SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 01 Dec 2022 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Given: 

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

Given: G # H & I @ J & K

Clearly, Here H is the mother-in-law of J.

Hence, the correct answer is "Mother-in-law".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held on the right side.

Detailed Explanation:

• The correct mirror image of the given figure is "

" the fifth number of the given image is '

' and the correct mirror image of this number is '

' but it is not wrongly given in Option 1 and Option 3 so it is eliminated.

• The correct mirror image of the given figure is "

" the first letter of the given image is '

' and the correct mirror image of this alphabet is '

' but it is wrongly given in Option 4 so it is eliminated.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

1. In the mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

2. In a real given mirror image the farthest number or alphabet appears closest in the mirror image.

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (First number × 1) + (Second number × 3) = Third number.

1. (40, 120, 400)

⇒ (40 × 1) + (120 × 3) 

⇒ 40 + 360 = 400

And,

2. (18, 20, 78)

⇒ (18 × 1) + (20 × 3)

⇒ 18 + 60 = 78

Similarly,

3. (29, 23, 98)

⇒ (29 × 1) + (23 × 3)

⇒ 29 + 69 = 98

Hence, the correct answer is "(29, 23, 98)".

The pattern followed here is:

1. Given figure is rotated 45º degree anticlockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct pattern followed here is:

Logic: Addition of odd number that starts with 5, 7, 9, and so on.

Hence, the correct answer is "65".

The pattern followed here is:

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below according to the given information.

Statements:

I. Some white are car.

II. No truck is car.

Conclusion:

I. All truck are white → Does not follow → As some white are car and no truck is car. So all trucks are white is not possible because some part of white is car. So it is incorrect.

II. Some car are white → Follow → As some white are car. So some car are white is followed. 

So, Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: First number × (First number + 11) = Second number

1. 24 : 840 

⇒ 24 × (24 + 11)

⇒ 24 × 35 = 840

And,

2. 33 : 1452

⇒ 33 × (33 + 11)

⇒ 33 × 44 = 1452

Similarly,

3. 27 : ?

⇒ 27 × (27 + 11)

⇒ 27 × 38 = 1026

Hence, the correct answer is "1026".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

Logic: Addition of +3 in the first letter and +4 in the second letter.

Option 1) MPT

⇒ M(13) + 3 → P(16) + 4 → T(20)

Option 2) FIM

⇒ F(6) + 3 → I(9) + 4 → M(13)

Option 3) GJN

⇒ G(7) + 3 → J(10) + 4 → N(14

Option 4) DGI

⇒ D(4) + 3 → G(7) + 2 → I(9)

According to the logic, DGI is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "DGI".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

‘ADVANCE’ is written as ‘VDAAECN’ 

And,

‘BABYSIT’ is written as ‘BABYTIS’

Similarly,

‘AFFABLE’ be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "FFAAELB".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

1) BEAR : DFCS 

And,

2. FEEL : HFGM

Similarly,

3. MANY : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "OBPZ".

All the given options are set according to the English dictionary order.

3. Individual 1. Inundate 5. Invective 4. Inveterate 2. Invidious 6. Invincible 7. Inviolable

Hence, the correct answer is "3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 7".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

The family tree is drawn.

Let's check each option one by one and find which option shows that P is the sister of R.

Option 1) P + Q + R

Here, P is the brother of R. So it is incorrect.

Option 2) P + Q × R

Here, P is the brother of R. So it is incorrect.

Option 3) P × Q ÷ R

Here, P is the aunt of R. So it is incorrect.

Option 4) P × Q + R

Here, P is the sister of R. So it correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: All letters except the second letter remain the same

The second letter follows the Vowel alphabet series: A, E, I, O, U

Hence, the correct answer is "NIME".

The logic followed here is

Step (1): S changes to its mirror image in every step.

Then options 2 and 3 will be eliminated.

Two type of movements are followed.

Step (2): The elements which are sitting in the corner, moving clockwise direction. The elements are sitting on the side, moving anticlockwise direction. This movement happens at every alternative time.

Step (3): Left side elements are moving anti-clockwise direction.  The right side elements are moving clockwise direction. The elements which are placed in the middle interchange their position.  This movement happens at every alternative time.

Step (4): As same as Step (1)

Step (5): As same as Step (2)

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

The pattern followed here is:

The equation solved with the help of the BODMAS Rule:

Given: 35 * 5 * 7 * 2 * 19 = 42

Option 1) ×, ÷, -, +

⇒ 35 × 5 ÷ 7 - 2 + 19 = 42

⇒ 35 × 0.71428 - 2 + 19 = 42

⇒ 25 - 2 + 19 = 42

⇒ 44 - 2 = 42

⇒ 42 = 42

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2) ÷, ×, +, +

⇒ 35 ÷ 5 × 7 + 2 + 19 = 42

⇒ 7 × 7 + 2 + 19 = 42

⇒ 49 + 2 + 19 = 42

⇒ 70 ≠ 42 

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) +, -, +, -

⇒ 35 + 5 - 7 + 2 - 19 = 42

⇒ 42 - 7 - 19 = 42

⇒ 42 - 26 = 42

⇒ 16 ≠ 42

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) ÷, ×, -, -

⇒ 35 ÷ 5 × 7 - 2 - 19 = 42

⇒ 7 × 7 - 2 - 19 = 42

⇒ 49 - 2 - 19 = 42

⇒ 21 ≠ 42

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern followed here is:

The unfolding pattern of the paper is shown below step by step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: First number + Second number × 3 = Third number.

1. (16, 7, 37)

⇒ 16 + 7 × 3

⇒ 16 + 21 = 37

And,

2. (28, 9, 55)

⇒ 28 + 9 × 3

⇒ 28 + 27 = 55

Similarly,

3. (13, 4, 25)

⇒ 13 + 4 × 3

⇒ 13 + 12 = 25

Hence, the correct answer is "(13, 4, 25)".

The pattern followed here is:

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below according to the given information.

Statements:

Some stones are cubes.

No cube is a glass.

All bats are cubes.

Conclusions:

I. Some stones being bats is a possibility → Follow → As some stones are cubes and all bats are cubes. So some stones being a bats possibility is definitely possible so it is followed. Possibility shown below.

II. No bat is a glass → Follow ​→ As all bats are cubes and no cube is a glass. So no bat is a glass is definitely followed because all bats are complete parts of Cubes.

III. All cubes are bats → Does not follow → As all bats are cubes. it is not definite in case of cube to bat as all bat can be cube without all cube being bat. Hence all cubes being bats is a possibility not definite.)

IV. No stone is a glass → Does not follow ​→ As there is no definite relation given between Stone and Glass, we can not derive any conclusion. So no stone is a glass is not followed. 

So, Only Conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

1. LAMB : DPEQ

And,

2. MOTH: JWSR

Similarly,

3. NERD:?

Hence, the correct answer is "FUIS".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

Logic: Addition of place value of letters + 6 = Code

'FUEL' is coded as '50'

⇒ F(6) + U(21) + E(5) + L(12) + 6 = 50

And,

'JEER' is coded as '44'

⇒ J(10) + E(5) + E(5) + R(18) + 6 = 44

Similarly,

'FARE' is coded as '?'

⇒ F(6) + A(1) + R(18) + E(5) + 6 = 36

Hence, the correct answer is "36".

The correct pattern followed here is:

Solve with the help of the BODMAS Rule:

Given: 729 × 81 ÷ 20 + 16 − 6 = 50

Option 1) 6 and 20, × and ÷ 

After replacing the sign and number we get the:

⇒ 729 ÷ 81 × 6 + 16 − 20 = 50

⇒ 9 × 6 + 16 − 20 = 50

⇒ 54 + 16 - 20 = 50

⇒ 70 - 20 = 50

⇒ 50 = 50

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2)  20 and 50, + and − 

After replacing the sign and number we get the:

⇒ 729 × 81 ÷ 50 - 16 + 6 = 20

⇒ 729 × 1.62 - 16 + 6 = 20

⇒ 1180.98 - 16 + 6 = 20

⇒ 1186.98 - 16 = 20

⇒ 1170.98 ≠ 20

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) 16 and 50, × and +

After replacing the sign and number we get the:

⇒ 729 + 81 ÷ 20 × 50 − 6 = 16

⇒ 729 + 1.62 × 50 - 6 = 16

⇒ 729 + 81 - 6 = 16

⇒ 810 - 6 = 16

⇒ 804 ≠ 16

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 16 and 20, + and ÷

⇒ 729 × 81 + 16 ÷ 20 − 6 = 50 

⇒ 729 × 81 + 0.8 - 6 = 50

⇒ 59049 + 0.8 - 6 = 50

⇒ 59049.8 - 6 = 50

⇒ 59043.8 ≠ 50

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

Hence, the correct answer is "HRE".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: First number : (First number)² :(First number)² - 5

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) (15 - 220 - 215)

⇒ 15 : (15)² : (15)² - 5

⇒ 15 : 225 : 220 ≠ 15 - 220 - 215

Option 2) (10 - 100 - 95)

⇒ 10 : (10)² : (10)² - 5

⇒ 10 : 100 : 95 = 10 : 100 : 95

Option 3) (20 - 400 - 395)

⇒ 20 : (20)² : (20)² - 5

⇒ 20 : 400 : 395 = 20 : 400 : 395

Option 4) (25 - 625 - 620)

⇒ 25 : (25)² : (25)² - 5

⇒ 25 : 625 : 620 = 25 : 625 : 620

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern followed here is:

Given: × and –, 8 and 4

After interchanging the sign and number we get the;

1) 4 + 3 × 8 – 2 ÷ 1 = 3

⇒ 8 + 3 - 4 × 2 ÷ 1 = 3

⇒ 8 + 3 - 4 × 2 = 3

⇒ 8 + 3 - 8 = 3

⇒ 11 - 8 = 3

⇒ 3 = 3 (This equation is correct)

2) 8 × 2 – 4 + 6 ÷ 2 = 11

⇒ 4 - 2 × 8 + 6 ÷ 2 = 11 

⇒ 4 - 2 × 8 + 3 = 11

⇒ 4 - 16 + 3 = 11

⇒ 7 - 16 = 11

⇒ - 9 ≠ 11 (This equation is not correct)

So, only the equation II is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II".

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

• ​The Asian Games 2018 was a multi-sport continental competition that took place in Jakarta and Palembang.
• It took place from August 18 to September 2, 2018.
• The Indonesian metropolis of Jakarta and the provincial capital of South Sumatra, Palembang, jointly hosted the Summer Asian Games for the first time.
• For ten years running, China has led the medal count.
• Rikako Ikee, a Japanese swimmer, was named the **most valuable player.**​

Additional Information

• In September and October 2002, Busan, South Korea hosted the 14^th Asian Games.
• Japan held the third and twelfth Asian Games, respectively, in Tokyo in 1958 and Hiroshima in 1994.
• The country will host the tournament for the third time when the 20^th Games take place in Aichi-Nagoya in 2026.
• The multisport Asian Games of 2022 were held in **Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China.**​

Important Points

• The Asian Games 2022, due to be held in Hangzhou, China, have been postponed to 2023 due to rising COVID-19 cases in the country.
• New dates for the 19^th edition of the Games will now be announced.
• The Asian Games 2022 were originally scheduled from September 10 to 25, 2022.
• The World University Games 2021, to be held from June 26 to July 27 in Chengdu, have also been pushed to 2023.

The correct answer is Poornima, Shravan month.

Key Points

• ​Raksha Bandhan or Rakhi Purnima is celebrated on the full moon day, or Purnima tithi, according to the Hindu calendar.
• It is observed during the Shravana month.
• Hindus celebrate Raksha Bandhan every year as a well-known and customary ritual or celebration.
• On this day, sisters of all ages wrap their brothers' wrists with a charm or amulet known as the Rakhi.
• They give them a present in exchange for protecting them figuratively, share some of the burdens of their potential care with the brothers, and symbolically protect them.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21: Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
• This article declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
• The right to life is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but also includes the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete, and worth living.
• Thus, we can say that Article - 21 of the Indian Constitution entitles the Right to Life.

Additional Information

• Articles 12-35 of the Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights.
• These human rights are conferred upon the citizens of India for the Constitution tells that these rights are inviolable.
• Right to Life, Right to Dignity, Right to Education, etc. all come under one of the six main fundamental rights.
• Equality Before Law: Article 14 says that no person shall be denied treatment of equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience, and the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion to all citizens.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32 – 35) - The Constitution guarantees remedies if citizens’ fundamental rights are violated.
• The government cannot infringe upon or curb anyone’s rights.
• When these rights are violated, the aggrieved party can approach the courts.
• Citizens can even go directly to the Supreme Court which can issue writs for enforcing fundamental rights.

The correct answer is The acid present in tomatoes.

Key Points

• Oxalic acid is a chemical compound that occurs naturally in almost every plant to some degree, including fruit, vegetable and grain plants.
• Tomato contains more than 10 types of acids such as citric acid, malic acid, ascorbic acid, oxalic acid etc.
• The oxalic acid content of tomatoes is about 50 mg per 100 g serving.

Additional Information 

• Some natural sources of acid:

The correct answer is 97.2 per cent.

Key Points

• 97.3 per cent of the water on earth is found in the oceans.
• The ice caps contain 2% of the world's water.
• 0.68 per cent of all water comes from groundwater.
• Rivers make up less than 0.0001 % of all water.
• In comparison to inland seas and salt lakes, freshwater lakes contain 0.009% of the earth's water.
• 0.0019 per cent of the water on Earth is in the atmosphere.

​

Additional Information

• Fresh water sources:
• Water that seeps further into the soil through porous materials is known as groundwater.
• It fills cracks and pores in aquifers, or layers of subterranean rock.
• Some of this water is too deep underground to be retrieved at a reasonable price.
• Surface-water runoff is precipitation that drains into bodies of water including streams, rivers, lakes, wetlands, and reservoirs but does not seep into the earth or return to the atmosphere.
• The amount of water in 10 cm of snow is roughly equivalent to 1 cm of rain.

The correct answer is 17.70 percent.

Key Points

• According to preliminary Census 2011 data, there are 1210.19 million people living in the nation.
• Out of these, 623.72 million (51.54%) are men and 586.46 million (48.46%) are women.
• The following are the  main points of the Census 2011 (Provisional figures):
• Over the decade from 2001 to 2011, India's population grew by more than 181 million people.
• Percentage growth in 2001-2011 is 17.64; males 17.19 and females 18.12.
• With the exception of 1911–1921, the decade from 2001–2011 is the first in which population growth was lower than that of the prior decade.
• The most populous State in the nation is Uttar Pradesh, with 199.5 million people, followed by Maharashtra, with 112 million.

Additional Information 

• Other main points of the Census 2011:
• In comparison to 15 States/UTs with a share of roughly 42% during the period 1991-2001, where 25 States/UTs with a share of nearly 85% of the nation's population had an annual growth rate of less than 2%.
• Between 2001 and 2011, 15 States/UTs experienced annual growth rates of less than 1.5%, compared to just 4 in the prior decade.
• There are 158.8 million kids in the 0 to 6 age range overall (5 million since 2001).
• Over a million kids between the ages of 0 and 6 are presently present in twenty States and Union Territories.
• The sex ratio has decreased in three important States (J&K, Bihar, and Gujarat) when compared to Census 2001.
• Kerala with 1084 has the highest sex ratio followed by Puducherry with 1038, and Daman & Diu has the lowest sex ratio of 618.
• Mizoram has the highest child sex ratio (0-6 years) of 971 followed by Meghalaya with 970.
• Punjab comes in second with a ratio of 846 while Haryana is last with a ratio of 830.
• The literacy rate increased by 9.21 percentage points from 64.83 per cent in 2001 to 74.04 per cent in 2011.
• The percentage increase in literacy between 2001 and 2011 is 38.82; for men, it is 31.98% and for women, it is 49.10%.
• The population is aged seven and older are made up of 74% literate people and 26% illiterate people.

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

• In 1849, a covert socio-religious organization called the Paramhansa Mandali was founded in Bombay.
• It shares a tight relationship with Manav Dharma Sabha, which was established in Surat in 1844.
• Dadoba Pandurang, Durgaram Mehtaji, and several of his friends founded it.
• After leaving Manav Dharma Sabha, Dadoba Pandurang became the organization's leader.
• In 1848, he provided a summary of his beliefs in "Paramhansik Bramhyadharma" for Paramahansa Mandali and "Dharma Vivechan" for Manav Dharma Sabha.
• It functioned as a covert organization, and it's thought that when its existence was made public in 1860, it hastened its downfall.
• It was Maharashtra's first socioreligious institution.
• These Mandli's founders held a monotheistic belief.
• They were mostly concerned with disobeying caste laws.
• The members consumed food prepared by members of lower castes during their sessions.
• The mandali supported widow remarriage and women's education.

Additional Information

• Manav Dharma Sabha:
• One of the oldest organizations for socio-religious change in Gujarat and British India was the Manav Dharma Sabha.
• It was established on June 22, 1844, in Surat.
• Durgaram Manchharam Mehta, Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar, and a select group of individuals formed it.
• Exposing the hypocritical practices seen in the Christian, Muslim, and Hindu religions was one of the Sabha's main objectives.​

The correct answer is Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Key Points

• Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor in the Indian subcontinent.
• After the death of Bahadur Shah Zafar, none of his descendants was recognized as kings.
• Bahadur Shah Zafar was the son of  Akbar II.
• The entry of Bahadur Shah Zafar to the 1857 rebellion gives courage, hope, and confidence to ordinary people.
• British forces recaptured Delhi from the rebel forces in September 1857.
• The last Mughal emperor, Bahadur Shah Zafar was trialled in court and sentenced to life imprisonment.
• The British exiled him to Rangoon following his involvement in the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• Bahadur Shah Zafar and his wife Begum Zinat Mahal were sent to prison in Rangoon in 1858.
• Bahadur Shah Zafar died in the Rangoon jail in 1862.
• After the death of Bahadur Shah Zafar, his family was shifted out of the Red Fort and given another place in Delhi to reside.

Additional Information

• The Revolt of 1857 was the first rebellion against the British East India Company.
• The first war of Indian Independence started on 10^th May 1857.
• The revolt was started at Meerut.
• It began as a revolt of the sepoys of the British East India Company’s army but eventually secured the participation of the masses.
• The issue of greased cartridges and military grievances has been over-emphasized, as the factor for the Revolt of 1857.
• In March 1857, Mangal Pandey, a sepoy in Barrackpore, refused to use the cartridge and attacked his senior officers.
• He was hanged to death on 8^th April 1857.
• On 9^th May 1857, 85 soldiers in Meerut refused to use the new rifle and were sentenced to ten years imprisonment.
• The revolt is known by several names: the Sepoy Mutiny (by British Historians), the Indian Mutiny, the Great Rebellion (by Indian Historians), the Revolt of 1857, the Indian Insurrection, and the First War of Independence (by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar).
• Lord Canning is the British viceroy during the revolt of 1857.

The correct answer is freely falling.

Key Points

• ​A body moves in uniformly accelerated motion when it follows a straight path and experiences constant velocity increases.
• A body that is falling freely experiences the acceleration caused by gravity, hence its acceleration is constant.
• Therefore, the motion is uniformly accelerating.
• A ball rolling down a slope, a skydiver jumping out of a plane, a ball dropped from the top of a ladder, and a bicycle with its brakes on are a few examples of uniformly accelerated motion.

Additional Information

• Resting:
• If an object maintains its position in relation to its surroundings across time, it is said to be at rest.
• Decelerating:
• The opposite of acceleration is deceleration.
• Negative acceleration is another name for deceleration.
• Parabolic:
• Any point on a parabola is at an equal distance from both the focus, a fixed point, and the directrix, a fixed straight line.
• A parabola is a U-shaped plane curve.

The correct answer is gross fiscal deficit and net interest liabilities.

Key Points

• Gross primary deficit refers to the difference between the current year's fiscal deficit and interest payments made on the previous year's borrowings.
• In other words, it represents the fiscal deficit of the government excluding interest payments.
• This provides a measure of the **amount of borrowing the government needs to cover expenses other than interest payments.**​

Additional Information

• Revenue deficit :
• According to the overall revenue receipts and budgeted expenses, a revenue deficit shows debt in the current budget.
• The revenue spending exceeds the revenue receipt in this circumstance.
• Fiscal deficit:
• The fiscal deficit is a metric that demonstrates the extent of the government's reliance on borrowing.
• The country's government's estimated borrowings are reflected in the fiscal deficit.
• So the bigger the fiscal deficit, the higher the government borrowings will be.​

The correct answer is Laho.

Key Points

• Laho Dance is a folk dance of Meghalaya.
• Jawara dance is a popular folk dance of Madhya Pradesh.
• Phulpati dance is performed in Malwa region of India i.e Madhya Pradesh.
• This dance is performed by unmarried girls.
• Mataki Dance This is a solo dance of Malwa Which is done on various occasions like marriage etc.
• This is done by Ahir and Gadariya castes.
• Hence Laho does NOT belong to the state of Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Folk-Dance of Madhya Pradesh
• Reena Dance- This folk dance is performed by women of Baiga and Gond tribes after Deepawali. Its theme is based on a love affair.
• Chatkora Dance- This is a folk dance of Korku tribe.
• Bhagoria Dance- This folk dance is performed by Bhils.
• Goncho Dance- This folk dance is Performed by Gond tribe.
• Bar Dance- This folk dance is Performed by Kanwar tribe.
• Lahangi Dance- This folk dance is Performed by Kaijar and Banjaras.
• Pardhoni Dance- This dance is performed by Baiga tribe on marriage to welcome the marriage procession.
• Kanra Dance- This folk dance is performed by Dhobi caste of Central India and Bundelkhand.
• Bardi Dance- This folk dance related Gwal tribe. In this folk dance, shephard goes and dances at the home of the person whose cow he is shepherding and gets the reward.
• Badhai Dance- This folk dance is performed on joyful occasion in Bundelkhand region.
• Suwa Dance- This folk dance is prevalent among the Baiga tribe.
• Saira Dance- Saira dance is performed on the occasion on Gangaur. This is similar to the dandia dance of Gujarat.

The correct answer is Hangzhou, China.

Key Points

• Asian Games, 2022 will be a multi-sport event celebrated in Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China.
• Hangzhou will be the third Chinese city to host the Asian Games, after Beijing in 1990 and Guangzhou in 2010.
• On 8 April 2019, the Olympic Council of Asia initially announced that the Games would feature 37 sports, including the 28 mandatory Olympic sports to be contested at the 2024 Summer Olympics in Paris.​

Additional Information

• The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a continental multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
• Since the 1982 Games, they have been organized by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
• First Games were organized in 1951 in New Delhi.
• The Games are recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and are described as the second largest multi-sport event after the Olympic Games.
• The Games were originally scheduled to take place from 10^th to 25^th September 2022, but the event was postponed due to the Covid-19 pandemic on 6he May 2022. On 19^th July 2022, the new dates were announced to be from 23^rd September to 8^th October 2023.

The correct answer is 1940.

Key Points

• The Revolutionary Socialist Party was established in 1940.
• It is a communist party in India.
• The party was founded on 19 March 1940 by Tridib Chaudhuri and has its roots in the Bengali liberation movement Anushilan Samiti and the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army.

Additional Information

• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was a revolutionary organization, also known as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army.
• It was established in 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla in New Delhi by Chandrasekhar Azad, Ashfaqulla Khan, and Bhagat Singh.
• The party was initially named Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) by Bismil when he formed it in 1924.
• A manifesto for the party was written by Sanyal titled ‘Revolutionary’.
• Other prominent members of the party were Sachindra Nath Sanyal and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.

The correct answer is 2021.

Key Points 

• Singers Sujatha and Ananthu have been awarded the Kalaimamani Award for the year 2021 by the Tamil Nadu Government.
• The highest state awards that are given yearly to artists for their contribution in their respective fields.
• This year popular actors including:
• Sivakarthikeyan, Aishwarya Rajesh, Yogi Babu, director Gautham Menon, producers Isari Ganesh and Kalaipuli S Thanu, and editor Anthony have won the award.

Additional Information 

• The official language of Tamil Nadu is Tamil.
• Capital : Chennai.
• State animal : Nilgiri Tahr.
• State bird : Emerald Dove.
• State tree : Palmyra palm.
• State flower : Kandhal.

The correct answer is Zinc.

Key Points

• Zinc is more reactive than copper.
• Zinc is more reactive than copper metal and so it can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
• Zinc displaces the metals present below it in the series.

Additional Information

• Reactivity of an element decreases from top to bottom in the given reactivity series.
• Potassium (K)
• Sodium (Na)
• Calcium (Ca)
• Magnesium (Mg)
• Aluminium (Al)
• Zinc (Zn)
• Carbon (C)
• Iron (Fe)
• Lead (Pb)
• Hydrogen (H)
• Copper (Cu)
• Silver (Ag)
• Gold (Au)
• Platinum is known as a noble metal due to its remarkable resistance to corrosion and oxidation. It is one of the least reactive metals, which means that it does not easily react with other elements or compounds under normal conditions. This property makes platinum highly valuable for use in a variety of applications, such as in electronics, jewelry, and catalytic converters in vehicles.

The correct answer is August 5, 2022.

Key Points

• The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 5, 2022.
• The Bill amends the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019.
• The Act provides for setting up the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre and designates it as an institute of national importance.
• The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre replaced the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution.

Additional Information

• Government of India passed the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act 2019.
• The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Law and Justice, Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad on July 3, 2019.
• It establishes an autonomous and independent institution for better management of arbitration in India.
• The establishment of the NDIAC is to conduct an arbitration, mediation, and conciliation proceedings.

The correct answer is Madhabi Puri Buch.

Key Points

• Madhabi Puri Buch has been named as the chairperson of the Securities and Exchange Board of India in March 2022.
• The government has announced Madhabi Puri Buch as new the Chairperson of SEBI for a period of 3 years.
• Buch is a former whole-time member of SEBI.
• She will succeed Ajay Tyagi, whose five-year term comes to an end in February 2022.
• This is the first time that a woman and a person of private sector has been chosen for a key post with SEBI.

Additional Information

• SEBI is the regulator of the securities and commodity market in India owned by the Government of India.
• It was established on 12 April 1988.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Mangubhai Chhaganbhai Patel  is an Indian statesman who is the current and 19^th Governor of Madhya Pradesh.
• He is a leader of the BJP from Gujarat.
• He served as the officiating speaker of the Gujarat Legislative Assembly in 2014.

Additional Information 

• He has earlier served as a cabinet minister in the Government of Gujarat.
• The primary function of the governor is to preserve, protect and defend the constitution.
• The law is incorporated in their oath of office under Article 159.

The correct answer is 3 lakh.

Key Points

• The Akademi Fellowship carries purse money of Rs. 3.00 lakhs, a Tamrapatra and an Angavastram.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship is the highest honour conferred by Sangeet Natak Akademi without distinction of nationality, race, caste, religion, creed, or sex.
• The first Fellow of the Akademi was elected in 1954.
• With the formation of the Akademi, the Awards came to be known as Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards. The Presidential Awards for 1952 and 1953 were subsequently incorporated into the list of Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards.

Additional Information

• Dr Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, inaugrated it on 28 January 1953.
• It was created by a resolution of the (then) Ministry of Education, Government of India, in 1952 with Dr P.V. Rajamannar as its first Chairman.
• The Fellowship of the Akademi is the most prestigious and rare honour, which is restricted to 40 numbers at any given time.
• It is presently an Autonomous Body of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India and is fully funded by the Government for the implementation of its schemes and programmes.

The correct answer is Platyhelminthes.

Key Points

• Phylum Platyhelminthes belongs to the kingdom Animalia.
• The organisms are also known as flatworms.
• These are acoelomates and they include many free-living and parasitic life forms.
• They have a single opening in their digestive system that serves both as a mouth and an anus.
• Platyhelminthes have the following important characteristics:
• They are triploblastic, acoelomate, and bilaterally symmetrical.
• They may be free-living or parasites.
• The body has a soft covering with or without cilia.
• Their body is dorsoventrally flattened without any segments and appears like a leaf.
• They are devoid of the anus and circulatory system but have a mouth.
• They respire by simple diffusion through the body surface.
• They have an organ level of organization.
• They do not have a digestive tract.
• The space between the body wall and organs is filled with connective tissue parenchyma which helps in transporting the food material.
• They are hermaphrodites, i.e., both male and female organs are present in the same body.
• They reproduce sexually by fusion of gametes and asexually by regeneration by fission and regeneration. Fertilization is internal.
• The life cycle is complicated with one or more larval stages.
• They possess the quality of regeneration.
• The flame cells help in excretion and osmoregulation.
• The nervous system comprises the brain and two longitudinal nerve cords arranged in a ladder-like fashion.

The correct answer is Arikamedu.

Key Points

• Arikamedu is located in Puducherry.
• It was excavated in the 1940s.
• It is famous for manufacturing the construction of amazing bead ornaments and the glass beach site.
• A massive brick structure, which may have been a warehouse, was found at the site.
• It is also known for being an archaeological site in southern India.
• Potteries were found in the Mediterranean region such as Amphorae and stamped red glaze pottery known as Arretine Ware.

Additional Information

• Karaikal is a meeting place of Western culture with the traditional and ancient Tanjavur culture.
• Karaikal is a major port city on the East Coast of India. This is the birthplace of KaraikalAmmaiyar. Karaikal is famous for its temples. The major attraction in the area is Saneeswara Temple, Sri Kailasanathar Temple, Navagraha Temples and Ammaiyar Temple.
• Veerampattinam is the largest coastal village in the union territory of Puducherry situated between Pondicherry and Cuddalore
• Veerampattinam village is famous for Car Festival celebrated here on the occasion of the six weeks long village temple (Sri Sengazhuneer Amman Temple).
• The French occupied Yanam in 1723.
• Yanam had some commercial importance. It was a centre for the manufacture of salt and this salt constituted thje major part of the quantity imported by the French into the Bengal, region.

The correct answer is NaOH + CaO.

Key Points

• Soda-lime is a mixture of Sodium hydroxide(NaOH) and Calcium oxide(CaO).
• The Chemical formula of the soda lime is CaHNaO2.
• The main components present in soda-lime are Calcium hydroxide(about 75%), Water(about 20%), Sodium hydroxide(about 3%), and Potassium hydroxide (about 1%).
• It is mainly used to absorb moisture and gases.
• Soda-lime is used in gas masks as an absorbent for toxic gases.
• Soda-lime causes severe damage to the gastrointestinal tract.

The correct answer is 1920.

Key Points

• Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill 2022 seeks to repeal the Identification of Prisoners Act 1920. The said Act, in its present form, provides access to a limited category of persons whose body measurements can be taken
• As per the Bill, any person convicted, arrested, or held under any preventive detention law will be required to provide “measurements” to a police officer or a prison official.
• Resistance to or refusal to allow the taking of measurements under this Act shall be deemed to be an offense under section 186 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
• It authorizes law enforcement agencies to collect, store and analyze physical and biological samples of convicts and other persons for the purposes of identification and investigation in criminal matters.

Additional Information

• This was done in the backdrop of the State of UP vs Ram Babu Misra, where the Apex Court had highlighted the need for amending this law.
• The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill, 2022 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 28^th March 2022. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 6^th April.
• The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) will be the central agency to maintain the records

The correct answer is Rishra, West Bengal.

Key Points

• The first jute mill was established at Rishra, on the river Hoogly near Kolkata in the year 1855.
• After the partition in 1947, the jute mill remained in India but three fourth of the jute-producing area went to Bangladesh (erstwhile East Pakistan).
• India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands in second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.
• Jute is a natural fibre with a golden and silky shine and hence called The Golden Fibre

Additional Information

• Jute is grown in alluvial soil and requires high temperatures.
• Jute is a rain-fed crop and its cultivation is concentrated in Bangladesh, India, China, and Thailand.
• The jute fibre comes from the stem and ribbon (outer skin) of the jute plant
• There are about 70 jute mills in the country of which about 60 are in West Bengal.
• Central Research Institute for Jute and Allied Fibres is also located in West Bengal.
• Jute fibre is 100% bio-degradable and recyclable and thus environmentally friendly.  It is one of the most versatile natural fibres that has been used in raw materials for packaging, textiles, non-textile, construction, and agricultural sectors

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Kudumbashree is the poverty eradication and women empowerment program implemented by the State Poverty Eradication Mission (SPEM) of the Government of Kerala.
• The name Kudumbashree in the Malayalam language means ‘prosperity of the family’.
• Kudumbashree was set up in 1997 following the recommendations of a three-member Task Force appointed by the State government. Its formation was in the context of the devolution of powers to the Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRIs) in Kerala.
• In 2011, the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India recognized Kudumbashree as the State Rural Livelihoods Mission (SRLM) under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM).

Additional Information

• CM Of Kerala - Pinarayi Vijayan
• Governor Of Kerala - Arif Mohammad Khan
• Famous dances of Kerala - Kaikottikali, Kolkali, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam,Theyyam, Ottamthullal,Kutiyattam, Nangiar Koothu,Kalaripayattu, Velakali, Kavadiyattam, Patayani, Dappu Kali & Panna.
• Famous National Parks of Kerala - Anamudi Shola National Park, Eravikulam National Park, Mathikettan Shola NP, Pambadum Shola National Park, Periyar National Park, Silent Valley National Park

CONCEPT:

Cos π/6 = √3/2

CALCULATION:

$16 \cos^3 {{\pi } \over 6} - 12 \cos {{\pi } \over 6} =$

⇒ $16 \times(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2})^3-12 \times\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$

⇒ $16 \times(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{8})-6\sqrt{3}$

⇒ $6\sqrt{3}-6\sqrt{3}$

⇒ 0

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

The radius of the circles is 8 cm

Calculation:

According to the diagram,

AD = DB

O1O2 = 8

Again O1A = O2A = 8 [Radius of the circle]

∠ADO1 = 90°

O1D = O2D = 4

AD = √(64 - 16)

⇒ √48 = 4√3

AB = 2 × 4√3 = 8√3

∴ The length of the common chord is 8√3 cm

Given:

 

Calculation:

Bicycle sold by B = 90

Bicycle sold by D = 165

The ratio of the number of bicycles sold by B to the number of bicycles sold by D

⇒ 90 : 165

⇒ 6 : 11

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:

The diameter of the circle = 58 cm

The length of one chord = 42 cm

The length of another chord = 40 cm

Formula used:

H2 = B2 + P2

Calculation:

AB and PQ are two chords, and O is the center of the circle.

M is the midpoint of AB and N is the midpoint of PQ

OB = OQ = 29 cm [radius of the circle]

AB = 40 cm and OB = 29

Then,

AM = MB = 40/2 = 20 cm

In ΔMOB

(OB)2 = (OM)2 + (MB)2

⇒ (29)2 = (OM)2 + (20)2

⇒ 841 = (OM)2 + 400

⇒ (OM)2 = (841 – 400)

⇒ (OM)2 = 441

⇒ OM = 21 cm

Now,

PQ = 42 cm and OB = 29

NQ = PN = 42/2 = 21 cm

In ΔONQ

(OQ)2 = (ON)2 + (NQ)2

⇒ (29)2 = (ON)2 + (21)2

⇒ 841 = (ON)2 + 441

⇒ (ON)2 = (841 – 441)

⇒ (ON)2 = 400

⇒ ON = 20 cm

So according to the question.

⇒ 21 - 20 = 1

∴ The minimum distance between the two chords is 1 cm.

Given:

Let assume the efficiency of men is m and women is b.

6m + 8b = 10 days   ---(1)

26m + 48b = 2 days  ---(2)

Concept Used: 

Total work = Efficiency x Time

Calculation: from equation (1), (2) and concept

⇒ (6m + 8b)10 = (26m +48b)2

⇒ 60m +80b = 52m + 96b

⇒ 8m = 16b

⇒ ${m\over {b} } ={ 2\over 1}$  -----(3)

⇒ Put the value of m and b from equation (3)

Total Work = (6 x 2 + 8 x 1)10

Total work = 200 units

Now, equate the total work with  15 men and 20 women

Total work = 200 = (15m +20b)D

⇒ D(15x2 + 20 x1) = 200

⇒ D = 4 days 

Hence, total 4 days times is taken by 15 men and 20 women to complete the work.

Given:

 

Calculation:

The value of scheme X in December 40

The value of scheme X in February 30

the difference in the subscription of scheme X between December and February 40 - 30 = 10 crores.

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the algebraic pattern: (a³ + b³) ÷ (a² − ab + b²).

Using the identity a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²), the expression simplifies to (a + b).

Here, a = 428 and b = 348.

Required value = 428 + 348 = 776.

∴ The correct answer is 776.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression = (428 × 428 × 428 + 348 × 348 × 348) ÷ (428 × 428 − 428 × 348 + 348 × 348)

Formula Used:

a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²)

Calculations:

Let a = 428 and b = 348.

⇒ The given expression is in the form: (a³ + b³) ÷ (a² − ab + b²)

⇒ Substitute the identity: [(a + b)(a² − ab + b²)] ÷ (a² − ab + b²)

⇒ Cancel the common term (a² − ab + b²) from the numerator and denominator.

⇒ Expression = a + b

⇒ Expression = 428 + 348

⇒ Expression = 776

∴ The correct answer is 776.

Additional Information

Sum of Cubes Identity

The sum of cubes is factorized as a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²).

Difference of Cubes Identity

The difference of cubes is factorized as a³ − b³ = (a − b)(a² + ab + b²).

Basic Algebraic Square

The expansion of (a + b)² is a² + 2ab + b² and (a − b)² is a² − 2ab + b².

Given:

Five-digit number 750PQ is divisible by 3, 7 and 11

Concept used:

Concept of LCM

Calculation:

The LCM of 3, 7, and 11 is 231.

By taking the largest 5-digit number 75099 and dividing it by 231.

If we divide 75099 by 231 we get 325 as the quotient and 24 as the remainder.

Then, the five-digit number is 75099 - 24 = 75075.

The number = 75075 and P = 7, Q = 5

now,

P + 2Q = 7 + 10 = 17

∴ The value of P + 2Q is 17.

Let the total number of votes be 100.

5% of votes polled were invalid = 5 votes

Raju got 30% of the total votes = 30 votes

Ravi got 32% of the total votes = 32 votes

Ashok got  = 100 - (30 + 32 + 5) = 33 votes

Raju got the least no. of votes and Ashok got the highest no. of votes.

Difference between votes got by Raju and Ashok = 3

⇒ 3 = 5136 ⇒ 1 = 1712 ⇒ 100 = 171200

∴  The total number of votes polled = 171200 votes.

Given:

By selling a horse for Rs. 60,000 a man gains 20%.

Formula used:

SP = CP(100+Profit%)/100

Calculations:

Let the CP = 100x.

By selling the horse at 20% profit, so SP will be:

SP = 100x(100+20)/100 = 120x

According to the question:

⇒ 120x = 60000

⇒ x = 500

⇒ CP = 100x = 50000

Now to gain 30%

⇒ SP = 50000(100+30)/100 = 65000

∴ The answer is Rs. 65,000.

 Shortcut Trick

We know 20% = 1/5, so CP = 5 unit & SP = 6 unit

So, CP of the horse = 60000 × 5/6 = 50000

To gain 30% profit the required SP = 50000 × 130/100 = Rs.65,000

Given :

${{a^2 + b^2 + c^2 - 1024} \over ab - bc - ca} = -2$

Formula used :

(a + b - c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab - 2bc - 2ca 

Calculations :

According to the question 

${{a^2 + b^2 + c^2 - 1024} \over ab - bc - ca}$ = - 2

⇒   a2 + b2 + c² - 1024 = -2ab + 2bc + 2ca

⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab - 2bc - 2ca  = 1024

⇒ (a + b - c)² = 1024

⇒ a + b - c = 32

Put a + b = 5c

⇒ 5c - c = 32

⇒ 4c = 32

c = 8

∴ Option 1 is the correct choice.

Given:

Calculation:

The average of A, C, D and F = (37 + 20 + 4 + 10)/4 = 17.75%

The difference between the production of B and E is 16 - 13 = 3%

Now (P1 + P2) = 17.75 + 3 = 20.75%

Now according to the question:

⇒ 20.75% of 22000

⇒ 4565

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:

P + Q = 6 and PQ = 4

Formula Used:

(P + Q)3  = P3 + Q3 + 3 PQ (P + Q)

Calculation:

(P + Q)3 = P3 + Q3 + 3 PQ (P + Q)

⇒ (6)3 = P3 + Q3+ 3 × 4 × (6)

⇒ P3 + Q3  = 216 - 72

⇒ P3 + Q3  = 144

∴ Value of P3 + Q3 = 144

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 5x and 4x

As we know,

LCM of 5x and 4x= 20x

HCF of 5x and 4x = x = 4

According to the question

20x = 20 × 4 = 80

∴ The LCM of the two numbers is 80.

Given:

Cos A = 9/41 

Formula used:

 cot A = cos A/sin A

Cos² A + sin² A = 1

Calculation:

Cos2 A + sin2 A = 1

⇒ ( 9/41)² + sin2 A = 1

⇒  sin2 A = 1 - 81/1681

 ⇒ sin2 A = 1600/1681

⇒  sin A = 40/41

⇒ cot A = cos A/sin A

 ⇒ cot A = 9/40

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

A truck runs 492 km on 36 Litter of diesel.

Calculation:

On 36 Litre of diesel it runs = 492 km.

On 1 Litre of diesel it runs = 492/36 km = 41/3 km

On 33 Litre of diesel it runs = (41/3) × 33 = 451 km

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

CD is the bisector of ∠BCA.

CD = DA

∠BDC = 76°

Concept Used:

The two angles of an isosceles triangle, opposite to equal sides, are equal in measure.

Angle Sum Property = Sum of all the three angles of a triangle is 180°.

Calculation:

In triangle ABC,

CD is the bisector of ∠BCA.

⇒ ∠BCD = ∠DCA = θ

Since, CD = DA               [Given]

⇒ ∠DCA = ∠CAD = θ 

⇒ ∠BDC = 76°                    [Given]

⇒ ∠BDC = ∠DCA + ∠CAD

⇒ θ + θ = 76° 

⇒ 2θ = 76° 

⇒ θ = 38° 

In triangle CBD,

∠BCD + ∠CDB + ∠CBD = 180° 

⇒ θ  + 76° + ∠CBD = 180° 

⇒ 38°  + 76° + ∠CBD = 180°  

⇒ ∠CBD = 180° - 114° 

⇒ ∠CBD = 66° 

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:

Marked price = Rs. 650

Discounts = 20% and 10%

The cost of repairs = Rs. 38

Selling profit = 20%

Formula used:

C.P. = [(100 - Discount%)/100] × M.P.

S.P. = C.P. × [(100 + Profit%)/100]

Where, C.P. = Cost price; S.P. = Selling price; M.P. = Marked price

Calculation:

The cost price = 650 × [(100 - 10)/100] × [(100 - 20)/100]

= 650 × (90/100) × (80/100) = Rs. 468

Total spending = 468 + 38 = Rs. 506

The selling price = 506 × [(100 + 20)/100]

= 506 × (120/100)

= Rs. 607.2

∴ The required selling price is Rs. 607.2.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

Average sales of G and H = (13° + 73°)/2

⇒ 86/2 = 43° 

Average sales of D and I = (17° + 53°)/2

⇒ 70/2 = 35° 

Average sales of G and H is more than the average sales of D and I = 43 - 35 = 8° 

Percentage = (8/35) × 100 = 22.86%

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of volumes = 6³ + 8³ + 10³

⇒ V = 216 + 512 + 1000 = 1728 cm³

New edge a = ³√1728 = 12 cm

∴ The correct answer is 12 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Edges of three small cubes are 6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm.

Formula Used: Volume of a cube = a³ (where a is the edge length).

⇒ Volume of 1^st cube = 6³ = 216 cm³

⇒ Volume of 2^nd cube = 8³ = 512 cm³

⇒ Volume of 3^rd cube = 10³ = 1000 cm³

⇒ Total Volume (V) = 216 + 512 + 1000 = 1728 cm³

⇒ Let the edge of the new cube be A.

⇒ A³ = 1728

⇒ A = ³√(12 × 12 × 12)

⇒ A = 12 cm

∴ The correct answer is 12 cm.

Additional Information

Volume of a Cube

The space occupied by a cube is given by Side³.

Total Surface Area of a Cube

The total area of all six faces is 6 × Side².

Diagonal of a Cube

The longest distance between two opposite corners is √3 × Side.

Shortcut Trick

Speed ratio (Usual : New) = 100 : 60 = 5 : 3

Since distance is constant, Time ratio = 3 : 5

Difference in time units = 5 − 3 = 2 units

Given 2 units = 36 min ⇒ 1 unit = 18 min

Usual time = 3 units = 3 × 18 = 54 min

∴ The correct answer is 54 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

New Speed = 60% of Usual Speed

Time Delay = 36 min

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let Usual Speed be S and Usual Time be T.

⇒ New Speed = 0.6S

⇒ New Time = T + 36

⇒ Since Distance is same: S × T = 0.6S × (T + 36)

⇒ T = 0.6T + 21.6

⇒ 0.4T = 21.6

⇒ T = 21.6 ÷ 0.4 = 54 min

∴ The correct answer is 54 min.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportion Rule

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (S ∝ 1/T). If speed becomes a/b of usual speed, time becomes b/a of usual time.

Late/Early Concept

Usual Time = (Late Time × Speed Ratio Numerator) ÷ (Difference in Ratio Parts). Here: (36 × 3) ÷ (5 − 3) = 108 ÷ 2 = 54 min.

Average Speed

For two equal distances covered at speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Given:

tan2 θ = 1 - a2

Concept Used:

Secθ = 1/cosθ, tanθ = sinθ/cosθ, sinθ = 1/cosecθ

Sec2θ – tan2θ = 1

Calculation:

Secθ = 1/cosθ, tanθ = sinθ/cosθ, sinθ = 1/cosecθ

Sec2θ – tan2θ = 1

We have to calculate, sec θ + tan3 θ cosec θ

$\begin{array}{l} = \frac{1}{{\cos \theta }} + \frac{{si{n^3}\theta }}{{co{s^3}\theta }} \times \frac{1}{{sin\theta }}\ = \frac{1}{{\cos \theta }}\left[ {1 + \frac{{si{n^2}\theta }}{{co{s^2}\theta }}} \right]\ = \frac{1}{{\cos \theta }} \times \frac{1}{{co{s^2}\theta }} = \frac{1}{{co{s^3}\theta }} \end{array}$

Now, given that,

tan2θ = 1 – a²

⇒ sec2θ – 1 = 1 – a2

$\begin{array}{l} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{{co{s^2}\theta }} = 2 - {a^2}\ \Rightarrow \frac{1}{{co{s^3}\theta }} = {\left[ {2 - {a^2}} \right]^{\frac{3}{2}}} \end{array}$

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

2/3 of journey = 45 kmph

1/4 of journey = 60 kmph

(1 - 2/3 - 1/4 = 1/12) of journey = 75 kmph

Formula:

Average speed = Total distance/Total time

Calculation:

Let total distance of journey be a km.

Time taken for 2/3 of journey = 2a/135 hours

Time taken for 1/4 of journey = a/240 hours

Time taken for 1/12 of journey = a/900 hours

Total time taken for a km = 2a/135 + a/240 + a/900 = 217a/10800 hours

∴ Average speed = a/(217a/10800) = 49.77kmph

Given-

Ratio of length of sides = 10 : 24 : 26

Area = 480 cm2

Concept Used-

Heron's Formula-

Heron's formula states that the area of a triangle whose sides have lengths a, b, and c is -

 where s = Semi-perimeter of the triangle

Calculation-

Let the length of the triangle be 10x, 24x and 26x.

Semiperimeter = (10x + 24x + 26x)/2

⇒ 30x

According to Question -

√{30x(30x - 10x)(30x - 24x)(30x - 26x)} = 480

⇒ √(30 × 20 × 6 × 4 × x4) = 480

⇒ 120x2 = 480

⇒ x² = 4

⇒ x = 2

Now,

10x + 24x + 26x = 60x

⇒ 120 cm

∴ The perimeter of the triangle is 120 cm.

Shortcut TrickRecognize that the given triangle has side lengths in the ratio 10:24:26.

That is it is a triplet, hence it is a right-angle triangle.

⇒ Use the formula for the area of a triangle:

⇒ Area = (base * height) / 2.

Given that the area is 480 cm², 

⇒  Let's assume the base is 10x and the height is 24x, 

⇒ (10x ×  24x) / 2 = 480.

⇒ x² = 4

⇒ x = 2

Calculate the perimeter of the triangle by summing the side lengths:

10x  + 24x  + 26x = 60x.

⇒ 60 × 2 = 120

Therefore, the perimeter of the triangle is 120 cm

Given:

Purchased an item at Rs. 7500

Down-payment paid = Rs. 3500

Rate = 9%

Time = 4 months

Formula used:

SI = $\dfrac{principle × rate × time}{100}$

1 year = 12 months

4 month = $\dfrac{4}{12}$

Calculations:

Amount left to be paid = Rs. (7500 - 3500) = Rs. 4000

SI = $\dfrac{4000 × 9 × 4}{12 × 100}$

= 40 × 3 = 120

∴ The answer is Rs. 120

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. "PQRS." 

Key Points

• In the abovementioned paragraph, there is a chronological sequence of the sentences.
• Sentence P is the first sentence as the paragraph begins with 'We have been.' So we need to use a verb after the helping verb 'have been' and 'able' is a verb.
• Sentence Q is the second sentence as the previous sentence ended with the preposition 'in'. So the next part should start with a noun or pronoun. Among the options, the noun is 'the microbiome and immune response.' Thus it establishes a relation with the previous sentence.
• The only option that shows such an arrangement is Option 4.
• Sentence R is the third sentence as it begins with the pronoun 'that' and creates a relation with the nouns 'the microbiome and immune response' of the previous sentence.
• Finally, sentence S is the last sentence.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

The correct order is: 

We have been

P. able to identify certain patterns in

Q. the microbiome and immune response

R. that are clearly linked to the progression and

S. severity of brain injury

The erroneous part is option 4) i.e. 'work.'

 

Key Points 

• The error lies in the part 'work.'
• We can note that the preposition 'of' is used before the word 'work,' which is a verb.
• The word that must come after 'of' should be the object of the preposition 'of'. Hence, a gerund (working) must be placed after it.
• A gerund is a verb that ends in '-ing' and functions as a noun or object.
• Therefore we need to use the gerund form of the verb 'work'  which is 'working' after the preposition 'of.'
• Therefore in the given sentence, we need to use 'working' in place of 'work' to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

 

Correct sentence: Has Gita any previous knowledge of working with junior colleagues?

The correct answer is option 4), i.e., "Neccessary."

 

Key Points 

• The incorrectly spelt word is "Neccessary". Its correct spelling is 'Necessary.'
• 'Necessary' means 'needed in order to achieve a particular result.' (एक विशेष परिणाम प्राप्त करने के लिए आवश्यक)
• Example:
• Give the necessary information but keep it simple.
• Therefore, 'Neccessary' is incorrectly spelt among the given options.
• Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

​

Additional Information  

• Let's know the meaning of the other options:

The correct answer is option 4), i.e., 'powerful.'

Key Points  

• Let's look at the meaning of the words given in the options:

• The context of the sentence is that the engines of the monster trucks have enormous strength that they can easily pull a train coach.
• According to the above-mentioned points, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "powerful."
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.
• Another example:
• You need a powerful saw to cut through metal.

 

Complete Sentence: The monster trucks have very powerful engines, they can probably pull a train coach without any problem.