DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 03 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Aditya ranked 35th from the top.

Aditya ranked 25th from the bottom.

Total Students = (Rank from Top) + (Rank from Bottom) - 1

Number of students in the class = 35 + 25 - 1

= 60 - 1

= 59 students.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. C is kept immediately above B.
2. A is kept immediately above E.
3. Exactly 1 box is kept between B and E.
4. E is kept above C.
5. Exactly 1 box is kept below D.
6. A or F are not kept at the top.

Final Arrangement:

The number of boxes kept below E are C, B, D, and F.

Total boxes below E = 4.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: T # P x N % K x E

It means: T is the daughter of P, P is the wife of N, N is the father of K, and K is the wife of E.

T is the wife's sister of E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. X sits to the immediate right of S.
2. Y sits fourth to the right of X.
3. Z is an immediate neighbour of R and Q.
4. R is not an immediate neighbour of Y. 

Z sits fourth to the right of P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Series:

(Left) E % H & G U N = U + M @ & L B D # < F C > * Q % K (Right)

Condition: Symbol → Symbol → Letter

(Left) E % H & G U N = U + M @ & L B D # < F C > * Q % K (Right)

There are three such symbols in the series which satisfied the condition.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given word:F L O U N C E

Applying the given condition:

F → E (Consonant, previous letter)

L → K (Consonant, previous letter)

O → P (Vowel, next letter)

U → V (Vowel, next letter)

N → M (Consonant, previous letter)

C → B (Consonant, previous letter)

E → F (Vowel, next letter)

Thus, the new group of letters formed is: E K P V M B F

Now, counting the vowels in the new group:

E → Vowel

K → Consonant

P → Consonant

V → Consonant

M → Consonant

B → Consonant

F → Consonant

There is only 1 vowel in the group of letters thus formed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Dictionary order of given words:

5. Elective
6. Employer
7. Ephemeral
   

2. Escaping
   

3. Established

Order is: 5, 4, 1, 2, 3

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given: 

‘HINT’ is coded as ‘5193’

‘TINY’ is coded as ‘3157’

Code for "Y" is "7".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only three people sit between E and D. 2. G sits to the immediate left of D. 3. No one sits to the right of C. 4. Only two people sit between C and G. 5. A sits to the immediate right of F.

Only one person sit to the right of B.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘LEAP’ is coded as ‘9125’

‘PILE’ is coded as ‘3952’

Code for "I" is "3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

Total people in the row = 60

Tarun is 40th from the right end.

Chetan is 26th from the left end.

First, find Tarun's position from the left end:

Position from left = Total people - Position from right + 1

= 60 - 40 + 1

= 21

So, Tarun is 21st from the left end.

Chetan is 26th from the left end.

Number of people between Tarun and Chetan = Difference of positions - 1

= (26 - 21) - 1

= 5 - 1

= 4 people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series:

(Left) # 3 4 * 1 6 8 $ 9 5 2 Ω 7 + % (Right)

Condition to be checked:

After dropping all the symbols, find the seventh element from the right.

Series after removing symbols:

(Left) 3 4 1 6 8 9 5 2 7 (Right)

Counting from the right:

The seventh element from the right is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statement:

A ≥ M ≤ P = L > E

Conclusions:

I. E ≤ A → False (From the statement, A ≥ M, P = L and L > E. Although the exact relation between A and E is not directly given. it is not true.)

II. L ≥ M → True (From the statement, P = L and M ≤ P. Therefore, M ≤ L, which means L ≥ M.)

Therefore, Only II is true

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘HELP’ is coded as ‘9741’

‘LEAP’ is coded as ‘6741’

Code for "A" is "6".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The given word is FORAGE.

Arranging the letters alphabetically: A, E, F, G, O, R.

Letter second from the left is E.

Letter second from the right is O.

The letters between E and O are: F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N.

Therefore, there are 9 letters in the English alphabetical order between the specified letters.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: E # V % Q + T

It means: E is the daughter of V, V is the father of Q, and Q is the mother of T.

E is related to T as Mother's sister.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) P Q W T A V A B T A X H L T O K W L X T S (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Vowel → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) P Q W T A V A B T A X H L T O K W L X T S (Right)

Only the vowel A in the group A V A satisfies the condition because it is immediately preceded by a consonant (T) and immediately followed by a vowel (A).

There is no such vowel that satisfies the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statement:

G < R < A ≤ P > E

Conclusions:

I. P > R → True (From the statement, R < A ≤ P, therefore P is definitely greater than R.)

II. E ≥ A → False (From the statement, P > E and A ≤ P. No definite relationship can be established between E and A.)

Therefore, only Conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

Total people in the row = 98

Avan is 81st from the left end.

Chan is 3rd from the right end.

First, find Chan's position from the left end:

Position from left = Total people - Position from right + 1

= 98 - 3 + 1

= 96

So, Chan is 96th from the left end.

Now, find the number of people between Avan and Chan:

People between them = Difference of positions - 1

= 96 - 81 - 1

= 15 - 1

= 14 people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements:

All kiwis are bananas.

No pears are kiwis.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some pears are bananas → Does not follow (There is no direct relation between pears and bananas, so it is possible but not definite.)

II. Some bananas are not pears → Follow (Since all kiwis are bananas and no kiwis are pears, the portion of bananas that contains kiwis will never be pears.)

So, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 16 B 8 D 14 C 24 A 8 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 16 × 8 - 14 + 24 ÷ 8 = ?

⇒ 16 × 8 - 14 + 24 ÷ 8 = ?

⇒ 128 - 14 + 24 ÷ 8 = ?

⇒ 128 - 14 + 3 = ?

⇒ 128 - 14 + 3 = ?

⇒ 114 + 3 = ?

⇒ 117.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is,

362 + 2³ = 362 + 8 = 370

370 - 4³ = 370 - 64 = 306

306 + 6³ = 306 + 216 = 522

522 - 8³ = 522 - 512 = 10

10 + (10)³ = 10 + 1000 = 1010

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is.

54

54 − 7 = 47

47 − 7 = 40

40 − 7 = 33

33 − 7 = 26

26 − 7 = 19

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 48 × 6 ÷ 15 − 34 + 25 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 48 ÷ 6 × 15 + 34 − 25 = ?

⇒ 48 ÷ 6 × 15 + 34 − 25 = ?

⇒ 8 × 15 + 34 − 25 = ?

⇒ 120 + 34 − 25 = ?

⇒ 120 + 34 − 25 = ?

⇒ 154 − 25 = ?

⇒ 129.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

1. VA − SK

2. OT − LD

3. EJ − BT

4) DI − AW

Therefore, DI-AW is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Figure that complete the given pattern,

 + 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic: Second number = (First number × 6) − 1

For the first set (4, 23) →

(4 × 6) − 1 = 24 − 1 = 23

For the second set (7, 41) →

(7 × 6) − 1 = 42 − 1 = 41

Similarly, let us check the options:

For, Option (1): (10, 59) →

(10 × 6) − 1 = 60 − 1 = 59

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

For NRV to SWA

For RVZ to WAE

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +5 for each successive letter.

Option 1) CFI to HIP

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +5, +3, +7.

Option 2) CGK to HLP

This pair follows the same logic.

Option 3) CGK to GLO

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +4, +5, +4.

Option 4) CFI to GKO

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +4, +5, +6.

Thus, the pair CGK : HLP follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Statements:

All forks are jars.

Some forks are hats.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some jars are hats → Follow (Because all forks are jars and some forks are hats, the common portion between forks and hats is necessarily within jars.)

II. All hats are forks → Does not follow (The statements only indicate a partial relationship between forks and hats; we cannot definitively state that every hat is a fork.)

So, only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

1. SV - TW

2. QT - RU

3) JM - LN

4) EH - FI

Therefore, JM - LN is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 31 A 14 B 42 C 14 D 21 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 31 ÷ 14 × 42 + 14 - 21 = ?

⇒ 31 ÷ 14 × 42 + 14 - 21 = ?

⇒ 93 + 14 - 21 = ?

⇒ 93 + 14 - 21 = ?

⇒ 107 - 21 = ?

⇒ 86.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 30 ÷ 5 + 12 × 2 - 9 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 30 × 5 - 12 ÷ 2 + 9 = ?

⇒ 30 × 5 - 12 ÷ 2 + 9 = ?

⇒ 150 - 12 ÷ 2 + 9 = ?

⇒ 150 - 12 ÷ 2 + 9 = ?

⇒ 150 - 6 + 9 = ?

⇒ 150 - 6 + 9 = ?

⇒ 144 + 9 = ?

⇒ 153

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 400 C 500 A 5 D 19 B 25 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 400 + 500 ÷ 5 - 19 × 25 = ?

⇒ 400 + 500 ÷ 5 - 19 × 25 = ?

⇒ 400 + 100 - 19 × 25 = ?

⇒ 400 + 100 - 475 = ?

⇒ 400 + 100 - 475 = ?

⇒ 500 - 475 = ?

⇒ 25.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The pattern observed is: (First number × 4) + 1 = Second number.

For (7, 29) →

7 × 4 = 28

28 + 1 = 29

For (11, 45) →

11 × 4 = 44

44 + 1 = 45

Similarly, let us find the set that follows the same logic:

For, Option (3): (13, 53) →

13 × 4 = 52

52 + 1 = 53

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

1. BXZ

2. AWY

3) CZA

4) SOQ

Therefore, CZA is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is:

For OKNS to UQTY

For LHKP to RNQV

The common pattern is a constant positional value shift of +6 for each successive letter in the English alphabetical order.

For IEHM to ?

Applying the same logic, IEHM becomes OKNS.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

For DCA to CBZ

For IHF to HGE

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of −1 for each successive letter in the sequence.

Option 1) FDA to DCA

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −2, −1, 0.

Option 2) FEC to EDB

This pair follows the same logic of −1 shift for each letter.

Option 3) FDA to EDB

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −1, 0, +1.

Option 4) FEC to DDA

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −2, −1, −2.

Thus, the pair FEC : EDB follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 2nd number = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (13, 12, 156)

⇒ 13 × 12 = 156.

For, (9, 15, 135)

⇒ 9 × 15 = 135.

Similarly,

For Option (1):  (16, 8, 128)

⇒ 16 × 8 = 128.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is: (Previous number × n) + n = Next number

14

(14 × 1) + 1 = 15

(15 × 2) + 2 = 32

(32 × 3) + 3 = 99

(99 × 4) + 4 = 400

(400 × 5) + 5 = 2005

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Reject foreign-made goods.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement was launched as a direct response to the Partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon in July 1905, which aimed to divide the province on communal lines.
• The core objective of the Boycott was to exert economic pressure on the British Government by refusing to use British-manufactured goods, specifically targeting Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt.
• A formal resolution to boycott foreign goods was passed at a massive protest meeting held at the Town Hall in Calcutta on August 7, 1905, marking the official start of the movement.
• Public demonstrations involved the ceremonial burning of foreign textiles in bonfires, symbolizing the rejection of colonial economic hegemony and the assertion of Indian economic sovereignty.
• The movement encouraged the use of Swadeshi (indigenous) alternatives, leading to the growth of local industries and a sense of national identity among the masses.

 Additional Information

• Educational Boycott:
• The movement did not promote British education; instead, it called for the boycott of government-controlled schools and colleges.
• The National Council of Education was established in August 1906 to provide education in vernacular languages and foster nationalistic spirit.
• Promotion of Indigenous Industry:
• To provide alternatives to boycotted goods, Swadeshi enterprises emerged, such as the Bengal Chemicals Pharmaceutical Works founded by Prafulla Chandra Ray.
• New Swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, and national banks were established to support the local economy.
• Administrative Resistance:
• Protesters extended the boycott to colonial courts, government services, and legislative councils to hinder the British administrative machinery.
• Leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal (the Lal-Bal-Pal trio) played a pivotal role in spreading the message of boycott beyond Bengal to other parts of India.

The correct answer is Devika Sihag.

Key Points

• Devika Sihag created history by clinching her maiden BWF Super 300 title at the Thailand Masters in 2026, signaling her arrival as a top-tier competitor in international badminton.
• The Thailand Masters, held annually in Bangkok, is a part of the BWF World Tour and serves as a vital platform for emerging players to accumulate World Ranking points.
• Her victory is a significant achievement for Indian Badminton, making her one of the youngest athletes from the country to win a tournament of this stature on the global circuit.
• As a Super 300 event, the tournament falls under Grade 2, Level 5 of the BWF structure, offering a substantial prize pool and 7,000 ranking points to the winner of the singles category.
• The win at Bangkok helped Sihag break into the Top 30 of the BWF World Rankings, facilitating direct entry into higher-grade events like Super 500 and Super 750.

 Additional Information

• Ashmita Chaliha:
• A talented shuttler from Assam, she has been a mainstay in the Indian National Team and won gold medals at the South Asian Games in Kathmandu.
• PV Sindhu:
• India's most successful female badminton player, she is a former World Champion and won the silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics and bronze at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• Saina Nehwal:
• A pioneer for the sport in India, she reached the World No. 1 ranking in 2015 and was the first Indian to win an Olympic medal (Bronze) in badminton at London 2012.
• BWF World Tour Structure:
• The tour is divided into levels: World Tour Finals, Super 1000, Super 750, Super 500, and Super 300, with each level providing descending orders of prize money and ranking points.

The correct answer is United Nations Development Programme.

Key Points

• The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual milestone publication released by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• It was first launched in 1990 by the visionary Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen to shift the focus of development from GDP to human-centric metrics.
• The report features the Human Development Index (HDI), a composite index measuring average achievement in three basic dimensions: long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living.
• The HDI utilizes indicators such as life expectancy at birth, mean years of schooling, expected years of schooling, and Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.
• Beyond the HDI, the report introduces other indices like the Inequality-adjusted HDI, Gender Development Index, and the Multidimensional Poverty Index.

 Additional Information

• International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• An international organization headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries.
• Its primary purpose is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system and it publishes the World Economic Outlook.
• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
• Established in June 1972 after the Stockholm Conference, it coordinates the UN's environmental activities.
• It is responsible for significant reports like the Emission Gap Report and the Global Environment Outlook.
• Asian Development Bank (ADB)
• A regional development bank established in 1966 to promote social and economic development in Asia and the Pacific.
• It is headquartered in Mandaluyong, Philippines, and publishes the Asian Development Outlook.

The correct answer is Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act, 2025.

Key Points

• The Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act, 2025 was introduced by the Government of India to modernize the rural labor framework and align it with the long-term objective of becoming a developed nation by the year 2047.
• The Act serves as a comprehensive replacement for the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), which had been the primary legal framework for rural work since its inception in 2005.
• A core provision of this new legislation is the enhancement of the legal guarantee for wage employment from the previous 100 days to 125 days per household in every financial year, specifically targeting rural poverty alleviation.
• The acronym G RAM G represents Gramin Rozgar, Asset creation, and Management Guidelines, signaling a shift from simple labor supply to the strategic creation of durable community assets and rural infrastructure.
• The framework emphasizes technological integration, utilizing Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and blockchain-based tracking to ensure zero leakage in wage payments and project funding.

 Additional Information

• Viksit Bharat 2047 Vision:
• It is a strategic roadmap focused on structural reforms, inclusive growth, and self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) to reach a 30 trillion dollar economy.
• The G RAM G Act facilitates this by improving the standard of living in rural pockets, which house nearly 65 percent of the Indian population.
• MGNREGA Evolution:
• Originally passed in September 2005, it was credited with reducing rural-to-urban migration and empowering women workers through a mandated 33 percent participation rate.
• The 2025 Act addresses previous criticisms of MGNREGA regarding delayed payments and low-quality asset durability by introducing stricter social audits.

The correct answer is Raja Rammohan Roy.

Key Points

• Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha in August 1828, which was later renamed the Brahmo Samaj.
• He is widely recognized as the Father of the Indian Renaissance and the Father of Modern India for his pioneering efforts in social and religious reform.
• The Brahmo Samaj advocated for monotheism, the worship of one supreme and eternal God, and strictly prohibited idol worship, animal sacrifice, and meaningless rituals.
• The movement was deeply rooted in the philosophy of the Vedas and Upanishads, aiming to purify Hinduism and promote human dignity and social equality.
• Roy played a decisive role in the abolition of Sati in 1829, working alongside the British Governor-General Lord William Bentinck to pass the Sati Regulation Act.
• He also established the Atmiya Sabha in 1814 to campaign against social evils and promote the concept of a universal faith.

 Additional Information

• Jyotiba Phule
• He established the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers Society) in 1873 in Maharashtra to advocate for the rights of Dalits, Shudras, and women.
• He authored the seminal work Gulamgiri and was a staunch critic of the caste system and Brahminical hegemony.
• Dayanand Saraswati
• He founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 at Bombay and gave the famous call Back to the Vedas.
• He rejected idol worship and promoted the Shuddhi movement to bring converted individuals back into the Hindu fold.
• Mahadev Govind Ranade
• A prominent leader of the Prarthana Samaj and a founding member of the Indian National Congress (1885).
• He focused on widow remarriage, child marriage abolition, and founded the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha to represent people's grievances.

The correct answer is Natural.

Key Points

• Kaziranga National Park, situated in the Golaghat and Nagaon districts of Assam, was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985 under the Natural category.
• The park is globally renowned for its unique natural ecosystem, serving as the refuge for approximately two-thirds of the world's population of the Great One-horned Rhinoceros.
• It was inscribed based on UNESCO Criterion (ix) for representing outstanding examples of ongoing ecological and biological processes and Criterion (x) for its importance in the conservation of biological diversity.
• The landscape is shaped by the Brahmaputra River and is characterized by vast stretches of tall elephant grass, marshlands, and tropical moist broadleaf forests.

 Additional Information

• UNESCO Heritage Categories:
• Cultural: These sites possess significant historical, aesthetic, or anthropological value. Examples include the Taj Mahal and the Sun Temple, Konark.
• Mixed: These sites satisfy both natural and cultural criteria. Khangchendzonga National Park in Sikkim is currently India's only mixed heritage site.
• Historical: While not a standalone UNESCO category, sites with historical significance are typically classified under the Cultural heritage umbrella.
• Biodiversity and Conservation:
• Kaziranga was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2006 due to its exceptionally high density of Royal Bengal Tigers.
• It is recognized as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by BirdLife International, providing habitat for species like the Greater Adjutant Stork and Dalmatian Pelican.
• The park is home to the Big Five animals: the Rhinoceros, Tiger, Asian Elephant, Wild Water Buffalo, and Swamp Deer (Barasingha).

The correct answer is GNP will increase by the same amount as GDP.

Key Points

• The relationship between Gross National Product (GNP) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined by the formula: GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) represents the difference between the factor income earned by domestic residents from overseas and the factor income earned by foreign residents within the domestic economy.
• In this scenario, if the GDP increases by a specific magnitude while the NFIA remains constant, the addition of the same constant value to a larger GDP base results in a proportional rise in GNP.
• Since all other factors are kept constant, the change in GNP is mathematically identical to the change in GDP (ΔGNP = ΔGDP), reflecting that the additional economic output generated within the borders belongs to the nation's factors of production.

 Additional Information

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
• It measures the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a country during a specific time period.
• It focuses on the location of production rather than the nationality of the producers.
• Gross National Product (GNP):
• It tracks the total value of goods and services produced by the citizens and businesses of a country, regardless of where the production actually takes place.
• It is a key indicator of the economic contribution of a nation's residents to the global economy.
• Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA):
• If NFIA is positive, it means GNP is greater than GDP, indicating that citizens earn more from abroad than foreigners earn within the country.
• If NFIA is negative, it indicates that the income outflow to foreign residents exceeds the income inflow from abroad, making GDP larger than GNP.

The correct answer is Bahadur Shah II.

Key Points

• Bahadur Shah II, also famously known as Bahadur Shah Zafar, was the last Mughal Emperor of India and was chosen as the figurehead of the Great Revolt of 1857.
• When the rebel sepoys from Meerut marched into Delhi on May 11, 1857, they seized the Red Fort and proclaimed the elderly Emperor as the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan (Emperor of India).
• His role was primarily nominal and symbolic because he was over 80 years old and lacked the military resources or physical strength to lead a massive armed rebellion.
• Despite his lack of actual power, his name provided the necessary political legitimacy to the uprising, as the Mughal throne was still viewed as a traditional source of authority across various regions and religions in India.
• The revolt in Delhi saw a unique collaboration between the Mughal court and the rebel soldiers, creating a central point of gravity for anti-British sentiment during the mid-19th century.

 Additional Information

• Bakht Khan:
• While Bahadur Shah II was the symbolic head, General Bakht Khan was the actual military commander in Delhi.
• He led the troops from Bareilly and established a court of administration to manage the affairs of the city and the military during the siege.
• Nana Sahib:
• The adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, he led the rebellion in Kanpur after being denied his pension by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
• Tantia Tope:
• A close associate of Nana Sahib and a brilliant general, he is renowned for his guerrilla warfare tactics in Central India and for assisting Rani Lakshmibai.
• Consequences for the Emperor:
• After the Fall of Delhi in September 1857, the Emperor was captured by Captain Hodson at Humayun’s Tomb.
• He was tried for treason and exiled to Rangoon (modern-day Myanmar), marking the formal end of the Mughal Dynasty.

The correct answer is To control liquidity in the banking system.

Key Points

• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a specific percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that commercial banks are legally required to keep as a cash balance with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• As a powerful monetary policy tool, the primary objective of CRR is to manage the liquidity or money supply within the economy to maintain price stability.
• When the RBI increases the CRR, it effectively withdraws excess liquidity from the banking system, reducing the funds available for banks to lend, which helps in curbing inflationary pressures.
• Conversely, a decrease in the CRR injects liquidity into the system by allowing banks to retain more funds for credit creation, thereby stimulating economic growth and investment.
• This mechanism is regulated under Section 42(1) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and banks do not earn any interest or return on investment on the cash reserves maintained under this ratio.

 Additional Information

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• While CRR is kept with the RBI in cash, SLR is the reserve banks maintain with themselves in liquid assets like gold, cash, or government securities.
• It is governed by Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, ensuring the long-term solvency and stability of financial institutions.
• Monetary Control and Profitability:
• The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the primary tool used to calculate inflation rates; CRR is merely the instrument used to control the money supply that influences those rates.
• Higher CRR levels typically reduce the profitability of banks because a larger portion of their deposits remains idle without earning interest income.
• The process of providing loans to the government is facilitated through the primary market for government bonds or Ways and Means Advances (WMA), not through the reserve requirements of CRR.

The correct answer is National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).

Key Points

• The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2010 as a restructuring of the Swarnajayanti Grameen Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) to adopt a mission-mode approach.
• The mission was formally launched in June 2011 by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) with support from the World Bank to reach out to nearly 7 crore rural poor households.
• It aims to promote poverty reduction through the building of strong institutions for the poor, particularly Self-Help Groups (SHGs), and enabling them to access a range of financial services and livelihoods.
• The scheme focuses on universal social mobilization and involves at least one woman member from each identified rural poor household into the SHG network.
• In November 2015, the program was renamed as Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).

 Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):
• Launched on 28 August 2014, it is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion.
• It provides services such as basic savings accounts, credit, insurance, and pensions to the unbanked population.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY):
• Launched in June 2015, it aims to provide affordable housing for the poor.
• The rural component (PMAY-G) was restructured from the Indira Awas Yojana in 2016.
• MGNREGA:
• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was enacted in 2005.
• It provides a legal guarantee for 100 days of wage employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do unskilled manual work.

The correct answer is Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), established on August 15, 1969, is the primary agency responsible for India's space research and planetary exploration under the Department of Space (DoS).
• ISRO is the lead entity for developing indigenous launch vehicles, including the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV), and the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3), which is India's most powerful rocket.
• As of 2026, ISRO continues to spearhead the Gaganyaan programme, which aims to demonstrate human spaceflight capability by launching a crew into a 400 km orbit for a mission duration of three days.
• The organization operates the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC SHAR) in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, which serves as the primary spaceport for all major satellite and mission launches.
• ISRO has achieved global milestones such as Chandrayaan-3, making India the first nation to reach the lunar South Pole, and the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan), which succeeded in its first attempt.

 Additional Information

• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):
• Focuses on military R&D and defense technologies.
• Responsible for the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP), producing systems like Agni and Prithvi.
• Indian National Centre for Space Promotion and Authorisation (IN-SPACe):
• An autonomous agency created in 2020 to regulate and promote private sector participation in the Indian space industry.
• Acts as a bridge between ISRO and Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs).
• NewSpace India Limited (NSIL):
• The commercial arm of ISRO established in 2019 to handle technology transfer and commercial satellite launches.
• Aims to outsource the production of PSLV and SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle) to the Indian private industry.

The correct answer is Vaibhav Sooryavanshi.

Key Points

• In the ICC Under-19 Men’s Cricket World Cup 2026, Vaibhav Sooryavanshi etched his name in history by recording the highest individual score ever achieved in the final of the tournament.
• His spectacular innings surpassed previous legendary scores in U-19 finals, such as those by Manjot Kalra (101* in 2018) and Unmukt Chand (111* in 2012), setting a new benchmark for future generations.
• The record-breaking performance played a pivotal role in India's campaign, demonstrating the player's immense temperament and technical proficiency on the world stage.
• Vaibhav Sooryavanshi gained significant limelight even before the tournament when he became the youngest player ever to be signed by an IPL franchise, being picked by Rajasthan Royals during the IPL 2025 Mega Auction at the age of 13.
• His achievement in the 2026 final solidifies his reputation as a generational talent in Indian cricket, contributing to India's legacy of producing top-tier opening batsmen.

 Additional Information

• ICC Under-19 Men’s Cricket World Cup 2026:
• The 16th edition of the tournament was co-hosted by Zimbabwe and Namibia, showcasing the growth of cricket in Africa.
• The event follows the 2024 edition held in South Africa, where Australia emerged as champions.
• Other Notable Prospects:
• Ayush Mhatre: A prolific run-scorer from Mumbai, known for his attacking style in the Ranji Trophy.
• Abhigyan Kundu: A talented wicketkeeper-batsman from Bengal who has shown consistent performance in domestic age-group cricket.
• Kanishk Chouhan: An emerging all-rounder known for his middle-order stability and effective spin bowling.

The correct answer is CATCH Grant Program.

Key Points

• The CATCH Grant Program, which stands for Cancer AI Technologies for Care and Health, was introduced in August 2025 to revolutionize oncology through digital intervention.
• The scheme specifically allocates a substantial financial grant of up to  ₹1 crore to support the development and validation of Artificial Intelligence (AI) driven tools.
• It targets the critical need for early detection, precise radiological mapping, and pathological analysis to improve the survival rates of cancer patients in India.
• The program encourages collaboration between healthcare providers and tech startups to create scalable, low-cost diagnostic solutions suitable for diverse clinical settings.
• Eligible projects under this grant must demonstrate the potential for clinical impact and the ability to integrate with existing electronic health records (EHR).

 Additional Information

• The focus on AI in healthcare aligns with the National Strategy for Artificial Intelligence, which identifies healthcare as one of the primary sectors for social inclusion and economic growth.
• Precision Medicine: AI algorithms are increasingly used to analyze biomarkers and genetic sequences to tailor specific treatments for individuals.
• Infrastructure Support: The grant facilitates the purchase of high-performance computing resources and cloud storage necessary for processing massive oncological datasets.
• Operational Scope: Solutions developed are expected to address high-incidence cancers such as breast cancer, cervical cancer, and oral cancer, which are prevalent in the Indian subcontinent.
• Strategic Goals: By funding domestic innovation, the government aims to reduce the dependency on expensive, imported diagnostic software and proprietary AI models.

The correct answer is Variable cost.

Key Points

• In economic theory, Variable Costs are expenses that fluctuate in direct proportion to the volume of production or the quantity of output generated.
• The scenario describes a short-run production environment where the firm utilizes both fixed inputs (ovens) and variable inputs (workers).
• Labor is considered a primary variable input in most production processes; therefore, hiring additional workers increases the total expenditure on wages.
• As the bakery increases the number of workers to produce more bread, the Total Variable Cost (TVC) rises, even though the fixed factors remain unchanged.
• Since the number of ovens is constant, the costs associated with them (like depreciation or lease payments) do not change, making Variable Cost the only category that necessarily increases with the addition of labor.

 Additional Information

• Fixed cost:
• These are costs that do not vary with the level of output in the short run.
• Examples include rent, insurance premiums, and the initial purchase cost of the ovens.
• Opportunity cost:
• This represents the value of the next best alternative that is sacrificed when a specific choice is made.
• It is an economic cost used for decision-making rather than a direct accounting expense reflected in production cost increases.
• Implicit cost:
• These are non-monetary opportunity costs involving resources already owned by the firm.
• It includes the foregone interest on the owner's invested capital or the salary the owner could have earned elsewhere.

The correct answer is Servants of India Society.

Key Points

• The Servants of India Society was established on June 12, 1905, in Pune, Maharashtra, by the renowned nationalist leader Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• The primary objective of the society was to train national missionaries for the service of India and to promote the true interests of the Indian people by all constitutional means.
• The organization was unique for its secular approach, focusing on social and human development rather than religious propagation, aiming to spiritualize public life.
• Members of the society were required to take a vow of poverty and dedicate their lives to the service of the country, working on issues such as education, healthcare, and the upliftment of underprivileged classes.
• The society played a significant role in providing emergency relief during famines and epidemics and established numerous schools and libraries across the country.
• It also published a English daily newspaper titled The Hitavada starting in 1911 to propagate its views on social and political reforms.

 Additional Information

• Indian National Congress:
• Founded in 1885 by retired British officer A.O. Hume.
• The first session was held in Bombay under the presidency of Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.
• It served as the principal political organization leading the Indian Independence Movement.
• Arya Samaj:
• Established in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in Bombay.
• Focused on Vedic revivalism and social reforms like the abolition of untouchability and promoting widow remarriage.
• Deccan Education Society:
• Founded in 1884 by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, and Mahadev Ballal Namjoshi.
• The society founded Fergusson College in Pune in 1885 to provide affordable, high-quality education to Indian youth.

The correct answer is Behramji Malabari.

Key Points

• Behramji Merwanji Malabari (1853−1912) was a distinguished Parsi social reformer, poet, and journalist who played a monumental role in the protection of Indian women through legislative advocacy.
• He utilized his position as the editor of the Indian Spectator and the Voice of India to raise awareness about the physical and social perils associated with infant marriage and enforced widowhood.
• In 1884, he issued his influential 'Notes on Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood', which catalyzed a nationwide debate and prompted the British administration to reconsider the legal age of marriage for Indian girls.
• Malabari's campaign gained international momentum when he visited London to lobby British politicians, leading to the formation of a committee to support his cause and pressure the Viceroy.
• His efforts were specifically intensified by the tragic Phulmoni Das case of 1889, where an 11-year-old girl died due to internal injuries inflicted by her 35-year-old husband, Hari Mohan Maitee.
• The culmination of his relentless work was the Age of Consent Act, 1891 (Act X), which amended the Indian Penal Code to raise the age of sexual consent for girls from 10 to 12 years, making violation a punishable offense.

 Additional Information

• Muhammad Iqbal:
• A renowned philosopher and poet known as Allama Iqbal, he is celebrated for his 1930 Allahabad Address where he envisioned a separate state for Muslims in northwestern India, laying the groundwork for the Two-Nation Theory.
• Chaudhry Rehmat Ali:
• A Punjabi Muslim nationalist and Cambridge student who, in his 1933 pamphlet 'Now or Never', first proposed the acronym 'PAKISTAN' representing various regions of the subcontinent.
• Liaquat Ali Khan:
• He served as the General Secretary of the All-India Muslim League and became the first Prime Minister of Pakistan in 1947, playing a key role in the country's early administrative and constitutional development.

The correct answer is Strengthening coordination and transparency in women and child development initiatives.

Key Points

• The PANKHUDI Portal was officially launched in January 2026 as a centralized digital platform under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
• Its primary objective is to streamline the implementation of various welfare schemes by enhancing inter-ministerial coordination and ensuring real-time monitoring of field activities.
• The portal provides a unified interface for the supervision of flagship missions, including Mission Shakti, Mission Vatsalya, and Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0.
• By integrating Data Analytics, the platform helps in identifying beneficiary gaps and ensures that nutritional and safety interventions reach the most vulnerable women and children across India.
• The initiative emphasizes accountability and transparency by digitizing records and reducing manual errors in the delivery of social security services.

 Additional Information

• Mission Shakti:
• A comprehensive scheme for women’s safety, security, and empowerment comprising the Sambal and Samarthya sub-components.
• Mission Vatsalya:
• Focused on child protection and welfare services, ensuring a healthy and happy childhood for every minor in the country.
• Digital Governance:
• The PANKHUDI Portal aligns with the Digital India mission by promoting e-Governance and Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanisms.
• It facilitates the tracking of performance indicators for Anganwadi Workers and Child Development Project Officers (CDPOs).
• Other Related Initiatives:
• PM Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): A maternity benefit program providing financial assistance to pregnant and lactating mothers.
• Poshan Tracker: A mobile-based application specifically designed for the dynamic monitoring of nutritional outcomes.

The correct answer is Leh, Ladakh.

Key Points

• The Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG) is a premier national-level event organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Sports Authority of India (SAI) to promote winter sports culture in the country.
• The ice sports leg of the games is traditionally and strategically hosted in Leh, the capital of the Union Territory of Ladakh, due to its ideal natural conditions and specialized infrastructure for frozen-surface sports.
• Key disciplines featured in the Leh leg include Ice Hockey and Speed Skating, utilizing venues like the NDS Ice Hockey Rink, which is one of the highest and most advanced facilities of its kind in India.
• By hosting the ice sports in Ladakh, the government aims to leverage the local expertise and passion for Ice Hockey, which is a highly popular sport in the region, often referred to as its 'sporting lifeline'.
• The selection of Leh ensures that the unique geographic and climatic advantages of the Trans-Himalayan region are utilized to provide athletes with a competitive environment comparable to international standards.

 Additional Information

• Gulmarg:
• Located in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, Gulmarg typically serves as the venue for the snow sports leg of the games.
• It hosts events such as Alpine Skiing, Snowboarding, Nordic Skiing, and Ski Mountaineering on its world-renowned slopes.
• Mascot and Symbolism:
• The mascot for the games is often the Snow Leopard (notably named 'Sheen-e She' in previous editions), representing the natural heritage and resilience of the Himalayas.
• Strategic Importance:
• These games serve as a vital talent identification platform to prepare Indian athletes for the Winter Olympics and other international competitions.
• The event boosts sports tourism and local economies in Ladakh and Kashmir during the peak winter months.

The correct answer is C.P. Radhakrishnan.

Key Points

• C.P. Radhakrishnan assumed the office of the 15th Vice President of India in September 2025, marking a significant transition in the country's second-highest constitutional post.
• Before his elevation to this position, he served as the Governor of Maharashtra and had previously held gubernatorial responsibilities for Jharkhand, Telangana, and Puducherry.
• In accordance with Article 64 of the Constitution of India, the Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), presiding over its legislative proceedings and maintaining order in the house.
• The election for this constitutional role is conducted by an Electoral College consisting of members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha through a system of proportional representation as per Article 66.

 Additional Information

• Jagdeep Dhankhar:
• He served as the 14th Vice President of India, having been elected to the office in August 2022.
• Prior to his vice-presidency, he served as the Governor of West Bengal and was a distinguished Senior Advocate at the Supreme Court of India.
• B. Sudershan Reddy:
• A prominent legal figure who served as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India from 2006 to 2011 and previously as the Chief Justice of the Guwahati High Court.
• G. Parameswaran:
• Identified as Dr. G. Parameshwara, a senior political leader from Karnataka who has served as the Deputy Chief Minister and the President of the Karnataka Pradesh Congress Committee.
• Constitutional Qualifications:
• A candidate for Vice President must be a citizen of India, at least 35 years of age, and qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
• The term of office is five years, and the incumbent can act as President under Article 65 during specific vacancies.

The correct answer is ECINET.

Key Points

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) officially launched ECINET during the India International Conference on Democracy and Election Management (IICDEM) 2026, which took place in January 2026.
• ECINET is conceptualized as a one-stop digital platform that integrates various legacy systems into a single, cohesive interface for election-related services and real-time data management.
• The platform is designed to cater to multiple stakeholders, including voters, candidates, political parties, and electoral administrators, ensuring a seamless flow of information.
• Key functionalities of ECINET include online voter registration, digital electoral rolls, polling station mapping, and live tracking of election trends and official results.
• The launch of this platform aligns with the Digital India initiative and aims to enhance transparency, accountability, and accessibility within the world's largest democratic exercise.

 Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• It is an autonomous Constitutional Authority established under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
• The commission was established on January 25, 1950, a day celebrated annually as National Voters' Day.
• The ECI oversees the conduct of elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President.
• IICDEM:
• The India International Conference on Democracy and Election Management serves as a global forum for sharing best practices in electoral management and democratic governance.
• It emphasizes the use of innovative technology to address challenges such as misinformation and voter apathy.
• Voter Services:
• Before the launch of ECINET, the ECI utilized various standalone applications like cVIGIL for reporting violations, the Voter Helpline App for information, and KYC (Know Your Candidate) for transparency.

The correct answer is Undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.

Key Points

• The Thar Desert, also recognized as the Great Indian Desert, is a vast, arid region situated in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent, primarily covering the state of Rajasthan.
• The most distinctive geomorphological feature of this region is its undulating sandy plain, which is predominantly formed by the depositional action of winds, known as aeolian processes.
• The desert experiences an extremely arid climate with very low annual rainfall, typically measuring below 150 mm, which leads to sparse vegetation and the dominance of physical weathering over chemical weathering.
• The landscape is characterized by various types of sand dunes, including Barchans (crescent-shaped dunes) and longitudinal dunes, which shift and migrate across the plains due to strong seasonal winds.
• The topography is divided into two main parts: the Marusthali (the desert proper with high sand dunes) and the Bagar (the semi-desert sandy plain located to the west of the Aravalli Range).

 Additional Information

• Barchans:
• These are crescent-shaped dunes where the points or 'horns' of the crescent point downwind. They are prominent in the central and western parts of Jaisalmer.
• Luni River:
• It is the only significant seasonal river in the Thar Desert, originating from the Pushkar Valley of the Aravalli Range and ending in the marshy lands of the Rann of Kachchh.
• Hamada and Reg:
• While the Thar is famous for its sand, some areas consist of rocky plains (Hamada) or stony deserts covered with pebbles (Reg), though these are less characteristic than the vast sandy stretches.
• Saline Lakes:
• The region contains several playas or saline lakes such as Sambhar, Didwana, and Pachpadra, which are crucial for salt production in India.

The correct answer is In chloroplasts in leaf cells.

Key Points

• Photosynthesis is the fundamental physico-chemical process by which plants use light energy to drive the synthesis of organic compounds like glucose.
• The leaf is the primary organ for this process because its anatomy, including a large surface area and specialized stomata for carbon dioxide intake, is optimized for light harvesting.
• Inside the leaf, the mesophyll cells contain a high density of chloroplasts, which are double-membrane-bound organelles containing the light-absorbing pigment chlorophyll.
• Chlorophyll specifically traps solar radiation to initiate the Light-Dependent Reactions in the thylakoid membranes, producing ATP and NADPH.
• The Dark Reaction or Calvin Cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast, where chemical energy is used to fix CO₂ into carbohydrates.

 Additional Information

• Stem tissues:
• While most stems serve for transport via xylem and phloem, some young green stems or herbaceous plants can photosynthesize.
• In desert plants (Xerophytes), stems undergo modifications like phylloclades to perform photosynthesis when leaves are reduced to spines to prevent transpiration.
• Roots of plants:
• Standard roots are non-photosynthetic as they are located underground and lack pigmentation; their role is anchorage and mineral absorption.
• Assimilatory roots, such as those found in Tinospora or certain epiphytic orchids, contain chlorophyll and can perform photosynthesis.
• Flowers:
• Flowers are dedicated to angiosperm reproduction; however, the green sepals (calyx) can perform limited photosynthesis to support the floral bud.

The correct answer is Reproduction failures in males and females.

Key Points

• Vitamin E is a group of eight fat-soluble compounds, primarily alpha-tocopherol, which functions as a potent antioxidant by protecting cell membranes from oxidative damage.
• It is widely known as the anti-sterility vitamin because it is essential for the proper functioning of the reproductive systems in humans and other mammals.
• In males, a significant deficiency can lead to the degeneration of germinal epithelium in the testes, which negatively impacts sperm production and can cause permanent sterility.
• In females, adequate levels are required to maintain a healthy uterine environment; historical scientific studies indicate that deficiency can lead to fetal resorption or complications during gestation.
• The vitamin preserves the integrity of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) within the membranes of gametes (sperm and egg cells), shielding them from reactive oxygen species (ROS).
• Because it prevents the oxidation of lipids in reproductive tissues, Vitamin E is critical for ensuring gamete viability and successful fertilization processes.

 Additional Information

• Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)
• Deficiency leads to Scurvy, a condition that disrupts collagen synthesis, resulting in bleeding gums, corkscrew hairs, and significantly delayed wound healing.
• Vitamin D (Calciferol)
• Insufficient levels cause Rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults, where impaired mineralization leads to soft, weak bones and skeletal deformities like bowed legs.
• Vitamin A (Retinol)
• Essential for the production of rhodopsin in the retina; deficiency causes Night Blindness (Nyctalopia), making it difficult for the eye to adapt to dim light.
• Hemolytic Anemia
• In specific populations like premature infants, Vitamin E deficiency can lead to the oxidative destruction of red blood cells, causing anemia.
• Dietary Sources
• Rich sources include wheat germ oil, sunflower seeds, almonds, spinach, and fortified vegetable oils.

The correct answer is High Court.

Key Points

• The High Court is the highest judicial authority at the State level in India, functioning under a unified and integrated judicial system.
• It possesses Appellate Jurisdiction, which allows it to hear and decide appeals against the judgments, orders, or decrees passed by Subordinate Courts located within its territorial jurisdiction.
• Subordinate courts primarily include District Courts, Sessions Courts, and specialized tribunals that handle both civil and criminal matters.
• Under Article 227 of the Constitution of India, the High Court also enjoys the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction.
• In civil cases, an appeal can lie to the High Court from the decisions of District Judges or Subordinate Judges, while in criminal cases, appeals against the sentences of Sessions Judges or Additional Sessions Judges are heard here.

 Additional Information

• Supreme Court:
• Established under Article 124, it is the Apex Court of India and primarily hears appeals against the judgments of various High Courts via Special Leave Petitions or certificates of fitness.
• Attorney General of India:
• Appointed under Article 76, the Attorney General is the Chief Legal Advisor to the Government of India and the First Law Officer of the country.
• Unlike the judiciary, this official does not hold court or deliver judgments; instead, they represent the Union Government in legal proceedings.
• Subordinate Courts:
• These are governed by the State Governments and are organized into Civil Courts and Criminal Courts (Sessions Courts) within each district.

The correct answer is Article 139A.

Key Points

• Article 139A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, and later amended by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
• Clause (2) of Article 139A specifically empowers the Supreme Court to transfer any case, appeal, or other proceedings pending before any High Court to any other High Court if it deems such a transfer expedient for the ends of justice.
• The Supreme Court can exercise this power either suo motu (on its own motion) or on an application made by the Attorney General of India or by a party interested in the case.
• Additionally, Article 139A(1) allows the Supreme Court to withdraw cases involving substantially the same questions of law pending before it and one or more High Courts, or before two or more High Courts, to dispose of them itself to ensure uniformity in judicial decisions.

 Additional Information

• Article 129:
• Declares the Supreme Court to be a Court of Record.
• Grants the court the power to punish for contempt of itself, ensuring its authority and dignity are maintained.
• Article 131:
• Defines the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• It deals with inter-governmental disputes, such as those between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States.
• Article 32:
• Guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.

The correct answer is Tamil.

Key Points

• Tamil is a prominent member of the Dravidian language family, which is one of the world's oldest and most significant linguistic groups, primarily spoken in Southern India and Northeast Sri Lanka.
• The Dravidian family encompasses approximately 70 languages, with the four major literary languages being Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.
• Tamil possesses a continuous literary tradition spanning over 2,000 years, beginning with the Sangam literature composed between 300 BCE and 300 CE.
• In 2004, the Government of India officially recognized Tamil as the first Classical Language due to its ancient heritage and independent origins.
• Linguistically, Dravidian languages are characterized as agglutinative, where grammatical relations are expressed by adding suffixes to roots, distinct from the inflectional nature of Indo-Aryan languages.

 Additional Information

• Indo-Aryan Language Family:
• Hindi: The most widely spoken Indo-Aryan language in India, predominantly used in the North and Central regions and written in the Devanagari script.
• Marathi: An Indo-Aryan language spoken mainly in Maharashtra, featuring a rich literary history dating back to the 13th century.
• Bengali: An Indo-Aryan language primary to West Bengal and Bangladesh, known for its significant contribution to the Indian Renaissance.
• While the Indo-Aryan family is a branch of the Indo-European family, the Dravidian family is considered indigenous to the Indian subcontinent, with the Brahui language in Pakistan being its northernmost outlier.

The correct answer is Adventitious roots.

Key Points

• Adventitious roots are defined as roots that originate from any part of the plant body other than the radicle of the embryo.
• When a plant cutting (stem or leaf) is placed in water or moist soil, the meristematic cells at the nodes or wounded sites undergo division to form these roots, allowing the cutting to establish itself as a new individual.
• This phenomenon is a primary mechanism for vegetative propagation and asexual reproduction in various horticultural plants like Rose, Money plant, and Sugarcane.
• Their primary function in cuttings is to provide anchorage and facilitate the absorption of water and dissolved minerals from the medium to sustain the growing shoot.

 Additional Information

• Tap roots:
• These roots develop directly from the radicle during seed germination.
• They consist of a single, thick primary root that grows deep into the soil, with smaller lateral branches.
• Commonly found in dicotyledonous plants such as Mustard, Gram, and Carrot.
• Prop roots:
• These are a specialized type of adventitious roots that arise from the heavy horizontal branches of a tree.
• They grow downwards into the soil to provide mechanical support to the plant, acting like pillars, famously seen in the Banyan tree.
• Fibrous roots:
• In monocots, the primary root is often short-lived and is replaced by a cluster of thin, hair-like roots arising from the base of the stem.
• These roots spread out horizontally near the soil surface, as seen in Wheat, Rice, and Maize.

The correct answer is State of Sikkim.

Key Points

• The Gauhati High Court was originally established as the High Court of Assam and Nagaland on 1 March 1948 and was later renamed under the North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.
• Currently, the territorial jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court extends over four North-Eastern states: Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh.
• The State of Assam is home to the principal seat of the court located in Guwahati.
• The State of Nagaland and State of Mizoram are served by the Kohima Bench and Aizawl Bench respectively, which fall directly under its judicial authority.
• The State of Sikkim maintains its own independent judicial body, the Sikkim High Court, and has never been under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court.

 Additional Information

• Sikkim High Court:
• It was established on 16 May 1975 following the 36th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution, which made Sikkim the 22nd state of the Indian Union.
• Its seat is located in Gangtok, the capital of Sikkim.
• Jurisdictional Evolution:
• Until 2013, the Gauhati High Court had the largest jurisdiction in India, covering seven states.
• The North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2012 led to the creation of separate High Courts for Meghalaya, Manipur, and Tripura on 23 March 2013.
• Article 214 of the Indian Constitution mandates that there shall be a High Court for each state, although Parliament may establish a common High Court for two or more states under Article 231.

The correct answer is Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Energy Statistics India 2025 report, published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), estimates India's total renewable energy (RE) potential at 2,109,654 MW as of 31st March 2024.
• Rajasthan holds the highest share of this potential at 18.15% (approximately 382,852 MW), primarily due to its vast desert land and high solar insolation levels.
• Gujarat ranks second with an estimated potential of 14.28% (301,234 MW), benefiting from its long coastline suitable for wind energy and high solar radiation.
• Maharashtra and Karnataka contribute significantly with 11.23% (236,871 MW) and 8.84% (186,419 MW) of the national total respectively.
• Together, these four states (Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Karnataka) account for an aggregate of 52.5% of India's total estimated renewable potential.
• This concentration highlights the strategic importance of the Western and Southern regions in spearheading the country's transition toward sustainable energy sources.

 Additional Information

• Source-wise Potential Breakdown
• Solar Power represents the largest share of the estimated potential, with Rajasthan alone contributing over 142,000 MW to the national resource base.
• Wind Power potential is predominantly concentrated in states like Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka, particularly at higher hub heights.
• National Climate Targets
• The identification of state-wise potential is critical for achieving India's Panchamrit goals, which include reaching 500 GW of non-fossil energy capacity by 2030.
• These estimates are periodically revised by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) and the National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) based on technological advancements.

The correct answer is Mandapa.

Key Points

• In Indian temple architecture, the Mandapa is a pillared outdoor hall or pavilion used for public rituals, congregational worship, and religious ceremonies.
• It is situated directly in front of the Garbhagriha (the innermost sanctum) and serves as an assembly hall for devotees to gather during prayers or performances like classical dance and music dedicated to the deity.
• This architectural feature is common to both the Nagara style (North Indian) and the Dravida style (South Indian), acting as a bridge between the outside world and the sacred sanctum.
• Depending on its size and position, it may be classified as an Ardha-mandapa (partial porch), Maha-mandapa (great hall), or Kalyana-mandapa (dedicated to marriage ceremonies of the deity).
• In Nagara architecture, these halls are often topped with Phamsana (pyramidal) roofs, while in Dravida architecture, they are integral parts of the temple complex leading to the main shrine.

 Additional Information

• Antarala:
• It is a small intermediate chamber or vestibule that connects the Garbhagriha and the Mandapa.
• This feature is particularly prominent in the Vesara style and developed Nagara temples like those in Khajuraho.
• Jagamohana:
• This is the specific term used for the assembly hall in the Kalinga architecture of Odisha.
• A classic example is the massive Jagamohana of the Konark Sun Temple, which stands as a distinct structural unit.
• Gopuram:
• These are monumental, ornate entrance gateways found primarily in Dravida style temples of South India.
• They became exceptionally large and complex during the Vijayanagara and Nayaka periods, often dwarfing the main temple tower.

The correct answer is 4th.

Key Points

• The Renewable Energy Statistics 2024, published by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), provides the most comprehensive data on renewable energy capacity trends globally, reporting data up to the end of the year 2023.
• According to this report, India is ranked 4th globally in terms of total installed renewable energy capacity, reinforcing its position as a major player in the global energy transition.
• The global rankings for total renewable capacity are led by China in the first position, followed by the United States in second, and Brazil in third, with India securing the fourth spot.
• The report highlights that the world added a record 473 GW of renewable energy capacity in 2023, a growth of nearly 14%, with Solar and Wind energy accounting for 98% of these new additions.
• India's cumulative renewable energy capacity has seen consistent growth, reaching approximately 175 GW to 180 GW (including large hydro) by the end of the reported period, driven by favorable government policies and increased private investment.

 Additional Information

• IRENA (International Renewable Energy Agency):
• It is an intergovernmental organization established in 2009 with its headquarters located in Masdar City, Abu Dhabi, UAE.
• It serves as the principal platform for international cooperation and a repository of policy, technology, resource, and financial knowledge on renewable energy.
• India's Renewable Energy Targets:
• During COP26, India announced the 'Panchamrit' goals, which include reaching a non-fossil fuel energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030.
• India aims to fulfill 50% of its energy requirements from renewable sources by 2030 as part of its updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
• Specific Sectoral Ranks:
• Wind Power: India currently maintains the 4th position globally in terms of total installed wind capacity.
• Solar Power: India is ranked 5th globally in installed solar photovoltaic capacity, following China, the USA, Japan, and Germany.

The correct answer is Regulation of hormone secretion by signals from target tissues.

Key Points

• The feedback mechanism is a biological control system in the human endocrine system designed to maintain homeostasis by ensuring hormone levels remain within a narrow, functional range.
• Hormonal regulation predominantly utilizes negative feedback loops, where the increase in a hormone or its physiological effect prompts the endocrine gland to reduce further secretion.
• The process involves target tissues and sensors that monitor changes in the internal environment; for example, the pancreas monitors blood glucose levels to regulate the secretion of insulin and glucagon.
• In the Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal (HPA) axis, the hormones released by the adrenal cortex (like cortisol) send inhibitory signals back to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to prevent over-secretion.
• Positive feedback is a variation where the stimulus is amplified, such as the release of oxytocin during childbirth, which increases uterine contractions until delivery is achieved.

 Additional Information

• Endocrine Glands
• These are ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream to reach distant target organs.
• Key glands include the thyroid, which regulates metabolic rate, and the pituitary gland, often called the master gland because it controls other endocrine functions.
• Homeostasis
• It is the state of steady internal physical and chemical conditions maintained by living systems, fundamental for the survival of the organism.
• Hormone Receptors
• Cells in target tissues contain specific protein receptors that bind to hormones, allowing the tissue to respond to signals even at very low concentrations.
• Regulatory Disorders
• Malfunctions in the feedback loop can lead to diseases such as Diabetes Mellitus (glucose regulation failure) or Hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid hormone production).

The correct answer is Malayalam.

Key Points

• Malayalam is the official and most widely spoken language in the state of Kerala, situated on the southwestern coast of India.
• It belongs to the Dravidian language family and shares a common ancestor with other South Indian languages, particularly Tamil, with which it was closely linked until approximately the 9th century.
• In 2013, the Government of India officially designated Malayalam as a Classical Language, recognizing its ancient literary heritage and distinct linguistic evolution.
• Apart from Kerala, it is the principal language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep and is also spoken in the Mahe district of the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• The language is written in the Malayalam script, which evolved from the Vatteluttu script and the Grantha script, featuring a complex system of 54 letters including 15 vowels and 39 consonants.
• It is renowned for its rich literary tradition, with the earliest known work being the Ramacharitam, an epic poem written in the 12th century.

 Additional Information

• Tamil:
• Primarily spoken in Tamil Nadu and Puducherry, it is one of the oldest living Classical Languages in the world.
• It also holds official status in Sri Lanka and Singapore.
• Kannada:
• This language is the official tongue of Karnataka and possesses a Classical Language status conferred in 2008.
• It has a significant history of literature, notably the Kavirajamarga from the 9th century.
• Telugu:
• It is the official language of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and is the most widely spoken Dravidian language in India.
• Known as the 'Italian of the East' due to its musical quality and vowel-ending words.

The correct answer is Odia.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, officially accorded Classical Language status to Odia on February 20, 2014.
• Odia became the sixth language in India to receive this distinction, following Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, and Malayalam.
• The Ministry of Culture grants this status based on recommendations from a Committee of Linguistic Experts, verifying that the language meets specific criteria of high antiquity.
• A primary requirement for this status is that the language must have a recorded history of early texts spanning 1,500 to 2,000 years.
• The language must possess a body of ancient literature or texts considered a valuable heritage by generations of its speakers, and its literary tradition must be original and not borrowed from another speech community.

 Additional Information

• Timeline of Classical Languages:
• Tamil: The first language to be declared classical in 2004.
• Sanskrit: Granted the status in 2005.
• Kannada and Telugu: Both were added to the list in 2008.
• Malayalam: Recognized in 2013.
• Recent Developments (2024):
• In October 2024, the Government of India expanded the list to include Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese.
• Incentives for Classical Languages:
• The government provides two major international awards annually for distinguished scholars of these languages.
• A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is established for research and preservation.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) creates a certain number of Professional Chairs in Central Universities to promote the language.

The correct answer is Fundamental Duties are not legally enforceable.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution under a single article, Article 51A.
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable and protected by the Supreme Court and High Courts through writs, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable. This means there is no direct legal remedy available in courts for their non-performance.
• These duties were not part of the original Constitution of 1950; they were incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• The primary purpose of these duties is to serve as a moral obligation and a reminder to citizens that while they enjoy rights, they also owe certain responsibilities to the State and the society.
• While not directly enforceable by courts, the Parliament is free to enforce them through suitable legislative enactments, such as the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 or the Representation of People Act.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties vs. Constitutional Remedies:
• Constitutional Remedies (under Article 32 and Article 226) are specifically designed to protect Fundamental Rights. They do not apply to the enforcement of Fundamental Duties.
• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added the 11th Fundamental Duty, which requires parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to children aged 6 to 14 years.
• The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
• The Verma Committee (1999) identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties, despite their overall non-justiciable nature.

The correct answer is Public order.

Key Points

• The Right to Freedom of Movement is a fundamental right guaranteed to every citizen of India under Article 19(1)(d) of the Constitution of India, allowing movement throughout the national territory.
• This right is subject to reasonable restrictions as specified under Article 19(5), ensuring that individual liberty does not compromise collective welfare.
• One of the primary grounds for such restriction is the interest of the general public, which includes maintaining Public Order, ensuring public health, and preserving national security.
• Under the umbrella of the interest of the general public, the state can restrict the movement of individuals to prevent the spread of infectious diseases or to maintain peace during periods of civil unrest or communal tension.
• The restriction must be reasonable and not arbitrary, meaning it must have a direct nexus with the objective of protecting the public.

 Additional Information

• Protection of Scheduled Tribes:
• Movement can be restricted to protect the traditional vocation, culture, and property rights of Scheduled Tribes from outside interference and exploitation.
• This is particularly relevant in areas designated under the Fifth Schedule or Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
• Article 19 vs. Article 21:
• Article 19(1)(d) exclusively covers internal movement within the borders of India.
• The right to move out of the country (external movement) and the right to return to India are protected under Article 21 as part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty, as affirmed in the Maneka Gandhi case (1978).
• Judicial Oversight:
• The Supreme Court has the power to test the reasonableness of any restriction to ensure it does not infringe upon the basic structure of the Constitution or exceed the limits set by Article 19(5).

The correct answer is Stomata and chloroplasts functioning together.

Key Points

• Photosynthesis is the fundamental biochemical process by which green plants, algae, and cyanobacteria convert solar energy into chemical energy stored in glucose.
• Stomata are microscopic epidermal pores flanked by guard cells that regulate the diffusion of gases; they are the primary site for the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere.
• Chloroplasts are specialized organelles containing the pigment chlorophyll, which captures photons to drive the synthesis of organic compounds.
• The process is divided into light-dependent reactions, which occur in the thylakoid membranes to generate ATP and NADPH, and the light-independent reactions (Calvin Cycle), which take place in the stroma.
• Without stomata, the plant cannot acquire the carbon atoms necessary for sugar synthesis, and without chloroplasts, there is no machinery to transform electromagnetic radiation into molecular bonds.

 Additional Information

• Role of non-essential components for CO₂ intake:
• Cuticle and Stem: The waxy cuticle acts as a hydrophobic barrier to prevent excessive transpiration, while the stem provides mechanical support and houses vascular bundles (xylem and phloem).
• Petals and Sepals: These are modified leaves involved in reproduction; petals use pigmentation to attract pollinators, and sepals protect the floral bud during development.
• Veins and Root Hairs: Root hairs increase the surface area for osmotic water absorption and mineral transport, while leaf veins provide the conduit for transporting water to mesophyll cells.
• Gaseous Exchange: The opening and closing of stomata are governed by the turgidity of guard cells, which is influenced by potassium ion (K⁺) concentration and abscisic acid (ABA) levels.