DSSSB Assistant Superintendent: (1st July 2026) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Husband's wife's only son's mother → Wife of the Man 

Mother of your husband's wife's only son's mother → Woman is the mother of the man's wife

Clearly, the person is the son-in-law of the woman in the photograph.

Hence, ‘Son-in-law’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed is:

All the pairs except (option 4), follow the pattern of First number = (Second number)2 + 5

Option 1 → 54 - 7

54 = (7)2 + 5

54 = 49 + 5

54 = 54

Option 2 → 41 - 6

41 = (6)2 + 5

41 = 36 + 5

41 = 41

Option 3 → 86 - 9

86 = (9)2 + 5

86 = 81 + 5

86 = 86

Option 4 → 20 - 4

20 = (4)2 + 5

20 = 16 + 5

20 ≠ 21

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

In figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Bottom-middle and bottom-right symbols are interchanging their position and bottom-left symbol is the same.

All middle symbols and all top-symbols are interchanging their position with each other in clockwise.

In figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

Top-middle and top-right symbols are interchanging their position and top-left symbol is the same.

All middle symbols and all bottom-symbols are interchanging their position with each other in clockwise.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 'RAJ' will be the next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

HJS : JNV

And,

ACJ : CGM

Similarly,

ORC : QVF

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given word: ENGLISH

So, position of one letter remain unchanged after the rearrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 16 = 4 × 5 ÷ 2 - 8 + 18

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1) + and ×

16 = 4 × 5 ÷ 2 - 8 + 18 ⇒ 16 = 4 + 5 ÷ 2 - 8 × 18

⇒ 16 = 4 + 5 ÷ 2 - 8 × 18

⇒ 16 = 4 + 2.5 - 8 × 18

⇒ 16 = 4 + 2.5 - 144

⇒ 16 = 6.5 - 144

⇒ 16 ≠ -137.5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) - and =

16 = 4 × 5 ÷ 2 - 8 + 18 ⇒ 16 - 4 × 5 ÷ 2 = 8 + 18

⇒ 16 - 4 × 5 ÷ 2 = 8 + 18

⇒ 16 - 4 × 2.5 = 26

⇒ 16 - 10 = 26

⇒ 6 ≠ 26 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) + and -

16 = 4 × 5 ÷ 2 - 8 + 18 ⇒ 16 = 4 × 5 ÷ 2 + 8 - 18

⇒ 16 = 4 × 5 ÷ 2 + 8 - 18

⇒ 16 = 4 × 2.5 + 8 - 18

⇒ 16 = 10 + 8 - 18

⇒ 16 = 18 - 18

⇒ 16 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) = and +

16 = 4 × 5 ÷ 2 - 8 + 18 ⇒ 16 + 4 × 5 ÷ 2 - 8 = 18

⇒ 16 + 4 × 5 ÷ 2 - 8 = 18

⇒ 16 + 4 × 2.5 - 8 = 18

⇒ 16 + 10 - 8 = 18

⇒ 26 - 8 = 18

⇒ 18 = 18 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "175" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Pattern followed here is,

7 × 3 + 4 = 25

25 × 3 + 4 = 79

79 × 3 + 4 = 241

241 × 3 + 4 = 727

727 × 3 + 4 = 2181 + 4 = 2185

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Seven persons : A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

i) Four people live between F and E.

ii) F does not live on top floor or ground floor.

iii)G lives immediately above or below the floor on which F lives.

iv) Three persons live between A and G.

v) G lives on a floor below D.

This eliminates case 2.

vi) D and C are immediate neighbours.

vii) More than two persons live between E and D.

1. C lives on floor no. 3. → False

2. Only two persons live above B. → False

3. As many persons live above A as many person live below C. → False

4. Three persons live between A and G. → True

Hence, 'Three persons live between A and G.' can be drawn from the given information.

Given:  (Left)          XYB          KMV        LEY       LHF         RPE         (Right)

After replacing the 1^st letter of all the words to its preceding letter as per English alphabetical order.

(Left)          WYB          JMV        KEY       KHF         QPE         (Right)

2^nd word from right end in the newly formed groups is KHF.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

According to the given information :

Six subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Ecology, Hindi, and English are taught from Monday to Saturday. 

1) Physics and Ecology are taught on Tuesday and Wednesday respectively.

2) Hindi is taught just after Ecology and just before English.

3. Biology is taught after English.

So, Chemistry subject is taught on Monday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Chemistry".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the letters are interchanged as follows:

Now, given the equation: 9 D 35 C 48 B 30 A 12 = ?

After interchanging the specified letters, the new equation is:

9 − 35 + 48 × 30 ÷ 12 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 9 − 35 + 48 × 30 ÷ 12

→ 9 − 35 + 120

→ −26 + 120

→ 94

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Six friends Pawan, Kanta, Rishab, Subham, Mayank and Vikram.

1. Pawan is to the immediate left of Vikram.

2. Rishab is 4^th to the right of Pawan.

3. Only Mayank sits between Pawan and Rishab.

4. Subham does not sit adjacent to Vikram.

Ans, Kanta will sit at the remaining place.

Here, 'Rishab' sits to the immediate right of Subham.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given words: (left) BOW SAD LOW RAY (right)

Now,

the second letter of the first word from the right is: A (RAY)

and, the second letter of the first word from the left is: O (BOW)

Here, the number of letters between A to O is 13.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

CONCEPT:

Interchanging Positions and Total Number of Girls

• When two persons interchange their positions in a row, the total number of persons remains the same.
• The positions of the persons from either end will change, and we can use their new positions to find the total number of persons.

EXPLANATION:

• In the given problem:

Roopa is 7^th from the left, and Sunita is 12^th from the right.

After interchanging their positions, Roopa becomes 22^nd from the left.

• To find the total number of girls, we use the position of Sunita (12^th from the right) and the new position of Roopa (22^nd from the left).
• Total number of girls = Position of Roopa from the left + Position of Sunita from the right - 1
• = 22 + 12 - 1
• = 33

Therefore, the total number of girls in the row is 33.

Given: (Left) 409 857 743 753 805 (Right)

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in two numbers the resultant of summation of first and second digits a prime number.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is,

Let's examine each option:

Option 1) FKR

Option 2) RWD

Option 3) JOD

Does not follow the same logic.

Option 4) DIP

Hence, the correct answer is Option (3).

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

Given equation: R & T @ S * P # Q

The family tree can be drawn as per the given information,

R is the mother of T, T is the sister of S, S is the father of P, P is the brother of Q

Here, we can see that R is the father’s mother of Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Father’s mother".

Given series: L @ S * E ^ B U # W I < E M @ O $ # B * H ! A & L < O

If we replace each of the vowels with any consonant and similarly if we replace each of the consonants in the original series with any vowel,

Identify vowels and consonants

• Vowels: A, E, I, O, U
• Consonants: L, S, B, W, M, H

Replace vowels with any consonant and consonants with any vowel

For simplicity, let's use the following replacements:

• Vowel → Consonant (e.g., A → C, E → D, I → F, O → G, U → H)
• Consonant → Vowel (e.g., L → A, S → E, B → I, W → O, M → U, H → E)

Resultant Series after Replacement:

A @ E * D ^ I H # O F < D U @ G $ # I * E ! C & A < G

So, the required pair is: Consonant - Symbol

D ^, H #, F <, G $, C &

Total consonants immediately followed by a symbol: 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"$.

Given: (left) ROW MAD LAY CAT (right)

Now, In each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical order,

then there are 'Two' words having no vowel: 'SPX' and 'MBZ'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The first column elements shift clockwise in the downward direction.

The last two elements of the 2^nd row from the left interchange positions.

The rest of the element is shift anticlockwise.

2. Second box series → 

The elements at the corner of the 2^nd row interchange positions.

The rest of elements of the 2^nd row interchange positions.

The elements at the corner interchange positions diagonally.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Given number: 9345712.

Odd digits is decreased by - 1

and, Even digits is increased by + 2

After arrange the numbers:

9345712 ⇒ 8264604

Now, The largest digits after rearranging the series: 8

And, The smallest digits after rearranging the series: 0

So, the difference between the largest and smallest digits is: 8 - 0 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

'DIARY' is written as 'FLFXF'.

'READY' is written as 'THFJF'.

Similarly, for 'ERROR'

So, 'ERROR' will be written as 'GUWUY'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given : 

1. Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows with 4 people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons and they are facing each other.
2. In row I – L, M, N and O are seated and all of them are facing south.
3. In row II – P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north.

Explanation :

1) N sits next to the person at the extreme right end of their row and is facing R.

2) S sits at the extreme left end of their row.

3) Q sits to the immediate right of R and is facing L.

4. O sits at the extreme left end of their row.

After positioning Q, R, L and O two positions i.e one position in each row is vacant which will be occupied by the only people left in their respective rows i.e M in row - I and P is row - II.

Thus, after the final arrangement M sits at the extreme right end of the row of people facing South i.e in row - I.

Hence, "M" is the correct answer.

Given: Seven brothers P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are born in different years.

1. S is younger than only 2 other brothers and neither of them is U.

This means S is the third oldest and U is younger than S.

T > Q > S > __ > __ > __ > __

2. P is older than R but younger than U and S.

As S is older than U and P is younger than both, P must be younger than S and U. P is older than R, so R must be one of the youngest two.

T > Q > S > U > P > R > __

3. R is not the youngest.

This implies that the last spot should be occupied by V.

T > Q > S > U > P > R > V

So, the final arrangement will be:

T > Q > S > U > P > R > V

Thus, the youngest brother is V.

Hence, the correct answer is "V".

The logic follows here is:

Given series: L K A ? Z 6 N T $ * I ^ J # B β U C D 9 Z Y P © 3 ¥ 5 M G E F

If we have a combination of the opposite directions like left and right or right and left then we take the sum of the numbers to find the final position.

If we have a combination of the same directions like left and left or right and right then we take the difference of the numbers to find the final position.

Now first, find out the element 8^th to the left of the 9^th from the right end

Therefore, 8 + 9 = 17

The 17^th element from the right end is B

Now, find out 15^th to the right of the 17^th element from the right end

Therefore, 17 - 15 = 2

The 2^nd element from the right end is E

L K A ? Z 6 N T $ * I ^ J # B β U C D 9 Z Y P © 3 ¥ 5 M G E F

Hence, the correct answer is E.

Alternate Method

The logic follows here is:

Given series: L K A ? Z 6 N T $ * I ^ J # B β U C D 9 Z Y P © 3 ¥ 5 M G E F

9^th element from the right end is P

8^th element to the left of P is B

15^th element to the right of B is E

L K A ? Z 6 N T $ * I ^ J # B β U C D 9 Z Y P © 3 ¥ 5 M G E F

Hence, the correct answer is E.

Important Points

The logic behind the given directions is as follows:

1. If the same directions are given in the question

like, left and left or right and right then take a difference of the numbers.

2. If the opposite directions are given the question

like, left and right or right and left then take a sum of the numbers.

The logic follows here is:

Given series: C $ 7 D Q S 1 B β 9 D C 8 L K D 2 F M P μ I © F ¥ H 0 π Y O

Conditions to be checked

1. Letters which are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a number

Number → Letter → Symbol

C $ 7 D Q S 1 B β 9 D C 8 L K D 2 F M P μ I © F ¥ H 0 π Y O

Hence, the correct answer is 1.

Mistake Points

1. Immediately preceded by means immediately before or to come just before.
2. Immediately followed by means immediately after or to come just after.

Seven friends: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V.

1. V is third to the left of S.

2. P sits immediate right of S.

3. P is second to the left of T.

4. Q is third to the right of R.

5. U sits immediate left of R.

So, case -1 gets eliminated.

Q is Second to the left of V.

Hence, the correct answer is "Q".

Given :

Statement given : W # Q @ T & Y @ M % K

So,

• W # Q → W is the mother of Q.

• Q @ T → Q is the son of T.

• T & Y → T is the brother of Y.

• Y @ M → Y is the son of M.

• M % K → M is the wife of K.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree K is the father-in-law of W.

Hence, "Father-in-law" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "49" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

Here, from the first to second, symbols are flipping and changing their position diagonally.

Hence, the figure given in option 4 is the correct one.

Eight friends Mansi, Shweta, Monika, Payal, Aarti, Kajal, Laxmi and Rani are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). 

1) Monika is second to the right of Kajal and Kajal is third to the right of Shweta.

2) Payal is to the immediate left of Shweta and Shweta is second to the left of Aarti. 

3) Laxmi is fourth to the right of Shweta and Mansi is the immediate neighbour of both Shweta and Aarti.

∴ Here, 'Kajal' is second to the right of Mansi.

Hence, the correct answer is "Kajal".

The logic followed here is:

(79, 58, 62)

(58 + 62) ÷ 2 + 19 = 79 

120 ÷ 2 + 19 = 79

60 + 19 = 79

79 = 79 (LHS = RHS)

And,

(54, 33, 37)

(33 + 37) ÷ 2 + 19 = 54 

70 ÷ 2 + 19 = 54

35 + 19 = 54

54 = 54 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (59, 33, 43)

(33 + 43) ÷ 2 + 19 = 59 

76 ÷ 2 + 19 = 59

38 + 19 = 59

57 ≠ 59 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) (47, 36, 41)

(36 + 41) ÷ 2 + 19 = 47 

77 ÷ 2 + 19 = 47

38.5 + 19 = 47

57.5 ≠ 47 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) (66, 45, 49)

(45 + 49) ÷ 2 + 19 = 66 

94 ÷ 2 + 19 = 66

47 + 19 = 66

66 = 66 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) (43, 25, 30)

(25 + 30) ÷ 2 + 19 = 43 

55 ÷ 2 + 19 = 43

47.5 + 19 = 43

66.5 ≠ 43 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, out of all the options, '(66, 45, 49)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

1. Only two boxes are placed between B and E.

2. H is placed immediately below E.

3. B is placed above D and H.

4. Only one box is placed between G and C.

5. Only one box is placed between G and A.

Here case 2, 3 and 4 get eliminated.

Here new cases will make:

6. More than one box are placed between C and F.

7. B is placed above D. Here case 2 gets eliminate.

Thus, Final arrangement:

Thus, 2 boxes are placed between F and C.

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 'KRM' will be the next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The position of the English alphabet series is given below:

Logic:

Step 1: Opposite positional letters are written.

Step 2: Addition of +1 in opposite positional letters.

1) 'INNER’ is written as 'SNNWJ'

And,

2) 'GLASS' is written as 'UPAII'

Similarly,

'MODEL' be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "OMXWP".

The pattern followed here is:

Given: Seven people A, H, D, F, T, E, and G are sitting in a straight row, facing north.

1) Only three people sit to the left of E.

(It means E sits on the middle of the row)

2) A sits at the extreme right of the row.

3) F sits second to the left of E.

4) G and H are immediate neighbours of E.

(Position of G and H is not clear but they sit either side of E)

5)  D is the immediate neighbour of A.

6. So, T sits on the vacant place.

Clearly, T sits extreme left of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "T".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Here, option figure 4 is the correct water image of the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number + 7 = 2^nd number; 2^nd number + 9 = 3^rd number.

Now,

For, 7 — 14 — 23

⇒ 7 + 7 = 14 and 14 + 9 = 23.

For, 4 — 11 — 20

⇒ 4 + 7 = 11 and 11 + 9 = 20.

Similarly, for 5 — 12 — 21

⇒ 5 + 7 = 12 and 12 + 9 = 21.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Gender Justice and the Indian Constitution: The elimination of gender-based discriminations is one of the fundamentals of the constitutional edifice of India. In fact, the constitution empowers the state to adopt measures of positive discrimination in favour of women for neutralizing the cumulative discriminations and deprecations’ which women face.

Fundamental Rights (Part III):

• Article 14 of the Constitution of India ensures to women the right to equality.
• Article 15(1) prohibits the State to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
• Article 15 (2) prohibits citizens on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to 
• access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and palaces of public entertainment;
• or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
• Article 15(3) empowered the state to make special provisions for the welfare of the women and children.
• Article 16 of the Constitution provides for equality of opportunity to all, in matters relating to public employment or appointment to any office and specifically forbids discrimination inter-alia on the ground of sex.
• These articles are all justiciable and form on the basis of our legal Constitutional history.

Hence, we conclude that the Right to Equality to Woman is ensured by ​Article 14.

The correct answer is Awadh.

Key Points

• Sir Henry Lawrence was a prominent British military officer and administrator who was appointed as the Chief Commissioner of Awadh (Oudh) in March 1857.
• He arrived in Lucknow just weeks before the outbreak of the Great Revolt of 1857, tasked with stabilizing the province after its controversial annexation by the British.
• Lawrence is best remembered for his leadership during the Siege of Lucknow; he anticipated the rebellion and moved the British population and loyal Indian troops into the fortified Lucknow Residency.
• His strategic foresight in stockpiling provisions and strengthening the defenses of the Residency complex is credited with the survival of the garrison during the prolonged siege.
• During the conflict, Lawrence was severely wounded by a fragment of an exploding shell on July 2, 1857, and succumbed to his injuries on July 4, 1857.

 Additional Information

• Awadh (Oudh):
• The province was formally annexed by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 on the grounds of maladministration by the then-ruler, Wajid Ali Shah.
• This annexation caused widespread resentment among the Taluqdars and the Bengal Army sepoys, many of whom hailed from this region, making it a major center of the 1857 uprising.
• Punjab:
• Before his posting in Awadh, Henry Lawrence served as the President of the Board of Administration in Punjab following its annexation in 1849.
• His brother, John Lawrence, was the Chief Commissioner of Punjab during the 1857 revolt and later became the Viceroy of India.
• Odisha and Maharashtra:
• While these regions saw localized disturbances, they were not the primary administrative focus of Henry Lawrence during the peak of the 1857 rebellion.

The Correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8^th August 1942 during the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee. It was a mass protest demanding an end to British rule in India, often summarized by the slogan "Do or Die." The movement marked a significant step in India's struggle for independence.

• Panthi, one of the important dance form in Chattisgarh is the folk dance of Chattisgarh.
• It is mainly performed by the Satnami community of Chhattisgarh.
• Saila Dance, Karma, Sua Nacha, and Gendi are the other important folk dances of Chattisgarh

The correct answer is Northern India.

Key Points

• Kathak is a classical Indian dance form that originated in northern India and has a rich history that dates back several centuries.
• It is known for its graceful movements, intricate footwork, expressive gestures, and rhythmic patterns.
• Kathak dancers often perform storytelling through dance, depicting mythological tales, historical events, and emotions.
• Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Uma Sharma etc are the famous personalities associated with this dance form.

Additional Information Eight classical dances of India and States:

The correct answer is Banas.

Key Points

• Banas river originates from the state of Rajasthan.
• The river originates from the Khamnor hills of the Aravali range near Kumbhalgarh.
• It is also known as 'Van ki Asha' (Hope of forest).
• It flows northeast through the Mewar region of Rajasthan and meets the Chambal near the village of Rameshwar in Sawai Madhopur district.
• Berach and Menali are the right bank tributaries of the Banas river.
• Kothari, Khari, Dai, Dheel River, Sohadara River, Morel, and Kalisil are the left bank tributaries of Banas river.​

Additional Information

• Chambal River
• It is the tributary of the Yamuna River.
• It rises in the Vindhyachal range South of Mhow, the western state of Madhya Pradesh.
• It flows from the north into the southeastern state of Rajasthan.
• It ends on the confluence of five rivers which includes the Chambal, Kwari, Yamuna, Sind, Pahuj, at Pachnada near Bhareh in Uttar Pradesh, at the border of Bhind and Etawah districts.
• Major Tributary - Kshipra, Kalisindh, Parvati, Bansa, Newaj, Kwari, Sindh, etc.
• Narmada River
• It originates from the Narmada Kund located in Amarkantak, Anuppur district in Madhya Pradesh.
• The major tributaries of the Narmada are Barna, Tawa, Kanar, Kolar, Man, Hatni, Uri, Shakkar, etc.
• It flows westwards before falling into the Gulf of Khambhat.
• The Narmada river is the longest river in Madhya Pradesh and it's called "The Lifeline of Madhya Pradesh".
• The waterfalls created by the Narmada River include Kapil Dhara and Dudh Dhara Falls (Anuppur), Dhuandhar Falls (Bhedaghat, Jabalpur), Sahasradhara Falls (Maheshwar, Khargone), Dardhi Falls, Manadhata Falls, etc.
• Mahi River
• It rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing through the Vagad region of Rajasthan, enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian Sea.
• It is one of Five west-flowing rivers in India, along with Tapti River, Sabarmati River, Luni River (Endorheic river) and the Narmada River.
• Tributaries- Som, Anas, and Panam.

The correct answer is Intoxicating liquors.

Key Points

• The seventh schedule of the Indian constitution deals with the division of powers between the central government and the state governments through three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
• The Union List consists of subjects on which the central government has exclusive legislative authority.
• This means that only the Parliament of India can make laws regarding the items mentioned in the Union List.
• The Union List includes subjects of national importance or those that require uniform laws throughout the country.
• It encompasses areas such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, communication, and more.
• In this way, all the other options lie on the union list except intoxicating liquors.

​

Additional Information

• Union List:
• The Union List consists of around 100 items over which the central government has exclusive legislative authority, including defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking, and telecommunications.
• The central government has the power to make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the Union List uniformly across all states and union territories in India.
• Items in the Union List ensure the central government's authority in critical areas such as national security, inter-state trade and commerce, currency, copyright, air and water pollution, and more.
• Any amendment to the Union List requires the approval of the Parliament through a prescribed legislative process, ensuring that changes to these subjects are made at the national level.
• State List:
• The State List consists of subjects over which state governments have exclusive legislative authority, including public order, police, public health, local government, agriculture, state taxation, and more.
• State governments exercise their legislative and executive powers to make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the State List within their respective states.
• Subjects in the State List allow state governments to address regional and local concerns, implement policies specific to their states, and ensure effective governance at the state level.
• Any amendment to the State List requires the approval of the state legislature concerned and does not require the consent of the Parliament, providing states with autonomy in making changes to these subjects.
• Concurrent List:
• The Concurrent List consists of subjects on which both the central government and state governments have the power to legislate, such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, education, forests, and more.
• Both the central and state governments can make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List simultaneously, subject to certain limitations and guidelines.
• In case of a conflict between central and state laws on Concurrent List subjects, the law made by the central government prevails, provided it receives the President's assent.
• Any amendment to the Concurrent List requires the approval of the Parliament, and state legislatures can also make laws on these subjects unless they conflict with existing central laws.

The correct answer is Charles Cornwallis.

Key Points

• Lord Cornwallis 
• Lord Cornwallis was the Governor-General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced there in 1793.
• The permanent settlement is also known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal.
• It was an agreement between the British East India Company and the Landlords of Bengal to fix the land revenue.
• Land revenue was the major source of income for the British in India.
• Permanent Settlement was one such land revenue system.
• It was first introduced in Bengal and Bihar and later it was introduced in Madras and Varanasi.
• This system was also known as the Zamindari system.
• He is known as the 'Father of Civil Services in India'.
• He created the post of District Judge.
• he was the first person to codify laws in 1793.

Additional Information 

• Warren Hastings
• First Governor-General of Bengal.
• He abolished the dual system of administration.
• Regulating Act of 1773 and Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
• Rohilla war in 1774.
• He established Supreme Court in Calcutta.
• He founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
• First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-1782) ended with the Treaty of Salbai.
• The second Anglo-Mysore war (1780-1784) ended with the Treaty of Mangalore.
• Sir John Macpherson
• Sir John Macpherson was a British administrator in India.
• He was the acting Governor-General of Bengal from 1785 to 1786.
• Sir John Shore
• He introduced the first Charter act of 1793.

The correct answer is Rangoon.

Key Points

• Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last ruler of the Mughal Dynasty, was proclaimed the symbolic leader of the Revolt of 1857 by the rebel Indian sepoys.
• After British forces successfully recaptured Delhi in September 1857, the emperor was apprehended by Major William Hodson at Humayun’s Tomb.
• Following his capture, he was tried at the Red Fort for his involvement in the uprising and was subsequently convicted of treason and conspiracy against the British Crown.
• In 1858, the British authorities exiled him to Rangoon (modern-day Yangon) in Burma (now Myanmar), effectively terminating the Mughal Empire.
• He remained in confinement in Rangoon until his death on November 7, 1862, at the age of 87, and was buried there.

 Additional Information

• Andaman Islands:
• These islands became infamous for the Cellular Jail (Kala Pani), where the British exiled many political prisoners, including V.D. Savarkar, but it was not used for the last Mughal Emperor.
• Dhaka:
• A prominent city in the Bengal Presidency, Dhaka was an important administrative and manufacturing center but did not serve as a place of exile for Bahadur Shah Zafar.
• Shanghai:
• A major port in China, Shanghai was a site of British commercial interest following the Opium Wars, but it had no historical involvement in the detention of leaders from the 1857 revolt.
• Poetic Legacy:
• An accomplished Urdu poet, Zafar composed many verses expressing his grief and longing for his homeland during his years of exile in Burma.

The correct answer is 226.

Key Points 

• Under Article 226, a writ petition can be filed in a High court for issuing one of the five writs as per the case.
• A High Court is empowered to issue directions, orders, or writs for the enforcement of a Fundamental Right and for any other purpose those include:
• Habeas corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Quo warranto
• Certiorari.
• The Supreme Court is considered the protector and guarantor of fundamental rights(Article 32).

Additional Information

• Article 32  of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Indian Constitution by Dr B. R. Ambedkar.
• It gives a citizen the right to approach the Supreme Court to get resorted to any of the fundamental rights in case of their violation.
• It is also known as the Right to Constitutional Remedies.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to an average altitude of about 7 to 12 kilometers (4.3 to 7.5 miles).
• The height of the troposphere varies depending on the location, season, and weather conditions. However, the average height of the troposphere is about 11 kilometers (6.8 miles) above sea level.

Additional Information

• Earth's atmosphere can be divided into five primary layers based on their temperature and altitude:
• Troposphere: This is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to an average altitude of 12 kilometers (7.5 miles) at the equator. The majority of Earth's weather occurs in this layer, and it is where most of the Earth's greenhouse gases are concentrated.
• Stratosphere: This layer lies above the troposphere, extending from about 12 to 50 kilometers (7.5 to 31 miles) in altitude. The ozone layer is located in this layer, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
• Mesosphere: Above the stratosphere, the mesosphere extends from about 50 to 85 kilometers (31 to 53 miles) in altitude. This layer is known for its extremely low temperatures, as low as -100°C (-148°F) at the top.
• Thermosphere: This layer extends from about 85 kilometers (53 miles) to the edge of space, around 600 kilometers (372 miles) above the Earth's surface. The temperature increases with altitude in this layer, reaching up to 2,000°C (3,632°F) due to the absorption of solar radiation.
• Exosphere: The outermost layer of Earth's atmosphere, the exosphere, begins at an altitude of about 600 kilometers (372 miles) and extends into space. This layer is where the Earth's atmosphere gradually thins out and merges with the vacuum of space.

The correct answer is 1206 – 1210.

Key Points

• Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty.
• He assumed the title of 'Sultan' for the first time in the history of India.
• He made Lahore the capital and later Delhi.
• He was also known as 'Lakh Baksh' or giver of lakhs for his magnanimity, as he gave a lot of liberal donations.
• He started the construction of the Qutub Minar in the memory of Khawaja Qutubuddin Bhaktiyar Kaki but could complete only the first story.
• Aibak is known for having commissioned the Qutb Minar in Delhi, and the Adhai Din Ka Jhopra in Ajmer.
• Note:
• Qutub-ud-din Aibak laid the foundation of Qutub Minar which was later completed by Iltutmish.
• The Quwwat-al-Islam mosque was also commissioned by him.

Additional Information

• The Tughlaq Dynasty:
• ​The founder of the Tughlaq dynasty was Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
• The Tughlaq dynasty was founded in 1320 by Ghazi Malik assuming the title of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
• He founded Tughlaqabad City and constructed the Tughlaqabad Fort.
• He made reforms in the field of the judiciary, irrigation, and agriculture.
• He died in 1325 by collapsing a building during a celebration of his victory.
• Khilji Dynasty:
• It was the second ruling family of the Delhi Sultanate, a Muslim kingdom in north India.
• The Khilji dynasty ruled from 1290 to 1320.
• It was founded by Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji and came to power in a revolution that signified the transfer of authority from Turkic nobility to Afghans.
• Alauddin Khilji made serious efforts to re-assess the land revenue and unify the taxes not only in rural areas but also in urban areas.
• He established a centralized administrative system of revenue collection.
• Muqtis were appointed for revenue collection.
• Alauddin made sure that their offices were not hereditary.
• He kept proper control over them.
• The Lodi dynasty:
• Founder - Bahlol Lodi (1451-88 AD)
• Last king - Ibrahim Lodi (1517-26 AD)
• The city of Agra was founded by Sikandar Lodi (1489-1517)
• Daulat Khan Lodi was the governor of Punjab who invited the Babur.

The correct answer is Begum Hazrat Mahal.

Key Points

• Begum Hazrat Mahal, also known as the Begum of Awadh, was the wife of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, the last ruler of Awadh.
• Following the British annexation of Awadh in 1856 and the subsequent exile of the Nawab to Calcutta, she emerged as one of the most prominent leaders of the 1857 Revolt.
• She took control of Lucknow and proclaimed her young son, Birjis Qadr, as the Wali (ruler) of Awadh, establishing a rebel administration.
• Under her leadership, the rebel forces successfully challenged the British East India Company and laid siege to the Lucknow Residency, showcasing her strategic and organizational skills.
• She actively worked with other revolutionaries like Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah and successfully mobilized talukdars and sepoys against colonial rule.
• After the British eventually recaptured Lucknow in March 1858, she refused to accept any British pension and sought asylum in Nepal, where she lived until her death in 1879.

 Additional Information

• Nana Saheb:
• He was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II and led the 1857 Uprising from Kanpur.
• He was supported by loyal lieutenants like Tatya Tope and Azimullah Khan.
• Rani Lakshmibai:
• Commonly known as Jhansi ki Rani, she led the rebellion in Jhansi and Gwalior.
• She fought against the British forces led by Sir Hugh Rose after her state was annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.
• Bahadur Shah Zafar:
• He was the last Mughal Emperor and was declared the symbolic leader of the revolt in Delhi.
• Following the suppression of the revolt, he was tried by the British and exiled to Rangoon (Burma).

The correct answer is Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Key Points 

• Carnatic Music
• Carnatic music is one of the forms of Indian classical music.
• It is confined to southern India, the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamilnadu, and Kerala while the classical music of the rest of the country is under the name of Hindustani.
• The main emphasis in Carnatic music is on the vocals.
• The music is created in the traditional octave form and the music is Kriti based and focuses more on the Sahithya or the lyric quality of the musical piece.

Additional Information

• ​Trinity of Carnatic Music
• The Three Jewels of Carnatic music referred to trio composers – being Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Syama Sastri also known as the Trinity of Carnatic music.
• All three of the Trinities lived and composed music in Thanjavur, Tamilnadu.
• Thanjavur has been the capital of Carnatic Music, not only because the Trinities lived there but also because the place has nurtured Carnatic music for a long time.
• The Kings from Thanjavur – the Cholas, Nayaks, and the Marathas – have consistently supported Carnatic music and the artists, and contributed to its current-day greatness and preservation.
• Muthuswami Dikshitar was the youngest of the trinities.

The correct answer is Pune

Key Points:

• The Aga Khan Palace was built by Sultan Muhammed Shah Aga Khan III in the city of Pune, Maharashtra in 1892.
• The palace was an act of charity by the spiritual leader of the Nizari Ismaili Muslims, who wanted to help the poor in the neighboring areas of Pune, who were drastically hit by famine.

Additional Information:

• Sir Sultan Mahomed Shah, Aga Khan III was the 48^th Imam of the Nizari Ismaili sect of Islam.
• He played a very important role in giving the Muslims a political stance to express their opinions to the British.
• In 1906, the Aga Khan was a founding member and first president of the All India Muslim League.

The correct answer is Gupta.

Key Points

• The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi is believed to record the achievements of Chandragupta II.
• The iron pillar at Mehrauli, Delhi, is a remarkable example of the skill of Indian crafts persons.
• It is made of iron, 7.2. m high, and weighs over 3 tonnes.
• It was made about 1500 years ago.
• We know the date because there is an inscription on the pillar mentioning a ruler named Chandra, who probably belonged to the Gupta dynasty.

Additional Information 

• Guptas established a small kingdom in Magadh at the beginning of the 4^th century.
• Samudragupta was succeeded by his son Chandragupta II Vikramaditya during this period of time
• Pataliputra, an ancient city presently known as Patna, was the capital of the Gupta dynasty.
• The city was favored due to its central location which enabled easy trade and expansion of the empire.
• The Pallavas emerged as a formidable power in the South around the 4^th century AD and were at the height of their power in the seventh century AD.
• They built great cities, centres of learning, temples, and sculptures and influenced a large part of Southeast Asia in culture.
• Narasimhavarman I was considered the greatest Pallava king who defeated and killed Pulakesin II the ruler of Badami Chalukya and captured Badami and was titled “Vatapikonda”.
• He was also known as Mamallan (great wrestler) and Mamallapuram was named after him where he built the famous rath temples (Sapt Pagoda).
• Aparajita Varman was the last ruler of the Pallava dynasty.
• The Pushyabhuti Dynasty (c. 500 CE - 647 CE) rose after the downfall of the Gupta Empire (3^rd century CE - 6^th century CE) in the 6^th century CE in northern India.
• The core area of their kingdom was situated in what is now the state of Haryana in India with the capital at Sthanishvara or Thaneshvara.
• The most notable ruler of this dynasty was its last ruler, Emperor Harshavardhana, or Harsha (r. 606-647 CE).
• The capital of Harshavardhana's Empire was Kannuaj. He ruled from 606 AD to 647 AD.
• His Empire extended from Punjab to northern Orissa and from the Himalayas to the bank of the Narmada River.
• Nagabhata I was an Indian king who founded the imperial Gurjara Pratihara dynasty.
• He ruled the Avanti region in present-day Madhya Pradesh, from his capital at Ujjain.

The correct answer is Bansuri.

Key Points

• Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
• Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia is a world-renowned exponent of the bansuri or bamboo flute.
• He is one of those rare classical musicians who expanded the peripheries of classical music by taking it to the common masses.
• Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia is an internationally renowned exponent of the 'bansuri', or the bamboo flute and is the recipient of the Padma Vibhushan and Padma Bhushan awards, which are among the three highest civilian awards in India.
• This musician has donned many hats — of an extraordinary flute artiste, titan of Hindustani classical genre and music director.​

Additional Information

• Tabla
• Tabla is a small drum or  Pair of Drums tuned to different pitches playing with hands.
• It was invented by Amir khusru
• The right side is called the Tabla and the left, the Bayan or Dagga.
• It is type of Avanaddha vadya or  Membranophones​​
• Veena
• The veena is among the oldest of Indian musical instruments.
• From the references to Vedic writings, it can date back to around the first millennium B.C.
• Temple sculptures from the 2^nd century B.C. show a type of veena being played.
• The Saraswati veena is the predominant Carnatic music and the Rudra veena is the most played veena in Hindustani music.
• The Saraswati veena has seven strings strung over twenty-four fixed frets.
• It has a large resonator (kudam), a tapering hollow neck (dandi), and a tuning box that curves downwards (yali).
• The Hindu Goddess of Knowledge, Saraswathi, is said to play the Veena. Pictures depict her sitting on a lotus and playing the instrument.
• Muthuswami Dikshitar, Veenai Dhanammal, Veena Sheshanna, etc. are the famous veena players.​
• Drum:-
• The drum is made of wood or brass with drumheads made of calfskin or plastic stretched over both ends of a hollow cylinder.
• It has a set of wire-wrapped strings stretched across the bottom head (the snare), which gives the drum its unique "rattling" sound when the drum is hit. A small switch on the side of the drum allows the player to turn the snare on or off depending on the requirements of the piece.

The correct answer is Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

Key Points

• The Bureau of Indian Standards is responsible for bringing services and products as a mandatory standard.
• It provides safe, reliable and quality goods and minimises the health hazard to the consumer.
• It Appoints the authority besides BIS to verify the reliability of the products and service
• The Bureau of Indian Standards is under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, and it is a National Standard body.
• It was established under the Bureau of Indian Standard Act 1986.
• It was established on 23 December 1986.
• Headquarters is in Manek Bhawan New Delhi.

Important Points

• BIS is the national standards body of India.
• It develops & publishes Indian Standards, Implement Conformity Assessment Schemes,
• It Recognises & runs laboratories for Conformity Assessment and Implements Hallmarking.
• It Works for Consumer empowerment, Conducts capacity-building programs on quality assurance and represents the country in ISO & IEC.

Correct Answer A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.

Key Points Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme

• IGMDP was the brainchild of renowned scientist Dr APJ Abdul Kalam.
• It was intended to attain self-sufficiency in the field of missile technology.
• After keeping in mind the requirements of various types of missiles by the defense forces, the program recognized the need to develop five missile systems.
• The IGMDP formally got the approval of the Indian government on 26^th July 1983.
• The missiles developed under IGMDP are:
• Short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile – Prithvi
• Intermediate-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile – Agni
• Short-range low-level surface-to-air missile – Trishul
• Medium-range surface-to-air missile – Akash
• Third-generation anti-tank missile – Nag

Additional Information Vikram Sarabhai:

• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai was born on August 12, 1919, in Ahmadabad.
• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai was considered the Father of the Indian space program.
• He was a great institution builder and established a large number of institutes in diverse fields.
• He was instrumental in establishing the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad in November 1947.
• He was also Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission.
• Dr. Sarabhai's dialogue with NASA in 1966, the Satelite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) was launched during July 1975-July 1976.
• Dr. Sarabhai started a project for the fabrication and launch of an Indian Satellite.
• As a result, the first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was put in orbit in 1975 from a Russian Cosmodrome.
• He founded a Community Science Centre at Ahmedabad in 1966.
• Today, the Centre is called the Vikram A Sarabhai Community Science Centre.

Homi J. Bhabha:

• Homi J. Bhabha was an Indian nuclear physicist, founding director, and professor of physics at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research. Colloquially known as the father of the Indian nuclear program.
• Homi J. Bhabha was the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission that was set-up in August 1948.
• Dr. Homi Bhabha established the Atomic Energy Establishment, Trombay (AEET) in January 1954.
• In 1966, Atomic Energy Establishment, Trombay was renamed; Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
• Dr. Bhabha was one of the founding directors of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
• He was awarded the Admas Prize.

The correct answer is 8^th march.

Key Points

• International Women's Day is celebrated on 8^th March.
• International Women's Day is a global day celebrating  the social, economic, cultural, and political achievements of women.
• The day also marks a call to action for accelerating gender parity.
• This year's theme for International Day is "Women in leadership: Achieving an equal future in a COVID-19 world".​

Important Points

• National Women's Day- 13 February
• National Girl Child Day- 24 January
• International Day of the Girl Child- 11 October​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Vishram Grih.

In News

• The Delhi government will launch the ‘Vishram Grih’ pilot project for patient attendants at city hospitals in the coming months.
• The project will offer rest facilities at hospitals such as Lok Nayak Hospital, Ambedkar Hospital, and Deen Dayal Upadhyay Hospital.

Key Points

• Vishram Grih will be available at a nominal charge of Rs 5 for one or two family members of patients.
• The facilities will include clean restrooms, proper bedding, and food arrangements.
• The pilot project will begin at four to five hospitals, starting with Lok Nayak, Ambedkar, and Deen Dayal Upadhyay hospitals.
• The initiative aims to provide a safe and comfortable space for hospital attendants, preventing them from sleeping on the streets.

Additional Information

• About Vishram Grih
• The pilot project is designed to offer basic facilities to the attendants of hospitalized patients.
• The goal is to provide them with a safe resting space, reducing the burden of unsafe sleeping areas around hospitals.
• Phases of Implementation
• The first phase will focus on providing the basic facilities at select hospitals, with the possibility of expanding later.

The correct answer is Pole-mounted mist spray system.

In News

• Delhi CM Rekha Gupta launched a pole-mounted mist spray system at ITO to combat dust and air pollution in the capital.

Key Points

• The new system is a pole-mounted mist spray mechanism installed initially at ITO.
• 35 poles equipped currently; plan to expand to 305 poles across 9 pollution hotspots.
• Each pole has 5 nozzles with 6 holes each, giving 30 spray points per pole.
• Uses treated water (approx. 84 litres per hour per pole) for dust suppression.

Additional Information

• Mist Spray System
• Designed to reduce dust particles and improve air quality.
• Operates automatically with treated water sprayers on roadside poles.
• Earlier trialed under NDMC areas with positive results.
• Infrastructure Scale
• Supported by four 5,000-litre storage tanks near ITO.
• Also installed along 900m stretch of Shanti Path and 500m at Lodhi Road.
• Delhi Pollution Control Drive
• Strict actions to be taken against agencies showing negligence in pollution control.
• DPCC empowered for challans and penalties; FIRs for unauthorized road-cutting.
• 311 Green App strengthened for reporting dust hotspots and potholes.
• Objective
• Immediate reduction of dust — a major contributor to PM2.5 & PM10.
• Part of a larger emergency pollution mission by the Delhi government.

The correct answer is VyAS–SAMUDRA.

In News

• The Union Minister of State, Shri George Kurian, launched the Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025 along with VyAS–BHARAT and VyAS–SUTRA apps in Kochi, marking the first fully digital marine census in India.

Key Points

• MFC 2025 introduces a suite of three apps—VyAS–NAV, VyAS–BHARAT, and VyAS–SUTRA—for digital data collection, validation, and supervision.
• VyAS–BHARAT handles household and infrastructure enumeration, while VyAS–SUTRA supports real-time supervision and monitoring.
• VyAS–NAV validates fishing villages and harbours through geospatial referencing.
• VyAS–SAMUDRA is not part of this official suite; it was never mentioned in the Marine Fisheries Census 2025 framework.

Additional Information

• Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025
• Conducted by: ICAR–Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), with Fishery Survey of India as operational partner.
• Coverage: Over 1.2 million fisher households across 5,000 marine villages in 13 coastal States and UTs.
• Duration: 45 days (3 November – 18 December 2025).
• Objective: Create a geo-referenced, real-time database to support data-driven governance in fisheries.
• Technological Advancements
• Drones deployed for aerial enumeration of fishing crafts to ensure transparency and accuracy.
• Apps developed under the “Smart Census, Smarter Fisheries” initiative for digital transformation.
• NFDP Portal
• Fishermen are encouraged to register to avail government benefits such as transponders and safety devices.

The correct answer is David Szalay.

In News

• Hungarian-British author David Szalay won the 2025 Booker Prize for his novel ‘Flesh’, marking the first time a Hungarian-British writer has received the honour.

Key Points

• ‘Flesh’ explores themes of class, power, intimacy, migration, and masculinity through the life of a man navigating between Hungary and London.
• The novel is noted for its spare prose, focusing on minimalism and emotional precision.
• The Booker Prize 2025 award ceremony was held in London, where David Szalay received £50,000 as the winner.
• Szalay was previously shortlisted for the 2016 Booker Prize for his novel ‘All That Man Is’.

Additional Information

• David Szalay:
• Nationality: Hungarian-British
• Born: 1974 in Montreal, Canada
• Notable Works: ‘All That Man Is’, ‘Spring’, ‘London and the South-East’
• Awards: Betty Trask Prize (2008), Geoffrey Faber Memorial Prize (2009)
• The Booker Prize:
• One of the most prestigious literary awards for fiction written in English.
• Founded in 1969, awarded annually in London.
• Prize Money: £50,000 to the winner and £2,500 to each shortlisted author and translator.
• Judging Panel (2025): Chaired by Roddy Doyle, who praised ‘Flesh’ for its unique use of white space and narrative depth.
• Past Winners: Salman Rushdie, Margaret Atwood, Hilary Mantel, Arundhati Roy, and Kazuo Ishiguro are among the notable Booker laureates.

The correct answer is option 2

In News

• INS Savitri recently arrived at Port Louis, Mauritius, as part of a Long-Range Operational Deployment to the South West Indian Ocean Region, highlighting India’s maritime cooperation and presence in the Indian Ocean.

Key Points

• INS Savitri is an indigenously built Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) of the Indian Navy.
• It was built by Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL), Mumbai, and commissioned on 7 June 1990.
• It operates under the Eastern Naval Command based at Visakhapatnam.
• The ship performs aerial surveillance, search and rescue, and patrol operations.
• It has a top speed of 15 knots and is equipped with a 40×60 Bofors Gun and a helicopter deck for Chetak helicopter operations.

Additional Information

• INS Savitri has previously participated in maritime patrol missions around Maldives, Seychelles, and Mauritius, enhancing India’s maritime diplomacy.
• Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) form the backbone of India’s maritime security operations, ensuring coastal surveillance and anti-piracy missions.

The correct answer is Fiji.

In News

• Fiji has launched its first-ever National Child Safeguarding Policy, setting a new national benchmark for child safety across all sectors of society.

Key Points

• The new policy ensures that all services involving children are delivered in a safe, respectful, and child-friendly manner.
• It mandates a Child Protection Code of Conduct, background checks for child-safe recruitment, and tailored risk mitigation strategies for institutions and organizations working with children.
• The policy addresses growing regional concerns about child protection across the Pacific, aiming to resolve cases of abuse that have often remained hidden or unresolved due to cultural taboos and underreporting.
• This marks a significant step in improving child safety standards in Fiji, serving as a model for other nations in the Pacific region.

Additional Information

• Child Protection Code of Conduct
• A mandatory guideline that outlines how staff and volunteers should behave to ensure the safety and well-being of children.
• Pacific Region Child Protection Issues
• The region faces unique challenges in addressing child abuse due to cultural taboos, limited resources, and underreporting, making Fiji’s new policy a crucial step forward.
• Criminal Background Checks
• Part of the child-safe recruitment process, ensuring that individuals working with children have no history of criminal behavior related to child abuse or exploitation.

The Correct Answer is Atlantic Partnership.

In News

• UK, US Launch Atlantic Partnership for Advanced Nuclear Energy.

Key Points

• The UK and US governments announced new nuclear power deals involving US-based companies building projects overseas.
• The initiative is called the ‘Atlantic Partnership for Advanced Nuclear Energy’.
• Aim: accelerate advanced reactor deployment and reduce reliance on Russian nuclear fuel.
• The partnership ensures faster safety approvals and regulatory cooperation between both countries.
• Billions in private sector investment back the program.
• Deals will be formally signed during President Donald Trump’s state visit to London.

Additional Information

• UK: Capital – London; Currency – Pound Sterling (£); Head of State – King Charles III.
• US: Capital – Washington, D.C.; Currency – US Dollar ($); President – Donald Trump (as per article context).
• Nuclear Energy: Provides around 10% of global electricity; key players include US, France, Russia, China, Japan.
• Russian nuclear fuel: Russia supplies nearly 40% of global enriched uranium exports, a major reason for Western diversification$.

The correct answer is Option 2.

In News

• India has improved its ranking to 38^th place in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2025, up from its 2020 position of 48^th.

Key Points

• India’s ranking in the GII 2025 is 38^th, showcasing its growing innovation performance globally.
• India is ranked #1 among lower-middle-income economies and in the Central and Southern Asia region.
• India has improved in specific sub-categories such as knowledge and technology outputs, where it ranks 22^nd.
• India continues to perform well in research, innovation ecosystems, and technology-driven growth.
• Top Countries: Switzerland, Sweden, United States of America.

Additional Information

• Global Innovation Index (GII) 2025
• The GII assesses 139 countries using over 80 indicators, categorizing them into seven pillars to evaluate their innovation capabilities.
• The index includes indicators like human capital, infrastructure, market sophistication, and knowledge outputs.
• Switzerland
• Ranked #1 in the Global Innovation Index 2025 with a score of 66, leading global innovation performance.
• India’s Strengths and Weaknesses
• Strengths: India ranks high in knowledge and technology outputs and human capital & research.
• Weaknesses: India faces challenges in areas such as business sophistication, infrastructure, and institutions.

The correct answer is Charles Coste.

In News

• The world’s oldest Olympic champion, French cyclist Charles Coste, passed away at the age of 101 on October 31, 2025.

Key Points

• Charles Coste was part of France’s gold medal-winning men’s team pursuit cycling squad at the 1948 London Olympics.
• He carried the Olympic torch as the penultimate torchbearer at the Paris 2024 Olympics opening ceremony.
• He became the world’s oldest living Olympic champion after the death of Hungarian gymnast Ágnes Keleti in January 2025.
• Born on February 8, 1924, in Ollioules, France, Coste was also the national pursuit champion in 1947.

Additional Information

• France’s 1948 team included Serge Blusson, Fernand Decanali, and Pierre Adam alongside Coste.
• They defeated Great Britain in the semi-final and Italy in the final to win Olympic gold.
• French judo legend Teddy Riner paid tribute to Coste, recalling receiving the Olympic flame from him at Paris 2024.

The correct answer is Ministry of Education and Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

In News

• The Ministry of Education, in collaboration with the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, will launch the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 today.

Key Points

• This 60-day national campaign aims to educate and empower children and youth to prevent tobacco use initiation and support those who wish to quit.
• The campaign seeks to promote a culture of health and wellness across schools and higher education institutions.
• The Global Youth Tobacco Survey 2019 reported that 8.4% of students aged 13-15 use tobacco, with an average initiation age of 10 years.
• Activities under the campaign include the World No Tobacco Quiz, School Challenge on MyGov, and counselling sessions for students to quit tobacco and other substance abuse.

Additional Information

• Tobacco-Free Generation
• A government initiative aimed at creating a generation that is free from tobacco use, focusing on prevention and awareness at early ages.
• Global Youth Tobacco Survey (GYTS)
• A survey that collects data on tobacco use among young people across the world, helping inform policies and awareness campaigns.
• MyGov Platform
• An online platform by the Government of India to encourage citizen participation, including initiatives like the School Challenge and quizzes in the campaign.

The correct answer is One Earth, One Health, One Future.

In News

• The National One Health Mission Assembly 2025 showcased India’s integrated approach to health security under the theme “One Earth, One Health, One Future.”

Key Points

• The event is hosted by the Department of Health Research (DHR) under the National One Health Mission.
• The 'One Health' approach integrates the health of people, animals, and the environment to address complex health challenges.
• The mission emphasizes combating zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, and ensuring food safety.
• It brings together ministries, departments, academicians, and experts, highlighting India’s leadership in the One Health approach.

Additional Information

• One Health Approach
• Addresses health issues by recognizing the interconnectedness of people, animals, and the environment.
• Crucial for addressing challenges like zoonotic diseases, which can spread from animals to humans.
• National One Health Mission
• Facilitates a unified approach to health security in India.
• Encourages collaboration across multiple sectors, such as health, agriculture, and environment.
• Significance of the Assembly
• Highlights India’s growing leadership role in global health security.
• Demonstrates the importance of integrating different health domains to tackle modern health challenges.

The correct answer is Calamine.

Key Points

• Calamine is used to reduce the irritating effect of ambient because it reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate released due to the ba few with formic acid present in calamine.
• Ants release a chemical called formic acid onto your skin when they bite.
• The release of this acid. along with the pinch form from the mandibles, cues symptoms of an ant bite.

Additional Information

• Benzyl Alcohol is a base.
• Caprylyl Glycol is an alcohol derived from caprylic acid.
• Benzethonium Chloride also known as hyaline is a synthetic quaternary ammonium salt.

The correct answer is HCl.

• **A solution reacts with chalk powder to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains HCl.**​

Important Points

• Chalk will dissolve in a strong acid such as hydrochloric even when diluted.
• The chemical formula of chalk is CaCO₃.
• The chemical formula of hydrochloric acid is HCl.
• Chalk powder when reacted with hydrochloric acid releases carbon dioxide which turns lime water milky.

 Additional Information

Reptiles is NOT correct.

Key Points

• Among the options, only reptiles do NOT include Invertebrates.
• An invertebrate is a cold-blooded animal without a backbone.
• They can live both on land and water.
• More than 90% of all living animal species are invertebrates.
• Important examples of invertebrates are:
• Arthropods (insects, arachnids, crustaceans, and myriapods).
• Molluscs (chitons, snail, bivalves, squids, and octopuses).
• Annelid (earthworms and leeches).
• Cnidarians (hydras, jellyfishes, sea anemones, and corals).
• Crustaceans (such as crabs and lobsters), Molluscs (such as squids and clams), and coral are examples of marine invertebrates.

Important Points

• Reptiles are vertebrates.
• Snakes, turtles, lizards, and crocodilians are examples of Reptiles.
• Asian saltwater crocodile is the largest reptile in the world.
• Dwarf gecko is the smallest lizard in the world

The correct answer is Lichen.

Key Points

• A mutual relationship in which organisms live together and share their shelter and nutrients is called a symbiotic relationship.
• Lichens are made up of two or more closely interacting organisms, a fungus, and one or more partners called photobionts.
• Lichens are an association of alga and fungus living together for their mutual benefits
• The fungus provides shelter and maintains the humidity for alga inside the lichen body, necessary for the alga for the process of photosynthesis.
• The alga in return provides the food material, prepared during photosynthesis to the fungus.
• Examples of symbiotic relationships are:
• Relation between bee and a flower.
• Rhizobium bacteria and leguminous plants.
• Relationship between an anemone (Heteractis Magnifica) and a clownfish (Amphiron ocellaris).

The correct answer is Coulomb.

Key Points

• The SI unit of electric charge is Coulomb.

Additional Information 

• There are 7 base Units, which are -

The correct answer is Zn.

Key Points

• Zinc is a chemical element with the symbol Zn and atomic number 30.
• Atomic Number is defined as the number of protons in the nucleus of an element.
• It is used to determine the characteristics of an element and it is also referred to for placing an element in the Periodic Table.
• The Atomic Number of Zinc (Zn) is 30 whereas the Mass Number is 65 i.e. it has 35 neutrons.
• It is the first element in group 12 (IIB) of the periodic table.
• Zinc is chemically similar to magnesium: both elements exhibit only one normal oxidation state (+2), and the Zn²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions are of similar size.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Metaphase.

Key Points

• Mitosis is a kind of cell division in which one cell (the mother) divides to generate two genetically identical new cells (the daughters).
• Mitosis is the stage of the cell cycle's division process in which the DNA of the cell's nucleus is split into two equal sets of chromosomes.
• Mitotic divisions are a mode of reproduction for single-celled eukaryotes like yeast, contributing new individuals to the population.
• Phases of mitosis:
• Interphase:
• In preparation for cell division, the DNA in the cell is replicated, resulting in two identical full sets of chromosomes.
• Two centrosomes, each comprising a pair of centrioles, are located outside of the nucleus and are essential for cell division.
• Microtubules extend from these centrosomes during interphase.
• Prophase:
• Under a microscope, the chromosomes condense into X-shaped structures that are plainly visible.
• Each chromosome is made up of two sister chromatids, each of which contains the same genetic material.
• The chromosomes are paired up so that both copies of chromosome 1 are together, and so forth.
• The membrane around the nucleus in the cell dissolves at the conclusion of the prophase, freeing the chromosomes.
• The mitotic spindle, which is made up of microtubules and other proteins, spans the cell and connects the centrioles as they travel to opposite poles.
• Metaphase:
• The chromosomes are perfectly lined up end-to-end along the cell's equator.
• The mitotic spindle threads extend from the centrioles, which are now at opposing poles of the cell.
• The sister chromatids are connected by the mitotic spindle threads.
• Anaphase: 
• The mitotic spindle then pulls the sister chromatids apart, pulling one chromatid to one pole and the other chromatid to the opposite pole.
• Telophase: 
• A complete pair of chromosomes assemble at each cell pole.
• To build two new nuclei, a membrane forms surrounding each set of chromosomes.
• The single-cell then pinches in the middle, separating into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus and a full set of chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the name for this process.

The correct answer is Ne.

Key Points

• The noble gases are uncolored, scentless, bland, nonflammable gases that were once classified.
• They were once classify group 0 in the periodic table because it was considered they had a valence of zero, meaning their atoms cannot integrate with those of other elements to form compounds.
• The noble gases have full valence electron shells. Valence electrons are the extreme electrons of an atom and are usually the only electrons that partake in chemical bonding.

Additional Information

• Nitrogen is the chemical element with the letter N and atomic number 7. Nitrogen is a nonmetal and the lightest member of group 15 of the periodic table
• Fluorine is a chemical element with the letter F and atomic number 9. It is the lightest halogen and exists at accepted conditions as a highly harmful, pale yellow diatomic gas.
• C​alcium (Ca), chemical element, one of the acidic-earth metals of Group 2 (IIa) of the periodic table. It is the most ample burnished element in the human body and the fifth most ample element in Earth’s crust.

The correct answer is Large intestine.

• The Large intestine is not a part of the circulatory system.

Key Points

• Circulatory System:
• The discovery of blood circulation was done by William Harvey.
• It is also called the cardiovascular system.
• It delivers oxygen and nutrients to cells and removes wastes.
• The heart and its parts, capillaries, veins, and blood are part of the circulatory system.
• The heart pumps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

Shortcut Trick

Total population increase = 6500 − 6000 = 500

Base increase (if all 6000 were males) = 8% of 6000 = 480

Extra increase due to females = 500 − 480 = 20

Female percentage difference = 10% − 8% = 2%

∴ 2% of Females = 20 ⇒ Females = 1000

∴ The correct option is A.

Alternate Method

Given:

Present population = 6000

New population = 6500

Male increase = 8%, Female increase = 10%

Formula: Alligation Rule or Percentage Change

⇒ Total increase = 6500 − 6000 = 500

⇒ Overall percentage increase = (500 ÷ 6000) × 100 = 25/3 %

Male (8%) Female (10%) Mean (25/3 %) Diff: (10 − 25/3) = 5/3 Diff: (25/3 − 8) = 1/3 Ratio M : F = 5 : 1

⇒ Ratio of Male to Female = (10 − 25/3) : (25/3 − 8) = 5/3 : 1/3 = 5 : 1

⇒ Total units = 5 + 1 = 6

⇒ Present number of females = (1 ÷ 6) × 6000

⇒ Present number of females = 1000

∴ The correct option is A.

Additional Information

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage change = (Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value × 100. It measures the degree of change over time.

Rule of Alligation

It is a rule that enables us to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at their respective prices must be mixed to produce a mixture of a specified price.

Weighted Average

Combined % increase = (n₁p₁ + n₂p₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the quantity and p is the percentage change.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio M : W = 3 : 2 (Total = 5 units = 60 L ⇒ 1 unit = 12 L)

New Ratio M : W = 1 : 5 (Milk remains constant, so multiply by 3) → 3 : 15

Water increase = 15 − 2 = 13 units

Quantity of water added = 13 units × 12 L/unit = 156 L

∴ The correct answer is 156 L.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Volume = 60 L, Initial Ratio = 3 : 2, Final Ratio = 1 : 5.

Formula: Quantity = [Ratio Part ÷ Total Parts] × Total Volume

Initial (60 L) Milk: 36 L Water: 24 L

• Water (x)

Final Ratio 1 : 5 Milk: 36 L (1 unit) Water: 180 L (5 units) x = 180 − 24 = 156 L

⇒ Initial Milk = (3/5) × 60 = 36 L

⇒ Initial Water = (2/5) × 60 = 24 L

⇒ Let x be the amount of water added.

⇒ New Ratio = Milk / (Water + x) = 1 / 5

⇒ 36 / (24 + x) = 1 / 5

⇒ 36 × 5 = 24 + x

⇒ 180 = 24 + x

⇒ x = 180 − 24 = 156 L

∴ The correct answer is 156 L.

Additional Information

Constant Part Concept

When one component is added or removed from a mixture, the quantity of the other component remains constant. Equating the constant part in both ratios simplifies the calculation.

Alligation Method

For adding pure water to a mixture, the concentration of water in the added part is 100%. Alligation cross-difference helps find the ratio of initial mixture to added water.

Percentage Base Change

Initial % of milk × Initial Volume = Final % of milk × Final Volume. This formula works efficiently when only one component changes.

Given:

A, B and C together can finish a piece of work in 2 days

A alone can finish it in 6 days

B is thrice as good a workman as C

Concept:

Efficiency of a person is reverse of total time taken

Calculation:

Let per day efficiencies of A, B and C be a, b and c respectively

⇒ b = 3c

According to the question:

\(\frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b} + \frac{1}{c} = \frac{1}{2}\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{6} + \frac{3}{c} + \frac{1}{c} = \frac{1}{2}\)

⇒ 4/c = \(\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{6}\)

⇒ 4/c = 1/3

⇒ c = 12

∴ C will complete the work alone in 12 days

Alternate MethodWe know time is inversely proportional to efficiency

B is thrice as good a workman as C 

So, If B takes x days, then C will take 3x days

So, 1/6 + 1/x + 1/3x = 1/2

x = 4

So, time take by C = 3 × 4 = 12 days