DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 09 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Original Word: HAYWIRE

Arranging the letters in Alphabetical Order:

Therefore, the number of letters whose positions remain unchanged is None.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) & A Ω D * N % U J $ C @ R # F ~ E £ Z K (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Letter → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) & A Ω D * N % U J $ C @ R # F ~ E £ Z K (Right)

There are two such letters that are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. C is kept second from the bottom.
2. Only three boxes are kept between C and F.
3. A is kept at one of the positions below C.
4. Only D is kept between F and G.
5. B is kept at one of the positions above F.

Final Arrangement:

Only one box is kept above F.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given series:

(Left) W F V N J O L K M G T R D C X F T Y U V G F B N H T R G N M K P (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Vowel ← Consonant → Consonant

Checking the series:

(Left) W F V N J O L K M G T R D C X F T Y U V G F B N H T R G N M K P (Right)

Therefore, there are two such consonants in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statement:

C < R > A = D > E

Conclusions:

I. E < R → **True (**Since R > A and A = D and  D > E. Hence, R > E)

II. C ≤ D → False (Since C < R and R > A = D. Therefore, no definite relation given between C and D

Therefore,Only I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘CARD’ is coded as ‘5491’ 

‘CARE’ is coded as ‘6945’. 

Code for "E" is "6".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Statements:

Some roses are sunflowers.

No sunflowers are marigolds.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

(I) Some marigolds are roses → Does not follow (There is not direct relation given between marigold and roses. so, it is possible not definite.)

(II) No sunflowers are roses → Does not follow (This directly contradicts the first statement, which confirms that some roses are sunflowers, meaning there must be an overlap.

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Statement:

K = L < M < N ≥ Q

Conclusions:

I: Q < L → False (From the given statement, N ≥ Q and L < N, but no definite relationship can be established between Q and L.)

II: K < N → True (Since K = L < M < N, therefore K < N.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) 7 £ # 2 * $ # % * 7 * 4 8 £ * & 9 £ @ £ 5 1 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Number → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) 7 £ **# 2 *** $ # % *** 7 *** 4 8 £ * & 9 £ @ £ 5 1 (Right)

Therefore, there are three such numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

E, F, G, H, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. S is an immediate neighbour of both Q and H.
2. H sits third to the left of F.
3. G sits to the immediate left of F.
4. E is not an immediate neighbour of H. 

Q sits third to the left of R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

On checking the expression: T + G − D × M ÷ K→  T is the mother of G, G is the brother of D, D is the wife of M and M is the father of K.

T is the Mother's mother of K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

‘ZEST’ is coded as ‘2514’  

‘SENT’ is coded as ‘9425’. 

Code for "N" is "9".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Original Word:

Alphabetical Order Arrangement:

Therefore, the number of letters whose positions remain unchanged is None.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

On checking: T × G − D + M ÷ K → T is the wife of G, G is the brother of D, D is the son of M and M is the father of K.

T is the Brother's wife of K.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Original Word:

Letters arranged in alphabetical order:

Therefore, the position of only one letter remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘WRAP’ is coded as ‘8651’

‘PEAR’ is coded as ‘9158’. 

Code for "E" is "9".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

Total number of students in the row = 57

Avan is 5^th from the right end.

Chan is 19 places to the left of Avan.

First, find Avan's position from the left end:

Position from left = Total students - Position from right + 1

= 57 - 5 + 1

= 53

So, Avan is 53^rd from the left end.

Chan is 19 places to the left of Avan:

Chan's position from the left = 53 - 19

= 34

Therefore, Chan is 34^th from the left end of the line.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Exactly 1 box is kept below B. 2. Exactly 2 boxes are kept between A and C. 3. Exactly 3 boxes are kept between E and F. 4. C is kept immediately above F. 5. G is kept above D. A is kept below B.

Final Arrangement:

Two boxes kept above D.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

E,F,G,H,Q,R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. Only two people sit between G and S when counted from the right of G.
2. Only two people sit between S and F when counted from the right of S.
3. Only three people sit between G and Q when counted from the left of Q.
4. E sits to the immediate left of R. 

R sits third to the left or R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Position of Shyam from the top = 15^th

Position of Shyam from the bottom = 17^th

To find the total number of students in the class, we use the formula:

Total number of students = Position from the top + Position from the bottom − 1

= 15 + 17 − 1

= 32 − 1

= 31

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 15 G 3 E 9 H 3 F 15 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 9 × 3 - 15 = ?

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 9 × 3 - 15 = ?

⇒ 5 + 9 × 3 - 15 = ?

⇒ 5 + 27 - 15 = ?

⇒ 5 + 27 - 15 = ?

⇒ 32 - 15 = ?

⇒ 17.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Mirror image of given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 8 ÷ 7 + 16 × 4 - 10 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 8 × 7 - 16 ÷ 4 + 10 = ?

⇒ 8 × 7 - 16 ÷ 4 + 10 = ?

⇒ 56 - 16 ÷ 4 + 10 = ?

⇒ 56 - 4 + 10 = ?

⇒ 56 - 4 + 10 = ?

⇒ 52 + 10 = ?

⇒ 62.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 3) − 2; Third Number = Second Number + 4

For the first set (5, 13, 17)

⇒ (5 × 3) − 2

⇒ 15 − 2 = 13.

⇒ 13 + 4 = 17.

For the second set (11, 31, 35)

⇒ (11 × 3) − 2

⇒ 33 − 2 = 31.

⇒ 31 + 4 = 35.

Similarly,

Option (3): (14, 40, 44)

⇒ (14 × 3) − 2

⇒ 42 − 2 = 40.

⇒ 40 + 4 = 44.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic followed here is,

2

(2 × 2) + 5 = 4 + 5 = 9

(9 × 2) − 5 = 18 − 5 = 13

(13 × 2) + 5 = 26 + 5 = 31

(31 × 2) − 5 = 62 − 5 = 57

(57 × 2) + 5 = 114 + 5 = 119

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Third Number = (First Number × 6) − Second Number

For the first set (15, 19, 71)

⇒ (15 × 6) − 19

⇒ 90 − 19 = 71.

For the second set (16, 17, 79)

⇒ (16 × 6) − 17

⇒ 96 − 17 = 79.

Similarly,

Option (2): (18, 1, 107)

⇒ (18 × 6) − 1

⇒ 108 − 1 = 107.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Pattern followed here is,

Option 1) NH-KP,

Option 2) LF-IM,

Option 3) JD-GK,

Option 4) PJ-MQ,

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 14 D 26 A 13 C 8 B 9 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 14 - 26 ÷ 13 + 8 × 9 = ?

⇒ 14 - 26 ÷ 13 + 8 × 9 = ?

⇒ 14 - 2 + 8 × 9 = ?

⇒ 14 - 2 + 72 = ?

⇒ 14 - 2 + 72 = ?

⇒ 12 + 72 = ?

⇒ 84.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

15 + 1³ = 15 + 1 = 16

16 + 2³ = 16 + 8 = 24

24 + 3³ = 24 + 27 = 51

51 + 4³ = 51 + 64 = 115

115 + 5³ = 115 + 125 = 240

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Option 1)  MN-PQ,

Option 2) BC-EF,

Option 3) CD-GH,

Option 4) RS-UV,

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift of +3 for each letter in the set.

For 'VZV' related to 'YCY':

For 'TXT' related to 'WAW':

Applying the same logic to the options:

Checking 'MQM' related to 'PTP':

The pair MQM-PTP follows the exact pattern of +3 shifts for each letter.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern is,

 + 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given: (left) 9 5 3 2 8 4 6 (right)

New number → 7 3 1 3 9 5 7

The second digit from the left is: 3 

The second digit from the right is: 5 

So, the addition of the second digit from the left and the second digit from the right is:

→ 3 + 5 = 8.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Third Number = (First Number + Second Number) − 6

For the first set (15, 6, 15)

⇒ (15 + 6) − 6

⇒ 21 − 6 = 15.

For the second set (18, 9, 21)

⇒ (18 + 9) − 6

⇒ 27 − 6 = 21.

Similarly,

Option (2): (22, 13, 29)

⇒ (22 + 13) − 6

⇒ 35 − 6 = 29.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 25 ÷ 5 + 9 × 3 - 7 = ?

Since '+' and '-' are interchanged, and '×' and '÷' are interchanged:

÷ → ×,   + → -,   × → ÷,   - → +

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 25 × 5 - 9 ÷ 3 + 7 = ?

⇒ 25 × 5 - 9 ÷ 3 + 7 = ?

⇒ 125 - 9 ÷ 3 + 7 = ?

⇒ 125 - 9 ÷ 3 + 7 = ?

⇒ 125 - 3 + 7 = ?

⇒ 125 - 3 + 7 = ?

⇒ 122 + 7 = ?

⇒ 129.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Option 1)  DZ-LE,

Option 2)  FV-NG,

Option 3) NJ-VO,

Option 4) EA-MF,

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift where the positional value of each letter is decreased by 2.

For 'NKM' related to 'LIK':

For 'ROQ' related to 'PMO':

Applying the same logic to the options:

For 'EBD' related to 'CZB':

In the cyclical alphabetical order, B(2) − 2 results in Z(26).

Thus, EBD follows the same pattern to become CZB.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Statements:

All Trowels are Pipe Wrenches.

All Pipe Wrenches are Hammers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

(I) No Hammers are Trowels → Does not follow (Since all Trowels are inside Pipe Wrenches and all Pipe Wrenches are inside Hammers, all Trowels are necessarily Hammers. Thus, there is a definite intersection.

(II) Some Hammers are Trowels → Follow (As all Trowels are contained within the set of Hammers, the portion of Hammers occupied by Trowels confirms that at least some Hammers are Trowels.

Only conclusion (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift for each letter in the sequence.

For 'ALGT' related to 'EPKX':

For 'QBWJ' related to 'UFAN':

Applying the same logic to 'CNIV':

Thus, CNIV is related to GRMZ.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Logic followed here is,

45 + (8 × 1) = 53

53 + (8 × 2) = 69

69 + (8 × 3) = 93

93 + (8 × 4) = 125

125 + (8 × 5) = 165

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Average fixed cost.

Key Points

• Average Fixed Cost (AFC) is defined as the fixed cost per unit of output. It is derived by dividing the Total Fixed Cost (TFC) by the total quantity of units produced (Q).
• Since Total Fixed Costs (such as rent, insurance, and salaries of permanent staff) remain constant regardless of the level of production, the AFC must fall as output increases.
• Mathematically, as the denominator (output) grows and the numerator (TFC) remains unchanged, the resulting value (AFC) declines continuously.
• The AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola; it approaches both the horizontal and vertical axes but never touches them because Total Fixed Cost is never zero.
• This phenomenon is often referred to as spreading the overhead, where fixed expenses are distributed over a larger volume of goods, reducing the cost burden per unit.

 Additional Information

• Marginal cost:
• It represents the change in total cost that arises when the quantity produced is incremented by one unit.
• The MC curve is typically U-shaped, meaning it decreases initially due to increasing returns but eventually rises due to the law of diminishing marginal returns.
• Total cost:
• This is the sum of fixed costs and variable costs.
• Unlike AFC, Total Cost increases as output increases because Total Variable Cost rises with every additional unit produced.
• Variable cost:
• These are costs that vary directly with the level of production, such as raw materials and fuel.
• Variable cost starts at zero when production is zero and increases as output grows.

The correct answer is A joint anti-terror operation.

Key Points

• Operation Nader was a high-stakes security engagement conducted in the Tral area of the Awantipora police district, located in Jammu and Kashmir.
• The mission was executed as a joint operation involving the Indian Army, the Jammu and Kashmir Police, and the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), demonstrating inter-agency coordination.
• The operation specifically targeted terrorist hideouts in the difficult terrain of the Nagberan-Tarsar forest area, which has historically been used as a transit point for militants.
• The primary objective of such operations is the neutralization of high-ranking terrorist commanders from outfits like Jaish-e-Mohammad (JeM) or Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) to prevent urban attacks and recruitment.
• These counter-insurgency (COIN) efforts are critical for maintaining the internal security of the Kashmir Valley and dismantling terrorist infrastructure in the region.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Importance of Tral:
• Tral is considered a highly sensitive zone within the Pulwama district, historically serving as a stronghold for local insurgency modules.
• The region is characterized by dense vegetation and steep ridgelines, making Cordon and Search Operations (CASO) technologically and physically demanding for security forces.
• Security Frameworks:
• Joint Anti-Terror Operations are governed by the Unified Command structure, ensuring seamless intelligence sharing between the Army and Civilian Police.
• These missions differ from humanitarian aid like Operation Sadbhavana, which focuses on community development and civic action programs in border villages.
• Border surveillance initiatives are typically conducted by the Border Security Force (BSF) along the International Border (IB) and the Line of Control (LoC) to prevent infiltration.

The correct answer is Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) and Sterlite Technologies Ltd..

Key Points

• The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) and Sterlite Technologies Ltd. (STL) achieved a significant milestone in April 2025 by successfully testing India’s first Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) over Multi-Core Fibre (MCF).
• The integration of QKD with Multi-Core Fibre is a technological breakthrough that enables ultra-secure communications by leveraging the principles of Quantum Mechanics to protect data against cyber threats, including potential attacks from quantum computers.
• Unlike traditional optical fibers that have a single core, Multi-Core Fibre allows for multiple independent spatial channels within a single strand of glass, vastly increasing the data carrying capacity and efficiency of the telecom infrastructure.
• This collaboration aligns with the objectives of the National Quantum Mission (NQM), which aims to position India as a global leader in quantum technologies including communications, computing, and sensing.
• The trial demonstrates the synergy between India’s indigenous R&D capabilities and private sector manufacturing excellence to build a resilient and secure digital backbone.

 Additional Information

• Quantum Key Distribution (QKD):
• It uses photons to transmit cryptographic keys; any attempt to intercept the transmission changes the quantum state, immediately alerting the parties involved.
• It is primarily based on Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle and the no-cloning theorem of quantum physics.
• Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT):
• Established in 1984, it is the premier telecom research and development center of the Government of India under the Ministry of Communications.
• It focuses on developing indigenous technologies like 5G, 6G, and Quantum communication systems.
• Sterlite Technologies Ltd. (STL):
• A prominent Indian multinational that specializes in optical fiber, cabling, and connectivity solutions.
• Its partnership with the public sector is vital for scaling deep-tech innovations for Atmanirbhar Bharat.
• Significance of MCF:
• Standard fibers face the Non-linear Shannon Limit; MCF bypasses this by adding more cores, making it essential for future high-speed data centers and 5G/6G backhaul.

The correct answer is Jasprit Bumrah and Smriti Mandhana.

Key Points

• The Wisden Cricketers' Almanack 2025, traditionally known as the 'Bible of Cricket', named India's premier fast bowler Jasprit Bumrah as the Leading Cricketer in the World (Men). This recognition followed his extraordinary performance in the 2024 ICC Men's T20 World Cup, where he took 15 wickets with a remarkable economy rate of 4.17 and was named Player of the Tournament.
• Smriti Mandhana was honored as the Leading Cricketer in the World (Women) for her consistent batting excellence and leadership across formats. Her contributions were pivotal in India's international successes throughout the 2024-25 season, particularly in One Day Internationals.
• This selection marks a historic milestone for Indian cricket, as it is the first instance where both the top men's and women's global honors from Wisden have been awarded to Indian players in the same edition.
• The Wisden Almanack selections are among the most prestigious individual honors in the sport, decided by a panel of experts based on performance impact and statistical dominance over the preceding calendar year.

 Additional Information

• Wisden Cricketers' Almanack:
• Established in 1864 by John Wisden, it is a cricket reference book published annually in the United Kingdom.
• The Leading Cricketer in the World award was introduced in 2004 to complement the traditional Cricketers of the Year honor, which usually focuses on the English summer.
• Player Profiles:
• Jasprit Bumrah: Known for his unique slinging action, he became the first Indian fast bowler to reach the Number 1 ranking in all three formats of the game.
• Smriti Mandhana: An elegant left-handed opener, she has previously won the ICC Women's Cricketer of the Year award twice (2018 and 2021) and continues to be a mainstay of the Indian batting lineup.

The correct answer is Distress Migration.

Key Points

• Distress Migration refers to the movement of people from their rural habitats to urban centers as a survival strategy resulting from economic deprivation, crop failures, or natural calamities.
• This phenomenon is primarily driven by 'push factors' in the agricultural sector, such as seasonal unemployment, where workers find no work during the lean period between sowing and harvesting.
• Unlike planned migration, this movement is often unplanned and involves the rural poor and landless laborers who enter the informal urban economy as daily wage earners in sectors like construction or manufacturing.
• In the context of the Indian economy, it highlights the structural weaknesses of agrarian livelihoods and the lack of non-farm employment opportunities in villages, leading to high levels of vulnerability among migrants.

 Additional Information

• Reverse Migration:
• It describes the flow of migrants from cities back to rural areas.
• A significant instance was observed during the COVID-19 pandemic lockdown in 2020, where millions of workers returned to their native villages due to the shutdown of urban industries.
• Urban Pull Factors:
• These are positive conditions that attract people to cities, such as better healthcare, superior educational facilities, and higher wage rates compared to rural regions.
• It represents migration driven by aspiration rather than desperation.
• Voluntary Relocation:
• This involves a conscious decision to move for personal growth, lifestyle changes, or career advancement.
• It is typically associated with skilled professionals and middle-to-high-income groups who have the financial cushion to choose their place of residence.

The correct answer is C. P. Radhakrishnan.

Key Points

• C. P. Radhakrishnan was elected as the Vice President of India in September 2025, following a career of significant constitutional and legislative roles.
• He previously served as the Governor of Maharashtra (assumed office in July 2024) and the Governor of Jharkhand (February 2023), and held additional charges for Telangana and Puducherry.
• A veteran political leader from Tamil Nadu, he represented the Coimbatore constituency in the 12^th and 13^th Lok Sabha, winning consecutive elections in 1998 and 1999.
• The Vice President of India is the second-highest constitutional office in the country and serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Article 64 of the Constitution.
• The election for this post is conducted by the Election Commission of India via a secret ballot, where the Electoral College comprises members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
• Under Article 66, the Vice President is elected through proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote for a tenure of five years.

 Additional Information

• M. Venkaiah Naidu:
• Served as the 13^th Vice President of India from 2017 to 2022.
• He previously held several portfolios in the Union Cabinet, including Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation and Information and Broadcasting.
• Jagdeep Dhankhar:
• Elected as the 14^th Vice President of India in August 2022.
• A prominent Senior Advocate, he served as the Governor of West Bengal before his elevation to the Vice Presidency.
• Om Birla:
• Currently serves as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, having been re-elected to the position for the 18^th Lok Sabha in 2024.
• He represents the Kota-Bundi constituency in Rajasthan and manages the legislative proceedings of the Lower House.

The correct answer is Loss of value of fixed assets over time.

Key Points

• Depreciation refers to the monetary value assigned to the physical wear and tear and gradual obsolescence of fixed capital assets during the production process.
• In National Income Accounting, it is technically referred to as the Consumption of Fixed Capital (CFC).
• It represents the difference between Gross and Net measures of economic output; specifically, Net Domestic Product (NDP) is derived as GDP − Depreciation.
• The concept accounts for expected obsolescence, where assets like machinery, equipment, and buildings lose value due to technological improvements or changes in production scale.
• It is a non-cash expense that ensures the capital stock of an economy is maintained by allocating funds for the eventual replacement of worn-out assets.

 Additional Information

• Related Economic Terms:
• Rent: This represents the income earned from land as a factor of production in the national income calculation.
• Capital Expenditure: Refers to government spending on infrastructure, such as roads and bridges, which adds to the productive assets of the nation.
• Corporate Tax: A direct tax levied by the state on the profits of businesses and corporations.
• Net National Product (NNP): This is calculated at Market Price or Factor Cost by subtracting depreciation from the Gross National Product (GNP).
• Net Investment: The actual addition to the capital stock, determined by the formula: Gross Investment − Depreciation.
• Capital Loss: Unlike depreciation, this refers to the loss of value of assets due to unforeseen events like natural calamities or accidents.

The correct answer is Open agitation and mass pressure.

Key Points

• The Extremist phase of the Indian National Movement, spanning roughly from 1905 to 1917, marked a departure from the cautious approach of earlier leaders.
• Extremist leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal (the Lal-Bal-Pal trio) believed that Swaraj (self-rule) could only be achieved by involving the Indian masses in the struggle.
• They rejected the idea of political mendicancy and instead advocated for active resistance, which included public strikes, processions, and demonstrations to disrupt colonial administration.
• The primary tools of this methodology were the Boycott of British goods and the promotion of Swadeshi (indigenous) products to put economic pressure on the British Empire.
• By using open agitation, they aimed to transform the national movement from an elite-driven intellectual exercise into a popular mass movement capable of challenging British sovereignty.

 Additional Information

• Moderate Methods:
• The early phase (1885−1905) of the Indian National Congress was led by Moderates like Dadabhai Naoroji and Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• They relied on the Three Ps: Petition, Prayer, and Protest, focusing on constitutional reforms and appealing to the British sense of justice.
• They preferred dialogue and submitting memorandums, believing that the British were essentially fair and would grant reforms if convinced of their necessity.
• Turning Point:
• The Partition of Bengal in 1905 by Lord Curzon served as the catalyst for the rise of Extremist ideologies, as it proved that Moderate petitions were ignored.
• This ideological conflict eventually led to the Surat Split in 1907, where the Congress divided into the Moderates and the Extremists.

The correct answer is UMANG.

Key Points

• SAMPANN is an acronym for System for Accounting and Management of Pension, which functions as a seamless online pension processing and payment system specifically for Department of Telecommunications (DoT) pensioners.
• The integration of SAMPANN with the UMANG platform was designed to significantly enhance the Ease of Living for senior citizens by providing mobile-based access to critical services.
• This collaboration allows retirees to view their Pension Payment Order (PPO), track their monthly pension status, and manage their Digital Life Certificates through a single digital interface.
• Launched by the Prime Minister in December 2018, SAMPANN ensures the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of pension amounts, eliminating middle layers and reducing delays in payment.
• The UMANG app integration enables over 4.5 lakh telecommunication pensioners to access their records 24/7, fostering transparency and reducing the need for physical visits to Controller of Communication Accounts (CCA) offices.

 Additional Information

• UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance):
• Developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National e-Governance Division (NeGD).
• It serves as a single platform for pan-India e-Gov services, ranging from Aadhaar and DigiLocker to EPFO and utility bill payments.
• DigiLocker:
• A core component of the Digital India program providing a secure cloud-based platform for the issuance and verification of documents.
• It allows citizens to store authentic documents like driving licenses, voter IDs, and academic certificates in digital format.
• eNAM (National Agriculture Market):
• An online trading portal for agricultural commodities that networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market.
• It aims to promote uniformity in agriculture marketing by streamlining procedures across the integrated markets.
• Bharat QR:
• A Person-to-Merchant (P2M) payment system developed by NPCI, Mastercard, and Visa.
• It acts as a common interface for interoperable payments, allowing users to pay via various bank apps using a single QR code.

The correct answer is Gujarati.

Key Points

• Narsimha Mehta, also known as Narsinh Mehta or Narsi Mehta, was a 15^th-century poet-saint from the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
• He is traditionally honored as the Adikavi (the first poet) of Gujarati literature, marking a significant transition in the region's literary history.
• His literary contributions are central to the Bhakti movement in Western India, primarily focusing on the Vaishnava tradition and devotion to Lord Krishna.
• He is the author of the famous bhajan Vaishnav Jan To, which describes the virtues of a man of God; this hymn was later adopted by Mahatma Gandhi as a daily prayer.
• His works, such as Sudama Charitra and Chaturiya, were instrumental in establishing the Gujarati language as a vehicle for complex spiritual and philosophical expression.

 Additional Information

• Marathi:
• This language is associated with prominent Bhakti saints like Sant Dnyaneshwar, Sant Namdev, and Sant Tukaram.
• These saints were central to the Warkari sect in Maharashtra, producing works like the Dnyaneshwari and Abhangas.
• Assamese:
• The literary and religious landscape of this language was profoundly shaped by Srimanta Sankardev during the 15^th-16^th centuries.
• He pioneered the Ekasarana Dharma and created Borgeets (devotional songs) and Ankiya Naat (one-act plays).
• Punjabi:
• This language flourished through the compositions of the Sikh Gurus, particularly Guru Nanak Dev, whose hymns are preserved in the Guru Granth Sahib.
• Sufi poets like Baba Farid also made foundational contributions to Punjabi spiritual poetry.

The correct answer is Literacy rate, and per capita income.

Key Points

• Human development is a comprehensive process of enlarging peoples choices and enhancing their well-being. It shifts the focus from national income to a people-centric approach in evaluating progress.
• The Literacy rate serves as a vital proxy for educational attainment. It indicates the percentage of the population aged 7 and above who can read and write with understanding, reflecting the efficiency of the education infrastructure.
• Per capita income, specifically Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, measures the average income earned per person. In human development metrics, it is usually adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) to reflect the actual standard of living and purchasing power in a specific country.
• The Human Development Index (HDI), formulated by economists like Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen in 1990, combines these two metrics along with life expectancy at birth to provide a holistic score between 0 and 1.
• Focusing on literacy and income ensures that both social capabilities and economic resources are considered, making it a more accurate measure of quality of life than simple growth figures.

 Additional Information

• Natural resource reserves:
• While wealth in minerals or oil can provide economic capital, it often leads to the resource curse where social development is neglected despite high export earnings.
• Total population size:
• This is a quantitative demographic statistic. It does not provide insights into the distribution of wealth, health status, or educational levels of the citizens.
• Defense spending:
• High expenditure on military hardware and national security often results in the diversion of funds from the social sector, which can stagnate human development indicators.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The United Nations has expanded the scope of development since 2015 to include 17 goals that address poverty, inequality, and climate change alongside traditional income and education metrics.

The correct answer is A hall of justice.

Key Points

• Shah Mal was a prominent rebel leader during the Revolt of 1857, hailing from a large clan of Jat cultivators in the pargana of Barout, located in the modern-day Baghpat district of Uttar Pradesh.
• He successfully mobilized the residents of 84 villages, an area traditionally referred to as Chaurasi Des, to rise against the British East India Company.
• After seizing control of the local area, Shah Mal occupied an English officer's bungalow and repurposed it into a hall of justice, demonstrating a direct challenge to colonial legal authority.
• In this improvised hall of justice, he presided over disputes, settled local grievances, and dispensed judgments, effectively establishing a parallel administration that functioned for several months.
• His leadership was characterized by the subversion of British symbols of power; he used the bungalow to show that the traditional community could govern itself and maintain order without foreign intervention.

 Additional Information

• The Rebellion in Barout:
• Shah Mal organized a highly effective network of intelligence and communication, which allowed his forces to attack British supply lines and disrupt communications between Meerut and Delhi.
• He provided critical logistics and supplies to the rebels stationed in Delhi, making the Barout region a strategic nightmare for the British forces.
• The rebellion in this region was fueled by intense resentment toward high land revenue demands and the harsh collection methods employed by the British administration.
• Shah Mal eventually died in battle in July 1857 while fighting against a British force led by Dunlop; his head was subsequently displayed by the British to terrorize other potential insurgents.

The correct answer is Only I, II and III.

Key Points

• The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was reorganized into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) during a historic meeting held at Feroz Shah Kotla ground in Delhi in September 1928.
• Shiv Varma was a prominent revolutionary leader from the United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh) who actively participated in this meeting and helped draft the new socialist roadmap. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Bhagat Singh was the primary ideological force behind the transformation, advocating for the inclusion of Socialist principles to shift the movement from individual heroic acts to a mass-based struggle against exploitation. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Sukhdev Thapar, a key leader of the Punjab revolutionary unit, was a core member present at the 1928 meeting and was vital in organizing the association’s secret activities. Hence, statement III is correct.
• C.R. Das (Chittaranjan Das) was a distinguished leader of the Indian National Congress and co-founder of the Swaraj Party, but he passed away in June 1925 and was never part of the HSRA. Hence, statement IV is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Historical Evolution of HSRA:
• The HRA was originally established in 1924 at Kanpur by Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindra Nath Sanyal, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.
• Chandrashekhar Azad took up the role of Commander-in-Chief of the HSRA and led the military wing, known as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army.
• The 1928 meeting was attended by representatives from various regions including Bejoy Kumar Sinha, Phanindra Nath Ghosh, and Jaidev Kapur.
• The organization’s manifesto, The Philosophy of the Bomb, was written by Bhagwati Charan Vohra to clarify their revolutionary objectives.
• The HSRA was responsible for significant actions like the Saunders Murder (1928) and the Central Legislative Assembly Bombing (1929).

The correct answer is Belief in more than one God.

Key Points

• Polytheism is a religious or philosophical system characterized by the belief in and worship of multiple deities, often organized into a complex pantheon of gods and goddesses with specific functions and attributes.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy, a pioneering social and religious reformer, argued that the primary ancient scriptures of Hinduism, such as the Vedas and the Upanishads, fundamentally advocated for Monotheism (the worship of a single, supreme God).
• He contended that Polytheism and the associated practice of idolatry were later additions that deviated from the pure, original teachings of the Hindu faith.
• To support his stance, Roy published Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin (A Gift to Monotheists) in 1803, where he utilized logical reasoning to critique the irrationality of believing in multiple divine entities and emphasized the unity of God.
• His reformist agenda sought to cleanse Hinduism of what he perceived as superstitious rituals and social divisions fostered by polytheistic interpretations.

 Additional Information

• Monotheism and Brahmo Samaj:
• In 1828, Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha (later Brahmo Samaj), which was based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas, focusing strictly on the worship of one formless God.
• The movement rejected priesthood, sacrifices, and image worship, promoting a universalist religion that drew parallels between the core truths of all major faiths.
• Related Terminology and Social Reforms:
• Polygamy: Referenced in option 2 (having more than one wife), Roy campaigned heavily against this practice and worked toward the emancipation of women, eventually leading to the abolition of Sati in 1829.
• Educational Contributions: He advocated for Western scientific education and established the Hindu College in 1817 at Calcutta to modernize Indian thought and integrate Rationalism.

The correct answer is Both A and B.

Key Points

• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a mandatory percentage of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that must be kept with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in the form of liquid cash. Under the Section 42(1) of the RBI Act, 1934, the RBI is the sole authority empowered to determine and adjust this ratio to manage liquidity in the banking system. Hence, statement A is correct.
• Open Market Operations (OMO) are a critical monetary policy tool through which the RBI buys or sells Government Securities (G-Secs) in the open market. By purchasing these securities, the RBI increases the money supply (liquidity), and by selling them, it absorbs excess cash from the economy. Hence, statement B is correct.

 Additional Information

• Monetary Policy Instruments:
• CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio): Unlike the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), banks do not earn any interest on the cash kept with the RBI as CRR. A higher CRR reduces the lending capacity of banks, helping to control inflation.
• OMO (Open Market Operations): It is considered a quantitative instrument of credit control. It aims to regulate durable liquidity and the interest rate structure in the financial market.
• Repo Rate: The rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks against G-Secs. It is determined by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid assets like gold or approved government securities.

The correct answer is Padma Shri.

Key Points

• Harmanpreet Kaur, the prolific captain of the Indian Women's National Cricket Team, was selected for the Padma Shri, which stands as the fourth-highest civilian award in the Republic of India.
• This prestigious honor recognizes her distinguished service and exceptional achievements in the field of Sports, specifically her role in transforming Women's Cricket in India.
• She famously became the first Indian woman to score a century in Women's T20 Internationals (WT20Is) during the 2018 World Cup against New Zealand.
• Under her leadership, the Indian team secured a Silver Medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games in Birmingham, marking a historic milestone for cricket at the multi-sport event.
• Kaur is also the first Indian cricketer to feature in over 100 T20 International matches, demonstrating remarkable longevity and consistency at the highest level of the game.

 Additional Information

• Bharat Ratna:
• The highest civilian award of India, instituted in 1954, given for exceptional service of the highest order.
• Sachin Tendulkar is the only cricketer to have been conferred with this ultimate honor to date.
• Padma Bhushan:
• The third-highest civilian award, preceded by the Bharat Ratna and Padma Vibhushan.
• It is awarded for distinguished service of high order to the nation in any field.
• Arjuna Award:
• Established in 1961, it is the second-highest sporting honor in India, given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Harmanpreet Kaur was previously honored with the Arjuna Award in 2017 following her spectacular performance in the ICC Women's World Cup.

The correct answer is Sir Micheal O’ Dwyer.

Key Points

• Sir Michael Francis O'Dwyer served as the Lieutenant Governor of Punjab from 1913 to 1919, during a period of intense political unrest in India.
• The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar under his administrative jurisdiction.
• While Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer was the officer who directly ordered the troops to fire on the unarmed gathering, O'Dwyer was the civil head of the province who endorsed the action and maintained Martial Law in Punjab.
• The protest at the garden was sparked by the arrest of popular leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal under the repressive Rowlatt Act.
• O'Dwyer was eventually assassinated in 1940 at Caxton Hall, London, by the Indian revolutionary Udham Singh, who sought revenge for the atrocities committed during the 1919 massacre.

 Additional Information

• Thomas Gordon Walker:
• He was a British administrator who served as the officiating Lieutenant Governor of Punjab in 1907 and 1908.
• Sir Louis William Dane:
• He held the office of Lieutenant Governor of Punjab from 1908 to 1913, preceding the tenure of O'Dwyer.
• Sir William Mackworth Young:
• He served as the Lieutenant Governor of Punjab between 1897 and 1902, during the late Victorian era.
• Impact of the Massacre:
• The incident led to Rabindranath Tagore renouncing his Knighthood and triggered the nationwide Non-Cooperation Movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is 6^th.

Key Points

• The announcement regarding India achieving the 6^th position globally in patent filing was made by the Union Minister of State for Science and Technology at the Annual Tech Fest in New Delhi in November 2025.
• This milestone signifies India’s transition from being a consumer of technology to a significant producer of Intellectual Property (IP) on the international stage.
• The surge in patent applications is a result of increased Research and Development (R&D) activities across various sectors, including Information Technology, Pharmaceuticals, and Green Energy.
• Government initiatives have fostered a culture of innovation, leading to a substantial rise in filings from Indian startups, Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), and academic institutions.
• Statistically, India has demonstrated one of the highest growth rates in patent filings among the top ten nations, moving up from lower rankings held in previous decades.

 Additional Information

• Regulatory and Institutional Framework:
• The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM), also known as Intellectual Property India, manages the registration and administration of patents.
• The National IPR Policy 2016 provided the roadmap for strengthening the IP ecosystem by reducing the pendency of applications and modernizing the infrastructure.
• Global Context:
• The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) reports consistently show India’s upward trajectory in the Global Innovation Index (GII).
• India’s performance is often compared with other major economies like the USA, China, and Japan, which traditionally lead in global patent volumes.
• Socio-Economic Impact:
• Higher patent filings contribute to a higher Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by attracting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in high-tech manufacturing.
• Schemes like SIPP (Start-ups Intellectual Property Protection) provide up to an 80% rebate on patent filing fees to encourage young entrepreneurs.

The correct answer is Secondary deposit created through bank lending.

Key Points

• Secondary deposits, also widely known as derivative deposits, are the deposits that are generated by commercial banks through the process of extending credit or loans.
• When a bank sanctions a loan, it does not usually provide the borrower with physical cash; instead, it creates a demand deposit by opening a new account or crediting an existing one in the borrower's name.
• This mechanism implies that loans create deposits, which is a core function of the modern banking system that facilitates the expansion of the money supply.
• The volume of these deposits depends on the initial primary deposits and the prevailing reserve requirements set by the central bank.

 Additional Information

• Primary Deposits:
• These represent the cash deposited by customers into their bank accounts. They are considered passive deposits because the bank acts only as a custodian and does not actively create this money.
• Fixed Deposits (FD):
• These are time-bound deposits where money is held for a specific tenure at a fixed interest rate. They are less liquid than demand deposits and cannot be withdrawn via cheques before maturity without a penalty.
• Current Deposits:
• Mainly used by traders and businesses, these accounts allow for frequent withdrawals and deposits. They do not earn interest but provide liquidity and facilities like cheque payments and overdrafts.
• Money Multiplier Effect:
• The total amount of secondary deposits a bank can create is governed by the Legal Reserve Ratio (LRR). If the LRR is 20%, a primary deposit of 1,000 can theoretically lead to total deposits of 5,000 (1,000 × 1/0.2).

The correct answer is Vaibhav Sooryavanshi.

Key Points

• Vaibhav Sooryavanshi, an exceptionally talented left-handed opening batsman from Bihar, was recognized as the Player of the Match in the ICC Men’s Under-19 Cricket World Cup 2026 final for his match-winning batting display.
• He rose to prominence as one of the youngest cricketers in history to play First-Class cricket, having made his Ranji Trophy debut for Bihar at the age of 12 years and 284 days in January 2024.
• During the 2026 tournament, his ability to provide explosive starts and maintain a high strike rate under pressure was pivotal to India’s success in the knockout stages.
• The International Cricket Council (ICC) highlighted his technical maturity and temperament against elite fast bowling as the primary reasons for his selection for the prestigious final award.
• His performance in the 2026 final solidified his reputation as one of the most promising young prospects in Indian cricket, following the footsteps of previous youth stars.

 Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Breakdown:
• Arjun Tendulkar: An all-rounder and son of legend Sachin Tendulkar; he represented India Under-19 during the 2018 tour of Sri Lanka and has long transitioned to senior domestic cricket.
• Musheer Khan: A vital member of the 2024 Under-19 World Cup squad where he finished as one of the highest run-getters; he is the younger brother of Test cricketer Sarfaraz Khan.
• Yash Dhull: The Delhi-based batsman who captained India to its fifth title during the 2022 ICC Under-19 World Cup held in the West Indies.
• Tournament Context:
• The 2026 ICC Men’s Under-19 Cricket World Cup was the 16^th edition of the biennial tournament, co-hosted by Zimbabwe and Namibia.
• India is the most successful nation in the history of the Under-19 World Cup, having secured titles in 2000, 2008, 2012, 2018, and 2022.

The correct answer is Increasing intake of potassium, calcium, and magnesium rich foods.

Key Points

• Muscle cramps in adolescents are frequently caused by electrolyte imbalances that disrupt the normal neuromuscular signaling process.
• Potassium is essential for maintaining the resting membrane potential of cells; a deficiency, known as hypokalemia, causes the muscle fibers to become overly excitable, leading to involuntary contractions.
• Calcium ions play a pivotal role in the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction by binding to troponin, which allows actin and myosin to interact; low levels (hypocalcemia) can cause tetany and painful spasms.
• Magnesium acts as a natural calcium channel blocker within the muscle cells, facilitating relaxation after a contraction; insufficient magnesium (hypomagnesemia) prevents the muscle from relaxing, resulting in persistent cramping.
• Dietary sources like bananas (potassium), dairy products (calcium), and leafy greens or nuts (magnesium) are vital for maintaining homeostasis in the musculoskeletal system.

 Additional Information

• Protein-rich foods:
• Contain amino acids necessary for muscle tissue repair and growth, but they do not directly regulate the ionic charge across cell membranes that prevents acute cramps.
• Carbohydrate-rich foods:
• These provide glucose, the primary fuel source for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production; while glycogen depletion causes muscle fatigue, it is secondary to electrolyte deficiency in causing spontaneous cramps.
• Fat-rich foods:
• Function as concentrated energy stores and aid in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins like Vitamin D, but they lack the mineral ions required for nerve impulse conduction.
• Hydration:
• Adequate water intake is equally critical, as dehydration leads to fluid-electrolyte shifts that further exacerbate muscle irritability.

The correct answer is Vitamins.

Key Points

• Vitamins are essential organic compounds required by the human body in trace amounts (micrograms or milligrams) to maintain various physiological functions and biochemical processes.
• They are classified as micronutrients because, unlike macronutrients, they do not provide energy directly but act as catalysts or co-enzymes in metabolic reactions.
• The human body generally cannot synthesize most vitamins in sufficient quantities; therefore, they must be obtained through a balanced diet consisting of fruits, vegetables, and dairy.
• A chronic lack of these nutrients leads to specific deficiency diseases; for instance, a lack of Vitamin C causes Scurvy, which is characterized by bleeding gums and skin spots.
• Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to Rickets in children (weakening of bones), while a deficiency of Vitamin A is the primary cause of Night Blindness (Xerophthalmia).

 Additional Information

• Macronutrients: These are required in large quantities for growth and energy.
• Lipids: These include fats and oils that provide high energy density (9 kcal/g) and are essential for hormone synthesis and cell membrane structure.
• Proteins: Composed of amino acids, these are vital for the structural repair of tissues, muscle development, and the formation of enzymes.
• Polysaccharides: These are complex carbohydrates like Starch and Glycogen that serve as primary long-term energy storage molecules.
• Classification of Vitamins:
• Fat-soluble: Vitamins A, D, E, and K are stored in the body's fatty tissues and the liver.
• Water-soluble: Vitamin C and the B-complex group (like B₁, B₆, and B₁₂) are not stored and must be replenished regularly.

The correct answer is Kamakhya Temple.

Key Points

• The Ambubachi Mela is a four-day annual Hindu festival held at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, Assam, usually during the monsoon season in the month of June.
• This festival celebrates the annual menstruation cycle of Goddess Kamakhya, who is worshipped as the mother of the universe and the goddess of fertility.
• During the first three days of the mela, the temple doors are closed to devotees as it is believed the goddess is undergoing her period of rest; no religious activities or farming are traditionally performed during this time.
• On the fourth day, the temple reopens with great ceremony, and devotees gather to receive Prasad, which often includes small pieces of red cloth (Angabastra) believed to be soaked in the goddess's menstrual fluid.
• The Kamakhya Temple is situated on the Nilachal Hills and is considered the center of Tantric Shaktism, making it one of the most prominent 51 Shakti Peethas in India.
• The event is popularly known as the 'Mahakumbh of the East' because it attracts millions of pilgrims, Aghoris, and Tantrics from across the country.

 Additional Information

• Kalighat Temple:
• Located in Kolkata, West Bengal, on the banks of the Adi Ganga.
• It is dedicated to the goddess Kali and is another significant Shakti Peetha where the toes of the right foot of Sati are believed to have fallen.
• Meenakshi Temple:
• Situated in the temple city of Madurai, Tamil Nadu.
• Dedicated to Meenakshi (a form of Parvati) and Sundareshwarar (a form of Shiva), showcasing magnificent Dravidian architecture with 14 gopurams.
• Vaishno Devi Temple:
• A highly revered pilgrimage site located in Katra at the Trikuta Mountains in Jammu and Kashmir.
• The deity is worshipped in the form of three natural rock formations called Pindis, representing Maha Kali, Maha Lakshmi, and Maha Saraswati.

The correct answer is Bulimia.

Key Points

• Bulimia Nervosa is a psychological eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, where an individual consumes abnormally large amounts of food while feeling a loss of control.
• To counteract the caloric intake and manage weight, the individual engages in purging behaviors, most commonly self-induced vomiting, but also through the misuse of laxatives, enemas, or diuretics.
• A core diagnostic feature is the excessive concern with body shape and weight, leading to a self-evaluation that is overly influenced by physical appearance.
• The cycle of bingeing and purging can lead to severe physiological consequences, including electrolyte imbalances (such as low potassium), gastric reflux, and damage to tooth enamel due to frequent exposure to stomach acid.
• Unlike anorexia, individuals with bulimia often maintain a weight that is within the normal or overweight range, making the disorder harder to detect externally.

 Additional Information

• Dystonia:
• It is a neurological movement disorder causing involuntary muscle contractions.
• Results in repetitive movements or abnormal postures that can be painful and interfere with daily functions.
• Ataxia:
• Refers to a group of disorders that affect coordination, balance, and speech.
• It is typically caused by damage to the cerebellum, the part of the brain responsible for muscle control.
• Myasthenia:
• Commonly referred to as Myasthenia Gravis, it is a chronic autoimmune disease.
• It involves a breakdown in communication between nerves and muscles, resulting in weakness and rapid fatigue of the skeletal muscles.

The correct answer is Ajanta Caves.

Key Points

• The Ajanta Caves are situated in the Aurangabad district (officially known as Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar) of Maharashtra.
• These caves are famously associated with the Waghora River, as they are carved into a horseshoe-shaped rock cliff overlooking a narrow bend of the river.
• The complex consists of approximately 30 rock-cut Buddhist caves, which were built in two distinct phases: the Satavahana Period (2^nd century BCE to 1^st century CE) and the Vakataka Period (5^th to 6^th centuries CE).
• Ajanta is world-renowned for its fresco paintings and mural art, depicting the Jataka tales and various incarnations of the Buddha.
• It was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983 due to its unparalleled contribution to Buddhist religious art and architecture.

 Additional Information

• Ellora Caves
• Located near Sambhajinagar, these 34 caves represent a mix of Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain faiths.
• The site is most famous for the monolithic Kailasa Temple (Cave 16), constructed under the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.
• Karla Caves
• Situated in Lonavala, these caves date back to the 2^nd century BCE and belong to the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
• The complex is home to India’s largest Chaitya-griha (prayer hall), known for its intricate wood carvings and 15-meter-high columns.
• Nasik Caves
• Also called Pandavleni Caves, this group of 24 caves was carved between the 1^st century BCE and the 3^rd century CE.
• These are predominantly Viharas (monasteries) and provide significant inscriptions regarding the Satavahana and Kshatrapa dynasties.

The correct answer is 1973.

Key Points

• The group of islands originally known as the Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands was officially renamed Lakshadweep on November 1, 1973.
• This administrative name change was executed through the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands (Alteration of Name) Act, 1973, which was passed by the Indian Parliament to provide a unified identity to the archipelago.
• Before this formal unification of nomenclature, the islands were often identified by their distinct geographical subgroups: the Laccadive (central), Minicoy (southernmost), and Amindivi (northern) clusters.
• The term Lakshadweep is derived from Sanskrit and Malayalam, signifying 'a hundred thousand islands' (Laksha meaning lakh or 1,00,000 and Dweep meaning island), highlighting the region's vast coral spread.

 Additional Information

• Administrative Evolution:
• The islands were constituted as a Union Territory in 1956 following the States Reorganisation Act.
• The territory is governed by an Administrator appointed by the President of India under Article 239 of the Constitution of India.
• The administrative headquarters and capital of the Union Territory is Kavaratti.
• Geographical and Judicial Facts:
• Lakshadweep is recognized as the smallest Union Territory of India, covering a total land area of approximately 32 square kilometers.
• It is a uni-district Union Territory comprising 36 islands, out of which only 10 islands are currently inhabited by the local population.
• In terms of legal oversight, the archipelago falls under the judicial jurisdiction of the Kerala High Court located at Kochi.
• The region is characterized by its unique atolls, reefs, and submerged banks in the Arabian Sea, making it a vital ecological zone for coral biodiversity.

The correct answer is Theobromine.

Key Points

• Theobromine, formerly known as xantheose, is a bitter alkaloid belonging to the methylxanthine family, which also includes caffeine and theophylline.
• In tea leaves (Camellia sinensis), it exists naturally along with other stimulants. While cocoa is the primary source, tea contains significant amounts that contribute to its physiological effects.
• As a mild stimulant, it acts on the central nervous system (CNS) by inhibiting adenosine receptors, though its effect is much gentler and more sustained than that of caffeine.
• The compound is recognized for its diuretic properties, which increase the rate of bodily urine excretion by improving blood flow to the kidneys and reducing water reabsorption.
• It also functions as a vasodilator, helping to widen blood vessels and improve circulation, and as a bronchodilator to relax smooth muscles in the airways.

 Additional Information

• Solanine:
• A toxic glycoalkaloid found in the Solanaceae (nightshade) family.
• Commonly found in green potatoes and unripe tomatoes, it serves as a chemical defense for the plant.
• Capsaicin:
• The active alkaloid component of chili peppers (genus Capsicum).
• It produces a sensation of burning in any tissue with which it comes into contact and is used in topical analgesics for pain management.
• Atropine:
• A tropane alkaloid derived from plants like Atropa belladonna (Deadly Nightshade).
• It is used in medicine as an anticholinergic to treat certain types of nerve agent poisonings and slow heart rates (bradycardia).

The correct answer is Kosi.

Key Points

• The Kosi River is widely known as the Sorrow of Bihar due to its highly unstable nature, which leads to frequent and devastating floods during the monsoon season, affecting millions of lives and livelihoods.
• It is an antecedent river that originates in the Himalayas, specifically from the confluence of seven streams (Saptakoshi) in eastern Nepal and Tibet, including the Arun, Sun Kosi, and Tamur.
• The river is notorious for its high sediment load and siltation; as it enters the flat plains of Bihar, the sudden decrease in gradient causes it to deposit vast amounts of silt, blocking its own path and forcing it to carve new channels.
• This phenomenon, known as avulsion or shifting of river courses, has seen the Kosi move laterally across a distance of over 120 kilometers from east to west during the last 250 years.
• The Kosi mega-fan is one of the largest alluvial fans in the world, and the river's breach of the Kushaha embankment in 2008 resulted in one of the worst floods in Indian history, displacing over three million people.

 Additional Information

• Gandak River:
• Originates in the Nuptse Glacier in the Mustang region of Nepal, where it is known as the Narayani.
• It enters the Indo-Gangetic Plain through the Valmiki National Park and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna.
• Son River:
• It is a major southern tributary of the Ganga, originating from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
• Unlike the Himalayan rivers, it flows through hard rock terrains of the Vindhya range before entering the plains of Bihar near Arrah.
• Ganga River:
• The National River of India, it is formed by the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda at Devprayag in Uttarakhand.
• It flows approximately 2,525 kilometers and serves as the primary drainage system for the fertile Gangetic Basin, supporting one of the highest population densities in the world.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• Bastar Dussehra is globally recognized as the longest festival, spanning a total duration of 75 days, typically starting in the month of Shravan and ending on Ashvin Shukla Trayodashi.
• Unlike the conventional Dussehra which commemorates the victory of Lord Rama over Ravana, this festival is dedicated to Goddess Danteshwari Devi, the family deity of the Bastar royal family.
• The festival is primarily celebrated in the Jagdalpur region of Chhattisgarh and involves the participation of various tribal communities like the Maria, Muria, and Halba.
• The historical roots of the festival trace back to the 13^th century, initiated by King Purushottam Dev of the Kakatiya Dynasty, who brought the tradition from Puri, Odisha.
• Key rituals include Pata Jatra (worship of wood), Kachan Gaadi (seeking permission from a girl child medium), and the massive Rath Yatra where a giant eight-wheeled chariot is pulled by thousands of devotees.

 Additional Information

• Rajasthan
• Famous for festivals like Gangaur, which honors Goddess Gauri, and the Pushkar Camel Fair, one of the largest livestock fairs in the world held in Ajmer district.
• Goa
• Renowned for the Goa Carnival, introduced by the Portuguese, and Shigmo, a vibrant spring festival celebrating the homecoming of warriors.
• Kerala
• Known for Onam, the harvest festival celebrating King Mahabali, and Vishu, the zodiac New Year. It is also famous for the Thrissur Pooram, characterized by spectacular elephant processions.

The correct answer is Bengali.

Key Points

• On October 3, 2024, the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the conferment of Classical Language status to five distinct languages to preserve Indias cultural heritage.
• The five languages newly inducted into this prestigious category are Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali.
• The recognition of Bengali as a Classical Language acknowledges its deep-rooted historical antiquity, spanning over 2,500 years, and its immense contribution to global literature and intellectual thought.
• This decision followed extensive research by the Linguistics Experts Committee under the Sahitya Akademi, which verified that these languages met the rigorous criteria established by the Government of India.
• With the addition of these five languages, the total number of recognized Classical Languages in India has increased from six to eleven.

 Additional Information

• Criteria for Classical Language Status:
• The language must have a recorded history or ancient texts dating back 1500 to 2000 years.
• It should possess a body of ancient literature considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
• The literary tradition must be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
• There may be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or offshoots.
• Previously Recognized Classical Languages:
• Tamil was the first to be recognized in 2004, followed by Sanskrit in 2005.
• Kannada and Telugu were granted the status in 2008.
• Malayalam was included in 2013, and Odia received the status in 2014.
• Significance and Benefits:
• Recognition leads to the establishment of a Centre of Excellence for studies in that language.
• The Ministry of Education provides international awards for eminent scholars of these languages.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) creates specific Professional Chairs for Classical Languages in Central Universities to promote academic research and preservation.

The correct answer is Atal Tunnel.

Key Points

• The Atal Tunnel, formerly known as the Rohtang Tunnel, is a masterpiece of engineering constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) beneath the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas.
• On 09 February 2022, it was officially recognized and certified by the World Book of Records, UK, as the 'World’s Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet'.
• The tunnel has a total length of 9.02 km and is situated at an elevation of approximately 3,044 meters (10,017 feet) above mean sea level, connecting Manali to the Lahaul-Spiti Valley.
• It provides all-weather connectivity to the region, which previously remained inaccessible for nearly six months every year due to heavy snowfall on the Rohtang Pass.
• The project reduces the travel distance between Manali and Keylong by 46 km and cuts the travel time by about 4 to 5 hours, facilitating strategic movement for the Indian Armed Forces.
• Named after former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the tunnel was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 03 October 2020.

 Additional Information

• Jawahar Tunnel
• Also referred to as the Banihal Tunnel, it is located in Jammu and Kashmir and was constructed in 1956 to ensure year-round road access between Srinagar and Jammu.
• Chenani-Nashri Tunnel
• Officially known as the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel, it is India’s longest road tunnel with a length of 9.28 km, located on NH-44 in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Anakkampoyil-Kalladi-Meppadi Tunnel
• This is a significant proposed twin-tube tunnel project in Kerala, designed to provide a bypass for the sensitive Thamarassery Ghat road and improve connectivity to Wayanad.

The correct answer is Sex ratio.

Key Points

• The Sex ratio is a demographic metric that describes the balance between males and females in a population, traditionally measured as the number of females per 1,000 males.
• A proportionate increase means that both the male population (M) and the female population (F) are multiplied by the same constant factor (k).
• Mathematically, if the original ratio is F/M, the new ratio after the increase becomes (F × k) / (M × k). Since the factor 'k' exists in both the numerator and the denominator, it cancels out, leaving the ratio unchanged.
• This consistency makes the sex ratio a relative measure that is independent of the absolute size of the population, provided the growth rate is uniform across genders.

 Additional Information

• Median Age:
• This is the age that divides a population into two equal-sized groups. It would change if the proportionate increase is not distributed evenly across all age cohorts, such as an influx of only infants or elderly people.
• Population Density:
• This is the ratio of total population to the land area. If the total number of people increases (even proportionately by sex), the density (total people / area) will increase, assuming the land area remains fixed.
• Birth Rate:
• The Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is defined as the number of live births per 1,000 people in a year. Because it depends on the total population and the specific fertility of women in reproductive ages, it is a dynamic indicator that can fluctuate based on the age structure of the new population.

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution declares that 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law'.
• The scope of personal liberty under this article was significantly broadened by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (1978).
• In this judgment, the court held that the right to travel abroad is an integral part of the right to personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21, ensuring that no person can be deprived of this right without a fair and just legal procedure.
• This decision built upon the earlier ruling in Satwant Singh Sawhney vs Assistant Passport Officer (1967), where the court first affirmed that liberty includes the right to move across national borders.
• The ruling established that any law or procedure used to restrict this right must not be arbitrary and must satisfy the test of being reasonable, fair, and just.

 Additional Information

• Article 19(1)(d):
• This article guarantees all citizens the right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Unlike Article 21, its scope is restricted to domestic movement within the country's borders.
• Article 14:
• Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• It prohibits the State from denying any person equality before the law or arbitrary treatment in administrative actions.
• Article 22:
• Provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to consult a legal practitioner.

The correct answer is Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.

Key Points

• The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) is the largest highway project in India and the fifth-longest highway network in the world, connecting the four primary metropolitan hubs: Delhi (North), Mumbai (West), Chennai (South), and Kolkata (East).
• The project was conceptualized and launched by the then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee in 1999, with construction beginning in 2001.
• It is managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
• The total length of the Golden Quadrilateral is approximately 5,846 kilometers, consisting of high-quality four or six-lane expressways.
• The network forms a 'quadrilateral' shape on the map of India, facilitating seamless connectivity between the country's major industrial, agricultural, and cultural centers.

 Additional Information

• Segment-wise Breakdown:
• Delhi to Mumbai: Covers a distance of 1,419 km, passing through states like Haryana, Rajasthan, and Gujarat.
• Mumbai to Chennai: Spans 1,290 km, traversing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
• Chennai to Kolkata: Stretches 1,684 km along the eastern coast through Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.
• Kolkata to Delhi: Covers 1,453 km through West Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
• Economic Significance:
• The project was Phase I of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP).
• It significantly reduces travel time between major ports and cities, boosting inter-state trade and reducing fuel consumption and vehicle operating costs.
• Cities like Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Pune, and Surat also benefit from being located along these main arteries.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Bhagoria Festival, also known as Bhagoria Haat, is a vibrant folk celebration observed by the Bhil, Bhilala, and Pateliya tribes.
• It is primarily celebrated in the Malwa and Nimar regions of Madhya Pradesh, specifically in districts like Jhabua, Alirajpur, Dhar, Barwani, and Khargone.
• The festival takes place in the month of March (the Hindu month of Phalguna), concluding seven days before the Holi festival, marking the completion of the Rabi harvest.
• The event is organized as a Haat (weekly market) where tribal members gather in traditional attire to celebrate through traditional dances, music, and social bonding.
• Culturally, it was historically recognized as a matrimonial platform where young men and women expressed mutual interest by applying Gulal (colored powder) on each other, often leading to marriage.
• Musical accompaniment features indigenous instruments such as the Dhol (large drum), Mandal, and Thali, which dictate the rhythm of the Bhagoria dance performed by large groups.

 Additional Information

• Bhil Tribe:
• Recognized as one of the largest tribal communities in India, they possess a significant population in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan.
• The name Bhil is derived from the Dravidian word Bil or Billu, meaning bow, highlighting their historical expertise in archery.
• They are globally renowned for Pithora paintings, which are sacred wall murals depicting mythological and social themes.
• Other States Context:
• Rajasthan: Though home to a large Bhil population, it is more famous for the Baneshwar Fair and the Ghoomar dance, which has tribal origins.
• Maharashtra: Known for tribes like Warli and Katkari; the Warli Art is a major cultural export of this state.
• Andhra Pradesh: Features the Chenchu and Lambada tribes, with Lambadi dance being a prominent folk form during their festivals.

The correct answer is Right to Property.

Key Points

• The Right to Property was originally classified as a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(f), which permitted citizens to acquire, hold, and dispose of property, and Article 31, which protected against the compulsory acquisition of private property.
• The 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, introduced by the Janata Party government led by Morarji Desai, officially removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• Following the amendment, the right was re-established as a Constitutional Right or Legal Right under the newly inserted Article 300A in Part XII.
• The primary objective of this repeal was to facilitate land reforms and the equitable distribution of resources, ensuring that private property rights did not obstruct the state's socialist goals of public welfare.
• As a Legal Right rather than a Fundamental Right, citizens can no longer approach the Supreme Court directly under Article 32 for its violation, though they retain the right to seek remedies via Article 226 in High Courts.

 Additional Information

• Right to Education:
• This was incorporated into the Constitution as a Fundamental Right through the 86^th Amendment Act, 2002.
• It inserted Article 21A, which provides free and compulsory education for all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.
• Right to Equality:
• Enshrined in Articles 14 to 18, it includes equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination, and abolition of untouchability.
• Right to Religion:
• Governed by Articles 25 to 28, it guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate any religion.

The correct answer is Article 143 of the Constitution.

Key Points

• Article 143 of the Indian Constitution confers Advisory Jurisdiction upon the Supreme Court of India, allowing the President to seek its legal opinion.
• The President may refer a matter to the court if a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such public importance that it is beneficial to obtain the court’s view.
• Under this article, the Supreme Court is not legally bound to provide an opinion on every reference made by the President, except in cases involving pre-Constitution treaties or agreements.
• The opinion delivered by the Supreme Court under its advisory role is not binding on the President; it serves as a consultative guide rather than a final judicial decree.
• A minimum of five judges (a Constitution Bench) must sit to hear and deliberate upon a reference made under this specific article.
• Historically, significant references include the Special Courts Bill (1978), the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, and the Gujarat Assembly Election matter.

 Additional Information

• Article 131:
• Defines the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• It grants the court exclusive power to hear disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States.
• Article 136:
• Pertains to Special Leave to Appeal (SLP).
• It empowers the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment, order, or decree passed by any court or tribunal in the country, except military tribunals.
• Article 226:
• Outlines the powers of High Courts to issue writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, and Certiorari.
• Its scope is broader than Article 32 because it allows the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as other legal rights.