DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 03 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

E, F, G, H, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.

1. Only one person sits between G and E, when counted from the right of G.
2. Only one person sits between E and F, when counted from the left of F.
3. Only one person sits between G and U, when counted from the right of U.
4. Only two people sit between W and F, when counted from the right of W.
5. Only one person sits between V and U, when counted from the left of U. 

E sits third to the right of H.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

GONE’ is coded as ‘5862’ 

‘NOTE’ is coded as ‘9685’.

Code for "T" is "9".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: C − K # G + N

It means: C is the brother of K, K is the daughter of G, and G is the mother of N.

G is related to C as mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) M % P @ # N A Ω T $ E & W * K £ R C ~ V ^ (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) M % P @ # N A Ω T $ E & W * K £ R C ~ V ^ (Right)

There is only such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given series:

(Left) 3 7 > / 5 + & 5 & 8 9 ^ 7 4 2 2 \ 3 @ 4 $ (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 3 7 > / 5 + & 5 & 8 9 ^ 7 4 2 2 \ 3 @ 4 $ (Right)

There are two such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Dictionary order of given words:

1. Classic
   

3. Composing
4. Concern
   

2. Crystal
   

5. Curiosity

Correct order is: 1, 3, 4, 2, 5

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statement:

K ≥ L < M < N = Q

Conclusions:

I. K < M → False (From the statement, K ≥ L and L < M. There is no definite relationship established between K and M.)

II. Q > L → True (Since L < M < N and N = Q, therefore Q > L.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given word: PLUMBER

Rule:

Each vowel is replaced by the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order, and each consonant is replaced by the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order.

Applying the rule:

P → O

L → K

U → V

M → L

B → A

E → F

R → Q

Thus, the new group of letters formed is: OKVLAFQ

Original word: P L U M B E R

New group: O K V L A F Q

The only common letter between the original word and the new group is L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series:

(Left) W U G E K L T Q J W U J V E S C V K J T C (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Vowel ← Vowel → Consonant

Checking the series:

(Left) W U G E K L T Q J W U J V E S C V K J T C (Right)

There is no such Vowel, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a consonant

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statement:

E < R ≤ T = P < Q

Combined Statement: E < R ≤ T = P < Q

Conclusions:

I. P > R → False (From the statement, R ≤ T and T = P, so R ≤ P. This means P may be equal to R or greater than R. Hence, P > R is not definitely true.)

II. Q > R → True (From the statement, R ≤ P and P < Q. Therefore, Q is definitely greater than R.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

‘what are those’ is coded as ‘np tr sq’  

‘take those gifts’ is coded as ‘hk my tr’.

Code for  "those" is "tr".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘MORE’ is coded as ‘9817’ 

‘ROAM’ is coded as ‘8157’. 

Code for "A" is "5".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

E, F, G, H, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.

1. Only two people sit between H and E, when counted from the right of H.
2. Only three people sit between U and G, when counted from the right of G.
3. E sits to the immediate right of G.
4. V sits to the immediate right of W. 

V sits fourth to the right of F.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven boxes—P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V—are stacked one above the other, though not necessarily in that order.

1. No box is placed above T.
2. Only three boxes are placed between T and Q.
3. Only one box is placed between P and U. U is placed immediately above Q.
4. Only four boxes are placed between P and R.
5. V is placed somewhere above S.

Final arrangement:

Four boxes are placed below V.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven boxes—P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V—are placed one above the other, but not necessarily in that order.

1. Only three boxes are placed below V.
2. Only five boxes are placed between S and T.
3. Q is placed immediately above S.
4. P is placed above R but below U. 

One box is placed above U.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statements:

All oranges are bananas.

All bananas are grapes.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All oranges are grapes → Follow (Because all oranges are inside bananas and all bananas are inside grapes, so all oranges are definitely inside grapes.)

II. Some grapes are bananas → Follow (Because all bananas are grapes, there is a definite overlapping region between grapes and bananas, hence some grapes are bananas is true.)

So, both conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Dictionary order of given words:

1. Favoring
2. Festival
3. Forsaken
   

4. Founding
5. Freshman
   

Correct order is : 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Seven boxes—S, T, U, V, D, E, and F—are stacked one above the other, though not necessarily in that order.

1. Only box U is placed above box T.
2. There are exactly two boxes between T and D.
3. Only box V is placed below box S.
4. Box F is not placed immediately above box D.

Final arrangement:

Box "E" is placed at the fourth position from the top.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

Krishnma is 20th from the right end.

Randhir is 25th from the right end.

Randhir is exactly between Krishnma and Babita.

Babita is 10th from the left end.

Difference between the positions of Krishnma and Randhir from the right end = 25 − 20 = 5

Since Randhir is exactly between Krishnma and Babita, Babita must be 5 places away from Randhir on the other side.

Therefore, Babita's position from the right end = 25 + 5 = 30

Total items = (Rank from Left) + (Rank from Right) − 1

Number of people in the row = 10 + 30 − 1

= 40 − 1

= 39 people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: F + T × B ÷ N − U

It means:

⇒ F + T: F is the son of T.

⇒ T × B: T is the wife of B.

⇒ B ÷ N: B is the father of N.

⇒ N − U: N is the sister of U.

F is the brother of U.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 12 A 2 B 1 C 3 D 2 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 12 ÷ 2 × 1 + 3 - 2 = ?

⇒ 12 ÷ 2 × 1 + 3 - 2 = ?

⇒ 6 × 1 + 3 - 2 = ?

⇒ 6 + 3 - 2 = ?

⇒ 6 + 3 - 2 = ?

⇒ 9 - 2 = ?

⇒ 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given number: 6817357

The new number formed is 4628468.

The fourth digit from the left is 8.

The fifth digit from the left is 4.

Sum = 8 + 4 = 12

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

112 + (32 × 1) = 112 + 32 = 144

144 - (32 × 2) = 144 - 64 = 80

80 + (32 × 3) = 80 + 96 = 176

176 - (32 × 4) = 176 - 128 = 48

48 + (32 × 5) = 48 + 160 = 208

208 - (32 × 6) = 208 - 192 = 16

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statements:

Some brinjals are peppers.

Some peppers are cauliflowers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some brinjals are cauliflowers → Does not follow( As there is no direct relationship or overlap between brinjals and cauliflowers in the least possible diagram, it is not a definite conclusion.)

II. All cauliflowers are peppers → Does not follow (Only a 'some' relationship is given between peppers and cauliflowers. All cauliflowers being peppers is not necessarily true.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic: (1st Number × 2 = 3rd Number) and (3rd Number − 4 = 2nd Number)

For (5, 6, 10)

5 × 2 = 10  (3rd Number)

10 − 4 = 6 (2nd Number)

For (11, 18, 22)

11 × 2 = 22 (3rd Number)

22 − 4 = 18  (2nd Number)

Similarly, 

Option (4): (14, 24, 28):

14 × 2 = 28 (3rd Number)

28 − 4 = 24 (2nd Number)

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Option in which the given figure is embedded,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The figure given below to complete the pattern,

 + 

= 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

For IEC to EAY

For DZX to ZVT

Similarly,

Option 1) NJH to JFD

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Original Number: 7853642

The new number formed is: 5931753

Digit second from the left: 9

Digit second from the right: 5

Sum = 9 + 5 = 14

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

1. LP-MQ

2) DH-DK

3) OS-PT

4. JN-KO

Therefore, DH-DK is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

1. For ZDH:

2. For DHL:

3) For INQ :

4. For NRV :

Therefore, INQ is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of the letters in the English alphabetical order.

For WTOS to URMQ

For ZWRV to XUPT

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of −2 for each letter in the group.

Applying logic to SPKO:

Following the same pattern, SPKO is related to QNIM.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Logic followed here is,

41 + (4 × 1) = 41 + 4 = 45

45 + (4 × 2) = 45 + 8 = 453

53 + (4 × 3) = 53 + 12 = 65

65 + (4 × 4) = 65 + 16 = 81

81 + (4 × 5) = 81 + 20 = 101

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic: First number − Second number = Third number

For (178, 42, 136) →

178 − 42 = 136

For (119, 26, 93) →

119 − 26 = 93

Similarly,

Option (1):  (148, 35, 113)

148 − 35 = 113

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 5 + 3 ÷ 2 - 4 × 2 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 5 × 3 - 2 ÷ 4 + 2 = ?

⇒ 5 × 3 - 2 ÷ 4 + 2 = ?

⇒ 15 - 2 ÷ 4 + 2 = ?

⇒ 15 - 0.5 + 2 = ?

⇒ 15 - 0.5 + 2 = ?

⇒ 14.5 + 2 = ?

⇒ 16.5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic: (First number × 5) - 1 = Second number

For**,** 5, 24

(5 × 5) - 1 = 25 - 1 = 24

For, 7, 34

(7 × 5) - 1 = 35 - 1 = 34

Similarly,

Option (1): 9, 44

(9 × 5) - 1 = 45 - 1 = 44

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is,

5 × 2 + 2 = 12

12 × 2 + 4 = 28

28 × 2 + 6 = 62

62 × 2 + 8 = 132

132 × 2 + 10 = 274

Therefore, the number that will replace the question mark is 132.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

For TK-VO:

For UL-WP:

For QH-SE:

For OF-QJ:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is:

For DILH to JORN

For GLOK to MRUQ

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +6 for each letter in the sequence.

For KPSO

Thus, KPSO is related to QVYU following the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 22 A 48 B 24 D 11 C 5 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 22 ÷ 48 × 24 - 11 + 5 = ?

⇒ 22 ÷ 48 × 24 - 11 + 5 = ?

⇒ 11 ÷ 24 × 24 - 11 + 5 = ?

⇒ 11 - 11 + 5 = ?

⇒ 11 - 11 + 5 = ?

⇒ 0 + 5 = ?

⇒ 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is ASC ARJUN.

Key Points

• ASC ARJUN is an advanced humanoid robot deployed by the Waltair Division of the East Coast Railway to enhance passenger safety and security at the Visakhapatnam Railway Station.
• The acronym stands for Always Safe and Care Arjun, reflecting its core mission of providing a safe environment and assisting passengers within the station premises.
• The deployment took place in January 2026, signifying a major leap in the adoption of Robotics and Artificial Intelligence (AI) within the Indian Railways infrastructure.
• The robot is equipped with thermal sensors, motion detectors, and high-definition cameras to facilitate non-contact screening of passengers and monitor station premises for suspicious activities.
• It acts as a primary interface for the Railway Protection Force (RPF), providing real-time surveillance data and automated announcements to manage crowd flow effectively during peak hours.

 Additional Information

• RAILBOT and RPF ROBOT-1:
• These terms generally refer to various robotic prototypes used by different railway zones, such as the South Central Railway, primarily for track inspection, under-gear surveillance of trains, or delivery of medicines in railway hospitals.
• Unlike ASC ARJUN, which is a passenger-facing humanoid, these are often specialized industrial robots designed for maintenance or specific logistical tasks.
• Technological Integration:
• The use of humanoids like ASC ARJUN is part of a broader initiative to transform railway stations into Smart Stations, utilizing IoT (Internet of Things) and Machine Learning to optimize passenger services.

सही उत्तर सैखोम मीराबाई चानू है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारतीय दिग्गज भारोत्तोलक सैखोम मीराबाई चानू ने नॉर्वे के फोर्डे में आयोजित विश्व भारोत्तोलन चैंपियनशिप 2025 में शानदार प्रदर्शन करते हुए दो नए कीर्तिमान स्थापित किए हैं।
• उन्होंने महिलाओं के 48 kg भार वर्ग में प्रतिस्पर्धा करते हुए क्लीन एंड जर्क श्रेणी में 115 kg वजन उठाकर एक नया राष्ट्रीय रिकॉर्ड बनाया।
• मीराबाई चानू ने कुल भारोत्तोलन में 199 kg (स्नैच और क्लीन एंड जर्क को मिलाकर) का भार उठाकर अपना दूसरा राष्ट्रीय रिकॉर्ड दर्ज किया।
• यह उपलब्धि अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर उनके निरंतर कौशल और भारत के लिए पदक जीतने की उनकी क्षमता को दर्शाती है।
• मीराबाई चानू पूर्व में भी विश्व चैंपियनशिप (2017) में स्वर्ण पदक जीत चुकी हैं और वे भारत की सबसे सफल महिला एथलीटों में से एक मानी जाती हैं।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• सैखोम मीराबाई चानू:
• वे मणिपुर राज्य से संबंधित हैं।
• उन्होंने टोक्यो 2020 ओलंपिक में महिलाओं के 49 kg वर्ग में रजत पदक जीतकर इतिहास रचा था।
• उन्हें 2018 में भारत सरकार द्वारा पद्म श्री और मेजर ध्यानचंद खेल रत्न पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया था।
• बिंद्याराणी देवी:
• ये मणिपुर की एक अन्य प्रमुख भारोत्तोलक हैं, जिन्होंने 2022 राष्ट्रमंडल खेलों में 55 kg वर्ग में रजत पदक प्राप्त किया था।
• झिल्ली दलाबेहरा:
• ओडिशा की रहने वाली झिल्ली ने एशियाई भारोत्तोलन चैंपियनशिप में स्वर्ण पदक जीतकर अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर ख्याति प्राप्त की है।
• शैलजा पुजारी:
• इन्होंने 2002 राष्ट्रमंडल खेलों में तीन स्वर्ण पदक जीतकर भारतीय भारोत्तोलन में महत्वपूर्ण योगदान दिया था।

सही उत्तर नागर (Nagara) है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• नागर शैली उत्तर भारत में लोकप्रिय मंदिर वास्तुकला की एक प्रमुख शैली है, जिसका विकास मुख्य रूप से गुप्त काल के दौरान और उसके बाद हुआ था।
• यह शैली भौगोलिक रूप से हिमालय से लेकर मध्य भारत में विंध्य पर्वतमाला तक के क्षेत्रों में फैली हुई है।
• नागर शैली की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण विशेषता इसका शिखर है, जो ऊपर की ओर घुमावदार (Curvilinear) होता है और अंत में एक बिंदु पर मिलता है, जिसे रेखा-प्रासाद भी कहा जाता है।
• इस शैली के मंदिरों का निर्माण एक ऊंचे पत्थर के चबूतरे पर किया जाता है जिसे जगती कहा जाता है, और मंदिर तक पहुँचने के लिए सीढ़ियाँ बनी होती हैं।
• मंदिर के केंद्र में गर्भगृह होता है जहाँ मुख्य देवता निवास करते हैं, और इसके ठीक ऊपर मुख्य शिखर स्थित होता है जिसके शीर्ष पर एक पत्थर की डिस्क जिसे आमलक और उसके ऊपर कलश स्थापित होता है।
• उत्तर भारतीय नागर मंदिरों में दक्षिण भारत की तरह बड़ी चारदीवारी या प्रवेश द्वार (गोपुरम) आमतौर पर नहीं पाए जाते हैं।
• प्रसिद्ध उदाहरणों में खजुराहो के मंदिर, उड़ीसा का कोणार्क सूर्य मंदिर और पुरी का जगन्नाथ मंदिर शामिल हैं।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• द्रविड़ (Dravida) शैली:
• यह शैली मुख्य रूप से दक्षिण भारत (कृष्णा नदी से कन्याकुमारी तक) में विकसित हुई।
• इसकी पहचान पिरामिड के आकार के विमान और मंदिर के विशाल प्रवेश द्वारों से होती है जिन्हें गोपुरम कहा जाता है।
• वेसर (Vesara) शैली:
• इसे मिश्रित शैली माना जाता है क्योंकि इसमें नागर और द्रविड़ दोनों शैलियों की विशेषताएं समाहित होती हैं।
• यह मुख्य रूप से दक्कन क्षेत्र में चालुक्य और होयसल शासकों के अधीन फली-फूली।
• गांधार (Gandhara) शैली:
• यह मुख्य रूप से एक मूर्तिकला शैली है जो उत्तर-पश्चिम भारत में कुषाण काल के दौरान विकसित हुई थी।
• इसमें बौद्ध धर्म के विषयों को यूनानी-रोमन (Greco-Roman) कला तकनीकों के साथ मिश्रित किया गया है।

The correct answer is साइमन कमीशन.

मुख्य बिंदु

• साइमन कमीशन, जिसे आधिकारिक तौर पर भारतीय वैधानिक आयोग कहा जाता है, की घोषणा नवंबर 1927 में ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा की गई थी और यह फरवरी 1928 में भारत पहुंचा।
• इस आयोग का मुख्य उद्देश्य भारत सरकार अधिनियम 1919 के कामकाज की समीक्षा करना और भारत में संवैधानिक सुधारों का सुझाव देना था।
• आयोग में कुल सात सदस्य थे और इसके अध्यक्ष सर जॉन साइमन थे, लेकिन इसमें एक भी भारतीय सदस्य शामिल नहीं था।
• सभी सदस्यों के अंग्रेज होने के कारण इसे श्वेत आयोग (White Commission) कहा गया, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप भारत में सभी प्रमुख राजनीतिक दलों द्वारा इसका कड़ा विरोध किया गया।
• भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस ने 1927 के मद्रास अधिवेशन में, जिसकी अध्यक्षता एम.ए. अंसारी ने की थी, इस आयोग के पूर्ण बहिष्कार का संकल्प लिया था।
• जब आयोग 3 फरवरी 1928 को बॉम्बे पहुंचा, तो उसका स्वागत साइमन वापस जाओ (Simon Go Back) के नारों और काले झंडों के साथ किया गया।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• हंटर कमीशन:
• वर्ष 1882 में लॉर्ड रिपन द्वारा सर विलियम हंटर की अध्यक्षता में शिक्षा सुधारों (विशेष रूप से प्राथमिक और माध्यमिक शिक्षा) के लिए गठित किया गया था।
• 1919 में जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड की जांच के लिए भी एक हंटर समिति बनाई गई थी।
• कैबिनेट मिशन:
• यह 1946 में भारत आया था, जिसमें पैथिक लॉरेंस, स्टेफोर्ड क्रिप्स और ए.वी. अलेक्जेंडर शामिल ��े।
• इसका लक्ष्य संविधान सभा का गठन और भारत को सत्ता हस्तांतरण की योजना बनाना था।
• क्रिप्स मिशन:
• 1942 में सर स्टेफोर्ड क्रिप्स के नेतृत्व में ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध के दौरान भारतीयों का समर्थन प्राप्त करने हेतु भेजा गया था।
• गांधीजी ने इसके प्रस्तावों को दिवालिया बैंक के नाम उत्तर-दिनांकित चेक (Post-dated cheque on a crashing bank) कहा था।

The correct answer is 100 days of guaranteed wage work to rural households willing to perform unskilled manual work..

Key Points

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), passed in 2005, is a social security measure that aims to guarantee the 'Right to Work' in rural India.
• The primary objective of the scheme is to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
• If the government fails to provide employment within 15 days of the application for work, the applicant is entitled to a daily unemployment allowance, ensuring accountability.
• Work is typically provided within a 5 km radius of the applicant's residence; if the work is provided beyond 10 km, an extra 10 percent of the wage is paid to cover transport and living costs.
• The act mandates that at least one-third (33%) of the beneficiaries must be women, promoting gender equality in the rural labor force.
• The implementation of the scheme is monitored through Social Audits conducted by the Gram Sabha, which ensures transparency and prevents corruption in the execution of projects.

 Additional Information

• MGNREGA Administration and Assets:
• The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, in association with state governments.
• It focuses on creating durable assets such as roads, canals, ponds, and wells, which help in drought-proofing and flood management.
• The Gram Panchayat is the pivotal body for planning and implementation, responsible for issuing Job Cards to eligible households.
• The scheme was renamed from NREGA to MGNREGA on October 2, 2009, to honor the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is महिला एवं बाल विकास मंत्रालय.

मुख्य बिंदु

• पंखुड़ी (PANKHUDI) पोर्टल को जनवरी 2026 में महिला एवं बाल विकास मंत्रालय (MoWCD) द्वारा आधिकारिक तौर पर लॉन्च किया गया है, जिसका उद्देश्य कॉर्पोरेट सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व (CSR) और अन्य हितधारकों के साथ सहयोग को सुव्यवस्थित करना है।
• पंखुड़ी का अर्थ Partnership for Nurturing Knowledge, Holistic Understanding and Dedicated Implementation है, जो मंत्रालय की परियोजनाओं में निजी क्षेत्र की भागीदारी को एक एकीकृत मंच प्रदान करता है।
• यह पोर्टल मंत्रालय के प्रमुख कार्यक्रमों जैसे मिशन शक्ति, मिशन वात्सल्य और सक्षम आंगनवाड़ी और पोषण 2.0 के सफल क्रियान्वयन हेतु कॉर्पोरेट संस्थानों को सीधे जुड़ने और योगदान देने की अनुमति देता है।
• इसका मुख्य कार्य CSR निधियों के प्रभावी उपयोग की निगरानी करना, परियोजनाओं में पारदर्शिता सुनिश्चित करना और महिला एवं बाल कल्याण हेतु सार्वजनिक-निजी भागीदारी (PPP) मॉडल को बढ़ावा देना है।
• यह मंच वास्तविक समय में डेटा साझाकरण और प्रगति रिपोर्टिंग की सुविधा प्रदान करता है, जिससे सतत विकास लक्ष्यों (SDG), विशेष रूप से लैंगिक समानता और बाल पोषण की दिशा में प्रगति को ट्रैक किया जा सके।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• कॉर्पोरेट सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व (CSR):
• भारत कंपनी अधिनियम, 2013 की धारा 135 के माध्यम से CSR को अनिवार्य बनाने वाला दुनिया का पहला देश है।
• पात्र कंपनियों को पिछले तीन वर्षों के अपने औसत शुद्ध लाभ का कम से कम 2% सामाजिक विकास कार्यों पर खर्च करना आवश्यक है।
• मंत्रालय के अन्य महत्वपूर्ण मिशन:
• मिशन शक्ति: यह महिलाओं की सुरक्षा, संरक्षा और सशक्तिकरण के लिए एक एकीकृत अंब्रेला योजना है।
• पोषण 2.0: यह किशोरियों, गर्भवती महिलाओं और स्तनपान कराने वाली माताओं में कुपोषण की समस्या को दूर करने के लिए एक रणनीतिक कार्यक्रम ��ै।
• मिशन वात्सल्य: यह भारत में प्रत्येक बच्चे के लिए एक सुरक्षित और सुखी बचपन सुनिश्चित करने हेतु बाल संरक्षण सेवाओं पर केंद्रित है।

The correct answer is The total cost divided by the total units produced.

Key Points

• Average Cost (AC), frequently referred to as unit cost, represents the total expenditure incurred by a firm to produce a specific quantity of output, distributed evenly across all units.
• The mathematical representation for calculating this value is Average Cost = Total Cost (TC) ÷ Total Quantity (Q).
• It is a fundamental metric in microeconomics used by businesses to set product pricing and determine the break-even point where total revenue equals total cost.
• The Average Cost is the sum of two components: Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC).
• In a typical production environment, the AC curve is U-shaped; it initially declines due to economies of scale and eventually rises because of the law of diminishing marginal returns.

 Additional Information

• Marginal Cost (MC):
• Refers to the change in Total Cost that arises when the quantity produced is incremented by one unit.
• It helps managers decide whether to increase or decrease production based on marginal revenue.
• Fixed Cost (FC):
• These are costs that do not vary with the level of output, such as rent, interest payments, and administrative salaries.
• Even if production is zero, these costs must still be paid in the short run.
• Variable Cost (VC):
• Expenses that change in direct proportion to production volume, including raw materials, packaging, and direct labor.
• If production increases, Variable Costs increase; if production stops, these costs fall to zero.

The correct answer is 1858.

Key Points

• The transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown was formalized through the Government of India Act 1858, passed by the British Parliament on August 2, 1858.
• This significant constitutional shift was triggered by the Indian Rebellion of 1857 (also known as the Sepoy Mutiny), which highlighted the Company's inability to manage the socio-political complexities of the Indian subcontinent.
• The Act abolished the Dual Government system established by Pitt’s India Act of 1784, effectively ending the authority of the Court of Directors and the Board of Control.
• Under the new arrangement, India was to be governed directly in the name of Her Majesty, Queen Victoria, marking the beginning of the British Raj.
• The designation of the Governor-General was upgraded to Viceroy of India, serving as the direct representative of the British Monarch in the colony.

 Additional Information

• Secretary of State for India:
• The Act created a new office for the Secretary of State for India, who was a member of the British Cabinet and held ultimate power over the Indian administration.
• To assist the Secretary of State, a 15-member Council of India was established in London to provide expert advice on Indian affairs.
• Lord Canning:
• Lord Canning, who was the Governor-General during the 1857 Revolt, became the first Viceroy of India under the new system.
• Queen Victoria’s Proclamation:
• On November 1, 1858, at a grand Durbar in Allahabad, Lord Canning read the Queen’s Proclamation, which promised to respect the rights of Princely States and abstain from further territorial annexations.

The correct answer is दात्र कोशिका रोग.

मुख्य बिंदु

• BIRSA-101 भारत की पहली स्वदेशी रूप से विकसित CRISPR-आधारित जीन थेरेपी है, जिसे विशेष रूप से दात्र कोशिका रोग (Sickle Cell Disease) के उपचार के लिए तैयार किया गया है।
• इस थेरेपी का विकास CSIR-जीनोमिक्स और एकीकृत जीव विज्ञान संस्थान (IGIB), दिल्ली द्वारा किया गया है, जो भारत को आनुवंशिक चिकित्सा के क्षेत्र में वैश्विक मानचित्र पर स्थापित करता है।
• BIRSA-101 (Blood Impairment Regulated Stem-cell Alteration) तकनीक रोगी की अपनी हेमेटोपोएटिक स्टेम कोशिकाओं को संपादित करने के लिए CRISPR-Cas9 'आणविक कैंची' का उपयोग करती है।
• यह उपचार मुख्य रूप से BCL11A जीन को लक्षित करता है ताकि शरीर में भ्रूण हीमोग्लोबिन (HbF) के स्तर को बढ़ाया जा सके, जिससे सिकलिंग के प्रभाव को प्रभावी ढंग से कम किया जाता है।
• यह पहल भारत सरकार के राष्ट्रीय सिकल सेल एनीमिया उन्मूलन मिशन के अनुरूप है, जिसका लक्ष्य वर्ष 2047 तक देश से इस रोग को समाप्त करना है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• CRISPR-Cas9 तकनीक:
• यह एक क्रांतिकारी जीन-संपादन तकनीक है जो शोधकर्ताओं को DNA अनुक्रमों को बदलने और जीन कार्य को संशोधित करने की अनुमति देती है।
• इसके विकास के लिए जेनिफर डौडना और इमैनुएल शारपेंतिये को 2020 में रसायन विज्ञान के नोबेल पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया था।
• दात्र कोशिका रोग (Sickle Cell Disease):
• यह एक वंशानुगत रक्त विकार है जिसमें लाल रक्त कोशिकाएं (RBC) अर्धचंद्राकार या 'दरांती' के आकार की हो जाती हैं, जिससे गंभीर दर्द, अंग क्षति और एनीमिया होता है।
• भारत में यह विशेष रूप से जनजातीय समुदायों में प्रचलित है, जिसमें मध्य प्रदेश, छत्तीसगढ़ और ओडिशा जैसे राज्य अत्यधिक प्रभावित हैं।
• अन्य विकल्प:
• अल्जाइमर रोग: यह एक प्रगतिशील मस्तिष्क विकार है जो याददाश्त और सोचने के कौशल को नष्ट कर देता है।
• ट्यूबरकूलासिस (तपेदिक): यह माइकोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूबरकुलोसिस नामक बैक्टीरिया के कारण होने वाला एक संक्रामक रोग है।
• मधुमेह: यह एक चयापचय (Metabolic) विकार है जो रक्त में शर्करा के उच्च स्तर की विशेषता रखता है।

The correct answer is क्योंकि श्रम और कच्चे माल जैसे अधिक आगतों की आवश्यकता होती है।.

मुख्य बिंदु

• किसी भी फर्म के लिए उत्पादन बढ़ाने का अर्थ है अधिक संसाधनों का उपभोग करना। उत्पादन की मात्रा में वृद्धि के साथ परिवर्ती लागत (Variable Costs) जैसे कि कच्चा माल, ऊर्जा और मध्यवर्ती वस्तुएं अनिवार्य रूप से बढ़ती हैं।
• उत्पादन के स्तर को बढ़ाने के लिए अधिक मानव श्रम (Labor) की आवश्यकता होती है। इसके लिए फर्म को या तो नए श्रमिकों को नियुक्त करना पड़ता है या मौजूदा श्रमिकों को अतिरिक्त कार्य समय (Overtime) के लिए उच्च दर पर भुगतान करना पड़ता है, जो कुल उत्पादन लागत को बढ़ा देता है।
• अल्पकाल में, उत्पादन बढ़ाने पर ह्रासमान सीमांत प्रतिफल का नियम (Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns) प्रभावी हो जाता है। इसका तात्पर्य है कि जैसे-जैसे स्थिर आगतों (जैसे मशीनरी) के साथ अधिक परिवर्ती आगत (जैसे श्रम) जोड़े जाते हैं, प्रत्येक अतिरिक्त आगत से प्राप्त होने वाला उत्पादन अंततः घटने लगता है, जिससे प्रति इकाई लागत बढ़ जाती है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• आगत (Inputs):
• उत्पादन में उपयोग होने वाले संसाधनों को दो भागों में बांटा जाता है: स्थिर आगत (जैसे भवन, भारी मशीनरी) और परिवर्ती आगत (जैसे कच्चा माल, दैनिक श्रमिक)।
• बढ़ते उत्पादन के साथ केवल परिवर्ती आगतों की मात्रा में वृद्धि की जा सकती है, जो सीधे तौर पर कुल लागत (Total Cost) में वृद्धि का कारण बनती है।
• पैमाने की अमितव्ययिता (Diseconomies of Scale):
• जब कोई फर्म एक बहुत बड़े स्तर पर उत्पादन करने लगती है, तो प्रबंधन, समन्वय और संचार में कठिनाइयाँ उत्पन्न होती हैं। इन जटिलताओं के कारण उत्पादन की औसत लागत बढ़ने लगती है।
• लागत और मांग का संबंध:
• विकल्प (2) और (4) गलत हैं क्योंकि वस्तुओं की मांग और बाजार कीमतें बाहरी कारक हैं जो राजस्व और लाभ को प्रभावित करते हैं, लेकिन वे फर्म की अपनी उत्पादन लागत संरचना का हिस्सा नहीं होते हैं।

The correct answer is Unpaid domestic work.

Key Points

• The Product Method, also referred to as the Value Added Method, measures National Income by calculating the aggregate market value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic territory during an accounting year.
• Unpaid domestic work, such as the services provided by housemakers or family members, is excluded from National Income because these activities are non-market transactions. They do not result in a monetary exchange, and their market value cannot be accurately estimated. Hence, unpaid domestic work is not counted in national income.
• Wages paid to workers represent the compensation of employees, which is a vital component of the Income Method and is reflected in the cost of production under the product method. Hence, wages are included in national income.
• Profits of a factory and Rent from a leased shop are considered Factor Incomes (part of Operating Surplus). These represent payments for the use of entrepreneurship and land in the production process. Hence, these options are included in the national income calculation.

 Additional Information

• Exclusions from National Income:
• Transfer Payments: One-sided payments like old-age pensions, scholarships, and unemployment allowances as no production occurs.
• Second-hand Goods: The sale of pre-owned assets is excluded to avoid double counting, as they were counted in the year of original production.
• Intermediate Goods: Goods used for further production are excluded to ensure only final value is captured.
• Inclusions in National Income:
• Imputed Rent: The estimated rent of owner-occupied houses is included as it represents a productive service.
• Self-Consumption: The value of agricultural produce kept by farmers for their own consumption is added as it is part of the current output.
• Capital Formation: Any net investment or addition to the stock of capital within the economy.

The correct answer is Saurabh Chaudhary.

Key Points

• Saurabh Chaudhary clinched the Bronze medal in the Men's 10m Air Pistol event during the ISSF World Cup held in Lima, Peru, in April 2025.
• His performance in the final round showcased consistent precision, where he maintained a high average score to finish on the podium amongst a highly competitive international field.
• This achievement reinforces his status as one of India's most decorated pistol shooters, having previously won Gold at the 2018 Asian Games and multiple ISSF World Cup Gold medals.
• The ISSF World Cup in Lima served as a vital platform for elite athletes to earn ranking points and test their form in the Olympic cycle.
• Saurabh Chaudhary, hailing from Uttar Pradesh, became the youngest Indian shooter to win a gold medal at the Asian Games at the age of 16, and this 2025 bronze adds another milestone to his prolific career.

 Additional Information

• Other Prominent Indian Pistol Shooters:
• Abhishek Verma: A double World Cup Gold medalist and a lawyer by profession, he has been a consistent teammate of Saurabh in the 10m Air Pistol category.
• Sarabjot Singh: Known for his exceptional performance at the 2023 Asian Games where he won gold in the team event and has been a rising force in individual ISSF circuits.
• Arjun Singh Cheema: A key member of the Indian shooting squad who contributed significantly to India's Gold medal tally in the team pistol events at international championships like the Asian Games.
• ISSF (International Shooting Sport Federation):
• The governing body for Olympic shooting disciplines, headquartered in Munich, Germany.
• It organizes the World Cup series, World Championships, and oversees the technical regulations for Rifle, Pistol, and Shotgun events.

The correct answer is Servants of the People Society.

Key Points

• The Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak Mandal) was established by the eminent nationalist leader Lala Lajpat Rai in 1921 at Lahore.
• The organization was formally inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi with the objective of enlisting and training national missionaries pledged to the service of the country.
• Its core mission involved working for the social, educational, cultural, and economic reform of the Indian people, specifically targeting the upliftment of the marginalized sections of society.
• The society played a significant role in the Indian Independence Movement by providing a platform for selfless public service and rural development.
• Following the Partition of India in 1947, the headquarters of the society was shifted from Lahore to Lajpat Bhawan in New Delhi.
• Distinguished leaders such as Lal Bahadur Shastri, the second Prime Minister of India, served as the President of this society, further highlighting its historical significance.

 Additional Information

• Lala Lajpat Rai:
• Widely known as Punjab Kesari (the Lion of Punjab), he was a prominent member of the Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate that advocated for the Swadeshi movement.
• He presided over the special session of the Indian National Congress held at Calcutta in 1920, where the Non-Cooperation Movement was launched.
• He was a staunch follower of Swami Dayanand Saraswati and was deeply involved with the Arya Samaj movement in Punjab.
• He authored several books, including Unhappy India and Young India, and was a co-founder of the Punjab National Bank.
• He succumbed to injuries in 1928 after being subjected to a brutal Lathi charge by the British police while protesting against the Simon Commission.

The correct answer is Because all factors of production, including land and machinery, can be changed.

Key Points

• In Economic Theory and Corporate Accounting, the long run is defined as a conceptual time period in which there are no fixed factors of production. Every input, including capital equipment, factory size, and land tenure, can be adjusted by the firm.
• Since all inputs are variable, fixed costs (overheads that do not change with output) effectively disappear. All costs in the long run are treated as variable costs because the firm has the flexibility to exit the market or scale its operations to zero.
• Sunk costs refer to expenditures that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered. In the long-run planning stage, no costs are sunk because the firm has not yet committed to any specific capital investment or long-term contract.
• The transition from the short run to the long run occurs when a firm is able to alter its fixed capacity. This allows the entity to optimize its production function to achieve the lowest possible Long-Run Average Total Cost (LRATC).

 Additional Information

• Cost Classifications:
• Fixed Costs: These include rent, insurance premiums, and interest payments on loans. In the short run, these must be paid regardless of the production volume.
• Variable Costs: These include raw materials, direct labor wages, and utility bills for production machinery, which fluctuate based on the quantity of goods produced.
• Operational Scales:
• Economies of Scale: Occurs when the long-run average cost decreases as the scale of production increases, often due to specialization and better technology.
• Diseconomies of Scale: Occurs when a firm becomes too large and faces communication inefficiencies, leading to a rise in average costs.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• The Para Throwball National Federation Cup 2026 was a high-profile national competition aimed at fostering athletic excellence among differently-abled individuals across the country.
• In the Women’s category, the Jharkhand state team demonstrated superior technical skills and strategic gameplay to secure the Gold Medal.
• This victory reflects the successful implementation of the Jharkhand government’s sports policies, which emphasize the empowerment of women para-athletes through specialized coaching and financial support.
• The tournament was conducted under the supervision of the Para Throwball Federation of India (PTFI), the governing body responsible for regulating the sport and organizing national championships.
• Winning the Gold Medal in the 2026 edition solidifies Jharkhand's status as a major powerhouse in the Indian para-sports landscape, particularly in team-based disciplines.

 Additional Information

• Para Throwball Fundamentals:
• It is an adapted sport tailored for athletes with locomotor disabilities, ensuring that rules regarding movement and throwing are inclusive of the players' physical capacities.
• The game is often played in a seated position or on wheelchairs, focusing on upper-body strength and precision.
• The National Federation Cup serves as a vital scouting ground for the Indian National Para Throwball Team for international events like the Asian Para Games.
• Competing States:
• Maharashtra and Rajasthan have historically been strong contenders in para-sports, often finishing in the top three in national standings.
• Kerala is known for its robust grassroots sports culture, which has increasingly integrated para-athletics into its state-level sports festivals.

The correct answer is Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Key Points

• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar. British troops under General Dyer opened fire on a large, unarmed crowd gathered for a peaceful protest and the Baisakhi festival, killing hundreds. This brutality acted as a major turning point, leading Mahatma Gandhi to lose faith in British intentions.
• The passage of the Rowlatt Act in 1919, which allowed the government to detain political prisoners without trial for up to two years, created widespread resentment and led to the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
• The Khilafat Movement, initiated by the Ali brothers (Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) to support the Ottoman Caliph, provided an opportunity for Hindu-Muslim unity. Gandhi combined this cause with the demand for Swaraj to launch a unified mass movement.
• The Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920 formally ratified the Non-Cooperation Movement, encouraging the surrender of titles and the boycott of British schools, courts, and foreign cloth.

 Additional Information

• Simon Commission:
• A statutory commission sent to India in 1928 to study constitutional reforms. It was met with slogans of 'Simon Go Back' because it did not include any Indian members.
• Partition of Bengal:
• Implemented by Lord Curzon in 1905, it led to the Swadeshi Movement and the boycott of British goods but occurred much earlier than the Non-Cooperation era.
• Quit India Movement:
• Launched by the Indian National Congress on August 8, 1942, during World War II, it demanded an immediate British withdrawal from India under the call of 'Do or Die'.

The correct answer is C. Rajagopalachari.

Key Points

• The Vedaranyam Salt March was a significant event in South India during the Civil Disobedience Movement, organized to protest the British salt tax.
• It was led by C. Rajagopalachari, who was the President of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee at the time.
• The march commenced on April 13, 1930, from Trichinopoly (now Tiruchirappalli) and concluded at Vedaranyam in the Thanjavur district on April 28, 1930.
• Mirroring Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March, Rajagopalachari and about 100 Satyagrahis walked nearly 150 miles to the coast to manufacture salt.
• The marchers sang the patriotic song 'Kathiindri Raththindri', composed by Namakkal Ramalingam Pillai, which became a rallying cry for the movement in the region.
• On April 30, 1930, Rajagopalachari was arrested after picking up salt at the Agasthiyampalli salt pans, leading to widespread protests across the Madras Presidency.

 Additional Information

• C. Rajagopalachari:
• He was affectionately known as Rajaji and served as the last Governor-General of India from 1948 to 1950.
• He was an eminent statesman, a recipient of the Bharat Ratna in 1954, and the founder of the Swatantra Party.
• Rajendra Prasad:
• He was a key leader from Bihar who directed the Salt Satyagraha in the Chhapra and Patna districts and later became the first President of India.
• Subhas Chandra Bose:
• A radical nationalist leader who led the Indian National Army (INA) and advocated for Purna Swaraj through more militant means during the 1930s and 1940s.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Known as the Iron Man of India, he played a crucial role in organizing the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 and was instrumental in the political integration of India post-independence.

Concept:

Integrative taxonomy is a modern scientific framework used to identify and classify species by combining multiple lines of evidence, including morphological characteristics, chemical profiles (secondary metabolites), and molecular phylogenetic data (DNA sequencing). This approach is particularly essential for identifying lichens, which are complex symbiotic organisms consisting of fungi and algae or cyanobacteria.

$Integrative\ Taxonomy = Morphological\ Analysis + Molecular\ Phylogeny + Chemical\ Profiling$

Given

Discovery Date: July 2025
New Species Name: Allographa effusosoredica
Identification Method: Integrative Taxonomy

Calculation

Scientists at the MACS-Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) in Pune conducted extensive research on the lichen flora of the Western Ghats. By utilizing DNA barcoding (specifically targeting the ITS rDNA region) and studying the morphological features of the specimen, they identified unique characteristics that distinguish it from known species. The discovery of Allographa effusosoredica was verified through a peer-reviewed process using these integrative taxonomic tools. This institute, an autonomous organization under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), is a leading center for biodiversity and fungal research in India.

Final Answer: ✅ MACS-Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) Pune

The correct answer is Jishnu Dev Varma.

Key Points

• Jishnu Dev Varma was appointed as the Governor of Maharashtra, marking a significant transition in the state’s constitutional leadership.
• He belongs to the Tripura Royal Family and is the first person from the state of Tripura to serve as a Governor of Maharashtra.
• Before this appointment, he held the position of Deputy Chief Minister of Tripura from 2018 to 2023, managing key portfolios such as Finance, Power, and Rural Development.
• The appointment was made by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, as part of a gubernatorial reshuffle that affected several states including Rajasthan, Telangana, and Punjab.
• The Governor is the Constitutional Head of the state and acts as a vital bridge between the Central Government and the State Government.

 Additional Information

• Shiv Pratap Shukla:
• A veteran politician who currently serves as the Governor of Himachal Pradesh, having been appointed in February 2023.
• Nand Kishore Yadav:
• A prominent leader from Bihar who was elected as the Speaker of the Bihar Legislative Assembly in 2024.
• Syed Ata Hasnain:
• A retired Lieutenant General of the Indian Army and a decorated officer currently serving as a member of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
• Constitutional Provisions for Governors:
• Article 153: Mandates that there shall be a Governor for each state.
• Article 155: States that the Governor shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• Article 161: Grants the Governor the power to grant pardons, reprieves, or remissions of punishment in certain cases.

The correct answer is High population density.

Key Points

• Population Density is defined as the number of individuals living per square kilometer of land. Rural areas are characterized by a low population density because residents are spread across vast agricultural lands and natural landscapes.
• In contrast, high population density is a defining feature of urban areas (cities and towns), where residential, commercial, and industrial activities are concentrated in a small geographical footprint.
• The rural economy is primarily agriculture-based, with a majority of the workforce engaged in primary sector activities including crop cultivation, animal husbandry, forestry, and agro-processing.
• Due to the dispersed nature of the population and geographical isolation, rural regions often face limited services. This includes fewer specialized healthcare facilities, higher education institutions, and advanced public transport networks compared to metropolitan hubs.
• Social mobility, which refers to the ability of individuals to move between different social strata, is typically low in rural settings. This is often due to traditional social structures, kinship-based occupations, and fewer diverse career opportunities.

 Additional Information

• Census of India Classification:
• A settlement is classified as Urban if it has a minimum population of 5,000, a population density of at least 400 persons per sq km, and at least 75% of the male main working population is engaged in non-agricultural activities.
• Any area that does not satisfy these specific criteria is categorized as a Rural Area.
• Sociological Characteristics:
• Rural communities tend to be more homogeneous in nature, where people share similar cultural, linguistic, and occupational backgrounds.
• These areas rely heavily on informal social control through family and community norms, whereas urban areas rely on formal institutions and legal frameworks.

The correct answer is Quaternary structure.

Key Points

• The Quaternary structure refers to the highest level of protein organization, which describes the spatial arrangement and interaction of two or more individual polypeptide chains.
• These individual chains are known as subunits, and they can be identical (forming a homopolymer) or different (forming a heteropolymer) within the functional protein complex.
• The assembly of these subunits is stabilized by a variety of non-covalent interactions, including hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds (salt bridges), van der Waals forces, and hydrophobic interactions.
• In some instances, covalent linkages such as disulfide bridges may also contribute to the stability of the quaternary complex.
• A quintessential biological example is Hemoglobin, which consists of four subunits (two alpha chains and two beta chains) that must be precisely arranged to facilitate cooperative oxygen binding and transport in the blood.

 Additional Information

• Primary Structure:
• It is the basic linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain, determined by the genetic code.
• The amino acids are held together by strong covalent peptide bonds, which remain intact during denaturation.
• Secondary Structure:
• Refers to local folded structures that form within a polypeptide due to hydrogen bonding between the backbone atoms.
• The most common types are the alpha-helix and the beta-pleated sheet, which provide structural rigidity and shape.
• Tertiary Structure:
• This is the overall three-dimensional folding of a single polypeptide chain, resulting from interactions between R-groups (side chains).
• It involves hydrophobic packing, disulfide bonds between cysteine residues, and electrostatic attractions, making the protein biologically active.

The correct answer is Viharas.

Key Points

• In the context of Buddhist architecture, a Vihara refers to a monastery or a residential complex for Buddhist monks (Bhikkhus) and nuns.
• The concept originated from the need for a permanent shelter during the rainy season, a period known as Vassa, when wandering monks were required to stay in one place to avoid trampling on new plant growth and insects.
• Structurally, a rock-cut Vihara typically consists of a central square or rectangular hall surrounded by several small, narrow cells that served as individual living quarters for the monks.
• Most of these residential units were carved into hillsides and are found in proximity to Chaityas, which served as the prayer or congregational halls.
• Major archaeological sites showcasing these structures include the Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, Kanheri Caves, and Karle Caves in Maharashtra, which highlight the evolution from simple stone cells to decorated multi-storeyed apartments.

 Additional Information

• Chaitya-Grihas
• These are the prayer halls associated with Buddhism, characterized by a vaulted roof and a Stupa placed at the end of the apse for circumambulation.
• Mandapas
• These are pillared outdoor halls or porches used for public rituals and ceremonies in Hindu temple architecture, acting as a transition space between the entrance and the Garbhagriha.
• Gopurams
• These are monumental entrance towers, often ornately decorated with sculptures, typical of the Dravidian style of architecture in South Indian temples.
• Prakaras
• These represent the massive enclosure walls that surround the main deity and the inner temple complex in South Indian architecture, creating a sacred boundary.

The correct answer is The development of thick, waxy leaves to reduce water loss.

Key Points

• Desert plants, scientifically known as xerophytes, face extreme environmental stress due to high solar radiation and low water availability.
• A thick, waxy cuticle is a specialized adaptation consisting of cutin and epicuticular waxes that coat the epidermis of leaves.
• This hydrophobic layer serves as an effective physical barrier that minimizes non-stomatal transpiration, preventing precious moisture from escaping through the leaf surface.
• By restricting water vapor diffusion, the plant can maintain turgor pressure and carry out photosynthesis even in arid conditions where evaporation rates are extremely high.
• This coating also helps in reflecting heat, which keeps the internal temperature of the plant lower, further reducing the biological demand for evaporative cooling.

 Additional Information

• Other Xerophytic Adaptations:
• Leaf Hairs (Trichomes): These structures create a boundary layer of still, moist air around the stomata, significantly reducing the vapor pressure gradient and slowing down transpiration.
• Shallow Root Systems: While the correct answer focuses on conservation, shallow roots are an acquisition adaptation designed to absorb moisture from light rainfall or morning dew before it evaporates from the topsoil.
• Broad, Flat Leaves: This is a characteristic of mesophytes or hydrophytes found in tropical rainforests; in a desert, the large surface area-to-volume ratio would lead to rapid desiccation.
• Sunken Stomata: Many desert plants have their stomata located in pits or crypts, which shields them from wind currents that would otherwise accelerate moisture loss.
• CAM Photosynthesis: Crassulacean Acid Metabolism allows plants like cacti and agave to open their stomata only at night, fixing carbon dioxide when temperatures are lower and humidity is higher.

The correct answer is Onam.

Key Points

• Onam is the official state festival of Kerala, observed during the month of Chingam (August–September), which marks the beginning of the Malayalam calendar.
• It is primarily a harvest festival that celebrates the bounty of nature and commemorates the annual visit of the legendary Asura King Mahabali from the underworld to see his subjects.
• The festival is globally renowned for the Vallam Kali or snake boat races, particularly the Nehru Trophy Boat Race held on the Punnamada Lake in Alappuzha, where long boats rowed by hundreds of oarsmen compete.
• Key cultural elements include the preparation of Pookalam (intricate floral carpets), the Onasadya (a grand vegetarian feast served on banana leaves), and traditional performing arts such as Pulikali (tiger dance) and Kummattikali.
• The festivities span ten days, beginning with Atham and culminating in the most important day, Thiruvonam, symbolizing prosperity, equality, and communal harmony.

 Additional Information

• Attukal Pongala:
• This is a major female-centric festival held at the Attukal Bhagavathy Temple in Thiruvananthapuram.
• It holds the Guinness World Record for being the largest annual religious gathering of women, where devotees prepare a sweet offering of Pongala (rice, jaggery, and coconut) in earthen pots.
• Thrissur Pooram:
• Considered the mother of all poorams, it is held at the Vadakkunnathan Temple in Thrissur during the Malayalam month of Medam.
• It was conceptualized by Sakthan Thampuran, the Maharaja of Cochin, and is famous for its competitive display of caparisoned elephants and Ilanjithara Melam (percussion ensemble).
• Vishu:
• This festival marks the Malayalam New Year and usually falls in the month of April, signifying the Spring Equinox.
• The most important ritual is the Vishu Kani, an arrangement of auspicious items like Kanikkonna (golden shower flowers) and coins, which is the first thing people see upon waking.

The correct answer is Sonepur Mela.

Key Points

• The Sonepur Mela is held annually in Sonepur, Bihar, at the sacred confluence of the Ganges and Gandak rivers.
• It is historically recognized as Asia's largest cattle fair, serving as a massive hub for the trade of animals, including elephants, horses, camels, and various breeds of cattle.
• The fair traditionally begins on Kartik Purnima (the full moon day) in the month of November and typically lasts for several weeks.
• It is also known as the Harihar Kshetra Mela, named after the prominent Hariharnath Temple, where devotees worship both Lord Shiva and Lord Vishnu.
• Ancient historical records suggest that the fair dates back to the Mauryan Empire, and it is widely believed that Emperor Chandragupta Maurya used this venue to source elephants and war-horses for his military forces.

 Additional Information

• Gogameri Mela:
• Location: Held in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan.
• Significance: Dedicated to the regional deity Gogaji, who is revered as a protector against snakes and a folk hero.
• Pushkar Fair:
• Location: Organized in the holy town of Pushkar, Rajasthan.
• Significance: It is primarily known as the world's largest camel fair and includes significant religious ceremonies at the Brahma Temple.
• Surajkund Mela:
• Location: Hosted in Faridabad, Haryana.
• Significance: It is an International Crafts Mela that celebrates traditional handicrafts, handlooms, and cultural diversity, featuring a specific 'Theme State' and 'Partner Nation' each year.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, Bihar is the most densely populated state in India, recording a density of 1,106 persons per square kilometer.
• This figure represents a significant increase from the 2001 Census, where Bihar had a population density of 881 persons per square kilometer.
• Population density is a measurement of population per unit area, typically calculated as the number of people divided by the total land area in square kilometers.
• The high density in Bihar is attributed to its location in the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains, which historically supports high agricultural productivity and large settlements.
• The 2011 Census was the 15th National Census of India and provides the most comprehensive demographic data currently used for policy planning.

 Additional Information

• Arunachal Pradesh:
• Recorded the lowest population density among all Indian states with only 17 persons per square kilometer.
• The low density is primarily due to its rugged mountainous terrain and vast forest cover.
• West Bengal:
• Ranked second in terms of population density in 2011 with 1,028 persons per square kilometer.
• It was previously the most densely populated state in the 2001 Census.
• Maharashtra:
• Had a population density of 365 persons per square kilometer, which is slightly below the national average.
• Madhya Pradesh:
• Recorded a density of 236 persons per square kilometer, reflecting its large geographical area relative to its population.
• National Context:
• The average population density of India as a whole in 2011 was 382 persons per square kilometer.
• Among Union Territories, the NCT of Delhi holds the highest density at 11,320 persons per square kilometer.

The correct answer is Vitamin K.

Key Points

• Vitamin K is a group of fat-soluble vitamins that play a critical role in blood coagulation, bone metabolism, and regulating blood calcium levels.
• It serves as an essential cofactor for the enzyme gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which is necessary for the post-translational modification of specific proteins.
• The primary physiological function of Vitamin K is the carboxylation of glutamate residues in clotting factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X, as well as proteins like Protein C and Protein S.
• In the absence of sufficient Vitamin K, these procoagulant factors remain inactive, which disrupts the coagulation cascade.
• A deficiency lead to hypoprothrombinemia, manifesting as prolonged prothrombin time, easy bruising, and increased blood clotting time, which can result in life-threatening hemorrhages.

 Additional Information

• Vitamin C
• Scientifically known as Ascorbic Acid, it is vital for the synthesis of collagen, a structural protein in connective tissues.
• Deficiency leads to Scurvy, which causes capillary fragility and bleeding gums, but it does not directly control the systemic clotting factor levels.
• Vitamin E
• Also called Tocopherol, it functions primarily as a lipid-soluble antioxidant that protects cell membranes from oxidative stress.
• While excessive intake can interfere with Vitamin K metabolism, its primary deficiency causes hemolytic anemia and neurological damage.
• Vitamin B2
• Known as Riboflavin, it is a precursor to coenzymes FMN and FAD, which are essential for oxidative phosphorylation and energy production.
• Deficiency leads to Ariboflavinosis, characterized by cheilosis (cracked lips), glossitis, and skin lesions.

The correct answer is Indo-European language family.

Key Points

• Hindi belongs to the Indo-Aryan branch, which is a major subgroup of the Indo-European language family.
• The Indo-European family is the largest language group in India, spoken by approximately 78% of the total population, primarily across North, Central, and West India.
• Hindi evolved from Sanskrit through intermediate stages of Pali, Prakrit, and Apabhramsa, eventually taking its modern form from the Khari Boli dialect.
• It is written in the Devanagari script and is recognized as an official language of the Union of India under Article 343 of the Indian Constitution.
• Other major languages in this family include Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, Punjabi, Odia, and Assamese.

 Additional Information

• Dravidian language family:
• Spoken by about 20% of the Indian population, mainly in the Southern states.
• Includes major classical languages such as Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.
• Sino-Tibetan language family:
• Spoken by people in the Himalayan belt and North-East India, covering roughly 0.6% of the population.
• Prominent examples include Manipuri (Meitei), Bodo, and Tibeto-Burman dialects.
• Austro-Asiatic language family:
• Spoken primarily by tribal communities in Central India, Jharkhand, and the Nicobar Islands.
• Divided into Munda (e.g., Santhali, Mundari) and Mon-Khmer (e.g., Khasi) branches.

The correct answer is Article 137.

Key Points

• Article 137 of the Indian Constitution specifically provides the Supreme Court with the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
• This review jurisdiction is critical because the Supreme Court acts as a Court of Record under Article 129, meaning its decisions are final and binding; the power to review ensures that any patent error or miscarriage of justice can be rectified.
• The power under this article is subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament or any rules made under Article 145 of the Constitution.
• A Review Petition must generally be filed within 30 days from the date of the judgment or order and is typically circulated to the same Bench of Judges that delivered the original decision.
• The grounds for seeking a review are limited to the discovery of new and important evidence, an error apparent on the face of the record, or any other sufficient reason, as established in the Civil Procedure Code.

 Additional Information

• Other Relevant Articles:
• Article 368: Grants Parliament the constituent power to amend the Constitution and lays down the specific procedures for such amendments.
• Article 226: Empowers High Courts within India to issue writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, and Certiorari for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and other legal rights.
• Article 102: Details the disqualifications for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament, including criteria like Office of Profit or insolvency.
• Curative Petition: This is a legal concept evolved by the Supreme Court in the Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra (2002) case, allowing a final remedy after a review petition is dismissed to prevent abuse of process.

सही उत्तर कर्ण है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• मानव शरीर के कर्ण (कान) के मध्य भाग में तीन अत्यंत सूक्ष्म अस्थियाँ पाई जाती हैं, जिन्हें मैलियस (Malleus), इनकस (Incus) और स्टेपीज (Stapes) कहा जाता है।
• इन तीनों अस्थियों को सम्मिलित रूप से श्रवण अस्थिकाएं (Auditory Ossicles) कहा जाता है, जो ध्वनि तरंगों को कर्ण पटल (Eardrum) से आंतरिक कान के तरल पदार्थ तक पहुँचाने का कार्य करती हैं।
• मैलियस हथौड़े के आकार की होती है, इनकस निहाई (Anvil) के आकार की और स्टेपीज रकाब (Stirrup) के समान दिखाई देती है।
• स्टेपीज मानव शरीर की सबसे छोटी और सबसे हल्की हड्डी होती है, जिसकी लंबाई लगभग 2.8 मिलीमीटर होती है।
• ये अस्थियाँ ध्वनि प्रवर्धन (Amplification) में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाती हैं, जिससे हम कम तीव्रता वाली ध्वनियों को भी स्पष्ट रूप से सुनने में सक्षम होते हैं।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• विकल्पों में दी गई अन्य संरचनाओं की जानकारी निम्नलिखित है:
• करोटि (Skull): यह मानव कंकाल का वह भाग है जो मस्तिष्क की रक्षा करता है। इसमें कुल 22 हड्डियाँ होती हैं, जिनमें 8 कपाल की और 14 चेहरे की अस्थियाँ शामिल हैं।
• पसलियाँ (Ribs): मानव शरीर में 12 जोड़ी (कुल 24) पसलियाँ होती हैं, जो हृदय और फेफड़ों जैसे महत्वपूर्ण अंगों को सुरक्षा प्रदान करती हैं।
• पादांगुलि (Toes): पैरों की उंगलियों की हड्डियों को फालैंगेस (Phalanges) कहा जाता है। प्रत्येक पैर में कुल 14 फालैंगेस हड्डियाँ होती हैं।

The correct answer is Oil India Limited.

Key Points

• Joint Sector Industries are those enterprises that are owned and managed jointly by the Government (State) and private individuals or a group of individuals.
• Oil India Limited (OIL) is the premier example of a joint sector undertaking in India, functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• It was incorporated on 18 February 1959, as a partnership between the Government of India and the Burmah Oil Company Limited (a private entity).
• The primary objective of OIL is to engage in the exploration, development, and production of crude oil and natural gas, as well as the transportation of crude oil.
• In this sector, the government and private partners share the capital investment, risks, and management responsibilities, combining the public interest of the state with the operational efficiency of the private sector.
• While it has evolved into a Maharatna Public Sector Enterprise over time, it remains the standard classification for joint sector industries in academic and competitive examination contexts.

 Additional Information

• Private Sector Industries: These are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals.
• Bajaj Auto Limited: A major Indian multinational automotive company founded by Jamnalal Bajaj; it is one of the world's largest manufacturers of motorcycles and three-wheelers.
• Dabur India Limited: One of India's largest Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) companies, renowned for its Ayurvedic and natural healthcare products.
• Tata Steel Limited: Formerly known as TISCO, it is a leading global steel-making company headquartered in Mumbai and established in 1907 at Jamshedpur.
• Public Sector Industries: Owned and operated by government agencies, such as Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL).
• Cooperative Sector Industries: Owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, such as Amul (Anand Milk Union Limited) and the cooperative sugar mills in Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal.

Key Points

• The Peninsular Plateau of India is a massive tableland composed of old crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks, forming the oldest landmass of the country.
• This plateau is flanked by two narrow coastal strips on its edges, which are known as the Western Coastal Plain and the Eastern Coastal Plain.
• The Western Coastal Plain is a narrow strip sandwiched between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea on the western side.
• The Eastern Coastal Plain is a relatively wider strip of land situated between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal on the eastern side.
• Together, the Arabian Sea to the west and the Bay of Bengal to the east define the maritime boundaries of the Indian peninsula.

 Additional Information

• Western Coastal Plains:
• Divided into three distinct sections: the Konkan (Mumbai to Goa), the Kannad Plain (central stretch), and the Malabar Coast (southern stretch).
• It is characterized by being narrow and having numerous fast-flowing rivers.
• Eastern Coastal Plains:
• Divided into the Northern Circar in the north and the Coromandel Coast in the south.
• It features large deltas formed by major rivers such as the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.
• Red Sea:
• A seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia.
• It is located far to the west of the Indian subcontinent and is connected to the ocean through the Bab el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden.
• Indian Ocean:
• The third-largest of the world's oceanic divisions, lying to the south of India.
• The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal are its two major northern extensions.

The correct answer is Amending the Constitution through a special majority in Parliament.

Key Points

• Fundamental Rights, contained in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the Constitution of India, are guaranteed to all citizens and can only be altered through a formal Constitutional Amendment.
• The power and procedure for amending the Constitution are laid down in Article 368, which specifies that certain provisions require a Special Majority.
• A Special Majority involves a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
• In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that while Parliament has the authority to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, it cannot alter the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
• Amendments to Fundamental Rights do not require ratification by state legislatures unless they also affect federal provisions mentioned in the proviso to Article 368(2).

 Additional Information

• Article 13:
• Originally suggested that any law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights would be void.
• The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) clarified that Article 13 does not apply to constitutional amendments made under Article 368.
• Simple Majority:
• Refers to a majority of more than 50 percent of the members present and voting.
• Used for Ordinary Bills, admission of new states, or salaries of members, but insufficient for changing Fundamental Rights.
• Executive Orders and Notifications:
• Issued by the President or government departments to implement existing laws.
• They are subordinate to the Constitution and cannot be used to bypass the legislative process required for constitutional changes.
• Judicial Review:
• The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and High Courts (under Article 226) serve as the protectors and guarantors of Fundamental Rights.

The correct answer is Chola.

Key Points

• The Brihadeeswarar Temple, also known as Peruvudaiyar Koyil, was built by the Chola emperor Raja Raja Chola I between 1003 and 1010 CE in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu.
• It stands as one of the finest examples of Dravidian Architecture and was constructed using over 130,000 tons of granite, remarkably joined through an interlocking stone system without the use of mortar.
• The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and features a massive Vimana (temple tower) that rises to a height of 66 meters (216 feet), making it one of the tallest structures of its kind in the world.
• At the top of the tower sits the Kumbam (capstone), which is carved from a single block of granite weighing approximately 80 tons; legend suggests a 6-kilometer ramp was built to haul it to the top.
• The temple complex was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987 and is part of the Great Living Chola Temples group, reflecting the maritime and cultural expansion of the Chola Empire.
• It houses a massive monolithic Nandi (sacred bull) at the entrance, which is approximately 13 feet high and 16 feet long, carved out of a single rock.

 Additional Information

• Chalukya Dynasty:
• Ruled primarily in the Deccan region and developed the Vesara style of architecture, prominent in sites like Badami, Aihole, and the Pattadakal temple complex.
• Pallava Dynasty:
• Renowned for pioneering South Indian rock-cut architecture, they constructed the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram and the Kailasanathar Temple in Kanchipuram.
• Hoysala Dynasty:
• Famous for their unique, highly ornate, star-shaped temple plans and intricate soapstone carvings, such as the Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebidu and the Chennakeshava Temple at Belur.

The correct answer is Transpiration.

Key Points

• Transpiration is the physiological process where plants release excess water into the atmosphere in the form of water vapour from their aerial parts, primarily leaves.
• The majority of this water loss occurs through stomata, which are microscopic pores on the leaf surface regulated by guard cells to control gas exchange and moisture levels.
• While it may seem wasteful, as nearly 97−99.5% of water absorbed by roots is lost, it is essential for generating transpiration pull (negative pressure) that lifts water and minerals through the xylem.
• It serves a vital role in thermoregulation, as the evaporation of water consumes heat energy, effectively cooling the plant tissues and preventing damage from high temperatures.
• Environmental factors such as light intensity, temperature, humidity, and wind speed significantly influence the rate at which water is transpired.

 Additional Information

• Pollination
• The mechanism of transferring pollen grains from the male anther to the female stigma to facilitate fertilization.
• It can be biotic (using insects or birds) or abiotic (using wind or water).
• Respiration
• A metabolic process where plants break down glucose in the presence of oxygen to produce energy (ATP), releasing CO₂.
• It occurs in the mitochondria of all living cells throughout the day and night.
• Photosynthesis
• The anabolic process by which green plants manufacture carbohydrates using sunlight, chlorophyll, water, and CO₂.
• It primarily takes place in the chloroplasts of the mesophyll cells in leaves.

The correct answer is State Election Commission.

Key Points

• The State Election Commission (SEC) is a constitutional body established under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 to ensure the conduct of free, fair, and impartial elections to local bodies.
• According to Article 243K of the Constitution of India, the powers of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats are vested in the State Election Commission.
• The commission is headed by a State Election Commissioner, who is appointed by the Governor of the respective state.
• To ensure its functional autonomy, the State Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except in a manner and on grounds similar to those prescribed for a Judge of a High Court.
• Article 243ZA similarly empowers the State Election Commission to conduct elections for Municipalities (Urban Local Bodies) within the state.

 Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• Constitutional body under Article 324 responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
• It has no role in the conduct of elections to Panchayats or Municipalities.
• Governor:
• The Constitutional Head of the state who appoints the State Election Commissioner.
• Determines the conditions of service and tenure of office for the Commissioner, subject to any law made by the State Legislature.
• Collector:
• Typically serves as the District Election Officer at the ground level.
• Operates under the guidance and supervision of the State Election Commission for local body polls and the ECI for general elections.

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty, stating that no person shall be deprived of these except according to procedure established by law.
• In the landmark verdict of Common Cause v. Union of India (2018), a Five-Judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the Right to Die with Dignity is a fundamental right and an intrinsic part of the Right to Life.
• The judgment legalized passive euthanasia, which involves the withdrawal of medical treatment or life support with the intention of allowing a terminally ill patient to die in the natural course.
• The court also recognized the validity of Living Wills or Advance Medical Directives, which allow individuals to specify in advance that they should not be kept on artificial life support if they reach a terminal or permanent vegetative state.
• This decision emphasized the importance of individual autonomy and self-determination, ensuring that the dignity of an individual is maintained even during the process of dying.

 Additional Information

• Article 14:
• It guarantees Equality before Law and the equal protection of the laws to all persons within the territory of India, prohibiting arbitrary state action.
• Article 19(1)(a):
• It provides the fundamental Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression, allowing citizens to express their opinions, beliefs, and convictions freely.
• Article 25:
• It ensures the Freedom of Conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
• Aruna Shanbaug Case (2011):
• This was the preceding major case where the Supreme Court first allowed passive euthanasia under strict guidelines, later refined and expanded by the 2018 judgment.

The correct answer is Udai.

Key Points

• The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) launched its official mascot, Udai, on January 08, 2026, to enhance the reach and clarity of its digital services.
• The mascot is designed to simplify public communication by serving as a relatable and interactive guide for citizens navigating the Aadhaar ecosystem.
• Udai assists users in understanding technical processes such as biometric updates, e-KYC verification, and the Aadhaar Paperless Offline e-KYC system.
• This initiative aims to bolster digital literacy and provide a standardized interface for Aadhaar-related services across various demographics in India.
• The introduction of a dedicated mascot is a strategic move to humanize the technology behind Aadhaar and reduce the information asymmetry regarding government documentation.

 Additional Information

• UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India):
• It is a statutory authority established under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• Headquartered in New Delhi, it is responsible for Aadhaar enrollment, authentication, and the management of the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR).
• AadharMitra:
• Distinct from the mascot, AadharMitra is an AI/ML-based chatbot launched earlier by UIDAI to provide automated support for queries related to PVC card status and enrollment center locations.
• Digital India Mission:
• The launch of Udai is a core component of the Digital India program, which seeks to transform India into a digitally empowered society.
• It focuses on seamless service delivery and the integration of digital identity in everyday socio-economic activities.