DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 01 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Family Chart:

Family tree,

W is D's mother's Mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘POND’ is coded as ‘5317’  

‘DIGS’ is coded as ‘2458’.

Code for "D" is "5".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘BALM’ is coded as ‘4013’  

‘BEAM’ is coded as ‘1038’

Code for "E" is "8".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) P V % F # * O # % * G £ S I & A % F Y & J @ (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) P V % F # * O # % * G £ S I & A % F Y & J @ (Right)

There are five such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series:

(Left) B E I L O Q S U D G N C F H K P R T V W M A J (Right)

Checking the positions:

Second from the left end = E

Second from the right end = A

In the English alphabet:

A, B C D, E

There are three letters (B, C, D) between A and E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given

Statement:

D > G > R < Y = V

Conclusions:

I: D < Y → False (From the statement, D > G > R and Y > R, but no definite relationship can be established between D and Y.)

II: V > R → True (Since Y = V and Y > R, therefore V > R.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Each of D, E, F, G, M, N and O has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. Only three people have exam between D and O.
2. Only three people have exam between M and N.
3. E has exam on some day before O and on some day after F.
4. Only G has exam before N.

Final Exam Schedule:

Therefore, Four people have an exam after D.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

Total number of people in the row = 43

Hari is 13^th from the right end.

Rupesh is 20^th from the left end.

The formula to find the position from the left is:

Position from Left = Total People - Position from Right + 1

For Hari:

Position from left = 43 - 13 + 1

= 30 + 1

= 31^st position from the left.

For Rupesh:

Position from left = 20^th

Number of people between Hari and Rupesh = Difference of positions - 1

= 31 - 20 - 1

= 11 - 1

= 10 people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. B sits third to the right of E.
2. D is the immediate neighbour of G and A.
3. F sits second to the right of G.

There are four people sit between A and C when counted from the left of C.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is based on the linear seating arrangement of six people facing South.

Directions for South-facing arrangement:

• Left of a person is towards the right side of the observer.
• Right of a person is towards the left side of the observer.

Step-by-step Placement:

1. Only two people sit to the left of F: Since they are facing South, there are two people in the seats to the left of F (towards the observer's right). This places F in the 4^th position from the observer's left.

2. E sits immediately to the right of F: In a South-facing row, the right of F is towards the observer's left. So, E is at the 3^rd position.

3. Only two people sit between F and G: F is at the 4^th position. Two seats between them mean G must be at the 1^st position (as position 7 does not exist).

4. Only one person sits between E and S: E is at the 3^rd position. S must be at the 5^th position to leave one seat (occupied by F) in between.

5. Only two people sit between E and Q: E is at the 3^rd position. Two seats between them (occupied by F and S) mean Q must be at the 6^th position.

6. The remaining person: P is the only person left, so P must occupy the 2^nd position.

Final Seating Arrangement:

The question asks: Who is sitting to the immediate left of P?

Since P is facing South, his immediate left is the person sitting in the next seat towards the observer's right (Position 3).

The person sitting in Position 3 is E.

Therefore, E is sitting to the immediate left of P.

**Given

Statement:

**

T < N < A < Q > K

Conclusions:

I: K > N → False (From the statement, N < A < Q and K < Q, but no definite relationship can be established between K and N.)

II: T < Q → True (Since T < N < A < Q, therefore T < Q.)

Therefore, only Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) A C G S K N L Q U D J E P H O F R T I M V B (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Vowel ← Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) A C G S K N L Q U D J E P H O F R T I M V B (Right)

There is No such consonant that satisfies the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series:

(Left) 1 5 9 4 8 3 8 4 6 7 1 2 5 6 5 9 3 5 7 6 3 7 2 1 3 4 8 7 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Perfect square digit ← Even digit → Odd digit

Checking the series:

(Left) 1 5 9 4 8 3 8 4 6 7 1 2 5 6 5 6 5 9 3 5 7 6 3 7 2 1 3 4 8 7 (Right)

There are Four (More than three) such even digits that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

A, E, I, O, U and V live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. Only two people sit between U and V.
2. Only two people sit between E and O.
3. No one lives above E.
4. V lives below O but above I.

Final Arrangement:

Three people live below A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart : 

Family tree,

S is K's wife's Brother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given word: ENCRYPT

Each letter is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order and then arranged in alphabetical order.

Checking the word:

E → D,

N → M,

C → B,

R → Q,

Y → X,

P → O,

T → S

New letters formed: D, M, B, Q, X, O, S

After arranging in alphabetical order: B, D, M, O, Q, S, X

Third from the right = Q

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

D, E, F, G, O and P live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. D lives on floor numbered 5.
2. E lives on a floor above D.
3. Only O lives below G.

4 F lives on an even numbered floor. 

The final arrangement is as follows:

There are two people (G and O) living below P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given word: SCRAMBLE

Each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order

Each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order.

Applying the condition:

S → R,  C → B,  R → Q,  A → B,  M → L,  B → A,  L → K,  E → F

New group of letters formed:

R B Q B L A K F

Checking the frequency of each letter:

R = 1 time,

B = 2 times,

Q = 1 time,

L = 1 time,

A = 1 time,

K = 1 time,

F = 1 time

Only the letter B appears exactly twice.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given

Statements:

Some pliers are screwdrivers.

Some screwdrivers are gloves.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some pliers are gloves → Does not follow (Because there is no direct definite relation between pliers and gloves in the least possible diagram, so it is only a possibility.)

II. All gloves are screwdrivers → Does not follow (Because only some screwdrivers are gloves is given, so all gloves being screwdrivers is a possibility but not a certain fact.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

‘TOPS’ is coded as ‘7459’ 

‘PINK’ is coded as ‘3641’.

Code for "P" is "4".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is a progressive addition of +1, +2, +3, and +4 to the positional values of the letters.

For ARNS to BTQW

For LMAX to MODB

Following the same pattern for XGBP:

Thus, XGBP is related to YIET following the alphabetical order logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Apply the operations to each digit of the number 8153647

The new number thus formed is: 5375319

First digit from the left in 5375319 is 5.

Second digit from the right in 5375319 is 1.

Difference = 5 − 1 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number − 7 = 2^nd number and 2^nd number − 2 = 3^rd number.

For, (59, 52, 50)

⇒ 59 − 7 = 52

⇒ 52 − 2 = 50.

For, (73, 66, 64)

⇒ 73 − 7 = 66 

⇒ 66 − 2 = 64.

Similarly, 

Option (2): (89, 82, 80)

⇒ 89 − 7 = 82 

⇒ 82 − 2 = 80.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is,

17 + 7 = 24

24 + 7 = 31

31 + 7 = 38

38 + 7 = 45

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

For EI − KO:

For SR − PY:

For BF − HL:

For IM − OS:

Therefore, the letter cluster pair that does not belong to the group is SR − PY.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

18 + 11 = 29

19 + 17 = 46

46 + 11 = 57

57 + 17 = 74

74 + 11 = 85

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 26 ÷ 2 - (8 × 4) ÷ 4 - 16 ÷ 2 - 14 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 26 × 2 + (8 ÷ 4) × 4 + 16 × 2 + 14 = ?

⇒ 26 × 2 + (8 ÷ 4) × 4 + 16 × 2 + 14 = ?

⇒ 26 × 2 + 2 × 4 + 16 × 2 + 14 = ?

⇒ 26 × 2 + 8 + 16 × 2 + 14 = ?

⇒ 52 + 8 + 32 + 14 = ?

⇒ 52 + 8 + 32 + 14 = ?

⇒ 60 + 32 + 14 = ?

⇒ 92 + 14 = ?

⇒ 106.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic: Second number = First number + 206

For (128, 334) →

128 + 206 = 334

For (98, 304) →

98 + 206 = 304

Similarly, 

Option (1):  (203, 409) →

203 + 206 = 409

Therefore, the pair 203, 409 follows the same relationship.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For OPS:

For ABE:

For FGJ:

For QRY:

Therefore, the odd one out is QRY.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 11 B 12 C 16 D 40 A 2 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 11 × 12 + 16 - 40 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 11 × 12 + 16 - 40 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 132 + 16 - 40 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 132 + 16 - 20 = ?

⇒ 132 + 16 - 20 = ?

⇒ 148 - 20 = ?

⇒ 128.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given

Statements:

All lights are cameras.

All cameras are pictures.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some pictures are cameras → Follow (Because all cameras are pictures, so the portion of pictures that contains cameras confirms that some pictures are cameras.) 

II. All lights are pictures → Follow (Because lights are inside cameras and cameras are inside pictures, so lights are also inside pictures.)

So, both conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: (First number − 145) = Second number.

For  315, 170 →

315 − 145 = 170

285, 140 →

285 − 145 = 140

Similarly, let's check the options to find the correct pair:

Option (1):  (200, 55) →

200 − 145 = 55

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is a constant subtraction of 1 from the positional value of each letter in the English alphabetical series.

For DFHE to CEGD

For ACEB to ZBDA

Similarly, we will apply the same pattern of −1 shift to BDFC:

For BDFC to ?

The resulting word is ACEB.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

For SOAP - AOSP - PAOS

For PLAY - ALPY - YALP

Similarly,

Option 1) TOMB - MOTB - BMOT

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Mirror image of the given figure is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 91 + 7 ÷ 8 - 3 × 15 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 91 ÷ 7 + 8 × 3 - 15 = ?

⇒ 91 ÷ 7 + 8 × 3 - 15 = ?

⇒ 13 + 8 × 3 - 15 = ?

⇒ 13 + 24 - 15 = ?

⇒ 13 + 24 - 15 = ?

⇒ 37 - 15 = ?

⇒ 37 - 15 = ?

⇒ 22.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Original Number: 4317865

Arrange the digits in ascending order from left to right.

New number formed: 1345678

Second from the left is 3.

Second from the right is 7.

Sum = 3 + 7 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

For UNG:

For IBU:

For TMF:

For RKO:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Larsen & Toubro (L&T).

Key Points

• The partnership between Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and NVIDIA was announced during the NVIDIA AI Summit 2024 held in Mumbai, marking a significant step toward India's technological autonomy.
• The collaboration aims to build sovereign AI infrastructure, ensuring that data generated within India is processed and stored locally to maintain data security and national sovereignty.
• The project focuses on developing gigawatt-scale AI factories, which are massive data center infrastructures optimized for the Blackwell GPU architecture and NVIDIA InfiniBand networking.
• L&T will leverage its extensive expertise in engineering, procurement, and construction (EPC) to integrate NVIDIA's full-stack AI platform into large-scale, sustainable power and cooling systems.
• This initiative is designed to support Indian startups, enterprises, and government agencies by providing the high-compute power necessary for training Large Language Models (LLMs) and deploying generative AI solutions.

 Additional Information

• NVIDIA's Strategic Ecosystem in India:
• Wipro: Collaborated with NVIDIA to train its workforce on NVIDIA AI Enterprise and develop custom AI solutions for the healthcare and financial sectors.
• Infosys: Integrated NVIDIA's AI software into its Topaz suite to accelerate the adoption of AI-first services across global enterprises.
• Tech Mahindra: Established a Center of Excellence (CoE) powered by NVIDIA Omniverse to drive innovation in industrial AI and digital twin technology.
• Sovereign AI Concept: Refers to a nation's ability to produce artificial intelligence using its own infrastructure, data, and workforce, reducing reliance on foreign digital platforms.

The correct answer is Enhancement of self-employment opportunities.

Key Points

• The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in June 2011 to address the multi-dimensional nature of poverty in rural India.
• Its primary objective is to create efficient and effective institutional platforms for the rural poor, enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood enhancements and improved access to financial services.
• The mission focuses on promoting self-employment by mobilizing rural poor households into Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and federating them into higher-level institutions.
• NRLM operates on the principle that the poor have innate capabilities and a strong desire to come out of poverty, provided they are organized and their capacities are built through social mobilization and skill development.
• The mission provides a revolving fund and community investment support fund to SHGs to strengthen their financial base and facilitate internal lending among members.

 Additional Information

• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY-NRLM):
• In November 2015, the program was renamed as DAY-NRLM to expand its scope and reach across all Gram Panchayats in the country.
• It replaced the earlier Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY), shifting from a target-oriented approach to a demand-driven saturation approach.
• The program receives partial funding through a credit from the International Development Association of the World Bank.
• Key sub-schemes include the Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP), which focuses on empowering women in agriculture, and the Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP) for local micro-enterprises.
• While healthcare, infrastructure, and water supply are vital rural development sectors, they are managed under different schemes like Ayushman Bharat, PMGSY, and Jal Jeevan Mission respectively.

The correct answer is Medal-winning performance while eight months pregnant.

Key Points

• Meghana Sajjanar, a seasoned Indian rifle shooter, achieved a historic milestone at the Asian Shooting Championships 2026 by winning a medal while being eight months pregnant.
• Her achievement is noted for the immense physical and mental endurance required, as the 10m Air Rifle event demands extreme postural stability, breath control, and balance, all of which are significantly altered during the third trimester of pregnancy.
• By competing at such an advanced stage of pregnancy, she challenged traditional sporting norms and demonstrated that high-performance athletics and motherhood can coexist effectively.
• The performance received widespread acclaim within the international shooting community, drawing comparisons to other elite athletes who have competed while pregnant, thereby promoting a more inclusive narrative for women in sports.
• Sajjanar maintained a high level of technical precision throughout the qualifications and finals, proving that her cognitive focus remained unaffected by the physical rigors of her condition.

 Additional Information

• Meghana Sajjanar:
• She is a prominent International Shooter from India, specifically representing the state of Karnataka at the domestic level.
• She has been a consistent performer for the Indian National Shooting Squad, participating in events like the ISSF World Cups and the Asian Games.
• Her primary discipline is the 10m Air Rifle Women, a category known for its highly competitive nature and narrow margins of victory.
• Asian Shooting Championships:
• This is a major continental championship organized by the Asian Shooting Confederation (ASC).
• The championships are crucial for athletes to secure Olympic Quota places and improve their World Rankings.

The correct answer is Monthly per capita consumption expenditure of a household.

Key Points

• In India, the estimation of the Poverty Line is traditionally based on consumption expenditure rather than income levels. This is due to the high volatility of income in the informal sector and the difficulty in accurately capturing self-employed earnings.
• The Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) is the primary metric used. It is calculated by aggregating the total value of goods and services consumed by a household and dividing it by the total number of household members.
• Data for these estimations is historically collected through large-scale sample surveys conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), which now functions under the National Statistical Office (NSO).
• A person is identified as Below Poverty Line (BPL) if their MPCE is lower than the threshold defined by the government for a specific period and region (rural or urban).
• This methodology ensures that the minimum subsistence level, including food and essential non-food items like clothing and rent, is accounted for in the national poverty headcount ratio.

 Additional Information

• Several expert groups have shaped India's poverty estimation over the decades:
• Tendulkar Committee (2009): Moved away from a purely calorie-based approach to include expenditures on health and education.
• Rangarajan Committee (2014): Proposed a higher MPCE threshold and used a separate consumption basket for rural and urban areas based on nutritional requirements.
• NITI Aayog: Currently serves as the nodal agency for poverty estimation, periodically constituting task forces to refine the Poverty Line methodology.
• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): While the official method uses MPCE, the NITI Aayog also releases a National MPI to capture deprivations across health, education, and standard of living.

The correct answer is Zagreb Open.

Key Points

• Manisha Bhanwala is a distinguished Indian wrestler who competes primarily in the 62kg women's freestyle category.
• The Zagreb Open is an elite international wrestling tournament held in Zagreb, Croatia, and is part of the United World Wrestling (UWW) Ranking Series.
• The victory at this Ranking Series event is significant as it provides crucial seed points that determine brackets for the World Championships and Olympic Games.
• Winning a gold medal at such a high-caliber event underscores the athlete's dominance and technical skill on the global stage against international competitors.

 Additional Information

• United World Wrestling (UWW):
• The international governing body for amateur wrestling, responsible for regulating freestyle and Greco-Roman styles.
• It manages the World Wrestling Rankings and oversees qualification for the Summer Olympics.
• World Championships:
• An annual global tournament where athletes compete for the title of World Champion across various weight classes.
• Asian Games:
• A continental multi-sport event held every four years, featuring elite athletes from across Asia, where wrestling is a major medal event.
• Commonwealth Games:
• A quadrennial international multi-sport event for members of the Commonwealth of Nations, where India has historically been very successful in wrestling.

The correct answer is 1994.

Key Points

• HDFC Bank Limited was incorporated in August 1994 as a private sector bank, following the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) policy to liberalize the Indian banking sector.
• The bank was promoted by the Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC), which was a pioneer in housing finance in India since 1977.
• It received its banking license from the RBI in 1994 and commenced operations as a Scheduled Commercial Bank in January 1995.
• The bank's registered office was established in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and its first corporate office and full-service branch were opened at Sandoz House, Worli.
• As one of the first new-generation private sector banks, it aimed to provide professional management and high-tech banking services to the Indian market.

 Additional Information

• Major Mergers and Acquisitions:
• In February 2000, HDFC Bank merged with Times Bank, which was the first merger of two new-generation private banks in India.
• In 2008, the bank acquired Centurion Bank of Punjab, significantly enhancing its retail assets and distribution network.
• On July 1, 2023, HDFC Bank completed a landmark merger with its parent company, HDFC Limited, making it one of the largest financial institutions in the world.
• Governance and Leadership:
• The bank is currently led by Sashidhar Jagdishan, who serves as the Managing Director and CEO.
• The Chairman of the Board of Directors is Atanu Chakraborty.
• Global and Domestic Status:
• HDFC Bank is consistently ranked as India's largest private sector bank by market capitalization and assets.
• It is categorized as a Domestic Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB) by the RBI, indicating its critical importance to the Indian economy.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• The Government of India officially notified Sanskrit as a Classical Language in October 2005, following a decision by the Union Cabinet.
• Sanskrit was the second language to receive this prestigious status, coming shortly after Tamil was designated as the first classical language in 2004.
• The criteria for declaring a language as Classical were established by the Ministry of Culture, requiring a recorded history of early texts spanning 1500 to 2000 years.
• To qualify, the language must possess a body of ancient literature and an original literary tradition that is not borrowed from another speech community, ensuring it represents a unique heritage.

 Additional Information

• Timeline of Classical Languages in India:
• Tamil: Accorded the status in 2004.
• Sanskrit: Accorded the status in 2005.
• Telugu and Kannada: Recognized in 2008.
• Malayalam: Recognized in 2013.
• Odia: Recognized in 2014.
• October 2024 Additions: The Cabinet recently approved Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali for classical status.
• Institutional Benefits:
• The Ministry of Education provides benefits such as two major International Awards annually for eminent scholars of these languages.
• A Centre of Excellence for Studies is established for the respective language to promote research and preservation.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) creates Professional Chairs in Central Universities to foster academic growth and linguistic preservation.

The correct answer is Film and Television Institute of India (FTII).

Key Points

• The Ministry of Education, acting on the recommendations of the University Grants Commission (UGC), officially declared the Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) as a Deemed to be University in April 2025.
• This status is granted under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, which allows high-performing institutions to enjoy academic status and privileges similar to those of a traditional university.
• Located in Pune, Maharashtra, FTII is an autonomous institution functioning under the aegis of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting of the Government of India.
• The transition empowers the institute to award its own formally recognized degrees, including Master of Arts (MA), Bachelor of Arts (BA), and Doctor of Philosophy (PhD), replacing the previous system of awarding diplomas.
• Established in 1960 on the historic grounds of the Prabhat Studio, FTII has been a premier training ground for cinema and television professionals in India and the wider South Asian region.

 Additional Information

• Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC):
• Inaugurated in 1965 by Indira Gandhi, it is a premier institute for journalism and mass communication training located in New Delhi.
• It was also granted the Deemed to be University status under the 'Distinct Category' in February 2024.
• National School of Drama (NSD):
• Based in New Delhi, it was established in 1959 and became an independent entity under the Ministry of Culture in 1975.
• It is renowned globally for its intensive training in Dramatic Arts and its role in shaping contemporary Indian theatre.
• Asian Academy of Film and Television (AAFT):
• Located in Noida, Uttar Pradesh, it is a prominent private media school established in 1993.
• It offers specialized vocational training in film production, direction, and cinematography.

The correct answer is International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics and Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

Key Points

• In August 2025, a collaborative effort between the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) led to the launch of an AI-powered WhatsApp climate advisory service.
• This digital tool is specifically designed for farmers in Maharashtra to provide real-time, location-specific weather forecasts and crop-management strategies.
• The service utilizes Generative AI and Machine Learning algorithms to analyze vast datasets from local weather stations and satellite imagery, translating complex meteorological data into simple, actionable advice.
• Farmers receive alerts regarding pest infestations, irrigation schedules, and harvesting windows, directly on their mobile devices, minimizing the digital divide in rural areas.
• The initiative aims to enhance climate resilience in regions like Vidarbha and Marathwada, which are frequently affected by erratic monsoon patterns and drought.

 Additional Information

• ICRISAT:
• Founded in 1972, it is an international non-profit organization headquartered in Patancheru, Hyderabad.
• It specializes in research for development in the semi-arid tropics, focusing on nutritious crops like chickpea, pigeonpea, and millets.
• ICAR:
• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• Established in 1929 as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it is headquartered in New Delhi and oversees one of the largest agricultural research networks globally.
• Technological Impact:
• The use of WhatsApp as a delivery platform ensures high penetration, as the app is widely used across India, requiring minimal technical literacy from the end-user.
• By providing precision agriculture tools, the collaboration helps in reducing the input costs for farmers by optimizing the use of fertilizers and water.

The correct answer is Do or Die.

Key Points

• The Quit India Movement, also recognized as the August Kranti, was formally launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
• The iconic slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) was issued by Gandhi during his address to the All-India Congress Committee, signifying that Indians should either free the country or die in the attempt.
• The movement emerged primarily due to the failure of the Cripps Mission, which did not offer a satisfactory proposal for Indian self-rule during World War II.
• Despite the immediate arrest of top leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Abul Kalam Azad under Operation Zero Hour, the movement spread nationwide as a decentralized struggle against British imperialism.

 Additional Information

• Swaraj is my birthright:
• This slogan was famously declared by Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Lokmanya) to advocate for Swaraj or self-governance during the early 20^th century.
• Inquilab Zindabad:
• Originally coined by the poet Hasrat Mohani, this slogan, meaning 'Long Live the Revolution', was popularized by the revolutionary Bhagat Singh and the HSRA.
• Simon Go Back:
• This phrase was used by Indian protestors in 1928 to voice their opposition to the Simon Commission, which lacked any Indian representation in its constitutional review process.

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji is revered as the Grand Old Man of India and served as the Unofficial Ambassador of India to Britain, tirelessly advocating for Indian self-rule and civil rights.
• He achieved a historic milestone in 1892 (noted in some contexts as his active period around 1902) by being elected to the House of Commons representing Central Finsbury on a Liberal Party ticket, making him the first British Indian Member of Parliament.
• Naoroji was a key founding member of the Indian National Congress (INC) and holds the distinction of presiding over its annual sessions three times: 1886 (Calcutta), 1893 (Lahore), and 1906 (Calcutta).
• He is most famous for his economic critique of British rule, specifically the Drain of Wealth theory, which he detailed in his seminal work Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.
• During the 1906 session of the INC, under his presidency, the demand for Swaraj (Self-government) was formally adopted as the main goal of the Indian national movement.

 Additional Information

• A O Hume
• A retired British Civil Servant who is credited as the primary organizer and founder of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• He served as the General Secretary of the Congress for its first twenty-two years.
• Pherozeshah Mehta
• Known as the Lion of Bombay, he was a prominent lawyer and a moderate leader of the INC.
• He played a crucial role in the Bombay Municipal Corporation and served as the President of the INC in 1890.
• Badruddin Tyabji
• He was a distinguished lawyer and the first Indian to hold the post of Chief Justice in the Bombay High Court.
• He became the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress during its third session held in Madras (1887).

The correct answer is Fixed cost.

Key Points

• Fixed costs are those expenses that remain constant and do not fluctuate with the change in the volume of production or sales. These are also known as supplementary costs or overhead costs.
• Even when the output is zero, a firm must bear these costs because they are associated with the fixed factors of production, such as land, machinery, and top-level management.
• In the short run, these costs are unavoidable. For instance, if a factory shuts down for a month, the owner must still pay the building rent and property taxes.
• Mathematically, the relationship is expressed as Total Cost (TC) = Total Fixed Cost (TFC) + Total Variable Cost (TVC). When output is 0, TVC is 0, leading to TC = TFC.
• The Total Fixed Cost curve is represented as a horizontal straight line parallel to the X-axis (output axis), signifying its inelastic nature relative to production levels.

 Additional Information

• Variable cost:
• These costs vary directly with the level of output. If production increases, variable costs increase; if production is zero, variable costs are nil.
• Examples include raw materials, direct labor wages, and electricity expenses used in the manufacturing process.
• Total cost:
• This is the aggregate of all costs incurred by a firm to produce a given level of output.
• It includes both fixed and variable components. Unlike fixed costs, the total cost does change as output increases because the variable cost component rises.
• Marginal cost:
• It is the additional cost incurred by producing one more unit of a commodity.
• It is calculated as the change in Total Cost divided by the change in Quantity. Since fixed costs do not change, marginal cost is entirely dependent on variable costs.

The correct answer is Marginal Cost.

Key Points

• Marginal Cost represents the incremental expense incurred by a firm when producing exactly one additional unit of a product.
• Mathematically, it is calculated as the change in Total Cost divided by the change in the Quantity of output (MC = ΔTC / ΔQ).
• Because Fixed Costs do not change with the level of production in the short run, the Marginal Cost is entirely determined by changes in Variable Costs like raw materials and direct labor.
• The Marginal Cost Curve is typically U-shaped; it initially declines due to economies of scale and specialized labor but eventually rises because of the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns.
• In economic theory, for a firm to achieve Profit Maximization, it must produce at a level where Marginal Revenue (MR) is equal to Marginal Cost (MC).

 Additional Information

• Total Cost:
• It is the sum of Total Fixed Costs and Total Variable Costs required to produce a given level of output.
• It reflects the overall economic resources used in the production process.
• Average Cost:
• Also known as Unit Cost, it is the Total Cost divided by the number of units produced (AC = TC / Q).
• It helps businesses determine the minimum price at which they can sell a product without incurring a loss.
• Fixed Cost:
• These are expenses that remain constant regardless of the volume of goods produced, such as rent, insurance, and administrative salaries.
• In the long run, all costs are considered variable as the scale of production can be fully adjusted.

The correct answer is 1873.

Key Points

• Jyotirao Govindrao Phule, a revolutionary social reformer, founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers Society) on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra.
• The primary objective of the Satyashodhak Samaj was to liberate the lower castes, Shudras, and Ati-Shudras from the social and religious exploitation perpetrated by the upper-caste hegemony and the priesthood.
• The society advocated for social equality, rationalism, and the abolition of the caste system, emphasizing that all human beings are children of one Nirmik (Creator).
• Membership in the Samaj was inclusive, welcoming people from all backgrounds, including Muslims, Christians, and Jews, fostering a spirit of universal brotherhood.
• Phule rejected the authority of the Vedas and ancient scriptures that justified the varna hierarchy, instead promoting education as the ultimate tool for emancipation.

 Additional Information

• Literary Contributions:
• In 1873, Phule wrote the seminal book Gulamgiri (Slavery), which he dedicated to the American Abolitionist Movement to end slavery, linking the struggles of the American Blacks with the Indian lower castes.
• His other influential works include Shetkarayacha Aasud (The Cultivator's Whipcord) and Sarvajanik Satya Dharma Pustak.
• Educational Reform:
• Phule was a pioneer of women's education; he and his wife, Savitribai Phule, started the first school for girls at Bhide Wada in 1848.
• Recognition:
• For his lifelong commitment to social justice, he was bestowed with the title of Mahatma in 1888 by Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar at a public gathering in Mumbai.

The correct answer is Interest.

Key Points

• Interest is defined as the consideration or compensation paid by a borrower to a lender for the use of capital over a specific period.
• In the context of a Savings Account, the account holder effectively lends their money to the Bank, which the bank then uses to fund loans for other customers.
• The Interest Rate on savings accounts is typically calculated as a percentage of the Principal Amount maintained in the account.
• In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) deregulated savings bank interest rates in October 2011, granting commercial banks the autonomy to determine their own rates based on market liquidity and internal policies.
• The calculation of interest is usually done on a Daily Product Basis, where interest is calculated on the daily closing balance and credited to the account periodically (e.g., quarterly or half-yearly).

 Additional Information

• Profit:
• Refers to the financial gain realized when the amount of Revenue earned from a business activity exceeds the Expenses, costs, and taxes involved in sustaining the activity.
• Dividend:
• Represents a portion of a company's Net Profits that is distributed to its Shareholders as decided by the board of directors.
• It is a reward to investors for putting their Equity Capital into the business.
• Bonus:
• Generally refers to an additional payment made to employees above their standard salary or a reward given to Policyholders by insurance companies.
• In the stock market, Bonus Shares are free additional shares given to existing shareholders based upon the number of shares they already hold.

The correct answer is The Muzaffarpur bomb attack by Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki.

Key Points

• The Muzaffarpur bomb attack took place on April 30, 1908, when Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki attempted to assassinate the District Judge Douglas Kingsford, who was notorious for passing harsh sentences on Indian nationalists. This is the earliest revolutionary event among the given options. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Alipore Bomb Case, also known as the Manicktala Bomb Conspiracy, was initiated in May 1908 following police raids on the Muraripukur garden house in Calcutta. These raids were a direct consequence of the investigation into the Muzaffarpur incident, making it chronologically subsequent to the bomb attack. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The assassination of Curzon-Wyllie occurred on July 1, 1909, in London. Madan Lal Dhingra shot Sir William Hutt Curzon Wyllie, an officer of the British Indian Army, at a meeting of the National Indian Association. This event took place more than a year after the Muzaffarpur attack. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• The bomb attack on Lord Hardinge, known as the Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy Case, took place on December 23, 1912. Revoluntionaries led by Rash Behari Bose and Sachin Sanyal threw a bomb at the Viceroy during his ceremonial entry into the new capital, Delhi. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Revolutionary Figures and Outcomes:
• Khudiram Bose: He was apprehended shortly after the Muzaffarpur incident and was executed on August 11, 1908, becoming one of the youngest martyrs of the Indian independence movement at the age of 18.
• Prafulla Chaki: To avoid being captured by the British police, he committed suicide at the Mokama Ghat railway station on May 1, 1908.
• Aurobindo Ghosh: He was a primary defendant in the Alipore Bomb Case but was eventually acquitted due to a lack of evidence and the brilliant defense provided by Chittaranjan Das.
• Rash Behari Bose: After the failed attempt on Lord Hardinge, he successfully evaded capture and later played a pivotal role in the Ghadar Movement and the formation of the Indian Independence League in Japan.
• Impact of these Events: These incidents marked the shift from moderate constitutional agitation to militant nationalism and revolutionary terrorism, aimed at striking fear into the hearts of British officials and inspiring the Indian masses.

The correct answer is Non-Cooperation Movement.

Key Points

• The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched in August 1920, is historically recognized as the first large-scale mass movement led by Mahatma Gandhi that involved a pan-India participation of diverse social groups.
• While earlier protests like Champaran and Kheda were restricted to specific regions and issues, this movement aimed for Swaraj (self-rule) and was the first to mobilize peasants, workers, students, and the middle class on a national platform.
• The movement was a response to the repressive Rowlatt Act of 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, and the injustices associated with the Khilafat issue, leading to a massive boycott of British titles, law courts, and educational institutions.
• The Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920 officially ratified the program, marking a significant shift from constitutional struggle to active non-violent mass resistance.
• The movement successfully integrated the Khilafat Movement, which helped in achieving unprecedented Hindu-Muslim unity during the early 1920s.

 Additional Information

• Champaran Satyagraha (1917):
• This was Mahatma Gandhi's first Satyagraha in India, focused on the Tinkathia system in Bihar, where farmers were forced to cultivate Indigo.
• Civil Disobedience Movement (1930):
• Initiated with the Dandi March on March 12, 1930, this movement focused on breaking the Salt Law and marked a more radical phase of the freedom struggle.
• Quit India Movement (1942):
• Also known as the August Movement, it was launched at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai where Gandhi gave the famous slogan 'Do or Die' for immediate independence.

The correct answer is Agni-3.

Key Points

• The Agni-3 is a surface-to-surface Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) that serves as a crucial element of India s nuclear deterrence capability.
• On 06 February 2026, India conducted a successful flight test of the missile from APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha to verify its operational readiness and technical parameters.
• Developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Agni-3 has a strike range of 3,000 kilometers to 5,000 kilometers, enabling it to reach strategic targets across the region.
• The missile is powered by a two-stage solid propellant engine, which provides higher reliability, faster reaction time, and better storage stability compared to liquid-fueled engines.
• With a length of 17 meters and a diameter of 2 meters, it can carry a payload (warhead) weighing up to 1.5 tonnes, supporting both conventional and nuclear warheads.

 Additional Information

• Agni-5:
• It is an Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range exceeding 5,000 kilometers and is the most advanced version of the Agni series.
• It features three-stage solid propulsion and is capable of carrying Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles (MIRV).
• Akash:
• A short-range Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) designed to intercept aerial threats like aircraft and cruise missiles at a range of 25 kilometers.
• It is equipped with the Rajendra radar for multi-target tracking and guidance.
• Prithvi-II:
• A Short-Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM) with a range of approximately 350 kilometers.
• It was the first missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) and uses a single-stage liquid-fuel engine.

The correct answer is Sports.

Key Points

• Shri Baldev Singh is a legendary Hockey coach from Haryana, widely recognized for his transformative impact on Indian hockey, especially the women's game.
• He is the founder and principal mentor at the Shahbad Hockey Academy in Kurukshetra, which has consistently produced top-tier international talent for India.
• Over his career, he has mentored more than 80 international players, including 30 members of the Indian Women's National Team, earning Shahbad the title of the 'nursery of Indian women's hockey'.
• His most prominent pupils include former Indian captain Rani Rampal, Sandeep Singh, and several other Olympians who have represented the country at the Asian Games and Commonwealth Games.
• Before being honored with the Padma Shri, his excellence in coaching was officially recognized by the Government of India with the Dronacharya Award in 2009.

 Additional Information

• Padma Shri:
• It is the fourth-highest civilian award in India, conferred to citizens for their distinguished contribution in various spheres of activity.
• The award is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day (26^th January) and is presented by the President of India at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• Padma Awards Hierarchy:
• The awards are classified into three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of high order), and Padma Shri (distinguished service).
• Recipients are selected based on the recommendations of the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.

The correct answer is INTERPOL Asian Committee.

Key Points

• India’s membership in the INTERPOL Asian Committee was finalized during the 25^th Asian Regional Conference, which took place in Singapore in September 2025.
• This committee is a strategic body within INTERPOL designed to coordinate regional police cooperation and address security challenges specific to the Asia-Pacific region.
• India was represented at the conference by a high-level delegation from the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), which serves as the National Central Bureau (NCB) for the country.
• Joining this committee allows India to actively participate in the development of policing strategies and information-sharing protocols to combat transnational crimes, cybercrime, and terrorism.
• The Asian Regional Conference is held every two years to bring together police chiefs and senior law enforcement officials to discuss regional trends and operational priorities.

 Additional Information

• INTERPOL (International Criminal Police Organization):
• It is the largest international police organization in the world, headquartered in Lyon, France, with 196 member countries.
• Its primary function is to provide a global communication network (I-24/7) and criminal databases to help police track criminals across borders.
• World Trade Organization (WTO):
• Established in 1995, it is the only international organization dealing with the global rules of trade between nations.
• Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO):
• A permanent intergovernmental international organization focusing on security, economy, and culture in the Eurasian region.
• ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations):
• A regional grouping that promotes economic, political, and security cooperation among its ten member states in Southeast Asia.

The correct answer is Article 143.

Key Points

• Article 143 of the Constitution of India confers Advisory Jurisdiction upon the Supreme Court, allowing the President to seek its opinion on any question of law or fact.
• The President can refer a matter under two circumstances: when a question of public importance has arisen or is likely to arise, or when a dispute arises from a pre-Constitution treaty or agreement.
• In the case of public importance (Clause 1), the Supreme Court may, at its discretion, refuse to provide an opinion; however, for pre-Constitution matters (Clause 2), the Court is mandatory required to deliver its report.
• The opinion expressed by the Supreme Court under this article is purely advisory and is not binding on the President, nor does it constitute the 'law declared by the Supreme Court' under Article 141.

 Additional Information

• Article 131:
• Relates to the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• It empowers the Court to settle disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States.
• Article 146:
• Deals with the officers and servants and the expenses of the Supreme Court.
• It ensures the independence of the judiciary by allowing the Chief Justice of India to make appointments.
• Article 148:
• Establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the State governments.

The correct answer is People aged 15-59 years.

Key Points

• In the context of demographic statistics and the Census of India 2011, the working-age population is defined as the group of individuals aged between 15 and 59 years.
• This segment is recognized as the economically productive part of the population, as they are physically and mentally capable of participating in economic activities and contributing to the national income.
• The Census 2011 data highlighted that this age group forms the backbone of the labor force, distinguishing it from the dependent population, which includes children below 15 and elderly people aged 60 and above.
• Understanding the size of the 15-59 age group is essential for manpower planning, educational resource allocation, and assessing the human capital potential of the country.

 Additional Information

• Demographic Dividend:
• This refers to the economic growth potential that results from a shift in a population age structure, particularly when the share of the working-age population is larger than the non-working-age share.
• India is currently experiencing a bulge in this age bracket, which provides a window of opportunity for rapid industrialization and economic development.
• Dependency Ratio:
• It is the ratio of the number of dependents (aged 0-14 and 60+) to the total working-age population (aged 15-59).
• A high working-age population leads to a lower dependency ratio, which generally correlates with higher savings rates and investment in the economy.
• Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR):
• While the working-age population includes everyone aged 15-59, the LFPR specifically measures the percentage of this group that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
• This metric is a vital indicator used by the National Statistical Office (NSO) to gauge the health of the job market.

The correct answer is Mumbai Port.

Key Points

• Mumbai Port is situated on the West Coast of India in the state of Maharashtra and is one of the oldest modern ports in the country.
• It is a natural deep-water harbour that spans approximately 400 square kilometres, providing one of the safest maritime shelters in the Arabian Sea.
• The harbour is strategically protected by the mainland of Konkan to its East and the island city of Mumbai to its West, shielding vessels from high-sea turbulence.
• Historically known as the Gateway of India, the port has been a primary hub for international trade since the 17^th century when it was transferred from the Portuguese to the British.
• The port handles a diverse range of cargo, including liquid chemicals, crude oil, and bulk commodities, and features three enclosed wet docks: Prince's Dock, Victoria Dock, and Indira Dock.

 Additional Information

• New Mangalore Port
• Located at Panambur, Karnataka, it is an all-weather port that serves as the only major port in the state, primarily exporting iron ore and handling LPG and timber.
• Chennai Port
• Situated on the Coromandel Coast in Tamil Nadu, it is the largest artificial port in India and the second-largest container terminal after JNPT.
• Paradip Port
• Located in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha, it is a major deep-sea port situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal, specializing in coal and iron ore transit.

The correct answer is 6 to 14 years.

Key Points

• The obligation for a parent or guardian to provide educational opportunities to their child or ward between the ages of 6 and 14 years is enshrined in the Indian Constitution as a Fundamental Duty.
• This specific duty was inserted as Clause (k) under Article 51A through the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• The amendment aimed to align the duties of citizens with the newly created Fundamental Right under Article 21A, which mandates the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the 6 to 14 years age group.
• By making it a duty, the Constitution emphasizes the role of the family unit in ensuring that children benefit from the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties:
• The Fundamental Duties are contained in Part IV-A of the Constitution and were originally inspired by the Constitution of the USSR.
• They were added by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Initially, there were only ten duties; the duty concerning education for children aged 6 to 14 became the eleventh duty in 2002.
• Article 45 and DPSP:
• The 86^th Amendment also modified Article 45 under the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• It now directs the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
• Before the amendment, Article 45 covered free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years, which has now been shifted to a Fundamental Right.

The correct answer is Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.

Key Points

• According to Article 217 of the Constitution of India, every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• For the specific appointment of the Chief Justice of a High Court, the President is constitutionally mandated to consult with the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the Governor of the state concerned.
• In instances where the appointment involves a Common High Court serving two or more states, the Governors of all the states concerned must be included in the consultation process.
• The term consultation has been interpreted by the Supreme Court through the Second Judges Case (1993) and the Third Judges Case (1998) to signify concurrence, emphasizing the primacy of the judiciary in the selection process.
• The consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court is only a requirement when the President is appointing a Judge other than the Chief Justice of that particular court.

 Additional Information

• The Collegium System:
• The recommendation for the appointment of a High Court Chief Justice is initiated by a Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
• This system ensures that judicial appointments are based on merit and seniority while maintaining judicial independence from the executive branch.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 214: Establishes that there shall be a High Court for each State.
• Article 216: Specifies that a High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and other Judges as the President deems necessary.
• Article 219: Mandates that the Governor of the State administers the oath or affirmation to the Chief Justice before they enter office.
• Qualifications and Tenure:
• A candidate must be a citizen of India and must have held a judicial office for ten years or served as an advocate of a High Court for ten years.
• The retirement age for a High Court Judge is 62 years.

The correct answer is Article 15.

Key Points

• Article 15 of the Constitution of India is a fundamental right that prohibits discrimination by the State and, in specific contexts, by private individuals against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them.
• Specifically, Article 15(2) mandates that no citizen shall, on the aforementioned grounds, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction, or condition regarding access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, and places of public entertainment.
• This provision is unique because it provides protection against discrimination not only by the State but also by private individuals who operate public commercial spaces, ensuring social equality and horizontal application of rights.
• The article also covers the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort maintained out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
• Refusing to sell goods to a customer based on their religion constitutes a direct violation of the Right to Equality as protected under this article.

 Additional Information

• Article 17
• This article provides for the Abolition of Untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
• It is an absolute right, and any disability arising out of Untouchability is an offense punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
• Article 16
• This article guarantees Equality of Opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to public employment or appointment to any office under the State.
• It prohibits discrimination in government jobs on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence.
• Article 12
• It provides the definition of the term State for the purposes of Part III (Fundamental Rights).
• It includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State, and all local or other authorities within Indian territory.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The first successful modern cotton textile mill in India was established in Mumbai (then known as Bombay) in 1854.
• The mill was named the Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company and was founded by the Parsi entrepreneur Cowasjee Nanabhoy Davar.
• Mumbai emerged as an ideal location because it was situated close to the black cotton soil tracts of Maharashtra and Gujarat, ensuring easy access to raw materials.
• The city provided a humid climate, which was essential for the spinning process as it prevented the thread from breaking frequently.
• The presence of a natural port in Mumbai facilitated the efficient import of heavy machinery from Britain and the subsequent export of finished yarn and cloth to global markets.
• This development marked the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in India, shifting the economic focus from traditional handlooms to factory-based production.

 Additional Information

• Kolkata:
• The very first attempt to set up a cotton mill occurred at Fort Gloster near Kolkata in 1818, but it was a commercial failure and closed down shortly after.
• Surat:
• Although Surat was a major medieval trading hub and later became famous for synthetic textiles and Zari work, it was not the site of the first successful mechanised mill in 1854.
• Chennai:
• Known as the Manchester of South India (specifically Coimbatore nearby), Chennai had a significant textile presence, but its industrial growth in this sector followed the success established in Western India.
• Entrepreneurship:
• Many early mills in Mumbai were financed by Parsi and Gujarati merchants who had accumulated capital through trade with China and the export of raw cotton to England.

The correct answer is Gregor Mendel.