Bihar Jeevika (Area Coordinator) : (01 Dec 2025) MBT (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Gaganyaan Program.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is a part of ISRO's Gaganyaan Programme, which is India's human spaceflight mission to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• The Gaganyaan Programme was approved in December 2018 and aims to launch human spaceflight missions, laying the foundation for further space exploration.
• The development of BAS is a key component of the Gaganyaan Programme, extending its scope to include long-duration human space missions and the establishment of India's own space station.
• The first module of BAS is expected to be launched by December 2028, with an operational space station by 2035.

Important Points

• Chandrayaan Mission: Focused on lunar exploration, Chandrayaan is unrelated to the development of BAS.
• Mangalyaan Mission: Also known as the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), Mangalyaan is aimed at Mars exploration, not related to BAS.
• Aditya-L1 Mission: This mission is focused on studying the Sun and is not linked to the BAS development.

Additional Information

• Gaganyaan Programme: ISRO's human spaceflight initiative, aiming to develop critical technologies for space exploration and set the stage for future missions beyond Earth orbit.
• Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS): India's first space station, aimed at microgravity-based scientific research and technology development.

The correct answer is April 5.

In News

• The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) celebrated the 62nd National Maritime Day on April 5, 2025, with central events held in New Delhi.

Key Points

• National Maritime Day is observed annually on April 5 to commemorate the first Indian merchant ship, S.S. Loyalty, which sailed from Mumbai to London in 1919.
• The 2025 celebration marked the 62nd edition of National Maritime Day.
• The theme for 2025 was “Prosperous Seas – Developed India and Youth for Blue Economy and Green Growth.”
• Union Minister Shri Sarbananda Sonowal addressed the event in New Delhi and interacted with maritime cadets and professionals.

Additional Information

• S.S. Loyalty
• First Indian-owned steamship to sail internationally.
• Operated by Scindia Steam Navigation Company Ltd.
• Sailed from Mumbai to London on April 5, 1919.
• National Maritime Day
• First celebrated in 1964 to honor India’s maritime legacy.
• Recognizes the contribution of seafarers and maritime stakeholders to national growth.
• 2025 Celebrations
• Organized by the National Maritime Day Celebration Committee (NMDCC) and MoPSW.
• Events included cultural activities, awards, sports, and seminars across India’s maritime institutions.

The correct answer is National Human Rights Commission.

Key Points

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body, established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• It is not a constitutional body as it is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
• The NHRC's primary role is to promote and protect human rights, focusing on rights guaranteed by the Constitution and international conventions.
• Constitutional bodies are those established directly by the Constitution of India, such as the Election Commission, Finance Commission, etc.
• Other examples of statutory bodies in India include the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Central Information Commission (CIC).

Additional Information

• Constitutional Bodies:
• These are bodies explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India.
• Examples include the Election Commission of India, Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), and Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• Such bodies derive their powers and functions directly from the Constitution.
• Statutory Bodies:
• Statutory bodies are created by an Act of Parliament or a state legislature.
• These include NHRC, National Commission for Women (NCW), and the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
• They are not mentioned in the Constitution but derive their authority from specific laws.
• National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
• NHRC was established on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• Its main objectives include investigating complaints related to human rights violations and recommending corrective measures.
• The NHRC is headquartered in New Delhi, India.
• Election Commission of India:
• It is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Election Commission conducts free and fair elections in India.
• It is an autonomous body, independent from the influence of the executive or legislature.

The correct answer is Thyroxin hormone.

Key Points

• Thyroxin hormone is crucial for regulating the body’s metabolic processes, including carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism.
• Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin, and its deficiency can lead to thyroid-related disorders.
• The thyroid gland absorbs iodine from the bloodstream to produce thyroxin.
• Thyroxin, also known as T4, plays a critical role in growth, development, and metabolic activities.
• A balanced level of thyroxin is necessary for maintaining overall health and homeostasis.

Additional Information

• Thyroid Gland
• The thyroid gland is located in the neck and is responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism.
• It produces two primary hormones: thyroxin (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
• The secretion of thyroid hormones is regulated by the Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) produced by the pituitary gland.
• Iodine
• Iodine is a trace element that is crucial for the synthesis of thyroid hormones.
• It is commonly obtained from dietary sources such as iodized salt, seafood, and dairy products.
• Iodine deficiency can lead to goiter and hypothyroidism.
• Metabolism
• Metabolism refers to the chemical processes that occur within a living organism to maintain life.
• It includes catabolic processes that break down molecules to produce energy and anabolic processes that build up molecules.
• Thyroid hormones play a pivotal role in regulating basal metabolic rate (BMR).
• Hypothyroidism and Hyperthyroidism
• Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression.
• Hyperthyroidism is the overproduction of thyroid hormones, resulting in symptoms like weight loss, rapid heartbeat, and anxiety.
• Both conditions require medical intervention to restore hormonal balance.

The correct answer is Sir Muhammad Iqbal.

Key Points

• Sir Muhammad Iqbal, a renowned philosopher, poet, and politician in British India, is known for his influential role in the creation of Pakistan.
• In his famous Allahabad Address in 1930, Iqbal proposed the idea of a separate Muslim state in the northwest of India, which laid the foundation for Pakistan.
• Iqbal's vision was for a federated state with autonomous Muslim-majority regions, ensuring the protection of Muslim identity and interests.
• This address became a significant milestone in the history of the Indian subcontinent, leading to the eventual establishment of Pakistan in 1947.

Additional Information

• Allahabad Address (1930)
• The speech was delivered at the annual session of the All India Muslim League.
• Iqbal articulated the need for a separate Muslim state, emphasizing cultural and religious differences between Muslims and Hindus.
• This address is often regarded as the conceptual foundation for the creation of Pakistan.
• Two-Nation Theory
• The idea that Muslims and Hindus are two distinct nations, with their own customs, religion, and traditions, and therefore, should have separate homelands.
• Iqbal's vision in the Allahabad Address was a precursor to the Two-Nation Theory.
• Sir Muhammad Iqbal's Contributions
• Iqbal is also celebrated for his literary works, including Persian and Urdu poetry that inspire Muslim identity and pride.
• He is regarded as Mufakkir-e-Pakistan (The Thinker of Pakistan) and Shair-e-Mashriq (The Poet of the East).
• Formation of Pakistan
• Following Iqbal's vision, the demand for a separate Muslim state gained momentum, leading to the Lahore Resolution in 1940.
• Pakistan was eventually established on August 14, 1947, as a separate nation for Muslims of the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is 531

In News

• India’s three new criminal laws — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam — take effect today (July 1).
• Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita has 531 sections (in place of 484 sections of CrPC). A total of 177 provisions have been changed in the Sanhita and nine new sections as well as 39 new sub-sections have been added to it. The act has added 44 new provisions and clarifications.

Key Points

• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS):
• Purpose: Official criminal code of the Republic of India.
• Effective Date: Came into effect on 1 July 2024.
• Legislative Background: Passed by the Parliament in December 2023.
• Replaced Legislation: Replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which was established during British India.
• Structure:
• Comprises 20 chapters and 358 sections.
• Structure is similar to the IPC.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS):
• Purpose: Main legislation for the procedure of administering substantive criminal law in India.
• Key Provisions:
• Bail and Plea Bargaining: Makes it more difficult for the accused to secure bail and limits the scope for plea bargaining.
• Digital Devices: Empowers police officers to compel an accused to produce their digital devices for investigation purposes.
• Property Seizure: Allows police the discretion to seize and attach the property of an accused before a trial.
• Preliminary Inquiry: Mandates a preliminary inquiry by the police before lodging an FIR for every cognisable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023:
• Purpose: Acts as the Indian Evidence Act.
• Legislative Changes:
• Consists of 170 sections compared to 167 sections in the previous Indian Evidence Act.
• Modifications: 23 sections have been modified, five sections removed, and one new section added.

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.

Key Points

• Lala Lajpat Rai was an eminent freedom fighter, popularly known as the "Punjab Kesari" or the "Lion of Punjab."
• He started the English weekly newspaper 'Young India' to advocate for Indian self-rule and independence.
• The publication of 'Young India' aimed to raise awareness of colonial injustices and inspire Indians to fight for their rights.
• Lala Lajpat Rai also established the Servants of the People Society in 1921 to further the cause of Indian independence and social reform.
• He played a key role in the Swadeshi movement and was an active member of the Indian National Congress.

Additional Information

• Lala Lajpat Rai's Contributions:
• He was one of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, along with Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal, who were influential leaders of India's independence movement.
• He actively opposed the Simon Commission in 1928, during which he suffered injuries in a police lathi charge that eventually led to his death.
• Lala Lajpat Rai wrote several books, including 'Unhappy India' and 'The Story of My Deportation.'
• He was an advocate of education and played a significant role in establishing institutions like the Punjab National Bank and DAV College.
• Young India:
• 'Young India' was an influential publication during India's struggle for freedom, addressing issues of social reform and self-governance.
• This weekly inspired many Indians to join the freedom struggle and oppose British colonial policies.
• Role in Indian National Congress:
• Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress and actively participated in its sessions to demand Swaraj (self-rule).
• He was associated with the extremist faction of the Congress, which sought more radical measures for independence.
• Legacy:
• Lala Lajpat Rai's martyrdom inspired many revolutionaries, including Bhagat Singh, to intensify the fight against British rule.
• Several institutions, roads, and public spaces in India are named in his honor to commemorate his contributions to the nation.

The correct answer is Panipat III.

Key Points

• The Third Battle of Panipat was fought on January 14, 1761, between the Maratha Empire and the Durrani Empire (Afghan forces led by Ahmad Shah Abdali).
• This battle is considered one of the largest and bloodiest fought in the 18th century, involving over 125,000 soldiers.
• The Marathas were led by their commander-in-chief, Sadashivrao Bhau, while the Afghan forces were commanded by Ahmad Shah Abdali.
• The battle resulted in a decisive victory for the Durrani Empire, marking the end of Maratha expansion in North India.

Additional Information

• Causes of the Battle:
• The Marathas aimed to expand their influence in Northern India, which led to conflicts with regional powers including the Durrani Empire.
• The battle was also a result of the declining Mughal Empire, which left a power vacuum in the region.
• Key Figures:
• Ahmad Shah Abdali, also known as Ahmad Shah Durrani, was the founder of the Durrani Empire and one of the most successful military leaders of his time.
• Sadashivrao Bhau, the Maratha commander-in-chief, was the nephew of the Peshwa and a capable military leader.
• Consequences:
• The defeat at Panipat weakened the Maratha Empire significantly, leading to internal strife and a temporary setback in their quest for dominance.
• The battle also paved the way for the eventual rise of British power in India as the Marathas were one of the main obstacles to their expansion.
• Historical Significance:
• The Third Battle of Panipat is remembered for its high casualties and the significant impact it had on the Indian subcontinent's political landscape.
• It is often studied as a key example of the complex interplay of regional powers during the 18th century in India.

The correct answer is Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas

In News

• The theme for Republic Day Parade 2025 tableaux is 'Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas', focusing on heritage and development.

Key Points

• 15 states and Union Territories (UTs) selected to showcase their tableaux include Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chandigarh, Dadra Nagar Haveli & Daman and Diu, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal.
• 11 Union ministries and departments will also present their tableaux at the Kartavya Path in New Delhi on January 26, 2025.
• The Expert Committee shortlists tableaux ideas based on creative criteria due to the limited time allotted in the parade.
• States/UTs not selected for the parade can display their tableaux during Bharat Parv at Red Fort from January 26 to 31.
• Tableaux are a key feature of the Republic Day Parade, celebrating India's cultural heritage and developmental milestones.

The correct answer is A high-performance explosive.

Key Points

• SEBEX 2 is a newly developed high-performance explosive by India.
• It is 2.01 times more lethal than standard TNT (Trinitrotoluene).
• Certified by the Indian Navy after rigorous testing.
• SEBEX 2 aims to revolutionize bombs, artillery shells, and warheads.
• It has been developed by M/s Economic Explosives Limited (EEL), Nagpur.​

Important Points

• SEBEX 2 is considered one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives in the world.
• The development is part of the Make in India initiative, emphasizing self-reliance in defense.
• It uses a composition based on high-melting explosive (HMX).
• A variant with 2.3 times the explosive power of TNT is also in development.

The correct answer is Nagpur

In News

• Nitin Gadkari, Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways, inaugurated India's first bio-bitumen-based National Highway stretch on NH-44 in Mansar, Nagpur, Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The highway stretch was developed using lignin-based bio-bitumen technology by Praj Industries, in collaboration with CSIR - Central Road Research Institute (CRRI), National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), and Oriental.
• The use of lignin, a sustainable binder, is a breakthrough in flexible pavement technology, helping address bitumen scarcity and reducing dependency on imports, which currently constitutes 50% of the total bitumen supply in India.
• This development contributes to global sustainability goals, generating revenue for bio-refineries, mitigating stubble burning, and reducing greenhouse gas emissions by at least 70% compared to fossil-based bitumen.
• The initiative also leverages India's abundant lignocellulosic biomass, supporting the country's vision for sustainable industrial growth.
• Gadkari emphasized that promoting green technologies and fostering industrial sustainability aligns with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
• The innovation supports large-scale domestic production, contributing to a self-reliant and sustainable future for India.
• Gadkari also highlighted 400 projects in India focused on producing CNG from biomass, especially rice straw or parali, which reduces pollution and benefits farmers by creating value from waste.
• CNG production is seen as a cost-effective and eco-friendly alternative to petrol, contributing to pollution reduction and energy savings for farmers.
• The initiative also aims to create value from waste and offers benefits to farmers, particularly those in Punjab and Haryana, where stubble burning contributes to air pollution.

The correct answer is Atlantic Ocean

In News

• Scientists drilled 4,160 feet below the Atlantic seabed to obtain the sample.

Key Points

• The sample was taken from the Atlantis Massif, providing insights into the Earth's mantle composition.
• The core, 2,907 feet long, is the largest continuous mantle rock sample ever recovered.
• The sample, taken from the Atlantis Massif, provides insights into mantle composition and interactions with seawater, potentially linked to the origins of life.

The correct answer is ​Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The meridians of longitude, also called meridians, are imaginary lines that divide the Earth.
• They run north to south from pole to pole, but they measure the distance east or west.
• They are spaced farthest apart at the equator and converge at a point at each pole.
• Unlike the parallels of latitude which are circles, the meridians of longitude are semi-circles that converge at the poles.
• If opposite meridians are taken together, they complete a circle, but, they are valued separately as two meridians.
• The meridians intersect the equator at right angles.
• For the convenience of numbering, the meridian of longitude passing through the Greenwich observatory (near London) has been adopted as the Prime Meridian by an international agreement and has been given the value of 0°.
• The sunrises in the east and sets in the west.
• The rotation of the earth over its axis takes 24 hours to complete one circle or 360° of longitudes.
• As 180° of longitudes fall both east and west of the Prime Meridian, the sun thus takes 12 hours to traverse the eastern and western hemispheres.
• In other words, the sun traverses 15° longitudes per hour or one degree of longitude every four minutes of time.
• It may further be noted that the time decreases when we move from west to east and increases with our westward movement.
• The rate of the time at which the sun traverses over certain degrees of longitudes is used to determine the local time of an area with respect to the time at the Prime Meridian (0°Longitude). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Latitude is an angle (defined below) that ranges from 0° at the Equator to 90° (North or South) at the poles.
• Lines of constant latitude, or parallels, run east-west as circles parallel to the equator.
• Latitude is used together with longitude to specify the precise location of features on the surface of the Earth.
• The value of the equator is 0° and the latitude of the poles are 90°N and 90°S.
• All latitudes are parallel to the equator. On a globe, parallels of latitudes appear as circles.
• The latitudes from the equator to the poles are used to demarcate time with reference to temperature zones, i.e. 0° to 23 ½° north and south as the torrid zone, 23 ½° to 66 ½° as the temperate zone, and 66 ½° to 90° as the frigid.
• The length of daylight varies by latitude and by the time of year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Areas on the Equator have a constant 12 hours of daylight all year round. As latitude increases to 80° (polar circles - north or south), day length can be seen to increase to 24 hours or decrease to zero (depending on the time of year).

The correct answer is Urs.

Key Points

• Urs is an annual event commemorating the death anniversary of a Sufi saint.
• This event is typically held at the saint's dargah or shrine, attracting devotees from various regions.
• Urs is derived from the Arabic word for "wedding," symbolizing the union of the Sufi saint with the Divine.
• Devotees participate in Qawwali (Sufi devotional music), prayers, and other rituals during the event.
• Urs ceremonies are an important part of Sufi culture and heritage, fostering a sense of spiritual connection and community among followers.

Additional Information

• Dargah
• A dargah is a shrine built over the grave of a revered religious figure, often a Sufi saint.
• Dargahs are places of pilgrimage where people come to seek blessings and offer prayers.
• Qawwali
• Qawwali is a form of Sufi devotional music that originates from the Indian subcontinent.
• Performed during Urs, Qawwali aims to induce a state of spiritual ecstasy among listeners.
• Sufism
• Sufism is a mystical form of Islam that emphasizes the inward search for God and shuns materialism.
• Sufis seek to attain spiritual closeness to God through practices like meditation, chanting, and music.
• Celebrations and Rituals
• During Urs, devotees engage in prayers, recitations, and communal meals known as langar.
• The rituals and celebrations reflect the teachings and legacy of the Sufi saint being honored.

The correct answer is ​Bengaluru

In News

• Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has been upgraded to 'Maharatna' status, announced by the Department of Public Enterprises on October 12, 2024, after approval from Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.

Key Points

• HAL becomes the 14th Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) in India, joining other notable PSUs like BHEL, BPCL, Coal India, GAIL, HPCL, Indian Oil, NTPC, ONGC, Power Grid, SAIL, Oil India, REC, and PFC.
• The upgradation is expected to enhance HAL's operational autonomy and financial powers, allowing for greater independence in decision-making.
• The proposal for HAL’s upgradation was previously recommended by two high-level committees: the Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC), led by the Finance Secretary, and the Apex Committee, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary.
• For the financial year 2023-24, HAL reported an annual turnover of ₹28,162 crore and a net profit of ₹7,595 crore.
• To qualify for Maharatna status, a CPSE must meet specific financial criteria: an average turnover of over ₹25,000 crore, an average net worth exceeding ₹15,000 crore, and an average net profit greater than ₹5,000 crore over the previous three years.
• Maharatna status provides significant operational autonomy, allowing PSUs to incur capital expenditures on new purchases or replacements without any monetary limit, and operate independently without relying on government guarantees.
• In comparison, Navratna status grants companies the ability to invest up to ₹1,000 crore or 15% of their net worth in a single project without prior government approval, but with more restrictions than Maharatna.

The correct answer is Bryophytes and Thallophyta.

Key Points

• Cryptogams are plants that reproduce through spores and do not produce flowers, seeds, or fruits.
• Bryophytes include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts, and are considered non-vascular cryptogams as they lack true vascular tissue.
• Thallophyta includes algae, fungi, and lichens; they exhibit a simple body structure without differentiation into roots, stems, and leaves.
• The absence of seeds, flowers, and vascular tissues categorizes both Bryophytes and Thallophyta under cryptogams.
• Unlike Gymnosperms and Angiosperms (seed-producing plants), cryptogams are primitive plant groups primarily found in moist and shaded environments.

Additional Information

• Thallophyta:
• These are the simplest plants, mostly aquatic (e.g., algae) and non-vascular.
• The body of Thallophyta is called a "thallus" due to its undifferentiated structure.
• Bryophytes:
• Known as "amphibians of the plant kingdom" as they require water for fertilization.
• They show alternation of generations between gametophyte (dominant) and sporophyte phases.
• Pteridophytes:
• These are vascular cryptogams with true roots, stems, and leaves but reproduce through spores, not seeds.
• Phanerogams:
• This category includes seed-producing plants: Gymnosperms (naked seeds) and Angiosperms (enclosed seeds).
• They are the most advanced and diverse group of plants.
• Cryptogams vs. Phanerogams:
• Cryptogams reproduce through spores and lack seeds or flowers, while Phanerogams reproduce through seeds and produce flowers.

The correct answer is Nagarjuna Sagar.

Key Points

• Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built across the Krishna River between the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh in India.
• It is one of the largest and tallest masonry dams in the world, standing at a height of approximately 124 meters (407 feet).
• The construction of the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam started in 1955 and was completed in 1967, making it one of the earliest major irrigation projects in India.
• This dam plays a crucial role in providing irrigation water to the arid regions of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, benefiting millions of farmers.

Additional Information

• Sardar Sarovar Dam
• It is constructed on the Narmada River in the state of Gujarat, India.
• The dam is a part of the Narmada Valley Project, which aims to provide water for irrigation, drinking, and hydroelectric power generation.
• It is one of the largest dams in the world in terms of volume and surface area.
• Indira Sagar Dam
• It is constructed on the Narmada River in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India.
• The dam is primarily used for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation.
• Indira Sagar Dam has one of the largest reservoirs in India in terms of water storage capacity.
• Hirakud Dam
• It is constructed on the Mahanadi River in the state of Odisha, India.
• Hirakud Dam is one of the longest dams in the world, stretching over 25.8 kilometers (16 miles).
• The dam provides irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.
• Krishna River
• The Krishna River is one of the major rivers in India, flowing through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• The river is around 1,400 kilometers (870 miles) long and is a crucial water source for agriculture, drinking water, and industrial use in the region.
• Several major dams and reservoirs, including Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, Srisailam Dam, and Almatti Dam, have been constructed on the Krishna River to harness its water resources.

Given:

Calculations:

Agriculture expenditure is 45%.

Please note that 100% is 360°.

According to the question,

45% of 360

= 0.45 × 360

= 162°

Hence, The Required value is 162°.

Given:

Average of 7 numbers = 39

Average of 3 of them = 27

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation / Number of observations

Solution:

Let the sum of 3 numbers = m

(\dfrac{m}{3}) = 27

⇒ m = 27 x 3

⇒ m = 81

Let, the average of rest 4 numbers = n

 (\dfrac{m+n}{7}) = 39

⇒ 81 + n = 39 × 7 = 273

⇒ n = 273 - 81 = 192

The average of other 4 numbers = (\dfrac{n}{4}) = (\dfrac{192}{4}) = 48

∴ The average of other 4 numbers is 48.

Given,

The candidate has got = 60% 

Won -19840 votes

 Calculation

Let the total votes = x

⇒ the total winning candidate = 6x/10

⇒ total losing candidate = 4x/10

Now,

⇒ 6x/10 – 4x/10 = 19840

⇒ 2x/10 = 19840

⇒ 2x = 19840 × 10

⇒ x = 19840 × 5

⇒ x = 99,200

Then total losing candidate = 4 × 99200/10 = 39,680 

∴ The total losing candidate = 39680

Shortcut Trick

Rate of interest = 10% = 1/10.

For Compound Interest, the ratio of Principal (P) to Amount (A) for 1 year is 10 : 11.

For 3 years, the ratio P : A = 10³ : 11³ = 1000 : 1331.

Given Amount = 1331 units = ₹10,648.

1 unit = 10,648 ÷ 1331 = 8.

Principal = 1000 units = 1000 × 8 = ₹8000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹8000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹10,648

Rate (R) = 10% per annum

Time (n) = 3 years

Formula Used:

A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

Calculations:

⇒ 10,648 = P(1 + 10/100)³

⇒ 10,648 = P(1 + 1/10)³

⇒ 10,648 = P(11/10)³

⇒ 10,648 = P × (1331 / 1000)

⇒ P = (10,648 × 1000) / 1331

⇒ P = 8 × 1000

⇒ P = ₹8000

∴ The correct answer is ₹8000.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Interest

For a rate R, the effective CI rate for 3 years is [ (1 + R/100)³ − 1 ] × 100%. For 10%, it is 33.1%.

Difference between CI and SI

For 3 years: Difference = P(R/100)² × (3 + R/100). For 2 years: Difference = P(R/100)².

Half-Yearly Compounding

When interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate is halved (R/2) and the time period is doubled (2n).

Given:

Marked price of the computer = Rs. 80,000,

Selling price after two discounts = Rs. 65,280,

First discount = 15%

Concept Used:

Concept: Successive discounts are calculated individually on the new price.

Solution:

Let the second discount be 'x' percent.

Selling price after the first discount = Marked price - (15/100) × Marked price

Selling price after the first discount = 80,000 - (15/100) × 80,000 

⇒ 80000 - 12000 = Rs. 68000

Selling price after the second discount = Selling price after the first discount - (x/100) × Selling price after the first discount

Selling price after the second discount = 68000 - (x/100) × 68000

Selling price after the second discount = 65,280

⇒ 68000 - (x/100) × 68000 = 65280

⇒ (x/100) × 68000 = 68000 - 65280

⇒ x × 680 = 2720

⇒ x = 4

Therefore, the value of the other discount is approximately 4%.

Given:

Marked price = Rs. 6600

Selling price = Rs. 4752

Concept:

The discount percentage is calculated using the formula:

Discount Percentage = (Discount / Marked Price) × 100

where, Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

Calculation:

We have,

⇒ Marked Price = Rs. 6600

⇒ Selling Price = Rs. 4752

⇒ Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

⇒ Discount = 6600 - 4752

⇒ Discount = 1848

⇒ Discount Percentage = (Discount / Marked Price) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = (1848 / 6600) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 0.28 × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 28%

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Time taken by boat to cover 20 km upstream and 60 km downstream = 5 hrs.

Time taken by boat to cover 60 km upstream and 80 km downstream = 7 hrs.

Concept Used:

If 'b' is the speed of a boat and 's' is the speed of a stream then,

Upstream speed of boat = b - s

& Downstream speed of boat = b + s

Calculation:

Let the speed of the boat be 'b' and the speed of the stream be 's'.

According to the question,

{20/(b - s)} + {60/(b + s)} = 5      ----(i)

{30/(b - s)} + {80/(b + s)} = 7      ----(ii)

Let us put 1/(b - s) = P and 1/(b + s) = Q in equation (i) and (ii),

So, 

20P + 60Q = 5      ----(iii)

30P + 80Q = 7      ----(iv)

Multiplying equation (iii) by 3 and equation (iv) by 2, we get

60P + 180Q = 15      ----(v)

60P + 160Q = 14      ----(vi)

Solving these we get,

(180 - 160)Q = 15 - 14

⇒ 20Q = 1

⇒ Q = 1/20

So, P = {5 - 60 × (1/20)}/20      ----{From equation (iii)}

⇒ P = {5 - (60/20)}/20

⇒ P = (5 - 3)/20

⇒ P = 2/20

⇒ P = 1/10

So, b - s = 10 & b + s = 20

So, b = 15 km/hr and s = 5 km/hr.

∴ The speed of the boat in still water is 15 km/hr.

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹2275

Rate (R) = 13% per annum

Time (T) = 5 years

Formula used:

SI = (\dfrac{P \times R \times T}{100})

Where, P = Principal

Calculation:

2275 = (\dfrac{P \times 13 \times 5}{100})

⇒ 2275 = (\dfrac{65P}{100})

⇒ 2275 = 0.65P

⇒ P = (\dfrac{2275}{0.65})

⇒ P = 3500

∴ The correct answer is 3500.

Given:

The ratio of first and second number = 5 ∶ 2 = 25 ∶ 10

Ratio of second and third number = 5 ∶ 4 = 10 ∶ 8

Product of 1st and 3rd no. = 1800

Calculation:

Ratio of three number = 25 ∶ 10 ∶ 8

Let three numbers be 25a, 10a and 8a

Product of first and third number = (25a) × (8a) = 200a²

According to the question,

⇒ 1800 = 200a²

⇒ a² = 9

⇒ a = 3

Now,

∴ Sum of all numbers = 25a + 10a + 8a = 43a = 43 × 3 = 129

Shortcut Trick

Since Expenditure = 2/3 of Income, the Ratio of Expenditure to Savings = 2 : 1.

Total Income ratio = 2 + 1 = 3.

Using the weighted average method for percentage changes (Income = Exp + Sav):

3 × 18% = 2 × 24% + 1 × x%

54% = 48% + x% ⇒ x = 6%

∴ The correct answer is 6%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expenditure = 2/3 of Income

Income increases by 18% and Expenditure increases by 24%.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial income be 300 units.

⇒ Initial Expenditure = (2 ÷ 3) × 300 = 200 units

⇒ Initial Savings = 300 − 200 = 100 units

⇒ New Income = 300 + (18% of 300) = 300 + 54 = 354 units

⇒ New Expenditure = 200 + (24% of 200) = 200 + 48 = 248 units

⇒ New Savings = New Income − New Expenditure

⇒ New Savings = 354 − 248 = 106 units

⇒ Increase in Savings = 106 − 100 = 6 units

⇒ Percentage Increase = (Increase ÷ Initial Savings) × 100%

⇒ Percentage Increase = (6 ÷ 100) × 100% = 6%

∴ The correct answer is 6%.

Additional Information

Income, Expenditure & Savings Relation

Income = Expenditure + Savings. The percentage change in total income is always equal to the weighted average of the percentage changes in expenditure and savings.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Change = ((New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value) × 100. A positive result indicates an increase, while a negative result indicates a decrease.

Base Value Concept

When calculating percentage increase or decrease, the original or initial value is always taken as the base value (100%).

Given:

Marks scored by A in Hindi = 86

Marks scored by B in English = 74

Marks scored by C in English = 70

Marks scored by D in Science = 70

Calculation:

The sum of the marks scored by A in Hindi and B in English = 86 + 74 = 160

The sum of the marks scored by C in English and D in Science = 70 + 70 = 140

The required ratio = 160/140 = 8/7

∴ The correct answer is 8:7.

GIVEN:

Speed of the train = 36 km/h

Length of the train = 200 m

Train crosses a platform in 45 seconds

FORMULA USED:

Speed = Distance / Time 

CALCULATION:

Let the length of platform be ‘x’

⇒ Total distance travelled by train = x + 200

Speed of train = 36km/hr = 10 m/s

Time taken = 45 s

10 = (x + 200)/45

⇒ x + 200 = 450

∴ x = 450 - 200 = 250 m

The arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary is as shown below :

6. Diagram
7. Dialect
8. Dialogue
9. Diameter
10. Diamond
11. Dictator

Hence, the correct answer is "6, 4, 2, 5, 1, 3".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

As per the given information:

Given:

⇒ 13 – 145 × 29 ÷ 52 + 11 = ?

After replacing the sign as per the table:

⇒ 13 × 145 ÷ 29 + 52 - 11

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 13 × 5 + 52 - 11

⇒ 65 + 52 - 11

⇒ 117 - 11 = 106

⇒ '13 × 145 ÷ 29 + 52 - 11 = 106'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The pattern followed here is:

Letters at even position of the word are coded according to the equivalent opposite letter of a particular letter of the word and letters at odd position are coded according to the logic shown below:

Similarly,

Hence, ‘OMYIZRU’ is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "127".

The logic followed in the given figures:

→

Figure (2) is the water image of figure (1). 

Similarly,

In 

 →

Figure (4) is the water image of figure (3). 

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G were seven kings, sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.

Solution :

(1) Only E was sitting between F and C.

 

(2) G was sitting to the immediate left of C. Case 2 is eliminated and only case 1 is possible.

(3) A was third to the left of G.

(4) Only D was sitting between A and B.

Here, king B was sitting to the immediate left of G.

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the related letter-cluster is CEON.

The logic followed here is:-

Hence, the correct answer is "39".

Alternate Method

The logic followed here is:-

Hence, the correct answer is "39".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: The letters are coded with its opposite letter as per the positional values table diagonally.

ANNUAL: OZFMMZ

BARREL: OVIIZY

Similarly,

BOTTLE: ?

Hence, the correct answer is "VOGGLY".

The pattern followed here is:

√1^st number + 12 = 2^nd number

225 : 27

=> **√**225 + 12 = 15 + 12 = 27

And,

81 ∶ ? 

=> √81 + 12 = 9 + 12 = 21

Hence, "21" is the correct answer.

Logic: Divide the first number by 2 and then write the obtained number in reverse order.

1. 24 – 21 → 24 ÷ 2 = 12, reverse the obtained number → 21

2. 66– 33 → 66 ÷ 2 = 33, reverse the obtained number → 33

3) 38 – 29 → 38 ÷ 2 = 19, reverse the obtained number → 91

4. 84 – 24 → 84 ÷ 2 = 42, reverse the obtained number → 24

Hence, 38 – 29 is an odd one.

The correct answer is Port number

Key Points

• Port number is a component of a URL (Uniform Resource Locator).
• A URL is used to specify addresses on the World Wide Web.
• It typically consists of the protocol (such as HTTP or HTTPS), the domain name, and may include a port number, path, query string, and fragment identifier.
• The port number is used to identify a specific process or service on the server. For example, HTTP typically uses port 80, while HTTPS uses port 443.
• Including the port number in the URL allows communication with the correct service or application on the server.

Additional Information

• A URL can also include a username and password for authentication, although this is less common.
• The domain name part of the URL can be either an IP address or a human-readable name that is resolved to an IP address via DNS (Domain Name System).
• The path specifies the exact resource within the domain that the client wants to access.
• Query strings are used to pass additional parameters to the server, typically in the format of key-value pairs.
• The fragment identifier is used to point to a specific section within a resource, usually within an HTML document.

The correct answer is To control the horizontal or vertical placement of text within margins.

Key Points

• The 'Alignment' options in Microsoft Word are used to control the horizontal or vertical placement of text within margins.
• These options include left alignment, center alignment, right alignment, and justified alignment for horizontal placement.
• Vertical alignment can be adjusted within text boxes, tables, or entire pages.
• Proper alignment of text ensures better readability and a professional appearance of the document.

Additional Information

• To adjust text alignment, you can use the alignment buttons located on the toolbar in Microsoft Word.
• Left alignment is the default setting where text aligns with the left margin.
• Center alignment centers the text between the left and right margins.
• Right alignment aligns text with the right margin.
• Justified alignment adjusts the spacing between words so that the text aligns evenly along both the left and right margins, creating a clean look.
• Vertical alignment options can be found in the Page Setup dialog box under the Layout tab for whole pages or within table cell properties for specific table cells.

The correct answer is 4) A file containing multiple worksheets

Key Points

• An Excel workbook is a file that contains one or more worksheets.
• Each worksheet within a workbook can hold data, charts, and other information.
• Workbooks are used to organize and manage related data in one file, making it easier to analyze and share information.
• Users can add, delete, and rename worksheets within a workbook to suit their needs.
• The .xlsx file extension is typically used for Excel workbooks.

Additional Information

• Excel is a powerful tool for data analysis and visualization, widely used in various fields such as finance, research, and administration.
• Workbooks can contain various types of data, including numbers, text, formulas, and functions.
• Excel provides numerous features for data manipulation, including sorting, filtering, and pivot tables.
• Workbooks can be saved in different formats, such as .xls, .csv, and .pdf, depending on the user's needs.
• Excel also supports collaboration, allowing multiple users to work on the same workbook simultaneously.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

• The 'BCC' field in email composition is used to send copies of the email without revealing the other recipients' addresses.
• BCC stands for Blind Carbon Copy.
• When you include an email address in the BCC field, the primary recipient and other BCC recipients will not see that email address.
• This feature is useful for maintaining privacy among recipients.
• It helps in preventing an email recipient from seeing the addresses of other recipients, which is particularly useful in business communications.

Additional Information

• Other fields in email composition include 'To', 'CC', and 'Subject'.
• The 'To' field is used for the main recipients of the email.
• The 'CC' (Carbon Copy) field is used to send a copy of the email to additional recipients, whose email addresses are visible to all other recipients.
• Using BCC can help to reduce the chances of recipients' email addresses being harvested for spam.

The correct answer is 2) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

Key Points

• SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for sending emails.
• It is a part of the application layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite.
• SMTP is used to transfer messages from the sender's email client to the recipient's email server.
• For receiving emails, protocols like IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and POP3 (Post Office Protocol) are commonly used.
• SMTP works in conjunction with these protocols to ensure the complete transmission and reception of email messages.

Additional Information

• SSH (Secure Shell Protocol) is used for secure remote login and other secure network services over an unsecured network.
• FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between a client and server on a computer network.
• HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for transmitting hypertext requests and information on the internet.
• Each of these protocols has its specific use case, and they are not interchangeable.

The correct answer is 1) It executes program instructions by performing calculations and logical comparisons.

Key Points

• The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is a critical component of the CPU that executes program instructions by performing calculations and logical comparisons.
• The ALU handles arithmetic operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.
• It also performs logical operations such as AND, OR, NOT, and XOR, which are essential for decision-making processes in programs.
• By executing these operations, the ALU enables the CPU to process data and run applications effectively.

Additional Information

• The Control Unit (CU) and the ALU together form the CPU's core, where the CU directs the operations and the ALU performs the actual data processing.
• The ALU can be found in various types of processors, including general-purpose CPUs, microcontrollers, and graphics processing units (GPUs).
• Modern CPUs may have multiple ALUs to handle parallel processing tasks, thereby improving performance and efficiency.
• The development and optimization of ALUs have been fundamental in advancing computer technology and enabling more complex computing tasks.

The correct answer is Win + E

Key Points

• Win + E is the keyboard shortcut to open File Explorer in Windows 10.
• File Explorer, previously known as Windows Explorer, is a file management application that is part of the Windows operating system.
• Using the Win + E shortcut quickly opens File Explorer, allowing users to manage files and folders efficiently.
• Other common keyboard shortcuts in Windows include Ctrl + C for copy, Ctrl + V for paste, and Alt + Tab for switching between open applications.

Additional Information

• File Explorer is a crucial tool for navigating the file system in Windows.
• It provides a graphical user interface to access files, folders, and drives on your computer.
• File Explorer also includes features such as file search, quick access to frequently used folders, and the ability to manage network locations.
• In addition to Win + E, other useful Windows shortcuts include Win + D to show the desktop, Win + L to lock the computer, and Win + R to open the Run dialog box.

The correct answer is Alt + Enter.

Key Points

• In Microsoft Excel, if you want to enter a new line (line break) within the same cell, you can use the keyboard shortcut "Alt + Enter".
• It is important to note that for this keyboard shortcut to work, the "wrap text" feature must be enabled under the "home" tab in the ribbon.
• Once enabled, your text will properly display on multiple lines within a single cell.
• This is especially useful when dealing with long strings of text or when needing to create more readable lists within individual cells.

Additional Information

• Tab + Enter: There's no "Tab + Enter" shortcut in MS Excel. These are two separate keys with different functions. The "Tab" key is used to move the cell cursor one cell to the right, while the "Enter" key moves the cursor one cell down.
• Ctrl + Enter: "Ctrl + Enter" is an Excel shortcut used to fill the selected cell range with the current entry. This means whatever value or formula you've just typed into a cell, using "Ctrl + Enter" will fill that into all the selected cells.
• Shift + Enter: In Excel, using "Shift + Enter" allows you to move up one cell. This keyboard shortcut is particularly useful when you need to navigate through the spreadsheet and add or amend data, but would like to move upwards rather than downwards.

The correct answer is Black hat.

Key Points

• Black hat hackers, also known as crackers, are individuals who engage in unethical and illegal activities.
• They hack to gain unauthorized access to a system with the intent of causing damage, stealing sensitive information, or disrupting its operations.
• Black hat hackers often have a deep understanding of computer networks and systems.
• Their activities are not only limited to gaining unauthorized access but also manipulating the data and system configurations.
• Black hat hacking can result in substantial harm to individuals, organizations, and the public, and it is illegal and punishable by law.
• The term "black hat" comes from old western movies, where the bad guys often wore black hats.

Additional Information

• White hat
• White hat hackers, often referred to as ethical hackers, use their skills to improve system security.
• They are usually employed by organizations to conduct penetration tests and vulnerability assessments on the companies' systems to prevent potential breaches.
• Red hat
• Red hat hackers are similar to white hat hackers in that their intent is to prevent malicious hacking.
• However, instead of simply aiming to defend systems or fix vulnerabilities, they actively engage with black hat hackers, even attacking their systems to bring them down.
• This proactive (and at times aggressive) approach separates them from white hat hackers.
• Grey hat
• Grey hat hackers operate in the gray area between malicious intent (black hat) and ethical hacking (white hat).
• While they may not have permission to access systems like white hat hackers do, they typically alert organizations to vulnerabilities they find, giving them a chance to fix the issues before less ethical hackers can exploit them.
• However, some gray hat hackers may also request a fee for fixing such vulnerabilities.

The correct answer is ultraviolet light.

Key Points

• The data stored in EPROM chips can be erased and the chip can be reprogrammed. This is achieved by exposing the chip to an intense Ultraviolet (UV) light through a specially designed window in the chip.
• The process of erasing the data with UV light makes EPROM a reusable and flexible choice in hardware that needs occasional data updates.
• An EPROM (Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) is a non-volatile memory, meaning it can retain its data even when the power supply is switched off.
• EPROMs are used to store data, like system software, that need not be changed frequently.
• They have been extensively utilized in computers and other devices where permanent storage is essential.
• In many security systems, EPROMs are used to hold both the operating system and the program for the access control panel.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• Local governments in India often face challenges due to insufficient financial resources, limiting their ability to execute development projects and provide services.
• In several states, state governments have not delegated significant powers to local bodies, restricting their autonomy and effectiveness.
• There are instances where Gram Sabha elections are not conducted regularly, leading to issues in local governance and representation.
• Local governments may also face administrative and bureaucratic hurdles, including lack of trained personnel and inefficient management practices.

Additional Information

• 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments
• These amendments were passed in 1992 to strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) respectively.
• The amendments aimed to decentralize power and enhance local self-governance.
• Finance Commission Grants
• The Finance Commission recommends grants-in-aid to augment the resources of local governments.
• These grants are crucial for the financial stability and development activities of local bodies.
• State Finance Commissions (SFCs)
• Each state is required to constitute its own SFC to review the financial position of local governments.
• SFCs make recommendations to the state government regarding the distribution of financial resources between the state and local bodies.
• Capacity Building and Training
• Training programs for elected representatives and officials are essential for effective local governance.
• Capacity building initiatives aim to enhance the skills and knowledge of local government functionaries.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The ‘Namami Gange Programme’ was approved as a Flagship Programme by the Union Government of India in the year 2014.
• This programme was initiated under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi to rejuvenate the River Ganga and its tributaries.
• The objective of the Namami Gange Programme is to achieve effective abatement of pollution, conservation, and rejuvenation of the Ganga River.
• The programme integrates the efforts to clean and protect the Ganga River in a comprehensive manner, consolidating earlier schemes under one flagship initiative.
• The programme was allocated an initial budget of INR 20,000 crore for its implementation over a period of 5 years from 2015-2020.

Additional Information

• About the Namami Gange Programme:
• The programme is being implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• It focuses on pollution abatement interventions, conservation, and rejuvenation of the Ganga River and its tributaries.
• Key components include sewage treatment infrastructure, riverfront development, biodiversity conservation, afforestation, and public awareness campaigns.
• Key Goals of Namami Gange:
• Ensuring effective abatement of pollution and rejuvenation of the Ganga River.
• Maintaining the ecological and environmental health of the river system.
• Promoting sustainable development and livelihood opportunities for communities dependent on the river.
• Key Achievements:
• Construction of sewage treatment plants (STPs) with a treatment capacity of over 500 million liters per day (MLD).
• Development of riverfronts and ghats in cities like Varanasi, Haridwar, and Patna.
• Efforts to control industrial pollution through stricter regulations and monitoring of discharge into the Ganga.
• Other River Rejuvenation Initiatives:
• Yamuna Action Plan: Aimed at reducing pollution levels in the Yamuna River.
• National River Conservation Plan: Focused on cleaning and conserving rivers across India.
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): Includes projects related to improving urban sewerage and water quality.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India was the first country in the world to launch a national family planning program in 1952.
• The program aimed to control population growth and promote maternal and child health through contraceptive usage and awareness campaigns.
• Initially, the focus was on promoting sterilization and contraceptive methods; over time, the program evolved to include broader reproductive health services.
• India's family planning initiatives were supported by international organizations such as the United Nations and the World Health Organization (WHO).
• The program has been credited with significantly slowing down India's population growth rate over the decades.

Additional Information

• Family Planning Definition: Family planning refers to the practice of controlling the number and spacing of children in a family through the use of contraception and other birth control methods.
• Reproductive Health: The concept encompasses the ability to have a responsible, satisfying, and safe sex life and the capability to reproduce, with the freedom to decide if, when, and how often to do so.
• Population Growth in India: Despite the success of family planning programs, India remains one of the most populous countries globally, with a population exceeding 1.4 billion as of 2023.
• Modern Methods: Current family planning measures in India include sterilization, contraceptive pills, intrauterine devices (IUDs), and condoms, with a focus on accessibility and education.
• Global Impact: India's pioneering efforts have inspired several countries to adopt similar family planning programs, contributing to global population stabilization efforts.

The correct answer is 18–40 years.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY): This scheme was launched by the Government of India to provide social security to small and marginal farmers by ensuring them financial stability after the age of 60 years.
• Eligibility Age: Farmers between the ages of 18 and 40 years are eligible to enroll in the PM-KMY. This statement is correct.
• Purpose: The scheme aims to offer a regular pension of INR 3,000 per month to eligible farmers after they attain the age of 60 years.
• Contribution: Farmers need to contribute a monthly amount ranging from INR 55 to INR 200, depending on their entry age. The government makes an equal contribution to the farmer's pension fund.
• Implementation: The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme.
• Incorrect Age Brackets: The options like "18–30 years," "21–45 years," and "25–50 years" are incorrect, as the scheme explicitly defines the eligible age group as 18 to 40 years.

Additional Information

• Objective of PM-KMY:
• The scheme is aimed at providing social security to farmers who do not have any pension scheme after retirement.
• It seeks to safeguard the lives of small and marginal farmers in old age when they are no longer able to earn a livelihood.
• The scheme ensures financial independence and dignified living for farmers post-retirement.
• Features of PM-KMY:
• Voluntary Scheme: Farmers can voluntarily join the scheme by contributing a monthly premium.
• Age-Based Contribution: Farmers aged 18 years need to contribute INR 55 per month, while those aged 40 years need to contribute INR 200 per month.
• Government Contribution: The central government contributes an equal amount to the farmer's pension account.
• Benefits: After attaining 60 years of age, farmers receive a monthly pension of INR 3,000.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• The applicant must be a small or marginal farmer owning cultivable land up to 2 hectares.
• Farmers must fall within the age bracket of 18 to 40 years at the time of enrollment.
• The farmer must not be enrolled in any other government pension scheme.
• Enrollment Process:
• Farmers can enroll through the Common Service Centers (CSCs).
• The enrollment requires Aadhaar and bank account details.
• After verification, the farmer can start contributing to the scheme.

Important Points

• Small and Marginal Farmers: These are farmers who own cultivable land up to 2 hectares. They are the primary beneficiaries of the PM-KMY scheme.
• Exit from the Scheme: In case of the death of the farmer before 60 years of age, the spouse can continue the scheme or withdraw the contributions with interest.
• Key Facts:
• The scheme was launched on 12 September 2019.
• It is a part of the government’s effort to ensure social security for unorganized sectors, particularly farmers.
• Farmers who are beneficiaries of PM-Kisan are also eligible to join this scheme.

The correct answer is ₹50,000.

Key Points

• The Shishu scheme is one of the three categories under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), which was launched by the Government of India in 2015.
• The primary focus of the Shishu scheme is to provide financial support to micro and small enterprises in their initial stages of development.
• Under the Shishu category, the maximum loan amount that can be availed is ₹50,000. This amount is aimed at encouraging small entrepreneurs and startups to establish their businesses.
• The scheme is designed to promote self-employment and entrepreneurship among individuals by offering collateral-free loans.
• The loans under PMMY, including the Shishu scheme, are implemented through commercial banks, regional rural banks, small finance banks, micro-finance institutions, and non-banking financial companies.
• The interest rate for loans under the Shishu category is generally competitive to ensure affordability for small-scale entrepreneurs.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY):
• The PMMY was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 8 April 2015 to provide financial support to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises.
• The scheme is implemented through the MUDRA (Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency) Bank, which provides refinancing support to institutions lending to micro-businesses.
• The PMMY has three categories:
• Shishu: Loans up to ₹50,000 for startups and new entrepreneurs.
• Kishore: Loans between ₹50,001 and ₹5,00,000 for growing businesses.
• Tarun: Loans between ₹5,00,001 and ₹10,00,000 for established businesses looking to expand.
• Objectives of PMMY:
• To promote entrepreneurship by providing financial assistance to micro and small businesses.
• To enhance the economic participation of women and marginalized sections of society.
• To encourage the growth of the non-corporate small business sector, which forms the backbone of the Indian economy.
• Eligibility for Shishu Loans:
• Individuals engaged in non-farm income-generating activities, such as manufacturing, trading, and services.
• The applicant should have a viable business plan and demonstrate their ability to repay the loan.
• Important Points about PMMY:
• The loans are provided without any collateral, making them accessible to small entrepreneurs who lack assets.
• The scheme supports various industries, including handicrafts, food processing, retail trade, and small-scale manufacturing.
• Special provisions are made to encourage women entrepreneurs, with preferential terms and conditions.
• The scheme is pivotal in promoting financial inclusion by integrating small businesses into the formal credit system.

The correct answer is Article 243-I.

Key Points

• The State Finance Commission is constituted under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution.
• It is tasked with reviewing the financial position of the Panchayats and making recommendations for financial management and resource distribution.
• The Commission is set up every five years by the Governor of the State.
• Its recommendations aim to improve the financial health and autonomy of Panchayats by suggesting measures for better revenue generation and financial practices.

Additional Information

• Article 243-D: Deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats.
• Article 243-K: Relates to the provisions regarding the State Election Commission responsible for superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Panchayats.
• Article 243-J: Pertains to the audit of accounts of Panchayats, empowering the state legislature to make provisions concerning the maintenance and auditing of these accounts.
• State Finance Commission: An essential body for the devolution of funds to Panchayats, ensuring that local governments have adequate financial resources to carry out their functions effectively.
• Financial Decentralization: A key objective of the State Finance Commission, promoting fiscal federalism by empowering local governance structures through proper allocation and management of financial resources.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

• Assertion (A): The UDAN scheme was launched to promote regional air connectivity.
• The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme was launched in 2016 under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• The primary objective of the scheme is to make air travel affordable and accessible to the common citizens residing in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
• It promotes regional air connectivity by linking under-served and unserved airports across the country.
• Hence, the Assertion (A) is correct.
• Reason (R): Airlines are given Viability Gap Funding under the scheme.
• The government provides Viability Gap Funding (VGF) to airlines under the UDAN scheme to ensure the economic feasibility of operations.
• VGF is provided to airlines to subsidize the cost of operations for routes that are otherwise unprofitable but essential for regional connectivity.
• This funding is shared between the central government and the state governments, with the central government typically providing 80% of the funding.
• The funding compensates for the capped airfares under the scheme to make tickets affordable for passengers.
• Hence, the Reason (R) is correct, and it is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Additional Information

• Objectives of the UDAN Scheme:
• To make air travel affordable and widespread, catering to the needs of the common citizen.
• To enhance regional connectivity by developing infrastructure at under-served and unserved airports.
• To promote balanced regional economic growth and boost tourism and employment opportunities.
• Key Features of the UDAN Scheme:
• Capped airfares: Ticket prices for one-hour flights on regional routes are capped at INR 2,500 to make air travel affordable.
• Viability Gap Funding: Financial assistance is provided to airlines to offset losses incurred due to low ticket prices.
• Development of regional airports: Focus on developing and operationalizing underutilized or unserved airports across India.
• Public-Private Partnership (PPP): Encourages private sector participation in the aviation sector.
• Priority routes: Routes connecting remote, hilly, and northeastern areas are prioritized.
• Achievements of the UDAN Scheme:
• As of 2023, more than 450 routes have been operationalized, connecting several remote and smaller cities.
• Improved connectivity has boosted tourism and local economic development in several regions.
• The scheme has encouraged the establishment of new airlines catering to regional routes.
• Important Points:
• The UDAN scheme aligns with the government's mission of ‘Sab Uden, Sab Juden’ (Let everyone fly, let everyone connect).
• It has been implemented in multiple phases to accommodate growing demand and identify new routes.
• The scheme also supports helicopter and seaplane operations to further expand connectivity to remote areas.

The correct answer is MSME.

Key Points

• Bihar's Industrial Investment Promotion Policy: This policy primarily aims to encourage industrial growth and attract investments in the state. It provides a capital subsidy to promote entrepreneurship and industrial development.
• Focus on MSMEs: Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) are the backbone of India's industrial economy. Bihar's policy prioritizes MSMEs by providing capital subsidies to support their establishment and growth.
• Reason for MSME Priority: MSMEs contribute significantly to employment generation, local economic development, and equitable distribution of resources. Bihar's policy aligns with the national agenda to promote MSMEs for inclusive growth.
• Eligibility Criteria: The policy provides subsidies to MSME units fulfilling specific conditions, such as location within the state, adherence to environmental guidelines, and contribution to the state's economic development.
• Capital Subsidy: The capital subsidy is a financial incentive offered by the state government to reduce the initial financial burden on entrepreneurs setting up MSMEs. This encourages new investors to participate actively in Bihar's industrial development.

Additional Information

• Definition of MSME: MSMEs are classified under the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006. These enterprises are categorized based on their investment in plant, machinery, and equipment.
• Micro Enterprise: Investment up to ₹2.5 crore and turnover up to ₹10 crore.
• Small Enterprise: Investment up to ₹25 crore and turnover up to ₹100 crore.
• Medium Enterprise: Investment up to ₹125 crore and turnover up to ₹500 crore.
• Features of MSMEs:
• MSMEs are crucial for generating employment, contributing to export earnings, and promoting regional balance in development.
• They account for around 30% of India's GDP and employ approximately 11 crore people.
• MSMEs are involved in diverse activities such as manufacturing, service provision, and trade.
• Other Incentives for MSMEs: Apart from capital subsidy, MSMEs in Bihar benefit from various incentives, including tax relief, concessional loans, and support for skill development programs.
• Government Initiatives for MSMEs:
• Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP): Provides subsidies for new MSME units.
• Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme: Offers collateral-free loans to MSMEs.
• ZED Certification Scheme: Promotes Zero Defect, Zero Effect manufacturing practices among MSMEs.
• Examples of MSMEs: Common MSME sectors include textile manufacturing, food processing, handicrafts, and IT services. These industries play a pivotal role in Bihar's economy by utilizing local resources and creating employment.

Important Points

• Challenges for MSMEs: Despite their importance, MSMEs face issues like limited access to credit, inadequate infrastructure, and regulatory hurdles.
• Solutions: Governments at both central and state levels are working to address these challenges through financial schemes, digitalization, and skill development programs.
• Impact on Bihar's Economy: Encouraging MSMEs through capital subsidies boosts local industries, reduces unemployment, and strengthens the state's industrial base.
• National Policies: The Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative emphasizes MSMEs' role in making India self-reliant and globally competitive.

The correct answer is Mukhyamantri Udyami Yojana.

Key Points

• Mukhyamantri Yuva Udyami Yojana is a scheme under the broader Mukhyamantri Udyami Yojana, which is implemented by the Bihar Government to promote entrepreneurship in the state.
• The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to aspiring entrepreneurs from socially and economically backward classes like Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Other Backward Classes (OBC).
• Under this scheme, eligible beneficiaries are offered a loan amount of up to Rs. 10 lakhs. Of this, 50% is a subsidy, while the remaining 50% is a loan component with a nominal interest rate.
• The purpose of the scheme is to support youth in starting their own businesses and reducing unemployment in Bihar.
• The scheme focuses on promoting self-reliance by encouraging entrepreneurship and providing resources to start new ventures.

Additional Information

• Eligibility Criteria for Mukhyamantri Yuva Udyami Yojana:
• Applicants must belong to the Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), or Other Backward Classes (OBC) categories.
• The age of applicants must be between 18 and 50 years.
• Applicants should have a minimum educational qualification of Class 12th.
• Loan Structure:
• A maximum loan amount of Rs. 10 lakhs is provided under the scheme.
• 50% of the loan amount is offered as a subsidy by the government, while the remaining 50% is provided as a loan with a 1% interest rate.
• Repayment of the loan can be made in 84 installments over a period of 7 years, with the first year being a moratorium period.
• Implementation:
• The scheme is implemented by the Department of Industries, Government of Bihar.
• The financial assistance is provided to set up small and medium-sized enterprises in sectors such as manufacturing, services, and trade.
• Objective:
• The scheme aims to reduce unemployment by encouraging youth to become job providers instead of job seekers.
• It focuses on supporting socially and economically backward sections of society to promote inclusive growth and self-reliance.

Important Points

• Comparison with Other Schemes:
• Startup Bihar Scheme: This scheme is aimed at promoting startups in Bihar, providing funding and incubation support to innovative business ideas. However, it is distinct from Mukhyamantri Yuva Udyami Yojana.
• Bihar Industrial Mission: This mission focuses on industrial development and large-scale industrial projects in Bihar, unlike Mukhyamantri Yuva Udyami Yojana, which is specifically for small and medium enterprises by individuals.
• Youth Startup Mission: This initiative supports youth-led startups, but it is not specific to SC, ST, or OBC beneficiaries like the Mukhyamantri Udyami Yojana.
• Notable Impact:
• The scheme has significantly contributed to reducing unemployment in Bihar by encouraging entrepreneurship.
• It has empowered individuals from backward communities to participate in the economic development of the state.

The correct answer is 38.

Key Points

• KYP (Kushal Yuva Program) centers are operational across all 38 districts in the state of Bihar. This program aims to provide skill development and training to the youth of Bihar.
• The program was initiated under the Bihar Skill Development Mission (BSDM), a government-led initiative to enhance employability among youth.
• The centers offer training in soft skills, communication skills, and basic computer knowledge. These courses are designed to prepare individuals for job opportunities and entrepreneurial ventures.
• The KYP program specifically targets youth between the ages of 15 to 25 years who have completed their matriculation or equivalent education.
• The establishment of KYP centers in all 38 districts ensures that the program is accessible to a significant portion of the population across Bihar.
• District-level implementation: Each KYP center is equipped with the necessary infrastructure and trainers to deliver quality education and training to enrolled candidates.
• Government's objective: The initiative reflects the Bihar government's commitment to addressing unemployment and improving the skill levels of its workforce.
• Hence, the correct answer is 38.

Additional Information

• KYP Program Features:
• Courses Offered: The program includes English communication skills, basic computer knowledge, and life skills. These courses aim to bridge the gap between the existing education system and industry requirements.
• Eligibility Criteria: Candidates must be residents of Bihar and fall within the age group of 15 to 25 years. They should have completed their matriculation.
• Fee Structure: The program is free of cost for eligible candidates, ensuring accessibility for underprivileged youth.
• Implementation of the KYP Program:
• Infrastructure: All 38 districts have dedicated KYP centers equipped with computers, training modules, and trainers.
• Monitoring: Regular assessment and feedback mechanisms are employed to ensure the quality of training and its impact on employability.
• Impact: The program has enabled thousands of youth to secure jobs and start their own ventures, contributing to the economic growth of Bihar.

Important Points

• Government Initiatives:
• The Bihar government has launched several skill development initiatives like the KYP program, Skill Development Centers, and Entrepreneurship Development Schemes.
• Collaboration: The program collaborates with industry partners to ensure that the training aligns with market demands.
• Significance of Skill Development:
• Skill development programs like KYP play a critical role in reducing unemployment and empowering youth to contribute to the economy.
• Example: The success of KYP is evident from the increasing number of enrollments and the rate of placement of trained candidates in various industries.

The correct answer is Election process in Gram Panchayat.

Key Points

• The Panchayat Citizen Charter is created to strengthen the Panchayati Raj system by making the administration more transparent and accountable.
• It includes key services such as financial assistance to Gram Panchayats and the decentralization program, which aim to empower local governance.
• The charter covers essential rural development programs, including rural sanitation and infrastructure development.
• The election process in Gram Panchayat is not typically included in the Panchayat Citizen Charter as it is governed by separate state election commissions and respective state laws.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj System
• The Panchayati Raj System is a three-tier system in India comprising Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level.
• It was institutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
• The aim is to decentralize the administrative and financial authority to the local government bodies.
• Decentralization Program
• Decentralization refers to the redistribution of authority and responsibility of public functions from the central government to local governments.
• It is crucial for enhancing the efficiency, effectiveness, and responsiveness of local governance.
• Rural Sanitation Program
• Rural Sanitation Programs focus on improving hygiene practices, waste management, and the provision of safe drinking water in rural areas.
• Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a notable initiative under this category.
• Financial Assistance to Gram Panchayats
• Financial assistance includes grants and funds allocated by both central and state governments to Gram Panchayats for the development of infrastructure and public services.
• This ensures the provision of basic amenities and the overall development of rural areas.

The correct answer is 3%.

Key Points

• The PM SVANidhi scheme was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in June 2020 to provide financial assistance to street vendors impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Under this scheme, street vendors are eligible for collateral-free working capital loans of up to ₹10,000 for the first tranche.
• The loan carries an interest subsidy rate of 3%. This subsidy is credited directly to the beneficiaries' bank accounts through the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanism.
• The interest subsidy is applicable only if the loan is repaid on or before the scheduled date.
• The scheme aims to benefit approximately 50 lakh street vendors across urban and semi-urban areas.
• Eligibility criteria include vendors engaged in vending activities as per the guidelines of the scheme and those operating in urban and peri-urban areas.

Additional Information

• PM SVANidhi Scheme Features:
• The scheme offers three types of loans: ₹10,000 for the first tranche, ₹20,000 for the second tranche, and ₹50,000 for the third tranche.
• The tenure of the loan is up to 1 year, with monthly repayments.
• Street vendors can digitally apply for loans through the PM SVANidhi portal.
• It promotes digital transactions by incentivizing vendors through cashback offers.
• The scheme is implemented by SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) in collaboration with urban local bodies.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Street vendors in urban, semi-urban, and rural areas are eligible.
• Vendors must possess a Certificate of Vending or be identified by their respective Urban Local Bodies.
• Beneficiaries must adhere to repayment schedules to avail of the interest subsidy benefit.
• Impact of PM SVANidhi Scheme:
• Ensures financial inclusion for street vendors and empowers them economically.
• Promotes digital literacy by encouraging vendors to use digital payment systems.
• Helps street vendors sustain their livelihoods during economic disruptions such as the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Strengthens urban local governance by integrating vendors into formal economic systems.

Important Points

• Digital Transactions Incentives: Vendors are encouraged to perform regular digital transactions, which can earn them cashback of ₹50–₹100 per month.
• Implementation Agencies: The scheme is implemented in collaboration with institutions like SIDBI and urban local bodies to ensure proper execution and monitoring.
• Interest Subsidy: The subsidy of 3% aims to reduce the financial burden of street vendors and incentivize timely repayments.
• Government's Vision: PM SVANidhi aligns with the government's goal of achieving Aatmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) by providing economic support to the unorganized sector.
• Integration with Other Schemes: The scheme integrates with PM Jan Dhan Yojana and other financial inclusion initiatives to ensure seamless access to banking services.

The correct answer is ₹1,00,000.

Key Points

• The maximum asset transfer support limit under SJY (Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana) is ₹1,00,000.
• SJY is a flagship rural development program aimed at providing sustainable income-generating opportunities to rural poor households.
• The program focuses on self-employment through the formation of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and individual beneficiaries.
• Support is extended in the form of financial assistance, skill development, and infrastructure creation.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (₹50,000): This amount is lower than the maximum limit under SJY, but ₹50,000 is often cited in other schemes for minor asset transfer or assistance programs targeting rural development.
• Option 2 (₹75,000): ₹75,000 is a mid-level range often associated with programs that provide financial support to SHGs or individual beneficiaries in rural areas. However, it is not the maximum asset transfer support limit under SJY.
• Option 4 (₹1,50,000): While this amount may be associated with certain other government schemes providing higher levels of financial support, it exceeds the maximum limit under SJY.
• Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SJY): SJY was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development to bring the rural poor above the poverty line by providing them with income-generating assets through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy.

The correct answer is Self-help Group.

Key Points

• Self-help Groups (SHGs) are small informal associations of poor people, typically women, who come together to collectively save and lend among themselves.
• SHGs have been instrumental in empowering rural women economically and socially by promoting thrift, savings, and income-generating activities.
• They facilitate access to credit by linking with financial institutions, enabling members to start small businesses and improve their livelihoods.
• SHGs also play a significant role in fostering community development, enhancing social cohesion, and promoting gender equality in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Indira Awas Yojana
• It is a social welfare program created by the Indian Government to provide housing for the rural poor in India.
• The scheme aims to assist construction of houses for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
• It is now known as the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin).
• Integrated Development Project
• It is a development initiative aimed at the holistic development of various sectors such as agriculture, education, healthcare, etc.
• The project focuses on improving the overall socio-economic status of the rural population.
• Rural Health Scheme
• This scheme is aimed at improving healthcare access and quality in rural areas.
• It addresses issues such as maternal and child health, nutrition, and communicable diseases.

The correct answer is G.V.K. Rao Committee.

Key Points

• The G.V.K. Rao Committee was established in 1985 to review India's rural development and poverty alleviation programs.
• The committee focused on evaluating the effectiveness of various rural development schemes implemented by the government.
• It emphasized the need for decentralized planning and administration to improve the implementation of rural development programs.
• One of the key recommendations was to strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for better governance and development at the grassroots level.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)
• PRIs are a system of rural local self-government in India, established by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
• They consist of three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• The main aim of PRIs is to promote democratic decentralization and to involve local communities in the planning and implementation of development programs.
• Rural Development Programs
• These programs are initiatives by the government to improve the living standards and economic conditions of rural areas.
• Examples include the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), and National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM).
• Decentralized Planning
• It involves the transfer of planning, decision-making, and administrative authority from central and state governments to local levels.
• This approach aims to ensure that development plans are more responsive to local needs and priorities.
• Poverty Alleviation
• Poverty alleviation programs aim to reduce the incidence of poverty and improve the quality of life for the poor.
• These programs often focus on providing employment, education, healthcare, and social security to the vulnerable sections of society.

The correct answer is 33 years.

Key Points

• KYP stands for Kaushal Yuva Program, an initiative aimed at enhancing the skill development of youth in Bihar.
• Under the program, the maximum age limit for SC/ST candidates is set at 33 years. This ensures inclusivity and encourages candidates from these communities to participate. Hence, statement is correct.
• The program primarily focuses on providing training in essential skills such as communication, IT, and personality development to improve employability.
• The age relaxation for SC/ST candidates aligns with government norms to promote equality and representation of marginalized groups.
• The standard age limit for other categories under the Kaushal Yuva Program is generally lower, but SC/ST candidates receive an extended limit of 33 years as part of affirmative action policies.
• Hence, the correct answer is 33 years.

Additional Information

• Kaushal Yuva Program:
• This program is implemented by the Bihar Skill Development Mission (BSDM) to provide skill training to youth for better employment opportunities.
• It primarily targets unemployed youth aged 15 to 25 years, with extended limits for categories such as SC/ST, OBC, and differently-abled individuals.
• Age Relaxation for SC/ST Candidates:
• Age relaxation is provided to ensure equitable access to government schemes and programs.
• For KYP, SC/ST candidates benefit from a relaxation that extends the age limit to 33 years.
• Features of KYP:
• Training modules include English communication, basic IT, and personality development to enhance employability.
• The program aims to bridge the gap between youth skills and market requirements.
• It is part of Bihar’s broader initiative to improve the socio-economic condition of its youth.

Important Points

• Affirmative Action Policies:
• Age relaxation for SC/ST candidates is a part of India’s affirmative action policies to ensure representation and equal opportunities for marginalized communities.
• Such policies aim to address historical injustices and improve socio-economic conditions.
• Skill Development Mission:
• Bihar Skill Development Mission aligns its objectives with national initiatives like Skill India to boost employability among the youth.
• Programs like KYP are instrumental in achieving the goals of skill development and poverty alleviation.

The correct answer is Labour and Employment.

Key Points

• The scheme was introduced in August 2016 to promote employment generation by reducing the financial burden on employers.
• The scheme primarily targets establishments registered under the Employees' Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) and focuses on encouraging formalization of employment.
• It requires employers to add new employees to their workforce and register them with EPFO to benefit from the scheme.
• To reduce the financial burden of employers by paying the EPS contribution of new employees for three years.
• To provide social security benefits to employees through EPFO registration, ensuring their pensions and provident fund contributions.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Employees must be earning a monthly salary of less than ₹15,000 and should not have been previously registered with EPFO.
• The scheme has helped in formalizing employment and increasing the number of workers registered under EPFO.
• The government’s contribution to EPS is paid for new employees to reduce the financial burden on employers.
• As of 2020, the scheme has benefitted over 1.22 crore employees and provided financial relief to thousands of employers.
• The scheme is part of the government’s larger initiative to boost employment and ensure social welfare for workers.

The correct answer is e-NAM – Ministry of Agriculture.

Key Points

• ​PM-AASHA (Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan): This scheme is under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare. It aims to ensure remunerative prices to farmers for their produce through mechanisms like Price Support Scheme (PSS), Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS), and Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPSS). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• e-NAM (National Agriculture Market): This is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare. It is an online platform that facilitates better price discovery for farmers by connecting buyers and sellers across the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• PMKSY (Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana): This scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Jal Shakti (formerly Ministry of Water Resources). It focuses on irrigation development and improving water use efficiency under the motto “Har Khet Ko Pani” (water to every field). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• RODTEP (Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products): This scheme is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Finance. It ensures reimbursement of embedded taxes and duties to exporters, making Indian products globally competitive. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Detailed Information about PMKSY:
• PMKSY was launched in 2015 to achieve the vision of “Per Drop More Crop.”
• It aims to provide irrigation facilities to every farm, ensuring optimal use of water resources and promoting sustainable agriculture.
• Major components include Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP), Har Khet Ko Pani, Per Drop More Crop, and watershed development.
• It is implemented by the Ministry of Jal Shakti in coordination with the Ministry of Agriculture and state governments.
• Details of Other Schemes:
• PM-AASHA: Introduced in 2018, it ensures farmers get the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for their crops and aims to reduce agricultural distress.
• e-NAM: Launched in 2016, it connects 585 Agricultural Produce Market Committees (APMCs) across the country, improving market access for farmers.
• RODTEP: Introduced in 2021, it replaced the MEIS (Merchandise Exports from India Scheme) to comply with WTO norms and enhance export competitiveness.

Important Points

• PMKSY Key Facts:
• The Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP) under PMKSY focuses on completing long-pending irrigation projects.
• The Per Drop More Crop component promotes micro-irrigation techniques like drip and sprinkler irrigation.
• Significance of RODTEP:
• RODTEP ensures exporters get refunds for embedded taxes and duties that were not refunded earlier, such as VAT on fuel.
• It covers sectors like agriculture, textiles, chemicals, and more, making Indian goods more competitive.

The correct answer is Government of India Act, 1919.

Key Points

• The Panchayati Raj system was first introduced under the Government of India Act, 1919.
• The Act aimed at decentralizing administrative powers to local governments, including village councils known as panchayats.
• It marked the beginning of formal efforts to establish a system of local self-government in rural areas of India.
• The Act proposed to democratize the governance structure by involving local population in the administration.

Additional Information

• Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
• The Government of India Act, 1919, is also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
• These reforms were named after Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy of India.
• The reforms aimed at gradually introducing self-governing institutions to India.
• Diarchy System
• The Act introduced the system of diarchy, where the provincial subjects were divided into two lists: Reserved and Transferred.
• The Reserved subjects were administered by the Governor and his executive council, while the Transferred subjects were managed by elected Indian ministers.
• Panchayati Raj Evolution
• After the Government of India Act, 1919, the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) further recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system.
• This recommendation was implemented in 1959, initially in Rajasthan, and later adopted by other states.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
• This Act provided a constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions in India.
• It mandated the creation of panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
• The Act aimed to strengthen the role of local governance in the development process.

The correct answer is 500.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched in 2000 by the Government of India to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected villages in rural areas.
• The scheme targets rural areas with a population of 500 and above in plain areas, and 250 and above in hill states, tribal areas, and desert regions.
• Under this scheme, roads must be designed to be all-weather, meaning they are capable of handling year-round traffic, including during the rainy season.
• The PMGSY is fully funded by the central government, and the responsibility for implementation lies with the state governments.
• The primary aim is to improve rural connectivity, enhance livelihood opportunities, and promote economic development in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Eligibility under the PMGSY:
• Villages with a population of 500 and above in plain areas qualify for road connectivity.
• In hilly, tribal, and desert areas, villages with a population of 250 and above qualify for coverage under the scheme.
• Objectives of the Scheme:
• Provide all-weather road access to unconnected rural habitations to enhance socio-economic conditions.
• Facilitate access to markets, healthcare, and education facilities for rural inhabitants.
• Impact of the Scheme:
• Improved road connectivity has led to better access to essential services like healthcare and education in rural areas.
• It has also contributed to economic growth by enabling rural producers to access larger markets.
• Funding:
• The scheme is 100% centrally funded, with the Centre providing the financial resources required for construction and maintenance.
• Achievements:
• Since its inception, the PMGSY has connected thousands of rural habitations across India, significantly improving rural infrastructure.

Important Points

• All-weather roads:
• Roads constructed under PMGSY are designed to withstand all seasons, ensuring uninterrupted transportation.
• Focus on inclusivity:
• The scheme places special emphasis on tribal and remote areas to ensure equitable development.
• Use of technology:
• Innovative technologies and materials are used to ensure the durability and cost-effectiveness of the roads constructed under the scheme.