Bihar Jeevika (Community Coordinator) : (08 Dec 2025) MBT (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is ​Kanailal Dutta.

Key Points

• Kanailal Dutta was arrested by the British as an accused in the Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case.
• He was a revolutionary in India's freedom struggle belonging to the Jugantar group.
• He was born in Chandannagar, West Bengal.

Additional Information

• Alipore Conspiracy case, 1908: Also referred to as the Muraripukur conspiracy, or the Manicktolla bomb conspiracy, was a criminal case held in India in 1908.
• The case saw the trial of a number of Indian nationalists of the Anushilan Samiti in Calcutta, under charges of "Waging war against the Government" of the British Raj.
• The trial was held at Alipore Sessions Court, Calcutta, between May 1908 and May 1909.
• Among the famous accused were Aurobindo Ghosh, his brother Barin Ghosh as well as 38 other Bengali nationalists of the Anushilan Samiti.

The correct answer is S-400.

Key Points

• The S-400 is a highly advanced air defense missile system developed by Russia.
• It is designed to detect, track, and destroy a variety of aerial threats, including aircraft, drones, and ballistic and cruise missiles.
• India procured the S-400 system from Russia to strengthen its air defense capabilities.
• The system is known for its long-range and high-altitude interception capabilities, making it a crucial asset for national defense.

Additional Information

• BrahMos: A supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by India and Russia, primarily used for attacking ground and naval targets.
• Agni-V: An intercontinental ballistic missile developed by India, designed for strategic deterrence.
• Prithvi-III: A tactical surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile developed by India.

The correct answer is Pneumatophores.

Key Points

• Pneumatophores are specialized aerial roots that enable gas exchange for plants growing in waterlogged soils.
• They are commonly found in mangrove species and other plants in swampy areas.
• Pneumatophores grow upwards from the soil to reach the air, facilitating oxygen uptake.
• These roots have lenticels, small pores that allow for the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the root tissues.
• They play a crucial role in the survival of plants in anaerobic conditions by providing a pathway for oxygen to reach the submerged root systems.

Additional Information

• Epiphytic Roots
• These roots are found in epiphytes, which grow on other plants for physical support.
• Epiphytic roots absorb moisture and nutrients from the air and debris around them.
• Stilt Roots
• These roots provide additional support to the plant, helping it remain upright in unstable soil conditions.
• They are often found in plants like maize and certain species of palms.
• Prop Roots
• Prop roots are a type of adventitious root that arise from the stem and provide extra support to the plant.
• Common examples include the banyan tree, where prop roots help support the tree's massive structure.

The correct answer is Food items.

Key Points

Public Goods :

• In economics, a public good is a good that is both non-excludable and non-rivalrous.
• For such goods, users cannot be barred from accessing or using them for failing to pay for them.
• Also, use by one person neither prevents access of other people nor does it reduce availability to others.
• Examples - National defence, Roads, Government administration, etc.

Private Goods:

• In economics, private good is a good that is both excludable and rivalrous.
• For instance, food consumed automatically bars other people from consuming that portion.
• Food items are private food.

Hence Food items are NOT public goods.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Cucumber.

Key Points

• Cucumber is an example of zaid crop.
• Crops that are being raised throughout the year due to artificial irrigation are Zaid crops.
• Zaid crops are grown between Kharif and Rabi Seasons, i.e., between March to June.
• They require warm, dry weather as a vital growth period and a longer day length for flowering.
• Zaid crop is also known as a gap-filler between two chief crops, Kharif and Rabi.
• Examples: Cucumber, Pumpkin, Bitter gourd, Watermelon, Muskmelon, Groundnut, Pulses, etc.
• The Time Of Sowing For Zaid Crops Changes from Place To Place Depending On The Rainy Season. So the Sowing Period Of The Zaid Crops Is Not Fixed, It Changes All Over India.

Additional Information

• Kharif crops
• Crops are sown at the beginning of the southwest monsoon and harvested at the end of the South -West monsoon.
• Sown in June-July when rains first begin.
• Harvested in September-October.
• Requires a lot of water and hot weather to grow.
• Important kharif crops: Jowar, bajra, rice, maize, cotton, Jute, groundnut, sugarcane, etc.
• Rabi crops
• Crops need a relatively cool climate during the period of growth but a warm climate during the germination of their seed and maturation.
• Sown in October-November.
• Harvested in April-May.
• Important Rabi Crops: Wheat, barley, gram, linseed, mustard, Masur, peas, and potatoes.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

• The Korba Coalfield is located in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• It is located in the Korba district near the Hasdeo River in Chhattisgarh.
• Hasandeo river is a tributary of Mahanadi.
• The coal mining started here in Korba in 1941.
• The production gets boosted after the construction of the Champa – Korba rail link in 1955.
• Coalfield located in West Bengal is Raniganj Coalfield.
• In Jharkhand, the Jharia coalfield is located.
• There is no coal field in Bihar.

The correct answer is Kalibangan.

Key Points

• The problems of archaeological interpretation are perhaps most evident in attempts to reconstruct religious practices.
• Early archaeologists thought that certain objects which seemed unusual or unfamiliar may have had a religious significance.
• These included terracotta figurines of women, heavily jewelled, some with elaborate head-dresses.
• These were regarded as mother goddesses.
• In other instances, structures have been assigned ritual significance.
• These include the Great Bath and fire altars found at Kalibangan and Lothal. Hence option 1 is correct.

Important Points

Fire altars:

• Fire altars are pits meant for religious rites involving sacrifices to fire.
• The pits have been interpreted as fire altars, i.e., sacrificial pits in which offerings were made into the fire, and the area seems to have been associated with community rituals.
• These were a hallmark of Aryan religious beliefs.
• Evidence of fire altars is found in Lothal and Kalibangan towards the Late Harappan phase, showing the presence of immigrants.
• The mud-brick platforms in the southern part of the citadel complex at Kalibangan, which have been interpreted as ‘fire altars’, do not occur at most other sites.
• Again, as in the case with female figurines, the fact that the ‘fire altars’ have been found at a few sites but are absent at most, indicates variations in religious practice within the vast area of the Harappan culture.

Additional Information

• Mohenjo-Daro means "Mound of the Dead Men" or "Mohan's Mound" and is an archaeological site within the province of Sindh, Pakistan.
• Harappa:
• It was located on the banks of the river Ravi.
• Most Harappan sites are located in semi-arid lands, where irrigation was probably required for agriculture.
• Rakhigarhi
• ​Rakhigarhi is the largest Harappan site in the Indian subcontinent.
• Twenty heritage sites, including two ancient mounds at Haryana's Rakhigarhi and the age-old Anangtal in Delhi, have been identified for the national importance tag.

The correct answer is Jammu & Kashmir.

• Baglihar Dam is located in Jammu & Kashmir.

Key Points

• Baglihar Hydropower Project is located on the Chenab River in the northern Indian state of Jammu & Kashmir.
• It consists of a gravity concrete dam 143 m high and 363 m long, which has a total volume of 1.9 million m³, creating a reservoir with a capacity of 475 million m³.
• The first power project executed by the Jammu and Kashmir Power Development Corporation.
• It was conceived in 1992 and approved in 1996, with construction beginning in 1999.
• The first stage of the project was completed in 2008-09.
• It was dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh of India.
• The second stage of the project was completed in 2015-16.
• It was subsequently dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi of India.

Additional Information

• Pakistan claimed that the dam is a gross violation of the Indus Water Treaty.
• India reduced the water flow to fill up the Baglihar dam lake in Jammu and Kashmir, causing a loss of agriculture for farmers in Pakistan.
• India, on the other hand, has clarified that reduced flow in the Chenab river in Pakistan is a result of very little availability of water in a lean year.
• The objection had lead to the project being referred to a World Bank appointed Neutral Expert.

The Correct Answer is ​Caring and Sharing.

In News

• International Happiness Day being observed globally with theme ‘Caring & Sharing’.

Key Points

• International Happiness Day (IHD) is observed globally to recognize the importance of happiness and well-being as universal goals in human lives.
• The theme of IHD this year is Caring and Sharing, emphasizing the need for a more inclusive and balanced approach to economic growth and well-being.
• The United Nations proclaimed 20 March as International Day of Happiness in its 2012 General Assembly resolution.
• To mark the occasion, the United Nations released the World Happiness Report 2025, highlighting case studies and global analyses of happiness and kindness.
• The report also discusses how sharing meals supports happiness and fosters social connections.

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

• Tripura is surrounded by Bangladesh on its north, west, and south. It is surrounded by the state Mizoram and Assam on the eastern side.
• Agartala is the capital of Tripura.
• Chief Minister:- Manik Saha
• Governor:- Shri Satyadeo Narain Arya

Additional Information

• Bangladesh and India share a 4,096-kilometre-long international border. It is known as operation zero lines.
• It is the fifth-longest land border in the world,
• It includes 262 km with Assam, 856 km with Tripura, 180 km with Mizoram, 443 km with Meghalaya, and 2,217 km with West Bengal.
• 100th constitutional amendment act, 2015 - Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) Treaty between India and Bangladesh, amended the first schedule of the constitution to exchange the disputed territories occupied by both nations in accordance with the 1974 bilateral LBA.

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

• The following countries using the rupee as a currency other than India:-
• Pakistan
• Sri Lanka
• Mauritius
• Nepal
• Seychelles

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is 1999.

In News

• World Poetry Day: 21 March.

Key Points

• World Poetry Day is celebrated annually on 21 March.
• UNESCO first adopted 21 March as World Poetry Day during its 30th General Conference in 1999.
• The day celebrates the cultural and linguistic diversity of poetry as a form of human expression and identity.
• The aim is to support linguistic diversity and increase the opportunity for endangered languages to be heard through poetry.
• The theme for World Poetry Day 2025 is "Poetry as a Bridge for Peace and Inclusion", emphasizing how poetry can foster peace and bring people together.

The correct answer is High-Yielding Varieties Programme.

Key Points

• HIGH YIELDING VARIETY PROGRAMME (HYVP):
• HIGH YIELDING VARIETY PROGRAMME (HYVP) was launched in 1966, which helped the country in attaining self-sufficiency in food.
• It launched in an objective to attain self-sufficiency in food by 1970-71.
• The HYVP was the responsibility of the state government for its implementation from its existing resources under the guidance and supervision of the central government.
• The aim of the programme was to increase the productivity of food grains by adopting the latest varieties of inputs of crops.
• This programme in the 4th five-year plan was a major breakthrough and a turning point in the history of agriculture development in India.

The Correct Answer is ​Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

In News

• Cyber Security Handbook for Mahila Suraksha.

Key Points

• The Cyber Security Handbook for Mahila Suraksha was released by the Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
• It was released on the eve of International Women’s Day.
• The handbook is a comprehensive guide designed to empower women with essential cyber hygiene practices.
• The Cyber Security Handbook provides best practices for women to safeguard their online presence and stay protected in the digital world.

The Correct answer is Bromothymol blue

Key Points

• Bromothymol blue is a pH indicator dye.
• It changes color depending on the pH level of the solution.
• In a neutral pH (around 7), bromothymol blue appears green.
• In the presence of an acid with a pH between 6.0 and 7.6, it turns yellow.
• This color change makes it useful for detecting the presence of acids within this pH range.
• It is commonly used in laboratory settings to measure pH changes in solutions.

 Additional Information

• Alizarin yellow R
• Alizarin yellow R is a pH indicator which turns yellow in alkaline solutions and red in acidic solutions.
• It is not suitable for detecting acids in the pH range of 6.0 to 7.6.
• Thymolphthalein
• Thymolphthalein is another pH indicator.
• It turns from colorless in acidic solutions to blue in alkaline solutions, effective in the pH range of 9.3 to 10.5.
• Methyl orange
• Methyl orange is a commonly used pH indicator for titrations.
• It turns red in acidic solutions and yellow in neutral to alkaline solutions, with a pH range of 3.1 to 4.4.

The correct answer is Microorganisms stop responding to medicines, making infections difficult to treat.

Key Points

• Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites evolve and stop responding to antimicrobial medicines like antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and antiparasitics.
• This resistance makes infections harder to treat, leading to prolonged illness, increased medical costs, and a higher risk of death.
• AMR is a significant global health concern because it can affect anyone, of any age, in any country, and can lead to the spread of resistant infections.
• The emergence of drug-resistant pathogens threatens to return us to a time when simple infections were often fatal.

Additional Information

• Prevention: Good hygiene, proper sanitation, vaccination, and rational use of antimicrobial medications are crucial in combating AMR.
• Research and Development: There is a need for new antibiotics, vaccines, diagnostics, and other tools to combat AMR effectively.
• Global Action: Coordinated efforts are required at local, national, and international levels to address AMR, including surveillance, stewardship programs, and public awareness campaigns.

The correct answer is Brihadratha.

Key Points

• The last Mauryan ruler Brihadratha was assassinated in 185 BC by his commander in chief Pushyamitra Shunga.
• Pushyamitra Shunga set up a kingdom in the north.
• Pushyamitra Shunga established his own Sunga dynasty.

​

Important Points

• The Mauryan dynasty lasted 137 years.
• Chandragupta dethroned the last Nanda ruler Dhana Nanda and occupied the Patliputra in 322 BC.
• Three important rulers of the Maurya dynasty were
• Chandragupta.
• Bindusara.
• Ashoka.
• Chandragupta Maurya was succeeded by his son Bindusara.
• Bindusara was known as Amitrochates or Amitraghata.
• Dasharatha was a grandson of Ashoka.
• Devvarman was the successor of Shalishuka Maurya and reigned for a short period of seven years.

Shortcut Trick

Speed of the first train = Distance ÷ Time = 300 ÷ 20 = 15 m/s

Relative speed of both trains (opposite direction) = Total Distance ÷ Time = (300 + 300) ÷ 25 = 600 ÷ 25 = 24 m/s

Speed of the second train = Relative Speed − Speed of first train = 24 − 15 = 9 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 9 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Train 1 (L₁) = 300 m

Time to cross a tree = 20 s

Length of Train 2 (L₂) = 300 m

Time to cross each other = 25 s

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Relative speed in opposite direction = S₁ + S₂

Calculations:

⇒ Speed of Train 1 (S₁) = 300 ÷ 20 = 15 m/s

⇒ Total distance to cross each other = L₁ + L₂ = 300 + 300 = 600 m

⇒ Relative speed = Total Distance ÷ Crossing Time

⇒ S₁ + S₂ = 600 ÷ 25

⇒ 15 + S₂ = 24

⇒ S₂ = 24 − 15

⇒ S₂ = 9 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 9 m/s.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two trains travel in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their individual speeds: S = S₁ − S₂ (where S₁ > S₂).

Relative Speed in Opposite Direction

When two trains travel towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: S = S₁ + S₂.

Crossing a Stationary Object

If a train crosses a pole, standing man, or tree, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train alone: D = L₁.

Crossing a Platform/Bridge

If a train crosses a platform or another train, the total distance covered is the sum of their lengths: D = L₁ + L₂.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Successive Percentage Change formula: Net Change = x + y + (xy/100)%

Here, x = +6% (increase) and y = −6% (decrease).

Net Change = 6 − 6 + (6 × (−6))/100 = 0 − 0.36 = −0.36%

Final Population = 100% − 0.36% = 99.64%

⇒ 99.64% = 2491 ⇒ 1% = 2491 ÷ 99.64 = 25

⇒ Initial Population (100%) = 25 × 100 = 2500

∴ The correct answer is 2500.

Alternate Method

Given: Final population after 2 years = 2491, Year 1 change = +6%, Year 2 change = −6%.

Formula Used: Final Population = Initial Population × (1 + r₁/100) × (1 + r₂/100)

Let the population at the beginning of the first year be P.

⇒ P × (1 + 6/100) × (1 − 6/100) = 2491

⇒ P × (106/100) × (94/100) = 2491

⇒ P × (1.06 × 0.94) = 2491

⇒ P × 0.9964 = 2491

⇒ P = 2491 ÷ 0.9964

⇒ P = 24910000 ÷ 9964

⇒ P = 2500

∴ The correct answer is 2500.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by x% and then by y% successively, the effective percentage change is given by the formula: [x + y + (xy/100)]%.

Equal Increase and Decrease

If a value is increased by r% and then decreased by r% (or vice versa), there is always a net decrease given by (r²/100)%.

Population Growth Formula

The population after n years (P_n) at a constant growth rate (r) is P_n = P₀(1 ± r/100)ⁿ, where P₀ is the initial population.

Shortcut Trick

If a 30% discount is applied on the article, the selling price becomes (100% − 30%) = 70% of its marked price.

Selling Price = 70% of 3500

Selling Price = (70 ÷ 100) × 3500

Selling Price = 2450

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2450.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 3500

Discount percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Discount Amount = MP × (Discount% ÷ 100)

Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount Amount

Calculations:

⇒ Discount Amount = 3500 × (30 ÷ 100)

⇒ Discount Amount = 3500 × 0.30

⇒ Discount Amount = 1050

⇒ SP = 3500 − 1050

⇒ SP = 2450

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2450.

Additional Information

Base of Calculations

Profit and Loss are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP), whereas the Discount is exclusively calculated on the Marked Price (MP).

Successive Discounts

The single equivalent discount for two successive discounts a% and b% can be calculated using the direct formula: Equivalent Discount = [a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100]%.

Marking Up Goods

When goods are marked up above the Cost Price to provide a discount but still achieve a certain profit: MP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ (100 − Discount%).

Shortcut Trick

Effective interest rate for 8 months = 8 × (8 ÷ 12) = 16/3%

As per the question, (16/3)% of Sum = 240

1% of Sum = (240 × 3) ÷ 16 = 45

100% of Sum = 45 × 100 = 4500

∴ The correct answer is ₹4500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹240

Rate (R) = 8% per annum

Time (T) = 8 months = 8 ÷ 12 = 2/3 years

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 240 = [P × 8 × (2 ÷ 3)] ÷ 100

⇒ 240 = (P × 16) ÷ 300

⇒ P = (240 × 300) ÷ 16

⇒ P = 15 × 300

⇒ P = 4500

∴ The correct answer is ₹4500.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount (A) at the end of the time period is given by: A = P + SI, where P is the Principal and SI is the Simple Interest.

Effective Interest Rate

The overall interest rate accumulated over T years is simply (R × T)%. So, SI = (R × T)% of Principal.

Time Conversion

When time is given in months, divide by 12 to convert it to years (e.g., 8 months = 8 ÷ 12 years). If given in days, divide by 365.

Difference Between SI and CI

In Simple Interest, the principal remains constant. In Compound Interest (CI), interest is calculated on both the initial principal and the accumulated interest.

Given:

Principal = Rs. 4000, Time = 2 years, Rate = 20%

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r/100)n

Calculation:

A  = P(1 + r/100)n 

⇒ A = 4000[(1 + 20/100)2

⇒ A = 4000 × (6/5) × (6/5)

⇒ A = 5760

CI = 5760 - 4000 = 1760

∴ The answer is 1760.

Shortcut Trick 

Average = {(12 × 35) + (10 × 24)} / 22 = 30

∴ The average of all 22 observations is 30.

Alternate Method 

Given: 

Average of other 12 observations is 35.

Average of other 10 observations is 24.

Formula used:

Average = (\frac{Sum }{Number }) 

Calculation:

From the given data the average of 12 observations is 35.

Then use mentioned formula 

35 = (\frac{Sum}{12})

Sum = 420      -----(1)      

Average of other 10 observations is 24.

24 = (\frac{Sum}{10})

Sum =  240      -----(2)   

From above equation total 22 observer and  if we add Sum then it is 660.

Put above information in following formula.

Average = (sum of observations) / (number of observations)

Average = (\frac{660}{22}) = 30

∴ The average of all 22 observations is 30.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Boys to Girls = 25 : 55 = 5 : 11

Let base average be the girls' average = 8 years.

Extra age brought by boys = 10 − 8 = +2 years per boy.

Net deviation = (5 parts × 2) ÷ (5 + 11) = 10 ÷ 16 = +0.625 years.

Overall average = Base average + Net deviation = 8 + 0.625 = 8.625 years.

∴ The correct answer is 8.625 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of boys = 25, Average age = 10 years

Number of girls = 55, Average age = 8 years

Formula Used:

Weighted Average = (Total sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Total age of boys = 25 × 10 = 250 years

⇒ Total age of girls = 55 × 8 = 440 years

⇒ Total age of the entire class = 250 + 440 = 690 years

⇒ Total number of students = 25 + 55 = 80 students

⇒ Average age of the class = 690 ÷ 80

⇒ Average age = 69 ÷ 8 = 8.625 years

∴ The correct answer is 8.625 years.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When different groups have varying quantities, their combined average is found using the formula: Combined Avg = (N₁A₁ + N₂A₂) ÷ (N₁ + N₂).

Assumed Mean / Deviation Method

A faster way to calculate averages is to pick a base average and distribute the total net deviation across all members. True Avg = Assumed Avg + (Total Deviation ÷ Total Count).

Alligation Method

This visual method links the ratio of quantities directly to the differences from the mean average: Quantity 1 : Quantity 2 = (A₂ − Mean) : (Mean − A₁).

Short trick:

Speed of boat in still water = (30 + 20)/2 = 25

Detailed Method :

Let the speed of boat be x km/hr and speed of the stream be y km/hr

According to the question

x + y = 30      ---(1)

x – Y = 20      --- (2)

From equation (1) and equation (2)

⇒ x = 25

Speed of boat in still water is 25 km/hr

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of investments = 1000 : 1200 : 1500 = 10 : 12 : 15.

Since the time period is identical, profit is distributed in the ratio of their investments.

Share of Q = [12 ÷ (10 + 12 + 15)] × Total Profit

Share of Q = (12 ÷ 37) × 666 = 12 × 18 = 216.

∴ The correct answer is ₹216.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment of P = ₹1000

Investment of Q = ₹1200

Investment of R = ₹1500

Total profit = ₹666

Formula Used:

When the investment time is the same for all partners, Profit Ratio = Capital Ratio.

Investment and Profit Share Ratio

P 10 parts ₹1000

Q 12 parts ₹1200

R 15 parts ₹1500

Total Profit = ₹666 (37 parts)

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio of profits (P : Q : R) = 1000 : 1200 : 1500

⇒ Simplifying the ratio, we get 10 : 12 : 15

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 10 + 12 + 15 = 37 parts

⇒ Value of 37 parts = ₹666

⇒ Value of 1 part = 666 ÷ 37 = ₹18

⇒ Profit share of Q = 12 parts

⇒ Share of Q = 12 × 18 = ₹216

∴ The correct answer is ₹216.

Additional Information

Different Time Periods

If partners invest for different durations, their profit is shared in the ratio of the product of their Capital and Time (C₁ × T₁ : C₂ × T₂).

Working & Sleeping Partners

A working partner receives a fixed salary or a specific percentage of the total profit for managing the business. The remaining profit is distributed among all partners according to their investment ratios.

Compound Partnership

When a partner withdraws or adds money during the year, their capital is broken into time segments. The equivalent capital is calculated as (Amount₁ × Months₁) + (Amount₂ × Months₂).

Shortcut Trick

For percentage problems involving two intersecting sets and a "neither" category:

Both % = (Group 1 % + Group 2 % + Neither %) − 100%

Both % = (60% + 52% + 32%) − 100%

Both % = 144% − 100% = 44%

∴ The correct answer is 44%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total employees = 100%

Married employees, n(M) = 60%

Graduate employees, n(G) = 52%

Neither married nor graduate = 32%

Formula Used:

n(M ∪ G) = Total − Neither

n(M ∩ G) = n(M) + n(G) − n(M ∪ G)

Total = 100% Neither = 32%

16% 44% 8%

Married = 60% Graduate = 52%

Calculations:

⇒ Employees who are either married or graduate = n(M ∪ G)

⇒ n(M ∪ G) = 100% − 32% = 68%

⇒ Employees who are both married and graduate = n(M ∩ G)

⇒ n(M ∩ G) = n(M) + n(G) − n(M ∪ G)

⇒ n(M ∩ G) = 60% + 52% − 68%

⇒ n(M ∩ G) = 112% − 68% = 44%

∴ The correct answer is 44%.

Additional Information

Set Theory Basics

The principle of inclusion-exclusion for two sets is given by the formula n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) − n(A ∩ B). This logic guarantees that the intersection is not double-counted.

De Morgan's Laws

The complement of a union is equal to the intersection of their complements: (A ∪ B)' = A' ∩ B'. In set-based word problems, the "neither A nor B" portion consistently represents this specific region.

Venn Diagrams in Percentages

When managing percentage-based sets, the total universal set is always assigned a fixed value of 100%. The sum of all purely independent disjoint regions (Only A + Only B + Both + Neither) must invariably total exactly 100%.

The number of female workers in the factories F1 and F2 in different days

⇒ Day 1 = 280 + 186 = 466

⇒ Day 2 = 262 + 212 = 474

⇒ Day 3 = 314 + 224 = 538

⇒ Day 4 = 328 + 232 = 560

⇒ Day 5 = 336 + 285 = 621

⇒ Day 6 = 444 + 272 = 716

∴ The second highest is day 5 (D5).

Total number of employees = 360°

∴ Percentage of employees in Service Sector = (72°/360°) × 100 = 20%

S is sitting at one extreme end.

P is sitting second to the right of S.

P is sitting between O and Q. U is NOT sitting at any extreme end.

R Is sitting to the immediate left of T

Note: Certain modification are done as the question was erroneous.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is: Each letter of the given word is coded to the opposite letter in English Alphabet series.

For, GENIUS is coded as TVMRFH

Similarly, SMART will be:

So, SMART will be coded as HNZIG.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logical order is: 

1. Universe → It contains everything.
2. World → World is in Universe.
3. Asia → Asia is in the World.
4. Tamil Nadu → Tamil Nadu is a state in Asia.
5. Chennai → Chennai is the capital of Tamil Nadu.

Hence, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 is the correct order.

The logic followed here is:-

Square : Rectangle →  The shape of Square is most similar to the Rectangle Shape.

• Every square is a rectangle.

Similarly,

Rhombus : Parallelogram → The shape of Rhombus is most similar to the Parallelogram shape.

• Every rhombus is considered as a parallelogram but the converse is always not true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic is;

84 – 48 → (8² – 4²) = 64 – 16 = 48

73 – 40 → (7² – 3²) = 49 – 9 = 40

97 – 42 → (9² – 7²) = 81 – 49 = 32 ≠ 42

65 – 11 → (6² – 5²) = 36 – 25 = 11

Hence, ‘97 – 42’ is the odd one.

Given Series:

(Left) V 2 5 U @ ρ W ¥ # 2 Ω A R Q 1 @ F B 4 6 # H J % Z E (Right)

We know,

Consonants → All alphabets except Vowels (A, E, I, O, U)

After dropping consonants from the given series, the series we get is as follows,

2 5 U @ ρ ¥ # 2 Ω A 1 @ 4 6 # % E

Now, let's check the position of Ω from the left,

2 5 U @ ρ ¥ # 2 Ω A 1 @ 4 6 # % E

Here, we can see that the position of Ω is ninth from the left.

Hence, the correct answer is "Ninth".

BODMAS Table:

Given equation: 12 ÷ 16 – 8 + 14 × 2 = 38

Let's check each option by interchanging the signs,

1) – and ÷

→ 12 – 16 ÷ 8 + 14 × 2 = 38

→ 12 – 2 + 28 = 38

→ 10 + 28 = 38

→ 38 = 38

→ LHS = RHS.

2) × and ÷

→ 12 × 16 – 8 + 14 ÷ 2 = 38

→ 192 - 8 + 7 = 38 

→ 184 + 7 = 38

→ 191 ≠ 38

→ LHS ≠ RHS.

3) ÷ and +

→ 12 + 16 – 8 ÷ 14 × 2 = 38

→ 12 + 16 – 8/7 = 38

→ 28 – 8/7 = 38

→ 188/7 ≠ 38

→ LHS ≠ RHS.

4) + and ×

→ 12 ÷ 16 – 8 × 14 + 2 = 38

→ 3/4 - 112 + 2 = 38

→ 3/4 - 110 ≠ 38

→ LHS ≠ RHS.

Here, we can see that Only option 1 satisfies the equation.

Hence, the correct answer is " – and ÷ ".

From 1^st and 2^nd Dices, we can see that ↑, =, +, and % are adjacent to ‘*’

Hence, only one symbol is remaining, that is ‘&’

Hence, ‘&’ will come opposite to face containing ‘*’.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Logic : 

• First and Third letter → (1) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
• Second letter → (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​​So,

​

Hence, "JDD" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

‘FAN’ is written as ‘MZU

• 

​

Similarly,

'RUN' is written as 'MFI’

• 

​

And

‘MUD’ be written as __________

• 

​

Hence, the correct answer is "WFN".

The correct answer is Fourth generation.

Key Points

• Fourth generation computers are characterized by the use of microprocessors, which integrate thousands of ICs into a single chip.
• These computers were developed starting in the 1970s and marked a significant advancement in computer technology.
• The Intel 4004 was the first microprocessor, released in 1971, revolutionizing the computing industry.
• Microprocessors significantly reduced the size and cost of computers while increasing their power and efficiency.
• Examples of fourth-generation computers include IBM PC and Apple Macintosh.

Additional Information

• Microprocessor:
• A microprocessor is a computer processor on a microchip, containing the functions of a central processing unit (CPU).
• It performs arithmetic and logic operations, controls data flow, and handles input/output operations.
• Microprocessors are the brain of computers and many other electronic devices.
• Integrated Circuits (ICs):
• ICs are small electronic devices made of a semiconductor material that integrates numerous tiny resistors, capacitors, and transistors.
• They are fundamental components in modern electronic systems, reducing the size and cost of electronic devices.
• IBM PC:
• Released in 1981, the IBM Personal Computer (PC) became a standard in the industry for personal computers.
• It used the Intel 8088 microprocessor and significantly influenced the personal computing market.
• Apple Macintosh:
• Introduced in 1984, the Apple Macintosh was one of the first computers to popularize the graphical user interface (GUI).
• It used the Motorola 68000 microprocessor and set new standards for user-friendly computing.

The correct answer is MS Excel.

Key Points

• MS Excel is a spreadsheet software developed by Microsoft that is specifically designed for data storage, organization, and analysis.
• It provides tools for performing basic statistical calculations such as averages, sums, standard deviations, and more.
• MS Excel includes built-in features for creating graphical representations of data, such as bar charts, line graphs, pie charts, and scatter plots.
• It supports the storage of large datasets and allows for easy sorting, filtering, and manipulation of data.
• MS Excel's functions, like PIVOT tables and conditional formatting, enable advanced data analysis and visualization capabilities.

Additional Information

• Spreadsheet Basics:
• A spreadsheet is a digital tool used to organize, analyze, and store data in a tabular format, consisting of rows and columns.
• MS Excel is one of the most widely used spreadsheet applications globally, part of the Microsoft Office suite.
• Statistical Analysis:
• Excel provides functions like AVERAGE, COUNT, MAX, MIN, and STDEV to perform statistical calculations on datasets.
• Advanced users can use Data Analysis Toolpak, an Excel add-in that offers tools for regression, ANOVA, and other statistical analyses.
• Graphical Tools in Excel:
• Excel supports various types of charts and graphs, including bar charts, pie charts, histograms, and scatter plots.
• These visual tools help in understanding trends, patterns, and relationships in data.
• Applications in Education:
• Excel is widely used in educational institutions for managing student records, analyzing exam results, and generating progress reports.
• It helps teachers and administrators in identifying trends and making data-driven decisions.

The correct answer is Warm booting.

Key Points

• Warm booting refers to the process of restarting a computer that is already on without turning off the power. This is usually done through the operating system's restart function.
• It helps in refreshing the system, clearing temporary files and memory, and resolving minor software issues without a complete shutdown.
• Warm booting is quicker than a cold boot as it does not involve powering down the machine completely.

Additional Information

• Logging off: This action closes all the applications and ends the user session, but the computer remains on, allowing another user to log in.
• Shut down: This completely powers off the computer. All applications and the operating system are closed, and the machine is turned off.
• Cold booting: This refers to starting a computer that is completely turned off. It involves powering up the system from an off state.

Explanation:

Changing Text Case in MS Word

Definition: In Microsoft Word, changing the case of selected text involves altering the capitalization of the letters in the text. This can be done quickly and easily using various methods, each suited to different user preferences and scenarios.

Correct Option Analysis:

The correct option is:

Option 1: Use the keyboard shortcut ‘Shift + F3’

This option correctly describes a quick and efficient method to change the case of selected text in MS Word. When you select a portion of text and press the ‘Shift + F3’ keyboard shortcut, it cycles through three different case options: all uppercase, all lowercase, and capitalizing the first letter of each word (also known as Title Case).

Detailed Explanation:

Using ‘Shift + F3’ is one of the most convenient ways to change text case in MS Word. Here is a step-by-step process:

1. Select the Text: Highlight the text you want to change the case of. This can be done by clicking and dragging your mouse over the text, or by using the keyboard shortcut ‘Ctrl + A’ to select all the text in the document.
2. Press ‘Shift + F3’: Hold down the ‘Shift’ key and press the ‘F3’ key. Each time you press this combination, the case of the selected text will change:

• First Press: Changes the text to all uppercase letters (e.g., "THIS IS AN EXAMPLE").
• Second Press: Changes the text to all lowercase letters (e.g., "this is an example").
• Third Press: Changes the text to Title Case, where the first letter of each word is capitalized (e.g., "This Is An Example").

This method is highly efficient because it allows users to quickly switch between different cases without navigating through menus or using the mouse, which can save time and increase productivity.

Additional Information

To further understand the analysis, let’s evaluate the other options:

Option 2: Right-click the selected text and choose ‘Font’

This option is not the quickest method for changing text case. Right-clicking the selected text and choosing ‘Font’ opens the Font dialog box, which allows you to change various font properties such as typeface, size, color, and effects, but it does not provide an option to change the text case directly. Therefore, this method is incorrect for the purpose of changing text case quickly.

Option 3: Change it manually by typing the text again

This option is the least efficient and is not practical for quickly changing text case. Manually retyping the text in the desired case is time-consuming and prone to errors, especially for larger sections of text. This method is not recommended when quicker and more efficient alternatives are available.

Option 4: Go to the ‘Home’ tab and click on ‘Change Case’

This option is a valid method for changing text case, but it is not as quick as using the keyboard shortcut ‘Shift + F3’. Here is how you would use this method:

1. Select the text you want to change.
2. Navigate to the ‘Home’ tab in the ribbon.
3. Click on the ‘Change Case’ button in the ‘Font’ group.
4. Choose from the available case options: Sentence case, lowercase, UPPERCASE, Capitalize Each Word, or tOGGLE cASE.

 

While this method is effective, it requires more steps and mouse clicks compared to the keyboard shortcut, making it slightly less efficient.

Conclusion:

Understanding the different methods for changing text case in MS Word is essential for choosing the most efficient approach based on the user's needs. The ‘Shift + F3’ keyboard shortcut is the quickest and most efficient method for changing the case of selected text, cycling through uppercase, lowercase, and Title Case with ease. While other methods such as using the ‘Change Case’ button in the ‘Home’ tab are also effective, they are not as quick and convenient as the keyboard shortcut. Manual retyping should be avoided due to its inefficiency and potential for errors.

The correct answer is Liquid Crystal Display.

Key Points

• LCD stands for Liquid Crystal Display, a technology used in displays for screens, including computer monitors, televisions, and instrument panels.
• It operates by using liquid crystals that align in different patterns when an electric current is applied, manipulating light to produce images.
• LCD technology is preferred for its ability to offer high-quality images with low power consumption, making it ideal for battery-operated devices.
• LCD screens are known for their thin profiles, which make them suitable for a wide range of applications, from smartphones to large television screens.

Additional Information

• Backlighting
• LCDs often use LED backlighting, which provides illumination behind the screen, enhancing visibility and color accuracy.
• This backlighting can be edge-lit or direct-lit, affecting the display's brightness and uniformity.
• Types of LCD Panels
• There are various types of LCD panels, including TN (Twisted Nematic), IPS (In-Plane Switching), and VA (Vertical Alignment), each offering different advantages in terms of viewing angles, color reproduction, and response times.
• Applications
• LCD technology is widely used in devices such as digital watches, calculators, laptops, televisions, and smartphones.
• It is also used in applications where space is limited, such as in aircraft cockpit displays and medical equipment.
• Energy Efficiency
• LCDs are more energy-efficient compared to older CRT displays, making them a preferred choice for modern electronics.

The correct answer is Ctrl + M

Key Points

• The keyboard shortcut for inserting a new slide in MS-PowerPoint is Ctrl + M.
• Using keyboard shortcuts can enhance productivity and efficiency while working on presentations.
• MS-PowerPoint provides various keyboard shortcuts for different functions, which can be customized if needed.
• Remembering common shortcuts like Ctrl + M for new slides can save time during the creation process.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + X is used for cutting the selected content.
• Ctrl + S is used for saving the current presentation.
• Ctrl + N is used for creating a new presentation.
• Keyboard shortcuts are designed to streamline tasks and minimize the use of a mouse for frequent actions.
• Learning and utilizing shortcuts can significantly improve workflow efficiency in MS-PowerPoint and other software applications.

The correct answer is Formatting.

Key Points

• Formatting is the process of preparing a data storage device such as a hard drive, solid-state drive, or USB flash drive for initial use.
• During the formatting process, the disk is divided into tracks and sectors.
• Tracks are concentric circles on the disk's surface, while sectors are pie-shaped wedges that divide each track into smaller segments.
• Formatting can be low-level (physical) formatting, which sets up the tracks and sectors, or high-level (logical) formatting, which creates the file system structure.

Additional Information

• File System:
• A file system is a method and data structure that an operating system uses to control how data is stored and retrieved.
• Common file systems include NTFS, FAT32, and exFAT for Windows, and ext4 for Linux.
• Partition:
• A partition is a logical division of a hard drive, allowing one physical disk to be divided into multiple sections that can be managed separately.
• Each partition can be formatted with a different file system.
• Low-Level Formatting:
• Also known as physical formatting, this process creates the physical structure of the disk by setting up tracks and sectors.
• It is usually performed at the factory before the disk is sold.
• High-Level Formatting:
• Also known as logical formatting, this process creates the file system structure, allowing the operating system to manage files and directories.
• This is the type of formatting most users perform when preparing a disk for use.

The correct answer is C and D only.

Key Points

• A joystick is an input device that controls video games or computer graphics, not a storage device.
• A plotter is not a storage device; it is an output device used for printing high-quality graphics, such as engineering drawings and architectural plans.
• Storage devices are used to store data, such as hard drives, compact discs, and memory sticks.
• Hard drives and memory sticks are primary storage devices, while compact discs are secondary storage media.
• Plotters are used for printing vector graphics and are not storage devices.

Additional Information

• Storage Devices:
• Storage devices are hardware used to record and retrieve digital information.
• Primary storage devices include RAM and ROM, which are essential for the computer's operation.
• Secondary storage devices include hard drives, SSDs, CDs, and USB drives, which store data long-term.
• Input Devices:
• Input devices allow users to interact with and input data into computers.
• Examples include keyboards, mice, scanners, and joysticks.
• Plotters:
• Plotters are output devices used for printing vector graphics and large-scale designs.
• They are commonly used in engineering and architectural applications.
• Data Storage:
• Data storage refers to the use of recording media to retain digital data.
• Efficient data storage solutions are critical for data management and retrieval.

The correct answer is option 3.

Concept:

The Home Tab contains the most commonly used document controls; actions in the Home Tab can change the font and size of the text, paragraph, and line spacing, copy and paste, and change the organizational structure of the document. The Home Tab is grouped into four distinct areas: Clipboard, Font, Paragraph, and Styles.

Home Tab contains:

<br>

Explanation:

The Paste does not belong to the editing group of the Home tab in MS Word 2016.

Hence the correct answer is Paste.

The Correct Answer is Outline view.

Key Points

• Outline view is the best view for getting your thoughts for an MS-PowerPoint presentation out on the computer.
• Another type of view we can use in PowerPoint is the Outline View.
• In the presentation, it shows us only the text so that we can focus on concepts and words rather than colour, images, backgrounds, etc.
• When you want to study how your presentation flows, it is very useful. It enables you to focus solely on the words and not think about how the presentation looks.
• This view and others are covered in our PowerPoint course introduction.
• The Outline view is part of Normal view. It's the most prevalent view used. So with your presentation open, there is an outline panel on the left of the screen to turn to the outline view.
• The outline view shows us the text in its basic form in the presentation, so that we can focus on the presentation's concepts, structure and logical order.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The Deputy CM’s message reiterates that "Development with Justice" is Bihar’s core development model, integrating gender, rural, agricultural, and child development into one inclusive strategy.

The correct answer is Borrowing practice:

Key Points

• Small scale industry → SSI uses labour-intensive techniques. Hence, it provides employment opportunities to a large number of people. Thus, it reduces the unemployment problem to a great extent.
• Livestock rearing → livestock plays an important role in the economy of farmers. The farmers in India maintain a mixed farming system i.e. a combination of crop and livestock where the output of one enterprise becomes the input of another enterprise thereby realising the resource efficiency.
• The livestock serves the farmers in different ways such as the source of Income, Employment Food, Social security, Draft, Dung and etc.
• The Realization of good equipment will help rural people to use their resources efficiently.
• But Borrowing Practice will slow down the progress of rural economy.

The correct answer is Bihar.

In News

• The Government of Bihar launched the Jal-Jeevan-Hariyali Mission (JJHM) on October 2, 2019, under the leadership of Chief Minister Nitish Kumar.

Key Points

• The Jal-Jeevan-Hariyali Mission (JJHM) is a flagship initiative focusing on water conservation, afforestation, and sustainable agricultural practices in Bihar.
• The mission has led to the creation of over 64,000 new water bodies and restoration of nearly 73,000 traditional reservoirs in the state.
• It aims to improve groundwater levels, increase green cover, and provide rural employment, particularly through schemes like MGNREGA.
• Bihar’s Chief Minister Nitish Kumar initiated this mission to combat ecological challenges and promote environmental sustainability.

Additional Information

• Jal-Jeevan-Hariyali Mission (JJHM)
• Launched in 2019 by the Government of Bihar under Chief Minister Nitish Kumar's leadership.
• Focuses on ecological preservation through water conservation, afforestation, and promoting sustainable farming practices.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
• Directly supports SDG 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation), SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), and SDG 13 (Climate Action).
• Promotes water security, environmental sustainability, and climate resilience in Bihar.

Correct Answer: Ranchi

Rationale:

• The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), also known as Ayushman Bharat, was officially launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi, in Ranchi, Jharkhand, on 23rd September 2018. This flagship scheme of the Indian government aims to provide health coverage to economically weaker sections of society, ensuring that no individual is denied access to quality healthcare due to financial constraints.
• Ranchi was chosen for the launch because Jharkhand has a significant population belonging to economically weaker sections, making it a symbolic and impactful location to announce a health initiative that aims to empower the underprivileged.

Key Points about PM-JAY:

• PM-JAY is the world’s largest government-funded health insurance scheme, covering over 10 crore families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) in India.
• Each eligible family is entitled to health insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakhs per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalizations.
• The scheme covers a wide range of services, including pre-hospitalization, post-hospitalization, and even day-care treatments.
• Beneficiaries are identified based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data, ensuring that the scheme targets the most vulnerable populations.
• Cashless and paperless access to healthcare services is provided through an extensive network of empaneled hospitals.

Explanation of Other Options:

Trivandrum

• Rationale: Trivandrum (now Thiruvananthapuram), the capital of Kerala, was not the location where PM-JAY was launched. Although Kerala is known for its robust healthcare system, the scheme was inaugurated in Ranchi to emphasize its focus on economically weaker regions.

Bhubaneswar

• Rationale: Bhubaneswar, the capital of Odisha, is another prominent city in eastern India. However, it was not chosen for the launch of PM-JAY. Odisha, despite having a high tribal population, has its own health schemes and was not the inaugural site for PM-JAY.

New Delhi

• Rationale: New Delhi, being the capital of India, is often the venue for major policy announcements. However, PM-JAY was launched in Ranchi to signify its grassroots focus and to reach out to rural and underprivileged populations directly.

Conclusion:

• The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana is a transformative step in making healthcare accessible and affordable for millions of Indians. Ranchi was chosen as the launch site to highlight the government’s commitment to addressing the healthcare needs of underserved regions and populations. The other options listed, while significant cities, do not hold historical relevance to the launch of this landmark scheme.

The correct answer is All of the above.

• Through this scheme, the Bihar government aims to provide quality Higher education, Skill-based education, Technical education, etc. to encourage youth participation towards the economic and social development of the state.

Important Points

       Through this scheme, the following institutions are sought to be established:-

• One GNM School in every district.
• One Para Medical institute in every district.
• One Polytechnic institute in every district.
• One Women industrial training institute in every district.
• One Engineering College in every district.
• One Nursing college in all medical college in every district.
• One ANM school in every sub-division.
• One Government Industrial training institute in every sub-division.
• Five more new Medical Colleges in the state.

The Correct answer is Local government at the village level.

Key Points

• The Village Panchayat is the grassroots-level institution of the Panchayati Raj system in India.
• It is a part of the three-tier system of rural local governance which includes the Village Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• The Village Panchayat is responsible for the administration and development of rural areas.
• This system of governance was established under the provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• The head of the Village Panchayat is known as the Sarpanch, who is elected by the members of the Gram Sabha.
• The Village Panchayat performs various functions such as sanitation, water supply, rural development, primary education, and infrastructure development.
• It operates under the framework provided by the State Panchayati Raj Acts, with some variations across different states of India.
• The financial resources of the Village Panchayat include grants from the state government, local taxes, and other sources.

Additional Information

• A district-level administrative body
• This refers to the Zila Parishad, which operates at the district level.
• The Zila Parishad supervises and coordinates the activities of the Village Panchayats and Panchayat Samitis within its jurisdiction.
• It is responsible for planning and development at the district level.
• A block-level committee
• This refers to the Panchayat Samiti, which operates at the block level.
• It serves as a link between the Village Panchayat and the Zila Parishad.
• The Panchayat Samiti is responsible for implementing developmental programs at the block level.
• An urban municipal corporation
• This refers to an administrative body that governs urban areas, not rural areas.
• Urban municipal corporations are responsible for managing urban infrastructure, sanitation, waste management, and public services.
• They do not fall under the Panchayati Raj system, which is specific to rural governance.

The correct answer is Panchayat Samiti.

Key Points

• The Panchayati Raj system in India is a three-tier structure consisting of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level.
• The Panchayat Samiti does not operate at the village level. It functions at the block level, acting as an intermediary body between the Gram Panchayat and the Zila Parishad.
• The components of the Panchayati Raj system at the village level include the Gram Sabha, Gram Panchayat, and Nyaya Panchayat.
• The Gram Sabha is the general assembly of all the registered voters in a village, while the Gram Panchayat is the executive body responsible for governance and development activities.
• The Nyaya Panchayat, where established, handles minor disputes and judicial matters at the village level.

Additional Information

• Gram Sabha:
• The Gram Sabha is the foundational body of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all the registered voters in a village.
• It plays a key role in decision-making, approving budgets, and monitoring the functioning of the Gram Panchayat.
• Gram Panchayat:
• The Gram Panchayat is the executive body of the village-level Panchayati Raj system.
• It is responsible for implementing development programs, maintaining public infrastructure, and ensuring welfare schemes reach the beneficiaries.
• Nyaya Panchayat:
• Nyaya Panchayats are quasi-judicial bodies established at the village level in some states to handle minor civil and criminal disputes.
• They aim to provide accessible and speedy justice to rural citizens without the need for formal legal proceedings.
• Panchayat Samiti:
• The Panchayat Samiti operates at the block level, coordinating and supervising the activities of the Gram Panchayats under its jurisdiction.
• It is responsible for planning and implementing development programs at the block level.
• Zila Parishad:
• The Zila Parishad is the apex body of the Panchayati Raj system, functioning at the district level.
• It coordinates development activities and provides administrative support to the Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats.

The correct answer is the Societies Registration Act, 1860.

• The Government of Bihar has constituted The Bihar Vikas Mission, registered under the provisions of Societies Registration Act, 1860 to ensure the implementation in mission mode, fixation of priorities, monitoring of achievements of 7 Nishchay which are formulated by the Bihar government under Bihar Vikas Mission for the overall development of the state.

Additional Information

The Sub-Missions for the implementation of 7 Nishchay which are formulated by the Bihar government under Bihar Vikas Mission includes the following :

1. Youth Sub-Mission.
2. Drinking-Water, Sanitation, Rural and Urban Development Sub-Mission.
3. Human Development Sub-Mission.
4. Agriculture Sub-Mission.
5. Industry and Business Sub-Mission’.
6. Infrastructure Sub-Mission.
7. Lok Samvad and Brand Bihar Sub-Mission.

The correct answer is Jeevika Health Insurance Scheme.

Key Points

• The Jeevika Health Insurance Scheme is an initiative by the Bihar government aimed at providing health insurance coverage to rural households.
• It primarily focuses on families associated with self-help groups (SHGs) under the Jeevika program.
• The scheme offers financial assistance for healthcare expenses, ensuring access to quality medical services for economically weaker sections.
• It is part of the Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society (BRLPS) initiative, which aims to reduce healthcare-related financial burdens on rural communities.
• This scheme is an important step towards improving healthcare accessibility in rural Bihar, aligning with state-level efforts to support marginalized populations.

Additional Information

• Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society (BRLPS):
• BRLPS is an autonomous body under the Bihar government, implementing the Jeevika program to promote sustainable livelihoods.
• It works to empower rural communities through self-help groups and various socio-economic initiatives.
• The Jeevika Health Insurance Scheme is one of its key healthcare-focused efforts.
• Self-Help Groups (SHGs):
• SHGs are small voluntary associations of people, often women, formed to address economic and social challenges collectively.
• Under the Jeevika program, SHGs play a critical role in accessing health insurance benefits for their members.
• Health Insurance in India:
• Health insurance schemes like Ayushman Bharat aim to provide financial protection against medical expenses.
• State-level schemes, such as Jeevika, complement national programs by addressing specific local needs.
• Challenges in Rural Healthcare:
• Lack of access to quality medical facilities and financial barriers are key challenges in rural India.
• Schemes like Jeevika address these issues by reducing the economic burden and improving healthcare accessibility.

The correct answer is Toggenburg.

Explanation:

• Exotic breeds are breeds that are non-native to India and are imported from foreign countries.
• Toggenburg, Saanen, Alpine, Angora and Boer are exotic goat breeds.
• These exotic breeds are noted for their high milk yield and these breeds are imported to India to upgrade our non-descript goat breeds and improve milk yield.
• Toggenburg is the oldest known dairy goat breed imported from the Toggenburg valley of Switzerland.

 

Additional Information Based upon geography and ecology of the region, native goat breeds are classified under Himalayan region, Northern and North-western region, Southern region, Eastern region, and Central region. 

The correct answer is AMRUT.

Key Points

• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched in June 2015 by the Government of India to improve urban infrastructure.
• The mission focuses on providing basic services such as water supply, sewerage, urban transport, and green spaces to improve urban living standards.
• AMRUT follows a decentralized approach, empowering states and urban local bodies (ULBs) to plan and execute projects.
• The scheme aims to ensure universal coverage of water supply and sewerage services in all urban areas.
• Under AMRUT 2.0, launched in October 2021, the focus expanded to achieving water sustainability and promoting circular economy practices in urban areas.

Additional Information

• Smart Cities Mission
• Launched in 2015, this mission focuses on creating 100 smart cities across India by improving urban infrastructure and integrating technology.
• It aims at promoting sustainable and inclusive cities that provide core infrastructure and quality of life to its citizens.
• Key focus areas include smart mobility, smart governance, and smart energy.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)
• Launched in 2015, this scheme focuses on providing affordable housing to urban poor by 2022.
• It includes the Credit-Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) for home loans and in-situ slum redevelopment projects.
• The scheme addresses housing shortages for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Low Income Groups (LIG), and Middle Income Groups (MIG).
• RURBAN Mission
• Also known as the Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission, it was launched in 2016 to develop rural areas by providing urban amenities.
• The mission aims to create rurban clusters by combining urban infrastructure with rural characteristics to promote balanced regional development.
• MGNREGA
• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) focuses on providing employment opportunities in rural areas.
• It guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households annually.

The Correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) was launched on 25th June 2015 by the Government of India.
• It is a flagship mission aimed at providing housing for all by the year 2022, with a focus on the economically weaker sections (EWS), low-income groups (LIG), and middle-income groups (MIG).
• PMAY consists of two components: PMAY-Urban (PMAY-U) and PMAY-Gramin (PMAY-G), addressing housing needs in urban and rural areas respectively.
• The mission is implemented under four verticals: In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR), Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS), Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP), and Beneficiary-led Construction (BLC).
• Under the Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS), interest subsidies are provided on housing loans for eligible beneficiaries.
• The scheme also promotes the use of sustainable and eco-friendly construction technologies.
• PMAY supports the vision of the Housing for All initiative, aligning with the goals of inclusive growth and urban development.
• It has helped millions of families across India to achieve their dream of owning a home, especially those belonging to vulnerable sections of society.

 Additional Information

• 2018
• 2018 was not the year of the launch of PMAY, but during this year, several milestones were achieved under the scheme, including increased housing allocations and implementation advancements.
• 2014
• While 2014 marked the beginning of several new initiatives under the leadership of the Narendra Modi government, PMAY was officially launched in 2015.
• 2022
• 2022 was the target year for achieving the Housing for All goal under PMAY, but it was not the year of the scheme's launch.

The correct answer is The deliberative assembly of all eligible village residents.

Key Points

• Gram Sabha refers to the assembly of all eligible voters in a village-level administrative unit within the Panchayati Raj system in India.
• It serves as a primary democratic institution, where decisions regarding village development, welfare activities, and local governance are deliberated upon.
• The Gram Sabha is responsible for approving the annual budget and development plans prepared by the Gram Panchayat.
• It ensures transparency and accountability in the functioning of the Gram Panchayat by allowing villagers to question and scrutinize its activities.
• As per Article 243A of the Indian Constitution, every Gram Sabha is a statutory body functioning at the village level.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj System:
• It is a decentralized form of governance in India, introduced through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
• It consists of three tiers: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
• The system aims to empower rural areas and ensure participatory democracy.
• Article 243:
• Articles 243 to 243-O in the Indian Constitution deal with the Panchayati Raj institutions.
• These articles provide the framework for the composition, powers, and functions of Panchayati Raj bodies.
• Role of Gram Sabha:
• It acts as a watchdog over the Gram Panchayat, ensuring transparency and accountability.
• The Gram Sabha can approve or reject plans, schemes, and budgets proposed by the Gram Panchayat.
• It provides a platform for villagers to voice their concerns and actively participate in governance.
• Importance of Gram Sabha:
• Promotes direct democracy at the grassroots level.
• Encourages participation from marginalized and underprivileged sections of society.
• Acts as a medium for collective decision-making on local issues.

The correct answer is 1400.

Key Points

• The maximum score for project design evaluation in the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) application form process is 1400 points.
• This evaluation score is used to assess the quality and feasibility of the project proposals submitted by implementing partners.
• The scoring system ensures that only well-structured and impactful projects are approved for implementation under the scheme.
• DDU-GKY focuses on skill development and aims to improve employability among rural youth, particularly those from disadvantaged sections of society.
• The project evaluation process plays a critical role in ensuring transparency and the selection of high-quality projects.

Additional Information

• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)
• Launched on September 25, 2014, under the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
• Aims to transform rural poor youth into an economically independent and globally relevant workforce.
• Targets youth between the ages of 15 and 35 years from rural areas, with special focus on marginalized communities like SCs, STs, and minorities.
• DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) and is aligned with the 'Skill India' mission.
• Project Design Evaluation Criteria
• Evaluation is based on several parameters including training plan, post-placement support, and infrastructure readiness.
• Projects that score higher are considered better prepared to deliver quality outcomes for beneficiaries.
• Skill Development in Rural India
• India has a significant rural population, and skill development initiatives like DDU-GKY are crucial for reducing unemployment and poverty.
• Programs focus on industry-relevant skills to ensure better job opportunities.
• Funding and Implementation
• DDU-GKY is funded jointly by the central and state governments.
• Implemented through Project Implementing Agencies (PIAs) that submit proposals for approval.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched on 28th August 2014 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• The scheme aims to provide universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic bank account for every household.
• Under PMJDY, accounts are opened with zero balance, and account holders receive a RuPay debit card.
• The scheme also offers accident insurance coverage of Rs. 1 lakh and life insurance coverage of Rs. 30,000 for eligible beneficiaries.
• PMJDY is recognized as one of the world’s largest financial inclusion initiatives, helping millions of people integrate into the formal banking system.

Additional Information

• Financial Inclusion:
• Financial inclusion refers to the availability and accessibility of financial services to all individuals, particularly those in underserved areas.
• The PMJDY scheme plays a crucial role in promoting financial inclusion in India.
• It helps reduce dependency on informal and exploitative credit sources, enabling better financial planning for low-income households.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT):
• PMJDY accounts are extensively used for Direct Benefit Transfers, ensuring subsidies and welfare benefits directly reach beneficiaries.
• This mechanism minimizes leakages and ensures transparency in government schemes.
• RuPay Debit Card:
• Account holders under PMJDY receive a RuPay debit card, which enables cashless transactions and access to ATMs.
• RuPay is India's indigenous card payment network.
• Overdraft Facility:
• Beneficiaries of PMJDY accounts can avail of an overdraft facility of up to Rs. 10,000 after six months of satisfactory account operation.
• This feature provides additional financial flexibility to account holders.

The correct answer is 34.

Important Points One year to seven years old Camel has 34 teeth. A full-mouth camel has 12 molars, 10 premolars, 2 wolfs, 2 canines, and 8 incisors. 

• Incisors     = 2/6 (Upper jaw/Lower jaw)
• Canines    = 1/1
• Wolf          = 1/1
• Premolars = 6/4
• Molars       = 6/6
• Total teeth in upper jaw / Total teeth in lower jaw = 16/18

The correct answer is Ranikhet.

 Key Points

• Ranikhet is a transmissible viral disease that affects the nervous, respiratory, and digestive systems of poultries.
• As it was first found in Newcastle upon Tyne District of England, it was named as New Castle Disease.
• It is also called Doyle's disease.
• It is highly fatal and zoonotic in nature.

 

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Sahiwal.

Key Points

• Sahiwal is a cattle breed and is considered one of the best milch cattle breeds in India.
• Originated in the Montogomery region of undivided India.
• It is the most promising breed that produces the highest and sweetest milk.

Additional Information

• This breed is otherwise known as Lola (loose skin), Lambi Bar, Montgomery, Multani, and Teli.
• The color is reddish dun or pale red, sometimes flashed with white patches.
• The average milk yield of this breed is between 2,725 and 3,175 kgs in a lactation period of 300 days.

        

    ​

                Sahiwal breed

The correct answer is Providing road connectivity to unconnected villages.

Key Points

• Road connectivity to unconnected villages is a crucial part of rural development initiatives under schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY).
• PMGSY was launched in 2000 to provide all-weather road access to rural areas, aiming to boost economic activities and improve access to education, healthcare, and markets.
• The scheme specifically targets villages with a population of 500 or more in plain areas and 250 or more in hill states, tribal areas, and deserts.
• Improved road connectivity helps in reducing isolation, facilitating faster transportation of goods, and enabling better access to government services.
• As per reports from the Ministry of Rural Development, PMGSY has connected over 97% of eligible habitations by 2023.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
• Launched by the Ministry of Rural Development to improve rural road connectivity.
• Funded jointly by the central and state governments.
• Focuses on building roads with all-weather standards.
• Involves advanced technologies like GIS mapping to monitor progress.
• Rural Development Programmes
• Aimed at improving living standards in villages through infrastructure, education, healthcare, and employment generation.
• Key initiatives include MNREGA, PMGSY, and NRLM (National Rural Livelihood Mission).
• Impact of Road Connectivity
• Enhances access to markets, leading to better income for farmers and artisans.
• Improves healthcare accessibility during emergencies.
• Facilitates education by reducing travel time for students.
• Challenges in Implementation
• Geographical barriers in hilly or forested areas.
• Delays due to lack of funds or coordination between agencies.
• Maintenance issues post-construction.

The correct answer is Gram Panchayat.

Key Points

• The Gram Panchayat is the grassroots-level body in the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India.
• It is directly elected by the people of the village, forming the first tier of the Panchayati Raj system.
• The Gram Panchayat is responsible for local governance and development activities in villages.
• Its members are elected for a term of five years by the eligible voters in the village.
• The head of the Gram Panchayat is called the Sarpanch, who is also elected by the villagers.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj System in India:
• The Panchayati Raj system is a decentralized form of governance in which gram panchayats are the basic units of administration.
• It was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• The system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• Roles and Responsibilities of Gram Panchayat:
• Implementation of development programs such as rural housing, sanitation, and drinking water supply.
• Maintenance of public assets like roads, schools, and community centers.
• Promotion of literacy, health, and awareness programs in rural areas.
• Funding of Gram Panchayats:
• Funds are provided through grants from the central and state governments, revenue generated locally, and other sources.
• The Finance Commission recommends financial allocations to Panchayati Raj institutions.
• Importance of Grassroots Governance:
• It ensures that governance is inclusive and caters to the specific needs of rural populations.
• It encourages local participation in decision-making and promotes accountability.