DSSSB LDC (Jr. Assistant/Steno/LDC): (7 Oct 2025) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Roman Ring

Key Points

• The term Roman Ring is not related to the game of Judo.
• Judo is a modern martial art and combat sport that originated in Japan.
• Terms commonly associated with Judo include Ippon (a full point score), Yuko (a score), and Vaaja-Ari (half point score).
• Roman Rings are gymnastic apparatus used in artistic gymnastics, not in Judo.

Additional Information

• Judo was created in 1882 by Jigoro Kano.
• It was developed from jujutsu and emphasizes the principle of maximum efficiency with minimum effort.
• Judo is practiced both as a sport and as a means of self-defense.
• The techniques in Judo include throws, joint locks, and pins.
• Judo is an Olympic sport and has a wide following around the world.

Option 2 is correct, i.e. 10 years.

• He/She should practice 10 years as a High Court advocate to become a High Court Judge.
• Judges in a High Court are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the state.
• The Judges of the High Courts in India hold office till they attain the age of 62.
• Judges of the high court are appointed by the President of India.
• The judges of the High Court are appointed on the recommendation of the Collegium.
• The Judges of the High Court are removed on the same grounds as of the Supreme Court Judges.

• Indira Point was formerly known as Pygmalion Point.
• It is situated on Great Nicobar Island and is the southernmost tip of India.
• It was named after Indira Gandhi, who is the former Prime Minister of India.
• It was also known as the Parsons Point.

The correct answer is 28.

In News

• The government has merged 26 RRBs under the "One State, One RRB" plan, resulting in 28 RRBs post-amalgamation.

Key Points

• The RRB consolidation aims to improve scale, efficiency, and cost rationalisation in the banking sector.
• Post-merger, 28 RRBs will cover 700 districts with over 22,000 branches, focusing on rural and semi-urban areas.
• The "One State, One RRB" initiative is the fourth phase of the RRB consolidation process, following improvements in earlier phases.
• The plan involves 26 RRBs across 10 states and one Union Territory, with the goal of boosting banking efficiency.

Additional Information

• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
• Regional rural banks are government owned scheduled commercial banks of India that operate at the regional level in different states of India.
• These banks are under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, Sponsored Bank and concerned State Government in the ratio of 50:35:15, respectively.
• Established: 1975.
• Focus: Providing financial services to rural areas in India.
• Operations: Primarily focused on agricultural and rural development loans.
• The Government of India enacted the Regional Rural Banks Act in 1976, which led to the establishment of the first five RRBs on 2 October 1975.
• The first RRB was Prathama Bank, which was sponsored by Syndicate Bank and had its headquarters in Moradabad, Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is '2006'

Key Points

• Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act:
• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA) is a comprehensive legislation enacted to protect women from domestic violence.
• This Act aims to provide immediate and effective protection and relief to women who are victims of domestic violence.
• The PWDVA came into force on October 26, 2006.

Additional Information

• Other Options and Why They Are Incorrect:
• 2005: While the PWDVA was passed in Parliament in 2005, it officially came into force in 2006, making 2005 an incorrect option.
• 2007: The Act was already in force by 2006, so 2007 is not the correct year.
• 2008: Similarly, the Act was in effect well before 2008, making this option incorrect.
• Significance of the Act:
• The PWDVA provides a legal framework for the protection of women from various forms of domestic violence, including physical, emotional, sexual, and economic abuse.
• The Act also allows for the provision of shelter, medical facilities, and legal aid to the victims.
• It emphasizes a victim-centric approach, ensuring that the rights and safety of women are prioritized.

The correct answer is Football.

Key Points

• "Subroto Cup" football tournament is a prestigious international inter-school football tournament that is held annually in New Delhi.
• It is named after the Indian Air Force Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee.
• The tournament began in 1960.
• Students from many countries across Asia participate in this tournament.

Important Points

• Subroto Mukerjee conceived the idea when he was the Chief of the Air Staff in 1958.
• Subroto Mukerjee Sports Education Society was formed after his untimely death in Tokyo in 1960.
• The "Subroto Cup" is conducted by the IAF with the help of the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.

The United Nations was founded on October 24, 1945.

• **United Nations (UN)**is an international organization founded in 1945.
• It was formed After 2^nd World War to prevent further global level wars and casualties.
• It is currently made up of 193 Member States.
• The UN's Chief Administrative Officer is the Secretary-General.
• 2020 marks the 75^th anniversary of the United Nations.

The correct answer is April 5, 2016.

In News

• The Stand-Up India Scheme was launched on April 5, 2016, to support SC, ST, and women entrepreneurs.
• The scheme has been successful in providing loans to thousands of beneficiaries and has contributed to the empowerment of marginalized communities.

Key Points

• Total sanctioned loans for the Stand-Up India Scheme increased to ₹61,020.41 crore by March 2025.
• The scheme has significantly benefited SC, ST, and women entrepreneurs, with over ₹9,747 crore in loans sanctioned for SC beneficiaries alone.

Additional Information

• Stand-Up India Scheme
• The scheme aims to provide loans to entrepreneurs from SC, ST, and women communities, focusing on setting up greenfield enterprises in manufacturing, services, and the trading sector.
• Women Entrepreneurs
• The scheme has especially empowered women entrepreneurs, sanctioning ₹43,984.10 crore across 1.9 lakh accounts.

The correct answer is Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus.

• DPT vaccine protects against diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), and tetanus. Whooping cough or pertussis is a strictly respiratory human disease. It is one of the most common vaccine-preventable childhood diseases.

Additional Information

• Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids have been combined with pertussis antigens and used as a combination DTP vaccine since the 1940s. More recently, this DTP combination has been used as the basis for the development of combination vaccines containing additional vaccine antigens added singly or in additional combinations such as Haemophilus influenza type b, hepatitis B, and inactivated poliovirus, allowing multiple vaccine antigens to be delivered via a single injection.
• In addition, in some DTP vaccines, the diphtheria dose has been reduced and pertussis antigen has been modified to allow these vaccines to be used for booster doses in adolescents and adults. Because these toxoids and antigens are now frequently used as combined vaccines, most adverse events following immunization reported in these vaccines are likely due to the safety profile of their individual components.
• Diphtheria toxoid is prepared by formalin inactivation of diphtheria toxin. Usually, it is available as a preparation adsorbed with aluminum hydroxide or phosphate and combined with other toxoids or vaccine antigens. The potency of the diphtheria vaccine used for the immunization of children should not be less than 30 IU per single human dose, while for adults; the potency is about a third of the dose for children. Monovalent single antigen diphtheria toxoid is currently commercially unavailable.
• Tetanus toxoid is a preparation of formalin-inactivated toxin. The toxoid is availably adsorbed with aluminum phosphate or hydroxide, alone or in combination with other toxoids or vaccines.
• The potency of tetanus toxoid, expressed in International Units, varies widely according to the preparation and the manufacturer, but WHO stipulates the potency of tetanus vaccine used for the immunization of children should not be less than 40 IU per single human dose. The minimum potency specification for tetanus vaccine intended for booster immunization of older children and adults may be lower and should be approved by the National Regulatory Authority (NRA). Single antigen adsorbed tetanus toxoid is available with a toxoid content of 2 to 10 Lf/dose.

The correct answer is S Ramann.

In News

• The government has appointed S Ramann as the new Chairperson of the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).

Key Points

• S Ramann will replace the current chairperson Deepak Mohanty, whose term ends in May 2025.
• His appointment is approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
• He will serve a tenure of five years or until he turns 65, whichever is earlier.
• He belongs to the 1991 batch of the Indian Audit & Accounts Service (IA&AS).

Additional Information

• S Ramann – Career Highlights
• Chairman & MD of SIDBI from 2021 to 2024.
• MD & CEO of National E-Governance Services Limited (NeSL).
• Principal Accountant General (Audit), Jharkhand in 2015-16.
• Worked with SEBI as CGM and later Executive Director between 2007 and 2013.
• PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority)
• It is the regulatory body for overall supervision and regulation of pensions in India.
• Oversees NPS (National Pension System) and APY (Atal Pension Yojana).
• Launched schemes like NPS Vatsalya to encourage long-term child savings.
• Founded in 2003.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Speaker has to be the member of the house within six months, he assumes office.
• Not True
• This condition does not apply to the Speaker.
• A non-member cannot be elected as Speaker.
• Only a sitting Member of the Lok Sabha can be elected as the Speaker.
• So, there is no provision that allows a non-member to become Speaker and then get elected within six months (unlike a minister under Article 75(5)).
• Statement 2: He remains Speaker so long as he is member of the house.
• True
• The Speaker continues in office as long as they are a member of the Lok Sabha and have not resigned or been removed.
• Statement 3: Speaker continues in office even if Lok Sabha is dissolved.
• True
• Article 94: The Speaker does not vacate office immediately upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
• They continue until the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha and the election of a new Speaker.
• Statement 4: Speaker can be removed by the members of Lok Sabha.
• True
• The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha under Article 94(c).
• 14 days' notice is required.
• Conclusion:
• Statement 1 is incorrect and hence the correct answer.
• The Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election, not later.

The correct answer is Frequency.

Concept:

Sound

• Sound is a form of energy that produces a sensation of hearing in our ears.
• Sound is produced by vibrating objects.
• The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a medium. It can be solid, liquid, or gas.
• It travels in the form of longitudinal waves (Compression or rarefaction).

Explanation:

• The pitch of the sound is determined by frequency.
• If the frequency of vibration is higher, the sound is shrill and has a higher pitch.
• If the frequency of vibration is lower, the sound has a lower pitch.
• For example, A bird makes a high-pitched sound whereas a lion makes a low-pitched roar. However, the roar of a lion is very loud while the sound of the bird is quite feeble.

Thus, the pitch of the sound is determined by frequency. 

Additional InformationAmplitude:

• The maximum amount of displacement of the medium particles from their mean position is called the amplitude of the wave.
• The amplitude of a sound determines its loudness.
• The sound produced is loud when the amplitude of the vibration is large.
• The sound produced is weak when the amplitude is low.

Intensity:

• The amount of sound energy passing each second through a unit area is called the intensity of sound.

Loudness:

• The loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration producing the sound.
• The loudness of sound depends on its amplitude.

The Correct answer is Article 143.

Key Points

• Article 143 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact.
• This provision is classified under the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• The President can refer matters that are of public importance or cases where it is essential to have the advice of the apex court.
• This article is divided into two clauses:
• Clause 1: The President may seek advice on questions of law or fact.
• Clause 2: The President may also seek advice on disputes arising out of pre-constitutional treaties, agreements, or other similar matters.
• The Supreme Court’s advice under Article 143 is not binding on the President.
• Examples of cases under Article 143 include:
• The Berubari Union Case, where the Supreme Court was consulted on the implementation of the Indo-Pakistani agreement.
• The Ayodhya Dispute, where the President sought the Supreme Court’s opinion on religious and historical issues.
• This article reflects the unique relationship between the Executive and Judiciary in India, ensuring that critical legal questions are addressed appropriately.

 Additional Information

• Article 141
• Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
• This article ensures the uniformity and finality of legal principles across the judicial system.
• It does not deal with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Article 129
• Article 129 declares the Supreme Court as a court of record.
• As a court of record, the Supreme Court has the power to punish for its contempt.
• This article deals with the judicial authority of the Supreme Court, not the advisory jurisdiction.
• Article 148
• Article 148 deals with the appointment, duties, and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing all expenditures of the government and ensuring financial accountability.
• This article is unrelated to the President’s ability to seek advice from the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is Ibrahim Lodhi.

Key Points:

• The final Lodi Sultan of Delhi was Ibrahim Lodi, Sikandar's oldest son.
• He possessed the traits of a great warrior, yet his judgement and behaviour were hasty and impolite.
• His effort at royal absolutism was ill-timed, and his programme of ruthless repression without accompanying steps to fortify the government and boost military capabilities was bound to be unsuccessful.
• Ibrahim endured many uprisings while keeping the opposition at bay for almost ten years.
• He spent the majority of his reign fighting with the Afghans and the Mughal Empire and died trying to save the Lodi dynasty from extinction.
• At the Battle of Panipat in 1526, Ibrahim was defeated.

**Additional Information:**Bahlol Lodhi:

• During the administration of Muhammad Shah of the Sayyid dynasty, Bahlol Khan Lodhi replaced Malik Sultan Shah Lodi as the governor of Sirhind in (Punjab), India.
• He was Malik Sultan Shah Lodi's nephew and son-in-law.
• He was elevated to the rank of Tarun-Bin-Sultan by Muhammad Shah.​

Daulat Khan Lodhi:

• ​When Ibrahim Lodi, the last monarch of the Lodi dynasty, was in power, Daulat Khan Lodhi served as the city's governor.

Sikander Lodhi:

• ​After his father's passing on July 17, 1489, Sikandar Khan Lodi, the second son of Bahlol, succeeded him and assumed the title, Sikandar Shah.
• On July 15, 1489, he was crowned sultan by his father, who had nominated him to be his successor.

The correct answer is 'Relative Humidity'

Key Points

• Relative Humidity:
• Relative humidity is the ratio of the current absolute humidity to the highest possible absolute humidity (which depends on the current air temperature).
• It is expressed as a percentage, indicating how much moisture is in the air compared to how much moisture the air can hold at that temperature.
• Relative humidity gives a measure of the amount of water vapor in the air relative to the maximum amount the air can hold at the same temperature.
• This measure is crucial for understanding weather conditions, comfort levels, and the likelihood of precipitation.

Additional Information

• Absolute Humidity:
• Absolute humidity is the total mass of water vapor present in a given volume of air.
• It is usually expressed in grams of water vapor per cubic meter of air (g/m³).
• This measure does not change with temperature, making it less useful for everyday weather observations and forecasts.
• Specific Humidity:
• Specific humidity is the ratio of the mass of water vapor to the total mass of the air parcel.
• It is expressed as grams of water vapor per kilogram of air (g/kg).
• This measure remains constant regardless of changes in temperature or pressure, making it useful for meteorological studies.
• Mixing Ratio:
• The mixing ratio is the mass of water vapor compared to the mass of dry air in a given air parcel.
• It is usually expressed in grams of water vapor per kilogram of dry air (g/kg).
• This measure is important in the study of the atmosphere and weather patterns.

Important Points

• Understanding relative humidity is essential for predicting weather conditions such as fog, dew, and heat index.
• Relative humidity affects human comfort; high humidity can make temperatures feel warmer than they actually are.
• It also plays a significant role in various industries, such as HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning), agriculture, and manufacturing.

The correct answer is Aundh, 6^th Edition.

In News

• The 6^th edition of India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise DUSTLIK commenced at the Foreign Training Node in Aundh, Pune on April 16, 2025.

Key Points

• DUSTLIK-VI is the 6^th edition of the joint military exercise between India and Uzbekistan.
• It is being held from April 16 to 28, 2025, at the Foreign Training Node, Aundh (Pune), Maharashtra.
• The exercise focuses on joint sub-conventional operations in a semi-urban scenario, including counterterrorism, reconnaissance, and drone operations.
• The last edition of the exercise was held in Termez District, Uzbekistan in April 2024.

Additional Information

• Exercise DUSTLIK
• An annual bilateral military training exercise between Indian Army and Uzbekistan Army.
• Started in 2019 with the first edition held in Uzbekistan.
• Conducted alternately in India and Uzbekistan to enhance military cooperation and interoperability.
• Foreign Training Node, Aundh
• A premier training facility in Pune, Maharashtra, used by Indian Armed Forces for international joint exercises.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• As per the Census 2011, Maharashtra is the second most populous state in India.
• The population of Maharashtra as per Census 2011 is approximately 112.4 million.
• Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state, with a population of around 199.8 million.
• Other populous states include Bihar and West Bengal, but Maharashtra ranks second in terms of population.

Additional Information

• Census 2011
• The Census 2011 is the 15^th National Census survey conducted by the Census Organization of India.
• The census data includes demographic, social, and economic information of the population.
• It is conducted every 10 years to provide a snapshot of the country's population and its characteristics.
• Population Density
• Population density refers to the number of people living per unit area, usually per square kilometer.
• In 2011, the population density of India was 382 persons per square kilometer.
• Bihar is the most densely populated state with a density of 1,106 persons per square kilometer.
• Urbanization
• Urbanization refers to the increasing population in urban areas compared to rural areas.
• Maharashtra has a high rate of urbanization, with major cities like Mumbai, Pune, and Nagpur contributing significantly to its population.
• As of Census 2011, about 45% of Maharashtra's population resides in urban areas.
• Economic Contributions
• Maharashtra is one of the most economically significant states in India, contributing about 15% to the country's GDP.
• The state has a diverse economy with key industries such as manufacturing, IT, and finance.
• Mumbai, the capital city, is known as the financial capital of India.

The correct answer is Limestone.

Key Points

• Calcium carbonate is a chemical compound.
• The chemical formula of Calcium carbonate is CaCO₃.
• Limestone is a common type of carbonate sedimentary rock.
• It is a sedimentary rock made of calcium carbonate.
• Limestone may contain considerable amounts of magnesium carbonate (dolomite) as well.
• Limestone is used in the production of cement by heating powdered limestone with clay.
• Around 71% of all crushed stone produced in the U.S. is either limestone or dolomite.

Additional Information

• Washing soda is sodium carbonate containing 10 molecules of water of crystallisation(Na₂CO3.10H₂O).
• Sodium hydrogen carbonate is the chemical name of baking soda(NaHCO₃).
• Table salt consists of two elements, sodium (Na) and chloride (Cl).

The correct answer is MNREGA.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) is a flagship scheme by the Government of India aimed at providing guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per financial year to rural households.
• It was launched in 2005 under the Ministry of Rural Development.
• The scheme is demand-driven, meaning employment is provided upon request, ensuring work opportunities for rural households.
• Under MNREGA, employment is provided for unskilled manual labor, focusing primarily on building rural infrastructure such as roads, irrigation facilities, and water conservation structures.
• The scheme plays a critical role in poverty alleviation, rural development, and empowering marginalized communities, including women and Scheduled Castes/Tribes.

Additional Information

• Key Features of MNREGA:
• Focuses on sustainable development and asset creation such as water conservation and afforestation.
• Wages are paid according to minimum wage rates as notified by the state government.
• Payment is made through direct benefit transfer (DBT) into workers' bank accounts to ensure transparency.
• Employment Guarantee:
• MNREGA ensures legal entitlements for rural households to demand work.
• If employment is not provided within 15 days of demand, workers are entitled to unemployment allowance.
• Social Impact:
• Empowers women by providing equal wage opportunities and increased participation in the workforce.
• Promotes financial inclusion by providing work opportunities and wages directly to rural households.
• Monitoring and Implementation:
• Implemented by Gram Panchayats, ensuring local governance and accountability.
• Regular social audits are conducted to ensure transparency and prevent corruption.

The correct answer is Finance Commission.

Key Points

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution to recommend financial relations between the Union and the States.
• Under Article 275, the Finance Commission recommends statutory grants to states to ensure balanced regional development and mitigate disparities.
• These grants are given to states that require financial assistance to meet specific needs, such as social welfare, infrastructure development, or education.
• The Finance Commission submits its recommendations to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament for implementation.
• The grants are unconditional and are intended to supplement the resources of the states to enable them to perform their constitutional responsibilities.

Additional Information

• Finance Commission:
• Constituted every five years or earlier as deemed necessary by the President.
• Composed of a Chairperson and four other members with expertise in public finance and governance.
• The 15^th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, submitted its report for 2021-26.
• Article 275:
• Empowers Parliament to make grants-in-aid to states, as recommended by the Finance Commission.
• These grants aim to promote the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and develop their areas.
• Role of the Ministry of Finance:
• Although the Finance Commission makes recommendations, the Ministry of Finance oversees the disbursement of grants to states.
• It ensures that funds are allocated as per constitutional provisions and Commission recommendations.
• Difference from NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog focuses on policy formulation and cooperative federalism, while the Finance Commission deals with financial resource allocation.
• NITI Aayog does not have a constitutional mandate to recommend statutory grants.

The correct answer is Khuldabad.

In News

• In April 2025, the Maharashtra government announced the renaming of Khuldabad to ‘Ratnapur’, aligning with efforts to restore pre-Mughal names.

Key Points

• Khuldabad is a historical town located 25 km from Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar (formerly Aurangabad).
• The town houses the tomb of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb, as well as Azam Shah and Asaf Jah I.
• Minister Sanjay Shirsat cited the restoration of historical identity as the reason for the renaming.
• The move is part of the BJP-Shiv Sena government's cultural heritage reclamation drive.

Additional Information

• Aurangabad
• Renamed to Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar in 2023.
• Osmanabad
• Renamed to Dharashiv as part of the same initiative.
• Balotra
• A town in Rajasthan, known for rare earth discoveries, not related to this renaming scheme.

The correct answer is Manmad-CSMT Panchvati Express.

In News

• In a first-of-its-kind initiative, an Automated Teller Machine (ATM) was installed onboard the Manmad-CSMT Panchvati Express on a trial basis by Indian Railways.

Key Points

• The ATM was installed in the mini pantry space of the train, converted into a secure ATM zone by the mechanical team.
• The ATM was secured with rubber pads and bolts to reduce vibration and ensure safety.
• The initiative is part of Indian Railways’ ATM on Wheels project to boost non-fare revenue.
• This marks a step forward in Indian Railways' modernization drive under the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.

Additional Information

• Manmad-CSMT Panchvati Express
• A popular express train operating in Maharashtra between Manmad and Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus (CSMT), Mumbai.
• Selected as the first train for ATM installation under the new trial initiative.
• Viksit Bharat 2047
• A vision plan to transform infrastructure and services across sectors including Indian Railways.
• Kavach Technology
• An indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system being installed to improve train safety.
• Amrit Bharat Station Scheme
• A scheme for the redevelopment of over 1,300 railway stations with modern amenities and design.

The correct answer is Major Dhyan Chand Hockey Stadium, Jhansi.

In News

• The 15^th Hockey India Senior Men National Championship was held from April 4 to 15, 2025, at the Major Dhyan Chand Hockey Stadium in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The tournament features a division-based format with three levels: A, B, and C.
• Promotion and relegation battles have been introduced to increase competitiveness.
• Top Indian teams participated in Division A, including Hockey Association of Odisha and Hockey Haryana.
• Division A matches started from April 8, while Divisions B and C began on April 4.

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Hockey Stadium, Jhansi
• Named after India’s legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• Located in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.
• Hosting the 15^th edition of the Senior Men National Championship.
• Other Stadiums for Reference
• Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar: Frequently hosts international hockey events.
• Birsa Munda Stadium, Rourkela: One of the largest hockey stadiums in India.
• Dhyan Chand National Stadium, New Delhi: Historic venue used during the 2010 Commonwealth Games.

The correct answer is Ministry of Ayush.

In News

• The Ministry of Ayush conducted the Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme to enhance the professional skills of its employees.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Ayush organized the Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme to improve service orientation and professional skills.
• The programme was organized in collaboration with the Capacity Building Commission under the Mission Karmayogi framework.
• The programme was held in phases, focusing on self-awareness, motivation, leadership, and practical application of the training.
• Dr. Subodh Kumar and Ms. Shipra Singh led the second phase with an interactive, hands-on approach.
• Case studies from Ayurveda and Yoga were shared to provide practical context to the participants.

Additional Information

• Mission Karmayogi
• Launched by the Indian government to improve the performance of civil servants.
• Focuses on enhancing professional skills, leadership, and efficiency in government employees.
• Ayush Ministry
• The Ministry of Ayush is responsible for promoting traditional systems of medicine in India, including Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy.

The correct answer is Darjeeling Tea.

Key Points

• Darjeeling Tea got the first GI tag in 2004.
• Darjeeling Tea, Mahabaleshwar Strawberry, Blue Pottery of Jaipur, Banarasi Sarees, and TirupatiLaddus are some very famous examples of the GIs.

Additional Information

• The tagline of the GI tag is Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India.
• A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
• India has 236 GI products registered so far and over 270 more products have applied for the label.
• Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs.

The correct answer is Indirect Taxes.

Key Points

• The First Thing we could understand from the above discussion is that GDP (FC) is GDP (MP) minus indirect taxes plus subsidies. Here we can figure out that the more is the subsidy, the more is difference between the GDP(FC) & GDP (MP).
• We take the following example to understand this.
• We suppose that in a particular year, GDP(FC) is Rs. 100. In the same year, Indirect Taxes are Rs. 20 while the subsidies are Rs. 25. So, we can arrive at GDP(MP) using the following equation:
• GDP(FC) = GDP(MP) -Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
• Rs. 100 = GDP(MP) – Rs. 20 + Rs. 25
• So, GDP (MP) = Rs. 100 + Rs. 20- Rs. 25 = Rs. 95
• An indirect tax such as sales tax, per unit tax, value-added tax (VAT), or goods and services tax (GST ), excise, consumption tax, tariff is a tax collected by an intermediary (such as a retail store) from the person who bears the ultimate economic burden of the tax (such as the consumer).

Additional Information

About Direct Taxes:

• A direct tax is a tax for an Organisation Pays or Individual Directly to the Imposing Entity or Government of India.
• For example, ​A taxpayer, pays taxes directly to the government for different purposes, including personal property tax, income tax real property tax, and taxes on personal assets.
• It is based on the Principle of Ability to Pay. This Principle states that those people who have more Resources or earn a higher income than the government set norms should pay more taxes. The ability to charges tax is a uses way to redistribute the wealth of a Nation*.*
• A direct tax is the opposite of an Indirect Tax, where the tax is levied on One Entity, such as a Seller, and paid by another For example sales tax paid by the buyer in a retail setting.
• Both taxes are equally important to the nation. It is a source of revenue generation by the government and, therefore, distributed to its economy of the Nation.

Image of Comparison of Both the taxes:

Notes:

• The current Finance Minister of India is Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman (October 2020).
• The current Chief Commissioner of the Central Board of Direct Taxes is Mr. Pramod Chandra Mody (October 2020).

The correct answer is is not flammable.

Key Points

• Helium is an inert gas, meaning it does not react with other substances and is completely non-flammable, making it much safer than hydrogen for applications like filling balloons.
• Hydrogen is highly flammable and can cause explosions when mixed with air, making it unsuitable for such uses despite being lighter than helium.
• Helium is a noble gas, part of group 18 of the periodic table, which is characterized by its chemical stability and inertness.
• Due to its non-flammable nature, helium is widely used in applications requiring safety, such as weather balloons, blimps, and party balloons.
• While helium is lighter than air and provides buoyancy, it is slightly heavier than hydrogen but is preferred due to its superior safety profile.

Additional Information

• Noble Gases: Helium is one of the noble gases, which include neon, argon, krypton, xenon, and radon. These gases are known for their chemical inertness due to having a complete outer electron shell.
• Hydrogen Flammability: Hydrogen is highly flammable and was historically used in airships, but catastrophic accidents like the Hindenburg disaster highlighted its dangers.
• Helium Sources: Helium is typically extracted from natural gas deposits. It is a finite resource, making its conservation important for scientific and medical applications.
• Applications of Helium: Beyond its use in balloons, helium is critical in cryogenics, MRI machines, as a protective gas in welding, and as a coolant for nuclear reactors.
• Density Comparison: Hydrogen has the lowest density of all gases, but helium is chosen for applications requiring buoyancy because of its safety and inertness.

The correct answer is Non-plan expenditure.

Key Points

• The plan and non-plan expenditure was a major exercise in India during the planning era.
• Government of India has now scrapped that system in budget exercise and their place has been now taken by capital and revenue spending classifications.
• Earlier, all expenditures which were done in the name of planning were called plan expenditures.
• While all other expenditures were placed under non-plan expenditures.

Additional Information

• Important non-plan revenue expenditures included the following:
• Interest payments on the loans taken by the Government of India
• Expenditure incurred on Defence Services (except Defence Equipment which is a capital expenditure)
• Subsidies
• Grants to the states and UTs, including those from calamity fund
• Pensions, Social services such as healthcare, education, social security etc.
• Police
• Economic services by the government such as Agriculture, Industry, Power, Science & Technology
• Grants to Foreign Governments
• Non-Plan Capital Expenditure included the following:
• Defence Equipment and modernization
• Loans to Public sector companies
• Loans to states and union territories.

The correct answer is Part III.

Key Points

• Part III of the Indian Constitution is referred to as the "Magna Carta of India" because it enshrines the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
• These rights are deemed essential for the development of individuals and the preservation of human dignity.
• Fundamental Rights include key provisions such as Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right to Constitutional Remedies, etc.
• They are enforceable by the courts, and any violation can be challenged under Article 32 in the Supreme Court or Article 226 in High Courts.
• Originally, there were seven Fundamental Rights, but the Right to Property (Article 31) was removed in 1978 by the 44^th Amendment, reducing the count to six.

Additional Information

• Magna Carta: Originally a charter of rights agreed to by King John of England in 1215, the Magna Carta is considered a cornerstone of modern constitutional governance and the rule of law.
• Fundamental Rights: These are classified into six broad categories:
• Right to Equality (Articles 14–18)
• Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22)
• Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23–24)
• Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28)
• Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30)
• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
• Article 32: Described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the "heart and soul of the Constitution," it allows individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• 44^th Amendment (1978): This amendment abolished the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right, making it a legal right under Article 300A.
• Directive Principles vs. Fundamental Rights: While Fundamental Rights are justiciable, Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) are non-justiciable but aim to establish a welfare state.

The correct answer is Habeas Corpus.

Key Points

• Habeas Corpus is a writ that protects an individual's fundamental right to personal liberty under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Indian Constitution.
• It literally translates to "You may have the body" and ensures that a detained person is brought before the court.
• The primary purpose of this writ is to prevent unlawful detention and secure a person's release if the detention is found illegal.
• The court investigates the legality of the detention and ensures that the detainee is either released or provided with legal justification for detention.
• This writ acts as a safeguard against arbitrary arrests by any authority, ensuring judicial oversight in matters of personal liberty.

Additional Information

• Certiorari: A writ issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to transfer a case for review or to quash an order that exceeds jurisdiction.
• Mandamus: A writ issued to a public official or body directing them to perform a duty that they are obligated to do under the law.
• Prohibition: A writ issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the law.
• Fundamental Rights: Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution empower individuals to seek remedies through writ petitions for the enforcement of their fundamental rights.
• Judicial Oversight: Writs like Habeas Corpus are vital for maintaining the rule of law and ensuring that executive authorities do not misuse their powers.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

1. Forms of oath → 3^rd Schedule

• ✔️ Correct. The Third Schedule specifies forms of oath or affirmation for Union/State ministers, MPs, MLAs, judges, etc.

2. Allocation of seats in the Council of States → 4^th Schedule

• ✔️ Correct. The Fourth Schedule deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

3. Administration of scheduled areas → 6^th Schedule

• ❌ Incorrect.
• Fifth Schedule → Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Sixth Schedule → Administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (Autonomous District Councils).

4. Union List → 7^th Schedule

• ✔️ Correct. The Seventh Schedule contains Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.

✅ Correct Answer:

• 3. Administration of scheduled areas – 6^th schedule
• (It should be 5^th Schedule, not 6^th.)

The Correct answer is 101^st Constitutional Amendment.

Key Points

• The 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 2016, introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India, marking a landmark reform in the country's indirect taxation system.
• GST is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based tax that is levied on every value addition. It subsumed numerous indirect taxes like excise duty, service tax, VAT, etc.
• The GST aims to create a unified national market, simplifying tax compliance and reducing economic distortions by eliminating cascading tax effects.
• Through this amendment, a new Article 246A was inserted into the Constitution, granting both the Union and the States the power to legislate on GST.
• The GST Council was established under Article 279A as a constitutional body responsible for making recommendations on GST rates, exemptions, thresholds, and other aspects.
• The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes State Finance Ministers as members, ensuring a federal structure for tax governance.
• This amendment was pivotal in transforming India's taxation system and is considered one of the most significant economic reforms in post-independence India.

Additional Information

• 100^th Constitutional Amendment
• The 100^th Amendment of the Constitution dealt with the India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement. It was ratified in 2015, facilitating the exchange of enclaves between the two countries.
• This amendment resolved a long-standing border dispute and aimed to improve bilateral relations between India and Bangladesh.
• 102^nd Constitutional Amendment
• The 102^nd Amendment, enacted in 2018, provided constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
• It inserted Article 338B and 342A into the Constitution, empowering NCBC to address grievances and recommend measures for the welfare of backward classes.
• 103^rd Constitutional Amendment
• The 103^rd Amendment, passed in 2019, introduced the provision for 10% reservation in government jobs and educational institutions for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society.
• It inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), enabling affirmative action for economically disadvantaged individuals who are not covered under existing reservation schemes.

The Correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Key Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, popularly known as the “Father of Indian Unrest”, was one of the most prominent freedom fighters of India.
• Tilak organized the two important festivals: Ganesh Utsav and Shivaji Jayanti, to unite people and instill a sense of nationalism.
• The Ganesh Utsav was intended to bring people together, cutting across caste and class barriers, and to promote the spirit of patriotism through cultural and social activities.
• Through the celebration of Shivaji Jayanti, Tilak aimed to inspire people by reminding them of the valor and leadership of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, the great Maratha ruler who fought against foreign domination.
• Tilak used these festivals as a platform for political awareness and the promotion of the Swaraj (self-rule) movement.
• He was deeply committed to the idea of combining religion, culture, and politics to galvanize public support for India's freedom struggle.
• Tilak’s efforts in organizing such festivals were instrumental in fostering unity among Indians during the British colonial era.

Additional Information

• Lal Bahadur Shastri
• Lal Bahadur Shastri was the second Prime Minister of India and is best remembered for his slogan "Jai Jawan Jai Kisan" during the Indo-Pak war of 1965.
• He was known for his simplicity and integrity and played a significant role in India's Green Revolution to boost agricultural production.
• Shastri was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor, posthumously in 1966.
• Lala Lajpat Rai
• Lala Lajpat Rai, also known as the "Lion of Punjab", was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement.
• He was associated with the Swadeshi Movement and was one of the leaders of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal).
• He led the protest against the Simon Commission in 1928 and succumbed to injuries sustained during police brutality.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a prominent social reformer and educator in 19^th-century India.
• He was instrumental in the passage of the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act, 1856, which allowed widows to remarry.
• Vidyasagar made significant contributions to the field of education, including the introduction of modern Bengali prose and advocating for women's education.

The correct answer is Bases which are soluble in water.

Key Points

• Alkaloids are naturally occurring organic compounds containing nitrogen, mostly found in plants.
• They typically act as weak bases due to the presence of an amine group in their structure.
• Most alkaloids are soluble in water, especially in their salt form (e.g., hydrochloride salts).
• These compounds often have pharmacological properties and are widely used in medicine (e.g., morphine, quinine, caffeine).
• Alkaloids can form salts with acids, enhancing their solubility in water and increasing their bioavailability.

Additional Information

• Definition of Alkaloids: Alkaloids are nitrogenous organic compounds derived from plants, fungi, or microorganisms. They are known for their bitter taste and physiological effects on humans and animals.
• Types of Alkaloids: Examples include purine alkaloids (caffeine), tropane alkaloids (atropine), and isoquinoline alkaloids (morphine).
• Uses: Alkaloids are used in various fields such as medicine (pain relief, anti-malaria), agriculture (pesticides), and research.
• Solubility: Free alkaloids are often insoluble in water but become water-soluble when converted to their salt forms through reactions with acids.
• Common Sources: Found in plants like coffee, tea, tobacco, and opium poppy, alkaloids are concentrated in specific parts such as leaves, roots, and seeds.

The correct answer is Virus.

Key Points

• Hepatitis B is caused by the Hepatitis B Virus (HBV), which primarily affects the liver.
• HBV is a DNA virus and is part of the Hepadnaviridae family.
• Hepatitis B spreads through contact with infected blood, bodily fluids, or from mother to child during childbirth.
• It can cause both acute and chronic liver infections, potentially leading to liver cirrhosis or liver cancer if untreated.
• Vaccination against Hepatitis B is highly effective and is part of the WHO-recommended immunization schedule.

Additional Information

• Hepatitis B Virus (HBV):
• HBV is a small, enveloped DNA virus that replicates in liver cells.
• It has a unique replication cycle involving reverse transcription, similar to retroviruses.
• Modes of Transmission:
• Unprotected sexual contact with an infected person.
• Sharing needles or syringes contaminated with infected blood.
• Use of non-sterilized medical or dental equipment.
• Symptoms of Hepatitis B:
• Acute symptoms include jaundice, fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea, and dark urine.
• Chronic infections may remain asymptomatic for years but can result in severe liver damage over time.
• Prevention and Treatment:
• The Hepatitis B vaccine offers over 95% protection against infection.
• Antiviral medications, such as tenofovir or entecavir, are used to manage chronic cases.
• Screening of blood and blood products prevents transmission through transfusions.

1. DWKP → D is reverse of W, K is reverse of P and K – D = W – P = 7

2. GTNM → G is reverse of T, N is reverse of M and N – G = T – M = 7

3. LOQJ → L is reverse of O, Q is reverse of J and Q – L = O – J = 5

4. FUMN → F is reverse of U, M is reverse of N and M – F = U – N = 7

Hence, LOQJ is the odd one.

The logic followed here is:

Port Louis, Yerevan, Manama all are the capital of the country except Georgia which itself is a country.

Hence, the correct answer is "Georgia".

Additional Information

• Recently, Armenia is in the news because of the war with Azerbaijan over the disputed area of Nagorno-Karabakh.
• Bahrain is in the news for the signing of the historic Abraham Accord, which is the first Arab-Israeli peace deal in 26 years.

Position of Mohan from Left: 33

Lallu’s position = 17^th to the right of Mohan.

So Lallu’s position from left end is 33 + 17 = 50.

Lallu is 35^th from right end.

Total Numbers of boys sitting in the row = 50 + 35 - 1 = 84

Mohan’s position from Right end = 84 - 33 + 1 = 52

Hence, the position of mohan from the right end is 52.

Hence, ‘4’ is the code of ‘true’.

H = F + Z # P + K % L → H is the brother of F, F is the mother of Z, Z is the husband of P, P is the mother of K, K is the paternal uncle of L.

Clearly, ‘Z’ is the grandfather of ‘L’.

The pattern followed here is:

M – 7 = F, M = 13, F = 6, Number = 13 + 6 = 19

M + 5 = R

R – 7 = K, R = 18, K = 11, Number = 18 + 11 = 29

R + 5 = W

W – 7 = P, W = 23, P = 16, Number = 23 + 16 = 39

Next term will be:

W + 5 = B

B – 7 = U, B = 2, U = 21, 2 + 21 = 23.

Hence, ‘BU23’ will complete the given series.

The logic is,

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘ELLOCNOITC’ is the correct answer.

We see that option 1) completes the pattern and after completing the pattern, figure should look like:

Hence, the correct answer is option 1).

World Teacher’s day = 5^th October

Independence day = 15^th August

Total number of days from 16^th August to 5^th october

= 16 + 30 + 5 

= 51 days

= 2 odd days (remainder after dividing by 7) 

15^th August was on Tuesday. Therefore, 1^st October will be after 2 days from tuesday.

Thus, 5^th October will be on Thursday.

Hence, “Thursday” is the correct answer.

Mistake PointsDon't get confused between the 'Teacher's day' and the 'World Teacher's Day'.

The question is talking about 'World Teacher's Day'.

World Teacher's Day is celebrated on 5 October.

Teacher's Day is celebrated on 5 September.

The possible Venn diagram is as follows:

For conclusions:

I. Some flowers are trees → True (Some trees are flowers then some flowers are also trees)

II. Some tins are trucks → True (All rivers are trees then some trees are rivers and some hills are rivers. Therefore some trees are hills)

Hence, "Both conclusions I and conclusion II follow" is correct.

Given series - 

Left Side Z 2 @ P N S 7 8 A B & 5 K R 6 # L F 3 + D * 3 $ V E M 9 H 4 * O Q Right Side

1) after all the symbols are dropped series is

Left Side Z 2 P N S 7 8 A B 5 K R 6 L F 3 D 3 V E M 9 H 4 O Q Right Side

2. As, Right – Right = Right

10^th from the Right – 5^th from the Right = 5^th from the Right

Z 2 P N S 7 8 A B 5 K R 6 L F 3 D 3 V E M 9 H 4 O Q

Clearly, 5^th from the Right is 9$

The pattern follows here is:

Letters are getting added by series of prime numbers

Similarly,

Hence, YRWRD is the correct answer.

We know that the clock runs 5 min faster for every hour.

Now time difference is 8 AM to 8 PM = 12 hrs.

Therefore, for 12 hours the clock will be ahead of time by 12 × 5 min = 60 min

So, the time will be 8 PM + 1 hr. = 9 PM.

Hence, the correct answer is 9 PM.

Given expression : 96 × 12 + 40 - 3 ÷ 9 = 21

Option 1 : ÷ and +

96 × 12 ÷ 40 - 3 + 9

96 × 0.3 - 3 + 9

28.8 - 3 + 9

37.8 - 3

34.8

34.8 ≠ 21

Option 2 : + and  -

96 × 12 - 40 + 3 ÷ 9

96 × 12 - 40 + 0.33

1152 - 40 + 0.33

1152.33 - 40

1112.33

1112.33 ≠ 21

Option 3 :  ÷ and ×

96 ÷ 12 + 40 - 3 × 9

8 + 40 - 3 × 9

8 + 40 - 27

48 - 27

21

21 = 21

Option 4 : × and +

96 + 12 × 40 - 3 ÷ 9

96 + 12 × 40 - 0.33

96 + 480 - 0.33

576 - 0.33

575.67

575.67 ≠ 21

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

R ≥ A ≤ B = M; O > G ≥ R; M > Q ≤ Z

On Combining:

O > G ≥ R ≥ A ≤ B = M > Q ≤ Z

Conclusions:

1. A < O → True (as O > G ≥ R ≥ A)
2. B = Q → False (as B = M > Q; therefore B > Q)
3. G < M → False (as G ≥ R ≥ A ≤ B = M; thus, a clear relation between G and M cannot be established)
4. R > B → False (as G ≥ R ≥ A ≤ B; thus, a clear relation between R and B cannot be established)

Hence, “A < O” is definitely true among the given options.

The patter is as follows:

The difference is prime numbers i.e. 2, 3, 5, 7

Hence, “CB” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is,

Option 1 → 7, 350 → 7³ + 7 = 350

Option 2 → 6, 220 → 6³ + 6 ≠ 220

Option 3 → 8, 520 → 8³ + 8 = 520

Option 4 → 9, 738 → 9³ + 9 = 738

All option follows the same pattern, except ‘6, 220’

Hence, 6, 220 is the correct answer.

The diagrammatic representation of the coded statements is as follows:

Hence, the code for ''red" is ''loli".

The arrangement will be as shown below:

If the location of E is replaced by B, the location of C is shifted from place of G and the location of A is replaced by F.

After replacement, the arrangement will be as shown below:

Hence, ‘D’ will be the third position on the right of C.

The logic followed here is:

In each set we can see that first letter + 4 = last letter

Like in M144Q → M + 4 = Q

Also, place value of M is 13 so (13 – 1)² = 144.

In H49L → H + 4 = L

Also, place value of H is 8 so (8 – 1)² = 49.

Similarly,

In the given options only in option D9H, the given logic is used.

D9H → D + 4 = H

Place value of D is 4 so (4 – 1)² = 9.

So, D9H is the answer.

The sequence followed here is,

300 – (17 × 6) = 300 – 102 = 198,

198 – (17 × 5) = 198 – 85 = 113,

113 - (17 × 4) = 113 – 68 = 45,

45 - (17 × 3) = 45 – 51 = -6,

Similarly, we have,

-6 - (17 × 2) = - 6 – 34 = -40

Hence, ‘-40’ is the correct answer.

1. B faces the person who seat second to the right of R. 2. P is adjacent to R. 3. P does not sit any extreme end.

4. C is second to the right of D.
5. S does not seat at any of the corner. R faces A.

Hence, Case-1 is eliminated.

Hence, only one person sit between P and Q.

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then we will get this mirror image – 

Hence, ‘option 3’ is the correct answer.

The diagram is given below,

As we know, in the morning the sun is always in the east and his shadow falls on the left of him i.e., Natasha's face was toward the north at the final position. 

Hence, **"**North" is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick1) In the morning, Natasha was starting to walk 5 m straight.

2. She turned 45° anticlockwise direction and covered 9 m.

3) She turned 90° clockwise direction and covered 12 m.

4) She turned 45° clockwise direction and covered 7 m

5. Again, She turned 45° anticlockwise direction and covered 11 m.

Now,

the total turn = (90° clockwise + 45° clockwise) - (45° anticlockwise + 45° anticlockwise)

= 135° clockwise - 90° anticlockwise

= 45° clockwise.

So, Natasha takes one 45° clockwise turn, after starting to walk 5 m straight. And, She noticed that she is facing in the North-East direction.

That means She will be started walking from the North direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "North".

The logic follows here is :-

Similarly,

Thus, the correct answer is 'ELGBLSMZY'.

Anklets are made from Silver, which is obtained after Processing from the Ore, which in turn is taken from the Mine.

Hence the correct order is '4, 3, 5, 1, 2'.

alphabets are repeated numerically after A to Z,

A = 1, B = 2 ... Z = 26 then repeat alphabet A = 27, B = 28, C = 29 and so on multiple of 26 (A to Z).

The remainder after multiple of 26 is the next value in the series.

DC → 4² - 3² = 7 → G

HF → 8² - 6² = 28

= 26 × 1 + 2

= 2 → B

TO → 20² - 15² = 175

= 26 × 6 + 19

= 19 → S

Similarly,

ZY → 26² - 25² = 51

= 26 × 1 + 25

= 25 → Y

Hence, Y is the correct answer.

Here, 

1. In the figure 2 first vertical line, all letters +1 are done like M + 1 = N, D + 1 = E and T + 1 = U.
2. In the figure 3 second vertical line, all letters -1 are done like G - 1 = F, I - 1 = H and Z - 1 = Y.
3. In the figure 4 third vertical line, all letters +1 are done like L + 1 = M, R + 1 = S and P + 1 = Q.
4. In the figure 5 first vertical line, all letters +1 are done like N + 1 = O, E + 1 = F and U + 1 = V.

Following the same pattern, we get

Hence, option (2) is the next figure in the given sequence.

The pattern followed here is:

0² = 0

(0 + 1)2 = 1² = 1

(1 + 2)2 = 3² = 9

(3 + 3)2 = 6² = 36

(6 + 4)2 = 102 = 100

(10 + 5)2 = 152 = 225

Hence, 225 is the correct answer.

The pattern for the code is as follows:-

Similarly,

Hence, PUBLIC will be written as XSNDDJ.

• The statement shares a declaration made by the Government to provide food to 80 crore poor citizens of the country during May and June.
• From what is supplied we cannot conclude that Government has surplus/spare funds to incur such expenses. Therefore conclusion I does not follow.
• But, from the statement, we can deduce that some citizens in the country might be in desperate need of help from the government as the statement says the food is being provided to the poor. Therefore, conclusion II follows.
• Hence, Only conclusion II  is true.

The require number will lie in intersection of triangle, square and circle.

Hence, 72 is the correct answer.

Veterinarian is the doctor for animals.

Similarly, Orthopedic is the doctor for bones.

Hence, “Bone” is the correct answer.

The possible Venn diagram is as follows: 

For conclusions:

I. No pen is paper → True 

II. Some books are newspapers → True 

Hence, both conclusions I and conclusion II follow is correct.

The relation among given numbers is

The relation among given letters is

Hence, Z, 1 will complete the series.

Concept use:

Volume of Sphere = (4/3)πR3

Surface area of Sphere = 4πR2

Calculation:

Ratio of surface area of two spheres = 16 : 9

Volume of sphere = (4/3)πR3

Surface area of sphere = 4πR2

According to the question,

⇒ 4πR2 / 4πr2 = 16 / 9

⇒ R2 / r2 = 16 / 9

⇒ R / r = 4 / 3

Ratio of volume of sphere = (4/3)πR3 :(4/3)πr3

= 43 / 33 = 64 : 27

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

Candidate secured votes = 47%

Difference in votes = 276

Formula used:

Let total votes be V.

Votes secured by the winning candidate = 53% of V

Votes secured by the losing candidate = 47% of V

Difference = 53% of V - 47% of V

Calculation:

276 = 53% of V - 47% of V

⇒ 276 = (53/100)V - (47/100)V

⇒ 276 = (6/100)V

⇒ 276 = 0.06V

⇒ V = 276 / 0.06

⇒ V = 4600

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

A sum of Rs. 9,500 amount to Rs. 11,780 at the rate of 8% per annum at simple interest

Formula used:

Simple interest = P × R × T / 100 [ P = principal, R = rate of interest, T = time]

Calculation:

Let, Time  = T

Simple interest is  (11780 - 9500) = 2280

As per the question,

⇒2280 = 9500 × 8 × T / 100

⇒ T = 3 years

Given:

The expression = $\sqrt{16 + \sqrt{60 + \sqrt{408 + \sqrt{1089}}}}$

Concept:

(A^1/2)² = A

Calculation:

⇒ √[16 + √{60 + √(408 + √1089)}]

⇒ √[16 + √{60 + √(408 + 33)}]

⇒ √[16 + √{60 + √441}]

⇒ √[16 + √{60 + 21}]

⇒ √[16 + √81]

⇒ √[16 + 9]

⇒ √25 = 5

∴ The required result will be 5.

Concept Used:

We know that the product of two numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM.

Calculation:

 Let the second number be x. Then, we have:

HCF of 74 and x = 37

LCM of 74 and x = 518

Product of HCF and LCM = 37 × 518 = 19166

Product of 74 and x = HCF × LCM = 37 × 518 = 19166

⇒ x = 19166/74 = 259

Therefore, the second number is 259.

Given:

(1/4)th of the tank fills in 3 hours

Calculation:

Remaining portion of a tank = 1 – (1/4)

= 3/4

(1/4)th of a tank = 3 hours

Full container fill = 3 × 4

⇒ 12 hours

(3/4)th tank fills = 12 × (3/4)

⇒ 9 hours

∴ 9 hours more required by pipe to fill the tank.

Given:

The ratio of the number of red and blue coins in a bag is 5 : 4.

There are 16 blue coins.

Formula Used:

Number of red coins = (Ratio of red coins / Ratio of blue coins) × Number of blue coins

Calculation:

Ratio of red coins = 5

Ratio of blue coins = 4

Number of blue coins = 16

Number of red coins = (5 / 4) × 16

⇒ Number of red coins = 5 × 4

⇒ Number of red coins = 20

The number of red coins in the bag is 20.

Given:

Five years ago, the average age of a couple was 24 years.

At present, the average age of the couple and a child is 20 years.

Formula Used:

Average age = Sum of ages / Number of individuals

Calculation:

Let the ages of the couple five years ago be x and y.

Given that 5 years ago, their average age was 24:

$\frac{x + y}{2} = 24$

⇒ x + y = 48 (Equation 1)

At present, their ages would be x + 5 and y + 5.

Let the child's present age be z.

Given that the current average age of the couple and the child is 20:

$\frac{(x + 5) + (y + 5) + z}{3} = 20$

⇒ x + y + 10 + z = 60

Substitute Equation 1 into the above equation:

⇒ 48 + 10 + z = 60

⇒ 58 + z = 60

⇒ z = 60 - 58

⇒ z = 2

The child's age is 2 years.

Shortcut Trick

Given: (2/5) × (3/8) × (1/6) × Number = 52

⇒ (1/5) × (1/8) × (1/1) × Number = 52 × 3 (Simplifying 2/6 to 1/3 and cancelling 3)

⇒ (1/40) × Number = 52

⇒ Number = 52 × 40 = 2080

⇒ 40% of 2080 = 0.4 × 2080 = 832

∴ The correct answer is 832.

Alternate Method

Given:

Fractional value = 52

Fractions involved = 2/5, 3/8, and 1/6

Calculations:

⇒ Let the certain number be x.

⇒ (2/5) × (3/8) × (1/6) × x = 52

⇒ (6/240) × x = 52

⇒ (1/40) × x = 52

⇒ x = 52 × 40 = 2080

⇒ Required value = 40% of 2080

⇒ Required value = (40/100) × 2080

⇒ Required value = 4 × 208 = 832

∴ The correct answer is 832.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To convert a percentage to a fraction, divide by 100. Example: 40% = 40/100 = 2/5.

Product of Fractions

When dealing with 'of' in mathematics, it signifies multiplication. (a/b) of (c/d) = (a×c)/(b×d).

Base Change Rule

If a% of b = c, then b = (c × 100)/a. This helps in finding the original number quickly.

Shortcut Trick

Since Expenditure = 2/3 of Income, the Ratio of Expenditure to Savings = 2 : 1.

Total Income ratio = 2 + 1 = 3.

Using the weighted average method for percentage changes (Income = Exp + Sav):

3 × 18% = 2 × 24% + 1 × x%

54% = 48% + x% ⇒ x = 6%

∴ The correct answer is 6%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expenditure = 2/3 of Income

Income increases by 18% and Expenditure increases by 24%.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial income be 300 units.

⇒ Initial Expenditure = (2 ÷ 3) × 300 = 200 units

⇒ Initial Savings = 300 − 200 = 100 units

⇒ New Income = 300 + (18% of 300) = 300 + 54 = 354 units

⇒ New Expenditure = 200 + (24% of 200) = 200 + 48 = 248 units

⇒ New Savings = New Income − New Expenditure

⇒ New Savings = 354 − 248 = 106 units

⇒ Increase in Savings = 106 − 100 = 6 units

⇒ Percentage Increase = (Increase ÷ Initial Savings) × 100%

⇒ Percentage Increase = (6 ÷ 100) × 100% = 6%

∴ The correct answer is 6%.

Additional Information

Income, Expenditure & Savings Relation

Income = Expenditure + Savings. The percentage change in total income is always equal to the weighted average of the percentage changes in expenditure and savings.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Change = ((New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value) × 100. A positive result indicates an increase, while a negative result indicates a decrease.

Base Value Concept

When calculating percentage increase or decrease, the original or initial value is always taken as the base value (100%).

Given:- 

A sum of ₹7,000 deposited at compound interest becomes triple of itself after 4 years

Formula used:-

(1) Amount = Principal + Compound Interest   

(2)   $C.I = P(1 + \frac{R}{100} )^T$ 

Where C. I = Compound Interest,

P = Principal

R = Rate

T = Time 

Calculation:-

 A sum of ₹7,000 deposited at compound interest

becomes triple of itself after 4 years.

So money after 4 years = 7000 × 3  = 21000 

We know that  Amount = Principal + $P(1 + \frac{R}{100} )^T$   

⇒ 21000 = 7000( 1 + (R/100)⁴ 

⇒ ( 1 + (R/100)4 = 3 

Now apply the cube in the above equation.

⇒ [ ( 1 + (R/100)4]³ = 3³  

.

⇒ [ ( 1 + (R/100)]¹² = 27  

So from the above equation,

We can say that after 12 years money will be 27 times itself   

Hence money after 12 years = 27 × 7000 = 189000 

∴ The required answer is 189000

Shortcut Trick LCM of 20 and 12 = 60 eggs. Cost Price (CP) of 60 eggs = 3 × ₹7 = ₹21. Selling Price (SP) of 60 eggs = 5 × ₹7.20 = ₹36. Profit earned on 60 eggs = ₹36 − ₹21 = ₹15. Since ₹15 profit is on 60 eggs, ₹30 profit will be on (60 ÷ 15) × 30 = 120 eggs. ∴ The correct answer is 120 eggs.

Alternate Method Given: Cost Price (CP) of 20 eggs = ₹7 Selling Price (SP) of 12 eggs = ₹7.20 Total Profit earned = ₹30

Formula: Profit = Selling Price (SP) − Cost Price (CP) ⇒ CP of 1 egg = 7 ÷ 20 = ₹0.35 ⇒ SP of 1 egg = 7.20 ÷ 12 = ₹0.60 ⇒ Profit earned on 1 egg = 0.60 − 0.35 = ₹0.25 ⇒ Let the number of eggs bought be 'n'. ⇒ Total Profit = n × Profit per egg ⇒ 30 = n × 0.25 ⇒ n = 30 ÷ 0.25 ⇒ n = 3000 ÷ 25 ⇒ n = 120 Thus, the total number of eggs bought by Meena is 120, which corresponds to Option (2). ∴ The correct answer is 120 eggs.

Additional Information Unitary Method in Profit & Loss Always calculate the CP and SP for a single unit to simplify calculations when quantities for buying and selling are different. Profit Percentage Formula Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100. In this case, Profit % = (0.25 ÷ 0.35) × 100 ≈ 71.42%. Relationship between CP, SP and Profit If SP > CP, it is a Profit. If CP > SP, it is a Loss. Total Profit = Quantity × (SP per unit − CP per unit).

Shortcut Trick

Successive discount formula = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100

Net discount = 12 + 12 − (12 × 12) ÷ 100 = 24 − 1.44 = 22.56%

Selling Price (SP) = 100% − 22.56% = 77.44% of Marked Price (MP)

SP = 12500 × 0.7744 = 9680

Alternatively, using multiplier: SP = 12500 × (88 ÷ 100) × (88 ÷ 100) = 125 × 0.88 × 88 = 9680

∴ The correct answer is ₹9680.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = ₹12,500 | Discount₁ = 12% | Discount₂ = 12%

Formulas: SP = MP × (100 − D₁)% × (100 − D₂)%

⇒ Price after 1^st discount = 12500 − (12% of 12500)

⇒ Price after 1^st discount = 12500 − 1500 = ₹11,000

⇒ Final Selling Price = 11000 − (12% of 11000)

⇒ Final Selling Price = 11000 − 1320 = ₹9,680

∴ The correct answer is ₹9680.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two or more discounts are applied one after another, the second discount is calculated on the reduced price. Formula: Net D% = (d₁ + d₂ − d₁d₂/100)%.

Marked Price vs Selling Price

The Marked Price (MP) is the tag price, while the Selling Price (SP) is the actual amount paid after subtracting the Discount.

Shortcut Trick

When an item is replaced, use the net deviation method: New Value = Old Value + (Total Number × Change in Average)

Given, Total Number of boys = 5

Average weight increases by 9 kg, so Total Increase = 5 × 9 = 45 kg

Weight of the new boy = Weight of replaced boy + Total Increase

Weight of the new boy = 39 + 45 = 84 kg

∴ The correct answer is 84 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of boys = 5

Average increase in weight = 9 kg

Weight of the boy who is replaced = 39 kg

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all values ÷ Total number of values

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial average weight of 5 boys be 'A' kg.

⇒ Total weight of 5 boys initially = 5 × A = 5A kg

⇒ Total weight after replacement = 5A − 39 + Weight of new boy

⇒ The new average weight becomes = A + 9

⇒ New total weight = 5 × (A + 9) = 5A + 45

⇒ Equating the new total weights:

⇒ 5A − 39 + Weight of new boy = 5A + 45

⇒ Weight of new boy = 45 + 39

⇒ Weight of new boy = 84 kg

∴ The correct answer is 84 kg.

Additional Information

Average Formula

Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations.

Net Deviation Method (Replacement Method)

When an entity is replaced without changing the total count, the change in total sum is strictly equal to (Number of observations × Change in Average).

Combined Average

If two groups with sizes n₁ and n₂ have averages A₁ and A₂, the Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Given:

Distance = 20 km

Time = 15 minutes

Calculation:

Speed of car = Distance/Time = 20/(15/60) = 80 km/hr

When speed is decreased by 10 km/hr,

Speed of car = 80 – 10 = 70 km/hr

∴ Time taken to cover same distance = 20/70 = 2/7 hrs = (2/7) × 60 = 120/7 minutes

Given:

Radius of metallic cylinder = 3 cm 

Height of metallic cylinder = 5 cm 

Height of cone to be formed = 1 cm 

Radius of cone to be formed = 1 mm or 0.1 cm 

Formulas used:

Volume of cylinder = πR²H 

Volume of cone = 1/3 × πr²h 

Calculation:

Radius and height of the cylinder is R = 3 cm, H = 5 cm respectively. 

Radius and height of the cone is r = 0.1 cm, h = 1 cm respectively. 

As per the question;

Volume of metallic cylinder = No of cones × Volume of a cone 

⇒ π × 3 × 3 × 5 = No of cones × 1/3 × π × 0.1 × 0.1 × 1 

⇒ No of cones =  (3 × 3 × 5 × 3)/(0.1 × 0.1) 

⇒  No of cones = 13500 

∴ The number of cones formed is 13500. 

 Mistake Points

1 cm = 10 mm 

0.1 cm = 1 mm

Given:

A 120m long train crosses a 280m long tunnel in 20 seconds.

Formula Used:

Time = [ L1 + L2] / Relative speed

Where, L1 = length of train; L2 = length of object that train is crossing

Relative Speed (RS) = Speed of train + speed of platform(= 0)  

Calculation:

20 seconds = [120 + 280]/RS

⇒ 20 seconds = [120 + 280]/Speed of train [∵ speed of platform = 0]

⇒ Speed of train = 400/20 = 20 m/s

Now, time taken by train to cross the pole = Distance/Speed

Also, length of pole = 0 and speed of pole = 0

⇒ Time taken by train to cross the pole = Length of train / Speed of train

= 120/20 = 6 seconds

Given:

(Raju + Rajat) together complete the work = 5 days

Raju alone can complete the work = 7 days.

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

Now,

Efficiency of Rajat = (7 - 5) = 2 unit/day

Time taken to complete the work by Rajat = 35/2 = 17.5 days

∴ The correct answer is 17.5 days.

GIVEN:

Ram : Shiv = 9 : 11

difference = 4 years

EXPLANATION:

let Ram's age be 9x 

∴ Shiv's age = 11x

difference = 11x - 9x = 2x

A.T.Q 

2x = 4 years 

x = 2 years 

Ram's age after 4 years = (9 × 2) + 4 = 22 years 

Shiv's age after 4 years = (11 × 2) + 4 = 26 years

Requires ratio = 22/26 = 11 : 13

∴ the ratio will be 11 : 13

2 ratio = 4 years (difference)

after 4 years 2 ratios will increase in ages of both 

∴ required ratio = (9 + 2) :(11 + 2) = 11 : 13

∴ the ratio will be 11 : 13

Given:

CP of 13 books = SP of 17 books

Formula Used:

Loss % = (CP - SP)/CP × 100

Calculation:

CP × 13 = SP × 17

⇒ CP : SP = 17 : 13

Loss % = (CP - SP)/CP × 100

⇒ (17 - 13)/17 × 100

⇒ 400/17

⇒ $23\frac{9}{17}$%

∴ The loss percentage is $23 \frac{9}{17}$ %.