DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 10 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Seven boxes I, J, K, L, M, N and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only J is kept above N.
2. Only O is kept between N and K.
3. Only I is kept below M.

Box Arrangement Table:

One box is kept between L and I.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) * Q @ W Ω E $ T # Y £ R ^ U & I ~ O % A K (Right)

Series after dropping all symbols:

(Left) Q W E T Y R U I O A K (Right)

The eighth element from the right is T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.

1. Only two people sit between A and R when counted from the right of A.
2. Only two people sit between R and C.
3. Only three people sit between A and Q.
4. D sits to the immediate left of S. 

S sits third to the left of B.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘dog apple sip’ is coded as 'zm xi hw'  

‘sip quip mop’ is coded as ‘bl ry xi’. 

Code for "sip" is "xi".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statements:

L > M < N < R ≥ S

Conclusions:

I: L = N → False (From the given statement, L > M and N > M, but no definite relationship can be established between L and N.)

II: S < L → False (Since L > M < N < R and R ≥ S, but no definite relationship can be established between S and L.)

Therefore, Neither I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) B C J ? $ ^ U + A \ D A V \ X X U J & (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) B C J ? $ ^ U + A \ D A V \ X X U J & (Right)

There are only one such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: E − F × G ÷ H + I

It means: E is the son of F, F is the husband of G, G is the mother of H, and H is the sister of I.

E is related to I as Brother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) 9 3 2 5 1 6 2 8 4 9 3 5 2 1 5 3 7 4 6 9 3 2 1 7 9 8 5 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Perfect square ← Even digit → Odd digit

Checking the series:

(Left) 9 3 2 5 1 6 2 8 4 9 3 5 2 1 5 3 7 4 6 9 3 2 1 7 9 9 8 5 (Right)

There are two such digits that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

All monkeys are cars.

No car is a bus.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No monkey is a bus → Follow  (Because all monkeys are inside cars and no car is a bus, there is no possibility for any monkey to be a bus.)

II. Some buses are cars → Does not follow (Because it is clearly stated that no car is a bus, which implies that no bus can be a car.)

So, only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven boxes R, S, T, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. V is kept immediately above R.
2. U is kept immediately above X.
3. Only T is kept above S.
4. Only two boxes are kept above V.
5. U is not kept at third position from the bottom.

Final Arrangement Table:

Three boxes are kept between W and T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) F R % N % V K & Z F / # \ O Z E + W K (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Vowel ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) F R % N % V K & Z F / # \ O Z E + W K (Right)

Only one symbol satisfies the given condition, i.e., it is immediately preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a letter.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

‘open the window’ is coded as ‘bz jq yr’

‘the good people’ is coded as ‘gf pa jq’

Therefore, the code for 'the' is 'jq'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

'he is tall' is coded as 'pn qr jk'

tall boy here' is coded as 'rt pn xu'

Therefore, the code for 'tall' is 'pn'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statement:

L > M ≤ N > R ≥ S

Conclusions:

I: N = L → False (From the given statement, L > M and N > M, but no definite relationship can be established between L and N.)

II: S < N → True (Since N > R and R ≥ S, therefore N > S, i.e., S < N.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: N ÷ O − P × Q + R

It means: N is the sister of O, O is the wife of P, P is the father of Q, and Q is the brother of R.

N is the sister of R's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Seven boxes R, S, T, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only W is kept above V.
2. Only S is kept between V and X.
3. Only U is kept below T.

The final arrangement from top to bottom is as follows:

One box kept between R and U.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) A I H M F C A N L H U X F L O I J S W E U R D P B T J M C (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Vowel → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) A I H M F C A N L H U X F F L O I J S W E U R D P B T J M C (Right)

There are two such vowels that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given series:

(Left) % L G / D P D X L / * \ B N V W M K * (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Consonant → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) % L G / D P D X L / * \ B N V W M K * (Right)

There are three such consonants that are immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a letter.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Seven boxes, R, S, T, W, X, Y, and Z, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only three boxes are kept below W.
2. Only two boxes are kept between W and Y.
3. Only Z is kept above S.
4. X is kept at some place below T and at some place above R. 

Final Arrangement:

The box kept at the second position from the bottom is R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.

1. B sits to the immediate right of C.
2. Only three people sit between B and A when counted from the left of B.
3. Only three people sit between C and Q.
4. D sits to the immediate right of S. 

One one person sit between C and S when counted from the right of S.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statements:

Some leopards are papers.

Some papers are cars.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some leopards are cars → Does not follow (There is no direct relationship between leopards and cars in the statements, so it is not a definite conclusion.)

II. All cars are papers → Does not follow (Statement says some papers are cars, which means some cars are papers, but all cars are papers cannot be concluded definitely.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

For KL − OT:

For PQ − TY:

For FG − JO:

For ZA − DE:

Therefore, the odd one out is ZA − DE.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

125 + (26 × 1) = 125 + 26 = 151

151 + (26 × 2) = 151 + 52 = 203

203 + (26 × 3) = 203 + 78 = 281

281 + (26 × 4) = 281 + 104 = = 385 

385 + (26 × 5) = 385 + 130 = 515

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given number: 7396524.

New number:  6287435.

second from the left: 2

second from the right: 3

Sum = 2 + 3 = 5

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

For EI − CF →

For JN − HK →

For GK − EH →

For RB − PS →

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic: (First Number × 4) − 2 = Second Number

For the pair (8, 30):

8 × 4 = 32

32 − 2 = 30

For the pair (13, 50):

13 × 4 = 52

52 − 2 = 50

Similarly, Option (3) 16, 62:

16 × 4 = 64

64 − 2 = 62

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Mirror image of given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

14 + 16 = 30

30 + 17 = 47

47 + 18 = 65

65 + 19 = 84

84 + 20 = 104

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is a constant subtraction of 3 from the positional value of each letter in the first set to obtain the corresponding letter in the second set.

For LJV to IGS

For DOQ to ALN

Applying the same logic to the options:

Option 1) GDP to DAM

This pair follows the logic of −3, −3, −3 shift.

Option 2) EHL to CFI

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −2, −2, −3.

Option 3) DHG to AEC

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −3, −3, −4.

Option 4) SEL to OAI

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −4, −4, −3.

Thus, the pair GDP : DAM follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 60 × 2 + 4 ÷ 6 - 5 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 60 ÷ 2 - 4 × 6 + 5 = ?

⇒ 60 ÷ 2 - 4 × 6 + 5 = ?

⇒ 30 - 4 × 6 + 5 = ?

⇒ 30 - 4 × 6 + 5 = ?

⇒ 30 - 24 + 5 = ?

⇒ 30 - 24 + 5 = ?

⇒ 6 + 5 = ?

⇒ 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Mirror image of give figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Option 1: LJ-IG

Option 2: QO-MN

Option 3: ZX-WU

Option 4: SQ-PN

Therefore, the odd one out is QO-MN.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

For AKIL to DNLO

For MWUX to PZXA

The common logic followed here is a constant letter shift of +3 for each letter based on the English alphabetical order.

For VFDG to YIGJ

Thus, the word VFDG is related to YIGJ following the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 21 B 42 D 3 A 10 C 2 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 21 - 42 ÷ 3 + 10 × 2 = ?

⇒ 21 - 42 ÷ 3 + 10 × 2 = ?

⇒ 21 - 14 + 10 × 2 = ?

⇒ 21 - 14 + 20 = ?

⇒ 21 - 14 + 20 = ?

⇒ 7 + 20 = ?

⇒ 27.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is,

10 + 25 = 35

35 + 30 = 65

65 + 35 = 100

100 + 40 = 140

140 + 45 = 185

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

For XDFG to VBDE

For PVXY to NTVW

The common pattern is a constant −2 shift in the positional value of each letter.

Applying the same logic to JPRS:

Following the positional value logic, JPRS is related to HNPQ.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic: (First Number × 6) − 1 = Second Number

For (12, 71):

12 × 6 = 72

72 − 1 = 71

For (15, 89):

15 × 6 = 90

90 − 1 = 89

Similarly, 

Option (2): For (18, 107)

18 × 6 = 108

108 − 1 = 107

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 8 D 4 C 1 Q 11 P 12 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 8 + 4 ÷ 1 × 11 - 12 = ?

⇒ 8 + 4 ÷ 1 × 11 - 12 = ?

⇒ 8 + 4 × 11 - 12 = ?

⇒ 8 + 44 - 12 = ?

⇒ 8 + 44 - 12 = ?

⇒ 52 - 12 = ?

⇒ 40.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 18 ÷ 2 + 10 × 5 - 3 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 18 × 2 - 10 ÷ 5 + 3 = ?

⇒ 18 × 2 - 10 ÷ 5 + 3 = ?

⇒ 36 - 10 ÷ 5 + 3 = ?

⇒ 36 - 2 + 3 = ?

⇒ 36 - 2 + 3 = ?

⇒ 34 + 3 = ?

⇒ 37.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number + Second number) × 2 = Third number

For (15, 30, 90) →

(15 + 30) × 2 = 45 × 2 = 90

For (17, 41, 116) →

(17 + 41) × 2 = 58 × 2 = 116

Similarly, 

Option (2): (31, 45, 152) →

(31 + 45) × 2 = 76 × 2 = 152

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Zero.

Key Points

• In economics, a production function represents the functional relationship between physical inputs (factors of production) and the physical output of goods. It is mathematically expressed as Q = f(L, K), where Q is the total output, L represents Labor, and K represents Capital.
• The production function assumes that both Labor and Capital are essential inputs for the creation of any tangible product. Labor involves human mental and physical effort, while Capital includes man-made resources like machinery, tools, and industrial plants.
• Most standard economic models, particularly the Cobb-Douglas Production Function, utilize a multiplicative structure represented as Q = A × L^α × K^β. In this algebraic form, if the value of either Labor (L) or Capital (K) is zero, the entire product becomes zero because any number multiplied by zero equals zero.
• This reflects the real-world economic principle that human effort (Labor) cannot produce modern goods without some form of tools or equipment (Capital), and conversely, automated machinery or factories (Capital) cannot function to produce output without at least some level of human oversight or maintenance (Labor).
• The condition where output is zero when an input is missing signifies that the isoquant (a curve showing combinations of inputs that produce the same output) typically does not touch the horizontal or vertical axes in standard production theory, illustrating that inputs are complements to one another.

 Additional Information

• Factors of Production:
• Land: Includes all natural resources and geographic locations used for economic activity.
• Labor: The human capital and effort, which is paid in wages.
• Capital: Physical assets like buildings and technology, which earn interest.
• Entrepreneurship: The ability to organize the other three factors and take risks for profit.
• Total, Average, and Marginal Product:
• Total Product (TP): The overall quantity of output produced. When an essential factor is absent, TP is zero.
• Marginal Product (MP): The additional output produced by adding one more unit of an input. If a factor is at zero, the marginal productivity of other factors is often theoretically undefined or zero.
• Average Product (AP): The output per unit of input. If total output is zero, the average product is also zero.
• Law of Diminishing Returns: This law states that as more units of a variable factor (like Labor) are added to a fixed factor (like Capital), the marginal output will eventually decrease, but this requires a non-zero starting point for all essential inputs.

The correct answer is Quit India Movement.

Key Points

• The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Kranti Movement, was officially launched by Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress on August 8, 1942.
• The movement was initiated at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay (now Mumbai) following a resolution passed during the All-India Congress Committee session.
• The primary objective was to demand an orderly British withdrawal from India and the establishment of an independent Indian government.
• Mahatma Gandhi delivered a powerful speech where he gave the famous slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro), signaling that Indians should either free the country or die in the attempt.
• The launch of the movement was heavily influenced by the failure of the Cripps Mission and the looming threat of the Japanese invasion during World War II.
• Despite the immediate arrest of top leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the movement spread rapidly across India through localized protests and strikes.

 Additional Information

• Swadeshi Movement:
• Launched in 1905 as a protest against the Partition of Bengal ordered by Lord Curzon.
• It focused on boycotting foreign goods and promoting indigenous (Swadeshi) industries and education.
• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Started in 1920 following the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the Rowlatt Act.
• It aimed for Swaraj (self-rule) through non-violent resistance but was suspended in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident.
• Khilafat Movement:
• Led by the Ali Brothers (Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali) in 1919 to support the Caliph of the Ottoman Empire.
• The movement was merged with the Non-Cooperation Movement to strengthen Hindu-Muslim unity in the struggle against British rule.

The correct answer is Thiruvananthapuram.

Key Points

• The 4th edition of the Kerala Legislature International Book Festival (KLIBF) was held in January 2026 at the Legislative Assembly Complex.
• The venue, known as the Niyamasabha, is located in Thiruvananthapuram, which serves as the permanent host for this grand literary event organized by the Kerala Legislative Assembly.
• The festival aims to foster a culture of reading and intellectual exploration, featuring over 200 publishers and thousands of book titles ranging from classical literature to modern science.
• The 2026 edition included a series of panel discussions, literary workshops, and interactions with international authors, emphasizing the theme of strengthening democracy through knowledge.
• It serves as a unique platform where legislators and the general public interact in a space dedicated to academic excellence and cultural exchange.

 Additional Information

• KLIBF History:
• The first edition was launched in 2023 to mark the centenary of the Kerala Legislative Council, establishing a new tradition in the state's cultural calendar.
• The festival often features book release ceremonies and provides concessions for students and libraries to purchase books.
• Other Locations in Options:
• Kozhikode: Designated as the first UNESCO City of Literature in India, it hosts the famous Kerala Literature Festival (KLF) but is not the venue for the Legislature's specific book fair.
• Kottayam: Frequently referred to as the Akshara Nagari (City of Letters), it is the center of Malayalam publishing and journalism.
• Kochi: A major commercial hub and port city that frequently hosts the Kochi International Book Fest and the Kochi-Muziris Biennale.
• Kerala Legislative Assembly:
• The Thiruvananthapuram complex is one of the largest legislative structures in India, featuring a blend of traditional Kerala and modern architectural styles.

The correct answer is 21 days.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi commenced a 21-day fast on May 8, 1933, which was specifically described as a self-purificatory fast.
• The primary motivation behind this fast was to protest against the British Government and to stir the conscience of the Hindu community regarding the social evils of untouchability.
• During this period, Gandhi was an inmate at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune; however, the government released him immediately after the fast began to avoid the risk of him dying in custody.
• He completed the 21-day penance at Parnakuti, the residence of Lady Thackersey in Pune, on May 29, 1933.
• This fast was a spiritual effort to purify his own heart and to inspire his followers to commit themselves more sincerely to the service of the Harijans (a term Gandhi used for the Depressed Classes).

 Additional Information

• The Harijan Movement:
• Following the Poona Pact of 1932, Gandhi shifted his primary focus from active political resistance to the eradication of untouchability.
• He founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in September 1932, which was later renamed the Harijan Sevak Sangh.
• In 1933, he started the weekly journal Harijan to promote social justice and communal harmony.
• Historical Context:
• The Poona Pact, signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, provided for reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures.
• After his release in 1933, Gandhi suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement for six weeks and later replaced it with Individual Satyagraha to prioritize social reform.

The correct answer is To empower rural women as insurance facilitators and increase awareness.

Key Points

• The Bima Sakhi Yojana is a flagship initiative by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) aimed at deepening insurance penetration in the vast rural landscapes of India.
• The primary objective of this scheme is to recruit and train rural women to act as Bima Sakhis, who serve as local insurance facilitators and agents within their communities.
• By engaging women, the program leverages their social networks and community trust to spread financial literacy and awareness regarding the benefits of life insurance and risk coverage.
• The scheme provides a sustainable livelihood opportunity for women, promoting economic empowerment and financial independence among the rural female workforce.
• It focuses on the distribution of micro-insurance products that are specifically designed with low premiums to suit the financial capacity of rural households.

 Additional Information

• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC):
• Established in 1956 through the LIC Act, it is the premier public sector insurance provider in India.
• It plays a pivotal role in resource mobilization for the five-year plans and national infrastructure development.
• Financial Inclusion:
• The Bima Sakhi Yojana supports the Government of India's vision of financial inclusion by bringing unbanked and uninsured populations into the formal financial fold.
• It complements other schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana by adding a layer of social security.
• Micro-insurance Regulations:
• Regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), these products are essential for protecting low-income groups against economic shocks.

The correct answer is Lord Linlithgow.

Key Points

• Lord Linlithgow served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1936 to 1943, which was one of the longest tenures during the British Raj.
• When the Second World War broke out on September 1, 1939, Linlithgow declared India as a belligerent party against Germany on September 3, 1939.
• This declaration was made unilaterally without consulting the Indian National Congress or the elected members of the provincial legislatures, leading to a major constitutional crisis.
• As a direct consequence of this decision, the Congress Ministries in various provinces resigned in protest in October and November 1939, stating that India could not associate itself with a war for democratic freedom while that same freedom was denied to it.
• His tenure witnessed several landmark events including the implementation of the Government of India Act 1935, the August Offer of 1940, the Cripps Mission of 1942, and the launch of the Quit India Movement.

 Additional Information

• Lord Wavell (1943–1947):
• He succeeded Linlithgow and presided over the Simla Conference of 1945.
• He was the Viceroy during the Cabinet Mission Plan and the Great Bengal Famine.
• Lord Irwin (1926–1931):
• Known for the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed in 1931 and the Deepavali Declaration regarding Dominion Status.
• His tenure saw the Simon Commission visit and the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Lord Mountbatten (1947–1948):
• He was the last Viceroy of British India and the first Governor-General of independent India.
• He formulated the June 3rd Plan (Mountbatten Plan) which led to the Partition of India.

The correct answer is Ashoka.

Key Points

• The Sanchi Stupa, specifically Great Stupa No. 1, is one of the oldest and most iconic stone structures in India, representing the pinnacle of Buddhist architecture.
• It was commissioned by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE to preserve and venerate the physical relics of Lord Buddha.
• The original structure was a simple hemispherical brick dome (anda) built over the relics, intended to serve as a commemorative monument and a place for meditation.
• The site is located on a hilltop at Sanchi in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh and was rediscovered in 1818 by General Taylor.
• Recognizing its immense historical and cultural value, UNESCO designated the Sanchi monuments as a World Heritage Site in 1989.
• The architectural design of the stupa, including its Chattra (parasol) and Harmika (square railing), symbolizes the high rank and spiritual sovereignty of the Buddha.

 Additional Information

• Kanishka:
• A powerful ruler of the Kushan Dynasty who reigned around 127−150 CE.
• He is famous for convening the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir and patronizing the Gandhara and Mathura schools of art.
• Chandragupta Maurya:
• The founder of the Mauryan Empire (reigned c. 322−298 BCE) and grandfather of Ashoka.
• Historical traditions suggest he abdicated his throne to follow Jainism under the guidance of Bhadrabahu.
• Harsha:
• Also known as Harshavardhana, he ruled North India from 606 to 647 CE.
• He was a major patron of Mahayana Buddhism and supported the Nalanda University, as recorded by the Chinese traveler Xuanzang.

The correct answer is Resilience and Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation.

Key Points

• The RELIEF scheme was approved by the Government of India in 2026 as a strategic response to persistent maritime disruptions in West Asia, specifically targeting challenges in the Red Sea and Suez Canal regions.
• The full form Resilience and Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation reflects the government's dual focus on building supply chain resilience and providing direct logistical support to exporters.
• The scheme aims to mitigate the financial burden on Indian traders caused by sudden surges in ocean freight rates and war risk insurance premiums resulting from geopolitical tensions.
• It focuses on ensuring the export competitiveness of Indian goods by providing credit support and subsidies to offset the costs associated with diverted shipping routes, such as the longer Cape of Good Hope path.
• A primary objective is to protect Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), which lack the capital to absorb significant increases in logistics costs during global shipping crises.

 Additional Information

• Maritime Logistics Challenges:
• Disruptions in West Asia often force vessels to bypass the Bab-el-Mandeb strait, leading to an additional travel distance of over 6,000 kilometers.
• Extended transit times significantly impact the shelf life of perishable exports and increase the working capital cycle for Indian businesses.
• Strategic Interventions:
• The scheme integrates with the National Logistics Policy to streamline documentation and improve multimodal transport efficiency.
• It leverages the Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP) to provide real-time tracking and alternative routing data to ship owners and cargo agents.
• By stabilizing freight costs, the government aims to keep India's export-to-GDP ratio on a growth trajectory despite external shocks.

The correct answer is Admiralty Act, 2017, Section 4.

Key Points

• The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017, is the primary legislation in India that governs the admiralty jurisdiction of coastal High Courts, allowing them to adjudicate on maritime claims.
• In January 2025, the Kerala Government and local authorities sought the conditional arrest of the Liberian-flagged vessel MSC Akiteta II following a collision incident off the Kochi coast.
• The vessel was involved in an accident with a local fishing boat named Aiswarya, leading to property damage and potential loss of livelihood for the fishermen involved.
• Section 4 of this Act specifically enumerates the Maritime Claims over which a High Court can exercise its jurisdiction, which includes claims for loss or damage caused by the operation of a vessel.
• By invoking this section, the Kerala High Court can order the arrest or detention of the foreign ship to ensure that the owners provide a bank guarantee or financial security to settle the claims of the affected parties before the ship leaves Indian territorial waters.

 Additional Information

• Admiralty Act, 2017:
• This Act repealed outdated British-era statutes such as the Admiralty Court Act, 1861, and the Colonial Courts of Admiralty Act, 1890.
• It empowers coastal High Courts (like Kerala, Bombay, and Madras) to exercise jurisdiction over vessels regardless of the owner's residence or domicile.
• The Act facilitates In Rem proceedings, where the legal action is directed specifically against the vessel itself to secure a claim.
• Merchant Shipping Act, 1958:
• Focuses on the registration of Indian ships, safety standards, and the welfare of Indian seafarers.
• While it contains provisions for the detention of unsafe ships, it is not the primary tool for civil arrests in maritime tort cases like collisions.
• Indian Ports Act, 1908:
• This legislation primarily deals with the administration of ports, the movement of vessels within port limits, and the collection of port dues.

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

• Jayaprakash Narayan, famously known as Lok Nayak, officially joined the Indian National Congress in 1929 following his return from the United States, where he had spent several years studying.
• He was invited to join the party by Jawaharlal Nehru, who was impressed by Narayan’s intellectual depth and his commitment to the Indian independence movement.
• Upon joining, he was assigned to the Labor Department of the All India Congress Committee (AICC), where he worked directly under Nehru to mobilize the working class against British colonial rule.
• This association with Nehru helped Narayan integrate his Marxist leanings with the broader nationalist struggle, eventually leading to the formation of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) within the Congress in 1934.

 Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• He served as the President of the Lahore Session of the Congress in 1929, where the resolution for Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) was passed.
• He was a lifelong mentor to many young socialists and served as the first Prime Minister of India.
• Jayaprakash Narayan’s Legacy:
• He played a crucial role in the Quit India Movement of 1942, leading underground activities after escaping from Hazaribagh Central Jail.
• In the post-independence era, he led the Total Revolution (Sampoorna Kranti) in the mid-1970s to uphold democracy.
• He was posthumously honored with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1999.
• Other Leaders in Options:
• Rajendra Prasad: The first President of India and a key leader of the Satyagraha movements in Bihar.
• Subhas Chandra Bose: Known for leading the Indian National Army (INA) and serving as Congress President in 1938 and 1939.
• Vallabhbhai Patel: Recognized as the Iron Man of India for his role in the integration of princely states.

The correct answer is Choosing combination of labor and machinery that costs the least for amount produced.

Key Points

• To achieve the lowest Average Cost (AC) in the long run, a firm must reach Productive Efficiency, which occurs when production happens at the minimum point of the Long-Run Average Cost (LRAC) curve.
• The principle of Least Cost Combination dictates that a firm should allocate its budget between Labor and Capital (Machinery) such that the Marginal Product per unit of currency spent is equal for all inputs.
• Mathematically, this equilibrium is reached when MP_L / P_L = MP_K / P_K, where MP is the marginal product and P is the price of labor (L) and capital (K).
• By selecting the optimal input mix, the company ensures Economic Efficiency, balancing the physical productivity of factors with their respective market prices to minimize Total Variable Costs.
• This strategy allows the company to exploit Economies of Scale, where increasing the scale of production leads to a lower cost per unit due to specialization and better resource utilization.

 Additional Information

• Factors Influencing Cost Inefficiency:
• Expensive Land: Choosing a high-cost location increases Fixed Costs without necessarily improving the Marginal Revenue Product, shifting the average cost curve upward.
• Indiscriminate Automation: Investing in technology without considering the Cost-Benefit Analysis can lead to high Depreciation and interest costs that exceed the savings in labor.
• Excessive Hiring: According to the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns, adding too many workers to a fixed set of machinery eventually leads to a decrease in Marginal Productivity, causing the Average Total Cost to rise.
• Substitution Effect: If the price of labor rises, a rational firm will substitute labor with machinery (and vice versa) to maintain the Optimal Input Ratio.

The correct answer is Differently-abled Athletes.

Key Points

• The National Para Athletics Championship 2026 is a premier sporting event dedicated exclusively to Differently-abled Athletes, often referred to as Divyangjan in the Indian sporting context.
• The primary objective of this championship is to provide a competitive platform for athletes with various impairments, including physical disabilities, visual impairments, and intellectual disabilities.
• The 2026 edition serves as a vital talent identification ground for the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) to scout and nurture athletes for upcoming international mega-events such as the Paralympic Games and Asian Para Games.
• The championship adheres to the rigorous standards set by World Para Athletics, ensuring that the performances of para-athletes are officially recognized for global rankings and world record considerations.
• By fostering competition among differently-abled individuals, the event promotes social inclusion and challenges traditional stereotypes, emphasizing athletic ability and grit over physical limitations.

 Additional Information

• Paralympic Committee of India (PCI):
• The PCI is the apex body responsible for the promotion and development of para-sports in India.
• It was founded in 1992 and is recognized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
• It plays a crucial role in implementing the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) for para-athletes, providing specialized training and international exposure.
• Classification System:
• Para-athletics uses a specialized Classification System to ensure fair competition by grouping athletes with similar activity limitations.
• Categories include prefix T for Track events and F for Field events, followed by a numeric code indicating the type and severity of the impairment.
• Significance of 2026:
• National championships in 2026 are strategically timed to prepare the Indian contingent for the Nagoya 2026 Asian Para Games and the developmental cycle leading to the Los Angeles 2028 Paralympics.

The correct answer is To enable buying and selling of shares representing ownership.

Key Points

• The stock market acts as a vital intermediary in the financial system, providing a platform where equity shares, debentures, and other securities are traded between buyers and sellers.
• One of its fundamental roles is to facilitate capital formation; companies raise long-term funds by issuing equity to the public, while investors gain a claim on the assets and earnings of the corporation.
• It ensures liquidity by allowing investors to sell their holdings and convert them into cash instantly at prevailing market prices, thereby encouraging public participation in industrial investment.
• The market performs the critical task of price discovery, where the continuous interaction of supply and demand determines the valuation of a company based on its performance and economic outlook.

 Additional Information

• Regulating Interest Rates:
• This is the core responsibility of the Central Bank (such as the Reserve Bank of India or the Federal Reserve) through monetary policy tools like the Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate.
• Insurance Coverage:
• Financial risk mitigation through insurance is handled by dedicated insurance providers and regulated by bodies like IRDAI, not by the stock exchanges.
• Market Segments:
• Primary Market: Where new securities are issued for the first time through an Initial Public Offering (IPO).
• Secondary Market: Where previously issued securities are traded among investors, providing marketability to the financial instruments.
• Regulatory Oversight:
• In India, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the stock market to maintain transparency, prevent malpractices, and protect the interests of retail investors.

The correct answer is The ratio of total money supply to the stock of high powered money in an economy.

Key Points

• The Money Multiplier is a crucial economic metric that represents the maximum amount of broad money that the banking system generates with each unit of reserve money.
• It is mathematically expressed as the ratio of the Total Money Supply (M3) to the High Powered Money (M0), indicating the degree to which the Monetary Base is expanded through the process of Credit Creation.
• High Powered Money, also referred to as Reserve Money, acts as the foundation of the economy and includes currency in circulation plus bank reserves held at the Central Bank.
• The magnitude of the multiplier is inversely related to the Reserve Ratio; a decrease in mandatory reserves like CRR or SLR allows banks to lend more, thereby increasing the multiplier effect.
• It reflects the efficiency and banking habits of the population; higher financial inclusion and banking penetration typically lead to a higher money multiplier.

 Additional Information

• High Powered Money (M0):
• Consists of Currency in Circulation, Bankers' Deposits with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and 'Other' deposits with the RBI.
• It is the most liquid measure of money and serves as the primary liability of the Central Bank.
• Broad Money (M3):
• Includes M1 (Currency with the public + Demand deposits) and Time Deposits (Fixed Deposits, Recurring Deposits) with the banking system.
• It represents the total volume of money available in the economy for transactions and savings.
• Velocity of Money:
• Distinct from the multiplier, this refers to the frequency with which a single unit of currency is used to purchase goods and services within a specific timeframe.
• Ways and Means Advances (WMA):
• A mechanism used by the RBI to provide temporary liquidity to the government to bridge mismatches in receipts and payments, not to be confused with the money multiplier.

The correct answer is 21%.

Key Points

• The World Health Organization (WHO) publishes the Global Tuberculosis (TB) Report annually to provide a comprehensive assessment of the epidemic and the progress made in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment across the globe.
• As per the latest findings, India has recorded a significant 21% reduction in TB incidence between the years 2015 and 2024, demonstrating the success of intensified public health interventions.
• This reduction is substantially higher than the global decline rate, showcasing the efficacy of India's National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) and its National Strategic Plan (NSP).
• India’s progress is measured against the 2015 baseline, with the country aiming for a TB-free status by 2025, which is five years ahead of the global Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target of 2030.
• The report highlights that the incidence rate (new cases per 100,000 population) has decreased due to improved case notification and the aggressive expansion of diagnostic services at the grassroots level.

 Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (PMTBMBA):
• Launched to provide additional nutritional support and vocational assistance to TB patients through community participation.
• Introduced the concept of Ni-kshay Mitras, where individuals or organizations adopt and support TB patients.
• Diagnostic and Treatment Innovations:
• Scale-up of Rapid Molecular Diagnostics such as CBNAAT and Truenat to replace traditional sputum microscopy for faster detection.
• Implementation of all-oral Bedaquiline-containing regimens for the treatment of Multi-Drug Resistant TB (MDR-TB), improving patient adherence and recovery rates.
• Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana:
• A Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme that provides financial assistance of 500 INR per month to every TB patient for nutritional support throughout their treatment duration.
• End TB Strategy:
• A global framework by the WHO aiming for a 95% reduction in TB deaths and a 90% reduction in incidence by 2035.

The correct answer is Establishing a system for pooling and marketing milk by farmers.

Key Points

• Operation Flood, launched on January 13, 1970, was the world's largest dairy development program and a landmark project of India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
• The primary objective was to create a nationwide milk grid by linking rural milk producers directly with urban consumers, thereby reducing the power of exploitative middlemen.
• It aimed to empower farmers by establishing village-level cooperative societies that pooled milk, processed it, and marketed it collectively under a professional management structure.
• The program followed the 'Anand Pattern' model, which originated in Gujarat, ensuring that the major share of the price paid by consumers went directly to the rural milk producers.
• By stabilizing milk prices and ensuring year-round availability, it aimed to increase rural incomes and ensure nutritional security for the urban population.

 Additional Information

• White Revolution:
• Dr. Verghese Kurien is recognized as the 'Father of the White Revolution' in India for his visionary leadership in Operation Flood.
• The program was executed in three distinct phases between 1970 and 1996, significantly increasing the per capita availability of milk.
• As a result of this movement, India surpassed the United States in 1998 to become the world's largest milk producer.
• Other Agricultural Terms:
• The development of irrigation networks and fertilizer distribution is primarily associated with the Green Revolution, which targeted food grain self-sufficiency during the late 1960s.
• The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and other bodies handle diverse storage and marketing for crops, distinct from the specific dairy focus of Operation Flood.

The correct answer is Vikram 3201 and Kalpana 3201.

Key Points

• In March 2025, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Mohali, successfully co-developed two indigenous 32-bit RISC processors designed for critical space applications.
• The processors, named Vikram 3201 and Kalpana 3201, are engineered to provide high-reliability computation for onboard systems, satellite control, and deep-space telemetry modules.
• The development of these Application Specific Integrated Circuits (ASICs) represents a major step toward Aatmanirbhar Bharat in the strategic semiconductor sector, reducing dependency on foreign vendors like European or American chip manufacturers.
• Vikram 3201 is named after the pioneer of the Indian space program, Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, while Kalpana 3201 honors the legacy of Kalpana Chawla, the first woman of Indian origin in space.
• These chips are designed to handle complex mathematical algorithms required for Launch Vehicle navigation and Orbital Maneuvers with extreme precision.

 Additional Information

• Radiation Hardening:
• These processors are radiation-hardened by design, which involves specialized fabrication techniques to ensure components can withstand ionizing radiation and cosmic rays that cause single-event upsets (SEU) in standard electronics.
• The chips utilize Silicon-on-Insulator (SOI) technology to mitigate the risk of latch-up and improve performance under thermal stress.
• Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL):
• Based in Mohali, Punjab, SCL is a premier research and development unit under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• It is the primary facility in India capable of manufacturing space-grade sub-micron Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) circuits.
• Architectural Features:
• Both processors operate on a 32-bit architecture, likely derived from RISC-V or similar open-source instruction sets, optimized for low power consumption and high processing efficiency in nanosatellites and micro-satellites.

The correct answer is Chandigarh.

Key Points

• The 13th Indian Open Race-Walking Competition was hosted in the union territory of Chandigarh, serving as a premier event for elite long-distance athletes in India.
• This competition is a critical fixture in the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) annual calendar, designed to provide a competitive platform for race walkers to achieve qualification standards for major international championships.
• The event featured high-stakes categories, most notably the 20km race walk for both men and women, where top-tier athletes competed for national titles and world ranking points.
• Chandigarh was selected as the venue due to its world-class road infrastructure and the availability of flat, certified circuits that meet the stringent technical requirements of World Athletics.
• Prominent Indian athletes such as Akshdeep Singh and Priyanka Goswami have utilized these open championships to secure their berths in global events like the Olympic Games and World Athletics Championships.

 Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• It is the apex body for athletics in India, established in 1946, and is responsible for organizing national championships and managing the Indian National Team.
• Race Walking Fundamentals:
• Unlike running, race walking requires constant contact with the ground; judges monitor athletes to ensure the leading leg remains straight from the point of contact until it passes under the body.
• The Indian Open events are pivotal for athletes to record official timings recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• Strategic Importance of Chandigarh:
• Known as the 'City Beautiful', it provides an ideal meteorological and topographical environment for endurance sports, helping athletes maintain the high aerobic capacity needed for 20km and 35km events.

The correct answer is Ramakrishna Mission.

Key Points

• The Ramakrishna Mission was founded on May 1, 1897, by Swami Vivekananda, the chief disciple of the 19th-century saint Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
• The organization is headquartered at Belur Math, situated on the banks of the Hooghly River in Howrah, West Bengal.
• Its primary objective is to propagate the philosophy of Vedanta, particularly Advaita Vedanta, and to practice Karma Yoga by providing humanitarian service.
• The mission follows the motto Atmano mokshartham jagat hitaya cha, which translates to 'For one’s own salvation and for the welfare of the world'.
• It operates through a vast network of centers globally, focusing on health care, disaster relief, educational institutions, and rural development, viewing service to humanity as a form of divine worship.

 Additional Information

• Brahmo Samaj:
• Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828 in Calcutta.
• It was a monotheistic reformist movement that opposed idol worship, caste distinctions, and the practice of Sati.
• Arya Samaj:
• Established by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875 in Bombay.
• It emphasized the supreme authority of the Vedas and launched the Shuddhi movement for social and religious purification.
• Prarthana Samaj:
• Founded by Atmaram Pandurang in 1867 in Bombay.
• It focused on social reforms such as widow remarriage, female education, and abolishing the caste system, drawing inspiration from the Bhakti saints of Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Tanvi Sharma.

Key Points

• Indian shuttler Tanvi Sharma etched her name in history by winning the silver medal in the girls' singles event at the BWF World Junior Championships 2025.
• The prestigious tournament was held in Guwahati, Assam, marking a significant milestone for Indian badminton as it hosted the world's best young talents.
• Tanvi's journey to the final made her one of the few Indian female singles players, following the footsteps of Saina Nehwal, to reach the title clash of the World Junior Championships.
• Her silver medal finish highlights the effectiveness of India's junior development programs and the Badminton Association of India's (BAI) focus on nurturing grassroots talent.
• The achievement at the Guwahati event is expected to significantly boost her BWF Junior World Rankings and pave the way for her transition into the senior international circuit.

 Additional Information

• Gayatri Gopichand:
• A specialist in women's doubles, she is the daughter of the renowned coach Pullela Gopichand.
• She won the bronze medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games and has reached the semi-finals of the All England Open.
• Ashmita Chaliha:
• A prominent senior player hailing from Assam, known for her left-handed playing style.
• She has been a consistent part of the Indian Uber Cup squad and the South Asian Games gold-winning team.
• Aakarshi Kashyap:
• One of India's top-ranked women's singles players on the BWF World Tour.
• She represented India at the 2022 Commonwealth Games and has won multiple National Badminton Championship titles.

The correct answer is Too much acid.

Key Points

• The human stomach naturally secretes Hydrochloric Acid (HCl), which is vital for the digestion of food and the elimination of harmful bacteria that may enter the digestive system.
• Indigestion, medically known as dyspepsia, is a condition where the stomach produces too much acid, leading to irritation of the gastric mucosa.
• The excessive acid causes symptoms such as a burning sensation in the chest (heartburn), bloating, and abdominal pain as the highly acidic environment impacts the sensitive stomach lining.
• Factors contributing to this hyperacidic state include the consumption of spicy or fatty foods, overeating, stress, or lying down immediately after a meal.

 Additional Information

• To alleviate the discomfort of indigestion, individuals often consume Antacids, which are weak bases used to neutralize the excess acid.
• Milk of Magnesia (Magnesium Hydroxide) is a common antacid that reacts with the HCl in the stomach to form Magnesium Chloride and water.
• The chemical interaction between the stomach acid and the antacid is called a Neutralization Reaction, which effectively raises the pH level in the stomach to a more comfortable range.
• The stomach normally maintains an extremely low pH between 1.5 and 3.5; however, when acid concentration becomes too high, it triggers the physiological distress associated with acid reflux.
• In contrast, Too little acid (Hypochlorhydria) or No acid (Achlorhydria) are separate medical conditions that hinder protein digestion but are not the primary cause of acute indigestion symptoms.

The correct answer is Joint sector industries.

Key Points

• Oil India Limited (OIL) was incorporated on February 18, 1959, as a Joint Venture company between the Government of India and the Burmah Oil Company Limited (a UK-based private entity).
• At its inception, the ownership structure was divided such that the Government of India held a 33.33% stake, while the Burmah Oil Company held the remaining 66.67% equity.
• The primary objective of this partnership was to explore and develop the oil fields discovered in Nahorkatiya and Moran in the state of Assam.
• Because the entity was co-owned and jointly managed by both the state and a private enterprise, it was classified as a Joint sector industry under the industrial ownership categories of that era.

 Additional Information

• Classification of Industries by Ownership:
• Public Sector Industries: These are owned and operated by government agencies (e.g., Steel Authority of India Limited or SAIL). OIL eventually became a full Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) in 1981.
• Private Sector Industries: These are owned and managed by individuals or groups of individuals (e.g., Reliance Industries or Tata Steel).
• Cooperative Sector Industries: These are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers, or both (e.g., AMUL or cooperative sugar mills).
• Joint Sector Industries: These are ventures managed jointly by the government and private individuals or companies, sharing risks and profits.
• In 1961, the equity ratio of OIL was revised to an equal 50:50 partnership, and by October 14, 1981, it became a wholly-owned Government of India enterprise.

The correct answer is Formation of bubbles/gas evolution.

Key Points

• When zinc granules react with dilute sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄), a chemical displacement reaction occurs where zinc displaces hydrogen from the acid.
• The observation of bubbles or effervescence on the surface of the zinc granules is due to the evolution of hydrogen gas (H₂).
• The chemical equation for this reaction is represented as: Zn (s) + H₂SO₄ (aq) → ZnSO₄ (aq) + H₂ (g).
• During this process, zinc sulphate (ZnSO₄) is formed, which remains in the solution as a colorless salt.
• The reaction is also characterized as exothermic, as it releases heat energy, making the reaction container feel warm to the touch.

 Additional Information

• Testing for Hydrogen:
• The evolved gas is colorless and odorless. It can be identified by bringing a burning splinter near the mouth of the test tube, which causes the gas to burn with a distinctive pop sound.
• Reactivity Series:
• Zinc is positioned above hydrogen in the activity series of metals, which explains its ability to displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
• Role of Zinc Granules:
• Granulated zinc is preferred over large pieces because it provides a higher surface area, which significantly increases the rate of reaction.
• Small amounts of impurities (like copper) in commercial zinc granules can act as a catalyst, further accelerating the reaction.
• Precipitate Formation:
• A precipitate is an insoluble solid that emerges from a liquid solution. In this specific reaction, no precipitate is formed because zinc sulphate is highly soluble in water.

The correct answer is Losar.

Key Points

• Losar is the most prominent festival of the Monpa and Sherdukpen tribes in Arunachal Pradesh, specifically in the Tawang and West Kameng districts.
• The term is derived from the Tibetan words Lo meaning year and Sar meaning new, marking the beginning of the Tibetan New Year according to the Lunisolar calendar.
• The festival typically occurs in February or March and is celebrated over a period of 8 to 15 days, with the first three days being the most critical.
• It involves deep Buddhist rituals conducted by Lamas in Gompas (monasteries), including the chanting of prayers and the lighting of traditional butter lamps.
• A major highlight is the performance of masked dances, such as the Aji Lhamu, which depicts mythological stories and the triumph of virtue over vice.

 Additional Information

• Nyokum:
• Celebrated by the Nyishi tribe in February to pray for a prosperous harvest and the well-being of the community.
• It involves the worship of the spirit of nature and is marked by traditional folk songs and dances.
• Mopin:
• An agricultural festival of the Galo tribe celebrated in April to drive away evil spirits and seek blessings for wealth.
• Participants smear Iti (rice flour) on each other's faces and perform the Popir dance.
• Dree:
• The largest festival of the Apatani tribe held in July within the Ziro Valley.
• It focuses on offering sacrifices to four deities—Tammu, Metii, Danyi, and Harniang—to ensure crop protection.

The correct answer is Yeast.

Key Points

• Yeast is a microscopic, unicellular fungus (primarily the species Saccharomyces cerevisiae) that serves as a biological leavening agent in the baking industry.
• When integrated into dough, yeast initiates a process called fermentation, where it metabolizes the fermentable sugars present in the flour or added as sugar.
• During anaerobic respiration, yeast converts these sugars into ethanol and carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas.
• The carbon dioxide gas is captured within the gluten network—an elastic structure formed by proteins in the wheat—causing the dough to expand and rise.
• This biological activity is highly sensitive to temperature; it is most active between 25°C and 35°C and is rendered inactive or killed at temperatures exceeding 55°C to 60°C.
• Beyond leavening, yeast significantly improves the flavor profile and nutritional value of the bread by breaking down complex starches.

 Additional Information

• Salt:
• Functions as a dough conditioner by strengthening the gluten bonds.
• Acts as a fermentation regulator, slowing down yeast activity to ensure a controlled and uniform rise.
• Oil:
• Classified as a lipid, it coats the flour proteins and inhibits excessive gluten formation, resulting in a tender crumb.
• It helps retain moisture within the bread, extending its shelf life.
• Cocoa powder:
• Mainly used as a flavoring agent and colorant in specialty breads and cakes.
• While it contains antioxidants like flavonoids, it does not possess any aeration properties to help dough rise.

The correct answer is Mithilakshar or Tirhuta.

Key Points

• Maithili is an Indo-Aryan language primarily spoken in the Mithila region, which covers parts of Northern Bihar in India and the southeastern Terai region of Nepal.
• The traditional script of the language is Mithilakshar, also known as Tirhuta. It shares a common origin with the Bengali-Assamese (Eastern Nagari) script, evolving from the Gaudi script around the 10th century.
• The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, implemented in 2003, added Maithili to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This inclusion gave it official recognition alongside Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali.
• Although Devanagari is now the standard script used for Maithili in modern education and printing, Tirhuta remains the script of cultural and religious significance for the Maithil community.
• The script Tirhuta was historically used for writing Sanskrit texts and maintaining genealogical records (Panjis) in the Mithila region.

 Additional Information

• Tirhuta Script:
• It is categorized under the Brahmic family of scripts.
• It contains specific vowel signs and conjunct consonants that distinguish it from Devanagari.
• There are ongoing cultural movements to revive the script for digital use and official signage in Bihar.
• Eighth Schedule of the Constitution:
• It currently recognizes 22 official languages.
• Initially, there were only 14 languages in the schedule.
• Languages like Sindhi (21st Amendment, 1967) and Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (71st Amendment, 1992) were added before the 2003 amendment.
• Inclusion in this schedule allows candidates to use the language for UPSC Civil Services examinations and promotes its development through Sahitya Akademi awards.

The correct answer is A period marked by decreasing humidity and gradually cooling temperatures.

Key Points

• The Hot Weather Season in India occurs from March to May, resulting from the northward movement of the sun, which shifts the global heat belt towards the Tropic of Cancer. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• During this period, temperatures in Peninsular India are higher than in the winter, with the Deccan Plateau recording temperatures around 38°C in March and Gujarat reaching 42°C in April. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A defining characteristic of the Indian summer is the Loo, which are powerful, hot, and dry winds blowing over North and Northwestern India during the day. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• The phrase describing decreasing humidity and cooling temperatures actually defines the Retreating Monsoon or the transition to the Cold Weather Season (winter), whereas summer is marked by rising heat and falling air pressure. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• The Loo
• These winds are a dominant feature of the Indo-Gangetic Plain and can cause severe dehydration or heatstroke upon direct exposure.
• Pre-Monsoon Showers
• In West Bengal, these localized thunderstorms are known as Kal Baisakhi, often bringing violent winds and heavy rain.
• In Kerala and Karnataka, they are called Mango Showers because they facilitate the early ripening of the mango crop.
• Pressure Conditions
• The summer months see the development of an elongated low-pressure area (monsoon trough) extending from the Thar Desert in the northwest to Patna and Chotanagpur plateau in the east.

The correct answer is Writs.

Key Points

• Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers the High Courts to issue directions, orders, or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for 'any other purpose'.
• The phrase 'any other purpose' signifies that the High Courts can exercise this power to enforce ordinary legal rights, giving them a wider jurisdiction in this regard compared to the Supreme Court.
• The five types of prerogative writs that can be issued are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
• The power under Article 226 is discretionary and is considered a part of the basic structure of the Constitution, as established in the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997).
• The High Court can issue these writs against any person, authority, or government located within its territorial jurisdiction or where the cause of action arises.

 Additional Information

• Article 32:
• Empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• It is itself a Fundamental Right and was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the 'Heart and Soul' of the Constitution.
• Ordinances:
• These are temporary laws promulgated by the President under Article 123 or the Governor under Article 213 when the Legislature is not in session.
• They have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament or State Legislature.
• Legislative Powers:
• The power to make Laws is primarily vested in the Parliament (Articles 245-246) and State Legislatures, rather than being a part of the writ jurisdiction of courts.

The correct answer is Increasing intake of foods rich in vitamin D and calcium.

Key Points

• Vitamin D is critical for bone health because it facilitates the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines into the bloodstream. In the absence of adequate vitamin D, the body cannot absorb calcium effectively, regardless of how much is consumed.
• The human body naturally synthesizes Vitamin D when the skin is exposed to Ultraviolet B (UVB) rays from sunlight. In regions with limited sunlight, the endogenous production of this vitamin is significantly reduced, necessitating dietary supplementation or increased intake of fortified foods.
• Calcium is the primary mineral that provides structural strength and rigidity to the skeletal system. About 99% of the body's calcium is stored in the bones and teeth, where it supports their structure and hardness.
• A deficiency in these nutrients leads to the mobilization of calcium from the bones to maintain blood calcium levels, resulting in decreased Bone Mineral Density (BMD) and increased fragility.

 Additional Information

• Bone-Related Disorders:
• Rickets: A condition in children caused by severe Vitamin D deficiency, leading to soft, weak bones and skeletal deformities like bowed legs.
• Osteomalacia: The adult version of rickets, characterized by poor bone mineralization, causing bone pain and muscle weakness.
• Osteoporosis: A systemic skeletal disorder where bones become porous and brittle, significantly increasing the risk of fractures, particularly in the hip, spine, and wrist.
• Other Dietary Components:
• Iron-rich foods: Primarily essential for the production of hemoglobin in red blood cells to transport oxygen; they do not play a direct primary role in bone structural integrity.
• Protein: While necessary for the collagen matrix of the bone, reducing protein intake would actually be detrimental to bone repair and strength.
• Dietary Fiber: Vital for gastrointestinal health and blood sugar regulation, but it does not contribute directly to bone density.

The correct answer is Article 129.

Key Points

• Article 129 of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court, including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
• As a court of record, the judgements, proceedings, and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony, serving as evidentiary value in all other courts in India.
• These records are admitted to be of unquestionable truth and cannot be challenged when produced before any subordinate court; they are treated as legal precedents and legal references.
• The power to punish for contempt includes both civil contempt (willful disobedience to any judgment or order) and criminal contempt (publication of matter that scandalizes or lowers the authority of the court).

 Additional Information

• Other Relevant Constitutional Articles:
• Article 123: Empowers the President of India to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament when urgent action is required.
• Article 131: Defines the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, dealing with disputes between the Center and States or between two or more States.
• Article 119: Relates to the regulation by law of procedure in Parliament specifically in relation to financial business.
• Article 215: Similarly designates every High Court in India as a court of record with the power to punish for its own contempt.

The correct answer is Cultural and Educational Rights - Articles 29-30.

Key Points

• The Right against Exploitation corresponds to Articles 23 and 24, which prohibit human trafficking, forced labor, and the employment of children in hazardous conditions. Article 22 actually belongs to the Right to Freedom. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Right to Equality is enshrined in Articles 14 to 18, covering equality before the law and prohibition of discrimination. Articles 20 and 21 involve protection regarding conviction and the protection of life and personal liberty. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Cultural and Educational Rights are correctly matched with Articles 29 and 30. Article 29 protects the language, script, and culture of minorities, while Article 30 guarantees their right to establish and administer educational institutions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Right to Freedom encompasses Articles 19 to 22. While Article 22 (protection against arrest) is part of this right, Article 23 belongs to the Right against Exploitation. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights:
• These are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India from Articles 12 to 35.
• They are inspired by the Bill of Rights of the USA and are justiciable in nature.
• The Right to Property was originally a fundamental right under Article 31 but was converted into a legal right under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
• The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of these rights through various writs like Habeas Corpus and Mandamus.

The correct answer is Deepavali.

Key Points

• Deepavali, the festival of lights, was officially inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) of Humanity during the 19th session of the Intergovernmental Committee.
• The decision was finalized in December 2024 (effective for the 2025 cycle) during the meeting held in Asuncion, Paraguay, recognizing the festival's immense cultural and spiritual significance.
• With this inclusion, Deepavali becomes the 16th Indian element to be part of this prestigious global list, emphasizing India's diverse traditions and social cohesion.
• The festival is celebrated to mark the spiritual victory of light over darkness, good over evil, and knowledge over ignorance, involving rituals such as lighting oil lamps (diyas) and creating rangoli.
• The Ministry of Culture of the Government of India spearheaded the nomination, highlighting how the festival transcends religious boundaries to promote universal peace and brotherhood.

 Additional Information

• UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage List:
• It was established under the 2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage to protect non-physical heritage like oral traditions, performing arts, and rituals.
• Previous Indian inclusions include Garba of Gujarat (2023), Durga Puja in Kolkata (2021), Kumbh Mela (2017), and Yoga (2016).
• Other recognized elements comprise Vedic Chanting, Ramlila, Kutiyattam, and Kalbelia folk songs.
• Significance of Inscription:
• The recognition helps in ensuring the viability of traditional practices and encourages intercultural dialogue.
• It provides global visibility to the artisans, craftspeople, and communities that keep these ancient traditions alive through generations.

The correct answer is Aanayoottu.

Key Points

• Aanayoottu is a traditional ritualistic ceremony held in Kerala, specifically dedicated to the worship and feeding of elephants, which are considered incarnations of the Hindu deity Lord Ganesha.
• The Njangattiri Bhagavathi Temple in Pattambi, situated in the Palakkad district, is renowned for this annual event, attracting hundreds of devotees and tourists.
• During the ritual, elephants are fed medicated food consisting of cooked rice, jaggery, honey, ghee, turmeric, and various Ayurvedic herbs known as Sukha Chikitsa.
• The primary objective of the ceremony is to ensure the health and physical well-being of the elephants, particularly to boost their immunity during the monsoon season.
• The event is typically observed on the first day of the Malayalam month of Karkidakam, which falls between July and August, a period traditionally associated with rejuvenation and healing in Ayurveda.

 Additional Information

• Arattu:
• This refers to the ceremonial bath of the deity in a river or temple pond at the conclusion of a temple festival, signifying purification.
• Thrissur Pooram:
• Widely regarded as the mother of all poorams, it is the most grand and famous temple festival in Kerala, held at the Vadakkunnathan Temple.
• Kudamattam:
• A major attraction of Thrissur Pooram, it involves the rhythmic and competitive exchange of colorful silk umbrellas by people standing atop elephants.

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• The former state of Jammu and Kashmir was officially reconstituted into two Union Territories—Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh—under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which came into effect on 31 October 2019.
• Under this Act, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir was provided with a Legislative Assembly, making it eligible to have representation in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• According to the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is assigned 4 seats.
• The representatives are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• As of now, among all Union Territories in India, only Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu and Kashmir have representation in the Rajya Sabha because they possess their own legislative bodies.

 Additional Information

• Ladakh:
• It was established as a separate Union Territory on 31 October 2019 but without a Legislative Assembly.
• Due to the absence of a legislature, it has no representation in the Rajya Sabha, although it retains one seat in the Lok Sabha.
• Lakshadweep:
• It is a Union Territory without a legislature, administered by the President through an Administrator.
• It has no seats allocated in the Rajya Sabha.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
• This archipelago is a Union Territory without a legislative body and thus lacks representation in the Upper House of Parliament.
• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 80 of the Indian Constitution governs the composition of the Rajya Sabha.
• The maximum strength is 250 members, where 238 represent the States and Union Territories, and 12 are nominated by the President.

The correct answer is Chenab bridge.

Key Points

• The Chenab Bridge is a concrete-filled steel arch bridge located between Bakkal and Kauri in the Reasi district of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• It is officially recognized as the highest railway bridge in the world, standing at a height of 359 meters (approximately 1,178 feet) above the river bed, which is 35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower.
• The bridge is a vital component of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, aimed at providing all-weather rail connectivity to the Kashmir Valley.
• Spanning a total length of 1,315 meters, the bridge features a sophisticated 467-meter arch designed to maintain structural integrity for at least 120 years.
• The engineering design accounts for extreme conditions, including blast resistance, seismic forces (Zone V), and wind speeds reaching up to 266 km/h.
• The project was executed by Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL), representing a significant milestone for the Indian Railways in tackling the complex topography of the Himalayas.

 Additional Information

• Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL):
• This 272-km long national project involves the construction of 38 tunnels and 927 bridges to link the valley with the rest of the national rail grid.
• The section featuring the Chenab Bridge is the 111-km Katra-Banihal stretch, considered the most challenging portion due to geology and slope stability issues.
• Regional Hydrology:
• Jhelum River: Flows through the heart of Srinagar and Wular Lake; it is a major tributary of the Chenab and forms the lifeline of the valley's agriculture.
• Ravi River: Originates in the Rohtang Pass of Himachal Pradesh and is one of the five major rivers associated with the Indus Water Treaty.
• Indus River: A trans-boundary river that flows through Ladakh, entering India at Demchok and passing between the Ladakh and Zanskar mountain ranges.

The correct answer is Deccan Plateau.

Key Points

• The Peninsular Plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks, divided into two broad regions: the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the Narmada River.
• It is bordered by the Satpura Range in the north, while the Mahadev, the Kaimur hills, and the Maikal range form its eastern extensions.
• The plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards, which dictates the flow of major rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri towards the Bay of Bengal.
• An extension of the plateau is also visible in the northeast, locally known as the Meghalaya, Karbi-Anglong Plateau, and North Cachar Hills, separated by a fault from the Chotanagpur Plateau.

 Additional Information

• Central Highlands:
• This division lies to the north of the Narmada River, covering a major area of the Malwa Plateau.
• It is bounded by the Vindhyan range on the south and the Aravalis on the northwest.
• Malwa Plateau:
• Located in western and central India, it occupies a significant portion of Madhya Pradesh and south-eastern Rajasthan.
• It serves as the source for rivers like the Chambal, Sind, Betwa, and Ken.
• Chotanagpur Plateau:
• It marks the further eastward extension of the Central Highlands and is drained by the Damodar River.
• It is immensely rich in mineral deposits, particularly iron ore and coal.

The correct answer is Article 20(2).

Key Points

• Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides essential safeguards to persons accused of crimes, ensuring protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment by the State.
• Article 20(2) specifically articulates the doctrine of Double Jeopardy, which mandates that no individual shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
• This principle is rooted in the common law maxim Nemo debet bis vexari, implying that a person should not be put in peril twice for the same cause of action.
• The Supreme Court of India has clarified that for Article 20(2) to be invoked, there must have been a previous proceeding before a court of law or a judicial tribunal where the person was both prosecuted and punished.
• This protection is a Fundamental Right and is available to all persons, including citizens, foreigners, and legal entities like companies or corporations.
• It is important to note that this protection does not apply to departmental or administrative inquiries, as these are not considered judicial prosecutions.

 Additional Information

• Article 14:
• Guarantees Equality before Law and Equal Protection of Laws within the territory of India.
• It prohibits class legislation but permits reasonable classification.
• Article 21:
• States that no person shall be deprived of his Life or Personal Liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• It is considered the most evolved article, encompassing rights like the Right to Privacy and Right to Education.
• Article 22:
• Provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
• It includes the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours.
• Other Clauses of Article 20:
• Article 20(1): Prohibits Ex-post-facto laws (retroactive criminal legislation).
• Article 20(3): Prohibits Self-incrimination, stating no accused can be compelled to be a witness against themselves.

The correct answer is Performance of dances to honour the Sun God (Misi Saljong) after harvest.

Key Points

• The Wangala festival is the most significant harvest celebration of the Garo tribe, primarily residing in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya and parts of Assam.
• It is widely known as the 100 Drums Festival, marking the end of the agricultural cycle and the beginning of the winter season.
• The festival is dedicated to Misi Saljong, the Sun God and the deity of fertility, to express gratitude for a successful harvest of crops like paddy and millets.
• The rituals are led by the Nokma (Village Headman) and include the Rugala ceremony, where the first fruits are offered, and Sasat Soa, which involves the burning of incense.
• Performers wear traditional colorful attire and feathered headgears called Do'baksi, dancing to the rhythmic beats of long oval-shaped drums known as Nagras.