)

    Captain Hodson

  3. COption (c)

    Warren Hastings

  4. DOption (d)

    Robert Clive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Robert Clive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Robert Clive.

Key Points

  • The East India Company forces led by Robert Clive engaged Siraj-Ud-Daulah in the Battle of Plassey.
  • Siraj-Ud-Daulah was the Nawab of Bengal.
  • Siraj was enraged by the widespread abuse of trade privileges by EIC authorities.
  • The battle of Plassey in 1757 was brought on by EIC's continued wrongdoing against Siraj-Ud-Daulah.
  • About 160 kilometres north of Calcutta, close to the little settlement of Plassey (Palashi), the forces came together on the banks of the Bhagirathi-Hooghly River.
  • On June 23, 1757, the Battle of Plassey was fought.
  • Robert Clive's army of 3,000 troops destroyed Siraj-Ud-army Daulah's of 50,000 warriors, 40 cannons, and 10 war elephants.
  • In 11 hours, the battle was over, and Siraj-Ud-Daulah fled after losing.

Additional Information 

  • The Battle of Plassey was fought in north-eastern India on 23 June 1757.
  • Troops of the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, came up against the forces of Siraj-ud-Daulah, the last Nawab of Bengal, and his French allies.
  • Clive's victory eventually led to the British becoming the greatest economic and military power in India.
  • The Battle of Plassey had political significance for it laid the foundation of the British Empire in India.; it has been rightly regarded as the starting point of British rule in India.
  • Result of Battle of Plassey-
  • As a result of this victory, Mir Jafar became the Nawab of Bengal. He gave large sums of money plus the zamindari of 24 Parganas to the English.
  • English rivals, the French were ousted.

Question 28

As the river enters the plain it twists and turns forming large bends known as ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    ox-bow

  2. BOption (b)

    levees

  3. COption (c)

    floodplains

  4. DOption (d)

    meanders

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

meanders

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is meanders.

Key Points

  • Meandering River:
  • The formation of successive bends of reverse order may lead to the formation of a complete S curve called Meanders.
  • When consecutive curves of reverse order connected with short straight reaches called crossings are developed in a river reach, the river is stated to be a Meandering river.
  • The meandering of a river is due to the erodibility of the bed and banks of streams.
  • Causes
  • Extra turbulence is generated by excess river sediment during floods. When the silt charge is in excess of the quantity required for stability, the river starts building up its slope by depositing the silt on its bed.
  • The increase in bed slope tends to increase the width of the channel if the banks are not resistant. The banks are attacked by river water and in the process one bank is likely to be attacked slightly more than the other, causing a slight deviation in flow.
  • This slight deviation from the uniform axial flow helps in improving more and more flow towards one bank than towards the other.
  • This process continues causing one bank to be convex and another to be concave. Hence, increasing slope is also a reason for meandering.

Additional Information

  • Meander parameters:
  • Meander Length: It is the axial length of one mender, i.e. tangential distance between the corresponding points of the meander.
  • Meander Belt: It is the distance between the outer edges of clockwise and anticlockwise loops.
  • Meander Ratio: It is the ratio of the meander belt to the meander length.
  • Tortuosity: It is the ratio of length along the channel (actual length) to the direct axial length.
  • Crossings or cross-over: It is the shortest reach of the river, connecting two consecutive clockwise and anticlockwise loops.

Question 29

What does the letter ‘M’ stand for in the MRTP Act 1969?

  1. AOption (a)

    Monopolistic

  2. BOption (b)

    Monopolies

  3. COption (c)

    Multi

  4. DOption (d)

    Monopoly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Monopolies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Monopolies.

Key Points

  • Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices is how MRTP is officially referred to.
  • The MRTP act in India went into effect on June 1st, 1970, after the MRTP bill was enacted in 1969.
  • Over the years, this law has undergone numerous revisions as in the years 1974, 1980, 1982, and 1991.
  • With the exception of Jammu and Kashmir, this law is applicable to all of India's states.
  • In India, the MRTP act is no longer in effect.
  • The Competition Act, which was put into effect on September 1st, 2009 by the Competition Commission of India, has taken its place.

Additional Information

  • ​The MRTP act was the first significant piece of law to regulate unrestricted and free commerce.
  • The government established the Sachar committee in 1977 to oversee the MRTP act's required review.

Question 30

Harihara and Bukka established an independent state in Karnataka and established the capital city Vijayanagar on the banks of river _____________ in 1336.

  1. AOption (a)

    Betwa

  2. BOption (b)

    Tungabhadra

  3. COption (c)

    Mahanadi

  4. DOption (d)

    Tapi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tungabhadra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tungabhadra.

Key Points

  • Two brothers named Harihara and Bukka founded the Vijayanagar state in 1336.
  • They were soldiers in Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq's army
  • In 1336, they seceded from the Delhi Sultanate and founded an independent state in Karnataka.
  • They established Vijayanagar as its capital city on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.
  • The majority of the Tungabhadra River's journey in India begins and ends in the state of Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Betwa: 
  • A tributary of the Yamuna, the Betwa is a river in Central and Northern India.
  • It begins just north of Narmadapuram in the Vindhya Range and flows northeast through Orchha and Madhya Pradesh to reach Uttar Pradesh.
  • Mahanadi:
  • In East Central India, the Mahanadi River is a significant river.
  • Hirakud Dam is another notable feature of Mahanadi.
  • Prior to entering the Bay of Bengal, the river passes through the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
  • Tapi:
  • The Tapti River is a river in central India that travels west before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
  • It is situated south of the Narmada River.

Question 31

Match the industrial plant with its location.

Name of Industrial PlantRelated Location
1.BALCOA)Burnpur
2.IISCOB)Chennai
3.NFLC)Korba
4.ICFD)Bhatinda
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - D

  3. COption (c)

    1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - B

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - B.

Key Points

  • BALCO:
  • The Ministry of Mines, Government of India, owned the aluminium production Bharat Aluminium Company Ltd, one of its sites is located at Korba in Chattisgarh.
  • Founded: 1965
  • **CEO: **Abhijit Pati
  • Headquarte r s: New Delhi, India
  • IISCO:
  • An integrated steel facility known as the IISCO Steel Plant of Steel Authority of India Limited is situated in Burnpur, India's Paschim Bardhaman district.
  • Founded: 1918
  • Headquarters: Burnpur, Asansol
  • CEO: Anirban Dasgupta
  • NFL:
  • Five gas-powered ammonia-urea plants are owned and operated by National Fertilizers Limited (NFL), including the Nangal & Bathinda plants in Punjab, the Panipat plant in Haryana, and the two plants in Vijaipur in District Guna, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Chairman: Shri Atul B. Patil
  • Founded: 1st Oct 1979
  • Headquarter: Punjab
  • ICF:
  • Integral Coach Factory is a manufacturer of rail coaches located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India.
  • The Indian Railways owns and runs it.
  • Founded: 2 October 1955
  • General Manager: A. K. Agarwal
  • Headquarter: Chennai

Question 32

Identify the correct chemical formula of chloroform.

  1. AOption (a)

    CHCl3

  2. BOption (b)

    CHCl

  3. COption (c)

    CHCl2

  4. DOption (d)

    CH2Cl2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CHCl3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CHCl3

Key Points

  • Chloroform:
  • Chloroform is a colourless, volatile, liquid derivative of trichloromethane with an ether-like odour.
  • The primary use of chloroform  is in industry, where it is used as a solvent and in the production of the refrigerant freon
  • The molecular formula is CHCl3.

Important Points

  • Methane:
  • Methane (CH4), is a gas produced by a group of colonic anaerobes, absorbed from the colon and excreted in expired air.
  • Methane is a colourless odourless gas.
  • It is also known as marsh gas or methyl hydride.
  • The molecular formula is CH4.
  • Carbon Tetrachloride:
  • Carbon Tetrachloride is a clear, colourless, volatile and very stable chlorinated hydrocarbon.
  • Carbon Tetrachloride is used as a solvent for oils and fats, as a refrigerant and as a dry-cleaning agent.
  • The molecular formula is CCL4.
  • Ethane:
  • Flammable, Liquefied, odourless, colourless gas.
  • Ethane is also used as a refrigerant for extremely low-temperature refrigeration systems.
  • The Molecular formula is  C2H6.

Question 33

How much percentage of oxygen is present in the atmosphere? 

  1. AOption (a)

    39%

  2. BOption (b)

    79%

  3. COption (c)

    10%

  4. DOption (d)

    21%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

21%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21%

Key Points

  • Air is a mixture of gases that surrounds the earth.
  • It consists of different gases.
  • About 21% of atmospheric air contains Oxygen.
  • It is the second most abundant gas in the atmosphere.
  • Nitrogen is the most abundant gas.
  • Carbon dioxide, argon, and methane are found in minute quantities.

Additional Information 

Permanent Gases of the Atmosphere
ConstituentPercent by Volume
Nitrogen (N2)78.084
Oxygen (O2)20.946
Argon (Ar)0.934
Carbon dioxide (CO2)0.036
Neon (Ne)0.00182
Helium (He)0.000524
Krypton (Kr)0.000114
Hydrogen (H2)0.00005

Question 34

In which season is Sarhul celebrated in Jharkhand?

  1. AOption (a)

    Spring

  2. BOption (b)

    Autumn

  3. COption (c)

    Monsoon

  4. DOption (d)

    Winter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Spring

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Spring.

Key Points

  • In the Indian state of Jharkhand, there is a spring festival called Sarhul.
  • The festival is observed for three days, from Chaitra Purnima until the third day of the Chaitra month in Sukla Paksh.
  • Pahan, the village priest, sacrifices flowers, fruit, vermilion, a rooster, and tapan to the Sun, the local deity and ancestor, during the celebration in order to bring the village good fortune.
  • Then the villagers dance while clutching sal tree blooms.
  • It serves as a reminder that a new year has begun.
  • According to tradition, the marriage of the Earth and the Sun is also symbolized by it.

Additional Information

  • The festival's Nagpuri name is Sarhul.
  • The sal tree in Nagpuri is called Sar or Sarai, and Hul means "together" and "grove."
  • Sal represents a celebration of nature.
  • Kurukh and Sadan celebrate Sarhul, a significant holiday. It is referred to as Khaddi in Kurukh.
  • The Bhumijs and Mundas call it Hadi Bonga.
  • The Ho and Santal people refer to it as Baha parab.

Question 35

What is the average thickness of the continental crust of earth?

  1. AOption (a)

    300 km

  2. BOption (b)

    5 km

  3. COption (c)

    30 km

  4. DOption (d)

    2.5 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30 km

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 30 km.

Key Points

  • Earth’s crust:
  • The interior of the earth is made up of several concentric layers which are the crust, the mantle, the outer core and the inner core.
  • The crust is the outermost layer of the earth making up 0.5-1.0% of the earth’s volume and less than 1% of Earth’s mass.
  • Materials that initially stayed in their liquid phase during this process, called “incompatible elements,” ultimately became Earth's brittle crust.
  • The lower layer of the crust consists of basaltic and ultra-basic rocks.
  • Density increases with depth, and the average density is about 2.7 g/cm3 (the average density of the earth is 5.51 g/cm³).
  • The thickness of the crust varies in the range of 5-30 km in the case of the oceanic crust and 50-70 km in the case of the continental crust.
  • The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is approximately 7 km, while the mean thickness of the continental crust is about 35-40 km.

Important Points

LayerCharacteristics
Crust- The uppermost layer over the earth’s surface is called the crust. - It is the thinnest of all the layers. - It is about 35 km. on the continental masses and only 5 km. on the ocean floors. - The main mineral constituents of the continental mass are silica and alumina. - It is thus called sial (si-silica and al-alumina). - The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium; it is therefore called sima (si-silica and ma-magnesium) - The crust makes up only 1% of the volume of Earth.
Mantle- Just beneath the crust is the mantle which extends up to a depth of 2900 km. below the crust. - The mantle is semi-liquid, sort of like a malleable plastic, and makes up 84% of Earth's volume.
Core- The innermost layer is the core with a radius of about 3500 km. - It is mainly made up of nickel and iron and is called NiFe (Ni – nickel and Fe – ferrous i.e. iron). - The central core has very high temperature and pressure. - The core makes up only 15% of the volume of Earth.

Question 36

Which of the following events was conducted by the Ministry of Ayush, GoI to mark the 100-day countdown to the International Day of Yoga 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yoga Mahotsav

  2. BOption (b)

    Yoga Utsav

  3. COption (c)

    Yoga Sutra

  4. DOption (d)

    Yoga Umang

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Yoga Mahotsav

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Yoga Mahotsav.

Key Points

  • Yoga Mahotsav was conducted by the Ministry of Ayush, GoI to mark the 100-day countdown to the International Day of Yoga 2022.
  • Yoga Mahotsav 2022 is a campaign that will be held for 100 days, at 100 places and will include 100 organizations.
  • This campaign will be organized till 21st June 2022.
  • The 8th edition of International Day of Yoga 2022 will be celebrated with the theme “Yoga for Humanity”.

Additional Information

  • The international yoga day is celebrated every year on 21st June.
  • The international yoga day was first celebrated in 2015.
  • Yoga is originated in India.
  • The idea of international yoga day was first proposed by the India prime minister Narendra Modi.
  • Reserve Bank of India issued a 10 rupees commemorative coin to mark the first international day of yoga in 2015.
  • The theme of International yoga day 2020  is ‘Yoga at Home and Yoga with Family’.
  • The world’s first Yoga University outside India was launched as a part of yoga day celebrations in 2020.
  • It was launched on 23rd June 2020.
  • Launched in Los Angeles city, United State.
  • It was named as Vivekananda Yoga University.

Question 37

Who moved the Objective Resolution that was later adapted as the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajendra Prasad

  2. BOption (b)

    JB Kripalani

  3. COption (c)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  4. DOption (d)

    BR Ambedkar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jawaharlal Nehru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

  • On 13th December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic 'Objectives Resolution' in the Assembly.
  • It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
  • This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on 22nd January 1947.
  • It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages.
  • Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was independent India's first Minister of Law and Justice.
  • He was an Indian jurist, economist, politician, and social reformer, who inspired the Dalit Buddhist movement and campaigned against social discrimination toward the untouchables.
  • He was considered the chief architect of the Constitution of India. He was given Bharat Ratna in 1990.
  • He was born on 14th April 1891 in Mhow, Indore.
  • He was the first Indian to pursue a doctorate in economics abroad.
  • He passed away on 6th December 1956.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the longest-serving President of India (1950 to 1962).
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first President of India on 24th January 1950
  • He was one of the prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement and played a prominent role as the President of the Indian National Congress.
  • He served as the president of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the first constitution of the Republic of India, which lasted from 1948 to 1950.
  • He also became the first Minister of Food and Agriculture in 1946 in the Interim National Government.
  • Satyagraha In Champaran, Atmakatha, Bapu Ke Kadmon Mein, Since Independence, Sahitya Shiksha evam Sanskriti, and Bharatiya Shiksha are some of the notable works of Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
  • JB Kripalani
  • His original name was Jivatram Bhagwandas Kripalani but was popularly known as Acharya Kripalani.
  • He participated in movements like Non-Cooperation Movement, Quit India Movement & Salt Satyagraha.
  • He was the president of the Indian National Congress when India gained independence in 1947.

Question 38

Which of the following pairs of musicians and their instruments is INCORRECT?

  1. AOption (a)

    K Vaidyanathan – Sitar

  2. BOption (b)

    Pt. Ram Narayan – Sarangi

  3. COption (c)

    Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar

  4. DOption (d)

    Bismillah Khan – Shehnai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

K Vaidyanathan – Sitar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is K Vaidyanathan – Sitar.

Key Points

  • Kunnakudi Vaidyanathan was an Indian classical music violinist and music composer.
  • Pandit Ram Narayan is a Hindustani classical musician who plays the bowed instrument, the sarangi.
  • Ustad Vilayat Khan was an Indian classical sitar player.
  • Ustad Bismillah Khan used to play Shehnai.
  • Hence K Vaidyanathan – Sitar pairs of musicians and their instruments is INCORRECT.

Additional Information

  • Ustad Bismillah Khan (1916 – 2006) (Real name is Qamaruddin Khan), was an Indian musician credited with popularizing the Shehnai.
  • He was felicitated with several awards including:
  • Padma Shri in 1961
  • Padma Bhushan in 1968
  • Padma Vibhushan in 1980
  • Bharat Ratna in 2001
  • Ustad Vilayat Hussain Khan of the Agra Gharana composed bandishes in many ragas under the pen name Pran Piya.
  • Ustad Vilayat Hussain Khan was born in 1895.
  • Vilayat Khan received his early training in Hindustani classical music from his father Nathan Khan.
  • Pundit Ram Narayan
  • ​He is a Hindustani classical musician who plays the bowed instrument, the sarangi.
  • He is credited with popularizing the sarangi as a solo classical instrument.
  • He was born in 1927 in Amber village in Rajasthan.

Question 39

Which of the following becomes the first district in India to cover 100% households under ABPMJAY- SEHAT scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Samba, Jammu and Kashmir

  2. BOption (b)

    Pratapgarh, Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Kheda, Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    Mansa, Punjab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Samba, Jammu and Kashmir

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Samba, Jammu and Kashmir. Samba, Jammu and Kashmir becomes the first district in India to cover 100% of households under the ABPMJAY- SEHAT scheme.PM launched the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) SEHAT scheme for the residents of Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 40

In India census is held regularly every ______ year.

  1. AOption (a)

    8th

  2. BOption (b)

    10th

  3. COption (c)

    12th

  4. DOption (d)

    5th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10th

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is10th.

Key Points

  • Census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948, as per the Constitution of India, and this data is collected every 10 years.
  • All the censuses since 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act.
  • The Census is conducted once every ten years.
  • The 2011 Census is the 7th Census in Independent India.
  • The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011.
  • The first complete census was taken in 1881.
  • British Viceroy Lord Mayo started the concept of the census in 1872.
  • Post-1949, it has been conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

Question 41

Who among the following launched the Scheme “SHRESHTA” for residential education for students in High school in Targeted Areas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Virendra Kumar

  2. BOption (b)

    Piyush Goel

  3. COption (c)

    Vijay Goel

  4. DOption (d)

    P P Chaudhary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Virendra Kumar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Virendra Kumar.

Key Points

  • Virendra Kumar launched the Scheme “SHRESHTA” for residential education for students in High school in Targeted Areas.
  • The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) has been formulated with the objective to provide quality education and opportunities for even the poorest.
  • Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) provides for high quality education for meritorious but poor SC students in CBSE-affiliated reputed residential schools across the country.
  • Approximately 3,000 seats are providedeach year for admission in class 9th and 11th and the entire cost of the school fee and residentialcharges are borne by the Department.

Additional Information

  • Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’s campaign was started in October 2015.
  • The initiative Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat was announced by the Hon'ble Prime Minister on the occasion of the 140th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
  • Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat (EBSB) has been one of the major flagship programs of the Government to bring in cultural integration of the country as a part of the vision to build a New India by 2022.
  • Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat program aims to enhance interaction & promote mutual understanding between people of different states/UTs through the concept of state/UT pairing.
  • Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat of NCC is an annual camp for national integration conducted between paired states.

Question 42

Which of the following dance forms is associated with the state of Arunachal Pradesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Panwariya

  2. BOption (b)

    Dhaman

  3. COption (c)

    Buiya

  4. DOption (d)

    Garba

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Buiya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Buiya.

Key Points

  • Buiya dance forms is associated with the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The Bhuiyans name comes from the Sanskrit bhumi, meaning land.
  • Most of the Bhuiya are agriculturalists and many believe that they are descended from Bhūmi, the Hindu goddess who represents Mother Earth.

Additional Information 

  • The Indian States and Folk Dances
  • Andhra Pradesh- Kuchipudi, Bhamakalpam, Lambadi, Dhimsa, Kolattam, Butta Bommalu.
  • Assam- Bihu, Bichhua, Natpuja, Maharas, Kaligopal, Bagurumba, Naga dance, Khel Gopal, Tabal Chongli, Canoe, Jhumura Hobjanai
  • Bihar- Jata-Jatin, Bakho-Bakhain, Panwariya, Sama Chakwa, Bidesia.
  • Gujarat- Garba, Dandiya Ras, Tippani Juriun, Bhavai.
  • Haryana- Jhumar, Phag, Daph, Dhamal, Loor, Gugga, Khor, Gagor.
  • Himachal Pradesh- Jhora, Jhali, Chharhi, Dhaman, Chhapeli, Mahasu, Nati, Dangi.
  • Jammu and Kashmir- Rauf, Hikat, Mandjas, Kud Dandi Nach, Damali.
  • Karnataka- Yakshagan, Huttari, Suggi, Kunitha, Karga, Lambi.
  • Kerala- Kathakali (Classical), Ottamthullal, Mohiniattam, Kaikottikali.
  • Maharashtra- Lavani, Nakata, Koli, Lezim, Gafa, Dahikala Dasavtar or Bohada.
  • Odisha- Odissi (Classical), Savari, Ghumara, Painka, Munari, Chhau.
  • West Bengal- Kathi, Gambhira, Dhali, Jatra, Baul, Marasia, Mahal, Keertan.
  • Punjab- Bhangra, Giddha, Daff, Dhaman, Bhand, Naqual.
  • Rajasthan- Ghumar, Chakri, Ganagor, Jhulan Leela, Jhuma, Suisini, Ghapal, Kalbeliya.
  • Tamil Nadu- Bharatanatyam, Kumi, Kolattam, Kavadi.
  • Uttar Pradesh- Nautanki, Raslila, Kajri, Jhora, Chappeli, Jaita.
  • Uttarakhand- Garhwali, Kumayuni, Kajari, Jhora, Raslila, Chappeli.
  • Goa- Tarangamel, Koli, Dekhni, Fugdi, Shigmo, Ghode, Modni, Samayi nrutya, Jagar, Ranmale, Gonph, Tonnya mell.
  • Madhya Pradesh Jawara, Matki, Aada, Khada Nach, Phulpati, Grida Dance, Selalarki, Selabhadoni, Maanch.
  • Chhattisgarh Gaur Maria, Panthi, Raut Nacha, Pandwani, Vedamati, Kapalik, Bharthari Charit, Chandaini.
  • Jharkhand Alkap, Karma Munda, Agni, Jhumar, Janani Jhumar, Mardana Jhumar, Paika, Phagua,Hunta Dance, Mundari Dance, Sarhul, Barao, Jhitka, Danga, Domkach, Ghora Naach.
  • Arunachal Pradesh Buiya, Chalo, Wancho, Pasi Kongki, Ponung, Popir, Bardo Chham.
  • Manipur Dol Cholam, Thang Ta, Lai Haraoba, Pung Cholom, Khamba Thaibi, Nupa Dance, Raslila, Khubak Ishei, Lhou  Sha.
  • Meghalaya Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem, Nongkrem, Laho.
  • Mizoram Cheraw Dance, Khuallam, Chailam, Sawlakin, Chawnglaizawn, Zangtalam, Par Lam, Sarlamkai/Solakia, Tlanglam.
  • Nagaland Rangma, Bamboo Dance, Zeliang, Nsuirolians, Gethinglim, Temangnetin, Hetaleulee.
  • Tripura Hojagiri.
  • Sikkim Chu Faat Dance, Sikmari, Singhi Chaam or the Snow Lion Dance, Yak Chaam, Denzong Gnenha, Tashi Yangku Dance, Khukuri Naach, Chutkey Naach, Maruni Dance.

Question 43

The Commonwealth Games 2018 were held at which of the following places?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gold coast

  2. BOption (b)

    Edinburgh

  3. COption (c)

    Victoria

  4. DOption (d)

    Kuala Lumpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gold coast

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gold Coast.

Key Points

  • The 2018 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXI Commonwealth Games, was an international multi-sport event for the members of the commonwealth that were held at Gold Coast, Queensland, Australia between 4 & 15 April 2018.
  • There were 18 sports categories.
CountryMedalPosition
Australia1981st
England1322nd
India663rd
  • In the 2018 Commonwealth Games, India won a total of 66 medals.
  • Gold - 26
  • Silver - 20
  • Bronze - 20

Important Points

  • Birmingham will host Commonwealth Games in 2022.
  • The Commonwealth Games is an international multi-sport event that was first held in 1930.
  • The 2022 Commonwealth Games is officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games.
  • The Games are expected to take place between 28 July and 8 August 2022.
  • It will be the third time England will host the Commonwealth Games, after London in 1934 and Manchester in 2002.
  • The Birmingham Organising Committee for the 2022 Commonwealth Games is responsible for the planning and operational delivery of the Games.
  • This includes sport, venue and competition management, ticket sales, all ceremonies, and the Queen’s Baton Relay.

Additional Information

  • Why It is called Commonwealth 
  • The Commonwealth is a collection of countries that are linked in some way to Great Britain, all apart from Mozambique.
  • Since the Game started the game has taken place every four years except for 1942 and 1946, because of World war - II.

Question 44

Identify the organism that is NOT a pseudocoelomate.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ancylostoma

  2. BOption (b)

    Ascaris

  3. COption (c)

    Wuchereria

  4. DOption (d)

    Scorpions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Scorpions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Scorpions.

Key Points

  • The coelom is the fluid-filled cavity between the body wall and the gut wall.
  • The coelom is lined by mesoderm.
  • The coelom is one of the characteristic features of metazoans.
  • Based on the presence or absence of coelom, organisms are classified into three groups:
  • Coelomates
  • Pseudocoelomates
  • Acoelomates
  • In Pseudocoelomates, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm.
  • Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate organisms.

Additional Information

  • The coelom is the principal body cavity in most animals, located between the intestinal canal and the body wall.
  • Coelomates refer to animals having fluid-filled body cavities called coeloms located within the mesoderm. Annelids, molluscs, arthropods, and echinoderms are some examples of Coelomates.
  • Pseudocoelom means "false coelom" or "false cavity".

Question 45

Plan revenue expenditure relates to _______.

I. Five-year plans

II. Salaries and pensions

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

  • Since 1st April 1951, India has adopted the path of planning (Five Year Plans) to achieve its rapid economic development.
  • In the light of these plans, government expenditure is classified into plan expenditure and non-plan expenditure based on whether or not it arises due to plan proposals.
  • Plan Expenditure:
  • Any expenditure that is incurred on programmes which are detailed under the current (Five Year) Plan of the centre or centre’s advances to state for their plans is called plan expenditure.
  • Plan expenditure is further sub-classified into Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure.
  • Non-Plan Expenditure:
  • This refers to the estimated expenditure provided in the budget for spending during the year on the routine functioning of the government. Non- Plan expenditure is all expenditures other than plan expenditure of the govt. Such expenditure is a must for every country, planning or no planning.
  • For instance, no government can escape from its basic function of protecting the lives and properties of the people and protecting the country from foreign invasions.

Additional Information

  • India had 12 five-year programmes in total. The Narendra Modi-led NDA administration abolished the Five-Year Plans in 2015.
Five Year PlansDurationAim
11951 to 1956Based on Harrod Domar Model
21956 to 1961Based on Mahalanobis Model
31961 to 1966Also called Gadgil Yojna
41969 to 1974Growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance are two main objectives.
51974 to 1978This plan focused on Garibi Hatao, employment, justice, agriculture, production and defence.
61980 to 1985Focused on economic Liberalization
71985 to 1990Aimed at the establishment of a self-sufficient economy.
81992 to 1997The main focus was the development of Human Resource
91997 to 2002The main focus was Grwoth with Social Justice and Equality.
102002 to 2007Amed to double the per capita income in the next 10 years.
112007 to 2012Its main was rapid and more inclusive growth
122012 to 2017Its main theme was more inclusive and sustainable growth.

Question 46

The word Manuscripts derived from which of the following language?

  1. AOption (a)

    Latin

  2. BOption (b)

    Prakrit

  3. COption (c)

    Sanskrit

  4. DOption (d)

    Greek

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Latin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Latin.

Key Points

  • The word manuscript is derived from the medieval Latin usage ‘manu’ meaning ‘by hand’ and ‘scribere’ means ‘to write’. Thus, any book or document written by hand is called a manuscript.
  • Manuscripts are sources of human history available in various kinds of media like stones,

clay tablets, palm leaves, metal leaves, bark, animal skin, cloth, paper, etc

  • Most of the manuscripts were written in Sanskrit, Prakrit and Tamil language.

Additional Information

  • Manuscripts were written on varied subjects such as religious beliefs and practices, the lives of kings, medicine, and science. Besides, there were epics, poems, musical dance dramas and plays.
  • India possesses an estimated five million manuscripts, probably the largest collection in the world.
  • The Spitzer Manuscripts are the oldest surviving philosophical manuscripts in Sanskrit.
  • The oldest manuscripts in the world are in the Pseudo-Apulelus Herbarium, dating back to the 6-7th century.

Question 47

The Appropriation bill, 2022 was passed in Lok Sabha on ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    March 24, 2022

  2. BOption (b)

    February 20, 2022

  3. COption (c)

    April 20, 2022

  4. DOption (d)

    May 10, 2022.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

March 24, 2022

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is March 24, 2022

Key Points

  • The Appropriation Bill gives power to the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India for fulfilling the expenditure during the financial year.
  • The government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India till the implementation of the appropriation bill.
  • To meet the direct expenses the Constitution has authorized the Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance for a part of the financial year. This provision is known as the ‘Vote on Account
  • As per Article 114 of the Constitution, the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament.

Additional Information

  • The defeat of an Appropriation Bill in Loksabha would lead to the resignation of the government.
  • The unique feature of the Appropriation Bill is its automatic repeal clause, whereby the Act gets repealed by itself after it meets its statutory purpose.
  • Both appropriation and finance bills are classified as money bills that do not require the explicit consent of the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha only discusses them and returns the bills,
  • Appropriation bills specify the quantum and purpose for withdrawing money, while the Finance bill contains a provision for financing the expenditure of the government.

Question 48

What kind of forces arise from transient dipoles in atoms that induce transient dipoles in nearby atoms, produce an attractive force and are significant only over short distances (~500 pm)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dipole-dipole forces

  2. BOption (b)

    London dispersion forces

  3. COption (c)

    Dipole-induced dipole forces

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrogen bond

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

London dispersion forces

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is London dispersion forces.

Key Points

  • Atoms and nonpolar molecules are electrically symmetrical and have no dipole moment because their electronic charge cloud is symmetrically distributed. But a dipole may develop momentarily even in such atoms and molecules.
  • This force of attraction was first proposed by the German physicist Fritz London, and for this reason force of attraction between two temporary dipoles is known as the London force.
  • These forces are always attractive and interaction energy is inversely proportional to the sixth power of the distance between two interacting particles (i.e., 1/r 6 where r is the distance between two particles)
  • These forces are important only at short distances (~500 pm) and their magnitude depends on the polarisability of the particle.

Additional Information

  • Dipole-dipole forces
  • ​Dipole-dipole forces act between the molecules possessing permanent dipole. Ends of the dipoles possess “partial charges” and these charges are shown by the Greek letter delta (δ)
  • The polar molecules interact with neighboring molecules.
  • This interaction is stronger than the London forces but is weaker than ion-ion interaction because only partial charges are involved.
  • Dipole–Induced Dipole Forces
  • ​This type of attractive force operates between the polar molecules having permanent dipole and the molecules lacking permanent dipole.
  • The permanent dipole of the polar molecule induces a dipole on the electrically neutral molecule by deforming its electronic cloud.
  • Thus an induced dipole is developed in the other molecule.
  • Induced dipole moment depends upon the dipole moment present in the permanent dipole and the polarisability of the electrically neutral molecule.
  • Hydrogen bond
  • ​This is a special case of dipole-dipole interaction found in the molecules in which highly polar N–H, O–H or H–F bonds are present. Although hydrogen bonding is regarded as being limited to N, O and F; species such as Cl may also participate in hydrogen bonding

Question 49

Which of the following combinations of ‘Ruler – Predecessor’ is correct with respect to the Delhi Sultanate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alaudddin Khalji – Jalaluddin Khalji

  2. BOption (b)

    Iltutumish – Balban

  3. COption (c)

    Muhammad Tughluq – Firuz Shah Tughluq

  4. DOption (d)

    Ghiyasuddin Tughluq – Muhammad Tughluq

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alaudddin Khalji – Jalaluddin Khalji

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alaudddin Khalji – Jalaluddin Khalji

Key Points

  • Khilji Dynasty (1290-1320)
  • Jalaluddin Khilji (1290-96)
  • He was the founder of the Khilji Dynasty
  • Alauddin Khilji (1296-1316)
  • He was a nephew and son-in-law of Jalaluddin Khilji.
  • Alauddin Khilji killed him and succeeded the throne in 1296.
  • Tughlak Dynasty (1320-1414)
  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlak (1320-25)
  • He was the founder of the Tughlak Dynasty.
  • He was succeeded by Mohammad bin Tughlak.
  • Mohammad bin Tughlak (1325-51)
  • His name was Ulugh Khan and after succeeding Ghiyasuddin Tughlak he was named under the title of Mohammad bin Tughlak.
  • Firoz Shah Tughlak (1351-88)
  • He was the cousin of Mohammad bin Tughlak.

Additional Information

  • Slave Dynasty (1206-90)
  • Founded by Qutubuddin Aibak.
  • Khilji Dynasty (1290-1320)
  • Founded by Jalaluddin Khilji
  • Tughlak Dynasty (1320-1414)
  • Founded by Ghiyasuddin Tughlak
  • Sayyid Dynasty ( 1414-50)
  • Founded by Khizr Khan.
  • Lodhi Dynasty (1451-1526)
  • Founded by Behlol Lodhi

Question 50

For how many days is the Hornbill festival held?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

Hornbill Festival:

  • The Hornbill Festival is a celebration held every year from 1 to 10 December, in Nagaland.
  • It is also called the 'Festival of Festivals'.
  • It showcases the rich and diverse Naga ethnicity through folk dances, traditional music, local cuisine, handicraft, art workshops, etc.

Additional Information

  • Nagaland is a mountainous state in northeast India, bordering Myanmar.
  • It's home to diverse indigenous tribes, with festivals and markets celebrating the different tribes' cultures.
  • It is also popularly known as the 'land of festivals and every tribal festival is celebrated with pomp and gaiety, adorned with rich and colourful traditional attires.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in Δ PQR, such that it touches the sides PQ, QR and RP at points D, E, F, respectively. If the lengths of the sides PQ = 15 cm, QR = 11 cm and RP = 13 cm, then find the length of PD.

  1. AOption (a)

    9 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    8 cm

  3. COption (c)

    7.5 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    8.5 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8.5 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In Δ PQR,

PQ = 15 cm, QR = 11 cm and RP = 13 cm.

A circle is inscribed in Δ PQR, such that it touches the sides PQ, QR and RP at points D, E, F, respectively.

Concept Used:

Tangents drawn from a point to the circle are equal in length.

Calculation:

A circle is inscribed in Δ PQR, such that it touches the sides PQ, QR and RP at points D, E, F, respectively.

⇒ PD = PF = x                 

⇒ QD = QE = y

⇒ RE = RF = z

All are tangents,

⇒ PD + PF + QD + QE + RE + RF = PQ + QR + RP

⇒ x + x + y + y + z + z = 39

⇒ 2x + 2(y + z) = 39

Here,

y + z = QE + ER = RQ

And we have RQ = 11

⇒ 2x + 2(11) = 39

⇒ 2x + 22 = 39

⇒ 2x = 17

⇒ x = 8.5

⇒ PD = 8.5 cm

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 52

If cot x – tan x = 3/2, then what will be the value of cot x + tan x?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    5/2

  4. DOption (d)

    7/2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5/2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

cot x – tan x = 3/2

Concept Used:

If x - 1/x = p, then x + 1/x = √(p2 + 4)

tan x = 1/cot x

Calculation:

cot x – tan x = 3/2

⇒ cot x – 1/cot x = 3/2

Using If x - 1/x = p, then x + 1/x = √(p2 + 4)

⇒ cot x + 1/cot x = √[(3/2)2 + 4]

⇒ cot x + 1/cot x = √(25/4)

⇒ cot x + 1/cot x = 5/2

⇒ cot x + tan x = 5/2

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 53

The table given below shows the production of beauty products by five different companies.

CompaniesProduction
P80
Q120
R84
S50
T70

 

The production of beauty product by T is what percent of the production of beauty product by S?

  1. AOption (a)

    40 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    140 percent

  3. COption (c)

    240 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    120 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

140 percent

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Production of beauty product by T = 70

Production of beauty product by S = 50

⇒ 70/50 × 100

⇒ 140 %

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 54

Observe the given graph and answer the following question.

How many students obtained more than 135 marks?

  1. AOption (a)

    56

  2. BOption (b)

    55

  3. COption (c)

    57

  4. DOption (d)

    58

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

58

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Marks ObtainedNo. of Students
12510
13013
13512
14018
14515
15014
16011

 

Number of students obtained more than 135 marks = 18 + 15 + 14 + 11

⇒ 58

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 55

A sum of Rs. 6,000 is to be paid back in two equal annual installments; each installment is to be paid at the end of every year. How much is each installment if the interest is compounded annually at 2% p.a.? (Rounded off up to two decimal places)

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2,092.29

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 3,090.30

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2,291.29

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 3,589.30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 3,090.30

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Rate = 2% pa

Year
I100102
II10021022

As both installments are equal multiply I by 102, So

Year
I100 × 1021022
II10021022

Total principle is 10200 + 10000 = 20200

According to the problem

20200 = 6000

1 = 6000/20200

1022 = 6000/20200 × 1022

3090.30

Each installment equals to Rs. 3090.30.

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 56

A pen was sold for Rs. 166.44 with a profit of 14%. If it were sold for Rs. 154.76, then what would have been the percentage of profit or loss?

  1. AOption (a)

    5% loss

  2. BOption (b)

    6% profit

  3. COption (c)

    5% profit

  4. DOption (d)

    6% loss

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6% profit

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Selling price =  166.44

Profit = 14%

Formula used:

C.P = 100/(100 + Profit%) × S.P

Profit = S.P – C.P

Profit% = Profit/C.P × 100

Calculation:

C.P = 100/(100 + Profit%) × S.P

⇒ C.P = 100/(100 + 14%) × 166.44

⇒ C.P = (100/114) × 166.44 = Rs. 146

According to the question:

If S.P = Rs. 154.76

Profit = 154.76 – 146 = Rs. 8.76

Profit% = Profit/C.P × 100

⇒ Profit% = 8.76/146 × 100 = 6%

∴ The percentage of profit is 6%.

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 57

If x=5−25+2\rm x = \frac{{\sqrt 5 - 2}}{{\sqrt 5 + 2}}, then the value of x2 + x-2 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    350

  2. BOption (b)

    345

  3. COption (c)

    284

  4. DOption (d)

    322

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

322

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x=5−25+2\rm x = \frac{{\sqrt 5 - 2}}{{\sqrt 5 + 2}}

Concept Used:

If x + 1/x = a, then x2 + 1/x2 = a2 - 2

Calculation:

⇒ x=5−25+2\rm x = \frac{{\sqrt 5 - 2}}{{\sqrt 5 + 2}}

⇒ 1x=5+25−2\rm \frac{1}{x} = \frac{{\sqrt 5 + 2}}{{\sqrt 5 - 2}}

⇒ x + 1/x = 5−25+2+5+25−2\frac{{\sqrt 5 - 2}}{{\sqrt 5 + 2}} + \frac{{\sqrt 5 + 2}}{{\sqrt 5 - 2}}

⇒ x + 1/x = (5−2)2+(5+2)2(5+2)(5−2)\frac{(\sqrt 5 - 2)^2 + (\sqrt 5 + 2)^2}{(\sqrt 5 +2)(\sqrt 5 - 2)}

⇒ x + 1/x = 18

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = a2 - 2

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = 182 - 2

⇒ 322

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 58

The table given below shows the number of pencils sold by 7 shops.

ShopsPencils
S154
S268
S370
S4120
S584
S6130
S736

What is the ratio of the number of pencils sold by S3 to the number of pencils sold by S6?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 ∶ 15

  2. BOption (b)

    13 ∶ 7

  3. COption (c)

    15 ∶ 7

  4. DOption (d)

    7 ∶ 13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7 ∶ 13

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Pencils sold  by S3 = 70

Pencils sold  by S6 = 130

The ratio of the number of pencils sold  by S3 to be number of pencils sold by S6 = 70 : 130

⇒ 7 : 13

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 59

If x > 0, and x4 + 1x4\rm \frac{1}{{{x^4}}} = 2207, what is the value of x7 +1x7\rm\frac{1}{{{x^7}}}?

  1. AOption (a)

    710649

  2. BOption (b)

    710647

  3. COption (c)

    710654

  4. DOption (d)

    710661

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

710647

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

x4+1x4=2207x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4} =2207

FORMULA USED:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

where a and b = 1st and 2nd term respectively.

(a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

CALCULATION:

Now, x4+1x4x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4}  can be written as,

(x2+1x2)2=x4+1x4+2.x2.1x2(x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2})^2 = x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4} + 2.x^2.\frac{1}{x^2}   

Here, a = x and b = 1/x respectively.

⇒ (x2+1x2)2 (x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2})^2 = 2209.

⇒ (x2+1x2) (x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2}) = 47      ... (1)

Now, again (x2+1x2) (x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2}) can be written as,

⇒ (x+1x)2=x2+1x2+2.x.1x( x+ \frac{1}{x})^2= x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} + 2.x .\frac{1}{x} 

⇒ (x+1x)2( x+ \frac{1}{x})^2 = 49 

⇒ (x +1/x) = 7      ... (2)

Now, take the cube of equation (2) on both sides, we  get

 (x+1x)3=x3+1x3+3.x.1x(x+1x)(x + \frac{1}{x})^3 = x^3 +\frac{1}{x^3} +3.x.\frac{1}{x}(x+\frac{1}{x})     

Here a = x and b = 1/x.

⇒ 343 = (x3+1x3)( x^3 + \frac{1}{x^3}) + 3(7) 

⇒ (x3+1x3)( x^3 + \frac{1}{x^3}) = 322.

Now. (x7+1x7)( x^7 + \frac{1}{x^7}) can be written as,

⇒ (x7+1x7)=(x3+1x3)(x4+1x4)−(x+1x)( x^7 + \frac{1}{x^7}) = ( x^3 + \frac{1}{x^3})( x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4}) -( x+ \frac{1}{x}) 

⇒ ( 2207 × 322 - 7) = 710647.

Hence, the value is 710647.

Shortcut Trick

We know, if  x4+1x4x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4}  = a, then x2+1x2x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} = √(a +2),

If x2+1x2x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} = b, then x+1xx + \frac{1}{x} = √(b +2) and if x+1xx + \frac{1}{x} = c then x3+1x3x^3 + \frac{1}{x^3} = c3 - 3c

Given, x4+1x4x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4} = 2207 then x2+1x2x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} = √2209 = 47

So, x+1xx + \frac{1}{x} = √49 = 7 and x3+1x3x^3 + \frac{1}{x^3} = 343 - 21 = 322

Now, (x7+1x7)=(x3+1x3)(x4+1x4)−(x+1x)( x^7 + \frac{1}{x^7}) = ( x^3 + \frac{1}{x^3})( x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4}) -( x+ \frac{1}{x})

⇒ (x7+1x7)( x^7 + \frac{1}{x^7}) = 322 × 2207 - 7 = 710647

Question 60

Which of the following two will provide more volume?

I) A cuboid of edges 6 cm, 7 cm and 8 cm

II) A cube of edge 7 cm

  1. AOption (a)

    Cube will have more volume

  2. BOption (b)

    Both will have equal volume

  3. COption (c)

    Cuboid will have more volume

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cube will have more volume

Why this answer is correct

Given:

I) A cuboid of edges 6 cm, 7 cm and 8 cm

II) A cube of edge 7 cm

 

Concept used:

The volume of a cuboid = lbh

The volume of a cube = a3

Calculation:

The volume of a cuboid = lbh

⇒  6 × 7 × 8 

⇒ 336 cm3

The volume of a cube = a3 = 73 = 343

Therefore Cube will have more volume.

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 61

What is the single percentage discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 15% and 5%?

  1. AOption (a)

    19.00% 

  2. BOption (b)

    19.25%

  3. COption (c)

    18.00%

  4. DOption (d)

    18.25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

19.25%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The successive discounts are 15% and 5%.

Formula used:

Successive discount = X + Y - (XY)/100

Where,

X = First discount

Y = Second discount

Calculation:

Successive discount = X + Y - (XY)/100

X = 15%, Y = 15%

⇒ 15 + 5 - 75/100

⇒ 19.25%

∴ The single equivalent discount is 19.25%

Question 62

Simplify x + 3(y + x - 2) - (x + y).

  1. AOption (a)

    x + 2y - 6 

  2. BOption (b)

    2x + y - 6 

  3. COption (c)

    2x + 3y - 6

  4. DOption (d)

    3x + 2y - 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3x + 2y - 6

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

x + 3(y + x - 2) - (x + y)

⇒ x + 3y + 3x - 6 - x - y

⇒ 3x + 2y - 6

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 63

A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 97 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at a speed of 21 m/sec and 23 m/sec respectively. What is the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief?

  1. AOption (a)

    40 sec

  2. BOption (b)

    45 sec 

  3. COption (c)

    62.5 sec

  4. DOption (d)

    48.5 sec

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

48.5 sec

Why this answer is correct

Given

The distance between the thief and the police is 97m

The speed of a thief is 21 m/sec

The speed of the police is 23 m/sec

Formula used

Time is taken to meet = Initial Distance / Relative Speed

Distance = speed × time

Calculation

Initial distance = 97m 

Relative Speed = 23 - 21 = 2m/sec

Time is taken to catch the thief = 97/2 = 48.5 sec

∴ The policeman catches the thief in 48.5 sec.

Question 64

If sec2 A + tan2 A = 417\frac{4}{{17}}, then sec4 A - tan4 A is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    1317\frac{{13}}{{17}}

  2. BOption (b)

    413\frac{4}{{13}}

  3. COption (c)

    417\frac{4}{{17}}

  4. DOption (d)

    517\frac{5}{{17}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

417\frac{4}{{17}}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Apply the identity a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b) to the expression sec4 A − tan4 A.

sec4 A − tan4 A = (sec2 A − tan2 A)(sec2 A + tan2 A).

Since sec2 A − tan2 A = 1, the value is 1 × (sec2 A + tan2 A).

Given sec2 A + tan2 A = 4/17, the answer is 1 × 4/17 = 4/17.

∴ The correct answer is 4/17.

Alternate Method

Given: sec2 A + tan2 A = 4/17

Formula Used: a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b) and sec2 A − tan2 A = 1

⇒ sec4 A − tan4 A = (sec2 A)2 − (tan2 A)2

⇒ sec4 A − tan4 A = (sec2 A − tan2 A)(sec2 A + tan2 A)

⇒ sec4 A − tan4 A = 1 × (4/17)

⇒ sec4 A − tan4 A = 4/17

∴ The correct answer is 4/17.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identities

There are three fundamental identities: sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1, 1 + tan2 θ = sec2 θ, and 1 + cot2 θ = cosec2 θ.

Difference of Squares

The algebraic identity a4 − b4 = (a2 − b2)(a2 + b2) is frequently used to simplify higher-power trigonometric expressions.

Reciprocal Relations

sec θ = 1/cos θ and tan θ = sin θ/cos θ. These relations help in converting complex terms into sine and cosine.

Question 65

If sin (A + B) = cos (A + B), what is the value of tan A?

  1. AOption (a)

    1−tan⁡B1+tan⁡B\frac{{1 - \tan B}}{{1 + \tan B}}

  2. BOption (b)

    1+tan⁡B1−tan⁡B\frac{{1 + \tan B}}{{1 - \tan B}}

  3. COption (c)

    1+sec⁡B1−sec⁡B\frac{{1 + \sec B}}{{1 - \sec B}}

  4. DOption (d)

    1−Cosec B1+cosec B\frac{{1 - Cosec \ B}}{{1 + cosec\ B}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1−tan⁡B1+tan⁡B\frac{{1 - \tan B}}{{1 + \tan B}}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

sin (A + B) = cos (A + B)

Formula used:

sin (A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B

cos (A + B) =  cos A cos B - sin A sin B

Calculation:

sin (A + B) = cos (A + B)

sin A cos B + cos A sin B = cos A cos B - sin A sin B

sin A cos B + sin A sin B = cos A cos B - cos A sin B

sin A(cos B + sin B) = cos A (cos B - sin B)

sin A/cos A = (cos B - sin B)/(cos B + sin B)

sin A/cos A = (1 - sin B/cos B)/(1 + sin B/cos B)

tan A = (1 - tan B)/(1 + tan B)

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 66

If the diameter of a sphere is 63 cm, then what is the total surface area of the sphere?

  1. AOption (a)

    11824 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    12836 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    12474 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    11248 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12474 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Diameter of sphere = 63 cm

Formula used:

Total surface area of a sphere = 4πr2

Calculation:

Radius = 63/2 cm

Total surface area of a sphere = 4πr2

⇒ 4 × 22/7 × 63/2 × 63/2

⇒ 22 × 9 × 63

∴ Area is 12474 cm2

Question 67

A circular clock has the hour hand of length 6 inch. Find the length of the distance it covers by it's tip from 9 p.m. to 3 a.m.

  1. AOption (a)

    4π inch

  2. BOption (b)

    2π inch

  3. COption (c)

    6π inch

  4. DOption (d)

    8π inch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6π inch

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of hour hand = 6 inch.

Concept Used:

Arc length = 2πrθ/360° 

Calculation:

Hours taken from 9 p.m. to 3 a.m. = 6 hours.

In 6 hours, hour hand complete half round means makes 180° angle.

The radius of the circle = 6 inch

Length of the distance it covers by it's tip from 9 p.m. to 3 a.m makes arc.

Arc length = 2πrθ/360° 

⇒ (2π × 6 × 180)/360° = 6π inch

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 68

In the election, 8% of the voters did not cast their votes. Two candidates contested the election in which the winning candidate got 48% of the total votes and won the election by 1100 votes. Find the total number of voters in the election, given that all the votes cast were valid.

  1. AOption (a)

    25500

  2. BOption (b)

    26500

  3. COption (c)

    27500

  4. DOption (d)

    28500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

27500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Percentage of voters who did not vote = 8%

The number of votes secured by the winning candidate = 48% of valid votes.

The majority by which the winning candidate won = 1100 votes

Concept used:

Total number of votes in an election = 100%

Total number of votes = Valid votes + Invalid votes

Total number of voters = Total number of votes + Number of voters who did not vote

Calculation:

Let the total number of voters enrolled on the voter's list = 100

8 % did not vote

⇒ Total number of voters left = 100x - 8x = 92x

⇒ 48% winning votes  = 48x

⇒ Losser get = 100x - (48x + 8x) = 44x

According to question

⇒ 48x - 44x = 1100

⇒ 4x = 1100

⇒ x = 275

The total number of votes = 100 × 275 = 27500

∴ The number of voters in the election is 27500.

Question 69

A mixture of milk and water measures 60 liters. It contains 10% water. How much water should be added to it, so that the water may be 25%?

  1. AOption (a)

    18 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    14 litres

  3. COption (c)

    16 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    12 litres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12 litres

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Quantity of mixture = 60 L

Calculation:      

Milk in mixture = 60 × 90% = 54 L

Water in mixture = 60 × 10% = 6 L

Let's assume that water is added in the mixture is x L.

Now mixture is = (60 + x) L

After addition water = (6 + x) L

According to the question:

⇒ (60 + x) × 75% = 54

⇒ 60 + x = (54 × 100)/75

⇒ 60 + x = 18 × 4

⇒ x = 72 - 60

⇒ x = 12 L

Hence, 12 L to be added to the mixture. 

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick 

We know, 10% = 1/10 and 25% = 1/4

Initially, the mixture contains 10% water, so Milk : Water = 9 : 1

And when water becomes 25% then  Milk : Water = 3 : 1

Now, no milk is added so we make milk unit equal in both the ratio

MilkWater
Before91
After93
Water added2 unit

Now, 10 unit → 60 liters

So, 2 unit  → 60/10 × 2 = 12 liters

Question 70

If 6 women can complete a work in 3 days, and 9 girls can complete the same work in 2 days, then find the time taken to complete the same work by 8 women and 6 girls?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 days

  2. BOption (b)

    4 days

  3. COption (c)

    6 days

  4. DOption (d)

    9/7 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9/7 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

6 women can complete a work in 3 days.

9 girls can complete the same work in 2 days.

Calculation:

⇒ 6W × 3 = 9G × 2

⇒ W : G = 1 : 1

Total work = 6W × 3 = 6 × 3 = 18

Time taken to complete the same work by 8 women and 6 girls,

⇒ 18/(8W + 6G)

⇒ 18/(8 + 6)

⇒ 18/14

⇒ 9/7

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 71

A hemispherical bowl made of iron has inner diameter 84 cm. Find the cost of tin plating it on the inside at the rate of Rs. 21 per 100 cm2 (take π=227\pi = \frac{{22}}{7}) correct to two places of decimal.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2,328.48

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 2,425.48

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2,425.60

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 2,355.48

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 2,328.48

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Inner Diameter = 84 cm

Cost of tin plating it on the inside = Rs. 21 per cm2.

Concept Used:

Curved Surface area of Hemisphere = 2π r2

Calculation:

Inner Diameter = 84 cm

Inner Radius = 84/2 cm = 42 cm

Curved Surface area of Hemisphere = 2π r2

⇒ 2 × 22/7 × 422

⇒ 2 × 22 × 6 × 42

⇒ 11088 cm2

The cost of tin-plating 100 cm2 of the bowl = Rs. 21

The cost of tin-plating 1 cm2 of the bowl = Rs. 21/100

The cost of tin-plating 11088 cm2 area of the bowl = (21/100) × 11088 = Rs. 2,328.48

Thus, the cost of tin-plating is Rs. 2,328.48.

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 72

By mistake, instead of dividing Rs. 702 among Ram, Ramesh, and Naresh in the ratio 13\frac{1}{3} ∶14\frac{1}{4} ∶ 16\frac{1}{6}, it was divided in the ratio of 3 ∶ 4 ∶ 6. Who gained the most and by how much?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ram Rs. 158

  2. BOption (b)

    Ramesh Rs. 158

  3. COption (c)

    Naresh Rs. 168

  4. DOption (d)

    Ram Rs. 168

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Naresh Rs. 168

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Correct ratio (1/3 : 1/4 : 1/6) × 12 → 4 : 3 : 2 (Total 9 units = ₹702 → 1 unit = ₹78).

Correct shares: Ram = 312, Ramesh = 234, Naresh = 156.

Wrong ratio: 3 : 4 : 6 (Total 13 units = ₹702 → 1 unit = ₹54).

Wrong shares: Ram = 162, Ramesh = 216, Naresh = 324.

Profit/Loss: Ram −150, Ramesh −18, Naresh +168.

∴ The correct answer is Naresh ₹168.

Alternate Method

Given: Total amount = ₹702. Correct Ratio = 1/3 : 1/4 : 1/6. Wrong Ratio = 3 : 4 : 6.

Calculations:

⇒ Simplifying correct ratio: LCM(3,4,6) = 12 → (1/3×12) : (1/4×12) : (1/6×12) = 4 : 3 : 2

⇒ Correct share of Naresh = (2 / 9) × 702 = 2 × 78 = ₹156

⇒ Wrong share of Naresh = (6 / 13) × 702 = 6 × 54 = ₹324

⇒ Gain for Naresh = 324 − 156 = ₹168

⇒ By comparing all: Ram (162−312 = −150), Ramesh (216−234 = −18).

∴ The correct answer is Naresh ₹168.

Additional Information

Ratio Simplification

To simplify fractional ratios, multiply each term by the LCM of the denominators to convert them into whole numbers.

Inverse Proportion

When an amount is divided in the ratio 1/a : 1/b : 1/c, the person with the smallest denominator receives the largest share.

Ratio Division Formula

Share of a person = (Individual Ratio / Sum of Ratios) × Total Amount.

Question 73

The pie chart given below shows the population of 8 cities in a year. Total population of all the 8 cities is 30,000. Population in a particular city is shown as a percent of total population in all these 8 cities.

What is the average population (approximately) of cities C3, C5 and C7?

  1. AOption (a)

    1200

  2. BOption (b)

    1800

  3. COption (c)

    1600

  4. DOption (d)

    2000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1600

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Percentage of population of city C3 = 8%

Percentage of population of city C5 = 5%

Percentage of population of city C7 = 3%

Average of percentage of population of cities C3, C5 and C7 = (8 + 5 + 3)/3

⇒ 16/3 %

Average population = 163×100×30000\frac{16}{3\times100} \times 30000

⇒ 1600

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 74

What is the largest common divisor of the numbers 1026, 2268 and 2430?

  1. AOption (a)

    108

  2. BOption (b)

    54

  3. COption (c)

    81

  4. DOption (d)

    27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

54

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

The largest common divisor means HCF.

Calculation:

H.C.F. of 1026, 2268, and 2430 is

Factors of 1026 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 19

Factors of 2268 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7

Factors of 2430 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 2 × 5

The common factors are:  3 × 3 × 3 × 2

H.C.F. = 3 × 3 × 3 × 2 = 54

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 75

If the 4-digit number x67y is exactly divisible by 9, then the least value of (x + y) is_____.

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

The 4 digit number x67y is exactly divisible by 9,

Concept Used:

If the number is divisible by 9 so sum of the number is also divisible by 9

Calculation:

x67y is exactly divisible by 9

The sum of its digits must be divisible by 9

x + 6 + 7 + y = x + y + 13 is divisible by 9

Minimum value x + y must be equal to 5 because then the sum will be 18 and it is divisible by 9.

∴ The least value of (x + y) is 5.

Additional Information

The possible value of x and y can be

x = 5, y = 0

x = 4, y = 1

x = 3, y = 2

x = 2, y = 3

x = 1, y = 4

x = 0, y = 5 -- In this case the number became 3 digit number so, this case is not consider.

English Comprehension (25 questions)

Question 76

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Plants of a particular region

  1. AOption (a)

    Flora

  2. BOption (b)

    Flinch

  3. COption (c)

    Fauna

  4. DOption (d)

    Flotsam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Flora

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Flora

Key Points

  • Flora: The plants of a particular region, habitat, or geological period. (किसी विशेष क्षेत्र, निवास स्थान या भूवैज्ञानिक काल के पौधे)
  • So, it is clear that 'Flora' can be used as a one-word substitute for 'Plants of a particular region​'
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

  • Flinch: To make a sudden small movement because of pain or fear. (बच निकलना)
  • Fauna: The animals of a particular region, habitat, or geological period. (किसी विशेष क्षेत्र, निवास स्थान या भूवैज्ञानिक काल के जानवर; पशुवर्ग)
  • Flotsam: The wreckage of a ship or its cargo found floating on or washed up by the sea. (पानी में तैरनेवाले जहाज़ के टुकड़े)

Question 77

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Abu said that he saw the picture.

  1. AOption (a)

    he has seen the picture

  2. BOption (b)

    he will have seen the picture

  3. COption (c)

    he would have seen the picture

  4. DOption (d)

    he had seen the picture

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

he had seen the picture

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: he had seen the picture

Key Points

  • The given sentence is divided into two clauses.
  • The conjunction (that) joins the parts of the sentence.
  • Whenever two clauses are joined by a conjunction and one is written in the simple past tense, the other one must be written in the past perfect tense.
  • The past perfect refers to a time earlier than before now. It is used to make it clear that one event happened before another in the past.
  • The structure follows: Subject + had + v3+ object.
  • So, "had seen" should be used in the given sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Corrected sentence: Abu said that he had seen the picture.

Question 78

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Texture

  2. BOption (b)

    Slege

  3. COption (c)

    Savoury

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamper

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Slege

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Slege

Key Points 

  • The correct spelling should be "Sledge"
  • Sledge: A vehicle mounted on runners, drawn by horses or dogs, for transporting people or goods, especially over snow; travel or slide downhill over snow on a sledge. (लोगों या सामानों के परिवहन के लिए, विशेष रूप से बर्फ पर, घोड़ों या कुत्तों द्वारा खींचे जाने वाले धावकों पर चढ़ा हुआ वाहन)
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2, which is incorrectly spelt.

Additional Information 

  • Texture: The feel, appearance, or consistency of a surface or substance. (बनावट)
  • Savoury: Attractive to the sense of taste or smell. (दिलकश)
  • Tamper: Interfere with something in order to cause damage or make unauthorized alterations. (छेड़छाड़)

Question 79

Select the appropriate adverb for the underlined word in the sentence.

He led me to the room that had obvious been built later than the rest of the house.

  1. AOption (a)

    obliviously

  2. BOption (b)

    obliviousness

  3. COption (c)

    obviousness

  4. DOption (d)

    obviously

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

obviously

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: obviously

Key Points

  • Obvious (adjective): easily perceived or understood; clear, self-evident, or apparent.
  • We use adjectives to describe nouns. Most adjectives can be used in front of a noun. 
  • For example - Her doctor immediately noticed the obvious signs of the disease.
  • The adverb of 'obvious' is "obviously" which means in a way that is easily perceived or understood; clearly.
  • An adverb is a word that describes or modifies verbs, adjectives, clauses, and other adverbs.
  • We use it to give additional information about other words.
  • For example- He is obviously delighted about having a baby.
  • ​Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Corrected sentence: He led me to the room that had obviously been built later than the rest of the house.

Question 80

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A shortened version of a larger work

  1. AOption (a)

    Summary

  2. BOption (b)

    Precis

  3. COption (c)

    Shorts

  4. DOption (d)

    Abridgement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Abridgement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Abridgement

Key Points 

  • Abridgement: A shortened or condensed form of a book, speech, etc, that still retains the basic contents. (किसी पुस्तक, भाषण आदि का संक्षिप्त या संक्षिप्त रूप, जो अभी भी मूल सामग्री को बरकरार रखता है)
  • It is generally used in the context of literature, referring to a book or written work which has been made smaller, often removing the less important or less relevant parts while keeping the main themes and most important portions.
  • So, it is clear that 'Abridgement' can be used as a one-word substitute for 'A shortened version of a larger work​'
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information 

  • Summary: A brief statement or account of the main points of something. (किसी चीज के मुख्य बिंदुओं का संक्षिप्त विवरण या लेखा)
  • Precis: A summary or abstract of a text or speech. (पाठ या भाषण का सारांश या सार)
  • Shorts: Not extended in time: brief. (समय में विस्तारित नहीं: संक्षिप्त)

Question 81

Complete the following collocation.

I was running late so I only had time for a _______ shower.

  1. AOption (a)

    quick

  2. BOption (b)

    hasty

  3. COption (c)

    fast

  4. DOption (d)

    short

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

quick

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: quick.

Key Points

  • Collocation is the combination of words formed when two or more words are often used together in a way that sounds correct.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Quick: Moving fast or doing something in a short time. (Used to indicate 'time')
  • Hasty: Done something in a hurry, sometimes without the necessary care or thought. (Used to indicate 'urgency')
  • Fast: Moving or capable of moving at high speed. (Used to indicate 'speed')
  • Short: Measuring a small distance from end to end. (Used to indicate 'length')
  • In this sentence "running late" is already mentioned with reference to time.
  • So, as per the usage and meaning of the given words "quick" should be used here.
  • A quick shower means washing oneself in a short period.
  • The implied meaning of the sentence is: I was running late, so I could only take a brief shower.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete sentence: I was running late so I only had time for a quick shower.

Question 82

Select the correct active form of the given sentence.

Her phone can’t be switched off by my father.

  1. AOption (a)

    My father switches off her phone.

  2. BOption (b)

    My father could not switch off her phone.

  3. COption (c)

    My father have not switched off her phone.

  4. DOption (d)

    My father can’t switch off her phone.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

My father can’t switch off her phone.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: My father can’t switch off her phone.

Key Points 

  • The given sentence is in the passive form and we need to change it into the active form.
  • ​Both the sentence use a modal verb 'can'. The structures for active/passive voices for modal verbs are:
  • ​Passive: Object + Modal verb + be + Verb (IIIrd form) + by + Subject
  • Active: Subject + Modal verb + Verb (Ist form) + Object
  • Example - 
  • Active voice - We can buy diamonds, but we cannot buy sympathy.
  • Passive voice - Diamonds can be bought but sympathy cannot be bought.
  • Rules of Conversion from Passive to Active Voice:
  • Identify the subject, the verb, and the object.
  • Change the object into the subject.
  • Change the verb into the past participle form of the verb.
  • Change the subject into an object.
  • ​Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Active Voice: My father can’t switch off her phone.

Question 83

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

Shyam asked me how I had persuaded his sister.

  1. AOption (a)

    "How are you persuading my sister?” Shyam asked me.

  2. BOption (b)

    "How did you persuaded my sister?” Shyam asked me.

  3. COption (c)

    "How did you persuade my sister?” Shyam asked me.

  4. DOption (d)

    "How have you persuade my sister?” Shyam asks me.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

"How did you persuade my sister?” Shyam asked me.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: "How did you persuade my sister?” Shyam asked me.

Key Points 

  • The given sentence is an indirect speech and we need to convert it to a direct speech.
  • When we change an indirect speech to a direct speech, we must follow these rules:
  • The reporting verb remains unchanged in the case of a question.
  • The inverted commas ("...") are placed to show the indirect speech part.
  • The comma (,) is added after the sentence covered in inverted commas in direct speech.
  • The first word of the direct speech should be in capital letters.
  • The past perfect "had + v3" changes to "did + v1" in the direct speech to form the simple past tense.
  • The pronoun 'I' and 'his' changed to 'you' and 'my' respectively in the direct speech.
  • Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Hence, the direct speech is - "How did you persuade my sister?” Shyam asked me.

Question 84

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The interviewees were slowly becoming impatient as they were left to ________ in the waiting room for hours.

  1. AOption (a)

    draw the long bow

  2. BOption (b)

    cool their heels

  3. COption (c)

    hold water

  4. DOption (d)

    flog a dead horse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cool their heels

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: cool their heels

Key Points

  • In the given sentence an idiomatic expression is used.
  • These expressions, known as idioms, often contain meanings that may not be obvious by simply looking at the individual words.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the given idioms.
  • Draw the long bow: To lie; to exaggerate.
  • Cool their heels: Someone is deliberately keeping you waiting so that you get bored or impatient.
  • Hold water: To seem to be true or reasonable.
  • Flog a dead horse: Waste energy on a lost cause or a situation that cannot be changed.
  • So, as per the meaning of the given idioms "cool their heels" should be used here.
  • The implied meaning of the sentence is: The interviewers were growing frustrated as they were forced to wait for hours in the waiting area.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete sentence: The interviewees were slowly becoming impatient as they were left to cool their heels in the waiting room for hours.

Hinglish

  • Draw the long bow - बड़ी बड़ी बातें करना
  • Cool their heels - ढेर सारा समय बर्बाद करना
  • Hold water - यथार्थ या सत्य होना
  • Flog a dead horse - व्यर्थ का प्रयास करना

Question 85

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

One can never imagine / how hot it gets in Delhi / unless one doesn’t go / there in person.

  1. AOption (a)

    One can never imagine

  2. BOption (b)

    unless one doesn’t go

  3. COption (c)

    how hot it gets in Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    there in person.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

unless one doesn’t go

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part of the sentence is: unless one doesn’t go

Key Points

  • The error here lies in the third part of the sentence.
  • Replace "doesn't go" with "goes" to correct the sentence.
  • The conjunction 'Unless' means except on the condition that or under any other circumstance than.
  • So, we cannot use a negative word after 'unless' as it conveys a negative meaning itself.
  • Also, 'goes' will be used as the subject is singular.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2 which contains an error in it.

 

Corrected sentence: One can never imagine how hot it gets in Delhi unless one goes there in person.

Question 86

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘MOBILE’ from the given sentence.

The strange TV reporter standing over there covers all the funny and interesting things happening inside the town.

  1. AOption (a)

    Standing

  2. BOption (b)

    Interesting

  3. COption (c)

    Inside

  4. DOption (d)

    Strange

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Standing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Standing

Key Points

  • Mobile: Able to move or be moved freely or easily. (स्थानांतरित करने या स्वतंत्र रूप से या आसानी से स्थानांतरित करने में सक्षम)
  • Let us look at the meaning of the given options.
  • Standing: The act of a person or thing that stands; not moveable and therefore fixed. (किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु का खड़ा होना; चलने योग्य नहीं है और इसलिए स्थिर है)
  • Interesting: Arousing curiosity or interest; holding or catching the attention. (दिलचस्प)
  • Inside: The inner side or surface of something. (अंदर)
  • Strange: Unusual or surprising; difficult to understand or explain. (अजीब)
  • From the meaning of the given words, it is clear that the most appropriate antonym of the word ‘Mobile’ is 'Standing'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 87

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Exaltation

  1. AOption (a)

    Dejection

  2. BOption (b)

    Ecstasy

  3. COption (c)

    Satisfaction

  4. DOption (d)

    Elaboration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ecstasy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Ecstasy

Key Points

  • Exaltation means an excessively intensified sense of well-being, power, or importance. (उमंग; उत्कर्ष)
  • Marked option Ecstasy means an overwhelming feeling of great happiness or joyful excitement. (परम आनंद; उत्साह)
  • It is clear that 'Exaltation' and 'Ecstasy' are similar in meaning.
  • Therefore the correct answer is option 2.​

Additional Information  

  • Dejection: A sad and depressed state; low spirits. (उदासी )
  • Satisfaction: The act of fulfilling a need, desire, or appetite. (संतोष)
  • Elaboration: The process of developing or presenting a theory, policy, or system in further detail. (विशदीकरण; विस्तार)

Question 88

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P. Main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum.

Q. Wular Lake is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake that existed in ancient times.

R. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’.

S. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din.

  1. AOption (a)

    RPQS

  2. BOption (b)

    PQRS

  3. COption (c)

    QSRP

  4. DOption (d)

    PRSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PRSQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PRSQ"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct sequence of the passage.
  • Statement P is the opening sentence of the passage which says that the River Jhelum is the main source of water for Wular Lake.
  • Statement R is the second sentence of the passage which explains that the 'Zaina Lank' is a little island in the centre of the lake.
  • Statement S is the third sentence of the passage which explains that the island was built by King Zainul-Abi-Din.
  • Statement Q is the last sentence of the passage which shows that Wular Lake is also considered to be a relic of Satisar Lake from ancient times.

Hence, the correct sequence is P, R, S, Q

The correct answer is option 4.

The correct passage is: P. Main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. R. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. S. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din. Q. Wular Lake is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake that existed in ancient times.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Oppose

  1. AOption (a)

    Embody

  2. BOption (b)

    Resist

  3. COption (c)

    Encourage

  4. DOption (d)

    Elective

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Encourage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Encourage

Key Points 

  • Oppose: Disagree with and attempt to prevent, especially by argument. (विरोध करना)
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words given in the options section.
  • Embody: To represent a quality or an idea exactly. (मूर्त रूप देना; साकार करना)
  • Resist: To fight against or oppose something or someone. (किसी चीज या किसी का विरोध करना; रोक लगाना)
  • Encourage: Give support, confidence, or hope to someone. (हिम्मत बढाना; किसी को समर्थन, विश्वास या आशा देना)
  • Elective: Open to choice; optional; not required. (वैकल्पिक; आवश्यक नहीं)
  • From the meaning of the given words, it is clear that the most appropriate antonym of 'Oppose' is 'Encourage'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 90

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Technology plays an indispensable role in the lives of human beings in the 21st century.

  1. AOption (a)

    Superfluous

  2. BOption (b)

    Relentless

  3. COption (c)

    Vigilant

  4. DOption (d)

    Transparent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Superfluous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Superfluous

Key Points 

  • Indispensable: Incapable of being disregarded or neglected. (अपरिहार्य; उपेक्षित या उपेक्षित होने में असमर्थ)
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words given in the options section.
  • Superfluous: Unnecessary, especially through being more than enough. (ज़रूरत से ज़्यादा; अनावश्यक, विशेष रूप से पर्याप्त से अधिक होने के कारण)
  • Relentless: Something that is harsh, unforgiving, and persistent. (कुछ ऐसा जो कठोर, अक्षम्य और लगातार बना रहे; दयाहीन)
  • Vigilant: Keeping careful watch for possible danger or difficulties. (चौकस)
  • Transparent: easy to perceive or detect; (of a material or article) allowing light to pass through so that objects behind can be distinctly seen. (पारदर्शी)
  • From the meaning of the given words, it is clear that the most appropriate antonym of 'Indispensable' is 'Superfluous'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 91

A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative.

When there are negative and toxic thoughts _______ your mind, you can never think positively.

  1. AOption (a)

    plotting

  2. BOption (b)

    shouting

  3. COption (c)

    clouding

  4. DOption (d)

    persuading

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

clouding

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: clouding

Key Points

  • Let us look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Plotting: Secretly make plans to carry out an illegal or harmful action.
  • Shouting:  To utter a loud cry, typically as an expression of strong emotion.
  • Clouding: To make someone confused, or make something more difficult to understand
  • Persuading: Induce someone to do something through reasoning or argument.
  • As per the meaning of the given words "clouding" should be used here.
  • The implied meaning of the sentence is: You can never think positively when negative and harmful ideas confuse your head.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete sentence: When there are negative and toxic thoughts clouding your mind, you can never think positively.

Question 92

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Break the ice

  1. AOption (a)

    Make people meeting first time feel uncomfortable

  2. BOption (b)

    Make people meeting first time feel sad

  3. COption (c)

    Make people meeting first time feel more detached

  4. DOption (d)

    Make people meeting the first time feel more comfortable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Make people meeting the first time feel more comfortable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Make people meeting the first time feel more comfortable

Key Points  

  • The idiom "Break the ice" means to do or say something that makes people who do not know each other feel more comfortable. (ऐसा कुछ करना या कहना जो उन लोगों को अधिक सहज महसूस कराता है जो एक-दूसरे को नहीं जानते हैं)
  • Example - That joke really broke the ice at the conference; we all relaxed afterwards.
  • So, it is clear that the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom "Break the ice" is "Make people meeting the first time feel more comfortable"
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 93

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The wounded man was being helped by a few men.

  1. AOption (a)

    The wounded man had been helped by a few men.

  2. BOption (b)

    A few men were helping the wounded man.

  3. COption (c)

    The wounded man was helping a few men.

  4. DOption (d)

    A few men are helping the wounded man.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A few men were helping the wounded man.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: A few men were helping the wounded man.

Key Points 

  • The given sentence is in the passive form and we need to change it into the active form.
  • The given sentence is written in the passive form of the Past Continuous Tense.
  • The Past Continuous Tense in the passive voice has the following structure: Object+ was/were +being+V3+ by + subject
  • The Past Continuous Tense in the active voice has the following structure: Subject + was/were + v1+ing+ object
  • Example - 
  • Passive voice - The wall was being painted by Rahul.
  • Active voice - Rahul was painting the wall.
  • Rules of Conversion from Passive to Active Voice:
  • Identify the subject, the verb, and the object.
  • Change the object into the subject.
  • Change the verb into the past participle form of the verb.
  • Change the subject into an object.
  • ​Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Active Voice: A few men were helping the wounded man.

Question 94

Choose the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Benign

  2. BOption (b)

    Mortifeid

  3. COption (c)

    Insecurities

  4. DOption (d)

    Dismay

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mortifeid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Mortifeid

Key Points 

  • The correct spelling should be "Mortified"
  • Mortified: Cause someone to feel very embarrassed or ashamed. (अपमानित)
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2, which is incorrectly spelt.

Additional Information  

  • Benign: Gentle and kindly. (कोमल और दयालु)
  • Insecurities: Uncertainty or anxiety about oneself; lack of confidence. (अपने बारे में अनिश्चितता या चिंता; आत्मविश्वास की कमी)
  • Dismay: Concern and distress caused by something unexpected. (किसी अप्रत्याशित चीज़ के कारण चिंता और संकट)

Question 95

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

The continued

P. the growing sales of sneakers

Q. dominance of the athleisure trend

R. along with the pursuit of comfort

S. has had a significant impact on

  1. AOption (a)

    PSRQ

  2. BOption (b)

    RPSQ

  3. COption (c)

    QRPS

  4. DOption (d)

    QSPR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

QSPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: QSPR

Key Points

  • In the given question 'The continued' should be followed by a Noun and in the given statements there is only one statement which is started with a noun i.e. statement Q (Dominance).
  • So the first sentence is statement Q.
  • The results of the first statement are in Statement S (the word impact shows it).
  • So, the second correct sentence is Statement S.
  • Statement S is followed by statement P because of the impact on what is described in statement P.
  • Statement P is followed by statement R to complete the sense of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is: The continued dominance of the athleisure trend has had a significant impact on the growing sales of sneakers along with the pursuit of comfort.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

All drivers are affected by road rage, whether they are directly or indirectly (1).Individual coping qualities (2)________ the behaviour of stressful drivers. Instead of being enraged over circumstances beyond their control, drivers (3)___ learn to be patient. On the road, we must be (4) __________ to control our own emotions. Road raged drivers are also more likely to (5) __________ more traffic offences.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1

  1. AOption (a)

    involves

  2. BOption (b)

    involving

  3. COption (c)

    involved

  4. DOption (d)

    involve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

involved

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: involved

Key Points

  • The first sentence of the given passage is written in the passive form of the simple present tense.
  • The structure follows: Object+ is/am/are+ V3+ by + subject
  • So, the third form of the verb should be used here.
  • Hence, 'involved' is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
  • Involved means being a part of something or being associated with it.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete passage: All drivers are affected by road rage, whether they are directly or indirectly (1) involved. Individual coping qualities (2)____________ the behaviour of stressful drivers. Instead of being enraged over circumstances beyond their control, drivers (3)__________ learn to be patient. On the road, we must be (4) __________ to control our own emotions. Road raged drivers are also more likely to (5) __________ more traffic offences.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    influence

  2. BOption (b)

    apply

  3. COption (c)

    increases

  4. DOption (d)

    multiply

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

influence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: influence

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Influence: To cause someone to change a behaviour, belief, or opinion, or to cause something to be changed.
  • Apply: To make a formal application or request.
  • Increases: Becomes or makes greater in size, amount, or degree.
  • Multiply: Increase or cause to increase greatly in number or quantity.
  • So, as per the meaning of the given words "influence" is the most appropriate option.
  • The implied meaning of the sentence is: Individual coping abilities have an impact on the behaviour of stressed drivers.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete passage: All drivers are affected by road rage, whether they are directly or indirectly (1) involved. Individual coping qualities (2) influence the behaviour of stressful drivers. Instead of being enraged over circumstances beyond their control, drivers (3)__________ learn to be patient. On the road, we must be (4) __________ to control our own emotions. Road raged drivers are also more likely to (5) __________ more traffic offences.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    must

  2. BOption (b)

    can

  3. COption (c)

    ought

  4. DOption (d)

    to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

must

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: must.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the usage of the given words.
  • Must: Used to express obligation, give orders and give advice.
  • Can: Used to suggest something might happen in the future.
  • Ought: Indicate correctness or duty, often when criticizing the actions of another.
  • To: Indicate a goal or a direction of movement, as well as a place of arrival.
  • The given sentence is conveying a piece of advice.
  • So, as per the usage of the given words "must" is the most appropriate option.
  • The implied meaning of the sentence is: Drivers should learn to remain patient rather than become irritated by situations beyond their control.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete passage: All drivers are affected by road rage, whether they are directly or indirectly (1) involved. Individual coping qualities (2) influence the behaviour of stressful drivers. Instead of being enraged over circumstances beyond their control, drivers (3) must learn to be patient. On the road, we must be (4) __________ to control our own emotions. Road raged drivers are also more likely to (5) __________ more traffic offences.

Additional Information

  • Must is used to express the 'need of the hour' or necessity, which has to be done.
  • Can is used to refer ability to do something.
  • Ought is mainly used when we talk of a moral obligation or duty.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    brave

  2. BOption (b)

    consistent

  3. COption (c)

    able

  4. DOption (d)

    oblige

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

able

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: able

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Brave: Ready to face and endure danger or pain; showing courage.
  • Consistent: Acting or done in the same way over time, especially so as to be fair or accurate.
  • Able: Having the power, skill, means, or opportunity to do something.
  • Oblige: Make someone legally or morally bound to do something.
  • So, as per the usage of the given words "able" is the most appropriate option.
  • The implied meaning of the sentence is: We must be capable of controlling our emotions while driving.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete passage: All drivers are affected by road rage, whether they are directly or indirectly (1) involved. Individual coping qualities (2) influence the behaviour of stressful drivers. Instead of being enraged over circumstances beyond their control, drivers (3) must learn to be patient. On the road, we must be (4) able to control our own emotions. Road raged drivers are also more likely to (5) __________ more traffic offences.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    drag

  2. BOption (b)

    reflect

  3. COption (c)

    incur

  4. DOption (d)

    proceed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

incur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: incur

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Drag: Pull someone or something along forcefully, roughly, or with difficulty.
  • Reflect: To show, express, or be a sign of something.
  • Incur: Become subject to something unwelcome or unpleasant as a result of one's own behaviour or actions.
  • Proceed: To begin a course of action.
  • So, as per the usage of the given words "incur" is the most appropriate option.
  • The implied meaning of the sentence is: Road raged drivers are also more prone to committing traffic violations.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete passage: All drivers are affected by road rage, whether they are directly or indirectly (1) involved. Individual coping qualities (2) influence the behaviour of stressful drivers. Instead of being enraged over circumstances beyond their control, drivers (3) must learn to be patient. On the road, we must be (4) able to control our own emotions. Road raged drivers are also more likely to (5) incur more traffic offences.

100 questions in the full paper