DSSSB LDC (Jr. Assistant/Steno/LDC): (8 Oct 2025) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is New Delhi

In News

• PM Narendra Modi will inaugurate the Bharat Mobility Global Expo 2025 on 17 January at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

Key Points

• The expo will be held from January 17-22, 2025 across three venues: Bharat Mandapam, Yashobhoomi in Delhi, and India Expo Center and Mart in Greater Noida.
• The event will feature nine concurrent shows, 20+ conferences and pavilions, and state sessions showcasing policies and initiatives in the mobility sector.
• The theme of the expo is “Beyond Boundaries: Co-creating Future Automotive Value Chain”, focusing on sustainability and technological innovation in the automotive and mobility industry.
• The expo aims to unite the entire mobility value chain and is positioned as India's largest mobility exhibition.
• This year's event will highlight global significance with participation from exhibitors and visitors worldwide.
• The expo is an industry-led and government-supported initiative, coordinated by the Engineering Export Promotion Council of India with support from various industry bodies and partners.
• PM Modi had previously expressed pride in the event for showcasing India’s automotive innovation, and announced a Rs 1 lakh crore investment in research and innovation for the mobility sector, along with expanding tax exemptions for startups.

Additional Information

• India’s automobile sales surged by 11.6% in 2024, reaching a record 2.5 crore units, with two-wheeler sales leading the growth at 14.5%.
• Passenger vehicles and three-wheelers also posted their highest-ever sales, contributing to India's position as the world’s third-largest car market.

The correct answer is to assemble peaceably and without arms

Key Points

• Article 19(1)(b) of the Indian Constitution is related to the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
• Freedom of speech and expression
• Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees the right to express one's opinions, thoughts, and ideas. This includes the freedom to express oneself through speech, writing, printing, visual representations, or any other means.
• Reasonable restrictions
• Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right to freedom of speech and expression.
• These restrictions can be imposed for the interests of: 
• Sovereignty and integrity of India
• Security of the State
• Friendly relations with foreign nations
• Public order
• Decency or morality
• Contempt of court
• Defamation
• Incitement to an offence
• Right to silence
• The right to speak includes the right not to speak or the right to remain silent.

The correct answer is 2030.

In News

• Union Minister Piyush Goyal announced a target to achieve 10,000 GI tags by 2030.
• To oversee the expansion of GI tags, the government will form a special committee.
• Currently, India has 605 GI tags, and the number of authorized users has jumped from 365 to 29,000.

Key Points

• 10,000 GI tags by 2030: A major initiative to promote India’s unique products.
• Formation of a committee: To streamline the process of new GI registrations and ensure consistent growth.
• Collaboration with FSSAI and BIS: Intended to improve branding and tackle the issue of counterfeit products.
• Private sector involvement: E-commerce platforms and Indian embassies worldwide are being engaged to boost the global presence of GI products.

Additional Information

• Geographical Indication (GI) Tags
• GI tags are used to denote products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation due to that origin.
• Examples include Darjeeling Tea, Mysore Silk, and Banarasi Sarees, which are famous for their distinctive traits and heritage.
• Importance of GI Tags
• They help protect and promote traditional products, boost local economies, and preserve cultural heritage.
• GI-labeled products often command premium prices in domestic and international markets.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act 2015 ​
• The Juvenile Justice Act (Children's Care and Protection) Act 2015 passed the Indian parliament amid fierce controversy, debate and protest against many provisions from the child rights community.
• It replaced the Indian juvenile delinquency law, Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000, and allows for juveniles in conflict with Law in the age group of 16-18, involved in Heinous Offences, to be tried as adults.
• The Act also includes the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 (applicable to Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs) and the Guardians and Guardians Act (1890) (applicable to Muslims). It also aimed to make adoption laws generally available in India, including ) passed it. , but does not replace them.

The correct answer is Post office savings.

Key Points

• High powered money refers to the total liability of the monetary authority, which includes the currency held by the public, cash reserves of banks, and other deposits with the RBI.
• Post office savings are not included in high powered money as they are not liabilities of the central bank or part of the monetary base.
• High powered money plays a crucial role in determining the money supply in the economy through the money multiplier effect.
• Components of high powered money include: currency in circulation, bankers' deposits with the RBI, and other deposits of the RBI.

Additional Information

• High Powered Money (Reserve Money):
• It is also known as "monetary base" or "reserve money."
• It is created by the central bank (RBI in India) and is the foundation for the money supply in the economy.
• Components of High Powered Money:
• Currency in circulation: Notes and coins held by the public.
• Bankers' deposits with the RBI: Reserves held by commercial banks with the central bank.
• Other deposits of the RBI: Deposits held by government and financial institutions with the RBI.
• Post Office Savings:
• These include savings accounts and fixed deposits maintained with post offices under various government schemes.
• They are not considered part of high powered money as they are not liabilities of the central bank.
• Money Multiplier Effect:
• The process by which the banking system creates money supply based on the reserve base provided by high powered money.
• A higher money multiplier indicates greater efficiency in the banking system to create money.

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir

In News

• The Anji Khad Rail Bridge is India’s first cable-stayed rail bridge, located in Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• Part of the Udampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) Project, the bridge aims to boost regional connectivity, economic development, and tourism.
• Key Specifications:
• Total length: 725.5 metres.
• Main pylon height: 193 metres above the foundation.
• Connects Katra and Reasi, easing travel between these locations.
• Engineering Challenges:
• The region's geological features, including faults, folds, and seismic activity, posed significant construction challenges.
• IIT Roorkee and Delhi conducted detailed investigations, leading to a hybrid foundation at the Katra end for stability.
• Structural Details:
• Consists of four sections:
• 120-metre ancillary viaduct on Reasi side.
• 38-metre approach bridge on Katra end.
• 473.25-metre main cable-stayed portion.
• 94.25-metre central embankment.
• Deck width: 15 metres, accommodating a single railway line, a service road, and footpaths.
• Advanced Construction Techniques:
• DOKA Jump form shuttering and pump concreting systems sped up construction by 30%.
• A state-of-the-art tower crane from Spain was used for high-altitude work up to 193 metres.
• Safety Features:
• Equipped with an integrated monitoring system using sensors to ensure structural health.
• Designed to withstand wind speeds up to 213 km/h.

The correct answer is Australia

Key Points

• The idea of the Concurrent list was borrowed from the Australian Constitution.
• The Concurrent list has 52 items and it falls under the common jurisdiction of both the State and Union governments.
• Both can make laws related to subjects in the concurrent list.
• In the case of a conflict, the laws made by the Union government are valid.
• The important features borrowed from Australia are:
• The concept of concurrent list.
• The idea of joint sitting.
• Trade and commerce.

Additional Information

• The important features borrowed from the South Africa are:
• Election of Members to Rajya Sabha.
• The procedure of Amendment:
• The important features borrowed from Japan are:
• Procedure Established by Law:
• The important features borrowed from Ireland are:
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP
• Proportional Representation System for Electing the President.
• Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha

The correct answer is Hampi.

Key Points:

• Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara kingdom.
• It served as the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 14^th century
• Hampi was a city located in northern Karnataka.
• Hampi is a famous pilgrimage centre of the Hindu and Jain religions.
• It is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.
• Hampi-Vijayanagara was considered the world's second-largest medieval-era city after Beijing By 1500 CE.
• Group of Monuments at Hampi was added to UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1986.
• The site has about 1,600 monuments.

Additional InformationMagadha:

• Rajagriha or modern-day Rajgir was the first capital of Magadha.
• Pataliputra was a city in ancient India, built by Magadha ruler Udayin in 490 BCE as a small fort near the Ganges river.
• Patliputra was the capital of major powers in ancient India, like the Nanda Empire, the Shishunaga Empire, the Maurya Empire, the Gupta Empire, and the Pala Empire.
• Patliputra renamed Patna by Sher Shah Suri.
• Patliputra became one of the largest cities in the world during the Maurya period.
• Magadha was counted as one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas, and the kingdom was in southern Bihar in ancient India.

Kanchi:

• The capital city of the Pallavas was Kanchipuram.
• The Pallavas emerged as a formidable power in the South around the 4^th century AD and were at the height of their power in the seventh century AD.
• They were able to sustain their rule for about 500 years.
• They built great cities, centres of learning, temples, and sculptures and influenced a large part of Southeast Asia in culture.

The correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

• Article21A - It provides free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine.
• Originally, Article 45 of the Indian Constitution and Article 39 (f) of the DPSP provided for state-funded, equal, and accessible education.
• The Ramamurti Committee Report, published in 1990, was the first formal document addressing the right to education.
• In the landmark case of Unnikrishnan JP v. the State of Andhra Pradesh & Others, the Supreme Court ruled that education is a fundamental right derived from Article 21.
• The Tapas Majumdar Committee was established in 1999, with the goal of inserting Article 21A.
• Under 2002, the 86^th amendment to India's constitution designated education as a basic right in Part III of the Constitution.
• As a result, this clause recognises only primary education as a Fundamental Right, not further or professional education.
• The 86^th amendment paved the way for the Right to Education Bill 2008 to be followed by the Right to Education Act 2009.
• Other Aspects -

1. In Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka (1992), Supreme Court ruled that even though the right to education is not distinctly mentioned in the Constitution, it can be deciphered through the Preamble and a bare reading of DPSP in Part IV.
2. The obiter dicta in the case of Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (2008) were that all children falling under the age group mentioned in the Article 21A must take schooling and education must be of a quality.
3. The Apex Court added the right to have the safe learning environment under right to education through the case of Avinash Mehrotra v. Union of India (2009)

Additional Information

• Other Constitutional Provisions to promote and develop the educational structure -

1. Article 28: guarantees the freedom to attend religious instruction or worship in educational institutions.
2. Article 29: This article guarantees equitable access to educational institutions.
3. Article 30: Recognize minorities' freedom to create and manage educational institutions.
4. Article 46: Discusses particular consideration for the advancement of education and economic interests of Scheduled Tribes, Scheduled Castes, OBCs, and the weakest sections of society.
5. Article 337: This article governs the particular provision of educational subsidies for the Anglo-Indian community.

The Correct answer is Enamel of teeth.

Key Points

• Enamel is the outermost layer of the teeth and the hardest substance in the human body.
• It is primarily made up of hydroxyapatite, which is a crystalline form of calcium phosphate.
• Enamel acts as a protective layer for the inner layers of the teeth, safeguarding them from mechanical damage, acid erosion, and bacterial decay.
• It is non-living tissue and does not regenerate once damaged, which makes dental care essential for its preservation.
• The thickness of enamel varies, typically being thicker on the biting surfaces of the teeth and thinner near the roots.
• Despite its strength, enamel can wear down over time due to factors like abrasion, acidic foods, and poor oral hygiene.

Additional Information

• Skull bones
• Skull bones are part of the human skeletal system and protect vital organs like the brain.
• The skull is made up of 22 bones, which include the cranial bones and facial bones.
• Although they are strong, they are not as hard as the enamel of the teeth.
• Thumb nails
• Thumb nails are composed of keratin, a type of protein that also makes up hair and the outer layer of skin.
• While nails are tough and protect the fingertips, they are much softer compared to enamel.
• Rib bones
• Rib bones are part of the ribcage, which protects the heart and lungs.
• Ribs are flexible and relatively strong, but they are not as hard as tooth enamel.

The Correct answer is Nitrogen.

Key Points

• Nitrogen does not have allotropes.
• An allotrope refers to different structural forms of the same element in the same physical state. For example, Carbon exists as allotropes such as diamond, graphite, and graphene.
• However, Nitrogen exists primarily as a diatomic molecule (N₂) under standard conditions and does not form other molecular structures or allotropes.
• This is because of the strong triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms in N₂, which makes it highly stable and less likely to form other allotropes.
• The diatomic nitrogen molecule is a key component of the Earth's atmosphere, constituting approximately 78% of its composition.
• Nitrogen is essential in various biological processes, such as the formation of amino acids, DNA, and RNA, but its lack of allotropes distinguishes it from other elements.

Additional Information

• Oxygen
• Oxygen has multiple allotropes, including dioxygen (O₂) and ozone (O₃).
• Ozone is an important allotrope that forms a protective layer in the atmosphere, shielding the Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation.
• Sulphur
• Sulphur exhibits several allotropes, such as rhombic sulphur and monoclinic sulphur.
• These allotropes differ in their crystal structures and stability under specific temperature and pressure conditions.
• Carbon
• Carbon is well-known for its diverse allotropes, including diamond, graphite, graphene, fullerenes, and carbon nanotubes.
• These allotropes exhibit a wide range of physical and chemical properties, making carbon one of the most versatile elements.

The correct answer is Conservation of energy.

Key Points

• Bernoulli's principle is derived from the conservation of energy, specifically applied to fluid dynamics.
• It states that for an incompressible, non-viscous fluid, the total mechanical energy (pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy) remains constant along a streamline.
• The principle is expressed as: P + ½ρv² + ρgh = constant, where P is pressure, ρ is fluid density, v is fluid velocity, g is gravitational acceleration, and h is height.
• The conservation of energy ensures that as the velocity of a fluid increases, its pressure decreases, and vice versa, under steady flow conditions.
• The principle is widely used in applications such as aerodynamics, hydraulics, and engineering designs like airplane wings, venturi meters, and fluid pumps.

Additional Information

• Streamline: A path followed by fluid particles, where the velocity at every point is tangent to the path.
• Incompressible Fluid: A fluid with constant density, often assumed in Bernoulli's principle for simplification.
• Non-viscous Fluid: A fluid with negligible internal friction, ensuring ideal flow conditions for the application of Bernoulli's principle.
• Applications: Bernoulli's principle explains phenomena like lift in airplane wings, functioning of carburetors, and the operation of venturi tubes.
• Limitations: The principle does not apply to compressible fluids, turbulent flows, or situations involving significant viscous forces.

The correct answer is Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare.

In News

• The Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare conducted the workshop to enhance write-up submissions for the Anubhav Awards 2025.
• All write-ups published between April 1, 2024, and March 31, 2025 will be eligible for consideration.
• Awardees and industry leaders provided insights on improving the quality of submissions.
• The goal is to increase participation from retiring and retired government employees, encouraging them to share their experiences.

Key Points

• Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare oversees pension policies for central government employees and organizes programs like the Anubhav Awards.
• Anubhav Awards celebrate notable write-ups from retiring government staff, showcasing their experiences and contributions.
• The workshop aims to improve quality and encourage a higher number of submissions, thus promoting knowledge-sharing and best practices.

Additional Information

• Purpose of Anubhav Awards
• Encourage retiring employees to record and share their experiences, knowledge, and achievements.
• Foster a culture of learning and appreciation for public service contributions.
• Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare
• Works under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions.
• Formulates pension policies and procedures to ensure the welfare of retired employees.

The Correct Answer is 52^nd.

Key Points

• Anti-defection Law​
• The anti-defection law deals with situations of defection in Parliament or state legislatures by:
• (a) members of a political party,
• (b) independent members,
• (c) nominated members.
• The term defection indicates revolt, dissent, and rebellion by a person or a party.
• Generally defection refers to leaving an association to join another.
• In political scenario it is a situation when a member of a political party leaves his party and joins hands with other parties.
• The main aim of this schedule was to prevent the political defections and to strengthen democracy by bringing stability in politics and make members of parliament more responsible and loyal to their parties.
• Political defection means a member of a political party changes his party voluntarily or on other grounds.
• It also provides procedure by which a legislator may be disqualified on the ground of defection by the presiding officer of the legislature.
• This Schedule is applicable on both Central and State legislature.​​​​

Additional Informatio

• ​Amendment in the Constitution of India:​
• Article 368 in Part XX deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
• Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the 'basic structure of the Constitution'. (Kesavananda Bharti Case)
• The amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of the Parliament. (does not in the legislature)
• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. (does not require prior permission of the President)
• It must be passed in each house by a special majority. (the majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of 2/3^rd of the members of the house present and voting)
• Each house must pass the bill separately. (no provision for joint sittings)
• If the bill is for amending the federal structure of the Constitution, then it must be ratified by the legislature of half of the states by a simple majority. (the majority of the members of the house present and voting)
• President must give his assent to the bill. (neither withhold his assent nor return the bill)
• After the assent of the President, the bill becomes an Act.

The correct answer is Definition of 'State'.

Key Points

Article 12 defines the state in the following manner

In this part, unless the context otherwise requires, "the State" includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

The following entities are also included in the concept of "State" under Article 12: Railway Board, Electricity Board, Judiciary, University, State Bank of India (SBI).

• The Supreme Court in the case of Rajasthan Electricity Board v. Mohan Lal laid down the conclusive test for determining the bodies that would come under the ambit of ‘other authorities’.
• The court held that if an authority has the power to issue directions and any offense against them is punishable by law has the power to make rules that would have statutory effect is an agency or instrumentality of state for carrying out trade or business which otherwise would have been carried out by the state departments, such authorities would come within the purview of ‘other authorities’ and hence would be considered ‘state’.
• In the case of A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak, the Court established that the “State” as per Article 12 of the Indian Constitution will include courts only when they are performing non-judicial functions and not while they are performing their judicial functions.
• Therefore, in general case judiciary is not included under the definition of State.
• The University of Madras v. Shanta bai AIR 1954 – Supreme Court held that the university formed under Madras Act, falls under the definition of the state. Court laid down the Latin term EJUSDEM GENERIS means (of the same kind). It was held that the Preceding government is sovereign, government, and parliament, government, and state legislature and local authorities.
• But University as a general does not fall under the definitions of "State". As it will include private universities. And private universities are not state.
• In Umesh v. V.N. Singh, AIR 1986, the Patna High Court, following the decision of the Supreme Court, has held that the Patna University is "a State".
• The Madras High Court held that SBI is a "State" under Article 12 because it is an instrumentality of the government and has a number of public functions.

The correct answer is Customs Duty.

Key Points

• Customs Duty is an example of an indirect tax, which is levied on goods imported or exported from a country.
• It is paid by the importer or exporter but is indirectly passed on to the end consumer as part of the product's cost.
• Customs Duty is a significant source of revenue for the government and helps regulate international trade.
• This tax is usually based on the value, weight, or quantity of the goods and may vary depending on the type of product and country of origin.
• Examples of indirect taxes include Goods and Services Tax (GST), Excise Duty, and Customs Duty, as opposed to direct taxes like Income Tax and Property Tax.

Additional Information

• Indirect Tax:
• An indirect tax is collected by an intermediary (like a retailer) from the person who bears the ultimate economic burden of the tax (typically the consumer).
• Examples: GST, VAT, Excise Duty, and Customs Duty.
• Direct Tax:
• A direct tax is directly paid to the government by the individual or organization on whom it is imposed.
• Examples: Income Tax, Property Tax, and Corporate Tax.
• Customs Duty in India:
• The Customs Act, 1962 governs the levy and collection of customs duties in India.
• It includes Basic Customs Duty (BCD), Countervailing Duty (CVD), and Special Additional Duty (SAD).
• Purpose of Indirect Taxes:
• Generate government revenue.
• Regulate trade and consumption of goods.
• Encourage domestic production by imposing higher duties on imports.

The correct answer is Attorney General of India

Key Points

• The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country and serves as the chief legal advisor to the government of India.
• He/she represents the government of India in legal matters and performs duties of a legal character as assigned by the President.
• The Attorney General has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament but does not have the right to vote.
• The position of the Attorney General is not a full-time engagement, and the person holding the office can practice privately as well, provided it does not conflict with the duties of the office.

Additional Information

• The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India but is not related to Article 76.
• The Comptroller & Auditor General of India is also appointed by the President but under Article 148.
• The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President under Article 124.
• The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President and can be removed by the President at any time.
• The appointment of the Attorney General is usually for a term of three years, which can be extended.

The correct answer is Aurobindo Ghosh.

Key Points

• The Alipore Bomb Case of 1908 was one of the most prominent trials during the Indian independence movement, involving revolutionaries accused of conspiring to overthrow British rule.
• Aurobindo Ghosh, a key figure in the Indian freedom struggle, was arrested and tried for his alleged role in the conspiracy.
• The case centered around the bomb that was intended to target a British official but instead killed two innocent women in Muzaffarpur.
• Aurobindo Ghosh was eventually acquitted due to lack of evidence, but the case marked a turning point in his life as he shifted from active politics to spiritual pursuits.
• His defense lawyer, Chittaranjan Das, famously described Aurobindo as "the poet of patriotism" and "the prophet of nationalism."

Additional Information

• Aurobindo Ghosh: Known for his revolutionary activities and later as a spiritual leader, he founded the Aurobindo Ashram in Pondicherry.
• The Anushilan Samiti: A secret revolutionary organization involved in the Alipore Bomb Case, aimed at overthrowing British rule through armed struggle.
• Chittaranjan Das: A prominent lawyer and nationalist leader who defended Aurobindo Ghosh during the trial, highlighting his intellectual and spiritual contributions.
• Impact of the Case: The Alipore Bomb Case influenced the trajectory of the Indian freedom movement, inspiring many revolutionaries and leading to stricter British surveillance.
• Shift to Spirituality: After his acquittal, Aurobindo Ghosh moved away from revolutionary politics and focused on spiritual philosophy and integral yoga.

The correct answer is To reduce reliance on the grey market and eliminate volatility

In News

• Sebi is launching a regulated "when-listed" platform to allow investors to trade shares immediately after allotment, but before the official listing on stock exchanges.

Key Points

• Addressing Grey Market: The platform aims to eliminate the unregulated grey market, where speculative trading takes place between the allotment and listing phases.
• Current System: A three-day gap (T+1 to T+3) after IPO allotment often leads to grey market activity, where investors engage in unofficial trades.
• Grey Market Risks: It can lead to volatility and misled expectations due to speculative pricing and unpredictable outcomes based on listing day performance.
• Investor Benefits: The new platform ensures a transparent, secure trading environment, enhancing investor protection and stabilizing market sentiment.
• Industry Support: Experts agree that this initiative will reduce risks for retail investors and promote fair trading by legitimizing the process and curbing risky grey market transactions.

The correct answer is Malik Kafur.

Key Points

• Malik Kafur was a prominent military general and slave of Alauddin Khilji, the Sultan of Delhi.
• In 1309, Malik Kafur led an expedition to the south of India, which included the invasion of the Kakatiya kingdom.
• The Kakatiya dynasty was ruled by Prataparudra II at that time.
• Malik Kafur's invasion was part of a larger campaign by Alauddin Khilji to expand his empire and secure tribute from southern kingdoms.
• The Kakatiya kingdom was known for its wealth and resources, making it a significant target for the Delhi Sultanate.
• Malik Kafur's successful campaign resulted in the submission of the Kakatiya ruler and the acquisition of substantial wealth, including precious stones and metals.

 Additional Information

• Ballala Deva
• Ballala Deva refers to the Hoysala rulers from the Deccan region, specifically in present-day Karnataka.
• He was not involved in the invasion of the Kakatiya kingdom in 1309.
• Vir Pandya
• Vir Pandya was a ruler of the Pandya dynasty in southern India.
• He had conflicts with the Delhi Sultanate but did not invade the Kakatiya kingdom in 1309.
• Sunder Pandya
• Sunder Pandya is another name for a ruler from the Pandya dynasty.
• There is no historical record of Sunder Pandya invading the Kakatiya kingdom in 1309.

The correct answer is Project 75

In News

• The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi dedicated three frontline naval combatants INS Surat, INS Nilgiri and INS Vaghsheer to the nation on their commissioning at the Naval Dockyard in Mumbai.

Key Points

• INS Vaghsheer is the sixth and final submarine of the P75 Scorpene Project.
• The P75 Scorpene Project represents India’s growing expertise in submarine construction.

Additional Information

• Project 75

• The Scorpene-class submarines under Project 75 are a class of diesel-electric attack submarines designed for the Indian Navy. They are being built as part of India's efforts to modernise its submarine fleet and enhance its naval defence capabilities.

• INS Vaghsheer

• INS Vagsheer (S26) is the sixth submarine of the first batch of six Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy.

• It is a diesel-electric attack submarine based on the Scorpène class, designed by French naval defence and energy group Naval Group and manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited, an Indian shipyard in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

• The commissioning commanding officer of Vagsheer is Commander Vineet Sharma.

The correct answer is Finland.

Key Points

• Finland is famously known as the 'Land of the Thousand Lakes' because it is home to approximately 188,000 lakes.
• The country’s landscape is dominated by water bodies and forests, with lakes covering about 10% of its total area.
• These lakes are primarily the result of glacial activity during the last Ice Age, which carved out the land and created depressions that later filled with water.
• Some of the most famous lakes in Finland are Lake Saimaa (the largest lake in Finland and the fourth largest in Europe), Lake Päijänne, and Lake Inari.
• In addition to their beauty, these lakes are vital for transportation, fishing, and tourism, and they contribute significantly to Finland's economy.
• Finland’s unique geography and its lakes play a crucial role in influencing its climate, culture, and recreational activities.
• The abundance of lakes also contributes to Finland’s high rank in environmental sustainability and quality of life indices.

Additional Information

• Denmark
• Denmark is a Nordic country located in Northern Europe, known for its flat terrain and coastal areas.
• It is characterized by its islands (over 400) rather than lakes, making it distinct from Finland.
• Denmark is famous for its Viking history and cultural heritage, not for its lakes.
• The Netherlands
• The Netherlands is known as the 'Land of Canals' due to its extensive system of waterways and dikes.
• The country is renowned for its efforts in water management and not for natural lakes.
• It is also famous for its tulip fields, windmills, and cycling infrastructure.
• Poland
• Poland is located in Central Europe and is known for its diverse geography, including mountains, plains, and rivers.
• Although Poland has lakes (e.g., Masurian Lake District), it does not have as many as Finland and is not referred to as the 'Land of the Thousand Lakes.'
• Poland is more recognized for its historic cities like Kraków and Warsaw and its cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Transactional calls to customers.

In News

• RBI directs banks to use '1600xx' numbering series for transactional calls and '140xx' for promotional calls to prevent financial fraud.

Key Points

• The '1600xx' numbering series is designated for transactional calls, while '140xx' is for promotional calls.
• The RBI's directive aims to prevent financial frauds that often occur through voice calls and SMS.
• The directive also mandates banks and financial entities to monitor and clean their customer databases using the Mobile Number Revocation List (MNRL).
• The compliance deadline for all regulated entities is set for March 31, 2025.

Additional Information

• Mobile Number Revocation List (MNRL)
• Developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
• Used to monitor and clean customer databases of regulated entities to prevent misuse of disconnected numbers.
• Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
• Responsible for regulating telecom services in India.
• Issued the guidelines on commercial communication through voice calls and SMS to ensure consumer protection.

The correct answer is LPG subsidy transfer in consumer's account.

Key Points

• PAHAL Scheme
• 'PAHAL' is the acronym for 'Pratyaksha Hastaantarit Laabh'.
• The scheme was launched on June 01, 2013, as Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme for LPG subsidy.
• The scheme was launched by the Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 291 districts.
• On 15 November 2014, the scheme was modified and renamed as PaHal; and was relaunched in 54 districts. The modified scheme removed the necessity of having an Aadhar number with the consumer.
• The scheme was extended nationwide on 1 January 2015.
• The scheme helped the consumers as they directly received the subsidy of the LPG cylinders bought at market price, in their bank accounts.
• The scheme covers approximately 10 crore LPG consumers has been acknowledged as the world's largest cash transfer program (households) by the Guinness Book of World Records.
• Objective - The scheme aims to reduce corruption by eliminating duplication or bogus LPG connections and their diversion.

The correct answer is Swami Vivekananda.

In News

• National Youth Day is observed annually on 12^th January to honor the ideals and vision of Swami Vivekananda.
• The day recognizes Swami Vivekananda’s belief in the potential and dynamism of the youth as the nation's resource.

Key Points

• The Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue 2025 was held on January 11-12 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
• Youth, comprising 40% of India’s population, are recognized as the most dynamic resource of the nation.

Additional Information

• About Swami Vivekananda:
• Born on 12 January 1863, Swami Vivekananda was a spiritual leader and philosopher.
• He introduced Indian philosophies like Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.
• Significance of National Youth Day:
• Aims to inspire young Indians to follow Swami Vivekananda’s teachings of self-reliance, education, and spirituality.

The correct answer is in 2001.

Key Points

• The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) project was launched in 2001.
• This project was aimed at constructing a vast network of highways to connect major industrial, agricultural, and cultural centers of India.
• The project was initiated under the leadership of then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• The total length of the Golden Quadrilateral is approximately 5,846 kilometers.
• It connects four major cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.

Additional Information

• National Highways Development Project (NHDP)
• The Golden Quadrilateral is a part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP).
• NHDP was the largest highway project in India at the time of its launch.
• It aimed to upgrade, rehabilitate, and widen major highways to international standards.
• Major Benefits
• Enhanced connectivity and reduced travel time between major cities.
• Boosted economic development by facilitating smoother transportation of goods and services.
• Significantly improved road infrastructure and safety.
• Funding and Execution
• The project was funded through fuel taxes, tolls, and loans from international agencies.
• The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was responsible for the project's execution.
• Completion and Impact
• The project was completed in 2012.
• It has had a profound impact on India's road transportation sector, setting a benchmark for future highway projects.

The Correct Answer is Option 2

Key Points

• Mango Shower → Karnataka Coastal Areas
• These are pre-monsoon showers that help in the ripening of mangoes in Karnataka and Kerala.
• Blossom Shower → Kerala
• These showers occur in Kerala during April-May, helping in the flowering of coffee plants.
• Norwesters → West Bengal
• Also known as Kalbaisakhi, these are violent thunderstorms in West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and Bangladesh.
• Loo → Punjab to Bihar
• Loo is a hot, dry wind that blows in North India, particularly in Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar, during summer.
• Correct Answer: Option 2) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1

The correct answer is Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
• Launch
• India’s largest Skill Certification Scheme - Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) - was launched on 15^th July 2015 (World Youth Skills Day).
• Aim
• To encourage and promote skill development in the country by providing free short-duration skill training and incentivizing this by providing monetary rewards to youth for skill certification.
• Implementation
• PMKVY is implemented by the National Skills Development Corporation (NSDC) under the guidance of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
• ​Features:
• It envisages training of eight lakh candidates over a scheme period of 2020-2021 with an outlay of Rs. 948.90 crore.
• The 729 Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendras (PMKKs), impaneled non-PMKK training centers and more than 200 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) under Skill India will be rolling out PMKVY 3.0 training to build a robust pool of skilled professionals.
• It will be more trainee- and learner-centric. The focus is on bridging the demand-supply gap by promoting skill development in areas of new-age and Industry 4.0 job roles.
• It will be a propagator of vocational education at an early level for youth to capitalize on industry-linked opportunities.
• The National Educational Policy 2020 also puts focus on vocational training for holistic growth and increased employability.

The correct answer is Football

Key Points

• The term 'banana kick' is associated with the sport of Football.
• A banana kick is a type of kick that curves or bends in the air, typically used in free kicks and corner kicks.
• This technique is often used to navigate around defensive walls or to place the ball into the goal from a challenging angle.
• Famous footballers known for their banana kicks include legends like David Beckham and Roberto Carlos.

Additional Information

• The physics behind a banana kick involves imparting spin to the ball, resulting in a curved trajectory due to the Magnus effect.
• Mastering the banana kick requires significant skill, practice, and an understanding of ball dynamics.
• This technique adds a strategic element to the game, allowing players to create scoring opportunities from set pieces.

The correct answer is Kirana Gharana.

Key Points

• Pandit Bhimsen Joshi became the most popular artist of Kirana Gharana.
• He was one of the best vocalists in the Hindustani classical style from Karnataka, India.
• He is well-known for both his popular interpretations of religious music and the khayal style of singing.
• He received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 1998.
• In 2009, he was bestowed with India's highest civilian accolade, the Bharat Ratna.
• Kirana Gharana is one of the oldest Gharanas of Indian classical music, which originated in the town of Kirana near Delhi.
• The Kirana Gharana is famous for its melodious style and is known for its emphasis on the 'gayaki ang' or the vocal style of singing.

Additional Information

• Gwalior Gharana is known for its Dhrupad style of singing.
• This style is characterized by a slow and rhythmic rendition of the composition.
• Mewati Gharana is known for its unique blend of classical and folk music.
• It is famous for its 'bol-banav' or the art of improvising lyrics on the spot.
• Patiala Gharana is known for its powerful and energetic style of singing.
• It is famous for its use of 'tans' or fast-paced improvisations.

The correct answer is Hockey.

Key Points

• Rangaswamy Cup is associated with Hockey.
• It was introduced in 1928.
• The Rangaswami Cup was originally known as Inter-Provincial Tournament.
• It was meant to pick up players for the national team for the Olympics.
• ​Thus, Rangaswami Cup is related to the game of Hockey.

Additional Information

• The first edition of the event was won by United Provinces.
• They had defeated Rajputana 3-1 in the final held at Calcutta.
• The legendary Dhyanchand was a part of the United Provinces.

The correct answer is How India Scaled Mt G20.

In News

• PM Narendra Modi lauds Amitabh Kant’s book on India’s G20 Presidency and Summit.

Key Points

• The book is titled 'How India Scaled Mt G20.'
• The book highlights the rigorous process behind the New Delhi Leader's Declaration for the G20 summit, including 16 failed drafts.
• The book details the 300 hours of discussions and 11 sleepless nights required to finalize the declaration.
• PM Modi praised the book for providing a lucid perspective on India’s human-centric development efforts.

Additional Information

• Amitabh Kant
• Former CEO of NITI Aayog
• Played a key role in India’s G20 Presidency
• Author of 'How India Scaled Mt G20'

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Mizoram is known as the 'Molasses Basin' due to its rich reserves of molasses, a by-product of sugar production.
• This northeastern state of India is renowned for its lush greenery and hilly terrains which are suitable for sugarcane cultivation.
• The term 'Molasses Basin' is specifically attributed to the region's significant production of molasses from sugarcane.
• Mizoram's economy benefits greatly from agriculture, with sugarcane being one of the prominent crops cultivated in the state.

Additional Information

• Geographical Significance of Mizoram
• Mizoram is one of the seven northeastern states of India, bordered by Myanmar to the east and south and Bangladesh to the west.
• The state is characterized by its mountainous terrain, with the majority of the area covered by forests.
• Agriculture is the mainstay of the economy, and the state is known for its diverse flora and fauna.
• Sugarcane Cultivation in India
• India is one of the largest producers of sugarcane in the world.
• Sugarcane is primarily grown in states like Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh.
• It is a significant cash crop that supports the sugar industry and produces by-products like molasses, bagasse, and ethanol.
• Molasses: By-product and Uses
• Molasses is a thick, dark syrup produced during the refining of sugarcane into sugar.
• It is used in various industries, including food and beverage, livestock feed, and as a fermentation substrate in the production of ethanol.
• Molasses is also used in the production of rum and in baking to add moisture and flavor to baked goods.
• Agricultural Practices in Mizoram
• Shifting cultivation, also known as jhum cultivation, is traditionally practiced in Mizoram.
• In recent years, efforts have been made to promote settled agriculture to enhance productivity and sustainability.
• Crops like rice, maize, oilseeds, pulses, and horticultural crops are also grown in the state.

The correct answer is Iranian Rial.

In News

• The Iranian Rial is the currency of Iran.

Key Points

• The Iranian Rial (IRR) is the official currency of Iran.
• It was introduced in 1798.
• The symbol for the Rial is "ریال".
• Iranian Rial
• ISO code - IRR
• Subunit - 1 Rial = 100 dinar (although dinar is not used in everyday transactions)
• Central Bank - Central Bank of the Islamic Republic of Iran

Additional Information

• Iranian Yen
• There is no such currency as Iranian Yen. Yen is the official currency of Japan.
• Iranian Dinar
• Dinar is a subunit of the Iranian Rial but is not used in everyday transactions. Dinar is also the official currency of several other countries, including Kuwait and Jordan.
• Iranian Dollar
• There is no such currency as Iranian Dollar. Dollar is the official currency of the United States and several other countries.

The correct answer is M.S. Subbulakshmi

Key Points

• M.S. Subbulakshmi is the first Indian musician to receive the Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian honour in India.
• M.S. Subbulakshmi was a renowned Carnatic vocalist.
• She was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1998.
• She performed in various languages including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Sanskrit.
• She also received awards, including Padma Bhushan (1954), Padma Vibhushan (1975), and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship.

Additional Information

• The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India, instituted in 1954.
• The award is conferred in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order, without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex.
• Recipients receive a sanad (certificate) signed by the President of India and a medallion.
• It is awarded for achievements in the fields of arts, literature, science, and public services.

The figure is given below:

Hence, the correct answer is son-in-law.

Angle: There are two types of angles that are made by the hands of a clock.

1) Internal Angle:- Angle between two needles (Hour and Minute hands of a clock) is less than 180º

2. External Angle:- Angle between two needles (Hour and Minute hands of a clock) is more than 180º

To find the angle between the hands of the clock,

Angle =  | Hour × 30 - 11 ÷ 2 × Minute |

Given,

Hour = 4

Minute = 40

Substitute the value of Hour and minute in the above formula.

Angle = | 4 × 30 - 11 ÷ 2 × 40 |

Angle = | 120 - 11 × 20 |

Angle = |120 - 220 |

Angle = | - 100 |

Angle = 100º            (Less than 180º)

Hence, 100º is the correct answer.

Hence, Qawwali is the odd one among the given options.

Directions:-

Here, A is the starting point and B is the end point.

AB = √ 30 × 30 + 40 × 40 

AB = √ 900 + 1600

AB = √ 2500

AB = 50

Thus, the correct answer is 50 m.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the place value of all the letters except O.

'PROVED’ is written as ‘65'

⇒ 16 + 18 + 22 + 5 + 4 = 65.

'REMOVER’ is written as ‘81'

⇒ 18 + 5 + 13 + 22 + 5 + 18 = 81.

Similarly, for 'DEVOUR'

⇒ 4 + 5 + 22 + 21 + 18 = 70.

So, 'DEVOUR' will be written as '70'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic follows here is :

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "1020".

The logic followed here is:

1) Vowels are a, e. i, o, u.

2) Consonants are all the letters in English alphabet except vowels.

The required pattern is :  Consonants → Vowel

In the given series, consonants that are immediately followed by a vowel are: 

Series : (Left) U T R @ T 3 M @ 7 D E G M E 7 # X X 4 1 X D & G O H 4 @ 3 1 K M S A C # D (Right)

Thus, there are FOUR consonants that are immediately followed by a vowel, namely DE, ME, GO, SA.

Hence, "4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed is:

i) In figure alphabet A is moving each corner in the box in a clockwise direction and replaced by the next alphabet.

ii) In figure alphabet N is moving in the next box in a clockwise direction and replaced by the previous alphabet.

iii) Number is moving each corner in the box in a clockwise direction and replaced by the next number. 

Except for the fourth, all the others are following the pattern to their next image.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Position of Prateek = 15^th from the left

Position of Rahul = 10^th from the right

Number of boys between Prateek and Rahul = 5

Total boys in row = 15 + 5 + 10 = 30

Thus, there are 30 boys in the row.

Here, we have not checked for the overlapping condition because all the options are greater than 25 (15 from the left + 10 from the right). So, it is definite that it is not an overlapping condition.

According to the sequence in the dictionary: 

The correct order of the given words is:

6. Tarantulated
7. Tardigradous
8. Tauricornous
9. Taurocholate
10. Tautegorical
11. Tautoousious

Hence, the alphabetical order followed in dictionary is 6, 2, 3, 4, 1, 5.

Additional Information

1. First of all, check the common letter in all.
2. Arrange them according to the alphabet they come first. 
3. When common letters are arranged, then go for the rest.

If we see the pattern carefully then we can observe that

1³ – 3 = -2

2³ – 3 = 5

3³ – 3 = 24

4³ – 3 = 61

5³ – 3 = 122

6³ – 3 = 213

Therefore, the next term is, 7³ – 3 = 340

​When folded paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows:

Hence, correct answer is in option 4.

When we fold a given figure then we get,

By solving the options:

 → It cannot be formed because opposite phase are adjacent to each other.

 → It cannot be formed because opposite phase are adjacent to each other.

 → It can be formed because there is no opposite phase adjacent to each other.

 →  It cannot be formed because opposite phase are adjacent to each other.

Hence, (3) is the correct answer.

Eight children: A, G, K, M, N, R, S and T

1. R is sitting to the immediate right of G and third to the left of T

2. S is sitting to the immediate left of T and fourth to the right of A

3. N is sitting to the immediate right of R and third to the left of K

This implies that M will occupy the remaining position

Thus, the final arrangement is:

Hence, M and N are sitting opposite to each other

Remya's birthday → Wednesday 10^th March

Deepthi's birthday → 15^th June

So, March has remaining → 21 Days

April → 30 Days

May → 31 Days

June → 15 Days

Total days → 97 Days

Dividing 97 days by 7 (as there are 7 days in a week).

We get the remainder 6.

Thus, 6 days ahead of Remya's birthday will be Tuesday which is Deppthi's birthday.

Hence, 'Tuesday' is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

The addition is two numbers is a multiple of 17.

Option 1 → 39 - 12 → 39 + 12 = 51 → 17 × 3 = 51

Option 2 → 60 - 25 → 60 + 25 = 85 → 17 × 5 = 85

Option 3 → 12 - 22 → 12 + 22 = 34 → 17 × 2 = 34

Option 4 → 59 - 8 → 59 + 8 = 67, Not divisible by 17.

All except, '59 - 8' follow the same pattern.

Hence, '59 - 8' is different from others.

We can understand the logic by following figure:

By 1^st, 2^nd and last equations we come to know that:

Today is coded as "mu" &  A is coded as "Su".

Now in the last equation we can conclude that 'good day' is commonly coded as "da ku".

Now checking all the options one by one for 'Day Was Good':

1) da me mu → Incorrect (ku is not present)

2) su pe ma → Incorrect (da ku both are not present)

3) ku pa da → Correct  (Both ku & da are present)

4) su mu ku → Incorrect (da is not present)

Hence the correct answer is "ku pa da".

The set of letters that represents dean, who is a teacher lies in the intersection of triangle and circle, as shown below:

Hence, QR is the correct answer.

The given statement is: S > M ≥ P < K = U < T

Conclusions:

I. P < T → True (as P < K = U < T given; so P < T is true).

II. K > S → False (as S > M ≥ P < K gives either S > K or S < K and no definite relation between K and S can be determined).

Hence, the correct answer is “Only I is true”.

The positional value of alphabet series is;

Now the pattern follow in first pair is;

Hence, the correct answer is "XWTU".

Z1A, X2D, V6G, T21J, R88M, P445P, ?

The pattern followed here is,

The logic for numbers is,

1 x 1 + 1 = 2,

2 x 2 + 2 = 6,

6 x 3 + 3 = 21,

21 x 4 + 4 = 88,

88 x 5 + 5 = 445,

445 x 6 + 6 = 2676

Hence, the next term will be N2676S.

Least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions

I. Some tables are desks → False.

There is no direct relationship between desk and table so, no conclusion can be derived.

II. Some chairs are not desks → False.

Some chairs are desks but there is no information about the remaining chairs so, the conclusion is considered false.

III. No desk is a table → False.

There is no direct relationship between desk and table so, no conclusion can be derived.

Here Conclusion I and III form complementary pairs and either of them has to be true. 

Hence, Either I or III follows is the correct answer.

Note: 

Conditions of Either-or case:

1. The elements should be the same in both the statements.
2. Individually both the conclusions should be false.
3. One conclusion should be positive and one conclusion should be negative (Complementary pair)

The two complementary pairs are:

1. All + Some not

2. No + Some

Additional Information

The logic followed here is:

Vowels are placed as it is.

Consonant are increased by +1.

Now,

'APPLES' is written as 'AQQMET',

Similarly, for 'ORANGE'

So, 'ORANGE' will be written as 'OSAOHE'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

​

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "DOK".

Least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions

I. Some trucks are cars → False.

All trucks are buses and no bus is a car so, no truck can be a car. The conclusion is false.

II. All cars are trucks → False.

All trucks are buses and no bus is a car so, no truck can be a car. The conclusion is false.

III. No car is a truck → True.

All trucks are buses and no bus is a car so, no truck can be a car. The conclusion is true

Hence, only conclusion III follows is the correct answer.

Note: 

Conditions of Either-or case:

1. The elements should be the same in both the statements.
2. Individually both the conclusions should be false.
3. One conclusion should be positive and one conclusion should be negative (Complementary pair)

The two complementary pairs are:

1. All + Some not

2. No + Some

Additional Information

The pattern follows here is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "TCEU".

Here, Cape Town is the capital of South Africa. 

Similarly, 

Wellington is the capital of New Zealand. 

Hence, "New Zealand" is the correct answer.

1. L sits fourth to the right of K who sits at an extreme end.

2. Two persons sit between L and M. 

3. J sits adjacent to O and M. 

4. Three persons sit between J and N.

5. Q is an immediate neighbour of L and N.

6. K is not a neighbour of P.

‘P’ sits at the extreme right position

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

The table shows the place value of the alphabet from A to Z.

The logic followed here is:

Given series is A121O, F169T, K225Y, P289D, ?

So, "U361I" is the next series.

Hence, "Option (4)" is the correct answer.

Let us consider that the student has answered ‘x’ answers correctly.

Now, the student attempted only 70% of the given questions 

70% of 100 = 70

So, number of incorrect questions = 70 – x

The student scored 44 marks

So, according to question;

x – (70 – x) = 44

x – 70 + x = 44

2x = 70 + 44

2x = 114

x = 57

Hence, the student answered 57 questions correctly.

The logic followed here is:

'MODERN' is coded as ‘KOBALJ',

Similarly, for 'PEOPLE'

So, 'PEOPLE' will be coded as 'BIMLBM'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

On following the given pattern we get that :

Hence, code word of face is "sad".

Decoding the information, 

Given:

51 A 2² D (D 206 C 190) D (2² A 15) B 30 A 7²

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

= 51 × 2² - (- 206 + 190) - (2² × 15) ÷ 30 × 7²

= 51 × 4 - (- 206 + 190) - (4 × 15) ÷ 30 × 49

= 51 × 4 - (- 16) – 60 ÷ 30 × 49

= 51 × 4 + 16 – 60 ÷ 30 × 49

= 51 × 4 + 16 – 2 × 49

= 204 + 16 – 98

= 220 – 98

= 122

Hence, “122” is the correct answer.

17, 43, 81, 131, ?

43 – 17 = 26

81 – 43 = 38 (26 + 12)

131 – 81 = 50 (38 + 12)

⇒ next difference = 50 + 12 = 62

⇒ ? = 131 + 62 = 193

Hence, 193 is the answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Therefore, “DGFI” is odd among them.

Hence, “DGFI” is the correct answer.

Given:

A loss of $10\frac{1}{2}\%$ gets converted into a profit of $11\frac{3}{5}\%$ when the selling price is increased by Rs. 132.60

Concept used:

SP = CP + CP × Profit%

SP = CP - CP × Loss%

Calculation:

Let CP of the article be 100a

Now,

SP for 1^st case = 100a - 100a × $10\frac{1}{2}\%$

⇒ 89.5a

SP for 2^nd case = 100a + 100a × $11\frac{3}{5}\%$

⇒ 111.6a

According to the question,

111.6a - 89.5a = 132.6

⇒ 22.1a = 132.6

⇒ a = 132.6/22.1

⇒ a = 6

So, cost price = 100 × 6

⇒ Rs. 600

∴ The cost price (in Rs.) the article is 600.

Shortcut TrickLoss = 10.5%, Profit = 11.6%

Overall profit increased = 11.6% - (- 10.5%) = 22.1%

22.1% = 132.6

1% = 6

100% = Rs. 600

Sum of age of 11 members of a family = 22 × 11 = 242

Before 2 year the sum of ages of all family members = 242 – 22 = 220 (before 2 years, ages of all family members will be less than 2 years. Hence, overall reduction in age = 11 × 2 = 22)

Now, there are only 10 members in the family, hence average age = 220/10 = 22

Given:

First year increase rate = 12%

Second year decrease rate = 8%

Calculations:

Let the initial population be x.

Then, According to question,

92% of 112% of x = 64,400

⇒ 0.92 × 1.12x = 64,400

⇒ x = 64,400/(0.92×1.12)

⇒ x = 64,400/1.0304

⇒ x = 62,500

Hence, The Required value is 62,500.

Given:

$2.\overline 3+4.\overline 3$

Formula Used:

$a.\overline b$ = (ab - a)/9

Solution:

$2.\overline 3+4.\overline 3$

According to the formula 

⇒ (23 - 2)/9 + (43 - 4)/9

⇒ 21/9 + 39/9

⇒ 60/9

⇒ 20/3

∴ The value of $2.\overline 3+4.\overline 3$ is 20/3.

Total numbers of votes = 18000

Total numbers of invalid votes = 18000 × (10/100) = 1800

⇒ Total numbers of valid votes = (18000 − 1800) = 16200

One candidate got 55% of valid votes = 16200 × (55/100) = 8910

∴ The numbers of valid votes other candidate got = (16200 − 8910) = 7290

Shortcut TrickLet total number of votes = 1000 units

⇒ 1000 units = 18000

⇒ 1 units = 18

⇒ 405 units = 18 × 405 = 7290 votes

Given:

Total time taken = 10 hours

Speed in first half = 30 km/hr

Speed in second half = 20 km/hr

Formula used:

Time = Distance/Speed

Calculation:

Let the total distance covered be 2x km

As, he covered the first half (i.e. x km) with 30 km/hr

Time taken to cover first-half = Distance/Speed = x/30 hours

He covered the second half (i.e. x km) with 20 km/hr

Time taken to cover second half = x/20 hours

Total time taken = 10 hours

⇒ x/30 + x/20 = 10

⇒ 5x/60 = 10

⇒ x = 120

Total distance covered by him = 2x = 2 × 120 = 240 km

∴ Total distance covered by him is 240 km

Given:

A dealer sells an article at Rs. 403.20, after offering a discount of 16% on its marked price.

Concept used:

Selling price = Cost price + Cost price × Profit%

Selling price = Marked price - Markes price × Discount%

Calculation:

Marked price = 403.20 × 100/84

⇒ 480

Now if he sell the article at Rs. 480 there would be a profit of 28%

So, Cost price = 480 × 100/128

⇒ Rs. 375

∴ The cost price of the article is Rs. 375

Given:

Total length of rod = 50 m, Length of the cut piece = 5.25 m

Calculation:

No. of pieces =Total length/length of the cut piece

⇒ 50/5.25 = 9.52

Means 9 full such pieces can be cut from the rod.

Length of cut piece × no of pieces = length of the rod used

⇒ 5.25 × 9 = 47.25 m

⇒ Remaining length = 50 - 47.25 = 2.75

Remaining length = (Remaining length/total length) = (2.75/50) = 0.055

Given:

A  and B can complete a work in 20 days.

B can complete a work in 25 days.

Formula used:

Work done = time × efficiency

Calculation:

LCM of (A + B) and B = 100

Efficiency of A + B = 5

Efficiency of B = 4

Efficiency of A = 1

Time taken by A = 100/1 = 100 days

∴ The correct answer is 100 days.

Given,

2³ × 3⁴ × 1080 ÷ 15 = 6^x

⇒ 2³ × 3⁴ × 72 = 6^x

⇒ 2³ × 3⁴ × (2 × 6²) = 6^x

⇒ 2⁴ × 3⁴ × 6² = 6^x

⇒ (2 × 3)⁴ × 6² = 6^x           [∵ x^m × y^m = (xy)^m]

⇒ 6⁴ × 6² = 6^x

⇒ 6^{(4 + 2)} = 6^x

⇒ x = 6

For a number to be divisible by 6, The last digit must be even and sum of the digits of the number must be divisible by 3

Sum of the digits of 35432 = 3 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 = 17 it is not divisible by 3

Sum of the digits of 53322 = 5 + 3 + 3+ 2 + 2 =15 it is divisible by 3 and its last digit is even

Sum of the digits of 93242 = 9 + 3 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 20 it is not divisible by 3

Sum of the digits of 85232 = 8 + 5 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 20 it is not divisible by 3

∴ 53322 is divisible by 6

Given values:

A and B together finish work in 30 days

Worked together for 20 days, then B left

A worked for another 20 days

Concept:

If A and B together finish work in 'a' days, A finishes alone in 'b' days and B finishes alone in 'c' days, then 1/a = 1/b + 1/c.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work done by A and B in 20 days = 20/30 = 2/3 of the work

⇒ Work done by A in the next 20 days = 1 - 2/3 = 1/3 of the work

⇒ Therefore, A alone can finish the work in 20 × 3 = 60 days.

Hence, A alone can finish the whole work in 60 days.

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Calculations:

⇒ 71% of 2200 – 122 = x + (22 × 25)

⇒ 71/100 × 2200 – 122 = x + (22 × 25)

⇒ 1562 – 122 = x + 550

⇒ 1440 = x + 550

⇒ x = 890.

Concept used:

a^-n = 1/aⁿ

Calculations:

$\left(4^{-1}+8^{-1}\right) ÷\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{-1}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2 x-1}$

⇒  (1/4 + 1/8) ÷ (3/2) = (1/2)^{2x - 1}

⇒  (3/8) ÷ (3/2) = (1/2)2x - 1

⇒  (3/8) × (2/3) = (1/2)^2x-1

⇒ 1/4 = (1/2)^2x-1

⇒  (1/2)² = (1/2)^{2x - 1}

⇒  2 = 2x - 1

⇒ x = 3/2

so

x² + x - 2 = (3/2)² + 3/2 - 2 

⇒ 9/4 - 1/2

⇒ 7/4

$\begin{array}{l} \frac{{0.7; \times 0.7 \times 0.7; + ;0.3 \times 0.3 \times 7.3}}{{0.7 \times 0.7; + ;0.3 \times 0.3; + ;0.42}}\ = ;\frac{{0.343; + ;0.09 \times 7.3}}{{{{0.7}^2}; + ;{{0.3}^2}; + ;2 \times 0.3 \times 0.7}};\ = ;\frac{{0.343; + ;0.657}}{{{{\left( {0.7; + ;0.3} \right)}^2}}} \end{array}$

= 1/1 = 1

Given:

Percentage values: 25%, 66.67%, 75%, 80%

Solution:

Let "x" be the unknown number.

25% of 66.67% of 75% of 80% of x = 6347

⇒ [(25/100) × (66.67/100) × (75/100) × (80/100)] × x = 6347

⇒ [(1/4) × (2/3) × (3/4) × (4/5] × x = 6347

⇒ 1/10 × x = 6347

⇒ x = 63470

40% of the number x = (40/100) × 63470

⇒ 2/5 × 63470

⇒ 25388

Therefore, 40% of the unknown number is 25388.

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance = 15 + 20 = 35 km

Total Time = 3 + 2 = 5 hours

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 35 ÷ 5 = 7 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 7 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance covered in 1^st part = 15 km

Time taken for 1^st part = 3 hours

Distance covered in 2^nd part = 20 km

Time taken for 2^nd part = 2 hours

Total Distance = 35 km

15 km 20 km

3 hours 2 hours

Total Time = 5 hours

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 15 km + 20 km = 35 km

⇒ Total Time = 3 hours + 2 hours = 5 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 35 ÷ 5 = 7 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 7 km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Equal Distances

If two equal distances are covered at speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Average Speed for Equal Time

If a journey is covered at speeds x and y for equal time intervals, Average Speed = (x + y) ÷ 2.

Relative Speed

When moving in the same direction, relative speed = (x − y). When moving in opposite directions, relative speed = (x + y).

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

33 of 6 - 39 + 12 ÷ 6

= 198 - 39 + 12 ÷ 6

= 198 - 39 + 2

= 200 - 39

= 161

∴ The value of ? is 161.

Given:

Ratio of incomes of A and B = 3 : 4

Ratio of expenditure of A and B = 9 : 5

The income of A = 3 × The expenditure of B

Formula used:

Savings = Income – Expenditure

Income = Savings + Expenditure

Expenditure = Income – Savings

Calculation:

Let the income of A and B be 3x and 4x respectively

And the expenses of A and B be 9y and 5y respectively

The income of A = 3 × The expenditure of B

⇒ 3x = 3 × (5y)

⇒ 3x = 15y

⇒ x = 5y

The income of A = 3x = (3 × 5y) = 15y

The income of B = 4x = (4 × 5y) = 20y

Savings of A = (15y – 9y)

⇒ 6y