Previous Year Paper

HPSC Assistant Professor (Geography) Official Paper (Held On: 22 May, 2019) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

100 questions120 minutes
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Question 1

As per Malthus the doubling time for population of a region is:

  1. AOption (a)

    10 years

  2. BOption (b)

    15 years

  3. COption (c)

    25 years

  4. DOption (d)

    32 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 25 years.

Thomas Robert Malthus was an English cleric and scholar, influential in the fields of political economy and demography. He is best known for his theory on population growth, which he articulated in his work, "An Essay on the Principle of Population." Malthus argued that population growth would eventually outpace food production, leading to widespread famine and poverty unless controlled by moral restraint or other checks.

Key Points

Malthusian Theory:

  • Exponential Growth:
  • Malthus proposed that population grows exponentially (doubling at regular intervals), while food production increases arithmetically (adding a constant amount each period).
  • Doubling Time:
  • According to Malthus, the doubling time for a population is the period it takes for the population to double in size. He estimated this to be about 25 years under ideal conditions.
  • Preventive Checks:
  • To avoid the dire consequences of unchecked population growth, Malthus advocated for preventive checks such as moral restraint, delayed marriage, and celibacy.
  • Positive Checks:
  • If preventive checks are not practiced, Malthus warned that positive checks like famine, disease, and war would inevitably reduce the population to sustainable levels.

Additional Information

  • Criticism of Malthusian Theory:
  • Many critics argue that Malthus did not foresee technological advancements that would significantly increase food production, such as the Green Revolution.
  • Others believe Malthus underestimated human innovation in improving agricultural practices and resource management.
  • Relevance Today:
  • While some aspects of Malthus's theory have been disproven or mitigated by technological progress, concerns about overpopulation and resource depletion remain relevant in discussions about sustainability and environmental impact.

Question 2

How many stages of demographic transition are suggested by C. P. Blacker? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 5.

The demographic transition model, as suggested by C. P. Blacker, describes the transformation of a country’s population structure over time. This model is crucial for understanding how population changes impact social, economic, and environmental conditions. Blacker suggested that this transition occurs in five distinct stages, each characterized by differing birth and death rates.

Key Points

  • Stage 1: High Stationary
  • Characterized by high birth and death rates which cancel each other out, leading to a stable and relatively low population.
  • Stage 2: Early Expanding
  • Marked by a decline in death rates while birth rates remain high, resulting in a rapid population increase.
  • Stage 3: Late Expanding
  • Both birth rates and death rates start to decline, but birth rates remain higher than death rates, leading to a slower population growth.
  • Stage 4: Low Stationary
  • Both birth and death rates are low, stabilizing the population with minimal growth.
  • Stage 5: Declining
  • Birth rates fall below death rates, leading to a decline in the total population.

Additional Information

  • Socio-Economic Impacts:
  • Each stage of demographic transition reflects different socio-economic conditions, such as healthcare improvements, industrialization, and changes in societal norms related to family size and childbearing.
  • Policy Implications:
  • Understanding the stages helps governments and organizations to design effective policies for economic development, healthcare, and education systems tailored to the population's needs.
  • Global Variations:
  • Different countries may experience these stages at different times and rates due to variations in cultural, economic, and political factors.

Question 3

Match the following and select the correct answer :

List – IList - II
I.Reillyi.Least Effort Principle
II.Zipfii.Spatial Interaction Model
III.Stoufferiii.Law of Retail Gravitation
IV.Hagerstrandiv.Intervening Opportunity Model
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - iii, II - iv, III - i, IV - ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii.

Key Points

List IList II
I. Reillyiii. Law of Retail Gravitation
II. Zipfi. Least Effort Principle
III. Stoufferiv. Intervening Opportunity Model
IV. Hagerstrandii. Spatial Interaction Model

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Reilly's Law of Retail Gravitation:
  • Definition: This law predicts the trade or market area boundary between two competing commercial centers.
  • Principle: It states that consumers are willing to travel longer distances to larger retail centers given the higher attractiveness of these centers.
  • Impact: It helps in understanding the spatial distribution of retail activities and can assist in making decisions related to retail location and market area analysis.
  • Zipf's Least Effort Principle:
  • Definition: This principle suggests that people naturally choose the path of least resistance or effort in their actions.
  • Application: It is often applied in linguistics, urban planning, and geography to explain phenomena such as language usage, movement patterns, and spatial interactions.
  • Impact: Understanding this principle helps in optimizing systems and processes to align with natural human behavior for efficiency.
  • Stouffer's Intervening Opportunity Model:
  • Definition: This model suggests that the likelihood of migration is influenced by the number of opportunities available between the origin and destination.
  • Principle: It proposes that the chance of migration decreases with the presence of intervening opportunities that are closer to the point of origin.
  • Impact: This model is useful in understanding migration patterns and planning for transportation and urban development.
  • Hagerstrand's Spatial Interaction Model:
  • Definition: This model explains the flow of information, goods, and people across space and how these flows are influenced by distance and other barriers.
  • Application: It is widely used in geography and regional planning to analyze and predict spatial patterns of interaction.
  • Impact: Understanding spatial interactions helps in optimizing logistics, planning for infrastructure, and improving connectivity and accessibility.

Question 4

In which latitudinal extension on the globe the maximum population of the world is distributed?

  1. AOption (a)

    0° - 40°S

  2. BOption (b)

    0° -  20°N

  3. COption (c)

    20° N - 40°N

  4. DOption (d)

    40°N - 60°N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20° N - 40°N

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 20° N - 40° N.

The distribution of the global population is highly influenced by geographical, climatic, and socio-economic factors. The latitudinal belts between 20° N and 40° N encompass some of the world's most populous regions, including major parts of Asia, Europe, and North America.

Key Points

  • Geographical Coverage:
  • This latitudinal range includes countries like China, India, Japan, the United States, and many European nations, which are known for their large population densities.
  • Climatic Conditions:
  • The climate in this belt is generally temperate to subtropical, which is favorable for agriculture, habitation, and economic activities. These conditions support high population densities as they provide a stable environment for food production and living.
  • Economic Development:
  • The regions within 20° N - 40° N latitudes are economically developed or developing, providing better job opportunities, healthcare, and education, which attract and sustain larger populations.
  • Historical Significance:
  • Historically, many ancient civilizations and modern industrial revolutions began in these regions, leading to long-standing population settlements.

Additional Information

  • Urbanization:
  • Many of the world's megacities are located within this latitudinal belt. Cities like Beijing, New Delhi, Tokyo, and New York City contribute significantly to the high population densities.
  • Infrastructure:
  • Advanced infrastructure in terms of transportation, communication, and housing also supports the high population density in these regions.
  • Policy and Governance:
  • Effective governance and policies in these regions contribute to better living conditions, healthcare, and education systems, which sustain large populations.

Question 5

What value of Net Reproductive Rate (NRR) is equivalent to replacement level ?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    0.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 1.

The Net Reproductive Rate (NRR) is a demographic measure that indicates the average number of daughters a woman would have in her lifetime if she were subject to the age-specific fertility and mortality rates of a given year. An NRR of 1 implies that each generation of women is exactly replacing itself without any increase or decrease in the population size, which is referred to as the replacement level.

Key Points

  • Definition of NRR:
  • NRR is the average number of daughters that would be born to a woman (or group of women) if she were to pass through her lifetime conforming to the age-specific fertility and mortality rates of a given year.
  • Replacement Level:
  • An NRR of 1 means that a generation of women will have exactly enough daughters to replace themselves in the population, ensuring zero population growth in the absence of migration.
  • Population Stability:
  • When NRR is 1, the population is considered stable, assuming there are no other factors affecting population size such as migration.
  • Influencing Factors:
  • NRR can be influenced by various factors such as fertility rates, mortality rates, and the age distribution of the population.

Additional Information

  • Total Fertility Rate (TFR) and NRR:
  • The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is often used alongside NRR to give a comprehensive view of population dynamics. A TFR of approximately 2.1 children per woman is generally considered to be the replacement-level fertility in developed countries, accounting for the mortality rate and ensuring population stability.
  • Global Variations:
  • Replacement level fertility varies by country due to differences in mortality rates. In countries with higher mortality rates, a higher TFR is needed to achieve an NRR of 1.
  • Policy Implications:
  • Understanding NRR is crucial for policymakers to design effective population policies, healthcare strategies, and economic plans to manage population growth and demographic changes.

Question 6

Match the following and select the correct answer :

List – I (Proponent )List - II (Work)
I.Peter Gouldi.The decision process in spatial context
II.H. Simonii.Mental maps
III.Allen Prediii.Satisfier model
IV.J. Wolpertiv.Behavioural matrix
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - ii, II - iii, III - iv, IV - i

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - ii, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I - ii, II - iii, III - iv, IV - i

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - ii, II - iii, III - iv, IV - i.

Key Points

Proponent (List I)Work (List II)
I. Peter Gouldii. Mental maps
II. H. Simoniii. Satisfier model
III. Allen Prediv. Behavioural matrix
IV. J. Wolperti. The decision process in spatial context

 

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Peter Gould - Mental maps:
  • Definition: Mental maps refer to the personal visualization and perception of spatial information in an individual's mind.
  • Contribution: Peter Gould's work on mental maps examines how people perceive and mentally organize geographic spaces.
  • Impact: This concept is significant in understanding spatial behavior, navigation, and geographic knowledge.
  • H. Simon - Satisfier model:
  • Definition: The Satisfier model, proposed by Herbert A. Simon, suggests that individuals make decisions by selecting an option that meets a satisfactory level of acceptance rather than the optimal one.
  • Contribution: Simon's work emphasizes bounded rationality in decision-making processes, acknowledging the limitations of human cognitive capabilities.
  • Impact: This model is crucial in behavioral economics and decision theory, influencing how choices are understood in various fields.
  • Allen Pred - Behavioural matrix:
  • Definition: The Behavioural matrix is a framework used to analyze and categorize human behavior and decision-making patterns in geographical contexts.
  • Contribution: Allen Pred's work on the Behavioural matrix provides insights into how individuals and groups interact with their environments and make spatial decisions.
  • Impact: This concept is valuable in urban planning, human geography, and environmental psychology, offering a structured approach to studying spatial behavior.
  • J. Wolpert - The decision process in spatial context:
  • Definition: This work focuses on understanding how spatial factors influence decision-making processes.
  • Contribution: J. Wolpert's study highlights the role of geographic context in shaping choices and behaviors.
  • Impact: This research is significant in geography and spatial analysis, providing a deeper understanding of the interaction between space and decision-making.

Question 7

The conceptual thought related to gender discrimination founded the paradigm of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Realism

  2. BOption (b)

    Idealism

  3. COption (c)

    Existentialism

  4. DOption (d)

    Feminism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Feminism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Feminism'

Key Points

  • Feminism:
  • Feminism is a movement and ideology that seeks to define, establish, and achieve political, economic, personal, and social equality of sexes.
  • It addresses issues of gender discrimination, advocating for women's rights and striving to challenge the systemic inequalities faced by women.
  • The conceptual thought related to gender discrimination forms the core of feminist theory, which examines the social roles of women and men, and the power dynamics inherent in these roles.
  • Feminist theory has influenced various fields such as sociology, economics, law, and literature, aiming to understand and rectify the historical and cultural biases against women.

Additional Information

  • Realism:
  • Realism is a philosophical stance that emphasizes the representation of subjects as they appear in everyday life, without embellishment or interpretation.
  • In international relations, realism focuses on the competitive and conflictual side of international relations and the role of state power.
  • It does not specifically address issues of gender discrimination or inequalities between the sexes.
  • Idealism:
  • Idealism is a philosophical approach that asserts the primacy of the mind, consciousness, or ideas over material reality.
  • It often emphasizes the potential for human progress and the importance of moral and ethical values.
  • While idealism can influence social theories, it does not inherently focus on gender discrimination or the specific issues addressed by feminism.
  • Existentialism:
  • Existentialism is a philosophical theory that emphasizes individual freedom, choice, and existence.
  • It focuses on the unique experiences of the individual and the subjective meaning of life.
  • Although existentialism can intersect with feminist thought, it does not primarily address gender discrimination or advocate for gender equality.

Important Points

  • Feminism is not a monolithic ideology; it encompasses various perspectives and approaches, including liberal feminism, radical feminism, and intersectional feminism.
  • Intersectional feminism, in particular, examines how various forms of discrimination (e.g., race, class, gender) intersect and affect individuals differently.
  • Feminist movements have led to significant legal and societal changes, including women's suffrage, reproductive rights, and workplace equality.
  • Key figures in the feminist movement include Simone de Beauvoir, Betty Friedan, and bell hooks, among others.

Question 8

The journal Antipode' related to radical geography was started from :

  1. AOption (a)

    Harvard University

  2. BOption (b)

    Washington University

  3. COption (c)

    Clark University

  4. DOption (d)

    Chicago University

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Clark University

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Clark University'

Key Points

  • Antipode: A Radical Journal of Geography was founded in 1969 by a group of graduate students at Clark University in Worcester, Massachusetts (USA).
  • It was established to promote radical and critical approaches to geographical scholarship in response to the dominance of positivist and quantitative methods in geography during the 1960s.
  • The journal serves as a forum for debates on issues like capitalism, inequality, social justice, and activism in geographical contexts.
  • Its mission is to connect academic scholarship with political engagement and grassroots activism.

Additional Information

  • Harvard University:
  • While a renowned institution, it was not associated with the founding of Antipode.
  • Harvard’s geography department was disbanded in the 1940s, reducing its role in geographic innovation during this period.
  • Washington University:
  • No direct connection with the creation of Antipode.
  • Not known for initiating radical geography movements during the 1960s.
  • Chicago University:
  • While it contributed significantly to quantitative revolution in geography, it was not the origin of Antipode.
  • The University of Chicago focused more on spatial science and urban geography.

Important Points

  • Antipode remains one of the most cited journals in critical human geography.
  • It publishes work on topics like urban resistance, climate justice, racial capitalism, feminist geography, and more.
  • Antipode is currently published by Wiley-Blackwell on behalf of the Antipode Foundation, which supports radical research through fellowships and events.
  • It has played a crucial role in shaping the discourse around geography as a tool of critique and transformation.

Question 9

'Value free objective research' is the prime objective of :

  1. AOption (a)

    Probabilism

  2. BOption (b)

    Humanism

  3. COption (c)

    Radicalism

  4. DOption (d)

    Positivism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Positivism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Positivism'

Key Points

  • Positivism:
  • Positivism is a philosophical theory which asserts that authentic knowledge is exclusively derived from empirical evidence.
  • This theory emphasizes the importance of observable, scientific facts and laws rather than metaphysical or theological explanations.
  • It involves a rigorous, systematic, and value-free approach to research, focusing on objective reality and often utilizes quantitative methods.
  • Positivism seeks to develop general laws and principles that can predict and explain various phenomena in a precise and objective manner.
  • This approach has been fundamental in the development of natural and social sciences, promoting the idea that knowledge should be based on observable and measurable facts.

Additional Information

  • Probabilism:
  • Probabilism is a philosophical and theological theory which suggests that in the absence of certainty, decisions should be based on the probability of outcomes.
  • This approach is often applied in ethical and decision-making scenarios where precise knowledge is lacking, and choices must be made on the basis of likely consequences.
  • It does not prioritize the objective, value-free research that positivism emphasizes.
  • Humanism:
  • Humanism is an intellectual movement that emphasizes human values, individual dignity, and the potential for self-realization through reason and ethics.
  • It focuses on the experiences, interests, and capacities of human beings rather than objective or scientific data.
  • Humanism often involves a qualitative approach to understanding human nature and society, which contrasts with the quantitative, objective methods of positivism.
  • Radicalism:
  • Radicalism in the context of social sciences refers to an approach that advocates for fundamental changes in society, often addressing issues of inequality, injustice, and power dynamics.
  • This perspective focuses on transformative social and political changes rather than the detached, objective analysis of positivism.
  • Radicalism often involves a critical examination of existing social structures and seeks to challenge and change the status quo.

Important Points

  • Positivism has its roots in the works of philosophers such as Auguste Comte, who is often regarded as the father of positivism.
  • Comte believed that human knowledge progresses through three stages: theological, metaphysical, and positive, with the positive stage representing the peak of human intellectual development.
  • Positivism has been influential in the development of various scientific disciplines, advocating for the use of scientific methods to understand and improve society.
  • Critics of positivism argue that it can be overly reductionist and neglect the complex, subjective aspects of human experience.

Question 10

Which among the following is not an assumption of quantitative approach?

  1. AOption (a)

    Economic Man

  2. BOption (b)

    Human values

  3. COption (c)

    Isotropic surface

  4. DOption (d)

    Economic rationality

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Human values

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Human values'

Key Points

  • Human values - Not an Assumption of the Quantitative Approach:
  • The quantitative approach in geography and social sciences focuses on measurable data, mathematical models, and objective analysis.
  • It does not incorporate subjective elements like human emotions, ethics, or cultural values.
  • Human values are more relevant to qualitative approaches, which emphasize individual experiences, cultural interpretations, and social behavior.

Additional Information

  • Economic Man:
  • The assumption of Economic Man suggests that individuals make rational decisions to maximize their economic benefits.
  • This concept is widely used in quantitative models in geography, economics, and regional planning.
  • Isotropic Surface:
  • An isotropic surface is an idealized, homogeneous area with uniform conditions, often used in quantitative models for spatial analysis.
  • It helps in simplifying complex spatial interactions in theoretical models.
  • Economic Rationality:
  • Economic rationality assumes that decision-makers act logically to optimize their choices based on costs and benefits.
  • This is a fundamental principle in location theories, economic geography, and regional development models.

Important Points

  • The quantitative approach relies on numerical data, statistical techniques, and mathematical models.
  • Assumptions like Economic Man, Isotropic Surface, and Economic Rationality help in formulating predictive models.
  • Human values, being subjective, are not considered in quantitative methodologies.

Question 11

As per Weber, the lines joining sites of equal total transport cost are called as :

  1. AOption (a)

    Isohaline

  2. BOption (b)

    Isodapane 

  3. COption (c)

    Isotim

  4. DOption (d)

    Isobars

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Isodapane 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Isodapane'

Key Points

  • Isodapane:
  • Isodapane is a term used in economic geography and location theory, introduced by Alfred Weber.
  • It refers to lines on a map that connect points of equal transport cost. Essentially, these lines show the areas where the transportation costs for a particular product or resource are the same.
  • Weber used the concept of isodapane to analyze and determine the optimal location for industries, considering the minimization of transportation costs as a key factor.
  • This concept helps businesses in making decisions about where to locate their operations to maximize efficiency and reduce costs.

Additional Information

  • Isohaline:
  • Isohaline refers to lines on a map that connect points of equal salinity in a body of water.
  • This term is primarily used in oceanography and hydrology, not in economic geography or location theory.
  • Isotim:
  • Isotim refers to lines that connect points of equal travel time from a specific location.
  • While related to transportation and geography, it focuses on time rather than cost, and is not specifically related to Weber's location theory.
  • Isobars:
  • Isobars are lines on a weather map that connect points of equal atmospheric pressure.
  • This term is used in meteorology, and it has no direct relevance to economic geography or the concept of transport cost.

Important Points

  • The idea of isodapane is closely associated with the concept of minimizing transportation costs, which is crucial for industrial location analysis.
  • Weber's theory also considers other factors such as labor costs and agglomeration economies, but transport cost minimization remains central.
  • Understanding isodapane can help in making strategic decisions about supply chain management and logistics planning.
  • Weber’s location theory is a foundational concept in regional science and economic geography, influencing various subsequent models and theories.

Question 12

Which of the following is a leading country in 'Ship-building Industry' ?

  1. AOption (a)

    South Africa 

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan

  3. COption (c)

    Singapore

  4. DOption (d)

    Spain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Japan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Japan'.

Key Points

  • Japan:
  • Japan is renowned for its advanced shipbuilding industry, which is one of the largest in the world.
  • The country has a long history of shipbuilding, dating back centuries, and it has been at the forefront of modern shipbuilding technology and innovation.
  • Japanese shipyards, such as Mitsubishi Heavy Industries and Kawasaki Heavy Industries, produce a wide range of vessels, including commercial ships, tankers, and specialized vessels.
  • Japan's shipbuilding industry is supported by a strong industrial base, skilled workforce, and technological advancements.

Additional Information

  • South Africa:
  • South Africa has a shipbuilding industry, but it is relatively small compared to global leaders like Japan, South Korea, and China.
  • The country focuses more on ship repair and maintenance rather than large-scale shipbuilding.
  • Singapore:
  • Singapore is a significant player in the maritime industry, particularly known for its ship repair and conversion services rather than new shipbuilding.
  • The country is a global hub for maritime services and has one of the busiest ports in the world.
  • Spain:
  • Spain has a notable shipbuilding industry, especially in the production of specialized and high-value vessels.
  • Spanish shipyards like Navantia are known for building military vessels and technologically advanced ships.
  • However, Spain's shipbuilding industry is not as large or influential on the global stage as Japan's.

Important Points

  • Japan's shipbuilding industry has been a significant contributor to its economy and technological advancements in the maritime sector.
  • It is known for producing high-quality and reliable vessels, which are in demand globally.
  • Japan continues to invest in research and development to maintain its competitive edge in the shipbuilding industry.

Question 13

"Hoe-Farming Culture' is related to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Commercial grain farming

  2. BOption (b)

    Primitive form of agriculture

  3. COption (c)

    Truck Farming 

  4. DOption (d)

    Horticulture

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Primitive form of agriculture

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Primitive form of agriculture'

Key Points

  • Primitive form of agriculture:
  • Hoe-farming culture refers to a traditional and ancient form of agriculture that relies on manual tools such as hoes for cultivation.
  • This method is typically utilized in subsistence farming where the primary goal is to produce enough food to meet the needs of the farmer's family, rather than for commercial purposes.
  • It is characterized by small-scale farming, minimal use of technology, and reliance on natural rainfall for irrigation.
  • This form of agriculture is often practiced in regions with limited access to modern farming equipment and infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • Commercial grain farming:
  • This type of farming involves the large-scale production of grains such as wheat, corn, and rice for sale in the market.
  • It relies heavily on modern machinery, advanced technology, and chemical inputs to increase productivity and efficiency.
  • Commercial grain farming is typically practiced in developed countries and regions with extensive agricultural infrastructure.
  • Truck Farming:
  • Truck farming refers to the commercial production of vegetables, fruits, and flowers for local markets.
  • This type of farming is characterized by its proximity to urban areas where the produce is sold directly to consumers or through local markets.
  • Truck farming often involves intensive cultivation and the use of modern agricultural practices to maximize yields.
  • Horticulture:
  • Horticulture is the science and art of growing fruits, vegetables, flowers, and ornamental plants.
  • It encompasses a wide range of activities, from small-scale gardening to large-scale commercial production.
  • Horticulture involves the use of specialized techniques and knowledge to enhance plant growth, improve yields, and maintain the health and aesthetic value of plants.

Important Points

  • Primitive agriculture is often associated with traditional societies and indigenous communities that have maintained their ancestral farming practices over generations.
  • It plays a crucial role in preserving biodiversity and maintaining ecological balance by promoting sustainable farming methods.
  • Despite its limitations in terms of productivity and economic output, primitive agriculture remains vital for food security and cultural heritage in many parts of the world.

Question 14

The ratio between gross cropped area (GCA) and net sown area (NSA) shows :

  1. AOption (a)

    Crop combination 

  2. BOption (b)

    Crop concentration

  3. COption (c)

    Cropping diversity

  4. DOption (d)

    Cropping intensity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cropping intensity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cropping Intensity'

Key Points

  • Cropping Intensity:
  • Cropping intensity refers to the number of times crops are grown and harvested from the same piece of land in a year.
  • The ratio between Gross Cropped Area (GCA) and Net Sown Area (NSA) is a measure of cropping intensity.
  • This ratio indicates how effectively the agricultural land is being utilized for crop production.
  • A higher cropping intensity implies more efficient use of land resources, leading to higher agricultural productivity.
  • It helps in understanding the agricultural practices and the level of agricultural development in a particular region.

Additional Information

  • Crop Combination:
  • Crop combination refers to the practice of growing multiple crops simultaneously on the same piece of land.
  • This concept is mainly used to understand the agricultural diversification in a particular region.
  • It is not directly related to the ratio between GCA and NSA.
  • Crop Concentration:
  • Crop concentration refers to the dominance of a particular crop in a specific area.
  • It indicates the extent to which a particular crop is grown in comparison to other crops in the region.
  • This concept does not measure the intensity of land use but rather the focus on specific crops.
  • Cropping Diversity:
  • Cropping diversity refers to the variety of different crops grown on a farm or within a region.
  • It is a measure of biodiversity in agricultural practices.
  • This concept highlights the range of crops and does not specifically relate to the ratio of GCA and NSA.

Important Points

  • The Gross Cropped Area (GCA) is the total area sown once or more than once in a particular year, indicating multiple cropping practices.
  • The Net Sown Area (NSA) is the area sown with crops but does not account for multiple cropping within the same year.
  • Understanding cropping intensity is essential for planning agricultural policies and improving land use efficiency.

Question 15

Which of the following occupations are classified as tertiary activities ?

I. Retail business

II. Carpenter

III. Administrator

IV. Farmer

  1. AOption (a)

    I, III and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    I and IV

  3. COption (c)

    II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I and III

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: I and III

Key Points

  • Retail business:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Retail business falls under tertiary activities as it involves the sale of goods and services to consumers. These activities do not produce tangible goods but provide services and facilitate the distribution of goods.
  • Examples include stores, supermarkets, and online retail platforms.
  • Carpenter:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • A carpenter is involved in secondary activities, which include manufacturing and construction. These activities transform raw materials into finished products or create structures.
  • Carpentry involves working with wood to create furniture, buildings, and other structures, which is a form of production and thus classified under secondary activities.
  • Administrator:
  • This statement is correct.
  • An administrator is engaged in tertiary activities, which include providing services such as management, administration, and support functions.
  • These roles are crucial for the organization and functioning of businesses, governments, and other institutions, facilitating other economic activities.
  • Farmer:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • A farmer is involved in primary activities, which include the extraction and harvesting of natural resources. Farming involves the cultivation of crops and raising livestock.
  • Primary activities are foundational economic activities that provide raw materials for secondary and tertiary activities.

Additional Information

  • Tertiary Activities:
  • Tertiary activities, also known as the service sector, involve the provision of services rather than the production of goods.
  • This sector includes a wide range of services such as retail, education, healthcare, finance, entertainment, and administration.
  • These activities are essential for the functioning of the economy, providing support and facilitating the distribution and consumption of goods produced by primary and secondary sectors.
  • Importance of Tertiary Sector:
  • The tertiary sector is crucial for economic development as it provides employment opportunities and contributes significantly to the GDP of a country.
  • As economies develop, there is a shift from primary and secondary activities to tertiary activities, reflecting increased demand for services and higher living standards.
  • Examples of Tertiary Sector:
  • Examples include banking, insurance, real estate, legal services, transportation, tourism, and information technology.

Question 16

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – I (Name)List - II (Value of Albedo)
I.Trewarthai.34
II.Molerii.35
III.Critchfieldiii.30
IV.Strahleriv.32
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii

  3. COption (c)

    I - i, II - iii, III - iv, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - iii, II - iv, III - i, IV - ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv.

Key Points

Name (List I)Value of Albedo (List II)
(I) Trewartha(i) 34
(II) Moler(ii) 35
(III) Critchfield(iii) 30
(IV) Strahler(iv) 32

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Understanding Albedo:
  • Definition: Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface. It is the ratio of reflected radiation from the surface to the incident radiation upon it.
  • Importance: It is a crucial factor in the study of climate and weather patterns. Surfaces with high albedo, like ice and snow, reflect most of the sunlight, while those with low albedo, like forests and oceans, absorb more sunlight.
  • Albedo Values in Geographical Studies:
  • Trewartha: Known for his contributions to climatology, Trewartha's studies often included the albedo value of 34, indicating moderate reflectivity.
  • Moler: Another significant figure in climatology, Moler noted the albedo value of 35, highlighting surfaces with slightly higher reflectivity.
  • Critchfield: Critchfield's work in climatology included the albedo value of 30, representing surfaces with moderate absorption and reflection of sunlight.
  • Strahler: Strahler's contributions to physical geography and climatology included the albedo value of 32, indicating surfaces with balanced reflectivity and absorptive properties.
  • Application of Albedo in Climate Studies:
  • Climate Modeling: Albedo values are used in climate models to predict the energy balance of the Earth's surface, influencing temperature and weather patterns.
  • Environmental Impact: Changes in albedo due to deforestation, urbanization, or ice melt can significantly impact global warming and climate change.

Question 17

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A): The shift of ITCZ is greater over land surface than over the sea in northern hemisphere.

Reason (R): In summer season the sea arcas are more heated than the land surface.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is '(A) is true, but (R) is false'.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): The shift of ITCZ is greater over land surface than over the sea in northern hemisphere.
  • This statement is true.
  • Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): The ITCZ is a region near the equator where trade winds from both hemispheres meet, causing a band of clouds and thunderstorms. The position of the ITCZ varies throughout the year, moving north and south with the seasons.
  • Land vs. Sea: The shift of the ITCZ is more pronounced over land than over the sea because land surfaces heat up and cool down more rapidly than water bodies. This rapid heating and cooling cause greater seasonal changes in pressure and wind patterns over land.
  • Reason (R): In summer season the sea areas are more heated than the land surface.
  • This statement is false.
  • Thermal Properties: Land surfaces heat up more quickly and to higher temperatures than sea surfaces due to their lower specific heat capacity. During the summer season, land areas experience higher temperatures compared to sea areas.
  • Seasonal Heating: In the summer, the land absorbs more heat and reaches higher temperatures than the sea. This increased heating over land contributes to the greater shift of the ITCZ over land surfaces compared to sea surfaces.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and R:
  • The assertion (A) is correct because the ITCZ does indeed shift more over land than over sea in the northern hemisphere due to the differential heating of land and water surfaces.
  • However, the reason (R) is incorrect because it falsely claims that sea areas are more heated than land surfaces in the summer, which contradicts the true reason behind the greater shift of the ITCZ over land.

Additional Information

  • ITCZ Movement: The ITCZ's movement is influenced by the thermal contrast between land and sea. In the summer, the heating of land areas causes low-pressure zones, drawing the ITCZ further inland.
  • Seasonal Variations: The ITCZ moves northward during the Northern Hemisphere summer and southward during the Southern Hemisphere summer, following the sun's zenith position.
  • Climatic Impact: The position and movement of the ITCZ have significant impacts on weather patterns, including monsoons, precipitation, and tropical storm formation.

Question 18

'Aurora' is related with :

  1. AOption (a)

    Stratosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Ozone layer

  3. COption (c)

    Ionosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Exosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ionosphere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Ionosphere'

Key Points

  • Ionosphere:
  • The ionosphere is a significant layer of Earth's atmosphere that is ionized by solar and cosmic radiation.
  • This region is crucial for radio communication as it reflects and modifies radio waves used for long-distance communication.
  • The ionosphere is known for phenomena such as auroras, which are natural light displays predominantly seen in high-latitude regions around the Arctic and Antarctic.
  • Auroras occur when charged particles from the sun interact with the Earth's magnetic field and ionosphere, causing the characteristic colorful light displays.

Additional Information

  • Stratosphere:
  • The stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth's atmosphere, just above the troposphere and below the mesosphere.
  • This layer is known for containing the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation.
  • The stratosphere is not directly related to the occurrence of auroras.
  • Ozone Layer:
  • The ozone layer is a region within the stratosphere that contains a high concentration of ozone (O3) molecules.
  • It plays a critical role in protecting life on Earth by absorbing most of the sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.
  • While crucial for life, the ozone layer is not involved in the phenomena of auroras.
  • Exosphere:
  • The exosphere is the outermost layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending outward into space.
  • This layer is where the atmosphere thins out and merges with interplanetary space.
  • The exosphere does not play a significant role in the formation of auroras.

Important Points

  • Auroras, also known as the Northern and Southern Lights, are more likely to be observed in regions close to the polar circles.
  • The ionosphere's interaction with solar winds and Earth's magnetic field results in the emission of light, creating the stunning displays of auroras.
  • Understanding the ionosphere is crucial for improving satellite communication and navigation systems, as well as for studying space weather phenomena.

Question 19

From bottom to top, the correct sequence of layers of atomic gases in Heterosphere is:

  1. AOption (a)

    N2, O2, He and H2

  2. BOption (b)

    O2, N2, H2 and He

  3. COption (c)

    N2, O2, H2 and He

  4. DOption (d)

    O2, N2, He and H2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

N2, O2, He and H2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: N2, O2, He, and H2

The heterosphere is the upper layer of the Earth's atmosphere above the homosphere, beginning approximately at an altitude of 100 km. In this zone, the atmospheric gases are not uniformly mixed. Instead, they are stratified according to their molecular weight — with heavier gases settling below and lighter gases rising above. This creates a layered structure of gases in the heterosphere, with each gas dominating a particular altitude range.

Key Points

  • Stratification by Molecular Weight:
  • The heterosphere features layers of gases ordered by molecular mass — heavier gases like nitrogen and oxygen occupy lower altitudes, while lighter gases like helium and hydrogen occupy the upper layers.
  • Bottom to Top Sequence:
  • Nitrogen (N2): The heaviest among the listed gases, found in the lowest part of the heterosphere.
  • Oxygen (O2): Slightly lighter than nitrogen, located just above it.
  • Helium (He): A much lighter noble gas, found above oxygen.
  • Hydrogen (H2): The lightest element, occupying the uppermost layer of the atmosphere.
  • Role of Molecular Diffusion:
  • Due to the lack of turbulence and mixing in the heterosphere, molecular diffusion dominates, allowing gases to separate based on their weight.

Additional Information

  • Heterosphere vs. Homosphere:
  • The homosphere lies below the heterosphere (up to ~100 km) and features a uniform composition of gases like N2, O2, Ar, and CO2 due to turbulent mixing.
  • Transition Layer:
  • The turbopause (~100 km altitude) separates the homosphere and heterosphere. Above this, turbulence is minimal and stratification dominates.
  • Application in Space Sciences:
  • The stratification of gases in the heterosphere is crucial in understanding satellite drag, ionospheric behavior, and reentry dynamics of spacecraft.

Question 20

Height of earth's effective atmosphere at which solar constant is calculate

  1. AOption (a)

    180km

  2. BOption (b)

    300km

  3. COption (c)

    480km

  4. DOption (d)

    1600km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

480km

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 480 km.

The solar constant is a measure of the amount of solar radiation received per unit area at the top of the Earth's atmosphere. It is an important parameter in understanding Earth's energy balance and climate. The height at which the solar constant is calculated is critical because it represents the boundary where the atmosphere starts to significantly affect incoming solar radiation.

Key Points

  • Definition of Solar Constant:
  • The solar constant is defined as the amount of incoming solar electromagnetic radiation per unit area, measured on the outer surface of Earth's atmosphere, in a plane perpendicular to the rays.
  • Calculation Height:
  • The height at which the solar constant is calculated is critical because it is above the bulk of the Earth's atmosphere, where absorption and scattering of solar radiation are minimal.
  • The correct height for this calculation is approximately 480 km above the Earth's surface.
  • Atmospheric Effects:
  • Below this height, the atmosphere starts to absorb and scatter solar radiation, which can significantly affect the measurements of solar energy.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Solar Constant:
  • Understanding the solar constant is essential for climate science, as it helps in modeling Earth's energy balance and predicting climate change.
  • Variations in Solar Constant:
  • The solar constant can vary slightly due to changes in solar activity, such as sunspots and solar flares.
  • Historical Measurements:
  • Early measurements of the solar constant were made using ground-based instruments, but modern measurements are typically made using satellites to avoid atmospheric interference.

Question 21

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – I (Koppen's symbol)List - II (Type of climate)
I.Awi.Mediterranean type
II.Cwii.China type
III.Cfiii.Savanna type
IV.Csiv.Western European type
  1. AOption (a)

    I - iii II - ii, III - i, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii

  3. COption (c)

    I - i, II - iii, III - iv, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i.

Key Points

Koppen's symbol (List I)Type of climate (List II)
(I) Aw(iii) Savanna type
(II) Cw(ii) China type
(III) Cf(iv) Western European type
(IV) Cs(i) Mediterranean type

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Koppen Climate Classification System:
  • Definition: The Koppen Climate Classification System, developed by Wladimir Köppen, is one of the most widely used climate classification systems. It categorizes the world's climates based on average monthly temperature and precipitation data.
  • Purpose: This system helps in understanding and comparing the climatic conditions of different regions, which is crucial for agricultural planning, environmental management, and studying climate change.
  • Climatic Types Explained:
  • Savanna Type (Aw):
  • Definition: The Savanna climate, labeled as Aw, is characterized by a distinct wet and dry season. It is typically found in regions close to the equator.
  • Features: High temperatures throughout the year with a pronounced dry season and a wet season with heavy rainfall.
  • Location Examples: Parts of Africa, Brazil, and India.
  • China Type (Cw):
  • Definition: The China type climate, denoted as Cw, is characterized by dry winters and wet summers. It is commonly found in the subtropical regions of East Asia.
  • Features: Mild winters with little to no rainfall and hot, humid summers with significant precipitation.
  • Location Examples: Southern China, parts of India, and Southeast Asia.
  • Western European Type (Cf):
  • Definition: The Western European type climate, marked as Cf, features mild temperatures with precipitation distributed fairly evenly throughout the year.
  • Features: No dry season, with moderate summers and mild winters.
  • Location Examples: Western Europe including the UK, France, and Germany.
  • Mediterranean Type (Cs):
  • Definition: The Mediterranean climate, symbolized as Cs, is characterized by dry, hot summers and wet, mild winters.
  • Features: Long dry summers and short, rainy winters.
  • Location Examples: Mediterranean Basin, parts of California, and Central Chile.

Question 22

Which of the following is not a monsoon region?

  1. AOption (a)

    South and South-east Asian region

  2. BOption (b)

    Guinea coast region

  3. COption (c)

    Western European region

  4. DOption (d)

    North-west Australia region

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Western European region

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Western European region'

Key Points

  • Western European region:
  • The Western European region is not traditionally classified as a monsoon region.
  • This area experiences a temperate maritime climate, influenced largely by the North Atlantic Drift and westerly winds, rather than the seasonal wind shifts characteristic of monsoon regions.
  • Weather patterns in Western Europe are relatively stable throughout the year, without the dramatic wet and dry seasons seen in monsoon areas.

Additional Information

  • South and South-east Asian region:
  • This region is well-known for its monsoon climate, which significantly influences the weather patterns, agriculture, and economy.
  • The South Asian monsoon typically has two phases: the summer monsoon, which brings heavy rains, and the winter monsoon, which is dry.
  • Countries like India, Bangladesh, Thailand, and Indonesia experience these seasonal shifts in wind and precipitation.
  • Guinea coast region:
  • This region along the coast of West Africa also experiences a monsoon climate.
  • The West African monsoon brings significant rainfall from June to September, affecting countries like Nigeria, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
  • The monsoon is driven by the shift of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).
  • North-west Australia region:
  • This region experiences the Australian monsoon, particularly in the northern parts of the continent.
  • The monsoon season typically occurs from November to April, bringing heavy rains and sometimes cyclones.
  • The shift in wind patterns is influenced by the heating of the landmass and the surrounding seas.

Important Points

  • Monsoon regions are characterized by seasonal changes in wind patterns that bring distinct wet and dry periods.
  • The primary driving force behind monsoons is the differential heating of land and sea, which creates pressure differences and wind shifts.
  • Monsoons are critical for agriculture in many regions, providing necessary rainfall for crops.
  • Understanding monsoon patterns is essential for managing water resources and preparing for potential natural disasters like floods and droughts.

Question 23

The surface winds in 'ferrel cell' are :

  1. AOption (a)

    Trade winds

  2. BOption (b)

    Westerlies 

  3. COption (c)

    Polar winds

  4. DOption (d)

    Geostrophic winds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Westerlies 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Westerlies'

Key Points

  • Westerlies:
  • The Ferrel cell is one of the three major atmospheric circulation cells in each hemisphere, situated between the Hadley cell to the south and the Polar cell to the north.
  • In the Ferrel cell, surface winds are predominantly westerly, meaning they blow from the west towards the east.
  • These westerly winds are a result of the Coriolis effect, which deflects the northward moving air to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.
  • The Westerlies play a crucial role in weather patterns and are responsible for the movement of cyclones and anticyclones.

Additional Information

  • Trade Winds:
  • Trade winds are the prevailing pattern of easterly surface winds found in the tropics, near the Earth's equator.
  • These winds blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and from the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • They are part of the Hadley cell circulation, not the Ferrel cell.
  • Polar Winds:
  • Polar winds are cold winds that blow from the high-pressure areas of the polar highs at the North and South Poles towards the low-pressure areas within the Westerlies at high latitudes.
  • These winds are part of the Polar cell circulation, not the Ferrel cell.
  • Geostrophic Winds:
  • Geostrophic winds are winds that result from a balance between pressure gradient force and the Coriolis effect.
  • These winds flow parallel to the isobars (lines of constant pressure) and are not specific to any particular atmospheric cell.

Important Points

  • The Ferrel cell is named after the American meteorologist William Ferrel, who first described this wind pattern in the mid-19th century.
  • The Ferrel cell is considered an indirect cell because it is driven by the other two cells (Hadley and Polar) rather than by direct heating.
  • Understanding the Ferrel cell and its associated westerly winds is critical for accurate weather forecasting and climate studies.

Question 24

Why sky is clear and cloudless in the areas of descending air ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lack of humidity

  2. BOption (b)

    Conditions are not favourable for condensation

  3. COption (c)

    Lack of hygroscopic nuclei

  4. DOption (d)

    Rate of evaporation is low

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lack of hygroscopic nuclei

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Lack of hygroscopic nuclei'

Key Points

  • Lack of hygroscopic nuclei:
  • Hygroscopic nuclei are tiny particles in the atmosphere that water vapor condenses onto to form clouds.
  • In areas of descending air, the air is generally dry and lacks these particles, which prevents cloud formation.
  • Without hygroscopic nuclei, even if there is some moisture in the air, it cannot condense into clouds, resulting in clear and cloudless skies.
  • This is why regions with descending air, such as desert areas, often have clear skies.

Additional Information

  • Lack of humidity:
  • While lower humidity can contribute to clear skies, it is not the primary reason. There can still be some moisture in descending air, but without hygroscopic nuclei, clouds cannot form.
  • Conditions are not favorable for condensation:
  • Condensation requires both moisture and particles to condense onto. While it is true that descending air can be warm and dry, the presence or absence of hygroscopic nuclei is more crucial for cloud formation.
  • Rate of evaporation is low:
  • The rate of evaporation is more relevant to the process of water vapor entering the atmosphere. It does not directly explain why clouds fail to form in descending air regions.

Important Points

  • Descending air is typically associated with high-pressure systems, which inhibit cloud formation and lead to clear skies.
  • Regions like the Sahara Desert experience descending air currents, contributing to their arid conditions and clear skies.
  • Understanding the role of hygroscopic nuclei helps in weather prediction and climate studies.

Question 25

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A): The temperature inversion at greater height stay for a long duration.

Reason (R) The effect of terrestrial radiation is more and quick on air close to earth's surface.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)'.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): The temperature inversion at greater height stay for a long duration.
  • This statement is true.
  • Explanation: Temperature inversion occurs when the temperature increases with altitude instead of decreasing. At greater heights, the air is more stable, and the inversion layer is less likely to be disturbed by surface processes, leading to a longer duration of inversion.
  • Reason (R): The effect of terrestrial radiation is more and quick on air close to earth's surface.
  • This statement is true.
  • Explanation: Terrestrial radiation refers to the heat emitted by the Earth's surface. This radiation affects the air close to the surface more significantly and rapidly because of the proximity. This leads to quicker heating or cooling of the air near the ground.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and R:
  • While both the assertion and the reason are true, the reason does not directly explain the assertion.
  • The duration of temperature inversion at greater heights is more related to atmospheric stability and less frequent disturbances rather than the effect of terrestrial radiation on the air close to the Earth's surface.
  • Therefore, the reason (R) is not the correct explanation for the assertion (A).

Additional Information

  • Temperature Inversion: It is a meteorological phenomenon where the normal temperature gradient of the atmosphere (temperature decreases with altitude) is inverted.
  • Impact of Inversions: Temperature inversions can trap pollutants and lead to poor air quality because the inversion layer acts as a lid, preventing vertical mixing of air.
  • Terrestrial Radiation: The Earth's surface emits longwave infrared radiation, which is absorbed by the atmosphere and can affect temperature profiles, especially near the surface.

Question 26

Who published a geographical article based on India's first population census-1872 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ratzel

  2. BOption (b)

    Vidal-de-La-Blache

  3. COption (c)

    Ellen C. Semple

  4. DOption (d)

    Richard Peet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Richard Peet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Richard Peet'

Key Points

  • Richard Peet:
  • Richard Peet is a well-known geographer who has contributed significantly to human geography, particularly in the fields of radical geography and development geography.
  • He published a geographical article based on India's first population census conducted in 1872.
  • Peet's work often emphasizes the socio-economic and political dimensions of geographical phenomena, making his analysis of the census particularly insightful in understanding the demographic and socio-economic conditions of India during that period.

Additional Information

  • Ratzel:
  • Friedrich Ratzel was a German geographer and ethnographer, known for his work in human geography and biogeography.
  • He is often associated with the concept of Lebensraum (living space) and the development of geopolitical theory.
  • Ratzel did not publish work specifically based on India's population census of 1872.
  • Vidal-de-La-Blache:
  • Paul Vidal de La Blache was a French geographer who is considered one of the founders of modern French geography.
  • He developed the concept of possibilism in geography, emphasizing human agency and the influence of the environment on human activities.
  • His work was more focused on the European context and did not specifically address the Indian population census of 1872.
  • Ellen C. Semple:
  • Ellen Churchill Semple was an American geographer known for her work on environmental determinism.
  • She believed that human behavior and cultural development are heavily influenced by the physical environment.
  • Semple's work did not include a detailed study or publication on India's first population census of 1872.

Important Points

  • India's first population census was conducted in 1872 during British rule. This census laid the foundation for subsequent demographic studies and censuses in India.
  • The 1872 census provided valuable insights into the population distribution, density, and socio-economic conditions of the time, which were crucial for administrative and policy-making purposes.
  • Richard Peet’s analysis of this census helps in understanding the historical context and the demographic trends that have shaped modern India.
  • Understanding the work of different geographers and their contributions helps in appreciating the diverse perspectives and methodologies applied in the field of geography.

Question 27

The German word 'land-shaft' was described in detail in English language by:

  1. AOption (a)

    R. Hartshorne

  2. BOption (b)

    A. Huntington

  3. COption (c)

    Carl Sauer

  4. DOption (d)

    D. Harvey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Carl Sauer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carl Sauer.

Key Points

  • Carl Sauer:
  • Carl Sauer was an influential American geographer known for his work in cultural and historical geography.
  • He is credited with defining the term "landscape" in a geographical context, emphasizing the role of human activity in shaping the physical environment.
  • Sauer's work emphasized the importance of understanding the cultural landscape, which includes both natural and human-made features.
  • His approach contrasted with earlier geographical traditions that focused primarily on the physical aspects of the landscape, ignoring the human influence.

Additional Information

  • R. Hartshorne:
  • Richard Hartshorne was an American geographer known for his work in the field of regional geography.
  • He is best known for his book "The Nature of Geography," which discussed the methodological and philosophical foundations of geography.
  • Although influential, Hartshorne did not focus specifically on the German concept of "land-shaft."
  • A. Huntington:
  • Ellsworth Huntington was an American geographer and environmental determinist.
  • He is known for his studies on the influence of climate on civilization and the environment.
  • Huntington's work did not directly address the concept of "land-shaft" as described in German geography.
  • D. Harvey:
  • David Harvey is a British-born geographer and social theorist known for his work on Marxist geography and urban studies.
  • Harvey's research focuses on the spatial dynamics of capitalism, social justice, and urbanization.
  • While highly influential in modern geographical thought, Harvey's work does not center on the German term "land-shaft."

Important Points

  • Carl Sauer is often considered the founder of cultural geography in the United States.
  • His emphasis on the cultural landscape paved the way for future studies in human-environment interactions.
  • Sauer's work continues to influence contemporary geographical research, particularly in the areas of cultural and historical geography.

Question 28

Who among the following first tried to construct world map on scale?

  1. AOption (a)

    Homer

  2. BOption (b)

    Anaximander

  3. COption (c)

    Hipparchus

  4. DOption (d)

    Ptolemy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Anaximander

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anaximander

Key Points

  • Anaximander:
  • Anaximander (610–546 BC) was a pre-Socratic Greek philosopher who is often credited with creating one of the earliest world maps.
  • He is considered one of the pioneers in the field of cartography, the study and practice of making maps.
  • Anaximander's map was an attempt to represent the known world in a more systematic and scaled manner compared to previous attempts.
  • His work laid the foundations for future Greek cartographers and significantly influenced the way geography and the world were perceived.

Additional Information

  • Homer:
  • Homer is a legendary ancient Greek poet traditionally said to be the author of the epic poems the Iliad and the Odyssey.
  • While Homer described various places and regions in his epics, he did not create or attempt to create a scaled world map.
  • His contributions are more literary than scientific or cartographic.
  • Hipparchus:
  • Hipparchus (190–120 BC) was an ancient Greek astronomer, geographer, and mathematician.
  • He made significant contributions to geography and cartography, including the development of the coordinate system used in mapping.
  • However, he came after Anaximander and built upon the foundational work of earlier cartographers.
  • Ptolemy:
  • Ptolemy (100–170 AD) was a Greco-Roman mathematician, astronomer, geographer, and astrologer.
  • His work, "Geographia," is one of the most important texts in the history of cartography and provided detailed instructions on how to create maps.
  • Though highly influential, Ptolemy's contributions came centuries after Anaximander's initial attempts to create a scaled map.

Important Points

  • Anaximander's map and his approach to cartography were revolutionary for his time and influenced subsequent generations of Greek geographers.
  • His work demonstrated an early understanding of the importance of scale and systematic representation in map-making.
  • While Anaximander is credited with creating one of the first scaled maps, subsequent figures like Hipparchus and Ptolemy refined and expanded upon his foundational work.

Question 29

Match the following and select the correct answer :

List – I (Ideology)List - II (Proponent )
I.Positivismi.O. II. K. Spate
II.Probabilismii.A. Huntington
III.Stop-and-go determinism:iii.Tuan
IV.Climatic determinismiv.Griffith Taylor
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - iii, II - iv, III - i, IV - ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iii, II - i, III - iv, IV - ii.

Key Points

Theory (List I)Proposed by (List II)
(I) Positivism(iii) Tuan
(II) Probabilism(i) O. II. K. Spate
(III) Stop-and-go determinism(iv) Griffith Taylor
(IV) Climatic determinism(ii) A. Huntington

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Positivism by Tuan:
  • Definition: Positivism is a philosophical theory stating that certain knowledge is based on natural phenomena and their properties and relations as verified by empirical sciences.
  • Approach: It emphasizes the use of scientific methods and empirical evidence to understand social and geographical phenomena.
  • Impact: This approach has significantly influenced the development of human geography, focusing on observable and measurable aspects of human and physical environments.
  • Probabilism by O. II. K. Spate:
  • Definition: Probabilism in geography suggests that while the environment sets certain constraints, human actions are not entirely determined by it and involve choices and probabilities.
  • Approach: This theory acknowledges the role of human agency and decision-making within environmental constraints, emphasizing the probabilistic nature of human-environment interactions.
  • Impact: Probabilism has provided a more nuanced understanding of the relationship between humans and their environment, allowing for the consideration of cultural and individual factors in geographical studies.
  • Stop-and-go determinism by Griffith Taylor:
  • Definition: Stop-and-go determinism, proposed by Griffith Taylor, suggests that environmental factors periodically influence human activities, leading to phases of growth and stagnation.
  • Approach: This theory combines elements of determinism and possibilism, recognizing the cyclical influence of environmental conditions on human development.
  • Impact: This concept has contributed to the understanding of the dynamic and cyclical nature of human-environment interactions, particularly in economic and demographic studies.
  • Climatic determinism by A. Huntington:
  • Definition: Climatic determinism asserts that the physical environment, particularly the climate, shapes human societies and behaviors.
  • Approach: This theory suggests that climatic conditions directly influence the development of cultures, economies, and social structures.
  • Impact: While climatic determinism has been criticized for its deterministic approach, it has highlighted the importance of environmental factors in shaping human history and development.

Question 30

Which one of the following pairs does not match correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    R. J. Johnston - Methods and Perspectives in Geography 

  2. BOption (b)

    P. E. James - All possible worlds

  3. COption (c)

    Spencer and Thomas - Introducing Cultural Geography

  4. DOption (d)

    R. M. Minshull - Regional Geography: Theory and Practice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

R. J. Johnston - Methods and Perspectives in Geography 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: R. J. Johnston – Methods and Perspectives in Geography (Incorrect Match)

Key Points

  • Methods and Perspectives in Geography:
  • This book was authored by Jacqueline Beaujeu-Garnier, not R. J. Johnston.
  • It was published in 1976 and focuses on geographical methodology and theoretical approaches to geographical research.
  • The book was originally written in French and later translated into English, contributing to the global discourse on geographical perspectives.
  • Other Correct Matches:
  • P. E. James – All Possible Worlds: A classic text on the history of geographical thought.
  • Spencer and Thomas – Introducing Cultural Geography: A legitimate and credited introductory work on cultural geography.
  • R. M. Minshull – Regional Geography: Theory and Practice: Correctly matched; Minshull worked extensively on the theoretical aspects of regional geography.

Additional Information

  • R. J. Johnston:
  • He is known for works like Geography and Geographers and contributions to political and urban geography.

Question 31

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – I (Index)List - II (Introduced in)
I.Gender Development Indexi.2010
II.Human Poverty Indexii.2001
III.Technological Achievement Index.iii.1997
IV.Inequality Adjusted Human Development Indexiv.1995
  1. AOption (a)

    I - ii, II - i, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - ii, IV - i

  4. DOption (d)

    I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I - iv, II - iii, III - ii, IV - i

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iv, II - iii, III - ii, IV - i.

Key Points

Index (List I)Introduced in (List II)
(I) Gender Development Index(iv) 1995
(II) Human Poverty Index(iii) 1997
(III) Technological Achievement Index(ii) 2001
(IV) Inequality Adjusted Human Development Index(i) 2010

 

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Gender Development Index (GDI):
  • Definition: The GDI measures gender disparities in three basic dimensions of human development: health, education, and command over economic resources.
  • Introduced: The GDI was introduced in 1995 as part of the Human Development Report.
  • Impact: This index highlights the gaps between men and women in achieving basic capabilities and promotes gender equality.
  • Human Poverty Index (HPI):
  • Definition: The HPI is used to measure the standard of living in a country by looking at factors such as longevity, knowledge, and a decent standard of living.
  • Introduced: The HPI was introduced in 1997 by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • Impact: This index helps in understanding the multidimensional nature of poverty beyond income-based measures.
  • Technological Achievement Index (TAI):
  • Definition: The TAI measures the technological capabilities of nations by assessing factors like technology creation, diffusion of recent innovations, diffusion of old innovations, and human skills.
  • Introduced: The TAI was introduced in 2001.
  • Impact: This index helps in comparing the technological progress and capabilities of different countries.
  • Inequality Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI):
  • Definition: The IHDI adjusts the Human Development Index (HDI) to account for inequality in the distribution of each dimension of human development.
  • Introduced: The IHDI was introduced in 2010.
  • Impact: This index provides a more accurate picture of human development by considering inequality, highlighting disparities among different population groups.

Question 32

The basis of delineation of planning regions is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Homogencity

  2. BOption (b)

    Nodality

  3. COption (c)

    Administrative convenience

  4. DOption (d)

    All above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'All of the above'

Key Points

  • Basis of Delineation of Planning Regions:
  • Planning regions are spatial units created for economic, social, and developmental planning.
  • They are delineated based on multiple criteria to ensure effective governance and resource allocation.
  • Key factors in delineating planning regions include homogeneity, nodality, and administrative convenience.
  • Homogeneity:
  • A planning region may be identified based on uniform physical, economic, or cultural characteristics.
  • Examples include regions based on similar climatic conditions, agricultural patterns, or industrial specialization.
  • Nodality:
  • Nodal regions are centered around a major city or economic hub that influences surrounding areas.
  • These regions develop based on functional linkages, such as transportation networks, trade, and services.
  • Examples include metropolitan regions like the Delhi-NCR and Mumbai Metropolitan Region.
  • Administrative Convenience:
  • Regions are often delineated based on political or administrative boundaries to facilitate governance.
  • Planning at the national, state, or district level often follows established administrative boundaries.
  • Examples include state-wise development planning in India or regional development councils.

Additional Information

  • Planning regions are dynamic and may change based on economic and political factors.
  • They play a crucial role in regional development, ensuring balanced economic growth and infrastructure distribution.
  • In India, the concept of planning regions is used for Five-Year Plans, industrial corridors, and special economic zones.

Important Points

  • Planning regions are defined based on homogeneity (physical/economic), nodality (functional linkages), and administrative boundaries.
  • Homogeneous regions focus on shared characteristics, while nodal regions develop around urban centers.
  • Administrative convenience ensures ease of governance and resource allocation.
  • All three factors contribute to the delineation of planning regions, making 'All of the above' the correct answer.

Question 33

'Limits to growth' concept is associated with :

  1. AOption (a)

    Demographic Transition Theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Neo-Malthusian Theory 

  3. COption (c)

    Optimum Population Theory

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neo-Malthusian Theory 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Neo-Malthusian Theory'

Key Points

  • Neo-Malthusian Theory:
  • The 'Limits to Growth' concept is closely associated with Neo-Malthusian theory, which is an extension of Thomas Malthus's ideas on population growth and resource limitations.
  • Neo-Malthusians argue that unchecked population growth would lead to resource depletion, environmental degradation, and potential societal collapse.
  • The 'Limits to Growth' study, published in 1972 by the Club of Rome, used computer models to project the consequences of exponential population growth and finite resource supplies.
  • It highlighted the potential for catastrophic consequences if population and industrial growth continued without significant changes in consumption patterns and resource management.
  • The study emphasized the need for sustainable development and the adoption of policies to control population growth and minimize environmental impact.

Additional Information

  • Demographic Transition Theory:
  • Demographic Transition Theory explains the transition from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as a country develops economically.
  • This theory is divided into four stages: pre-industrial, transitional, industrial, and post-industrial.
  • It focuses on the changes in population growth rates over time, rather than directly addressing resource limitations and environmental sustainability.
  • Optimum Population Theory:
  • Optimum Population Theory seeks to identify the ideal population size that maximizes economic welfare and resource utilization.
  • It suggests that there is a balance between population size and the available resources that can lead to the highest standard of living.
  • This theory does not inherently emphasize the limits of growth or the potential for resource depletion as strongly as Neo-Malthusian theory does.
  • None of the above:
  • This option is incorrect because the 'Limits to Growth' concept is specifically linked to Neo-Malthusian ideas about resource constraints and the potential for environmental collapse due to overpopulation.

Important Points

  • The 'Limits to Growth' report has been influential in shaping global discussions on sustainability and environmental policy.
  • Critics of the report argue that technological advancements and human innovation can offset some of the dire predictions made by Neo-Malthusians.
  • The debate between Neo-Malthusians and their critics continues to influence contemporary discourse on population growth, resource management, and sustainable development.

Question 34

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – IList - II
I.Economic Growthi.Gini Coefficient
II.Economic Developmentii.PCI
III.Human Developmentiii.Green GDP
IV.Sustainable Developmentiv.HDI
  1. AOption (a)

    I - ii, II - i, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii.

Key Points

Economic Concept (List I)Indicator (List II)
(I) Economic Growth(ii) PCI (Per Capita Income)
(II) Economic Development(i) Gini Coefficient
(III) Human Development(iv) HDI (Human Development Index)
(IV) Sustainable Development(iii) Green GDP

 

 

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Economic Growth (I - ii):
  • Definition: Economic Growth refers to the increase in the production of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It is usually measured by the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) or Per Capita Income (PCI).
  • Indicator: PCI (Per Capita Income) is a key indicator of economic growth. It measures the average income earned per person in a given area in a specified year.
  • Economic Development (II - i):
  • Definition: Economic Development is a broader concept than economic growth. It encompasses improvements in a variety of indicators such as literacy rates, life expectancy, and poverty rates.
  • Indicator: The Gini Coefficient is often used to measure economic development. It gauges the inequality in income distribution within a population.
  • Human Development (III - iv):
  • Definition: Human Development is a process of enlarging people's freedoms and opportunities and improving their well-being. It focuses on improving the lives people lead rather than assuming that economic growth will lead to greater well-being for all.
  • Indicator: The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development.
  • Sustainable Development (IV - iii):
  • Definition: Sustainable Development refers to development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • Indicator: Green GDP is an indicator of sustainable development. It adjusts the conventional GDP figure to account for the environmental costs of economic activities, aiming to reflect the true economic growth of a country.

Question 35

Which one is not a parameter of development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Human behaviour

  2. BOption (b)

    Natural environment

  3. COption (c)

    Technological level

  4. DOption (d)

    Institutions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Natural environment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Natural environment'

Key Points

  • Development:
  • Development refers to the process of improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people.
  • This process often involves various factors, including economic growth, social progress, and institutional improvements.
  • Human Behaviour:
  • Human behaviour is a parameter of development as it influences economic activities, social norms, and institutional effectiveness.
  • Understanding human behaviour helps in designing policies and interventions that can drive development.
  • Technological Level:
  • The level of technology in a society significantly impacts its development.
  • Advanced technology can lead to improved productivity, better healthcare, and enhanced communication, all of which contribute to development.
  • Institutions:
  • Institutions, including legal, economic, and political systems, play a crucial role in development.
  • Effective institutions can create a conducive environment for economic activities, protect property rights, and maintain social order, thereby fostering development.

Additional Information

  • Natural Environment:
  • While the natural environment is essential for providing resources and setting the context for development, it is not a direct parameter of development.
  • Development focuses more on human-centric factors and institutional frameworks rather than the environmental context alone.
  • Economic Growth:
  • Economic growth is often used as a key indicator of development.
  • It involves the increase in the production of goods and services and is measured by the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
  • Social Progress:
  • Social progress includes improvements in education, health, and equality.
  • It aims at enhancing the overall quality of life and ensuring that the benefits of development are distributed equitably.
  • Infrastructure:
  • Infrastructure development, such as transportation, communication, and energy supply, is critical for economic activities and social well-being.
  • Good infrastructure supports efficient production, distribution of goods, and accessibility to services.

Important Points

  • Development is a multi-faceted concept that encompasses economic, social, and institutional dimensions.
  • While the natural environment provides the resources and context for development, it is not considered a direct parameter because development focuses more on human and institutional factors.
  • Policymakers and researchers often emphasize the improvement of human behaviour, technological advancement, and the strengthening of institutions to drive sustainable development.

Question 36

Who translated the Christaller's work 'Central Places in Southern Germany' in English?

  1. AOption (a)

    Baskin

  2. BOption (b)

    ​Haggett

  3. COption (c)

    Bowman

  4. DOption (d)

    Hagerstrand 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Baskin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Baskin'

Key Points

  • Christaller's Work - "Central Places in Southern Germany":
  • This seminal work, originally written in German by Walter Christaller, introduced the Central Place Theory in geography.
  • The theory explains the size and distribution of cities and towns as central places providing services to surrounding areas.
  • Translation by Baskin:
  • Baskin translated Christaller's work into English, making the theory accessible to a broader audience.
  • This translation helped disseminate Christaller's ideas beyond the German-speaking world and influenced urban planning and geography globally.

Additional Information

  • Haggett:
  • Haggett is known for his contributions to the field of geography, particularly in spatial analysis and modeling.
  • However, he is not associated with the translation of Christaller's work.
  • Bowman:
  • Bowman made significant contributions to the study of geography and international relations.
  • He did not, however, translate Christaller's work into English.
  • Hagerstrand:
  • Hagerstrand is known for his work in time geography and the study of human activity patterns over space and time.
  • While influential in geography, he did not translate Christaller's work.

Important Points

  • The translation by Baskin played a crucial role in integrating Central Place Theory into the English-speaking academic world.
  • Central Place Theory has since become a foundational concept in urban geography, influencing both theoretical research and practical applications in urban planning.
  • Understanding the contributions of key figures like Baskin, who facilitated the cross-cultural exchange of knowledge, is vital for appreciating the development of geographic theories.

Question 37

As per Census 2011, the state with maximum number of million cities in India is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Maharashtra'

Key Points

  • Maharashtra:
  • As per Census 2011, Maharashtra has the maximum number of million cities in India.
  • The term "million cities" refers to cities with a population of one million or more.
  • Major cities in Maharashtra such as Mumbai, Pune, Nagpur, and Nashik contribute to this distinction.
  • Mumbai, being the financial capital of India, significantly boosts Maharashtra's urban population.

Additional Information

  • Kerala:
  • Kerala is known for its high literacy rate and human development index but does not have a high number of million cities.
  • The major city in Kerala is Kochi, but the state lacks the urban density to compete with Maharashtra.
  • Punjab:
  • Punjab, primarily an agricultural state, has a few significant cities like Ludhiana and Amritsar.
  • Despite these urban centers, Punjab does not have as many million cities as Maharashtra.
  • Tamil Nadu:
  • Tamil Nadu has a significant number of urban centers, including Chennai, Coimbatore, and Madurai.
  • While the state has several large cities, it still does not surpass Maharashtra in terms of the number of million cities.

Important Points

  • The Census of India is conducted every 10 years and provides comprehensive data on various demographic parameters including population distribution, urbanization, and literacy.
  • Urbanization is a significant indicator of economic development and infrastructure growth in states.
  • Maharashtra's large number of million cities highlights its status as a leading state in terms of economic opportunities and urban infrastructure.

Question 38

According to Lewis Mumford, the stage of highest growth of a town in which sign of decline are also visible:

  1. AOption (a)

    Metropolis

  2. BOption (b)

    Megalopolis

  3. COption (c)

    Tyranopolis 

  4. DOption (d)

    Necropolis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Megalopolis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Megapolis'

Key Points

  • Megapolis:
  • As per Lewis Mumford, Megapolis is the fourth stage in the urban lifecycle.
  • It represents the stage of highest urban growth and expansion in terms of population and spatial extent.
  • Cultural diversity increases due to large-scale immigration from different regions.
  • Despite being a peak stage, signs of decline begin to appear in the form of resource shortages, overcrowding, and increasing social isolation.
  • Class conflict becomes prominent, and social cohesion weakens.

Additional Information

  • Metropolis:
  • The third stage in Mumford’s model where economic specialization and urban efficiency dominate.
  • Still a stage of growth with no visible urban decay.
  • Tyrannopolis:
  • The fifth stage where the city becomes parasitic and starts extracting resources from surrounding rural areas for its own indulgence.
  • Environmental degradation and social disintegration become severe.
  • Necropolis:
  • The final stage of urban decline, symbolizing a dead city plagued by famine, war, epidemics, and cultural erosion.

Important Points

  • Lewis Mumford emphasized qualitative aspects of urban development rather than quantitative metrics.
  • His classification was based on factors such as livelihood patterns, spatial interaction, social hierarchy, cohesion, and environmental quality.
  • The transition from Megapolis to Tyrannopolis marks the onset of serious urban crisis and collapse.

Question 39

The first metropolis of the world was

  1. AOption (a)

    Paris

  2. BOption (b)

    London

  3. COption (c)

    New York

  4. DOption (d)

    Moscow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

New York

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'New York'

Key Points

  • New York:
  • New York City is often regarded as the first metropolis of the world due to its significant cultural, economic, and social influence.
  • The city saw a massive influx of immigrants in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, contributing to its diverse and dynamic population.
  • It became a global hub for finance, commerce, media, art, fashion, technology, and entertainment, establishing its position as a leading world city.
  • The development of its extensive infrastructure, including skyscrapers, subways, and bridges, exemplified modern urban growth and innovation.

Additional Information

  • Paris:
  • Paris is renowned for its history, culture, and architecture, and has been an important center of art, fashion, and philosophy.
  • While it played a critical role in European history and culture, it did not achieve the same level of global influence as New York in the 20th century.
  • Paris is often considered a cultural and intellectual hub rather than a metropolis in the modern sense of economic and social dynamics.
  • London:
  • London has a long history as a significant global city, particularly during the British Empire's height when it was a center of trade, finance, and politics.
  • Although it was incredibly influential, its status as the world's foremost metropolis was overshadowed by New York's rise in the 20th century.
  • London remains one of the world's leading cities but did not reach the same level of rapid growth and modernization as New York in the early 20th century.
  • Moscow:
  • Moscow is the capital of Russia and has been a significant political, economic, and cultural center for centuries.
  • Despite its importance within Russia and the Eastern bloc, it did not achieve the same level of global metropolitan influence as New York.
  • Moscow's influence was more regionally focused during the 20th century, particularly during the Soviet era.

Question 40

As per the census of India which of the following are characteristics of an urban area?

I. Population 5000 persons or more than this

II. At least 75% male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities

III. Population density 400 persons per square kilometer or more than this

IV. Any place with municipality, corporation, cantonment, tourism office or notified town area

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II, III and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and IV

  3. COption (c)

    II, III and IV

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I, II, III and IV

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: I, II, III and IV

Key Points

  • Population 5000 persons or more than this:
  • This statement is correct.
  • As per the Census of India, for a settlement to be considered an urban area, it must have a minimum population of 5000.
  • This is one of the key demographic criteria to define the "urban" classification for census purposes.
  • At least 75% male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities:
  • This statement is correct.
  • An urban area must have at least 75% of its male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits, such as industry, commerce, trade, or services.
  • This helps differentiate urban settlements from rural ones, which are primarily agricultural.
  • Population density 400 persons per square kilometer or more than this:
  • This statement is correct.
  • A minimum population density of 400 persons per square kilometer is also one of the defining criteria for identifying urban areas in India.
  • It reflects the compactness and concentration of human settlement typical of urban settings.
  • Any place with municipality, corporation, cantonment, tourism office or notified town area:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Any settlement that is administratively declared urban—such as those with a municipality, municipal corporation, cantonment board, or notified town area—automatically qualifies as urban regardless of other demographic conditions.
  • Such places are referred to as "statutory towns" in the census classification.

Additional Information

  • Census Town vs. Statutory Town:
  • Census Towns are areas that satisfy the three demographic criteria: population ≥ 5000, male working population ≥ 75% in non-agriculture, and density ≥ 400/km².
  • Statutory Towns are settlements declared urban by state law, such as municipalities or cantonment boards, even if they do not meet all demographic conditions.
  • Urban Agglomeration:
  • This is a continuous urban spread consisting of a town and its adjoining outgrowths or two or more physically contiguous towns with or without outgrowths of such towns.
  • Importance of Urban Classification:
  • It helps in urban planning, resource allocation, and policy formulation for infrastructure, transport, housing, and sanitation.

Question 41

Who advocated about the establishment of tribal settlements a sort of 'National Parks' in the wild areas ?

  1. AOption (a)

    V. Elvin

  2. BOption (b)

    G. S. Ghurye

  3. COption (c)

    J. L. Nehru

  4. DOption (d)

    Andre Beteille

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

V. Elvin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: V. Elvin

Key Points

  • Verrier Elwin:
  • V. Elvin was a British-born Indian anthropologist, tribal rights activist, and writer who worked extensively among the tribal communities of India.
  • He advocated for preserving tribal culture and autonomy, proposing that tribal areas be developed as 'National Parks' — zones where tribal communities could live without interference and maintain their traditional lifestyle.
  • This idea stemmed from his belief that the imposition of modern civilization and developmental activities would destroy the unique identity of tribal societies.
  • He emphasized the value of tribal wisdom, simple living, and harmony with nature, supporting minimal state intervention in their lives.

Additional Information

  • G. S. Ghurye:
  • He viewed tribes as 'backward Hindus' and supported assimilation of tribal communities into the mainstream Hindu society.
  • Ghurye’s approach focused more on integration than preservation of tribal distinctiveness.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru:
  • Though sympathetic to tribal welfare, Nehru did not propose the idea of tribal areas as national parks.
  • His tribal policy focused on development without disrupting tribal culture, guided by his "Tribal Panchsheel" principles.
  • Andre Beteille:
  • An eminent Indian sociologist, Beteille studied inequality and caste, and contributed to the understanding of social stratification.
  • He did not advocate tribal preservation through isolationist models like national parks.

Important Points

  • Elwin’s idea of tribal national parks was influenced by his admiration for tribal ways of life and his concern about the damaging effects of forced modernization.
  • His views sparked debate on the best approach to tribal development — isolation vs integration — a key theme in tribal policy discussions post-independence.
  • His ideas played a significant role in shaping the early tribal welfare strategies in India, although they were not universally accepted.

Question 42

The Arab cultural realm is the birth place of which religion/s ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mao

  2. BOption (b)

    Christianity

  3. COption (c)

    Islam

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Christianity and Islam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both Christianity and Islam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Both Christianity and Islam'.

Key Points

  • Arab Cultural Realm as the Birthplace of Christianity and Islam:
  • Christianity:
  • Christianity originated in the 1st century AD in the Roman province of Judea, which is part of the modern-day Middle East.
  • Jesus Christ, the central figure of Christianity, was born in Bethlehem, located in the historical region of Palestine.
  • Islam:
  • Islam was founded in the 7th century AD in the Arabian Peninsula, specifically in the city of Mecca.
  • Prophet Muhammad, the founder of Islam, received his first revelation in Mecca, and later migrated to Medina, further spreading the religion.

Additional Information

  • Mao:
  • Maoism is a form of Marxist-Leninist political theory derived from the teachings of the Chinese political leader Mao Zedong.
  • It is not a religion but a political ideology that emerged in the 20th century in China.

Question 43

On the basis of cultural similarities the ascending order of cultural areas is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Cultural region - Cultural world - Cultural realm

  2. BOption (b)

    Cultural world - Cultural realm - Cultural region

  3. COption (c)

    Cultural region - Cultural realm - Cultural world

  4. DOption (d)

    Cultural realm - Cultural world - Cultural region  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cultural region - Cultural realm - Cultural world

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cultural region - Cultural realm - Cultural world'

Key Points

  • Ascending Order of Cultural Areas:
  • Cultural areas are classified based on shared characteristics such as language, religion, traditions, and economic activities.
  • The hierarchy of cultural areas follows an increasing order of scale from localized regions to broader global classifications.
  • The correct sequence is: Cultural Region → Cultural Realm → Cultural World.
  • Cultural Region:
  • A cultural region is the smallest unit of cultural classification, characterized by local traditions, lifestyles, and beliefs.
  • Examples include the Punjab region (India-Pakistan), the Midwest region (USA), or the Basque region (Spain).
  • Cultural Realm:
  • A cultural realm is a larger area encompassing multiple cultural regions that share fundamental cultural traits.
  • Examples include the Latin American realm, the Islamic realm, or the Indian subcontinental realm.
  • Cultural World:
  • The cultural world is the broadest classification, covering large-scale civilizational identities.
  • It refers to vast cultural divisions such as the Western world, Eastern world, or African cultural world.

Additional Information

  • Each level of classification incorporates more diverse cultural elements as the scale increases.
  • Cultural regions are more localized, whereas cultural realms and worlds incorporate broader cultural similarities.
  • This classification helps in understanding cultural diffusion, interactions, and geopolitical influences.

Important Points

  • The smallest unit in the classification is the cultural region, followed by the cultural realm, and the largest is the cultural world.
  • Cultural regions have local characteristics, cultural realms share broader cultural similarities, and cultural worlds represent large-scale civilizational divisions.
  • This hierarchical framework helps in anthropological, geographical, and sociological studies of human cultures.

Question 44

Which one is the third largest speaking language of the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mandarin 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hindi

  3. COption (c)

    English

  4. DOption (d)

    French

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hindi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Hindi'

Key Points

  • Hindi:
  • Hindi is the third most spoken language in the world, with a total of 609 million speakers, including 345 million native speakers.
  • It is the most widely spoken language in India, where it is spoken by 52.83% of the population.
  • Hindi is primarily concentrated in Asia, with minimal global reach beyond the Indian subcontinent.
  • Despite its large number of speakers, its presence online is relatively low, accounting for less than 0.5% of internet content.

Additional Information

  • Mandarin:
  • Mandarin is the most spoken language in the world, with 941 million native speakers and a total of 1.14 billion speakers.
  • Despite its large native-speaking population, it is spoken in only 83 countries, limiting its global reach.
  • English:
  • English is the most spoken language worldwide, with about 1.52 billion speakers.
  • Only 25% of English speakers are native, making it the most widely learned second language.
  • English is spoken in 186 countries and dominates online content, accounting for 52.1% of all websites.
  • French:
  • French has 321 million speakers, with 41% of them being non-native speakers.
  • It is the official language in 32 countries, with a significant presence in Africa.
  • French ranks as the sixth most used language on the internet, contributing 4.3% of global online content.

Important Points

  • Hindi is the third most spoken language globally, after English and Mandarin.
  • Unlike English, Hindi has a smaller footprint outside Asia and is not widely used as a second language.
  • Although Hindi is one of India's official languages, India recognizes 22 official languages in total.
  • Mandarin and Hindi both have a low percentage of online content compared to English and Spanish.

Question 45

Which one of the following is not a form of social organisaton?

  1. AOption (a)

    Social Group

  2. BOption (b)

    Committee

  3. COption (c)

    Institution

  4. DOption (d)

    Human

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Human

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Human'

Key Points

  • Human:
  • The term 'Human' refers to an individual person and does not constitute a form of social organization.
  • Social organizations are structured groups or institutions formed by individuals to achieve common goals, whereas a human is a singular entity.
  • Humans are the fundamental building blocks of social organizations, but by themselves, they do not represent a collective structure or system.

Additional Information

  • Social Group:
  • A social group is a collection of individuals who interact with each other, share similar characteristics, and have a sense of unity.
  • Examples include families, friend circles, and work teams.
  • Committee:
  • A committee is a group of people appointed for a specific function, typically consisting of members of a larger group.
  • Committees are usually formed to discuss and manage specific tasks or issues within an organization.
  • Institution:
  • An institution is a complex, integrated set of social norms organized around the preservation of a basic societal value.
  • Examples include educational institutions, religious institutions, and legal systems.

Question 46

For which of the following marriage is the most prominent cause of migration in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rural to Urban migration

  2. BOption (b)

    Rural to Rural migration

  3. COption (c)

    Urban to Rural migration

  4. DOption (d)

    Urban to Urban migration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rural to Rural migration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Rural to Rural migration'

Key Points

  • Rural to Rural migration:
  • Marriage is the most prominent cause of migration in India, particularly in the context of Rural to Rural migration.
  • This trend is largely due to traditional marriage practices where brides often move to their husband's village after marriage.
  • In rural India, the practice of patrilocality (residing with or near the husband's family) is common, which results in a significant number of women migrating from one rural area to another.
  • This type of migration is mainly driven by social and cultural norms rather than economic reasons.

Additional Information

  • Rural to Urban migration:
  • Rural to Urban migration is mainly driven by economic factors such as the search for better employment opportunities, improved living standards, and access to better education and healthcare facilities.
  • While marriage does contribute to some extent, it is not the predominant cause of migration in this category.
  • Urban to Rural migration:
  • Urban to Rural migration is relatively less common and usually occurs due to reasons such as retirement, return migration, or seeking a peaceful lifestyle away from urban chaos.
  • Marriage is not a significant factor in this type of migration.
  • Urban to Urban migration:
  • Urban to Urban migration typically happens due to job transfers, better career prospects, or higher education opportunities.
  • Marriage might play a role in some cases, but it is not the leading cause of migration in this scenario.

Question 47

Which of the following measures are adopted in India to control desertification?

I. Stabilisation of dunes

II. Afforestation in set patterns in the peripheral areas of desert regions

III. Artificial rain

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I and II

  3. COption (c)

    II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I and II

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: I and II

Key Points

  • Stabilisation of dunes:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Stabilisation of dunes involves the use of techniques to prevent the movement of sand dunes, which can lead to desertification.
  • Methods such as planting grasses, shrubs, and other vegetation help to bind the sand together and reduce wind erosion.
  • This measure is effective in preventing the spread of desert areas and conserving soil moisture.
  • Afforestation in set patterns in the peripheral areas of desert regions:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Afforestation involves planting trees and vegetation in areas that have not been forested for a long period.
  • By strategically planting trees in the peripheral areas of desert regions, it helps create a barrier against the encroachment of desert conditions.
  • Trees also help in improving soil fertility, reducing soil erosion, and providing shade and shelter for other plants and animals.
  • Artificial rain:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Artificial rain involves cloud seeding to induce precipitation; however, it is not a common or sustainable method for controlling desertification.
  • While it may provide temporary relief, it does not address the underlying issues of desertification such as soil erosion, loss of vegetation, and water scarcity.

Additional Information

  • Desertification:
  • Desertification is the process by which fertile land becomes desert as a result of various factors, including drought, deforestation, and inappropriate agriculture.
  • It leads to the loss of productive land and can have severe impacts on the environment, biodiversity, and local communities.
  • Causes of Desertification:
  • Overgrazing by livestock, deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices, and climate change are primary causes.
  • Control Measures:
  • Besides dune stabilization and afforestation, other measures include sustainable land management, water conservation techniques, and the use of drought-resistant crops.

Question 48

The volcanic island of India is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rameshvaram

  2. BOption (b)

    Narcondam

  3. COption (c)

    Pamban

  4. DOption (d)

    New-moore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Narcondam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Narcondam'

Key Points

  • Narcondam:
  • Narcondam is a small volcanic island located in the Andaman Sea, belonging to India.
  • It is part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, a union territory of India.
  • The island is known for its dormant volcano, which is one of the few volcanoes in India.
  • Narcondam Island is also a designated wildlife sanctuary, home to the endemic Narcondam Hornbill.

Additional Information

  • Rameshwaram:
  • Rameshwaram is a town located on Pamban Island in Tamil Nadu, India.
  • It is known for its religious significance, particularly the Ramanathaswamy Temple, a major pilgrimage site for Hindus.
  • Rameshwaram is not a volcanic island; it is a coastal town on a flat, sandy island.
  • Pamban:
  • Pamban Island, also known as Rameshwaram Island, is located between peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
  • It is connected to mainland India by the Pamban Bridge, which is a significant engineering marvel.
  • Similar to Rameshwaram, Pamban is not a volcanic island but rather a low-lying, sandy island.
  • New Moore:
  • New Moore, also known as South Talpatti, was a small uninhabited island in the Bay of Bengal.
  • This island emerged from the sea in 1970 and was subject to territorial disputes between India and Bangladesh.
  • New Moore was not a volcanic island; it was formed due to sediment deposition and has since submerged again.

Question 49

Which one of the following is an example of fault/block Mountain?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nilgiri Mountains

  2. BOption (b)

    Aravali Mountains

  3. COption (c)

    Satpura Mountains

  4. DOption (d)

    Sahyadri Mountains

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Satpura Mountains

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Satpura Mountains

Key Points

  • Satpura Mountains:
  • The Satpura Range is a range of hills in central India, running through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh.
  • These mountains are an example of fault-block mountains, formed due to the faulting of the Earth's crust.
  • Fault-block mountains are created when large areas of the Earth's crust are broken and displaced vertically or horizontally along fault lines.
  • The Satpura Range is characterized by rugged terrain and steep slopes, typical of fault-block mountains.

Additional Information

  • Nilgiri Mountains:
  • The Nilgiri Mountains are a range of mountains in the western part of Tamil Nadu, India.
  • They are part of the Western Ghats and are not fault-block mountains but are formed due to the collision of the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
  • The range is known for its biodiversity and is home to several hill stations, including Ooty and Coonoor.
  • Aravali Mountains:
  • The Aravali Range is one of the oldest mountain ranges in India, located in the northwestern part of the country.
  • They are formed due to the folding of the Earth's crust and are not considered fault-block mountains.
  • The Aravalis are characterized by their rocky terrain and rich mineral deposits.
  • Sahyadri Mountains:
  • The Sahyadri Mountains, also known as the Western Ghats, run parallel to the western coast of India.
  • They are not fault-block mountains but are formed due to volcanic activity and the subsequent uplift of the region.
  • The Western Ghats are known for their rich biodiversity and are a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Question 50

The most suitable region for tidal energy in India is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Gulf of Khambhat

  2. BOption (b)

    Palk strait

  3. COption (c)

    Mouth of river Ganga

  4. DOption (d)

    Chilka lake region

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gulf of Khambhat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Gulf of Khambhat

Key Points

  • Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay):
  • Located in Gujarat, the Gulf of Khambhat exhibits the highest tidal range in India, reaching up to 11–12 meters.
  • This significant tidal variation makes it the most suitable region for tidal energy generation in the country.
  • The area's funnel-shaped topography amplifies tidal movements, enhancing its potential for energy extraction.

Additional Information

  • Gulf of Kutch:
  • Also situated in Gujarat, this gulf has a tidal range of approximately 6–8 meters.
  • While it possesses considerable potential for tidal energy, it is secondary to the Gulf of Khambhat.
  • Mouth of River Ganga (Sundarbans):
  • Located in West Bengal, this region experiences tidal ranges of about 5–6 meters.
  • Although there is potential for tidal energy, the lower tidal range compared to the western coasts makes it less favorable.
  • Palk Strait:
  • Situated between Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka, the Palk Strait has relatively low tidal ranges.
  • The minimal tidal variation renders it unsuitable for significant tidal energy projects.
  • Chilika Lake Region:
  • Located in Odisha, Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon with negligible tidal influence.
  • The lack of substantial tidal activity makes it an impractical site for tidal energy generation.

Important Points

  • The Gulf of Khambhat's exceptional tidal range is attributed to its unique geographical configuration, which funnels tidal waters, increasing their height and energy potential.
  • While the region holds promise for tidal energy, challenges such as high initial costs and environmental considerations have impeded large-scale development.
  • Despite these challenges, the Gulf of Khambhat remains the most promising site for future tidal energy projects in India.

Question 51

Which of the following are the Biomes of the first order?

I. Tropical biome

II. Mediterranean biome

III. Temperate biome

IV. Tundra biome

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II, III and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and IV

  3. COption (c)

    II, III and IV 

  4. DOption (d)

    I, III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I, III and IV

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: I, III and IV

Key Points

  • I. Tropical Biome:
  • This is a first-order biome.
  • Tropical biomes are located near the equator and include tropical rainforests and tropical grasslands (savannas).
  • They are characterized by high temperatures, abundant rainfall, and high biodiversity.
  • This biome includes the Amazon rainforest, Congo basin, and Southeast Asian jungles.
  • II. Mediterranean Biome:
  • This is not a first-order biome.
  • Mediterranean biomes are considered sub-types or sub-divisions within the broader temperate biome category.
  • They occur in specific locations with Mediterranean climates — hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters (e.g., parts of California, the Mediterranean basin).
  • Because of their narrow geographic extent and specialized climatic conditions, they are not classified as first-order biomes.
  • III. Temperate Biome:
  • This is a first-order biome.
  • Temperate biomes include temperate deciduous forests, temperate grasslands (prairies/steppes), and temperate rainforests.
  • These regions have moderate rainfall and distinct seasonal changes in temperature.
  • IV. Tundra Biome:
  • This is a first-order biome.
  • Characterized by low temperatures, short growing seasons, and permafrost conditions.
  • Vegetation is sparse and consists of mosses, lichens, and low shrubs.
  • Found in polar regions such as the Arctic and alpine regions at high elevations.

Additional Information

  • First-order Biomes:
  • These are major global ecological zones defined primarily by climate, vegetation, and latitude.
  • Examples include Tropical, Temperate, Desert, Tundra, and Boreal (Taiga) biomes.
  • Second-order Biomes (Sub-Biomes):
  • These are finer classifications within the broader biome types — such as Mediterranean scrub within the temperate zone or mangroves within the tropical biome.
  • They reflect more localized adaptations and specific climatic or geographic features.

Question 52

Which type of oceanic deposits cover the largest area of ocean bottom?

  1. AOption (a)

    Organic deposits

  2. BOption (b)

    Terrigenous deposits

  3. COption (c)

    Volcanic deposits

  4. DOption (d)

    Meteoric deposits

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Terrigenous deposits

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Terrigenous deposits'.

Key Points

  • Terrigenous deposits:
  • Terrigenous deposits are sediments derived from the erosion of rocks on land. These materials are transported to the ocean primarily by rivers, wind, and glaciers.
  • They are the most abundant type of marine sediment in terms of area coverage. These deposits include clays, silts, sands, and gravels that settle on the ocean floor.
  • These sediments are typically found on continental shelves, slopes, and rises, which cover extensive areas of the ocean bottom.
  • The composition and distribution of terrigenous deposits are influenced by factors such as proximity to land, ocean currents, and sediment supply.

Additional Information

  • Organic deposits:
  • These deposits are primarily composed of the remains of marine organisms, including shells, skeletons, and other biological materials.
  • Organic deposits, such as biogenic oozes, are abundant in certain areas but do not cover as large an area as terrigenous deposits.
  • These deposits are often found in deeper ocean regions where there is less terrigenous input.
  • Volcanic deposits:
  • Volcanic deposits consist of materials ejected from volcanic eruptions, such as ash, pumice, and volcanic rocks.
  • While significant in certain regions, especially near volcanic islands and mid-ocean ridges, they do not cover as extensive an area as terrigenous deposits.
  • Meteoric deposits:
  • Meteoric deposits are composed of extraterrestrial materials, such as meteorites and cosmic dust, that settle on the ocean floor.
  • These deposits are very sparse and distributed thinly across the ocean bottom, making their overall coverage minimal compared to other types of deposits.

Question 53

What is the average depth of 'Halocline Zone' ?

  1. AOption (a)

    0-500 meters

  2. BOption (b)

    300- 1000 meters

  3. COption (c)

    700-1500 meters

  4. DOption (d)

    1000-1500 meters

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

300- 1000 meters

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 300-1000 meters.

The Halocline Zone is a layer in the ocean where there is a rapid change in salinity with depth. This zone plays a crucial role in oceanographic processes, influencing water density, circulation patterns, and the distribution of marine life.

Key Points

  • Definition:
  • The Halocline Zone is characterized by a steep gradient in salinity. It is typically found in the intermediate layers of the ocean and can significantly influence the water's physical properties.
  • Depth Range:
  • The Halocline Zone generally occurs between 300 and 1000 meters in depth. This range can vary depending on geographic location and oceanic conditions.
  • Salinity Gradient:
  • In this zone, the salinity can change rapidly with depth, creating a distinct layer that separates less salty surface waters from more saline deep waters.
  • Impact on Oceanography:
  • The presence of a halocline affects the density and stratification of ocean waters. This can influence ocean currents and the mixing of nutrients, which are vital for marine ecosystems.

Additional Information

  • Thermocline and Halocline:
  • The Halocline often coincides with the Thermocline, a layer where water temperature changes rapidly with depth. Together, they can create a strong density gradient known as the pycnocline.
  • Marine Life:
  • The Halocline can act as a barrier to the vertical movement of marine organisms and nutrients. Species adapted to specific salinity levels might be found concentrated within or above this zone.
  • Climate Change Impact:
  • Changes in global climate can affect salinity patterns and the structure of the Halocline. Monitoring these changes is important for predicting shifts in ocean circulation and ecosystem dynamics.

Question 54

Davidson current is a coastal countercurrent of:

  1. AOption (a)

    North Pacific Ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    South Pacific Ocean

  3. COption (c)

    Atlantic Ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Occan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

North Pacific Ocean

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'North Pacific Ocean'

Key Points

  • Davidson Current:
  • The Davidson Current is a coastal countercurrent in the eastern North Pacific Ocean, primarily off the coast of California.
  • It flows northward, opposite to the usual southward California Current, particularly during the winter months.
  • This current is significant for its impact on the coastal climate and marine ecosystems, providing a warmer water influence along the coast.
  • It is named after the American scientist George Davidson, who studied the currents along the Pacific coast of the United States.

Additional Information

  • North Pacific Ocean:
  • The North Pacific Ocean features significant currents such as the California Current, the North Pacific Current, and the Kuroshio Current.
  • While the Davidson Current is located in the North Pacific, it is not classified as a major oceanic current but rather a coastal countercurrent.
  • South Pacific Ocean:
  • In the South Pacific Ocean, major currents include the East Australian Current, the Peru (Humboldt) Current, and the South Equatorial Current.
  • The Davidson Current is not located in the South Pacific, making this option incorrect.
  • Atlantic Ocean:
  • The Atlantic Ocean has major currents like the Gulf Stream, the North Atlantic Drift, and the Canary Current.
  • The Davidson Current is not found in the Atlantic Ocean, as it is specifically a feature of the North Pacific Ocean.
  • Indian Ocean:
  • The Indian Ocean currents include the Agulhas Current, the Somali Current, and the Indian Monsoon Current.
  • The Davidson Current does not occur in the Indian Ocean; hence, this option is incorrect.

Question 55

Currents flowing under the influence of prevailing winds are known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Current

  2. BOption (b)

    Wave

  3. COption (c)

    Stream

  4. DOption (d)

    Drift

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Drift

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Drift'

Key Points

  • Drift:
  • Drift refers to ocean currents that are primarily driven by the prevailing winds across the surface of the ocean.
  • These currents are generally slow-moving and cover extensive areas of the ocean’s surface.
  • Wind-driven drifts play a crucial role in distributing heat from the equatorial regions to the poles, thus influencing global climate patterns.
  • Examples include the North Atlantic Drift and the Pacific Drift.

Additional Information

  • Current:
  • Currents are continuous, directed movements of seawater generated by various forces such as wind, the Coriolis effect, and differences in water density.
  • Unlike drifts, which are specifically wind-driven, currents can also be driven by other factors like temperature and salinity gradients.
  • Examples include the Gulf Stream and the Kuroshio Current.
  • Wave:
  • Waves are disturbances that travel through water, typically caused by wind blowing across the surface.
  • Waves are characterized by their wavelength, frequency, and amplitude, and they transfer energy rather than matter.
  • Unlike drifts and currents, waves do not represent a large-scale movement of water from one place to another.
  • Stream:
  • In the context of oceanography, a stream refers to a narrow, fast-moving current within the ocean.
  • Streams are more concentrated and powerful compared to drifts and are often influenced by both wind and other oceanographic factors.
  • Examples include the Gulf Stream and the Agulhas Current.

Question 56

Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Running cost includes real transport cost in terms of fuel and labour expenses

II. Terminal cost includes cost on basic infrastructure, loading-unloading and office expenses

III. Transfer cost includes indirect cost like insurance

  1. AOption (a)

    I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III

  3. COption (c)

    II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I and III

Why this answer is correct

Code

**The Correct answer is: I and III**

**Key Points**

- **Running cost includes real transport cost in terms of fuel and labour expenses:**
- This statement is **correct**.
- Running cost refers to the operational expenses directly associated with the transportation process.
- These costs typically include fuel expenses, which are necessary for the movement of vehicles, and labour expenses, which cover the wages of drivers and other personnel involved in the transportation.
- Other potential running costs can include maintenance and repair of vehicles, tolls, and other incidental expenses incurred during transportation.
- **Terminal cost includes cost on basic infrastructure, loading-unloading and office expenses:**
- This statement is **incorrect**.
- Terminal cost generally refers to the expenses incurred at the starting and ending points of the transportation process.
- These costs often include the expenses for basic infrastructure such as warehouses, loading and unloading facilities, and office operations.
- However, the statement does not fully capture the comprehensive nature of terminal costs which can also include storage fees, handling charges, and administrative overheads.
- **Transfer cost includes indirect cost like insurance:**
- This statement is **correct**.
- Transfer cost encompasses the indirect expenses associated with the transportation process.
- Insurance is a significant part of transfer costs, providing coverage against potential risks such as damage, theft, or loss of goods during transit.
- Other indirect costs can include administrative fees, customs duties, and other regulatory compliance costs.

**Additional Information**

- **Transportation Costs:**
- Transportation costs are a critical component of supply chain management, impacting the overall cost of goods and services.
- These costs can be classified into direct and indirect costs, with direct costs including running and terminal costs, and indirect costs encompassing transfer costs.
- **Factors Influencing Transportation Costs:**
- Several factors influence transportation costs, including fuel prices, distance traveled, vehicle maintenance, labour costs, and regulatory fees.
- Efficient route planning, load optimization, and regular vehicle maintenance can help in managing and reducing these costs.
- **Strategies for Cost Management:**
- Organizations can adopt various strategies to manage transportation costs, such as negotiating better rates with carriers, investing in fuel-efficient vehicles, and leveraging technology for real-time tracking and route optimization.
- Implementing a robust transportation management system (TMS) can also provide better visibility and control over transportation expenses.

Question 57

Which continent is showing the highest population growth in last two decades ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Europe 

  2. BOption (b)

    Asia

  3. COption (c)

    Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    South America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Africa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Africa'

Key Points

  • Africa:
  • Africa has been experiencing the highest population growth rate among all continents over the last two decades.
  • This growth is largely driven by high fertility rates, improvements in healthcare, and declining infant mortality rates across many African countries.
  • The continent's population is projected to double by 2050, with Nigeria being a significant contributor to this surge.
  • Rapid urbanization is also a notable trend in Africa, contributing to economic growth as well as challenges such as infrastructure development and job creation.

Additional Information

  • Europe:
  • Europe has one of the lowest population growth rates globally, with some countries even experiencing population decline.
  • Factors contributing to low growth include aging populations, low birth rates, and higher life expectancy.
  • Many European countries have implemented policies to address these demographic challenges, such as encouraging higher birth rates and managing immigration.
  • Asia:
  • Asia has experienced significant population growth, but at a slower rate compared to Africa.
  • Countries like China and India have seen substantial population increases, though China's growth has slowed due to its one-child policy (now relaxed).
  • While Asia remains the most populous continent, its growth rate is not as high as Africa's.
  • South America:
  • South America has a moderate population growth rate, which is higher than Europe but lower than Africa and parts of Asia.
  • The continent's growth is influenced by factors such as improved healthcare and declining mortality rates.
  • Urbanization is also a significant trend in South America, with a large portion of the population living in cities.

Question 58

When the value of Weber's Material Index is more than one, then the raw material is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Pure

  2. BOption (b)

    Weight loosing

  3. COption (c)

    Weight gaining

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Weight loosing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Weight loosing'

Key Points

  • Weber's Material Index:
  • Weber's Material Index is a concept in economic geography and industrial location theory developed by Alfred Weber.
  • It measures the ratio of the weight of raw materials required for production to the weight of the finished product.
  • Weight Losing:
  • When the value of Weber’s Material Index is more than one, it indicates that the raw material loses weight during the production process.
  • This means that the finished product weighs less than the raw materials used to make it.
  • Industries that deal with weight-losing materials are typically located near the source of raw materials to minimize transportation costs.

Additional Information

  • Pure:
  • Pure materials are those that do not change weight during the production process.
  • This option is incorrect because a Material Index greater than one indicates a change in weight, not purity.
  • Weight Gaining:
  • Weight gaining materials result in a finished product that is heavier than the raw materials used.
  • This option is incorrect as it would be indicated by a Material Index of less than one, not more than one.

Question 59

Which of the following factors are responsible for the Green Revolution in India?

I. Use of HYV seeds

II. Expansion of agricultural loan facilities

III. Soil testing and conservation

IV. Better marketing facilities

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    I, III and IV

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II, III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I, II, III and IV

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: I, II, III and IV

Key Points

  • Use of HYV seeds:
  • This statement is correct.
  • High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds played a crucial role in the Green Revolution. These seeds are designed to increase the yield per hectare and are resistant to various pests and diseases.
  • The introduction of HYV seeds for crops such as wheat and rice significantly boosted agricultural production in India.
  • Expansion of agricultural loan facilities:
  • This statement is correct.
  • The availability of agricultural loans enabled farmers to invest in better farming equipment, fertilizers, and HYV seeds.
  • It provided the necessary financial support to farmers, allowing them to adopt new agricultural practices and technologies, thereby contributing to the success of the Green Revolution.
  • Soil testing and conservation:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Soil testing helps in understanding the nutrient content and composition of the soil, which is essential for determining the appropriate type and amount of fertilizers needed.
  • Soil conservation practices, such as contour plowing and terracing, help prevent soil erosion and maintain soil fertility, which are vital for sustaining high agricultural productivity.
  • Better marketing facilities:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Improved marketing facilities ensured that farmers could sell their produce at fair prices, reducing the exploitation by middlemen.
  • Better infrastructure, such as transportation and storage facilities, helped in minimizing post-harvest losses and ensured a stable market for agricultural products.

Additional Information

  • Green Revolution in India:
  • The Green Revolution refers to a period during the 1960s and 1970s when agriculture in India was transformed through the adoption of modern methods and technology.
  • This transformation was primarily aimed at achieving self-sufficiency in food grains and addressing the issue of food security.
  • Impact of the Green Revolution:
  • The Green Revolution led to a significant increase in food grain production, particularly in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • It helped in reducing the dependence on food imports and transformed India from a food-deficient to a food-surplus nation.
  • Challenges and Criticisms:
  • Despite its success, the Green Revolution also faced criticism for its environmental impact, including soil degradation, water depletion, and increased use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
  • It also led to regional disparities, with some regions benefitting more than others, and it impacted the socio-economic conditions of small and marginal farmers.

Question 60

According to Von Thunen which of the following was not an important locational factor for determination of crop location?

  1. AOption (a)

    Market price

  2. BOption (b)

    Transport cost

  3. COption (c)

    Crop specialization

  4. DOption (d)

    Per unit production

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Crop specialization

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Crop Specialization

Key Points

  • Von Thunen’s Model:
  • Proposed by J.H. Von Thunen in the early 19th century, this model aimed to explain agricultural land-use patterns based on economic principles.
  • It is based on the assumption of a single central market and uniform physical geography.
  • Important Locational Factors in Von Thunen’s Model:
  • Market Price: Higher-priced goods are grown closer to the market to maximize profit (e.g., milk, vegetables).
  • Transport Cost: Transport cost increases with distance; heavier and perishable goods are grown near the city to reduce cost.
  • Per Unit Production (Yield): Higher yield per unit land allows better profit, even if located slightly farther from the market.
  • Crop Specialization:
  • This concept refers to growing specific crops suited to particular areas based on agro-climatic conditions or tradition.
  • Von Thunen’s model assumes homogeneous land and climate, and therefore does not account for crop specialization as a locational factor.
  • Hence, crop specialization is excluded from the core decision-making framework in the model.

Additional Information

  • Von Thunen’s Locational Rent Formula:
  • LR = Y (P − C) − YTD
  • Where LR = Locational Rent, Y = Yield, P = Price, C = Cost of Production, T = Transport Cost per unit, D = Distance from Market.
  • This formula illustrates the interplay of economic profit with price, yield, and transport distance.
  • Land-Use Zonation:
  • Zone 1: Perishable goods (milk, vegetables)
  • Zone 2: Firewood and forests (high transport cost)
  • Zone 3 to 5: Grains with varying crop intensity and fallow systems
  • Zone 6: Livestock ranching (requires vast, cheap land far from city)
  • Not Considered:
  • Crop specialization, climate variability, and technological advancement were not included due to model's simplifying assumptions (isotropic land, rational economic behavior).

Question 61

‘A Social Geography of Belfast' is written by :

  1. AOption (a)

    Watson

  2. BOption (b)

    Johns

  3. COption (c)

    Smith

  4. DOption (d)

    Brayan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Johns

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Jones

Key Points

  • Author:
  • Emrys Jones authored A Social Geography of Belfast, a seminal work published in 1960 by Oxford University Press.
  • Jones was an esteemed geographer and Emeritus Professor at the London School of Economics and Political Science, University of London.
  • Content Overview:
  • The book provides an in-depth analysis of Belfast's urban landscape, focusing on the interplay between social structures and geographical space.
  • It examines factors such as residential segregation, industrial development, and religious divisions, particularly between Protestant and Catholic communities.
  • Academic Significance:
  • Jones's work is considered a foundational text in social geography, offering insights into how societal factors influence urban form and spatial organization.
  • The book has been utilized extensively in studies of urban planning, sociology, and conflict geography.

Additional Information

  • Publication Details:
  • A Social Geography of Belfast was published in 1960 by Oxford University Press.
  • Legacy:
  • The book remains a critical resource for understanding the spatial dynamics of sectarianism and urban development in Belfast.
  • It has influenced subsequent research in urban geography and studies of divided cities.

Question 62

Which of the following is not a character of frontier?

  1. AOption (a)

    Centrifugal force

  2. BOption (b)

    Area

  3. COption (c)

    Present setup

  4. DOption (d)

    Unchangeable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Unchangeable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Unchangeable'

Key Points

  • Frontier:
  • A frontier refers to a political and geographical area near or beyond a boundary that is not clearly demarcated or fixed like a boundary.
  • Historically, frontiers served as buffer zones or intervening areas between political entities to prevent direct conflicts or contact.
  • Unlike defined boundaries, frontiers are dynamic, evolving areas influenced by physical, cultural, and political factors.
  • Characteristics of a Frontier:
  • It is a zone or area, not a precise line, allowing for geographical expansion or interaction.
  • Acts as a centrifugal force, promoting outward expansion and integration with peripheral areas.
  • Represents a present setup that may evolve over time depending on political or economic changes.
  • Frontiers are inherently changeable and fluid; they reflect the ongoing processes of state formation, conflict, or exploration.
  • Why 'Unchangeable' is Incorrect for Frontier:
  • The nature of frontiers is fundamentally dynamic and adaptable, shaped by historical, geographical, and political processes.
  • Labeling a frontier as 'unchangeable' contradicts its essence, as frontiers have historically shifted with settlement, conflict, or exploration.
  • In contrast, boundaries may aim for permanence, but even they are subject to change through treaties or political realignment.

Additional Information

  • Centrifugal Force:
  • Frontiers exhibit outward force, encouraging growth, exploration, or expansion away from the core of a state.
  • This force contrasts with boundaries, which act as centripetal forces promoting internal cohesion.
  • Area:
  • Frontiers are defined as broad zones or areas rather than narrow lines, encompassing transitional spaces between states or territories.
  • They are often uninhabited or sparsely populated and may serve as areas of interaction, conflict, or negotiation.
  • Present Setup:
  • Frontiers represent the current, sometimes temporary, configuration of control or influence between political entities.
  • They often reflect a transitional or developmental stage before formal boundary establishment.

Important Points

  • Frontiers have played a crucial role in historical geopolitics, such as westward expansion in the USA or European incursions into Africa and Asia.
  • They are associated with political and cultural transition zones and are frequently redefined over time through treaties, wars, or exploration.
  • Unlike boundaries, which are legally and geographically fixed, frontiers remain fluid and reactive to socio-political forces.

Question 63

Who gave genetic classification of boundaries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ratzel, 1890

  2. BOption (b)

    Haushofer, 1928

  3. COption (c)

    Hartshorne, 1936

  4. DOption (d)

    Mackinder, 1919

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hartshorne, 1936

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Hartshorne, 1936'

Key Points

  • Genetic Classification of Boundaries:
  • The concept of genetic classification of boundaries was developed by political geographers Richard Hartshorne and Derwent Whittlesey.
  • It focuses on understanding boundaries based on their origin and the historical or natural factors that influenced their creation.
  • Hartshorne proposed that boundaries can be categorized based on when and how they came into existence relative to the cultural landscape.
  • Types of Genetic Boundaries:
  • Antecedent Boundary: Drawn before the human settlement of the region; often follows physical features like rivers or mountains (e.g., Andes between Chile and Argentina, Himalayas between India and Tibet).
  • Subsequent Boundary: Formed after settlement, shaped by events like wars or cultural changes (e.g., India-China border in Ladakh, India-Pakistan in Jammu & Kashmir).
  • Superimposed Boundary: Imposed by external forces, ignoring cultural patterns (e.g., India-Pakistan, Indonesia–Papua New Guinea, USA–Canada).
  • Relict Boundary: A former boundary that no longer functions but still has significance (e.g., Berlin Wall, East and West Germany).

Additional Information

  • Ratzel (1890):
  • A key figure in political geography who introduced the concept of the state as a living organism in his “Organic Theory of the State.”
  • Did not classify boundaries genetically, but rather emphasized territorial expansion for survival.
  • Haushofer (1928):
  • A German geographer associated with Geopolitik, focusing on the strategic and political implications of geography.
  • Emphasized power politics rather than the genetic origin of boundaries.
  • Mackinder (1919):
  • Developed the famous “Heartland Theory” regarding the geopolitical control of the central Eurasian landmass.
  • His work was strategic rather than concerned with classifying boundaries based on origin.

Important Points

  • Richard Hartshorne’s approach was influential in redefining the scope of political geography during the 20th century.
  • He argued that understanding the nature of political boundaries is essential for comprehending state formation, cultural interactions, and geopolitical stability.
  • His classification system remains a foundational model in the study of boundary-making and political geography today.

Question 64

Which one of the following pairs does not match correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stephen Jones - Unified Field Theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Spykman - Rimland Theory

  3. COption (c)

    Mackinder - Midland Basin

  4. DOption (d)

    Kjellén- Heartland Theory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kjellén- Heartland Theory

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Kjellén - Heartland Theory'

Key Points

  • Johan Rudolf Kjellén:
  • Kjellén was a Swedish political scientist, geographer, and politician who first coined the term "geopolitics."
  • His work was influenced by Friedrich Ratzel, and he viewed the state as a living organism that must expand to survive.
  • However, he did not propose the Heartland Theory, which was formulated by Halford Mackinder.

Additional Information

  • Stephen Jones - Unified Field Theory:
  • In 1954, the American geographer Stephen Jones published "A Unified Field Theory of Political Geography."
  • His theory explained the geographical-political process that leads to the formation of political spaces.
  • Spykman - Rimland Theory:
  • Nicholas Spykman proposed the Rimland Theory as a counter to Mackinder’s Heartland Theory.
  • He argued that controlling the Rimland (coastal areas of Eurasia) was more important than the Heartland for global dominance.
  • This theory influenced U.S. foreign policy during the Cold War.
  • Mackinder - Midland Basin:
  • Mackinder described the "Midland Basin" as the area encompassing Western Europe and North America.
  • He believed that the Midland Basin could balance the power of the Heartland (Eastern Europe and parts of Asia).
  • While Mackinder is mainly known for the Heartland Theory, he did discuss the Midland Basin in his geopolitical framework.

Important Points

  • Johan Rudolf Kjellén coined the term "geopolitics" but did not develop the Heartland Theory.
  • Halford Mackinder formulated the Heartland Theory in 1904, emphasizing Eastern Europe as the "pivot" for global control.
  • Spykman’s Rimland Theory countered Mackinder’s theory by highlighting the strategic importance of Eurasia’s coastal regions.
  • Stephen Jones introduced the Unified Field Theory in political geography, explaining the dynamics of territorial formation.

Question 65

Fairgrieve's contribution in geo-politics is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Rimland Theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Heartland Theory

  3. COption (c)

    Crush Zone Theory

  4. DOption (d)

    Pivot Area Concept

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Heartland Theory

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Heartland Theory'

Key Points

  • James Fairgrieve and the Heartland Theory:
  • James Fairgrieve was a British geographer who introduced concepts that closely aligned with Halford Mackinder’s Heartland Theory.
  • In his 1915 book Geography and World Power, Fairgrieve described the central region of Eurasia as the "heartland of the old world."
  • He noted that Russia was the dominant "great land power" controlling this region, highlighting its geopolitical significance.
  • Four years later, Mackinder expanded on Fairgrieve’s ideas and coined the term "World-Island," further developing the Heartland Theory.

Additional Information

  • Rimland Theory:
  • The Rimland Theory was proposed by Nicholas Spykman as a counter to the Heartland Theory.
  • Spykman argued that controlling the coastal regions (Rimland) of Eurasia was more crucial than dominating the Heartland.
  • This theory heavily influenced U.S. foreign policy during the Cold War.
  • Crush Zone Theory:
  • The "crush zone" or "shatter belt" concept in geopolitics, referring to strategically divided regions caught in the competition between great powers, was first applied by Gordon East in 1961.
  • Pivot Area Concept:
  • Halford Mackinder introduced the Pivot Area Concept in 1904, which later evolved into the Heartland Theory.
  • He described the "Pivot Area" as the core of Eurasia, which, if controlled, could lead to global dominance.
  • Fairgrieve contributed to this concept but did not originate it.

Important Points

  • James Fairgrieve’s geopolitical ideas strongly influenced Mackinder’s development of the Heartland Theory.
  • Fairgrieve identified Eurasia’s central region as the "heartland of the old world," emphasizing Russia’s dominance.
  • Mackinder later expanded these ideas and formulated the World-Island concept.
  • While Fairgrieve described the "crush zone," it is not recognized as a separate geopolitical theory.

Question 66

Who divided India into 3 large regions and 22 sub-regions ?

  1. AOption (a)

    O. H. K. Spate

  2. BOption (b)

    Baker

  3. COption (c)

    D. Stamp

  4. DOption (d)

    Herbertson

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Herbertson

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Herbertson'

Key Points

  • Herbertson:
  • Andrew John Herbertson was a British geographer who contributed significantly to the field of regional geography.
  • He is known for his work in dividing India into 3 large regions and 22 sub-regions, which helped in understanding the geographical diversity and complexity of the Indian subcontinent.
  • Herbertson's classification was based on various geographical factors including climate, topography, and vegetation, providing a comprehensive framework for studying India's physical geography.
  • This regional division has been influential in geographical and educational studies, offering a structured way to analyze and learn about the diverse regions of India.

Additional Information

  • O. H. K. Spate:
  • Owen Lancelot Harrington K. Spate was a prominent geographer known for his work on the geography of South Asia, particularly his studies on the Indian subcontinent.
  • Spate's significant contributions include his detailed analysis of the economic geography of India and his work on the Indian monsoon.
  • While he made notable contributions, he did not divide India into the 3 large regions and 22 sub-regions.
  • Baker:
  • George Baker was another influential figure in the field of geography, particularly known for his work on the geographical aspects of colonialism and its impacts.
  • Though he contributed to the understanding of geographical divisions and colonial impacts, he was not responsible for the specific division of India into 3 large regions and 22 sub-regions.
  • D. Stamp:
  • L. Dudley Stamp was a renowned British geographer and geologist who made significant contributions to the field of geography, including his work on land utilization surveys.
  • Stamp's notable work includes the "Land Utilization Survey of Britain," which had a significant influence on geographical studies.
  • Despite his contributions, he did not undertake the specific task of dividing India into 3 large regions and 22 sub-regions.

Question 67

According to R. P. Mishra, in reference to India the sequence of five tier 'growth pole hierarchy' is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Central Village – Growth Point - Service Center - Growth Center - Growth Pole

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Village - Service Center - Growth Point- Growth Center-Growth Pole

  3. COption (c)

    Service Center - Central Village - Growth Center-Growth Point- Growth Pole

  4. DOption (d)

    Central Village – Growth Center - Growth Point - Service Center - Growth Pole

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Central Village - Service Center - Growth Point- Growth Center-Growth Pole

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Central Village - Service Center - Growth Point - Growth Center - Growth Pole'

Key Points

  • R.P. Mishra’s Five-Tier Growth Pole Hierarchy:
  • R.P. Mishra developed a five-tier growth pole model for India, focusing on regional development through hierarchical spatial organization.
  • The correct sequence is: Central Village → Service Center → Growth Point → Growth Center → Growth Pole.
  • This hierarchy ensures the balanced distribution of economic activities, services, and infrastructure from local to regional levels.
  • Central Village:
  • It is the smallest unit in the hierarchy, catering to basic needs such as primary education and health facilities.
  • Central villages serve as local hubs for agricultural communities.
  • Service Center:
  • These are small towns providing essential services like healthcare, education, and local markets.
  • They connect central villages with higher-order centers.
  • Growth Point:
  • These locations have some economic and industrial activities but are still in the early stages of development.
  • They attract investment and employment opportunities, influencing nearby areas.
  • Growth Center:
  • These are well-developed towns with strong economic bases, industrial development, and significant infrastructure.
  • Growth centers act as regional economic hubs, promoting employment and economic expansion.
  • Growth Pole:
  • The highest tier in the hierarchy, growth poles are major metropolitan or industrialized regions.
  • They drive economic development over a large geographic area and serve as command centers for regional planning.
  • Examples in India include Mumbai, Delhi, and Bengaluru.

Additional Information

  • This model is based on the concept of hierarchical development and spatial planning.
  • Growth poles act as economic catalysts, influencing lower-tier centers.
  • The theory is used in regional planning to promote balanced economic growth in developing countries like India.

Important Points

  • The hierarchy progresses from local villages to major urban and economic hubs.
  • Each level serves as a link between lower and higher tiers, ensuring regional connectivity.
  • Growth poles are major economic drivers, whereas central villages serve as basic administrative and service units.
  • The model helps in decentralized planning and reducing regional disparities.

Question 68

Who among the following gave a non-spatial model of development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Myrdal

  2. BOption (b)

    Friedman

  3. COption (c)

    Perroux

  4. DOption (d)

    rostow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

rostow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Rostow'

Key Points

  • W.W. Rostow:
  • Rostow was an American economist and political theorist who proposed the "Stages of Economic Growth" model in 1960.
  • This model is a classic example of a non-spatial model of development as it outlines economic development over time, not space.
  • His model suggests that all countries go through five linear stages of economic growth: Traditional society, Pre-conditions for take-off, Take-off, Drive to maturity, and Age of high mass consumption.
  • The emphasis is on the temporal evolution of economies, rather than their spatial characteristics or locations.

Additional Information

  • Myrdal:
  • Gunnar Myrdal proposed the concept of cumulative causation which explains the widening regional disparities due to economic and social factors.
  • His model has clear spatial implications, especially in explaining how development concentrates in certain regions while others lag.
  • Friedman:
  • John Friedman's Core-Periphery Model is explicitly spatial, describing how development radiates out from core urban centers to peripheral areas.
  • His theory highlights spatial diffusion and regional inequalities in the development process.
  • Perroux:
  • François Perroux introduced the concept of Growth Poles, where economic development is concentrated around specific industries or locations.
  • This is also a spatial model, as it deals with how development spreads from poles to the surrounding areas.

Important Points

  • Rostow’s model is often critiqued for being Eurocentric and assuming a universal path of development based on Western experience.
  • It ignores spatial dimensions such as regional disparities or the role of geography in economic growth.
  • Despite criticisms, it remains a foundational model in classical development theory and is widely used in comparative studies of economic growth.

Question 69

Who has advocated balanced growth approach in regional planning & development?

  1. AOption (a)

    R. Nurkse

  2. BOption (b)

    Myrdal and Hirschman

  3. COption (c)

    J. R. Hicks

  4. DOption (d)

    J. Friedman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

R. Nurkse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'R. Nurkse'

Key Points

  • Balanced Growth Approach:
  • The balanced growth approach in regional planning and development advocates for the simultaneous investment in various sectors of the economy to ensure a harmonious and steady economic growth.
  • Ragnar Nurkse, an Estonian economist, is widely recognized for his contributions to the theory of balanced growth.
  • Nurkse argued that underdeveloped countries could escape the poverty trap by making large-scale investments across different sectors, thus creating a balanced economic environment that fosters overall development.
  • His approach emphasizes the importance of coordinated and comprehensive investment strategies to stimulate demand and supply evenly across sectors.

Additional Information

  • Myrdal and Hirschman:
  • Gunnar Myrdal and Albert O. Hirschman are known for their unbalanced growth theories.
  • Myrdal’s theory of cumulative causation emphasizes that economic activities tend to cluster in particular regions, leading to regional disparities.
  • Hirschman’s theory of unbalanced growth suggests that deliberate imbalances in investment can stimulate economic development by creating pressures that force further investments and improvements.
  • J. R. Hicks:
  • John Hicks was a British economist best known for his work on general equilibrium theory and welfare economics.
  • While Hicks made significant contributions to economic theory, he is not particularly associated with the balanced growth approach in regional planning and development.
  • J. Friedman:
  • John Friedman was a prominent figure in regional development theory and is known for his work on core-periphery models and regional planning.
  • Although Friedman’s work has influenced regional planning, he is more associated with theories addressing regional inequalities and strategic planning rather than the balanced growth approach.

Question 70

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – IList - II
I.Formal Regioni.Based on specific objectives/phenomenon
II.Functional Regionii.Recognised on the basis of folk knowledge
III.Planning Regioniii.Area of influence around a city
IV.Umland Regioniv.Area on which economic decisions are applied
  1. AOption (a)

    I - ii, II - i, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - ii, II - i, III - iv, IV - iii.

Key Points

List IList II
(I) Formal Region(ii) Recognised on the basis of folk knowledge
(II) Functional Region(i) Based on specific objectives/phenomenon
(III) Planning Region(iv) Area on which economic decisions are applied
(IV) Umland Region(iii) Area of influence around a city

 

 

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Formal Region:
  • Definition: A Formal Region is an area defined by official boundaries and is characterized by a high degree of uniformity in terms of certain attributes such as language, culture, or climate.
  • Recognition: It is recognized on the basis of folk knowledge, meaning that the boundaries and characteristics of the region are widely understood and accepted by the general population.
  • Examples: Countries, states, and cities are common examples of formal regions.
  • Functional Region:
  • Definition: A Functional Region is defined by a specific set of activities or interactions that occur within it, often centered around a focal point or node.
  • Characteristics: These regions are based on specific objectives or phenomena, such as economic activities, transportation networks, or social interactions.
  • Examples: Metropolitan areas, trade areas, and broadcasting areas are examples of functional regions.
  • Planning Region:
  • Definition: A Planning Region is an area designated for the purpose of planning and implementing economic and social policies.
  • Application: This region is defined as an area on which economic decisions are applied, often to ensure balanced development and efficient resource allocation.
  • Examples: Industrial zones, special economic zones, and development regions are examples of planning regions.
  • Umland Region:
  • Definition: The Umland Region, or hinterland, refers to the area surrounding a city that is influenced by it.
  • Influence: It is characterized as the area of influence around a city, where the city’s economic, social, and cultural impacts are felt.
  • Examples: Suburban areas and rural areas surrounding a metropolitan city are examples of umland regions.

Question 71

Which relation is not possible in reference to central values?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mean> Median > Mode

  2. BOption (b)

    Mean = Median = Mode

  3. COption (c)

    Mean< Median < Mode

  4. DOption (d)

    Mean> Mode > Median

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mean> Mode > Median

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Mean > Median > Mode

  • This is the case for a positively skewed (right-skewed) distribution.
  • In such distributions, there are some extreme high values (outliers), which pull the mean to the right.
  • The mode (most frequent value) remains at the peak (leftmost).
  • The median (middle value) lies between mode and mean.

This relation is possible.

Mean = Median = Mode

  • Happens in a perfectly symmetric distribution, like the normal distribution (bell-shaped curve).
  • No skewness (neither left nor right).
  • Mean, Median, and Mode all are located exactly at the center.

This relation is possible.

Mean < Median < Mode 

  • This is the case for a negatively skewed (left-skewed) distribution.
  • In such distributions, there are some extreme low values (outliers), pulling the mean to the left.
  • The mode stays at the highest peak (rightmost).
  • The median lies between the mean and the mode.

This relation is possible.

Mean > Mode > Median

  • Mean is the highest.
  • Mode is between Mean and Median.
  • Median is the smallest.

Problem:

  - In positively skewed data: Mode < Median < Mean
  - In negatively skewed data: Mean < Median < Mode
  - In symmetric data: Mean = Median = Mode

But nowhere in any typical distribution does Mean > Mode > Median hold.

It would require the mode to be between mean and median — a very weird distribution that normally does not exist.

This relation is NOT possible.

Hence Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 72

Method to construct contours is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Drawing Profiles

  2. BOption (b)

    Interpolation Method

  3. COption (c)

    Hachures Method

  4. DOption (d)

    Hill shading Method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Interpolation Method

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Interpolation Method'

Key Points

  • Interpolation Method:
  • The Interpolation Method is a technique used to construct contours by estimating unknown values that fall between known data points.
  • This method is widely used in topographic mapping and geographic information systems (GIS) to create contour lines that represent terrain elevations.
  • Various algorithms, such as linear, polynomial, and spline interpolation, can be applied to achieve accurate contouring.
  • Interpolation ensures a smooth and continuous representation of the terrain, making it easier to interpret and analyze geographical data.

Additional Information

  • Drawing Profiles:
  • This method involves creating cross-sectional views of the terrain at regular intervals.
  • These profiles are then used to manually draw contour lines by connecting points of equal elevation across the different cross-sections.
  • While useful for small areas or simple terrains, this method is time-consuming and less accurate for complex landscapes.
  • Hachures Method:
  • Hachures are short lines drawn on a map to indicate the direction and steepness of slopes.
  • This method was historically used before the development of modern contouring techniques.
  • Hachures do not provide precise elevation data and can be difficult to interpret compared to contour lines.
  • Hill Shading Method:
  • Hill shading, also known as shaded relief, uses shading to represent the three-dimensional appearance of terrain on a two-dimensional map.
  • This method enhances the visual perception of the terrain but does not provide specific elevation data or contour lines.
  • It is often used in conjunction with contour lines to give a more realistic representation of the terrain.

Question 73

Match the following and select the correct answer :

List – I ( Dimensions )List - II (Diagrams / Method)
I.One dimensionali.Dot method
II.Two dimensionalii.Pyramid diagram
III.Three dimensionaliii.Circle diagram
IV.No dimensioniv.Sphere diagram
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - ii, II - iii, III - iv, IV - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

Key Points

List I (Dimensions)List II (Diagrams / Methods)
I. One dimensionaliii. Circle diagram
II. Two dimensionalii. Pyramid diagram
III. Three dimensionaliv. Sphere diagram
IV. No dimensioni. Dot method

 

Additional Information

  • I. One Dimensional – Circle Diagram:
  • In geography, a circle diagram is used to represent quantities using the length of radius or arc proportionally, making it a one-dimensional representation focused on linear measurement.
  • It is effective for comparing single-variable data across multiple regions, such as population or area.
  • II. Two Dimensional – Pyramid Diagram:
  • Pyramid diagrams, such as population pyramids, use height and width (two dimensions) to show distributions by age and sex.
  • They are commonly used in demographic studies to represent population structures visually.
  • III. Three Dimensional – Sphere Diagram:
  • Although mathematically the surface of a sphere is two-dimensional, in geographical diagram classification, the sphere diagram represents volumetric data and includes length, breadth, and depth.
  • It is considered a three-dimensional diagram used to show data such as GDP, production, or trade volumes.
  • IV. No Dimension – Dot Method:
  • The dot method uses small dots to represent a fixed quantity and shows distribution without scale or measurable dimensions.
  • Each dot simply marks the presence of a phenomenon, like population or crops, and does not represent length, area, or volume.

Question 74

Geographical Information System (GIS) includes:

I. Collection and storage of data

II. Geo-referencing of original data

III. Analysis of data

IV. Giving outcomes

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    II, III and IV

  3. COption (c)

    I, III and IV

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II, III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I, II, III and IV

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: I, II, III and IV

Key Points

  • Collection and storage of data:
  • This statement is correct.
  • A Geographical Information System (GIS) involves the collection and storage of geographical data. This data can include maps, satellite images, and other geographic information that are stored in a database for analysis and retrieval.
  • Collection can be done through various means such as surveys, remote sensing, and digitization of existing maps.
  • Geo-referencing of original data:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Geo-referencing is the process of associating data with geographic locations. This ensures that the data can be accurately mapped and analyzed in relation to its real-world coordinates.
  • It involves aligning spatial data (e.g., maps, aerial photographs) with a coordinate system, making it possible to overlay different datasets accurately.
  • Analysis of data:
  • This statement is correct.
  • GIS includes the analysis of spatial data to identify patterns, relationships, and trends. This can involve various techniques such as spatial statistics, overlay analysis, and network analysis.
  • The analysis helps in making informed decisions based on geographical data, such as urban planning, environmental management, and disaster response.
  • Giving outcomes:
  • This statement is correct.
  • GIS systems are designed to provide outcomes based on the analysis of spatial data. These outcomes can be in the form of maps, reports, graphs, and other visualizations that help communicate the results of the analysis.
  • The outcomes can be used by decision-makers, researchers, and various stakeholders to address geographic and spatial challenges.

Additional Information

  • GIS technology is widely used in various fields such as urban planning, environmental science, transportation, public health, and more.
  • It integrates hardware, software, and data for capturing, managing, analyzing, and displaying all forms of geographically referenced information.
  • GIS is essential for spatial data management, allowing users to visualize, question, analyze, interpret, and understand data to reveal relationships, patterns, and trends.

Question 75

Which was the first Geostationary Satellite of India ?

  1. AOption (a)

    INSAT-1A

  2. BOption (b)

    IRSP

  3. COption (c)

    CARTOSAT-1

  4. DOption (d)

    APPLE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

APPLE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'APPLE'

Key Points

  • APPLE (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment):
  • APPLE was India's first experimental geostationary communication satellite.
  • Launched on June 19, 1981, by the European Ariane-1 rocket, it marked a significant milestone in India's space program.
  • The satellite was designed for communication experiments, including TV broadcast experiments and telecommunications.
  • It helped pave the way for the development of operational communication satellites in India, leading to the creation of the INSAT series.

Additional Information

  • INSAT-1A:
  • INSAT-1A was the first satellite in the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) series, launched on April 10, 1982.
  • It was primarily designed for telecommunications, broadcasting, and meteorology.
  • Although it was not the first geostationary satellite, it played a crucial role in India's satellite communication and meteorological services.
  • IRSP (Indian Remote Sensing Programme):
  • IRSP refers to the series of remote sensing satellites launched by India, starting with IRS-1A in 1988.
  • These satellites are primarily used for resource monitoring, agricultural planning, and disaster management.
  • They are not geostationary satellites; instead, they operate in a sun-synchronous polar orbit to cover the entire Earth's surface.
  • CARTOSAT-1:
  • CARTOSAT-1, launched on May 5, 2005, is a high-resolution earth observation satellite.
  • It is used for cartographic applications, urban and rural planning, and land information system management.
  • Like the IRSP satellites, it is not geostationary but operates in a polar sun-synchronous orbit.

Question 76

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – IList - II
I.Mapsi.Key Coding
II.Satellite Dataii.Scanning
III.Tabular Data.iii.Digitizing
IV.Soft Ideas.iv.Data Transfer
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - ii, III - iv, IV - i

  3. COption (c)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - ii, II - iii, III - iv, IV - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iv, II - iii, III - i, IV - ii.

Key Points

List IList II
(I) Maps(iv) Data Transfer
(II) Satellite Data(iii) Digitizing
(III) Tabular Data(i) Key Coding
(IV) Soft Ideas(ii) Scanning

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Maps and Data Transfer:
  • Definition: Maps are graphical representations of geographical areas, and data transfer involves moving data from one system or format to another.
  • Application: In GIS, maps are often digitized and then the data is transferred into digital systems for analysis and use.
  • Importance: Accurate data transfer ensures that the digitized maps are correctly represented in digital systems, maintaining the integrity of the geographical information.
  • Satellite Data and Digitizing:
  • Definition: Satellite data refers to the information collected by satellites, which is often used for remote sensing and geographical analysis. Digitizing involves converting data into a digital format.
  • Application: Satellite images are digitized to create digital maps and models, which can be used for various analyses like environmental monitoring, urban planning, and disaster management.
  • Importance: Digitizing satellite data allows for efficient storage, processing, and analysis, making it accessible for various applications and enhancing decision-making processes.
  • Tabular Data and Key Coding:
  • Definition: Tabular data is data presented in tables, and key coding is the process of assigning codes to data for identification and organization.
  • Application: In databases, tabular data is often key-coded to ensure easy retrieval, analysis, and management.
  • Importance: Key coding enhances the organization and accessibility of tabular data, making it easier to perform operations like sorting, filtering, and querying.
  • Soft Ideas and Scanning:
  • Definition: Soft ideas are conceptual or non-tangible ideas, and scanning is the process of converting physical documents into digital form.
  • Application: Soft ideas can be documented and scanned to create digital records, which can be shared, stored, and analyzed electronically.
  • Importance: Scanning ensures that soft ideas are preserved in a digital format, facilitating easy access, distribution, and analysis, while also protecting the integrity of the original concepts.

Question 77

Which one of the following is not a part of spatial information technique?

  1. AOption (a)

    GIS

  2. BOption (b)

    GPS

  3. COption (c)

    Remote Sensing

  4. DOption (d)

    SPSS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

SPSS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'SPSS'

Key Points

  • SPSS:
  • SPSS stands for Statistical Package for the Social Sciences.
  • It is a software package used for statistical analysis in social science research.
  • SPSS is not a spatial information technique; rather, it is primarily used for complex data manipulation and statistical analysis.
  • Key functionalities of SPSS include data management, statistical analysis, and graphical representation of data.

Additional Information

  • GIS:
  • Geographic Information System (GIS) is a framework for gathering, managing, and analyzing spatial and geographic data.
  • GIS integrates various types of data and enables users to visualize, question, analyze, and interpret data to understand relationships, patterns, and trends.
  • It is widely used in urban planning, environmental management, and geographic research.
  • GPS:
  • Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth.
  • GPS is crucial for mapping, navigation, and geospatial data collection.
  • It is used in various applications including transportation, military, and mobile devices.
  • Remote Sensing:
  • Remote Sensing involves acquiring information about an object or phenomenon without making physical contact.
  • It typically involves the use of satellite or aircraft-based sensor technologies to detect and classify objects on Earth.
  • Remote sensing is crucial for environmental monitoring, land-use planning, and disaster management.

Question 78

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – I (Satellite)List - II (Country)
I.ASTERi.USA
II.IKONOSii.India
III.CARTOSATiii.Japan
IV.ALMAZiv.Russia
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - i, III - ii, IV - iv

  3. COption (c)

    I - i, II - iii, III - ii, IV - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    I - iv, II - iii, III - ii, IV - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I - iii, II - i, III - ii, IV - iv

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iii, II - i, III - ii, IV - iv

Key Points

Satellite (List I)Country (List II)
(I) ASTER(iii) Japan
(II) IKONOS(i) USA
(III) CARTOSAT(ii) India
(IV) ALMAZ(iv) Russia

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • ASTER (Advanced Spaceborne Thermal Emission and Reflection Radiometer):
  • Country: Japan
  • Purpose: ASTER is a key instrument onboard the Terra satellite launched by Japan in collaboration with NASA. It is used for obtaining detailed maps of land surface temperature, emissivity, reflectance, and elevation.
  • Applications: It has applications in areas such as vegetation and forest monitoring, geological studies, and environmental monitoring.
  • IKONOS:
  • Country: USA
  • Purpose: IKONOS is one of the world's first commercial high-resolution earth observation satellites launched by the USA. It provides high-resolution imagery for mapping and various other applications.
  • Applications: It is used for urban planning, agricultural monitoring, environmental management, and disaster response.
  • CARTOSAT:
  • Country: India
  • Purpose: CARTOSAT series of satellites are Indian earth observation satellites used for high-resolution cartographic applications, urban and rural planning, and utility management.
  • Applications: They are crucial for resource management, infrastructure planning, and disaster monitoring in India.
  • ALMAZ:
  • Country: Russia
  • Purpose: ALMAZ is a series of Russian reconnaissance satellites designed for Earth observation, including radar imaging capabilities.
  • Applications: These satellites are used for environmental monitoring, resource exploration, and military reconnaissance.

Question 79

What will be the value of mode for the following series?

X:1-1010-2020-3030-4040-50
Y:4327384
  1. AOption (a)

    7.28

  2. BOption (b)

    26.87

  3. COption (c)

    36.73

  4. DOption (d)

    62.87

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7.28

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 8.28

(Note: The given question was dropped by the Board)

The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set. In a frequency distribution, it is the value of the class interval with the highest frequency. To find the mode for a grouped frequency distribution, a specific formula is used.

Key Points

  • Identify Modal Class:
  • The modal class is the class interval with the highest frequency. In this series, the highest frequency is 43, which corresponds to the class interval 1-10.
  • Mode Formula for Grouped Data:
  • The mode for grouped data can be calculated using the formula:
  • Mode = L + [(f1 - f0) / (2f1 - f0 - f2)] * h

where:

  • L = lower class boundary of the modal class
  • f1 = frequency of the modal class
  • f0 = frequency of the class preceding the modal class
  • f2 = frequency of the class succeeding the modal class
  • h = class width
  • Application of Formula:
  • Given:
  • Modal class (1-10): L = 1, f1 = 43
  • Preceding class (none): f0 = 0
  • Succeeding class (10-20): f2 = 27
  • Class width (h) = 10
  • Substitute the values in the formula:
  • Mode = 1 + [(43 - 0) / (2*43 - 0 - 27)] * 10
  • Mode = 1 + [43 / (86 - 27)] * 10
  • Mode = 1 + [43 / 59] * 10
  • Mode ≈ 1 + 7.28
  • Mode ≈ 8.28

Additional Information

  • Importance of Mode:
  • The mode is particularly useful in categorical data where we wish to know the most common category. It provides insight into the most frequent occurrences in a distribution.
  • Comparison with Other Averages:
  • Unlike the mean and median, the mode can be used with nominal data, which is data that can be categorized but not logically ordered. It is the only measure of central tendency that can be used for such data.
  • Multiple Modes:
  • In some distributions, there may be more than one mode (bimodal or multimodal distributions), which indicates that there are multiple values that appear with the highest frequency.

Question 80

The dispersion technique appropriate for comparison of various series is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Mean deviation

  2. BOption (b)

    Variance

  3. COption (c)

    Coefficient of Variance

  4. DOption (d)

    Range

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Coefficient of Variance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Coefficient of Variance'

Key Points

  • Coefficient of Variance:
  • The Coefficient of Variance (CV) is a standardized measure of dispersion of a probability distribution or frequency distribution.
  • It is defined as the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean, and it is often expressed as a percentage.
  • CV is particularly useful for comparing the degree of variation between different data series, especially when the means of the series are significantly different.
  • This measure allows for a relative comparison of variability, making it an appropriate technique for comparing various series.

Additional Information

  • Mean Deviation:
  • Mean Deviation is the average of the absolute differences between each data point and the mean of the data set.
  • While it provides a measure of dispersion, it is less effective for comparison purposes because it does not standardize the differences relative to the mean.
  • Variance:
  • Variance measures the average of the squared differences from the mean and provides a sense of the overall dispersion of the data.
  • However, since it is based on squared units, it is not as straightforward for direct comparison across different series.
  • Range:
  • Range is the difference between the maximum and minimum values in a data set.
  • It is a simple measure of dispersion but is highly sensitive to outliers and does not provide a relative measure of variability.
  • Range is less useful for comparing different series, especially when they have different scales or units.

Question 81

Which are the potential areas for generation of geothermal energy in India?

I. Puga Valley, Jammu and Kashmir

II. Desert of Jodhpur, Rajasthan

III. Manikaran Arca, Himachal Pradesh

IV. Islands of Bay of Bengal

  1. AOption (a)

    I, III and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    I and IV

  3. COption (c)

    II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I and III

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: I and III

Key Points

  • Puga Valley, Jammu and Kashmir:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Puga Valley in Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, is one of the most promising geothermal fields in India. It has been identified for its significant potential in geothermal energy due to the presence of hot springs and other geothermal features.
  • The area has been under study and exploration for geothermal energy for several years, with plans to harness this energy for power generation and direct use applications.
  • Desert of Jodhpur, Rajasthan:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The desert regions of Jodhpur, Rajasthan, are not known for geothermal energy potential. These areas are more conducive to solar energy due to the high solar radiation received throughout the year.
  • Geothermal energy potential typically requires the presence of hot springs, volcanic activity, or other geothermal features which are not prominent in the desert of Jodhpur.
  • Manikaran Area, Himachal Pradesh:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is another significant site for geothermal energy in India. It is well-known for its hot springs, which have been used traditionally for various purposes including bathing and cooking.
  • The geothermal potential of Manikaran has been recognized for its potential to generate electricity and provide direct heating solutions.
  • Islands of Bay of Bengal:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The Islands of Bay of Bengal, such as the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, do not have significant geothermal energy potential. These regions are more suitable for other renewable energy sources like solar and wind energy.
  • Geothermal activity is generally associated with tectonic and volcanic activity, which is not prominent in the Bay of Bengal region.

Additional Information

  • Geothermal Energy:
  • Geothermal energy is a renewable energy source derived from the natural heat of the Earth. It is harnessed by tapping into geothermal reservoirs of hot water and steam, which can be used to generate electricity and provide direct heating.
  • Geothermal power plants can operate 24/7, providing a stable and reliable source of energy, unlike some other renewables that are dependent on weather conditions.
  • Geothermal Energy Potential in India:
  • India has several regions with geothermal energy potential, particularly in areas with volcanic or tectonic activity. Apart from Puga Valley and Manikaran, other potential sites include Tattapani in Chhattisgarh, Bakreswar in West Bengal, and the Cambay Graben in Gujarat.
  • Exploration and development of geothermal energy in India are still in the nascent stages, but it holds significant promise for diversifying the country's energy mix and providing clean and sustainable energy solutions.

Question 82

Which of the following area is known for the very high-grade iron ore deposits in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bailadila, Chhattisgarh

  2. BOption (b)

    Ratnagiri, Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Salem, Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Sikar, Rajasthan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bailadila, Chhattisgarh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Bailadila, Chhattisgarh'

Key Points

  • Bailadila, Chhattisgarh:
  • Bailadila is renowned for its high-grade iron ore deposits, which are among the richest in the world.
  • The iron ore from this region is known for its high iron content, making it highly valuable for industrial purposes.
  • This area has some of the best iron ore mines in India, which are managed by the National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC).
  • The iron ore from Bailadila is primarily used for domestic steel production, which is a key contributor to the Indian economy.

Additional Information

  • Ratnagiri, Maharashtra:
  • It is known for bauxite, the chief ore of aluminum, as well as deposits of silica sand and sea sand
  • Ratnagiri is not known for its iron ore deposits but is famous for its production of high-quality Alphonso mangoes.
  • The region has some bauxite deposits, which are used in the aluminum industry.
  • Salem, Tamil Nadu:
  • Salem is known for its rich deposits of magnetite, a type of iron ore, but these are not of the same high grade as those found in Bailadila.
  • The region is more prominent for its steel plants and stainless steel production.
  • Sikar, Rajasthan:
  • Sikar is not known for its iron ore deposits. Instead, it is more recognized for its agricultural activities and mineral deposits like copper.

Question 83

Which states are the leading producers of oil-seed in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haryana & Gujarat

  2. BOption (b)

    ​Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh & Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajasthan & Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rajasthan & Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Rajasthan & Madhya Pradesh

Key Points

  • Rajasthan:
  • Rajasthan is the largest oilseed-producing state in India.
  • The state produced 7.9 million metric tons of oilseeds in 2021.
  • Major oil-producing districts include Bharatpur, Alwar, and Dholpur.
  • Madhya Pradesh:
  • Madhya Pradesh is a significant contributor to oilseed production in India.
  • The state produced 6.3 million metric tons of oilseeds in 2021.
  • It is recognized for its substantial contribution to oilseed production in India.

Additional Information

  • Haryana & Gujarat:
  • While both states contribute to oilseed production, they are not the top producers.
  • Gujarat is known for groundnut production, and Haryana contributes to mustard seed production.
  • Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh:
  • Rajasthan is a leading producer, but Andhra Pradesh's contribution to oilseed production is comparatively lower.
  • Madhya Pradesh & Andhra Pradesh:
  • Madhya Pradesh is a significant producer, but Andhra Pradesh's contribution is not among the highest.

Question 84

Among the following which one is not included in the four-fold work-force classification of Indian census after the year 1981:

  1. AOption (a)

    Cultivator

  2. BOption (b)

    Construction

  3. COption (c)

    Agricultural Labour

  4. DOption (d)

    Workers Engaged in Household Industries

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Workers Engaged in Household Industries

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Workers Engaged in Household Industries'

Key Points

  • Indian Census Workforce Classification:
  • The Indian census divides the workforce into four main categories: Cultivators, Agricultural Labourers, Household Industry Workers, and Other Workers.
  • This classification helps in understanding the employment structure and economic activities of the population.
  • Workers Engaged in Household Industries:
  • This category includes individuals engaged in production, processing, servicing, or repair activities carried out in households.
  • It does not include workers engaged in construction activities, as construction is a separate category.
  • Cultivator:
  • Refers to individuals who engage directly in the cultivation of crops and horticulture on their own or leased land.
  • This category is a significant part of the agricultural workforce in India.
  • Agricultural Labour:
  • Includes individuals who work on another person's land for wages, either in cash or kind.
  • This category plays a crucial role in the agricultural sector, providing the necessary labor force.
  • Construction:
  • Refers to individuals engaged in the building and construction industry, including infrastructure development, residential, and commercial buildings.
  • This category is part of the non-agricultural workforce and is not included in the traditional four-fold classification of the Indian census.

Additional Information

  • Other Workers:
  • This category includes all workers who are not cultivators, agricultural laborers, or household industry workers.
  • It encompasses a wide range of occupations in various sectors such as manufacturing, services, trade, and more.
  • Classification Significance:
  • Understanding workforce classification helps in policy formulation, economic planning, and resource allocation.
  • It provides insights into employment patterns, labor market dynamics, and socioeconomic development.

Question 85

As per Census 2011, the average size of a village in India is:

  1. AOption (a)

    3.5 Km2

  2. BOption (b)

    4.2 Km2

  3. COption (c)

    5.13 Km2

  4. DOption (d)

    6.72 Km2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3.5 Km2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 3.5 Km2.

The Census 2011 conducted by the Government of India provides a comprehensive demographic overview of the country, including the size and population of villages. Understanding the average size of a village is crucial for planning and implementing rural development programs, resource allocation, and infrastructure development.

Key Points

  • Definition of Village: In the context of the Census, a village is defined as a clustered human settlement or community, larger than a hamlet but smaller than a town, generally found in a rural area.
  • Average Size: As per Census 2011, the average size of a village in India is 3.5 Km2. This measurement helps in understanding the spatial distribution and density of rural populations.
  • Population Density: The population density of villages varies widely across different states and regions of India, influenced by factors such as geography, climate, and the availability of resources.
  • Rural Development: Knowledge of the average village size aids in the effective planning and execution of rural development initiatives, including infrastructure projects, healthcare, education, and agricultural support programs.

Additional Information

  • Regional Variation: The size and population of villages can vary significantly between different regions of India. For instance, villages in states like Punjab and Haryana tend to be larger and more densely populated compared to those in the northeastern states.
  • Socio-Economic Impact: The size of a village can impact its socio-economic dynamics, including access to services, economic opportunities, and social infrastructure. Smaller villages may face challenges in accessing basic amenities, while larger villages may have better facilities and services.
  • Historical Context: The structure and size of villages in India have evolved over centuries, influenced by historical, cultural, and economic factors. Traditional village layouts often reflect the agrarian lifestyle and community-based living.
  • Government Schemes: Various government schemes and programs are designed to address the specific needs of rural areas, taking into account factors like village size, population, and regional diversity.

Question 86

Which one of the following is not an intrusive structure?

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Sill

  2. BOption (b)

    Laccolith

  3. COption (c)

    Volcanic plug

  4. DOption (d)

    Dyke

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Volcanic plug

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Volcanic Plug'

Key Points

  • Volcanic Plug:
  • A volcanic plug (also called a volcanic neck) forms when magma solidifies within the vent of an active volcano.
  • Over time, the surrounding softer rock erodes away, leaving the hardened igneous core exposed as a steep-sided feature.
  • It is considered an extrusive volcanic feature due to its association with volcanic vents and surface-level activity.
  • Examples include the Devil’s Tower (USA) and Edinburgh Castle Rock (UK).
  • Unlike true intrusive bodies, which form deep within the Earth’s crust, plugs are part of a volcano’s conduit system and are closer to the surface.

Additional Information

  • Sill:
  • A sill is a horizontal or near-horizontal tabular intrusion that forms when magma intrudes between existing rock layers.
  • Sills are concordant intrusive features, meaning they align with the existing rock strata.
  • Laccolith:
  • A laccolith is a dome-shaped intrusive structure formed when viscous magma pushes overlying strata upward, creating a bulge.
  • It is larger and more rounded than a sill and is also concordant with surrounding rock layers.
  • Dyke:
  • A dyke is a vertical or steeply inclined tabular intrusion that cuts across bedding planes and other rock structures.
  • Dykes are discordant and are formed when magma forces its way through fractures in the rock.

Important Points

  • Intrusive structures like sills, laccoliths, and dykes form entirely beneath the Earth’s surface through slow cooling of magma.
  • Volcanic plugs, although composed of intrusive rock, form closer to the Earth’s surface and are related to volcanic vents, not deep-seated magmatic activity.
  • This distinction is crucial in classifying landforms in geomorphology and structural geology.

Question 87

Which one of the following is not an outcome of erosional work?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arete 

  2. BOption (b)

    ​Zeugen

  3. COption (c)

    Esker

  4. DOption (d)

    Plunge pool

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Esker

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Esker'

Key Points

  • Esker:
  • An esker is a long, winding ridge composed of sand and gravel.
  • It is formed by the depositional activity of meltwater streams that flow within or beneath glaciers.
  • As the glacier retreats, the sediments carried by these subglacial streams are deposited, forming the esker.
  • Therefore, it is a classic example of a glacial depositional landform, not erosional.

Additional Information

  • Arete:
  • A sharp, narrow ridge formed between two glacial valleys or cirques due to glacial erosion.
  • It is an outcome of glacial erosional activity.
  • Zeugen:
  • Zeugen are landforms formed in desert regions by the wind erosion process (especially abrasion).
  • They are characteristic features of aeolian erosion.
  • Plunge Pool:
  • It is a deep depression formed at the base of a waterfall due to the erosive force of water and transported sediments.
  • It is produced through hydraulic action and abrasion, both of which are erosional processes.

Question 88

In which type of endogenetic forces the acting force is working along the earth's radius from center of the earth to earth surface?

  1. AOption (a)

    Earthquake forces

  2. BOption (b)

    Volcanic forces

  3. COption (c)

    Epcirogenetic forces

  4. DOption (d)

    Orogenetic forces

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Volcanic forces

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Volcanic forces'

Key Points

  • Volcanic forces:
  • Volcanic forces are endogenetic forces that originate from within the Earth and work along the Earth's radius, from the center of the Earth to the surface.
  • These forces are responsible for volcanic activity, including the eruption of magma, the formation of volcanic landforms, and the emission of gases.
  • Volcanic activity is driven by the heat and pressure from the Earth's interior, causing magma to rise through the crust and reach the surface.
  • This process can lead to the formation of various geological features such as mountains, islands, and lava plateaus.

Additional Information

  • Earthquake forces:
  • Earthquake forces are also endogenetic forces but they are primarily associated with the movement of tectonic plates rather than working along the Earth's radius.
  • These forces result from the build-up and release of stress along faults in the Earth's crust, leading to seismic activity.
  • Earthquakes can cause significant damage to structures, trigger landslides, and generate tsunamis.
  • Epcirogenetic forces:
  • Epcirogenetic forces are slow, vertical movements of the Earth's crust that result in the broad, gentle warping of the Earth's surface.
  • These forces can lead to the uplift or subsidence of large areas without significant folding or faulting.
  • Epcirogenetic movements are typically associated with the formation of continental platforms and basins.
  • Orogenetic forces:
  • Orogenetic forces are responsible for the formation of mountain ranges through processes such as folding, faulting, and volcanic activity.
  • These forces are driven by the collision and interaction of tectonic plates, leading to the deformation of the Earth's crust.
  • Orogenetic activity results in the creation of complex geological structures, including mountains, valleys, and plateaus.

Question 89

Match the following and select the correct answer:

List – I (Land Form )List - II (Natural Agent )
I.Pot holesi.Wind
II.Paternoster lakeii.Peri-glacier
III.Barchansiii.River
IV.Kamesiv.Glacier
  1. AOption (a)

    I - i, II - ii, III - iii, IV - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    I - iii, II - i, III - iv IV - ii

  3. COption (c)

    I - iii, II - iv III - i, IV - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    I - iii, II - iv, III - ii, IV - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I - iii, II - iv III - i, IV - ii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: I - iii, II - iv, III - i, IV - ii.

Key Points

Land Form (List I)Natural Agent (List II)
(I) Pot holes(iii) River
(II) Paternoster lake(iv) Glacier
(III) Barchans(i) Wind
(IV) Kames(ii) Peri-glacier

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Pot holes by River:
  • Definition: Pot holes are cylindrical depressions formed in the riverbed due to the erosion caused by the swirling motion of pebbles, stones, and sand in the river water.
  • Formation: These are typically formed in the rocky beds of the river where the river water exerts a significant erosional force.
  • Impact: Pot holes play a crucial role in deepening the river channel and influencing the river's course over time.
  • Paternoster lake by Glacier:
  • Definition: Paternoster lakes are a series of small, circular, and stepped lakes formed in a glacial valley.
  • Formation: These lakes are created due to the differential erosion by glaciers, where softer rock is eroded more deeply than harder rock, forming a series of basins.
  • Impact: They are significant indicators of past glacial activity and are often seen in mountainous regions with a history of glaciation.
  • Barchans by Wind:
  • Definition: Barchans are crescent-shaped sand dunes formed by wind action in desert regions.
  • Formation: They are formed when the wind direction is constant, and the supply of sand is moderate. The wind pushes the sand into a crescent shape with the horns pointing downwind.
  • Impact: Barchans are important indicators of wind patterns and help in understanding desert geomorphology.
  • Kames by Peri-glacier:
  • Definition: Kames are irregularly shaped hills or mounds composed of sand and gravel deposited by meltwater from a retreating glacier.
  • Formation: They are formed in the proglacial area, where meltwater streams deposit sediment, creating these unique landforms.
  • Impact: Kames provide valuable information about past glacial environments and the processes of sediment deposition by meltwater.

Question 90

What is the correct north to south sequence of the following plates?

I. Cocos Plate

II. Nazca Plate

III. Juan-de- Fuca Plate

IV. Scotia Plate

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II, III and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    III, II, I and IV

  3. COption (c)

    III, I, II and IV

  4. DOption (d)

    IV, III, II and I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

III, I, II and IV

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'III, I, II, and IV

Key Points

  • Juan de Fuca Plate (III) - Northernmost Plate:
  • Located off the west coast of North America, between the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate.
  • One of the smallest tectonic plates, it is actively subducting beneath the North American Plate, forming the Cascadia Subduction Zone.
  • Associated with significant earthquake activity and volcanism in the Pacific Northwest region.
  • Cocos Plate (I) - South of the Juan de Fuca Plate:
  • Situated off the west coast of Central America, bounded by the Pacific Plate, Nazca Plate, and North American Plate.
  • It subducts beneath the North American and Caribbean Plates, contributing to volcanic activity in Mexico and Central America.
  • Nazca Plate (II) - South of the Cocos Plate:
  • Extends along the west coast of South America, bordered by the Pacific Plate to the west and the South American Plate to the east.
  • Its subduction beneath the South American Plate forms the Andean volcanic belt and the Peru-Chile Trench.
  • Scotia Plate (IV) - Southernmost Plate:
  • Located between the South American Plate and the Antarctic Plate, near the southern tip of South America.
  • Plays a role in the complex tectonic setting of the Drake Passage and South Sandwich Islands.

Additional Information

  • Plate Tectonics Theory: The movement of these plates is driven by mantle convection, ridge push, and slab pull mechanisms.
  • Subduction Zones: The Juan de Fuca, Cocos, and Nazca Plates are actively subducting beneath larger continental plates, creating seismic and volcanic hazards.
  • Pacific Ring of Fire: The region where these plates are located is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, known for intense seismic and volcanic activity.
  • Transform Boundaries: The Scotia Plate interacts with surrounding plates through transform boundaries, leading to lateral plate movements.

Important Points

  • The correct north-to-south order is: Juan de Fuca Plate → Cocos Plate → Nazca Plate → Scotia Plate.
  • These plates are involved in major geological processes such as subduction, mountain building, and earthquake generation.
  • The interactions of these plates have significant effects on the landscapes and hazards of North and South America.

Question 91

The angle of Hade in a fault is measured as

  1. AOption (a)

    90° + Dip

  2. BOption (b)

    90° - Dip

  3. COption (c)

    Dip × 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Dip - 90°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dip - 90°

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Dip - 90°.

The angle of Hade in a fault is a geological term used to describe the angle at which a fault plane deviates from the vertical. Understanding the angle of Hade is important for geologists as it helps in determining the orientation and movement of fault lines, which is essential for assessing earthquake risks and understanding tectonic processes.

Key Points

  • Fault Plane: The surface along which a fault slip occurs is known as the fault plane.
  • Dip: The angle at which the fault plane is inclined to the horizontal is called the dip.
  • Hade Angle: The angle of Hade is the complement of the dip angle, which means it is calculated as the dip angle subtracted from 90 degrees. This describes how much the fault plane deviates from the vertical.

Additional Information

  • Importance in Geology: Knowing the angle of Hade helps in understanding the stress distribution along faults and predicting the potential for future seismic activity.
  • Seismic Risk Assessment: Accurate measurement of the dip and Hade angles can help in assessing the risk of earthquakes and planning for disaster mitigation.
  • Mapping Faults: Geologists use these angles to create accurate maps of fault lines, which are crucial for both academic research and practical applications like construction and mining.

Question 92

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A) : The central part of earth's interior is formed by heavy metals.

Reason (R) : Heavy metals are attracted towards center of the earth.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is ‘Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)’.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): The central part of earth’s interior is formed by heavy metals.
  • This statement is true.
  • Geological Structure: The Earth's core is primarily composed of iron and nickel, which are heavy metals. These metals are found in both the solid inner core and the molten outer core.
  • Density and Composition: The density of these heavy metals plays a crucial role in the Earth's overall structure, with the dense core lying at the center due to gravitational forces.
  • Reason (R): Heavy metals are attracted towards center of the earth.
  • This statement is true.
  • Gravitational Differentiation: During the early formation of the Earth, the planet was in a molten state. Heavier elements like iron and nickel naturally migrated towards the center due to gravity, a process known as gravitational differentiation.
  • Formation Process: As the Earth cooled, these heavy metals settled in the core, while lighter elements formed the mantle and crust.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and R:
  • Both the assertion and the reason are accurate and interlinked.
  • The reason explains why the central part of the Earth's interior is composed of heavy metals. The process of gravitational differentiation caused heavier elements to move towards the center, forming the core.
  • Therefore, the reason (R) directly supports and provides a correct explanation for the assertion (A).

Additional Information

  • Core Composition: The Earth's core is divided into the solid inner core and the liquid outer core. Both layers are predominantly made up of iron and nickel, with minor amounts of other heavy elements.
  • Geophysical Evidence: Seismic studies have provided valuable insights into the composition and state of the Earth's interior. The behavior of seismic waves as they travel through the Earth supports the presence of a dense, metallic core.
  • Importance of Core: The Earth's core plays a vital role in generating the planet's magnetic field through the movement of molten iron in the outer core, which creates a dynamo effect.

Question 93

Which one of the following is a component of lateral hill slope?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arete

  2. BOption (b)

    Free-face

  3. COption (c)

    Watershed

  4. DOption (d)

    Nick-point

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Free-face

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Free-face'

Key Points

  • Free-face:
  • A free-face is a steep, often vertical portion of a hill slope that is devoid of vegetation and soil, typically composed of rock.
  • This feature is part of the lateral hill slope and is often observed in areas where erosion or weathering has removed the overlying material.
  • Free-faces are common in mountainous and hilly terrain where the slopes are steep and prone to processes such as rockfalls and landslides.
  • These features are significant in geomorphology as they indicate active erosional processes and can influence the stability of the hill slope.

Additional Information

  • Arete:
  • An arete is a sharp, narrow ridge found in mountainous regions, formed by the erosion of two adjacent glacial valleys.
  • It is not a component of a lateral hill slope but rather a feature of glacial topography.
  • Watershed:
  • A watershed is an area of land that separates waters flowing to different rivers, basins, or seas.
  • It is a large-scale geographical feature that encompasses multiple hill slopes and is not limited to a single lateral hill slope.
  • Nick-point:
  • A nick-point is a break or change in the slope of a river profile, often indicating a point of increased erosion such as a waterfall or rapid.
  • It is associated with river geomorphology rather than the lateral slopes of hills.

Question 94

'Guyot' is a :

  1. AOption (a)

    A flat-topped seamount

  2. BOption (b)

    A volcanic island

  3. COption (c)

    Terraced continental shelf

  4. DOption (d)

    Rounded coral island

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A flat-topped seamount

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'A flat-topped seamount'

Key Points

  • Guyot:
  • A guyot, also known as a tablemount, is a flat-topped seamount that typically rises thousands of meters above the surrounding seafloor.
  • These underwater mountains were once volcanic islands that have been eroded over time, resulting in their characteristic flat tops.
  • The flat summit of a guyot is usually a result of wave erosion when the seamount was above sea level, followed by subsidence as it moved away from a mid-ocean ridge or hotspot.
  • Guyots are significant for marine geology and biology as they often host diverse ecosystems and provide insights into Earth's geological history.

Additional Information

  • Volcanic Island:
  • A volcanic island is formed from volcanic activity, often occurring at tectonic plate boundaries or hotspots.
  • Such islands are initially formed by the accumulation of lava and tephra above the ocean surface.
  • Unlike guyots, volcanic islands retain their peaks and are not characterized by flat tops.
  • Terraced Continental Shelf:
  • A terraced continental shelf features step-like formations found along the edges of continents.
  • These terraces are formed by changes in sea level, sediment deposition, and erosion.
  • This geological feature is different from guyots, which are isolated underwater mountains rather than continental formations.
  • Rounded Coral Island:
  • A rounded coral island, also known as an atoll, is a ring-shaped coral reef, island, or series of islets that encircle a lagoon.
  • Atolls are formed from the growth of coral reefs around the sinking remains of volcanic islands.
  • While they are also found in marine environments, they differ from guyots in their formation process and structure.

Question 95

The origin of maximum lakes of Canada is related to :

  1. AOption (a)

    Glacial process

  2. BOption (b)

    Wind erosion

  3. COption (c)

    Volcanic action

  4. DOption (d)

    Faulting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Glacial process

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Glacial process'

Key Points

  • Glacial process:
  • The origin of the majority of lakes in Canada is predominantly related to glacial processes.
  • During the last Ice Age, massive glaciers covered much of Canada. As these glaciers advanced and retreated, they sculpted the landscape, creating depressions and basins.
  • When the glaciers melted, the depressions filled with water, forming numerous lakes across the country.
  • Canada is home to approximately 60% of the world's lakes, and most of these are the result of glacial activity during the Pleistocene epoch.

Additional Information

  • Wind erosion:
  • Wind erosion involves the removal and transportation of soil and rock particles by wind. It is more commonly associated with arid and semi-arid regions.
  • While wind erosion can create features such as sand dunes and desert pavements, it is not a primary process for lake formation.
  • Volcanic action:
  • Volcanic activity can create lakes by forming calderas or volcanic craters, which can then fill with water.
  • While volcanic lakes exist, they are not as numerous in Canada as glacial lakes. Canada does have some volcanic features, but glaciation has had a much more significant impact on the country's lake formation.
  • Faulting:
  • Faulting refers to the fracturing of the Earth's crust due to tectonic forces, which can create depressions that may fill with water to form lakes.
  • Though faulting can produce lakes, this process is less common in Canada compared to the widespread glacial activity that has shaped the majority of its lakes.

Question 96

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A): The coral reefs are primarily found in the eastern parts of oceans in the tropical region.

Reason (R) : The temperature range between 18° to 30° C is favourable for the growth of corals.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)'.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): The coral reefs are primarily found in the eastern parts of oceans in the tropical region.
  • This statement is true.
  • Geographical Distribution: Coral reefs are typically found in the eastern parts of oceans within tropical regions. This distribution is influenced by ocean currents, the availability of sunlight, and water temperature, all of which are favorable in these regions.
  • Reason (R): The temperature range between 18° to 30° C is favourable for the growth of corals.
  • This statement is true.
  • Optimal Temperature: Corals thrive in warm waters with temperatures ranging from 18° to 30° C. This temperature range is conducive to the growth and reproduction of coral polyps and the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) that live within their tissues.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between (A) and (R):
  • Both the assertion and the reason are accurate and interlinked.
  • The reason explains why coral reefs are primarily found in the eastern parts of oceans in the tropical region. The favorable temperature range of 18° to 30° C supports the growth of corals, and these temperature conditions are typically met in the tropical regions of the eastern parts of oceans.
  • Therefore, the reason (R) directly supports and provides a correct explanation for the assertion (A).

Additional Information

  • Coral Reef Ecosystems: Coral reefs are one of the most diverse and productive ecosystems on Earth. They provide habitat and shelter for many marine organisms, support fishing industries, and protect coastlines from erosion.
  • Threats to Coral Reefs: Coral reefs are threatened by climate change, ocean acidification, pollution, overfishing, and destructive fishing practices. These threats can lead to coral bleaching and the degradation of reef ecosystems.
  • Conservation Efforts: Efforts to protect coral reefs include establishing marine protected areas, reducing carbon emissions, implementing sustainable fishing practices, and promoting coral restoration projects.

Question 97

According to William Whewell, the secondary waves progress in the direction of:

  1. AOption (a)

    East to West

  2. BOption (b)

    North to South

  3. COption (c)

    South to North

  4. DOption (d)

    West to East

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South to North

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'South to North'

Key Points

  • William Whewell's Theory:
  • William Whewell was a 19th-century English polymath known for his contributions to the philosophy of science.
  • He proposed theories related to the propagation of waves, including secondary waves (also known as seismic or tidal waves in some contexts).
  • According to Whewell, the secondary waves progress predominantly from the South to the North.

Additional Information

  • Other Directions Explained:
  • East to West:
  • This direction is often associated with the movement of celestial bodies such as the moon and sun across the sky, but not necessarily related to the propagation of secondary waves as proposed by Whewell.
  • This direction does not align with Whewell's observations and theories regarding wave propagation.
  • North to South:
  • This direction is not supported by Whewell's studies. He observed that the secondary waves typically move from the Southern Hemisphere towards the Northern Hemisphere.
  • West to East:
  • Similar to East to West, this direction is more relevant to the Earth's rotation and atmospheric phenomena rather than the propagation of secondary waves.
  • Whewell's work does not support this direction for secondary wave movement.

Question 98

If the Earth's revolution speed is doubled and Moon's rotation speed is decreased by half then the diurnal tide at a place will occur after :

  1. AOption (a)

    24 hours and 52 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    25 hours and 44 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    24 hours and 26 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    24 hours and 13 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25 hours and 44 minutes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 25 hours and 44 minutes.

The Earth and Moon's rotational and revolution speeds significantly impact tidal phenomena. Diurnal tides, which occur once every 24 hours and 52 minutes, are influenced by the gravitational interactions between the Earth, Moon, and Sun. Any changes to these speeds will subsequently alter the timing of tidal occurrences.

Key Points

  • Tidal Formation:
  • Tides are caused by the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun on the Earth's oceans.
  • Diurnal tides occur once in a 24-hour period, affected by the rotation of the Earth and the orbit of the Moon.
  • Earth’s Revolution Speed:
  • If the Earth's revolution speed is doubled, it means the Earth would complete an orbit around the Sun twice as fast.
  • This change impacts the timing of tides due to alterations in the gravitational balance between Earth, Moon, and Sun.
  • Moon's Rotation Speed:
  • If the Moon's rotation speed is decreased by half, it would take longer for the Moon to complete one rotation on its axis.
  • This affects the timing of the tidal bulges on Earth, as the Moon's gravitational influence would change in periodicity.
  • Calculation of New Tidal Period:
  • The change in the Earth's revolution and Moon's rotation speeds leads to an adjustment in the period of diurnal tides.
  • Given these adjustments, the new timing for diurnal tides would be approximately 25 hours and 44 minutes.

Additional Information

  • Gravitational Interactions:
  • The gravitational pull of the Moon has a more significant effect on tides than the Sun due to its proximity to Earth.
  • Changes in the Moon’s rotation and Earth’s revolution can cause shifts in the timing and amplitude of tides.
  • Impact on Marine Life:
  • Alterations in tidal patterns can affect marine ecosystems, influencing feeding, breeding, and migration patterns of marine organisms.
  • Climate and Weather:
  • Tides also play a role in coastal weather patterns and can impact local climates. Changes in tidal timings could lead to shifts in these patterns.

Question 99

The oceanic ridge located in southern Atlantic Ocean is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Telegraph plateau

  2. BOption (b)

    Walvis ridge

  3. COption (c)

    Wyville Thomson ridge

  4. DOption (d)

    Dolphin range

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Walvis ridge

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Walvis ridge'

Key Points

  • Walvis Ridge:
  • The Walvis Ridge is a prominent submarine feature located in the southern Atlantic Ocean.
  • It extends from the African continental shelf to the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
  • It is a volcanic ridge that was formed by hotspot activity, which is a plume of hot material rising from deep within the Earth's mantle.
  • This ridge plays a significant role in the tectonic and volcanic activity of the region.
  • The Walvis Ridge is crucial for understanding the geological history and plate tectonics of the southern Atlantic Ocean.

Additional Information

  • Telegraph Plateau:
  • The Telegraph Plateau is located in the North Atlantic Ocean and is not associated with the southern Atlantic Ocean.
  • It is an extensive, flat area of the seabed that is known for its relatively smooth topography.
  • Wyville Thomson Ridge:
  • The Wyville Thomson Ridge is situated in the North Atlantic Ocean, particularly between Scotland and Iceland.
  • This ridge is known for its biological significance and acts as a barrier to deep-water species migration.
  • Dolphin Range:
  • The Dolphin Range is not a recognized oceanic feature in the context of the Atlantic Ocean or any major oceanic ridge system.

Question 100

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A): The eastern sides of oceans are always warmer than the western margins.

Reason (R) : The El - Nino warm current flows in the eastern side of Atlantic Ocean.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is '(A) is true, but (R) is false.'

Key Points

  • Assertion A: The eastern sides of oceans are always warmer than the western margins.
  • This statement is true.
  • Western Boundary Currents: Warm ocean currents like the Gulf Stream (Atlantic), Kuroshio (Pacific), and Agulhas (Indian) flow along the western margins of ocean basins but heat the eastern coasts of continents (i.e., western margins of oceans).
  • Eastern Ocean Margins: Due to these warm currents and the influence of equatorial wind patterns, the eastern sides of oceans (adjacent to western sides of continents like West Africa, West South America) are typically warmer in surface temperatures.
  • Reason R: The El Niño warm current flows in the eastern side of Atlantic Ocean.
  • This statement is false.
  • El Niño: This is a periodic climatic phenomenon that causes warming of sea surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean, particularly near the coast of South America (Peru, Ecuador).
  • Atlantic Ocean: While there is a similar phenomenon known as the "Atlantic Niño," the term "El Niño" is specific to the Pacific and does not apply to the Atlantic Ocean.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and R:
  • The assertion is correct based on global ocean circulation and the influence of western boundary warm currents.
  • The reason incorrectly associates El Niño with the Atlantic Ocean and hence cannot be used to explain the assertion.
  • Therefore, (R) is not only unrelated but also factually incorrect.

Additional Information

  • El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO): El Niño is part of ENSO, which impacts global weather patterns, including monsoons, droughts, and floods.
  • Warm and Cold Currents: Warm currents generally move from equator to poles and warm the east-facing coasts of continents, while cold currents (like the California or Canary Currents) flow from poles to equator, cooling the west-facing coasts.
  • Ocean Circulation: The general direction of surface ocean currents and resulting temperature differences between eastern and western margins are crucial for understanding climate patterns and marine biodiversity.

100 questions in the full paper