Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Geography 2nd Dec 2019 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

100 questions120 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

The two-cycle theory regarding the 'origin of limestone caves' was propounded by

  1. AOption (a)

    Swinerton

  2. BOption (b)

    Gardner

  3. COption (c)

    W. M. Davis

  4. DOption (d)

    Malott

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

W. M. Davis

Why this answer is correct

The two-cycle theory regarding the origin of limestone caves was propounded by W. M. Davis.

The two-cycle theory regarding 'the origin of limestone caves:

  • Caves are natural cavities in the ground.
  • W.M. Davis in his paper ‘Origin of Limestone Caverns’, published in 1930 challenged the dominant view of the formation of limestone caverns.
  • Davis instead proposed his two-cycle theory as the alternative, in which limestone caverns are formed by the action of water below the water table instead of above.
  • This takes place by the action of water in two stages or cycles.
  • In the first cycle, phreatic water forms a solution for the dissolving processes that form a major part of the development of subterranean caverns.
  • Phreatic water is water from the phreatic zone i.e. the area below the water table in an aquifer where all the pores and fractures in the soil are saturated with water.
  • In the second cycle in which a lowering of the level of the water table leads to the draining of these areas, leaving behind vacant spaces that form subterranean caverns.
  • These vacant spaces are often occupied by air and vadose water i.e. water at atmospheric pressure above the water table that is moving downward depending on gravitational forces

Question 2

'Ria Coast' is an example of -

  1. AOption (a)

    Neutral shoreline

  2. BOption (b)

    Compound shoreline

  3. COption (c)

    Submerged upland shoreline

  4. DOption (d)

    Emerged upland shoreline

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Submerged upland shoreline

Why this answer is correct

'Ria Coast' is an example of - Submerged upland shoreline

Key Points

Different types of coast:

  • Submerged upland shore: Also known as drowned coastline inundated by the sea by a relative rise in sea levels. For example, Norway coast, Alaska coast, Konkan coast.
  • Emerged upland shore: exposed by sea due to relative fall in sea level. For example, the Malabar coast,
  • Neutral Shore: no relative change between sea level and coastal region. Delta coastline, volcano coast
  • Compound Shore: experience both submergence and emergence. For example, Norway coast, Sweden coast.

Ria Coast:

  • A ria coast is a combination of parallel rias on the coast of a landmass
  • Portuguese word 'Ria' means river. At the same time, the Spanish word 'Ria' means coast.
  • A ria forms when the sea level rises and floods a river valley.
  • It formed due to the submergence of an unglaciated river valley.
  • The result is almost always an estuary surrounded by many hills that once were the valley.
  • It is also known as a drowned river valley.
  • Some of the examples are, Deseado Ria in Argentine, Ria de Aveiro in Portugal, Prince Edward Island in Canada.

Important Points

Formation of a Ria coast:

  • A ria begins as a simple river valley.
  • Essentially, many hills with a river running through them.
  • During the ice age, there were many rivers close to the ocean.
  • Eventually, the ocean sea level rose so much that it begins to fill up the valleys around the hills.
  • After some time, the valley is full of ocean water and the river still leads into it.
  • The combination of ocean water and river water forms the estuary.
  • The ria coast has a V-shaped channel running through it.
  • It also has many small “feeder rivers” branching off of it

Question 3

The concept of 'Panplain' was propounded by

  1. AOption (a)

    Swinerton

  2. BOption (b)

    Johnson

  3. COption (c)

    Davis

  4. DOption (d)

    Crickmay

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Crickmay

Why this answer is correct

The concept of 'Panplain' was propounded by Crickmay

Key Points

The concept of 'Panplain':

  • The term “panplain” was proposed by Crickmay (1933).
  • A plain formed by the coalescence of previously separate flood plains.
  • Planation by lateral corrasion which begins with the first grading of the streams and can continue long after active deepening has ceased must assume a dominant role in the late stages of the erosion cycle, causing the prevalence of broad flood plains, thinly veneered with sediment.
  • In the limit growing flood plains become confluent, giving a surface much flatter than that of a true peneplain.
  • This plain, formed of flood plains joined by their own growth, may be called a panplain.
  • The essential difference between panplanation and peneplanation is that the former starts from the lower flood plains of rivers and grows laterally in all landward directions, whereas the latter is of universal occurrence.
  • Panplain(panplane, planplain) An area of very subdued relief that consists of coalesced flood-plains.
  • It is, therefore, owing to lateral stream migration and is a component of a peneplain.
  • Good examples are found in the Carpentaria region of Australia.

Question 4

In the process of erosion, the removal of materials by solution is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Corrasion

  2. BOption (b)

    Attrition

  3. COption (c)

    Corrosion

  4. DOption (d)

    Sapping

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Corrosion

Why this answer is correct

Fluvial processes:

  • The fluvial process takes place in three ways, erosion, transportation, and deposition.
  • The erosional process is more active in the youth stage of landform development and gradually weakens towards the plain.
  • According to the Law of Erosion, erosion depends on the transportation capacity and the load of the river.
Process of erosionCharacteristicsImage
Corrasion- It is also known as the process of abrasion - The process of rocks and pebbles carried by the waves wearing away rocks as they are thrown against cliffs. - It depends on the load of the flowing water and the strength of the wave.
Attrition- The rocks and pebbles being carried by the river crash against each other, wearing them down to become smaller, rounded pebbles. - Mutual wear and tear or collision of erosional tools In transit.
Corrosion- The chemical erosion of the rocks of the riverbank by the slightly acidic water. - This occurs in streams running through rocks such as chalk and limestone. - It means the removal of materials by solution
Sapping- Water forced to travel laterally due to its limited ability to travel vertically. - It is a process of displacement of fine weathered sediments. - It results in the headward migration of channels in response to near-constant fluid discharge at a fixed point.

 

In the process of erosion, the removal of materials by the solution is called Corrosion.

Question 5

The 'Doctrine of Uniformitarianism' was postulated by

  1. AOption (a)

    Cotton

  2. BOption (b)

    Dutton

  3. COption (c)

    Hutton

  4. DOption (d)

    Dalton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hutton

Why this answer is correct

The 'Doctrine of Uniformitarianism' was postulated by Hutton.

Key Points

Uniformitarianism:

  • Uniformitarianism is the doctrine that existing processes acting in the same manner and with essentially the same intensity as at present are sufficient to account for all geologic change.
  • Uniformitarianism posits that natural agents now at work on and within the Earth have operated with general uniformity through immensely long periods of time.
  • The idea that the laws that govern geologic processes have not changed during the history of the Earth were articulated by the 18th-century Scottish geologist James Hutton, who in 1785 presented his ideas--later published in two volumes as Theory of the Earth (1795)--at meetings of the Royal Society of Edinburgh.
  • In the publication Principles of Geology, 3 vol. (1830-33), the Scottish geologist Sir Charles Lyell deciphered the history of the Earth employing Huttonian principles and made available a host of new geologic evidence in support of the view that physical laws were permanent and that any form of supernaturalism can be rejected.
  • This concept became known as uniformitarianism and can be summarized by the phrase "the present is the key to the past."
  • It was a direct rejection of the prevalent theory of the time, catastrophism, which held that only violent disasters could modify the surface of the earth.
  • However, the famous line that became associated with uniformitarianism—"we find no vestige of a beginning, no prospect of an end"—does come from Hutton's 1785 paper on the entirely new theory of geomorphology (the study of landforms and their development).

Question 6

Which one of the following is not an advantage for raster data format?

  1. AOption (a)

    Simple data structure

  2. BOption (b)

    Easy and efficient overlaying

  3. COption (c)

    Compatible with remotely sensed imagery

  4. DOption (d)

    Application for network analysis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Application for network analysis

Why this answer is correct

GIS data format:

  • GIS data formats can be categorized into two, spatial and attribute data format.
  • Spatial data is a geographical representation of features.
  • In other words, spatial data is what we actually see in the form of maps (containing real-world features) on a computer screen.
  • Spatial data can further be divided into two types- vector and raster data.

Raster data format:

  • Raster data is made up of pixels.
  • It is an array of grid cells with columns and rows.
  • Each and every geographical feature is represented only through pixels in raster data.
  • There is nothing like point, line, or polygon. Easy and efficient overlaying process.
  • Raster data format is compatible with remotely sensed imagery.
  • If it is a point, in raster data it will be a single pixel, a line will be represented as a linear arrangement of pixels and an area or polygon will be represented by contiguous neighboring pixels with similar values.
  • In raster data, one pixel contains only one value (unlike vector data where a point, a line, or a polygon may have a number of values or attributes) that’s why only one geographical feature can be represented by a single set of pixels or grid cells.
  • Hence a number of raster layers are required if multiple features are to be considered (For example- land use, soil type, forest density, topography, etc.).

Network analysis with point and line is more compatible with the vector data format.

Question 7

The resolution, which is related to sensitivity of remote sensing detector to record differences in portions of the electro-magnetic spectrum is known as -

  1. AOption (a)

    Spatial resolution

  2. BOption (b)

    Spectral resolution

  3. COption (c)

    Radiometric resolution

  4. DOption (d)

    Temporal resolution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Spectral resolution

Why this answer is correct

Resolution: it refers to the potential detail provided by the imagery. There are four types of resolution are as follows,

ResolutionCharacteristics
Spatial resolution- The ability of the sensor to detect the smallest single object on the Earth's surface is referred to as Spatial Resolution. - Extraction of details from the image highly depends upon the spatial resolution. - The spatial resolution of the sensor highly depends on their Instantaneous Field of View (IFOV).IFOV is the angular cone of visibility of the sensor. - It determines the area of the Earth’s surface which is “seen” from a given altitude at a particular moment of time. - The size of the area viewed is determined by multiplying IFOV by the distance from the ground to the sensor.
Spectral resolution- Simply we can define the ability of the sensor to record the information on a particular spectral range as called Spectral Resolution or the ability of the sensor to define fine wavelengths. - The spectral resolution is highly important while designing the sensor. - It defines the nature of the study. Different objects have a different spectral signatures.
Radiometric resolution- Radiometric resolution refers to how much information is in a pixel and is expressed in units of bits. - A single bit of information represents a binary decision of yes or no, with a mathematical value of 1 or 0. - Increasing radiometric resolution means there is more variability in the pixel, it does not necessarily mean that more is better. - Radiometric resolution corresponds to the sensitivity of a sensor, i.e. its ability to measure and to enable distinction within the same spectral band of differences in the electromagnetic energy reflected by the elementary ground surfaces.
Temporal resolution- Like other resolution properties, temporal resolution is also important in Remote Sensing studies. - Temporal resolution means the revisit of the satellite over a particular area at the same interval of time. - The temporal resolutions of the satellites are usually several days which enables to capture the images of an area regularly and can monitor well. - The images collected over a given interval are called multi-temporal data, which is the main advantage.

 

Therefore, the correct answer is Spectral resolution.

Question 8

Which one of the following landmass recorded world's lowest air temperature (-89°C) on July 21, 1983?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antarctica

  2. BOption (b)

    Greenland

  3. COption (c)

    Australia

  4. DOption (d)

    North America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Antarctica

Why this answer is correct

  • The lowest temperature yet recorded by ground measurements for the Antarctic Region, and for the whole world, was −89.2°C (-128.6°F) at Vostok station on 21 July 1983.
  • A World Meteorological Organization committee of experts has announced new records for the highest temperatures recorded in the Antarctic Region as part of continuing efforts to expand a database of extreme weather and climate conditions throughout the world.
  • Knowledge and verification of such extremes are important in the study of weather patterns, naturally occurring climate variability and human-induced climate change at global and regional scales.
  • The highest temperature for the “Antarctica Region” (defined by the WMO and United Nations as all land and ice south of 60°S) of 19.8 degrees Celsius (67.6 degrees Fahrenheit) was observed on 30 January 1982 at Signy Research Station, Borge Bay on Signy Island.
  • The highest temperature for the “Antarctic continent” defined as the main continental landmass and adjoining islands is the temperature extreme of 17.5°C (63.5°F) recorded on 24 March 2015 at the Argentine Research Base Esperanza located near the northern tip of the Antarctic Peninsula.
  • Thirdly, the highest temperature for the Antarctic Plateau [at or above 2500 meters (8202 feet)] was the observation of -7.0°C (19.4°F) made on 28 December 1989 at an Automatic Weather Station (AWS) site D-80 located inland of the Adélie Coast.

Question 9

At which one of the following temperatures is fresh water densest?

  1. AOption (a)

    0°C

  2. BOption (b)

    4°C

  3. COption (c)

    100°C

  4. DOption (d)

    -4°C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4°C

Why this answer is correct

At 4°C temperatures is freshwater densest.

Key Points The density of water:

  • At 39°F (or 3.98°C to be exact) water is the densest. This is because the molecules are closest together at this temperature.
  • As the water cools it becomes denser.
  • The closer the molecules, the heavier. The farther apart the molecules, the lighter.
  • Density is just the weight for a chosen amount (volume) of the material.
  • A common unit of measurement for water's density is gram per millilitre (1 g/ml) or 1 gram per cubic centimetre (1 g/cm3).
  • Density varies with the changes in temperature
  • 30°C is 0.9957 g cm-³
  • 4°C is 1.0000 g cm-³
  • 0°C is 0.9998 g cm-³
  • | Temperature
    (°F/°C) | Density
    (grams/cm3 | Weight
    (pounds/ft3 | | --- | --- | --- | | 32°F/0°C | 0.99987 | 62.416 | | 39.2°F/4.0°C | 1.00000 | 62.424 | | 40°F/4.4°C | 0.99999 | 62.423 | | 50°F/10°C | 0.99975 | 62.408 | | 60°F/15.6°C | 0.99907 | 62.366 | | 70°F/21°C | 0.99802 | 62.300 | | 80°F/26.7°C | 0.99669 | 62.217 | | 90°F/32.2°C | 0.99510 | 62.118 | | 100°F/37.8°C | 0.99318 | 61.998 | | 120°F/48.9°C | 0.98870 | 61.719 | | 140°F/60°C | 0.98338 | 61.386 | | 160°F/71.1°C | 0.97729 | 61.006 | | 180°F/82.2°C | 0.97056 | 60.586 | | 200°F/93.3°C | 0.96333 | 60.135 | | 212°F/100°C | 0.95865 | 59.843 |

Question 10

Which one of the following description for 'Aw' in Koppen's world climatic classification is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Marine West Coast Climate

  2. BOption (b)

    Tropical Wet Climate

  3. COption (c)

    Tropical Monsoon Climate

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropical Savanna Climate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tropical Savanna Climate

Why this answer is correct

Koppen's world climatic classification:

  • The Köppen climate classification is one of the most widely used climate classification systems.
  • It was first published by the German-Russian climatologist Wladimir Köppen (1846–1940) in 1900 based on the major vegetation zone suggested by Candolle in1874.
  • There are several modifications of this scheme by Köppen, notably in 1918,1931 and 1936.
  • Later, the climatologist Rudolf Geiger introduced some changes to the classification system, which is thus sometimes called the Köppen–Geiger-Pohi’s climate classification system published in 1953.
1st Group2nd Group3rd Group
A (Tropical)f (Rainforest) m (Monsoon) w (Savanna, Dry winter) s (Savanna, Dry summer)
B (Arid)W (Desert) S (Steppe)h (Hot) k (Cold)
C (Temperate)w (Dry winter) f (No dry season) s (Dry summer)a (Hot summer) b (Warm summer) c (Cold summer)
D (Continental)w (Dry winter) f (No dry season) s (Dry summer)a (Hot summer) b (Warm summer) c (Cold summer) d (Very cold winter)
E (Polar)T (Tundra) F (Eternal frost (ice cap))

Key Points

Group A Climatic types:

  • This type of climate has every month of the year with an average temperature of 18 °C (64.4 °F) or higher, with significant precipitation.
  • Af = Tropical rainforest climate; average precipitation of at least 60 mm (2.4 in) in every month.
  • Am = Tropical monsoon climate; driest month (which nearly always occurs at or soon after the "winter" solstice for that side of the equator) with precipitation less than 60 mm (2.4 in), but at least
  • Aw or As = tropical wet and dry or savanna climate; with the driest month having precipitation less than 60 mm (2.4 in). This type of climate found over a large area of Central India.

Therefore, '4' is the correct option.

Question 11

Which one of the following options best describes the world distribution of active volcanoes?

  1. AOption (a)

    They are found in association with young folded mountain systems

  2. BOption (b)

    They occur in river flood plains

  3. COption (c)

    They are associated with old eroded mountain chains

  4. DOption (d)

    They lead to form chains around ocean basins

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They lead to form chains around ocean basins

Why this answer is correct

The world distribution of active volcanoes is  lead to form chains around ocean basins

Relationship of folded mountains and active volcanoes:

  • Folded mountains are associated along the boundary of two or more convergent tectonic plates.
  • Tectonic plates are rigid lithospheric slabs floating/ moving over the asthenosphere.
  • Convergent tectonic plates are destructive in nature and associated with a volcanic eruption.
  • Along the boundary of the convergent plates, the denser plate collided under the lighter pate.
  • It is known as the subduction zone.
  • At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges.
  • Deep within the Earth, it is so hot that some rocks slowly melt and become a thick flowing substance called magma.
  • One plate pushes under another (a process known as subduction) and as it sinks it melts and generates an explosive type of magma that is vented through volcanoes on the upper plate.
  • A volcano is like a chimney that allows hot liquid rock, called magma, to flow from a layer within the Earth and erupt onto the surface.
  • As the plate continues to move across the "hot spot", a chain of volcanoes, like those seen in the islands of Hawaii, are created.

Question 12

Which one of the following weather instruments is kept outside the Stevenson screen?

  1. AOption (a)

    Barometer

  2. BOption (b)

    Anemometer

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrograph

  4. DOption (d)

    Maximum and minimum thermometers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Anemometer

Why this answer is correct

Anemometer is kept outside the Stevenson screen.

Key Points

Stevenson screen:

  • The Stevenson screen is designed to protect thermometers from precipitation and direct sunlight while allowing air to circulate freely around them.
  • It is made from wood with louvred sides to allow the free and even flow of air. It is painted white to reflect radiation.
  • It stands on four legs and is about 3 feet 6 inches above the level of the ground.
  • The legs must be sufficiently rigid and be buried sufficiently in the ground to prevent shaking.
  • The front panel is hinged at the bottom to form a door, which allows for maintenance and reading of the thermometers.
  • The door of the Stevenson screen is always towards the north in the northern hemisphere and towards the south in the southern hemisphere because direct sunrays also affect mercury.
  • The purpose of the Stevenson screen is to create a uniform temperature enclosure that closely represents the same temperature as the air outside

Some weather instruments:

Weather instrumentsFunction
Barometer- The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer. - The most commonly used barometers are mercury barometer, aneroid barometer, and barographs. - The unit of measurement is in the millibar.
Anemometer- An anemometer is a device used for measuring wind speed and direction. - It is also a common weather station instrument. - The term is derived from the Greek word anemos, which means wind, and is used to describe any wind speed instrument used in meteorology.
Hydrograph- A hydrograph is a graph or plot that shows the rate of water flow in relation to time, given a specific point or cross-section. -
Maximum and minimum thermometers- The maximum thermometer and minimum thermometer are used to measure the air temperature. - A set of these thermometers is kept in the Stevenson Screen - The maximum thermometer is designed to record the highest temperature during a day. - The minimum thermometer records the lowest reading in a day.

Question 13

Which of the following does NOT form an essential part of the process of photosynthesis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sunlight

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nitrogen

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Photosynthesis:

  • Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy.

  • During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.

  • There are two types of photosynthetic processes: oxygenic photosynthesis and anoxygenic photosynthesis.

  • Oxygenic photosynthesis functions as a counterbalance to respiration by taking in the carbon dioxide produced by all breathing organisms and reintroducing oxygen to the atmosphere.

  • Oxygenic photosynthesis is written as follows:

  • 6CO2 + 12H2O + Light Energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O

  • During oxygenic photosynthesis, light energy transfers electrons from water (H2O) to carbon dioxide (CO2), to produce carbohydrates.

  • In this transfer, the CO2 is "reduced," or receives electrons, and the water becomes "oxidized," or loses electrons.

  • Ultimately, oxygen is produced along with carbohydrates.

Therefore it is clear that Nitrogen does NOT form an essential part of the process of photosynthesis.

Question 14

Which one of the following characteristics is best suited to intensive farming?

  1. AOption (a)

    Large farm size

  2. BOption (b)

    Low labour input

  3. COption (c)

    High yield rate

  4. DOption (d)

    Sparsely populated region

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

High yield rate

Why this answer is correct

Characteristics of Intensive Farming:

  • Intensive farming is an agricultural intensification and mechanization system that aims to maximize yields from available land through various means, such as heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers.
  • Three major characteristics of intensive farming are as follows, 
  • Low fallow ratio
  • Labour and capital intensive
  • Higher crop yields per unit land area.
  • Executive use of mechanization found.
  • It is a labour-intensive farming method.
  • This farming produces cheaper food per hectare to feed the rising population.
  • Created multiple cropping systems.
  • High productivity using modern inputs.
  • It also involves intensive livestock farming.
  • It is a common practice in the fertile areas of south-east Asia, China, India (Punjab, parts of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, etc.), etc.

Therefore, '3' is the correct option here.

Question 15

The volcanic origin deposits on the ocean floor at a depth of 2,500 fathoms or more are known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Pelagiac deposits

  2. BOption (b)

    Red clay

  3. COption (c)

    Calcareous ooze

  4. DOption (d)

    Radiolarian ooze

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Red clay

Why this answer is correct

  • The volcanic origin deposits on the floor at a depth of 2500 fathoms or more are known as red clay.
  • The ocean floor of the abyssal plain is covered by sediments from the land. But those seas that favour, abundant growth of organisms have a thick layer of sediments, formed from the remains of living things.
  • These sediments are called oozes. Some of the open seas do not support enough life to produce ooze on the floor.
  • They are covered with a type of sediment called red clay which is of volcanic origin or made up of tiny particles brought by wind and river

Oceanic deposits:

  • The unconsolidated sediments, derived from various sources, deposited at the sea floors are in­cluded in ocean deposits.

  • Oceanic deposits can be classified based on the depth or location of the deposit.

  • Though several scien­tists have attempted to classify ocean deposits on the basis of their locations, the classifications of Sir John Murray, 1876 and J.T. Jenkins are widely acclaimed.

  • It can be classified into terrigenous and pelagic deposits.

Type of depositCharacteristics
Terrigenous deposits- Littoral deposits are generally found on the continental shelves mainly near the coastal margins up to the depth of 100 fathoms (600 feet) but they have been also traced up to the depth of 1000m-2000m. Littoral deposits consist of gravels, sands, silt, clays, and muds. - Shallow water deposits include terrigenous sediments deposited between low tidewater and 100- fathom depth. These deposits consist of gravels, sands, silt, and clays of varying proportions. Sea waves and tidal waves help in the gradation and sorting of sediments but landslides, slumping, strong storm waves, and storms sometimes disturb the vertical stratification of sediments. - Deepwater deposits include the sediments deposited below the depth of 100 fathoms. There is marked gradation of sediments in vertical succession where the sequence of sediments with increasing depths is blue mud, red mud, green mud, coral mud, and volcanic mud.
Pelagic Deposits- Pelagic deposits consisting of remains of ma­rine plants and animals in the form of different types of oozes cover about 75.5 percent of the ocean areas. - Pteropod, diatom, and radiolarian ooze cover 0.4, 6.4, and 3.4 percent areas of all the oceanic deposits respectively. - Red clay constitutes 31.1 percent of the total ocean deposits. - Pteropod oozes are found over an area of 12,90,000 km. - Globigerina oozes cover larger areas in the Pacific (64.5 million km2), the Atlantic (37.9 million km2), and the Indian (31.4 million km2) oceans (figs. 27.3, 4, and 5). Radiolarian oozes are found over an area of 5.16 million km2 in the Pacific and Indian oceans, - Diatom oozes arc spread over an area of 1,03,000 km2 in the North Pacific Ocean and 27.6 million km2 in the southern oceans. Red clay is distributed over an area of 129 million km2 of all the oceans

Question 16

If in any region, the largest city has 10,00,000 population, what will be the population size for the 4th largest city, according to the 'rank-size rule'?

  1. AOption (a)

    1,00,000

  2. BOption (b)

    2,00,000

  3. COption (c)

    2,50,000

  4. DOption (d)

    3,50,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2,50,000

Why this answer is correct

Rank-size rule:

  • The distribution of city size in terms of population is known as the rank-size distribution of the cities
  • This rule was proposed by G. K. Zipf in 1949
  • He was an American linguist and philologist
  • It is an empirical study developed by Berry for developing countries

Important Points

Main Concept:

  • Zipf’s has probably the best presentation of the empirical findings on the rank and size of the cities.
  • The rank-size rule states that for a group of cities, usually those exceeding some size in a particular country, the relationship between size and rank of cities is given by:
  • Pn = P1/n
  • Where,
  • Pn = population of the nth largest city
  • P1 = population of the largest city
  • n = rank of city n
  • The rank Size Rule is a simple model which states that the population size of a given city tends to be equal to the population of the largest city divided by the rank of the given city.

Example:

P1 = 10,00,000 persaons

n = 4

Pn has to calculated

Pn = 1000000/4 = 250000 persons.

Therefore, the population size for the 4th largest city is 2,50,000 persons.

Question 17

Which one of the following statements is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arctic snow covered areas have intermediate ecological productivity

  2. BOption (b)

    Temperature is the limiting factor for desert areas in relation to ecological productivity

  3. COption (c)

    The primary productivity of a natural ecosystem largely depends on the amount of solar radiation

  4. DOption (d)

    The herbivores are called as secondary consumers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The primary productivity of a natural ecosystem largely depends on the amount of solar radiation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The primary productivity of a natural ecosystem largely depends on the amount of solar radiation'

Key Points

  • Primary Productivity in Ecosystems:
  • Primary productivity refers to the rate at which plants and other photosynthetic organisms produce organic compounds from carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, using the energy from sunlight.
  • It is heavily influenced by the amount of solar radiation available, as sunlight is the key energy source for photosynthesis, which drives the productivity of an ecosystem.
  • In ecosystems, areas that receive more sunlight, such as tropical forests, tend to have higher primary productivity compared to areas with less sunlight, like deserts or polar regions.

Additional Information

  • Ecological Productivity in the Arctic:
  • Arctic snow-covered areas are characterized by low primary productivity due to limited sunlight, especially in winter months, which limits the ability of plants and photosynthetic organisms to produce energy.
  • While the productivity is not high, it is not exactly "intermediate"; it is relatively low due to short growing seasons and extreme environmental conditions.
  • Temperature as a Limiting Factor in Deserts:
  • Temperature is indeed a significant factor in desert ecosystems, but it is not the sole limiting factor. Water availability plays a much more critical role in limiting productivity in desert areas.
  • Deserts typically have high temperatures but lack sufficient moisture, which severely limits the growth of plant life and primary productivity.
  • Herbivores as Secondary Consumers:
  • Herbivores are considered primary consumers in the food chain, as they consume plants (producers). Secondary consumers, on the other hand, are carnivores that feed on primary consumers.
  • Hence, the statement about herbivores being secondary consumers is incorrect.

Question 18

Lumbering falls in the category of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Tertiary activities

  2. BOption (b)

    Secondary activities

  3. COption (c)

    Primary activities

  4. DOption (d)

    Quarternary activities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Primary activities

Why this answer is correct

Lumbering falls in the category of Primary activities.

Key Points

Economic activity:

  • Economic activity is the activity of making, providing, purchasing or selling goods or services. Any action that involves producing, distributing, or consuming products or services is an economic activity.
  • Types of economic activity
  • Production
  • Distribution
  • Consumption
  • There are five sectors of economic activity

 

Sectors of economic activity:

SectorJobExample
Primary activity- Primary activities are directly dependent on the environment as these refer to the utilization of the earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials, and minerals. - People engaged in primary activities are called red-collar workers due to the outdoor nature of their work.Hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and mining and quarrying, lumbering
Secondary activity- Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. - People engaged in secondary activities are called blue-collar workersmanufacturing, processing, and construction (infrastructure) industries.
Tertiary activity- Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. - The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are consumed. - The exchange involves trade, transport, and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance. - Tertiary jobs = White-collar jobs.trade, transport, and communication, services, etc.
Quarternary activity- Quaternary activities are specialized tertiary activities in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ which demand a separate classification. - There has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers, and statisticians. - Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced. - They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localized by the market.Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting, and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services.
Quinary activity- Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation, and the use and evaluation of new technologies. - Often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector. - Their importance in the structure of advanced economies far outweighs their numbers. - The highest level of decision-makers or policymakers performs quinary activities. - Quinary = Gold collar professions.representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc.

Question 19

As a reaction to regional development policies of the government in India, several social movements emerged in different parts of the country. The 'Chipko movement', one of such movements, originated in areas covered under

  1. AOption (a)

    Desert development programme

  2. BOption (b)

    Coastal area development programme

  3. COption (c)

    Tribal area development programme

  4. DOption (d)

    Hill area development programme

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hill area development programme

Why this answer is correct

The 'Chipko movement', one of such movements, originated in areas covered under the Hill area development program.

Key Points

Chipko movement:

  • The movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand in 1973 when the forest department refused permission to the villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools.
  • It was Sunderlal Bahuguna, a Gandhian activist, who gave the movement a proper direction
  • However, the forest department allotted the same patch of land to a sports manufacturer for commercial use.
  • This enraged the villagers and they protested against the move of the government.
  • The struggle soon spread across many parts of the Uttarakhand region.
  • Larger issues of ecological and economic exploitation of the region were raised.
  • The villagers demanded that no forest-exploiting contracts should be given to outsiders and local communities should have effective control over natural resources like land, water, and forests.
  • They wanted the government to provide low-cost materials to small industries and ensure the development of the region without disturbing the ecological balance.
  • The movement took up economic issues of landless forest workers and asked for guarantees of a minimum wage. Women’s active participation in the Chipko agitation was a very novel aspect of the movement.
  • The forest contractors of the region usually doubled up as suppliers of alcohol to men. Women held sustained agitations against the habit of alcoholism and broadened the agenda of the movement to cover other social issues.
  • The movement achieved a victory when the government issued a ban on the felling of trees in the Himalayan regions for fifteen years until the green cover was fully restored.
  • But more than that, the Chipko movement, which started over a single issue, became a symbol of many such popular movements emerging in different parts of the country during the 1970s and later.
  • Chipko movement also expressed the resentment of hill villagers against a distant government headquartered in the plains that seemed indifferent and hostile to their concerns.

Question 20

Who is the founder of the Humanistic School in Geography?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wolpert

  2. BOption (b)

    Taun

  3. COption (c)

    Kirk

  4. DOption (d)

    Harvey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Taun

Why this answer is correct

Taun is the founder of the Humanistic School in Geography.

Key Points

Humanistic School in Geography:

  • Chinese-American geographer Yi-Fu Tuan is the founder of the Humanistic School in Geography in 1976.
  • Human geography is distinguished by; - Human awareness - Human agency - Human consciousness - Human creativity
  • An approach in human geography distinguished by the central and active role it gives to human awareness and human agency, human consciousness and creativity; at once an attempt at ‘understanding meaning’, value and human significance of life events’
  • The humanistic approach is a way of thinking in human geography; an approach that seeks to put humans at the center of geography,
  • Also in modern forms of education, the humanistic approach got through: humanistic education was more about the development of values, norms, 'own thoughts', qualities, and capacities. Education didn't concern religious concepts like 'good' or 'bad' anymore. In the humanistic approach of education, the development of individuals (and so humanity) got priority.
  • ​Well-known Humanist Geographers:
  • Anne Buttimer
  • Edward Relph
  • Yi-Fu Tuan
  • In 1976, it was Yi-Fu Tuan who argued for humanistic geography as concerned with people and their conditions.
  • He opined that humanistic geography sought to achieve an understanding of the world through an insight into the human-nature relationship and the geographical behavior of humankind as well as their perception of space and place.
  • Geographical activities and phenomena were treated as the manifestation of human awareness and knowledge.

Question 21

Who is the founder of Possibilism?

  1. AOption (a)

    G. Carter

  2. BOption (b)

    L. Febvre

  3. COption (c)

    W. Bunge

  4. DOption (d)

    E. C. Semple

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

L. Febvre

Why this answer is correct

L. Febvre is the founder of Possibilism.

Possibilism:

  • Febvre (1932) in ‘A Geographical Introduction to History’ stated ‘there are no necessities, but everywhere possibilities; and man, as the master of these possibilities, is the judge of their use’.
  • The doctrine of possibilism tries to explain the relationship of a human being with the environment in a different way; it puts humans at a higher level and regards it as an active agent.
  • It is a principle that claims that the environment provides opportunities and man being an economic man chooses from those possibilities.
  • Possibilism was further flourished by acclaimed historian Lucien Febvre (1878-1956).
  • He puts forward - “Whatever the men do in their own environment, they cannot completely get rid of themselves completely."
  • Febvre emphasized human initiative and motivation against the environment, destroying the environmental deterministic reasoning and as part of the environment of any group, as well as other humans, because they belong to the next group's cultural surroundings, or the constraints of the environment are influenced by such thinking.
  • He stated that in the view of possibilists, a homogeneous region does not necessarily result in a homogeneous society.
  • This is because people residing in any area have the choice of possibilities from time to time and also in the quantity they want.

Question 22

Who calculated the circumference of the Earth as 25,000 miles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thales of Miletus

  2. BOption (b)

    Poseidonius

  3. COption (c)

    Hipparchus

  4. DOption (d)

    Eratosthenes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Eratosthenes

Why this answer is correct

Eratosthenes calculated the circumference of the Earth as 25,000 miles.

Eratosthenes (276-196 BC):

  • He regarded as the Father of geography
  • First used the word geography
  • Astronomer, poet, and librarian at Alexandria
  • First scientific geographer
  • Develop a coordinate system for the world
  • The founder of ‘Geodesy”
  • Set the boundary of five climatic zone
  • In his book, he describes the concept of ‘ekumene’- the inhabited earth
  • He determined the earth's circumference to be 40,250 to 45,900 kilometres (25,000 to 28,500 miles) by comparing the Sun's relative position at two different locations on the earth's surface.

Question 23

Two points A and B are located at the elevation of 250 m and 500 m from mean sea level with a horizontal equivalent of 1000 m between them. Which one of the following values of slope gradient (in tan - value scale) is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.20

  2. BOption (b)

    0.25

  3. COption (c)

    0.30

  4. DOption (d)

    0.40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.25

Why this answer is correct

  • To find the Gradient of a feature, the horizontal distance, as well as the vertical distance between two points on a line parallel to the feature, needs to be determined. The slope is obtained by dividing the vertical distance over the horizontal distance.
  • The vertical distance is the elevation difference between point A and point B. So, the vertical distance is 250 m.
  • Gradient = vertical distance / horizontal distance = 250/1000 = 0.25

Therefore, option 'B' is correct.

Question 24

Which one of the following states recorded the highest percentage of urban population within them as per 2011 Census?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Haryana

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Haryana

Why this answer is correct

Haryana recorded the highest percentage of the urban population within them as per the 2011 Census.

  • Uttar Pradesh has the largest rural population of 155.11 million (18.62% of the country's rural population) whereas Maharashtra has the highest urban population of 50.83 million (13.48% of the country's urban population) in the country.
  • Among major states, Tamil Nadu continues to be the most urbanized state with 48.4 percent of the population living in urban areas followed now by Kerala (47.7 percent) upstaging Maharashtra (45.2 percent).
  • In the case of the percentage of the urban population in terms of the total population, Haryana shows the highest one.
  • | State | Urban population (%) | | --- | --- | | Haryana | 34..79 | | Madhya Pradesh | 27.63 | | Uttar Pradesh | 22.28 | | Bihar | 11.30 |

Question 25

In which part of India Dandakaranya region is situated?

  1. AOption (a)

    North-Eastern

  2. BOption (b)

    South-Eastern

  3. COption (c)

    Central

  4. DOption (d)

    Northern

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

South-Eastern

Why this answer is correct

In the South-Eastern part of India Dandakaranya region is situated.

Key Points

Dandakaranya region:

  • Dandakaranya, a physiographic region in South-Eastern India.

  • Extending over an area of about 35,600 square miles (92,300 square km), it includes the Abujhmar Hills in the west and borders the Eastern Ghats in the east.

  • The Dandakaranya includes parts of Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh states.

  • Dandakaranya is a historical region in India, mentioned in the Ramayana.

  • It is identified with a territory roughly equivalent to the Bastar division in the Chhattisgarh

  • Dandaka-aranya, means the Dandak Forest, the abode of the demon Dandak.

Question 26

Who gave the idea that there was an Ice Age during which most of Northern Europe was covered by Ice Sheets?

  1. AOption (a)

    W. M. Davis

  2. BOption (b)

    L. Agassiz

  3. COption (c)

    W. Penck

  4. DOption (d)

    A. C. Ramsay

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

L. Agassiz

Why this answer is correct

L. Agassiz gave the idea that there was an Ice Age during which most of Northern Europe was covered by Ice Sheets

  • The origins of ice age theory began hundreds of years ago when Europeans noted that glaciers in the Alps had shrunk, but its popularization is credited to 19th-century Swiss geologist Louis Agassiz.
  • The idea of Continental Glaciation came from Louis Agassiz in 1840.
  • Agassiz's hypothesis says that much of the continent of North America was covered by glacial ice that was 2 miles thick and which extended over much of the midwest.
  • Agassiz was Swiss, and so he knew glaciers well.
  • Agassiz's theory of mass extinction was based on his "discovery" of the "Great Ice Age"
  • Contradicting the belief that a wide-ranging flood killed off such megafauna as the wooly mammoth, Agassiz pointed to rock striations and sediment piles as evidence of glacier activity from a destructive global winter.
  • Geologists soon found evidence of plant life between glacial sediment, and by the close of the century the theory of multiple global winters had been established

Question 27

The rigid masses surrounding the geosynclines were termed by Kober as -

  1. AOption (a)

    Kratogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Primarumph

  3. COption (c)

    Endrumph

  4. DOption (d)

    Monadnock

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kratogen

Why this answer is correct

The rigid masses surrounding the geosynclines were termed by Kober as​ Kratogen.

Key Points

Geosynclines:

  • Geosynclines are the area of long, wide, and shallow depression of the water body bordered by rigid masses and get huge sedimentation deposition from surrounding areas.
  • Our earth crust can be divided into two parts based on the strength:
  • Rigid Masses
  • Mobile zone of water
  • The mobile zone of water is called geosynclines where most of the mountains are built.

Geosyncline Theory by Kober:

  • Kober explained the concept of geosynclines and mountain building based on the force of Contraction which is produced by the cooling of the earth.
  • As per Kober, there are two zones:
  • Orogen or mobile zone: the place of mountain building
  • Kartogen or rigid zone: Orogen is surrounded by Kartogen.

    

                                                                                                                                                       

  • As per Kober, there are three stages involved in mountain building:
  • Litho-genesis: In this stage, geosynclines are created due to the cooling and contraction of the earth, and deposition started.
  • Orogenesis: In this stage, the mountain-building process started.
  • Gliptogenesis: In this stage, it involved the gradual increase of the mountain ranges. Later, weathering, erosion, and deposition started over the mountains to make further landforms.
  • Geosynclines concept helps to understand the mountain building process especially fold mountain and evolution of landform.

Question 28

In 1687, who was the scientist to give for the first time a rational explanation of tides and tide producing forces of the moon and the sun?

  1. AOption (a)

    John Dalton

  2. BOption (b)

    Gregor Mendel

  3. COption (c)

    Isaac Newton

  4. DOption (d)

    Albert Einstein

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Isaac Newton

Why this answer is correct

Philosophie Naturalis Principia Mathematica (Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy) by Isaac Newton is a work in three books written in Latin, first published 5 July 1687. The Principia deals primarily with massive bodies in motion, initially under a variety of conditions and hypothetical laws of force in both non-resisting and resisting media, thus offering criteria to decide, by observations, which laws of force are operating in phenomena that may be observed.

Explanation of tides in Principia:

  • In 1687, Sir Isaac Newton give a rational explanation of tides and tide producing forces of the moon and the sun.
  • In his Principia, which appeared in 1687, Newton proved that the tides were a necessary consequence of the law of gravitation.
  • It shows how astronomical observations prove the inverse square law of gravitation (to an accuracy that was high by the standards of Newton's time).
  • Here the estimates of relative masses for the known giant planets and for the Earth and the Sun also available.
  • He defines the very slow motion of the Sun relative to the solar-system barycenter
  • It also shows how the theory of gravity can account for irregularities in the motion of the Moon
  • He also identifies the oblateness of the figure of the Earth
  • This book accounts approximately for marine tides including phenomena of spring and neap tides by the perturbing (and varying) gravitational attractions of the Sun and Moon on the Earth's waters.
  • The explanation of the precession of the equinoxes as an effect of the gravitational attraction of the Moon on the Earth's equatorial bulge and its theoretical basis for numerous phenomena about comets and their elongated, near-parabolic orbits also included there.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 29

Which one of the following is an essential macro nutrient for plant growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper

  3. COption (c)

    Potassium

  4. DOption (d)

    Nickel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Potassium

Why this answer is correct

Macronutrients or Primary nutrients are essential for plant growth and a good overall state of the plant. The primary macronutrients are Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K).

Important Points

Nitrogen:

  • Nitrogen is essential for plant development since it plays a fundamental role in energy metabolism and protein synthesis.
  • Nitrogen is absorbed by the plant in the form of nitrate.
  • It is indispensable for photosynthesis activity and chlorophyll formation.
  • Nitrogen is involved, above all, in the aerial zone, the part of the plant that a person sees.
  • It promotes cellular multiplication. A nitrogen deficiency results in a loss of vigor and color.
  • Growth becomes slow and leaves fall off, starting at the bottom of the plant.

Phosphorus:

  • Phosphorus is involved in root growth, which it stimulates. In the aerial zone, it favors flowering.
  • Although phosphorus is also necessary during the plant’s growth period, it is much more involved in the flowering stage.
  • Phosphorus is involved in transporting and storing energy.
  • It improves the plant’s general state and increases the plant’s ability to withstand adverse climatological conditions.
  • Phosphorus is essential in the organic compound formation and the correct execution of photosynthesis.
  • A shortage of phosphorous results in late, deficient flowering, browning and wrinkling of the leaves, and a lack of vigor in general.

Potassium:

  • Potassium is involved in the regulation of water and the transport of the plant’s reserve substances.
  • It increases photosynthesis capacity, strengthens cell tissue, and activates the absorption of nitrates.
  • Potassium stimulates flowering and the synthesis of carbohydrates and enzymes.
  • This, in turn, provides an increase in the plant’s ability to withstand unfavorable environments such as low temperatures and prevents withering.
  • Therefore, a lack of potassium reduces plant resilience to dry spells and frosts or to a fungus attack.
  • This, in turn, results in a lack of balance among other nutrients, such as calcium, magnesium, and nitrogen.
  • When there is a potassium insufficiency, dark spots appear on the leaves.

Additional Information

Secondary macronutrients:

  • Secondary macronutrients are also essential, even though they are consumed in smaller quantities than N, P, K, that is, primary macronutrients.
  • The secondary macronutrients are Calcium (Ca) Magnesium (Mg) and Sulfur (S).

Question 30

What would be the pattern of distribution of rural settlements in an area if their nearest neighbour statistic works out as 2.10?

  1. AOption (a)

    Random

  2. BOption (b)

    Clustered

  3. COption (c)

    Agglomerated

  4. DOption (d)

    Uniform

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uniform

Why this answer is correct

Nearest neighbour statistic: 

  • Nearest Neighbor Analysis measures the spread or distribution of something over geographical space.

  • It provides a numerical value that describes the extent to which a set of points are clustered or uniformly spaced.

  • This command uses the Clark and Evans (1954) aggregation index R as the basis for a crude test of clustering or order of a point pattern.

  • The Rn value determines the randomness of the given settlements.

  • For this two things are requires, Area (a) and the length between settlements.

  • The formula is, 

  • Where, a = total area , n  = number of settlement, D = mean distance

Important Points

Analysis of the question:

Therefore, Uniform would be the pattern of distribution of rural settlements in an area if their nearest neighbour statistic works out as 2.10

Question 31

The North-South division of the world is based on the criterion of

  1. AOption (a)

    Culture

  2. BOption (b)

    Latitude

  3. COption (c)

    Economic development

  4. DOption (d)

    Political ideology

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Economic development

Why this answer is correct

The North-South division of the world is based on the criterion of economic development.

  • Regionalism Across the North-South Divide: State Strategies and Globalization, Jean Grugel states that the three factors that direct the economic development of states within the Global South is "élite behaviour within and between nation-states, integration and cooperation within 'geographic' areas, and the resulting position of states and regions within the global world market and related political-economic hierarchy."
  • Being categorized as part of the "North" implies development as opposed to belonging to the "South", which implies a lack thereof.
  • According to N. Oluwafemi Mimiko, the South lacks the right technology, it is politically unstable, its economies are divided, and its foreign exchange earnings depend on primary product exports to the North, along with the fluctuation of prices.
  • Economic Development is a measure of progress in a specific economy.
  • It refers to advancements in technology, a transition from an economy based largely on agriculture to one based on industry and an improvement in living standards.
  • In economic terms, as of the early 21st century, the North—with one-quarter of the world population—controls four-fifths of the income earned anywhere in the world.
  • 90% of the manufacturing industries are owned by and located in the North.
  • Inversely, the South—with three-quarters of the world population—has access to one-fifth of the world's income.
  • As nations become economically developed, they may become part of definitions of the "North", regardless of geographical location; similarly, any nations that do not qualify for "developed" status are in effect deemed to be part of the "South".

Question 32

Who used the term 'Chorography' to describe Geography?

  1. AOption (a)

    B. Varenius

  2. BOption (b)

    A. Von Humboldt

  3. COption (c)

    E. Kant

  4. DOption (d)

    C. Ritter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

E. Kant

Why this answer is correct

E. Kant used the term 'Chorography' to describe Geography.

Key Points

Immanuel Kant:

  • Born in 1724 at Konigsberg in East Prussia (Russia) and passed away in 1804.
  • Kant was more of an ‘armchair geographer’
  • His contribution in the fields of astronomy, geology, and geography.
  • He was regarded as the ‘father of exceptionalism’

Additional Information

Contribution:

  • Kant lectured with great proficiency not only in the fields of philosophy, mathematics, physics, and mechanical sciences like mechanics, hydrostatics, and hydrokinetics but also in military sciences like fortification and pyro-techniques.
  • From 1756 to 1796, Kant offered a regular course of lectures on physical geography.
  • The physical geography which Kant developed was essentially ‘anthropocentric’ in nature and content.
  • Empirical knowledge è (i) through pure reason, or (ii) through the senses.
  • Anthropology: dealt with soul or man, physical geography: dealt with Nature.
  • Classification of knowledge:
  • Logical classification: on the basis of morphological similarities and gave rise to systematic sciences
  • Physical classification: the base is time or space. History, related to time (chronological) and Geography related to space (chronological).
  • | History | Geography | | --- | --- | | - History was narrative, - History, related to time (chronological) - History studied phenomena that followed one another (nachienander) | - Geography was descriptive - Geography related to space (chronological). - geography studied phenomena spread beside each other (nebeneinander) |

Question 33

The given drainage pattern represents, which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Parallel

  2. BOption (b)

    Dendritic

  3. COption (c)

    Centripetal

  4. DOption (d)

    Angular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dendritic

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Drainage Pattern:

  • Drainage pattern a pattern created by stream erosion over time that reveals characteristics of the kind of rocks and geologic structures in a landscape region drained by streams.
  • The drainage pattern is the pattern formed by the streams, rivers, and lakes in a particular drainage basin.
  • They are governed by the topography of the land, whether a particular region is dominated by hard or soft rocks and the gradient of the land.

Important Points

Different types of drainage pattern:

  1. Dendritic patterns: which are by far the most common, develop in areas where the rock (or unconsolidated material) beneath the stream has no particular fabric or structure and can be eroded equally easily in all directions. Examples would be granite, gneiss, volcanic rock, and sedimentary rock that has not been folded. Most areas of British Columbia have dendritic patterns, as do most areas of the prairies and the Canadian Shield.
  2. Trellis drainage: patterns typically develop where sedimentary rocks have been folded or tilted and then eroded to varying degrees depending on their strength. The Rocky Mountains of B.C. and Alberta are a good example of this, and many of the drainage systems within the Rockies have trellis patterns.
  3. Rectangular patterns: develop in areas that have very little topography and a system of bedding planes, fractures, or faults that form a rectangular network. Rectangular drainage patterns are rare in Canada.
  4. Parallel drainage: the system is a pattern of rivers caused by steep slopes with some relief. Because of the steep slopes, the streams are swift and straight, with very few tributaries, and all flow in the same direction. Parallel drainage patterns form where there is a pronounced slope to the surface. A parallel pattern also develops in regions of parallel, elongate landforms like outcropping resistant rock bands.
  5. Radial drainage:  system, the streams radiate outwards from a central high point. Volcanoes usually display excellent radial drainage. Other geological features on which radial drainage commonly develops are domes and laccoliths. On these features, the drainage may exhibit a combination of radial patterns.
  6. The centripetal drainage: system is similar to the radial drainage system, with the only exception that radial drainage flows out versus centripetal drainage flows in
  7. Deranged drainage: the system is a drainage system in drainage basins where there is no coherent pattern to the rivers and lakes. It happens in areas where there has been much geological disruption. The classic example is the Canadian Shield. During the last ice age, the topsoil was scraped off, leaving mostly bare rock.
  8. Angular drainage: patterns form where bedrock joints and faults intersect at more acute angles than rectangular drainage patterns. Angles are both more and less than 90 degrees

Question 34

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Latur - Riverine flooding

  2. BOption (b)

    Nashri - Landslide

  3. COption (c)

    Kandla - Cyclone

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhuj - Earthquake

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Latur - Riverine flooding

Why this answer is correct

'Latur - Riverine flooding' is an incorrect matching.

Key Points

TopicImportant points
Latur- Latur in Maharashtra was affected by an earthquake of 6.4 magnitudes in 1993. - This is one of the worst earthquakes of the 20th century in India in which 10,000 people lost their lives.
Nashri- The 270-km Jammu-Srinagar National Highway was closed for traffic after heavy rain triggered a landslide in the Ramban district, on 12 March. - The landslide was triggered by a downpour in the Jawahar tunnel-Nashri section
Kandla- The 1998 Gujarat cyclone (Joint Typhoon Warning Center designation: 03A; India Meteorological Department designation: ARB 02) was a deadly tropical cyclone that killed at least 10,000 people in India. - In Kandla, the damages were estimated at around ₹1,855.33 crores (equivalent to ₹67 billion or US$940 million in 2019).
Bhuj- 26, 2001, in the Indian state of Gujarat, on the Pakistani border. - The earthquake struck near the town of Bhuj on the morning of India's annual Republic Day (celebrating the creation of the Republic of India in 1950), and it was felt throughout much of northwestern India and parts of Pakistan. - The moment magnitude of the quake was 7.7 (6.9 on the Richter scale).

Question 35

The digital image process, which involves algorithms that examine the unknown pixels in the image and aggregate them into a number of classes based on the natural groupings or cluster present in the image is known as -

  1. AOption (a)

    Spectral enhancement technique

  2. BOption (b)

    Supervised classification technique

  3. COption (c)

    Unsupervised classification technique

  4. DOption (d)

    Image transformation technique

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Unsupervised classification technique

Why this answer is correct

  • A digital remotely sensed image is typically composed of picture elements (pixels) located at the intersection of each row and column in each band of imagery.
  • Associated with each pixel is a number is known as Digital Number (DN) or Brightness Value (BV), which depicts the average radiance of a relatively small area within a scene. A smaller number indicates low average radiance from the area and the high number is an indicator of high radiant properties of the area

Image classification:

The overall objective of image classification is to automatically categorize all pixels in an image into land cover classes or themes. It can be classified into two, 

  1. Unsupervised classification
  2. Supervised classification

Unsupervised classification:

  • Unsupervised classifiers do not utilize training data as the basis for classification.
  • Rather, this family of classifiers involves algorithms that examine the unknown pixels in an image and aggregate them into a number of classes based on the natural groupings or clusters present in the image values.
  • It performs very well in cases where the values within a given cover type are close together in the measurement space, data in different classes are comparatively well separated

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Supervised classification:

  • Supervised classification can be defined normally as the process of samples of known identity to classify pixels of unknown identity.
  • Samples of known identity are those pixels located within training areas.
  • Pixels located within these areas term the training samples used to guide the classification algorithm to assigning specific spectral values to appropriate informational class

Question 36

Which one of the following principles of central place system operates in a region if K = 7, is applicable for spatial organization of settlements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Market principle

  2. BOption (b)

    Transport principle

  3. COption (c)

    Administrative principle

  4. DOption (d)

    Economic principle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Administrative principle

Why this answer is correct

Central Place Theory:

  • The theory was postulated by Walther Christaller
  • It was published in his book “Central Place in Southern Germany” (Die zentralen Orte in Suddeutschland) in 1933 and translated in English in 1966.
  • It is a normative theory
  • Based on the data obtained from Bavaria in South Germany
  • No of settlements are represented by ‘K’
  • There are two basic concepts:
  • Threshold: it is the minimum population requires for the establishment of a service
  • Range: the maximum distance one can travel for a single amenity/good/service

Principles of Central Place Theory:

PrincipleDescription
The market principle- Here K=3 ( K=1+(6/3)=3) - The market area of higher-order place includes a third of the market area of each of the following size neighbouring lower-order places - Each marketing place is located at the corner of a hexagon around the higher-order settlement - Each high-order settlement gets 1/3 of each lower-order settlement
The transport principle- The market area of higher-order includes half of the market area of the lower order places - They located on the edge of the hexagon - It results in the most efficient transport network - There are maximum central places possible located on the main transport routes connecting the higher-order centers - Here K=4 , K= 1+(6/2)=4
The administrative principle- Settlements are nested according to sevens - The market areas of the smaller settlements are completely enclosed within the area of the larger settlement - Tributary areas must be allocated exclusively to a single higher-order place - Efficiency administration is the control principle in this hierarchy - Here K=7, K= 1+6

Question 37

Who advocated the policy of deliberate unbalanced development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gunnar Myrdal

  2. BOption (b)

    A. O. Hirschman

  3. COption (c)

    A. G. Frank

  4. DOption (d)

    R. Nurske

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A. O. Hirschman

Why this answer is correct

A. O. Hirschman advocated the policy of deliberate unbalanced development.

Key Points

The theory by A. O. Hirschman:

  • Albert Hirschman, an American Economic Professor, explained the economic growth process in terms strikingly similar to those of Myrdal.
  • Hirschman felt that “ Interregional inequality of growth is an inevitable concomitant and condition of growth itself”.
  • Hirschman explained his concept with the help of two terms i.e.,” Trickling–down effect” and Polarization effect”.
  • Trickling down effect (analogous to Myrdal’s Spread effect) Polarization effect (analogous to backwash effect).
  • (Some economists criticized Hirschman’s theory of “economic transmission” – for having created terminological confusion for the terms already accepted in the scientific language)

Unbalanced development:

  • According to Hirschman, “Development is a chain of disequilibria that must be kept alive rather than eliminate the disequilibrium of which profits and losses are symptoms in a competitive economy.

  • According to H.W.Singer  “Unbalanced growth is a better development strategy to concentrate available resources on types of investment, which help to make the economic system more elastic, more capable of expansion under the stimulus of the expanded market and expanding demand”.

  • It explains the unbalanced growth in terms of the growth rates of investment, income, and consumption.

  • If ∆I/I, ∆Y/Y, and ∆C/C denote the rate of investment, income, and consumption, then unbalanced growth implies 

  • ∆I/I > ∆Y/Y > ∆C/C  i.e., the growth rates are not uniform.

  • The path of unbalanced growth is described by three phases:

  • Complementary

  • Induced investment

  • External economies

  • The strategy of unbalanced growth is most suitable in breaking the vicious circle of poverty in underdeveloped countries.

  • The poor countries are in a state of equilibrium at a low level of income.

  • Production, consumption, saving, and investment are so adjusted to each other at an extremely low level that the state of equilibrium itself becomes an obstacle to growth.

  • The only strategy of economic development in such a country is to break this low-level equilibrium by deliberately planned unbalanced growth.

  • Prof. Hirschman is of the opinion that shortages created by unbalanced growth offer considerable incentives for inventions and innovations.

  • Imbalances give incentive for intense economic activity and push economic progress.

Question 38

In the regression model ( y = a + bx) where x̅ = 2.50, y̅ = 5.50 and a = 1.50 (x̅ and y̅ denote mean of variables x and y and a is a constant), which one of the following values of parameter 'b' of the model is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.75

  2. BOption (b)

    1.60

  3. COption (c)

    2.00

  4. DOption (d)

    2.50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.60

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Linear regression model:

  • Linear regression is a way to model the relationship between two variables.
  • You might also recognize the equation as the slope formula.
  • The equation has the form Y= a + bX,
  • where
  • Y is the dependent variable (that’s the variable that goes on the Y-axis),
  • X is the independent variable (i.e. it is plotted on the X-axis),
  • b is the slope of the line and
  • a is the y-intercept.

Calculation:

( y = a + bx)

where,

  • x̅ = 2.50
  • y̅ = 5.50
  • a = 1.50
  • (x̅ and y̅ denote mean of variables x and y and a is a constant)

Putting values in the formula:

5.50 = 1.50 + b*2.50

b*2.50 = 4

b = 4/2.5 = 1.60

Therefore, 'B' is the correct answer.

Question 39

Boundaries between India and Pakistan & India and Bangladesh belong to which one of the following types?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antecedent Boundaries

  2. BOption (b)

    Subsequent Boundaries

  3. COption (c)

    Super imposed Boundaries

  4. DOption (d)

    Relict Boundaries

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Subsequent Boundaries

Why this answer is correct

Boundaries between India and Pakistan and India and Bangladesh belong to Subsequent Boundaries.

Key Points

Concept of Boundary:

  • This a linear concept
  • A boundary is a demarcation between two sovereign state/nation
  • These are the fully political demarcation
  • They may be physical or man-made
  • They are separating factors
  • They are inner-oriented
  • The manifestation of centripetal forces

Genetic or functional boundary are those which had shared relationship with the surrounding cultural landscape at the time of its origin. There are four types of genetic boundaries

BoundaryDescriptionExample
Antecedent Boundaries- Existing before the area was settled. - Follow the evolution of the natural landscape - People know in advance when they moved into a region which side of the border they were living.The boundary of Malaysia and Indonesia on the island of Borneo
Subsequent Boundaries- Establish after an area has been settled. - Follow the evolution of the cultural landscape - The bases are -  religion, ethnicity, language, etc.Boundaries between India and Pakistan Boundaries between India and Bangladesh
Superimposed Boundaries- The boundary that ignores the existing cultural aspect - Sometimes non-conform to socio-cultural differencesThe boundary of North and south Vietnam The boundary of North and south Korea
Relict Boundaries- It no longer exists but it still has an impact on the landscape - Lost political function but still discernable of the cultural landscapeBerlin wall between East and West Germany The great wall of China

Question 40

The 'Organic Theory of State' was propounded by

  1. AOption (a)

    Bowman

  2. BOption (b)

    Haushoffer

  3. COption (c)

    Mackinder

  4. DOption (d)

    Ratzel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ratzel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ratzel.

  • The 'Organic Theory of State' was propounded by Fridrich Ratzel.

Key Points

  • **The 'Organic Theory of State:**​
  • The organic theory, along with the Heartland and Rimland theories, falls under political geography, otherwise known as geopolitics.
  • Geopolitics refers to how politics plays a role in geography and influences different geographic attributes such as political borders.
  • The term geopolitics once had a negative connotation, due to the organic theory, and in this paper, we shall discuss the reason for this.
  • It was theorized in 1897 by Friedrich Ratzel, a nineteenth-century German geographer and ethnographer.
  • The name “organic theory” comes from Ratzel’s assertion that political entities, such as countries, behave in a way not too dissimilar from that of living organisms.
  • Friedrich Ratzel (1844–1904), influenced by thinkers such as Darwin and zoologist Ernst Heinrich Haeckel, contributed to 'Geopolitik' by the expansion on the biological conception of geography, without a static conception of borders.
  • More specifically, to survive, a political entity requires nourishment to gain political power.
  • This nourishment came in the form of a term he coined called Lebensraum, which translates from German to “living space.” He was referring to the physical territory.
  • Therefore, we can say that organic theory states that political entities continually seek nourishment in the form of gaining territories to survive in the same way that a living organism seeks nourishment from food to survive.
  • Essentially, the analogy is that food for an organism is territory for a country and the more territory that it conquers the more that the particular political entity can sustain and preserve itself.
  • As a result, the organic theory implies that for a political entity to maintain control, it invariably needs to seek out Lebensraum and go out and conquer all the territory that it possibly can, and complacency is not an option.
  • Otherwise, it risks its security and is always vulnerable to attacks because other political entities also behave in this organic way and will try to conquer as much territory as they can as well for the purpose of self-preservation.
  • You can compare it to the competition among living organisms for the scarce resource of food, which is their form of nourishment.

Question 41

During the winter season, the North-Western part of India gets rainfall from

  1. AOption (a)

    Thunderstorms

  2. BOption (b)

    Retreating monsoons

  3. COption (c)

    Western disturbances

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropical cyclones

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Western disturbances

Why this answer is correct

During the winter season, the North-Western part of India gets rainfall from Western disturbances.

  • The north-western plains of India experience winter rainfall due to the invasion of the western disturbances rising from the Mediterranean sea, steered by the westerly jetstream.
  • As the western disturbances are associated with the cyclonic winds, they bring rainfall.
  • Western disturbances, specifically the ones in winter, bring moderate to heavy rain in low-lying areas and heavy snow to mountainous areas of the Indian Subcontinent.
  • They are the cause of most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across northwest India.
  • Western Disturbances are nothing but low-pressure systems on the upper atmosphere which form over the Mediterranean region and travel east across the globe.
  • When these low-pressure systems come into the Indian subcontinent they get blocked by the Himalayas and precipitate rain in Northwestern plains and as snow in higher altitudes of the Western Himalayas.
  • After precipitating over Northwest India they weaken and devoid of moisture they blow as dry winds creating dense fog over the Northern plains of India.

Question 42

The statement "The present is the key to the past" was made by -

  1. AOption (a)

    W. M. Davis

  2. BOption (b)

    Walther Penck

  3. COption (c)

    James Hutton

  4. DOption (d)

    F. Von Richthofen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

James Hutton

Why this answer is correct

The statement "The present is the key to the past" was made by James Hutton,

  • The statement "The present is the key to the past" was made by James Hutton, which is known as Uniformitarianism.
  • Charles Lyell's Principles of Geology was published between 1830-1833, and introduced the famous maxim, 'the present is the key to the past'.
  • Uniformitarianism is the doctrine that existing processes acting in the same manner and with essentially the same intensity as at present are sufficient to account for all geologic change.
  • Uniformitarianism posits that natural agents now at work on and within the Earth have operated with general uniformity through immensely long periods of time.
  • The idea that the laws that govern geologic processes have not changed during the history of the Earth were articulated by the 18th-century Scottish geologist James Hutton, who in 1785 presented his ideas--later published in two volumes as Theory of the Earth (1795)--at meetings of the Royal Society of Edinburgh.
  • In the publication Principles of Geology, 3 vol. (1830-33), the Scottish geologist Sir Charles Lyell deciphered the history of the Earth employing Huttonian principles and made available a host of new geologic evidence in support of the view that physical laws were permanent and that any form of supernaturalism can be rejected.
  • This concept became known as uniformitarianism and can be summarized by the phrase "the present is the key to the past."
  • It was a direct rejection of the prevalent theory of the time, catastrophism, which held that only violent disasters could modify the surface of the earth.
  • However, the famous line that became associated with uniformitarianism—"we find no vestige of a beginning, no prospect of an end"—does come from Hutton's 1785 paper on the entirely new theory of geomorphology (the study of landforms and their development).

Question 43

The Hydraulic Slope Theory was given by -

  1. AOption (a)

    C. Darwin

  2. BOption (b)

    A. Goudie

  3. COption (c)

    R. E. Horton

  4. DOption (d)

    C. A. Cotton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

R. E. Horton

Why this answer is correct

The Hydraulic Slope Theory was given by R. E. Horton.

  • The Hydraulic Slope Theory was first introduced by Robert E. Horton in 1945.
  • He was the first to formalize the importance of topography to hillslope hydrology by proposing that a critical hillslope length was required to generate a channel.
  • Horton worked on rainfall and runoff throughout his life.
  • Horton’s work on the impact of hydrophysical processes on drainage flow, flood discharge, and other factors culminated in 1945 in a paper that provided new data and theoretical insights, but summarized, with some modifications, many of his earlier ideas.
  • Horton quantitatively suggested four new laws or principles: the law of steam lengths, the law of stream numbers, limits on infiltration capacity,
  • Horton realized that the physical characteristics of the terrain have a substantial effect in determining runoff patterns.
  • In order to accomplish this, he identified the physical factors affecting runoff and flood discharge.
  • He believed that these factors were drainage, density, channel slope, overland flow length, among others.
  • In addition, Horton began to study a mechanism of "hydrophysical" geomorphology, which he believed better explained his observations.

Question 44

Who coined the term 'Geopalitik'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haushoffer

  2. BOption (b)

    Kjellen

  3. COption (c)

    Hess

  4. DOption (d)

    Spykman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kjellen

Why this answer is correct

R. Kjellen coined the term 'Geopalitik' in 1899.

Key Points

Geopalitik:

  • Geopolitics refers to how politics plays a role in geography and influences different geographic attributes such as political borders.
  • Geopolitics: Geo + Politics
  • 'Geo' means earth, here it means the effect of geographical factors
  • The term 'Politics'  concerns the activities based on interest associated with the governance of a country or state or area
  • Geopolitics is the analysis of the geographic influences on power relationships in international relations
  • The word geopolitics was originally coined by the Swedish political scientist Rudolf Kjellen, 1899
  • Its use spread throughout Europe in the period between World Wars I and II (1918–39) and came into worldwide use during the latter.
  • Geopolitics is the geographical causation of International politics 
  • Political events triggered by the geography of the concerned region
  • Geopolitics of Indian Ocean
  • Geopolitics of climate change etc.
  • It is the study of the effect of Geography/ geographic factors (location, area, climate, natural resources, demographic factors, topography, etc. ) on politics and international relations.
  • Later, a number of German authors such as Karl Haushofer (1869–1946), Erich Obst, Hermann Lautensach, and Otto Maull. In 1923, Karl Haushofer founded the Zeitschrift für Geopolitik (Journal for Geopolitics), which was later used in the propaganda of Nazi Germany.

Question 45

Which one of the following states recorded the highest percentage share of India's total population as per the 2011 Census?

  1. AOption (a)

    West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Bihar

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

  • Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest percentage share of India's total population as per the 2011 Census.

  • The state-wise percentage share of India's total population, 2011:

  • Uttar Pradesh, Maharastra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh have all held on the top five slots in case of percentage share of the population.

  • The four states of Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and account for almost half (48.89 percent) of the total Indian population

  • 16.49% of people live in Uttar Pradesh, 9.29 in Maharastra, 8.58% in Bihar, and 7.55% in West Bengal as per census 2011.

Question 46

Who says 'geography is the science which deals with the art of map-making'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Eratosthenes

  2. BOption (b)

    Hipparcus

  3. COption (c)

    Hecateaus

  4. DOption (d)

    Ptolemy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ptolemy

Why this answer is correct

Key Points Contributions of Ptolemy:

  • Planetary hypothesis
  • Text on classical astronomy entitled ‘Almagest’ ( the mathematical treatise)
  • The Geography/ The Guide to Geography
  • The optics and The Tetrabiblos
  • Astrology
  • Explore the Terra-Incognita (the unknown land)
  • A detailed topographical description of places and their history called ‘chorography’
  • He said 'geography is the science which deals with the art of map-making.'

Hence, Ptolemy is the correct answer.

Additional Information

ScholarContribution
Hacataeus (475- 550 BC)- The famous book ‘Periodus ges’ (description of the earth), 520 B.C. - He divided the world into two parts – the northern part and the southern part
Eratosthenes (276-196 BC)- Father of geography - First used the word geography - Astronomer, poet, and librarian at Alexandria - First scientific geographer - Develop a coordinate system for the world - The founder of ‘Geodesy” - Set the boundary of five climatic zone - In his book, he describes the concept of ‘ekumene’- the inhabited earth
Hipparchus (190-120 BC)- Founder of trigonometry - Discovery of equinox - Invented an instrument called ‘Astrolabe’ to determine latitude and longitude - On the basis of latitudes divide the earth into climate ‘belts of latitude’ - Divide the circle into 360° - Devised the Orthographic and Stereographic projection

Question 47

Which one of the following measurements of 'form-factor' is correct, as basin area is denoted by 'A' and maximum basin length being 'L'?

  1. AOption (a)

    A / L

  2. BOption (b)

    A / L2

  3. COption (c)

    A / πL3

  4. DOption (d)

    A / πL2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A / L2

Why this answer is correct

  • The form factor is the ratio of basin area to the square of basin length.
  • If basin area is denoted by 'A' and maximum basin length being 'L', then form factor Rf = A / L2
  • It is a measurement of drainage and discharge.

Basin area:

  • It is most important for hydrologic design
  • It reflects the volume of water generated from rainfall.
  • The volume of water available for runoff may be assumed as a product of rainfall depth & drainage area.
  • Drainage area input to all models.

Basin Length:

  • Length increases as the drainage increases
  • Length is important in hydrologic computations
  • It defined as the distance measured along the main channel from the watershed outlet to the basin divide
  • It is  measured along the principal flow path

Question 48

Which one of the following is the leading cause of animal extinction since 1600 A.D. , according to the World Conservation Monitoring Centre (1995)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Habitat destruction

  2. BOption (b)

    Species introduction

  3. COption (c)

    Hunting

  4. DOption (d)

    Lumbering

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Species introduction

Why this answer is correct

According to the World Conservation Monitoring Centre, (1995) introduction of new species is the main cause of animal extinction since 1600 A.D. New species are introduced by people of predators, parasites, and pests, especially to islands, has been and continues to be the greatest cause of animal extinction

Species introduction:

  • When a new plant or animal finds its way into an ecosystem, it can have a knock-on effect throughout the whole environment.
  • These species may damage land and water resources, carry disease, prey on native species, and compete with native plants and animals for food and shelter
  • Often, they can out-compete native species because they lack local predators.
  • Case histories are used to illustrate difficulties of separating alien animal effects from other extinction agents, and of predicting outcomes.
  • Further research is needed on synergistic and flow-on effects that may follow the establishment of a new alien species.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

  1. Habitat destruction:
  • Habitat destruction (also termed habitat loss and habitat reduction) is the process by which a natural habitat becomes incapable of supporting its native species.
  • The organisms that previously inhabited the site are displaced or dead, thereby reducing biodiversity and species abundance.
  1. Hunting: it is an activity of hunting wild animals or games.
  2. Lumbering: Lumbering is defined as cutting down trees and turning them into pieces of wood used for building.

Question 49

Coastal and estuary waters are sometimes affected by algal foam and scum, often called

  1. AOption (a)

    Red tides

  2. BOption (b)

    Red clay

  3. COption (c)

    Red soil

  4. DOption (d)

    Red waves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Red tides

Why this answer is correct

Coastal and estuary waters are sometimes affected by algal foam and scum, often called Red tides.

Red tides:

  • Red tide is a phenomenon caused by algal blooms during which algae become so numerous that they discolor coastal waters (hence the name "red tide").
  • The algal bloom may also deplete oxygen in the waters and/or release toxins.
  • Major factors influencing red tide events include warm ocean surface temperatures, low salinity, high nutrient content, calm seas, and rain followed by sunny days during the summer months.
  • Algae related to red tide can spread or be carried long distances by winds, currents, storms, or ships.
  • Red tide is a global phenomenon. However, since the 1980s harmful red tide events have become more frequent and widespread.
  • Detection of a spread is thought to be influenced by a higher awareness of red tide, better equipment for detecting and analyzing red tide, and nutrient loading from farming and industrial runoff.
  • Countries affected by red tide events include:
  • Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, Chile, Denmark, England, France, Guatemala, Hong Kong, India, Ireland, Italy, Japan, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, New Guinea, Peru, the Philippines, Romania, Russia, Scotland, Spain, Sweden, Thailand, the United States, and Venezuela (WHOI, 2007, CDC, 2012).
  • Red tide algae make potent natural toxins that can be hazardous to larger organisms through the processes of biomagnification and bioaccumulation.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

  1. Red clay: clay that usually owes its reddish color to the oxide of iron.
  2. Red soil: Red soil, Any of a group of soils that develop in a warm, temperate, moist climate under deciduous or mixed forests and that have thin organic and organic-mineral layers overlying a yellowish-brown leached layer resting on an illuvial (see illuviation) red layer.
  3. Red waves: red wave is associated with the red tide phenomena which is a bloom of microscopic phytoplankton.

Question 50

From the given diagram of Multiple Nuclei model of urban structure devised by C. D. Harris and E. L. Ullman, identify the urban land use pattern of nuclei centers of 3 and 6.

  1. AOption (a)

    CBD and Residential suburb

  2. BOption (b)

    Low class residential and heavy manufacturing

  3. COption (c)

    Wholesale and light manufacturing and residential suburb

  4. DOption (d)

    Highclass residential and outlying business district

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Low class residential and heavy manufacturing

Why this answer is correct

Multiple Nuclei model:

  • The theory was proposed by C. D. Harris and E. L. Ullman in 1945
  • Chauncy Dennison Harris was a pioneer of modern geography. His seminal works in the field of American urban geography.
  • Edward Louis Ullman (1912 – 1976), son of classical scholar Berthold Ullman. He was an urban geographer, transportation researcher, and regional development specialist and became the champion of applied geography.
  • Most of the cities develop around a number of nuclei rather than a single center
  • The rise of separate nuclei has been due to factors that influence the distribution of human activities within a city.

Assumptions:

  • The land is not flat in all areas
  • Even Distribution of Resources
  • Even Distribution of people in Residential areas
  • Even Transportation Costs
  • Profit maximization

Different parts of a city:

  1. CBD: it is the primary nucleus for the expansion of the city. After its development, numerous small business districts evolved and act as separate nuclei.
  2. Wholesale and light manufacturing: it a place that is more consumer-oriented and is located near residential areas.
  3. Low-class residential: next to the industrial corridor and business area the residential area of working-class found. The rent is a low and densely populated area.
  4. Medium class residential: the condition is better than the lower class residential area.
  5. High-class residential: these areas are free from pollution by the industries. Less traffic and residents can afford any facility.
  6. Heavy manufacturing: these areas are occupied by heavy manufacturing industries like iron and steel industry, mining-based industries, etc.
  7. Outlaying business district: this area is developed to facilitate the medium and higher-class residential area. They provide services to them.
  8. Residential suburb: found at the outskirts of the city. Mainly single-family homes are found here.
  9. Industrial suburbs: these are also found on the outskirts of the city. Community-created industries are found here.
  • Nuclei may be of two categories –
  • Nuclei take their shape at the time of the city’s origin
  • Some nuclei develop with the growth of a city.

Important Points

Criticism:

  • The theory produces a model involving complexities of urban structure
  • Although most cities have only one CBD they have a series of sub-centers around nuclei. These are less specialized but enough to provide the needs of smaller sections of the city.
  • The probability of elements of the concentric and sector models present in its depth.
  • Nothing new is involved conceptually in the multiple nuclei, and, it should not be given the status of a theory.

Question 51

If two cities with population of 24,000 and 6,000, respectively are located 18 km apart, the breaking point will lie from the smaller town at a distance of

  1. AOption (a)

    3 km

  2. BOption (b)

    4 km

  3. COption (c)

    5 km

  4. DOption (d)

    6 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6 km

Why this answer is correct

Reillys Law of Retail Gravitation:

  • In economics, Reilly's law of retail gravitation is a heuristic developed by William J. Reilly in 1931.
  • According to Reilly's "law," customers are willing to travel long distances to larger retail centers given the higher attraction they present to customers.
  • In Reilly's formulation, the attractiveness of the retail center becomes the analogy for size (mass) in the physical law of gravity.
  • The law presumes the geography of the area is flat without any rivers, roads, or mountains to alter a consumer's decision of where to travel to buy goods.
  • It also assumes consumers are otherwise indifferent between the actual cities.
  • In analogy with Newton's law of gravitation, the point of indifference is the point at which the "attractiveness" of the two retail centers (postulated to be proportional to their size and inversely proportional to the square of the distance to them) is equal: da/db = Pa/Pb
  • The breaking point (BP) boundary making the outer edge of their respective trade areas according to Reillys Law of Retail Gravitation
  • The breaking point (BP) boundary making the outer edge of their respective trade areas according to Reillys Law of Retail Gravitation
  • The breaking point (BP) boundary making the outer edge of their respective trade areas according to Reillys Law of Retail Gravitation
  • The formula of breaking point, d= D/(1+√(Pa/Pb))

Where,       

  • D= distance between two cities = 18 km
  • Pa= population of largest city = 24000 persons
  • Pb= population of smaller city = 6000 persons

Calculation

Pa/Pb=24000/6000= 4

(1+√(Pa/Pb) = 1+√4= 3

d= 18 Km /3= 6 km

Therefore, the breaking point will lie from the smaller town at a distance of 6 km

Question 52

The above-given figure explains a particular model, choose the correct option from the below

  1. AOption (a)

    Weberian model

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Place model

  3. COption (c)

    Von Thuenenian model

  4. DOption (d)

    Gravity model

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Central Place model

Why this answer is correct

The above-given figure explains the Central Place model.

Central Place model:

  • The theory was postulated by Walther Christaller
  • It was published in his book “Central Place in Southern Germany” (Die zentralen Orte in Suddeutschland) in 1933
  • Translated in English in 1966
  • It is a normative theory
  • Based on the data obtained from Bavaria in South Germany
  • No of settlements are represented by ‘K’

Key Points

Basic concepts:

  • Threshold: it is the minimum population requires for the establishment of a service

  • Range: the maximum distance one can travel for a single amenity/good/service

  • There are three fundamental concepts

  • Concept of centrality: it means the importance of the central or focal point which offers goods and services to the complementary area

  • Complementary area: the area served by the central place

  • Concept of hierarchy: the arrangement of the settlement based on their number and size. Generally, there are seven or more levels in a meso-region. In India, there are six levels of settlements.

Important Points

Principles of multiple nuclei theory:

The market principle:

  • Here K=3 ( K=1+(6/3)=3)
  • The market area of higher-order place includes a third of the market area of each of the following size neighbouring lower-order places
  • Each marketing place is located at the corner of a hexagon around the higher-order settlement
  • Each high-order settlement gets 1/3 of each lower-order settlement

The transport principle:

  • The market area of higher-order includes half of the market area of the lower order places
  • They located on the edge of the hexagon
  • It results in the most efficient transport network
  • There are maximum central places possible located on the main transport routes connecting the higher-order centers
  • Here K=4 , K= 1+(6/2)=4

The administrative principle:

  • Settlements are nested according to sevens
  • The market areas of the smaller settlements are completely enclosed within the area of the larger settlement
  • Tributary areas must be allocated exclusively to a single higher-order place
  • Efficiency administration is the control principle in this hierarchy
  • Here K=7, K= 1+6

Question 53

Given below are the two statements, One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Losch believed that price increase is the result of transport cost and by rotating the demand curve around the production point 'P'. the shape of the market area is seen to be circular.

Reason (R): Losch treated each function having a separate range, threshold, and hexagonal hinterland.

Select the correct answer from the option given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

Losch's Theory:

  • Economics of Location, first published in 1939
  • The German economist August Losch expanded on Christaller’s work in his book The Spatial Organization of the Economy (1940).
  • This system allowed for specialized places.
  • He also illustrated how some central places develop into richer areas than others.

Important Points

Assumptions:

  • An isotropic surface
  • The constant supply of goods and services
  • The population is evenly distributed
  • Demand decreases with an increase in price.
  • If the price increase is the result of an increase in the transport costs, demand would decrease with the distance from a production center, the demand curve would be cone-shaped and the market area circular.
  • Entrepreneurs act as economic men, their main aim being profit maximization.

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Key Points

Main theory:

  • Marketing factor and the idea of maximum profits related to sales revenue
  • Losch’s theory is for densely populated regions
  • Production points established on the planes.
  • There is no particular K value that could be considered sacrosanct
  • The multiple rotations and enlargements of hexagons created market areas with K values of 9, 12, 13, 16, 19, 21, and 25
  • The same level in a hierarchy have the same business types, and all higher-order places must contain all the business types contained in lower-order places

Concept of Hexagon:

  • He then arranged the hexagons in such a fashion so that this one center was common for all.
  • He then rotated the hexagons around the central point and brought them to the rest where the maximum number of hexagons coincided, forming points of maximum demand, which should ideally develop for the concentration of industry.
  • Hexagons are used in theory to delineate market areas because:
  • Circles are equidistant from the center to edge, but they overlap or leave gaps.
  • Squares nest together without gaps, but their sides are not equidistant from the center.
  • Hexagons offer a compromise between geometric properties of circles and squares.

Criticism:

  • Losch’s theory is abstract in nature.
  • It over-stressed on demand.
  • It has failed to take into account, problems arising from locational interdependence of plane.
  • Markets often overlap and do not occur in isolation. Therefore, as pointed by Losch, location equilibrium rarely occurs between a unit/entrepreneur and its market. As more firms appear, profits compete away.
  • Losch’s notion of the market demand was too simple. In reality, an entrepreneur will have to deal with several issues before he estimates demand as a basis for their locational decisions.
  • The empirical study might show no such pattern as that envisaged in the theory

Question 54

Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Frontiers are transitions between geographical regions rather than states.

Reasons (R): It is a manifestation of centripetal forces.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) is true, but (R) is false

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is '(A) is true, but (R) is false'.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): Frontiers are transitions between geographical regions rather than states.
  • This statement is true.
  • Concept of Frontiers: In political geography, frontiers are not rigid lines like boundaries but broad zones of transition separating two distinct geographical or cultural regions.
  • Historical Usage: Traditionally, frontiers were less demarcated and often acted as buffer zones, unlike modern borders that are legally defined and strictly guarded.
  • Reason (R): It is a manifestation of centripetal forces.
  • This statement is false.
  • Centripetal Forces: These are unifying forces that promote the stability and integrity of a state, such as nationalism, a common language, or effective governance.
  • Why incorrect here: Frontiers emerge due to peripheral or transitional characteristics of geographical and cultural regions, not due to centripetal forces. In fact, they are often the result of centrifugal tendencies (forces of division), as they occur at the edges of state influence.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and R:
  • The assertion correctly identifies the transitional nature of frontiers.
  • The reason is not valid because centripetal forces unify states rather than create frontiers.
  • Thus, the two statements do not align, making (A) true and (R) false.

Additional Information

  • Boundaries vs Frontiers: Boundaries are precise lines drawn on maps, while frontiers are broad areas of separation and transition, often subject to contestation.
  • Examples of Frontiers: The historical frontier between the United States and Native American territories, or the frontier zones between colonial empires in Africa.
  • Relevance in Political Geography: Understanding frontiers is important for analyzing zones of conflict, cultural exchange, and shifting political control, which differ from the stabilizing influence of centripetal forces.

Question 55

Who for the first time emphasized the importance of mental map of environment in decision making process?

  1. AOption (a)

    D. Wood

  2. BOption (b)

    S. J. Gould

  3. COption (c)

    D. Woodward

  4. DOption (d)

    K. Lynch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

S. J. Gould

Why this answer is correct

S. J. Gould for the first time emphasized the importance of a 'mental map' of the environment in the decision-making process.

  • The aspect which was most enthusiastically adopted by geographers from the behavioral analysis was the concept of mental maps.
  • The paper of Peter Gould (1966) was the seminal contribution in this regard.
  • He points out that since decisions on location were guided by the manner in which a human being perceives the environment, it becomes essential for a geographer to have a mental image of how one perceives his environment while making decisions.
  • Therefore, mental maps are not just images or maps but an amalgamation of information and interpretation that a person has on a particular thing as well as how he or she perceives that place (Johnston, 1986).
  • This was further developed by Gould (1966), Downs (1970), Downs and Stea (1973), Gould and White (1974), and Saarinen (1979) through their writings.
  • Gould opines that mental maps are not only means of examining a person’s area of a spatial preference but also provides insight into the processes which led to that particular decision.
  • He states that mental maps may provide a key to some of the structures, patterns, and processes of man’s work on the earth's surface.

Question 56

Who described 'quantitative revolution' as a radical transformation of the spirit and purpose of Geography?

  1. AOption (a)

    I. Burton

  2. BOption (b)

    P. Haggett

  3. COption (c)

    R. Chorley

  4. DOption (d)

    O. H. K. Spate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I. Burton

Why this answer is correct

In the 1950s and 1960s, a revolutionary change described as "quantitative revolution" occurred in the discipline of geography. It replaced the ‘idiographic’ approach based on areal differentiation by ‘nomothetic’ one, which had its roots in the search for models of spatial structure and phenomenon. 

Quantitative revolution after I. Burton:

  • I. Burton (1963) claimed that not only had geography 'in the past decade undergone a radical transformation of spirit and purpose', which he thought was 'best described as the "quantitative revolution"', but also that 'it reached its culmination in the period from 1957 to 1960, and is now over'.
  • In the words of Burton (1963) this school had set out to discover universals, to build models, and to establish methods and theoretical bases on which geographical realities could be erected
  • The application of statistical and mathematical techniques, theorems, and proofs in understanding geographical systems is known as the 'quantitative revolution' in geography.
  • It was I. Burton who published a research paper, ‘The Quantitative Revolution and Theoretical Geography’ in the Canadian Geographer in 1963.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

  1. P. Haggett: a British geographer known for urban geography.
  2. R. Chorley: an English geographer known for quantitative method in geography.
  3. O. H. K. Spate: an Australian - British geographer famous for the concept of probabilism.

Question 57

Who among the following defined geography as a chorological science?

  1. AOption (a)

    F. Von. Richthofen

  2. BOption (b)

    E. Huntington

  3. COption (c)

    A. Hettner

  4. DOption (d)

    F. Ratzel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A. Hettner

Why this answer is correct

The term chorology traces its origin in Greek etymology which means the ‘science of places’. Chorology stems from the Greek word khōros for “place” or “space” and the suffix -logy for the study of. The term chorology is also known as ‘Areal Differentiation’.

Alfred Hettner and  chronological science: 

  • Alfred Hettner is known for his many distinguished accomplishments is also credited have pushed the chorology concept to some new academic vistas
  • Based upon this concept Richard Hartshorne built up the edifice of his idea of ‘Areal Differentiation’.
  • The concept of Areal Differentiation became the backbone of the regional approach in geographical inquiries.
  • Alfred Hettner the first Professor in a German university after Carl Ritter was influenced by Richthofen, his teacher who infused in him the idea of chorology.
  • According to him,
  • ‘The goal of the chronological point of view is to know the character of regions and places through comprehension of the existence together and interrelations among different realms of reality and their varied manifestations, and to comprehend the earth surface as a whole in its actual arrangement in continents, larger and smaller regions, and places.’
  • Chorology is the study of causal relations between geographical phenomena occurring within a particular region.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

  1. F. Von. Richthofen:
  • He was a German Geographer, known for coining the term "Silk Road" or "Silk Route" in 1877.
  • He also standardized the practices of chorography and chorology.
  1. E. Huntington:
  • American geographer was known for his studies on environmental determinism/climatic determinism
  • Notable works, The Pulse of Asia: A Journey in Central Asia Illustrating the Geographic Basis of History (1907), Civilization and Climate (1915), etc.
  1. F. Ratzel:
  • He was a German geographer, a supporter of environmental determinism and political geography.
  • He coined the term, 'Lebenserum' and the 'organic theory of state'.
  • Politische Geography is one of his notable works.

Question 58

Which one of the following electro-magnetic radiation (EMR) used in remote sensing, has the shortest wavelength?

  1. AOption (a)

    Green

  2. BOption (b)

    Red

  3. COption (c)

    Blue

  4. DOption (d)

    Infra red

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Blue

Why this answer is correct

Electromagnetic radiation (EMR):

  • The first and most important component of Remote Sensing is the Energy source to illuminate the Target.
  • The energy is in the form of Electromagnetic Radiation. It is either natural originating from the Sun or earth by emission, or by artificial means.
  • Electromagnetic energy refers to all the energy that moves with the velocity of light in a harmonic wave pattern. EMR consists of an Electrical field and a Magnetic field.
  • The electrical field varies in magnitude in a direction perpendicular to the direction in which the radiation is traveling and the magnetic field oriented to the right angles to the electrical field.
  • The two most important components of EMR are wavelength and frequency.

Key Points

Wave Lengths:

  • A Wavelength means the length of one wave cycle or the distance from any position in a cycle to the same position in the next cycle.
  • It is usually represented by the Greek letter lambda (λ).
  • Wavelength is usually measured in micrometre (mm, 10-6m) and the nanometer (nm,10-9m).

Frequency:

  • Frequency refers to the number of wave crests passing at a given point in a specific unit of time.
  • It is normally measured in hertz (Hz). Wavelength and frequency are related to the following formula.

Relationship between wavelength and frequency:

 

  • The relationship between wavelength and frequency is inversely proportional
  • In the case of electromagnetic radiation, the following thing is happens

Therefore, the 'Blue' radiation used in remote sensing, has the shortest wavelength.

Question 59

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I (Author)List II (Works)
a) John Palhieki) Introduction of coastal geomorphology
b) Stephen Trudgillii) Limestone geomorphology
c) C. H. Crickmeyiii) The work of the river
d) Charles Lyelliv) Principles of Geology
<br>

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

Why this answer is correct

AuthorWork
John Palhiek- He has written the book Introduction of coastal geomorphology - This is an introduction to wave and tidally dominated landforms, including beaches, cliffs, dunes, estuaries, mudflats, and salt marshes. - Working from basic principles the author discusses the physical mechanisms by which this wide variety of landforms is produced and maintained.
Stephen Trudgill- Limestone geomorphology is the famous work of him - This book focuses on recent work on geomorphological processes and relates them to established theories of landform development. - Special attention is paid to soil processes, marine geomorphology, chemical processes, and future work on process-form relationships in the context of dated sequences of cave deposits.
C. H. Crickmey- He wrote The work of the river - The Lost River explores the geography, history, and mythology, of the Sarasvati river, drawing from various sources like folklore, the Vedas, archaeology, local practices, history, geology, and meteorology. - The book explains that the river, its very existence, and its course have been discussed and speculated over for years.
Charles Lyell- He wrote a book called Principles of Geology - It was an Attempt to Explain the Former Changes of the Earth's Surface, by Reference to Causes Now in Operation

Hence, the correct matching is (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

Question 60

The hypsographic curves illustrated in the following diagram express different stages of basin development.

Choose the correct option out of the following for the youthful stage of basin development from the above diagram:

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

Hypsometric (hypsographic) curve:

  • The hypsometric curve of a catchment represents the relative area below (or above) a given altitude (Strahler, 1952).
  • It describes the distributions of elevations across an area of land, from one drainage basin to the entire planet.
  • These curves have been used to infer the stage of development of the drainage network also it is a powerful tool to differentiate between tectonically active and inactive areas (Keller and Pinter 1996).

Stages:

  • The curve is created by plotting the proportion of total basin height against the proportion of total basin area
  • Convex hypsometric curves characterize young slightly eroded regions;
  • S-shaped curves characterize moderately eroded regions;
  • Concave curves point to old, highly eroded regions,
  • Concave curves point to old, highly eroded regions

Hence, in the above diagram, A is a showing the youthful stage of basin development.

Question 61

Match the following List I with List II.

List I (Isolines/points)List II (Description)
a) Amphidromic pointi) Line of equal stream velocity
b) Isohalineii) Places of equal rainfall
c) Isoveliii) Places of equal salinity
d) Isohytesiv) The point of no tide
<br>

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

TopicDescription
Amphidromic point- An amphidromic point, also called a tidal node, is a geographical location that has zero tidal amplitude for one harmonic constituent of the tide. - The tidal range (the peak-to-peak amplitude, or height difference between high tide and low tide) for that harmonic constituent increases with distance from this point.
Isohaline- The lines that join points of equal salinity in an aquatic system. - It is a line on a map of the ocean connecting all points of equal salinity.
Isovel- A stream velocity contour line - It joins the point of equal stream velocity
Isohytes- An isohyet is a line on a map or chart connecting areas of equal rainfall in a certain period of time - It is a weather map that shows with the help of lines the amount of rainfall a place receives.

Hence, the correct combination is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii).

Question 62

Match the following List I with List II.

List I (Mercalli Scale)List II (Richter magnitude corresponding to highest intensity reached)
a) VI Strongi) 7 – 7.3
b) VI Destructiveii) 4.9 – 5.4
c) X Disastrousiii) above 8.1
d) XII Catastrophiciv) 6.2
<br>

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

Why this answer is correct

The severity of an earthquake can be expressed in several ways. The magnitude of an earthquake, usually expressed by the Richter Scale. The energy released during the earthquake is measured by the Modified Mercalli Scale.

Magnitude: 

  • The energy released during the earthquake is the measure of intensity.
  • Magnitude is determined from measurements on seismographs.

Intensity: 

  • Intensity measures the strength of shaking produced by the earthquake at a certain location.
  • Intensity is determined by effects on people, human structures, and the natural environment.
  • It measures the amplitude of the seismic waves.
MagnitudeModified Mercalli IntensityDescription
0 – 1.9—micro – not felt
2.0 – 2.9Iminor – rarely felt
3.0 – 3.9II – IIIminor – noticed by a few people
4.0 – 4.9IV – Vlight – felt by many people, minor damage possible
5.0 – 5.9VI-VIImoderate – felt by most people, possible broken plaster and chimneys
6.0 – 6.9VII-IXstrong – damage variable depending on building construction and substrate
7.0 – 7.9IX – Xmajor – extensive damage, some buildings destroyed
8.0 – 8.9X – XIIgreat – extensive damage over broad areas, many buildings destroyed
9.0 and aboveXI-XIIgreat – extensive damage over broad areas, most buildings destroyed

Hence, the correct combination is (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii).

Question 63

Match the following List I with List II.

List I (Geological Era)List II (Geological Period)
a) Neozoici) Jurassic
b) Mesozoicii) Miocene
c) Cenozoiciii) Pleistocene
d) Paleozoiciv) Silurian
<br>

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

Why this answer is correct

The geologic time scale is the “calendar” for events in Earth history. It subdivides all time into named units of abstract time called in descending order of duration eons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages. 

Some important points:

  • Eon: eons are the longest portions of geologic time. Three eons are recognized:
  • the Phanerozoic Eon (dating from the present back to the beginning of the Cambrian Period), the Proterozoic Eon, and the Archean Eon. Less formally, eon often refers to a span of one billion years.
  • Era: it is a very long span of geologic time; the second-longest portions of geological time (eons are the longest). The Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic Eras
Geological Era(Geological Period)
a) Neozoiciii) Pleistocene
b) Mesozoici) Jurassic
c) Cenozoicii) Miocene
d) Paleozoiciv) Silurian

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer. The correct matching is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv).

Question 64

Which one of the following groups is correct, in chronological order of the conferences / protocols / agreements on climate change held at global level?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agenda 21, Kyoto protocol, Paris Agreement, The Tenth Conference of Parties (COP-10) of UNFCCC

  2. BOption (b)

    The Tenth Conference of Parties of UNFCCC (COP-10), Paris Agreement, Kyoto Protocol, Agenda 21

  3. COption (c)

    Agenda 21, Kyoto protocol, The Tenth Conference of Parties (COP-10) of UNFCC, Paris Agreement

  4. DOption (d)

    Kyoto Protocol, Agenda 21, Paris Agreement, The Tenth Conference of Parties (COP-10) of UNFCC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Agenda 21, Kyoto protocol, The Tenth Conference of Parties (COP-10) of UNFCC, Paris Agreement

Why this answer is correct

Conferences / protocols / agreementsImportant information
Agenda 21- Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally, and locally by organizations of the United Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every area in which human impacts on the environment. - It is a product of the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992 and published on 23 April 1992 - Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development
Kyoto protocol- In short, the Kyoto Protocol operationalizes the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change by committing industrialized countries and economies in transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets. - Signed on 11 December 1997 and become effective from 16 February 2005
Paris Agreement- The Paris Agreement often referred to as the Paris Accords or the Paris Climate Accords, is an international treaty on climate change, adopted in 2015. - It covers climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance. - The Agreement was negotiated by 196 parties at the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference near Paris, France.
The Tenth Conference of Parties (COP-10) of UNFCCC- Tenth Session of the Conference of Parties (COP 10), 6 - 17 December 2004, Buenos Aires, ArgentinaCOP 10 was held at "La Rural", Av. Sarmiento. - The sessions of the Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technological Advice (SBSTA 21) and the Subsidiary Body for Implementation (SBI 21) were held in conjunction with COP 10 (6 – 14 December).

Hence, the correct chronological order is Agenda 21, Kyoto protocol, The Tenth Conference of Parties (COP-10) of UNFCC, Paris Agreement.

Question 65

What is the correct chronological order of the events pertaining to Family Welfare Programme in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maternal and Child Health Programme (MCH), Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH), National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme (CSSM)

  2. BOption (b)

    Maternal and Child Health Programme (MCH), Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme (CSSM), Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH), National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)

  3. COption (c)

    Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme (CSSM), Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH), National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), Maternal and Child Health Programme (MCH)

  4. DOption (d)

    Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme (CSSM), National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH), Maternal and Child Health Programme (MCH)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maternal and Child Health Programme (MCH), Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme (CSSM), Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH), National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)

Why this answer is correct

ProgramInformation
Maternal and Child Health Programme (MCH)- The maternal and child health program agreed to by almost all nations at the 1990 World Summit for Children
Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme (CSSM)- CSSM program launched on 20th August 1992 - CSSM program is directed at achieving 9 of the 17 goals of National Health Policy (1983) which are related to maternal and child health
Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH)- The Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Programme was launched throughout the country on 15th October 1997
National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)- The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched by the Hon'ble Prime Minister on 12th April 2005

Hence, the correct chronological order of the events pertaining to the Family Welfare Programme in India is Maternal and Child Health Programme (MCH), Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme (CSSM), Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH), National Rural Health Mission (NRHM).

Question 66

Arrange the following methods of delineating crop combination regions in order of their appearance:

(a) Doi's method

(b) Rafiullah's method

(c) Weaver's method

(d) Coppock's method

Choose the code from the below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b), (c), (d), (a)

  3. COption (c)

    (c), (b), (a), (d)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d), (c), (b), (a)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c), (b), (a), (d)

Why this answer is correct

Concept of crop combination regions:

  • It is related to the diversity of crops grown in a particular area at a specific time
  • It is the main basis of agricultural regionalization
  • Crop combination also helps to understand the crop distribution in an area
  • It helps to understand the density and concentration of individual crops and their assemblage in a region.
  • Sometimes livestock was also taken into consideration for the ranking
Crop combination MethodYear of appearanceMain concept
Weaver's method1954Variance and standard deviation method
Rafiullah's method1956Maximum positive deviation method
Doi's method1959Modified method of J.C. Weaver
Coppock's method1964The demarcating crop and livestock combinations

Hence, correct sequence is (c), (b), (a), (d).

MethodProponents
Crop and live­stock combinations- Scott, 1957; - Bennett, 1961; - Coppock, 1964
Industry combinationsJohnson and Teufner, 1968
Shown its weakness of Weaver- Rafiullah,1956; - Hoag, 1969
Suitable modifications of Weavers method- Doi, 1959, 1970; - Thomas, 1963; - Ahmad and Siddiqui, 1967; Husain, 1976; - Jasbir Singh, 1977
Agricultural efficiencyKendall, 1939
Crop diversificationS. S. Bhatia, 1965

Question 67

Schedule Caste (SC) population had a high concentration in following five States of India in 2011. Identify the correct descending order of SC population size in these States.

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uttar pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

Scheduled Caste population in India:

  • The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are officially designated groups of people in India.
  • The terms are recognized in the Constitution of India and the groups are designated in one or other of the categories.
  • Four states account for nearly half of the country’s dalit population, reveals the 2011 census.
  • Uttar Pradesh stands first with 20.5% of the total scheduled caste (SC) population, followed by West Bengal with 10.7%, says the data released by the Union census directorate on Tuesday.
  • Bihar with 8.2% and Tamil Nadu with 7.2 % come third and fourth.
  • Dalits form around 16.6% of India’s population.
StateSC population
Uttar Pradesh41,357,608
Bihar16,567,325
West Bengal21,463,270
Tamil Nadu14,438,445
Andhra Pradesh13,878,078

Hence, the correct descending order of SC population size of the states is Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.

Question 68

Which one of the following sequences of decreasing average annual rainfall is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Haryana, Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana

  3. COption (c)

    Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Assam

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam, Bihar, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Assam, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana

Why this answer is correct

Rainfall in India mainly occurs in the months of July, August, and September. The Indian rains are chiefly orographic in nature. As a result, the regions situated on the windward side receive greater rainfall than the regions located on the leeward side. Only a scant amount of rainfall is received from cyclones and convectional rainfall. Monsoon in India is irregular, not well distributed, and unpredictable. While there are floods in some regions, the other regions face drought. 

  1. Regions receiving hefty rainfall (more than 200 cm)
  • Slopes of the Western Ghats and the Western Coastal Plains.
  • Meghalaya Hills (Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia), the southern slopes of the Eastern Himalayas, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and West Bengal.
  1. Regions receiving moderate rainfall (100-200 cm)
  • The southern part of Tamil Nadu and the northern parts of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Middle Ganges Valley, some parts of the Western Ghats, Eastern Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha.
  1. Regions receiving low rainfall (50-100 cm)
  • Parts of the Deccan plateau consisting of the regions of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
  • Eastern Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, and  Kashmir.
  1. Regions receiving scanty rainfall (5o cm and less)
  • Northern parts of Kashmir, southern Punjab, and western Rajasthan.
  • The rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats lying in the Deccan Plateau.

The table below will explain how the annual average rainfall changes state-wise due to their respective location.

StateAverage rainfall
Assam2,818 mm
Bihar1,326 - 1,186 mm
Uttar Pradesh1,025 mm
Haryana617 mm

Hence, the correct sequences of decreasing average annual rainfall is Assam, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana.

  • Central and northern parts of India get occasional rainfall during winter.
  • Weak temperature cyclones lead to rainfall in Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, and western Uttar Pradesh. This rainfall benefits the rabi crops.
  • Northeastern areas of the country also receive winter rainfall.
  • In October and November, the northeast monsoon receives heavy moisture while blowing over the Bay of Bengal and cause enormous rainfall over the coast of Tamil Nadu and the southern tip of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 69

The percentage share of Muslim population to total population in following five State is high as per 2011 census data. Identify the correct descending order of these states in shares of the Muslim population.

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Kerala, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir

  2. BOption (b)

    Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Jammu and Kashmir, West Bengal, Assam, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal, Assam, Jammu and Kashmir, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

Religion in India is characterized by a diversity of religious beliefs and practices. According to the 2011 census, 79.8% of the population of India practices Hinduism, 14.2% adheres to Islam, 2.3% adheres to Christianity, 1.72% adheres to Sikhism, 0.7% adheres to Buddhism, and 0.37% adheres to Jainism.

Muslim population in India:

  • The population Growth rate of various religions has come down in the last decade (2001-2011).
  • Hindu Population Growth rate slowed down to 16.76 % from the previous decade figure of 19.92%
  • Muslims witness a sharp fall in growth rate to 24.60% (2001-2011) from the previous figure of 29.52 % (1991-2001).
  • Such a sharp fall in the population growth rate for Muslims didn't happen in the last 6 decades.
  • Christian Population growth was at 15.5% while Sikh population growth rate stood at 8.4%.
  • The most educated and wealthy community of Jains registered the least growth rate in 2001-2011 with a figure of just 5.4%
StateMuslim Population (in %)
Jammu & Kashmir68.3
Assam34.2
West Bengal27
Kerala26.6
Uttar Pradesh19.3

Hence, Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh are the correct descending order of these states in shares of the Muslim population.

Question 70

Which one of the following decreasing order of altitude (from NE to SW) of mountain ranges in Jammu and Kashmir state is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Laddakh, Pir Panjal, Zanskar, Shiwalik

  2. BOption (b)

    Pir Panjal, Laddakh, Zanskar, Shiwalik

  3. COption (c)

    Laddakh, Zanskar, Pir Panjal, Shiwalik

  4. DOption (d)

    Laddakh, Shiwalik, Zanskar, Pir Panjal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Laddakh, Zanskar, Pir Panjal, Shiwalik

Why this answer is correct

The Himalayas is divided into three ranges from north to south. They are the Lesser Himalayas**, the Great Himalayas, and the Outer **Himalayas. The correct sequence of mountain ranges in Jammu and Kashmir state is Laddakh, Zanskar, Pir Panjal, Shiwalik.

In the following image, the sequence is clearly visible from 

Mountain rangesDescription
Laddakh- It is located in western Himalaya, in the UT of LadakhaThe - Ladakh Range has an average height of about 6,000 metres
Pir Panjal- The Pir Panjal range in Kashmir is the longest and the most important range. - It extends from the Jhelum river to the upper Beas river for over 300 km. - It rises to 5,000 metres and contains mostly volcanic rocks.
Zanskar- Zanskar Range is a mountain range in the union territory of Ladakh - It is a part of the Tethys Himalaya - The elevation is 7,756 m
Shiwalik- Siwalik Range in the southern part Himalayas lies largely within the state of Uttarakhand, northwest of Nepal. - It has an average elevation of 900 to 1,200 meters

Question 71

Given below are two statements - one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Melting of floating icebergs will have a big impact on sea level.

Reason (R): 90% of icebergs sink into seawater.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) is false, but (R) is true

Why this answer is correct

Icebergs are pieces of ice that formed on land and float in an ocean or lake. Icebergs come in all shapes and sizes, from ice-cube-sized chunks to ice islands the size of a small country. The term "iceberg" refers to chunks of ice larger than 5 meters (16 feet) across.

Assertion:

  • Icebergs and frozen seawater also melt in warm temperatures but do not cause sea levels to rise.
  • This is because they are already in the water.
  • The volume of water they displace as ice is the same as the volume of water they add to the ocean when they melt.
  • As a result, the sea level does not rise when sea ice melts.

Reason:

  • The density of ice is 0.92 g/mL, and the density of water is 1.0 g/mL (1.03 for saltwater).
  • This means that ice has nine-tenths, or 90 percent of water’s density – and so 90 percent of the iceberg is below the water’s surface.
  • In contrast, a piece of wood with a density of 0.5 g/mL (half that of water) would float with half of its volume below the surface of the water.
  • A cork with a density of 0.2 g/mL (20 percent that of water) would float with 20 percent of its volume below the surface, and so on.

Hence, the reason is correct.

Therefore, (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 72

Given below are two statements - one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The animals at the end of the food chain have to roam over large areas to obtain their food.

Reason (R): The quantity of energy increases down the chain away from the plants

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) is true, but (R) is false

Why this answer is correct

A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms through which nutrients and energy pass as one organism eats another. The energy flow in the ecosystem transfer from the producer to the consumer level.

Food Chain

  • Transfer of food energy from green plants (producers) through a series of organisms with repeated eating and being eaten link is called a food chain.
  • E.g. Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk/Eagle.
  • Each step in the food chain is called a trophic level.
  • A food chain starts with producers and ends with top carnivores.
  • The trophic level of an organism is the position it occupies in a food chain.
  • A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feeds upon each other.
  • ​Food chains are found within the populations of a species. (Man won’t eat man – Hence statement 2 is not correct.)
  • A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism that are eaten by others (food web illustrates the number, not the food chain).​​
  • The animals at the end of the food chain have to roam over large areas to obtain their food.

Hence, the assertion is correct. 

Energy flow in the ecosystem:

  • Only 10% of energy is transferred to higher levels from the previous one.
  • So, the demand for food is more at higher levels.
  • So, the food chain does not go for more than 3-4 tropic levels.
  • This leads to more complex food forms known as a food web.

 

  • Primary (100%) → First level/ Primary (10%) → Second-level/ Secondary (1%) → Third level / Tertiary (0.1%).
  • The Food web is a network of food chains where all the chains are naturally interconnected.
  • The flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional, once it reaches the next tropic level it does not come back again.

Hence, the reason is not correct.

Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 73

In a distribution function Y(x) of regression model, Y = a + bx + e, the error term is defined as ∑e = 0. Which one of the following equations is correct as Y, Y̅ and Ŷ denote given value, mean value, and predicted value of dependent variable Y, respectively.

  1. AOption (a)

    ∑(Y - Y̅) = 0

  2. BOption (b)

    ∑(Y - Y̅) = minimum

  3. COption (c)

    ∑(Y - Ŷ) = 0

  4. DOption (d)

    ∑(Y - Ŷ) = minimum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

∑(Y - Ŷ) = 0

Why this answer is correct

Regression:

  • The most commonly used form of regression is linear regression, and the most common type of linear regression is called ordinary least squares regression.
  • Linear regression uses the values from an existing data set consisting of measurements of the values of two variables, X and Y, to develop a model that is useful for predicting the value of the dependent variable, Y for given values of X.

Key Points

Elements of regression:

  • The regression equation is written as Y = a + bX +e
  • Y is the value of the Dependent variable (Y), what is being predicted or explained
  • a or Alpha, a constant; equals the value of Y when the value of X=0
  • b or Beta, the coefficient of X; the slope of the regression line; how much Y changes for each one-unit change in X.
  • X is the value of the Independent variable (X), what is predicting or explaining the value of Y
  • e is the error term; the error in predicting the value of Y, given the value of X (it is not displayed in most regression equations).

Question 74

Location of Lancashire cotton textile industry owes to the following favorable factors

a) Humid climate and Soft water

b) Banking and Financial Services

c) Abundant coal availability

d) Position of Liverpool in the Atlantic trade zone

Select the appropriate correct option:

  1. AOption (a)

    a), b) and d)

  2. BOption (b)

    a), b) and c)

  3. COption (c)

    a), c) and d)

  4. DOption (d)

    b) and c) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a), c) and d)

Why this answer is correct

Of all the goods associated with the transatlantic slave trade, cotton was the most important in the Greater Manchester region. The northwest had a long history of textile production from the 1400s, based mainly on wool and linen.

Favorable conditions for the Cotton and textile industry in Lancashire:

  • Lancashire was perfect for making cotton cloth.
  • The damp climate made the cotton fibers less likely to snap during spinning.
  • There were also many engineering works making spinning and weaving machinery and local coal supplied the boilers firing the mill engines.
  • The region’s long tradition of small-scale textile production meant a ready supply of skilled labor, although growth was so rapid that additional labor, including children, had to be brought in from outside Lancashire.
  • The importance of the cotton industries continued in the northwest long after the British abolition of slavery.
  • Cotton grown in the southern states of the USA, where slavery was still legal until 1865, was critical to the expansion of the northwest of England and its industrial growth.
  • Raw cotton was grown by enslaved Africans in the Americas and imported through Liverpool for processing.
  • Transport facility, i.e. Liverpool port and Later Manchester Ship Canal was developed to turn Manchester itself into a port.
  • Huge demand in Europe + Lancashire faces American ports.

So, all of the above are favorable conditions for the development of the Lancashire cotton textile industry.

Hence, a), c) and d) are correct factors.

Question 75

Match the scholars (List- I) with the theory/ model/ concept (List-II) they propounded.

List I (Scholar)List II (Theory / Model / Concept)
a) J. Gottmani) Rank size rule
b) G. K. Zipfii) Concentric zone
c) M. Jeffersoniii) Primate city
d) E. Burgessiv) Megalopolis
<br>

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

ScholarTheory / Model / Concept
a) J. Gottmaniv) Megalopolis
b) G. K. Zipfi) Rank size rule
c) M. Jeffersoniii) Primate city
d) E. Burgessii) Concentric zone

Hence, the correct combination is (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

Megalopolis:

  • A continuous and densely populated development was described as a megalopolis by Jean Gottman, a French geographer, to define the belt on the east coast of the United States at the beginning of the 1960s.
  • A megalopolis sometimes called a megapolis; also megaregion, city cluster or supercity, is a group of two or more roughly adjacent metropolitan areas, which may be somewhat separated or may merge into a continuous urban region.

Rank size rule:

  • The distribution of city size in terms of population is known as the rank-size distribution of the cities
  • This rule was proposed by G. K. Zipf in 1949
  • Zipf’s has probably the best presentation of the empirical findings on the rank and size of the cities.
  • The rank size rule states that for a group of cities, usually those exceeding some size in a particular country, the relationship between size and rank of cities is given by: Pn = P1/n
  • Where, Pn = population of the largest city ranked r,  P = population of the largest city,   n = rank of city n
  • The rank Size Rule is a simple model which states that the population size of a given city tends to be equal to the population of the largest city divided by the rank of the given city.

Primate city:

  • This theory was developed by Mark Jefferson in 1939. He was a cartographer
  • The leading city of a country is usually disproportionately larger than others
  • Primate city has a stratum of small towns dominated  by a very large city with an absence of intermediate centres
  • The ratio of the population of the countries  100:30:20
  • Largest city has pre-eminence in infrastructure, economic, social and political affairs

Concentric zone:

  • This model of the urban structure was proposed by E. W. Burgess in 1924 and modified in 1927
  • The growth of a city takes place outwards from its central area in a series of concentric circles to form zones
  • Burgess mapped five concentric zones in a city
  • It starts with CBD and at the  marginal area the residential area of higher class also found

Question 76

Match the term (List- I) used in industrial / manufacturing geography  (List-II) with their explanations:

List-I (Term)List-II (Explanation)
a) Material Indexi) Ratio of Labour cost per unit of product to the locational weight of that unit
b) Isodapanesii) Advantage of production due to the concentration of industry
c) Labour coefficientiii) Weight of localized material and the weight of the product
d) Agglomerationiv) Lines of equal transport cost per tonne
<br>

Choose the correct options from below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

  • Alfred Weber, the German researcher, published his book on Industrial Location under the title of "Uber den standert der Industries" in 1909
  • It translated into English by C.J. Friedrich, the University of Chicago in 1929 under the title of "Theory of Location of Industries".
  • Weberian Theory, belonging as it does to the Normative School.
  • Least cost concept in the context of the single plant firm of the Western Industrial Societies of the late 18th  and early 19th centuries

Few important used in Weber's least-cost approach are as follows,

TermExplanation
a) Material Index- Weight of localized material and the weight of the product - It indicates if the optimal location was closer to either the raw material source or the market
b) Isodapanes- Lines of equal transport cost per tonne - It is similar to the isolines
c) Labour coefficient- The ratio of Labour cost per unit of product to the locational weight of that unit
d) Agglomeration- Advantage of production due to concentration of industry - It is a spatial clustering of firms in a relatively small area

Hence the correct combination is (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii).

Direction: Read the passage and answer questions that follow.

In the analysis of factors affecting demand and revenue, Smith confirmed to the deviation of total sales and revenue for a single firm at a given location. "But the volume of the demand cone and hence the total revenue obtainable can vary among possible locations in accordance with variations in any of the cost and demand conditions involved. In real world it is unlikely that population density, production costs, transport rates, demand functions and the like will remain fixed over anything other than a very smalll area.... . It is important to add to the general locational principles... . Changes in the variables affecting cost and revenue will bring about changes in the prevailing cost/revenue situation, and thus changes in the comparative economic advantage of alternative locations.

Question 77

Which one of the following statements is correct for sale of goods within market area in a region?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sale is the function of household demand

  2. BOption (b)

    Sale is the function of household income

  3. COption (c)

    Sale is the function of household investment

  4. DOption (d)

    Sale is the function of household consumption

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sale is the function of household demand

Why this answer is correct

  • The price of a good or service in a marketplace determines the quantity that consumers demand.
  • D. M. Smith in his theory has provided a theoretical framework for industrial location.
  • His theory is also known as ‘Area-Cost Curve Theory’.
  • Sale is the function of household demand is correct for sale of goods within the market area in a region
  • He assumed that Demand (revenue) is constant over space.
  • No firm tries to take advantage of scale economies.

Question 78

Which one of the following variables influencing industry/firm is correct for the change in cost of a firm to supply goods to its market area in spatial perspective?

  1. AOption (a)

    Climate change

  2. BOption (b)

    Change in management of firm

  3. COption (c)

    Change in machine costs

  4. DOption (d)

    Change in transport costs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Change in transport costs

Why this answer is correct

"In real-world, it is unlikely that population density, production costs, transport rates, demand functions and the like will remain fixed over anything other than a very small area"

  • Recognizing the complexity of the industrial location decision, Smith began by simplifying the real-world conditions.
  • Transport distance is jointly expressed in geographical units, cost, and time.
  • Change in transport costs influencing the change in the cost of a firm to supply goods to its market area in spatial perspective.

Question 79

Which one of the following relationship between cost and revenue of a firm within market area is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Highly possitive

  2. BOption (b)

    Possitive

  3. COption (c)

    Negative

  4. DOption (d)

    No relationship

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Negative

Why this answer is correct

"Changes in the variables affecting cost and revenue will bring about changes in the prevailing cost/revenue situation"

  • Smith assumed a profit motive. He observed that processing costs vary in space as do revenues.
  • The most profitable location will be where total revenue exceeds total cost by the greatest amount.
  • It depicts the effect of spatial variations in cost and price and suggests the optimal location and spatial profitability margins.

Question 80

Which one of the following trend of delivered costs (Plant cost plus supply cost) with reference to demanded quantity within market area is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increasing

  2. BOption (b)

    Decreasing

  3. COption (c)

    Constant

  4. DOption (d)

    Irregular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Decreasing

Why this answer is correct

  • Costs are variable and demand is constant. In this case, with the same revenue everywhere and only costs varying,
  • In a cost-price situation of this type, spatial variations in total costs and revenues impose limits to the area in which any industry can operate at a profit.
  • Within those limits, the entrepreneur can locate anywhere unless he seeks maximum profits.
  • There is a decreasing trend in delivered costs (Plant cost plus supply cost) with reference to the demanded quantity within the market area is correct
  • To explain the model Smith has used isocost lines and prepared an isocost map that indicates the optimum location.
  • Smith has also taken into consideration the factors such as entrepreneurial skill, behavioral or personal aptitude, the existence of subsidies, and external economics.

Question 81

Which one of the following locational decision of a firm, to take comparative advantage withing market area, is correct when prices of goods produced by the firm increase?

  1. AOption (a)

    No-machine cost change

  2. BOption (b)

    No-location change

  3. COption (c)

    Search for alternative location

  4. DOption (d)

    Search for alternative inputs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Search for alternative location

Why this answer is correct

"thus changes in the comparative economic advantage of alternative locations."

  • In economic theory, price relates to demand in a function called the demand curve
  • Thus, the price of a product and the quantity demanded that product have an inverse relationship, as stated in the law of demand.
  • An inverse relationship means that higher prices result in lower quantity demand and lower prices result in higher quantity demand.
  • The steeper the cost or price gradients, the greater is the spatial variation and the more localized the location choice; conversely, the shallower the gradients, the wider is the location choice – unless again maximum profits are sought.

Direction: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.

"A powerful manifestation of the earth atmosphere energy budget and moisture system is the tropical cyclone, which originates entirely within tropical air masses. The tropics extend from the Tropic of Cancer at 23.5°N, to the Tropic of Capricorn at 23'5°S containing the equatorial zone between 10°N and 10°S. Approximately 80 tropical cyclones occur annually worldwide. Some are powerful enough to be classified as hurricanes and typhoons. Cyclonic systems forming in the tropics are quite different from mid-latitude cyclones because the air of the tropics is essentially homogeneous, with no fronts or conflicting air masses. Tropical depressions intensity into tropical storms as they cross the Atlantic. A rule of thumb has emerged: If they mature early along their track, they tend to curve northward towards the North Atlantic and miss the United States. The critical position is approximately 40° W longitudes. Officially, tropical cyclone season is from June 1 to November 30 each year".

Question 82

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) There are numerous forms of tropical cyclones that vary in shape, size, velocity, and weather conditions.

(b) Tropical cyclones become more vigorous and move with very high velocity over the Oceans.

(c) The center of the cyclone is characterized by extremely high pressure.

(d) The tracks of tropical cyclones are similar in different parts.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a), (b) and (d)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (a)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) and (b)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a), (b) and (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) and (b)

Why this answer is correct

Characteristics of Tropical Cyclone:

  • A tropical cyclone is a weather phenomenon that is essentially a rapidly rotating storm system with characteristics such as a low-pressure center, strong winds, and thunderstorms that produce heavy rain, among others.
  • It has a low-pressure center called the 'eye of the cyclone' and clouds spiraling towards the eyewall surrounding the "eye"
  • Wind velocity, in a tropical cyclone, is more in poleward margins than at the center
  • The speed is moreover the oceans than over land masses, which are scattered with physical barriers.

A rule of thumb has emerged: If they mature early along their track, they tend to curve northward towards the North Atlantic and miss the United States.

The line above explaining the path of the tropical cyclone which is changing in nature.

Path of Tropical Cyclones

  • These cyclones start with a westward movement - This is because the earth is rotating from west to east and the zone of cyclone formation is under the influence of easterlies.
  • but turn northwards around 20° latitude  Coriolis force deflects the path towards right.
  • They turn further north-eastwards around 25° latitude  Coriolis force deflects it further towards the right.
  • and then eastwards around 30° latitude Because of westerly winds.
  • They then lose energy and subside Ocean water at 30 ° latitude is not warm enough to sustain a cyclone. Also increasing wind shear due to westerlies doesn’t facilitate the formation of a cyclonic vortex.

Hence, option a and b are only correct.

Question 83

Which of the following statements is not true for tropical cyclones?

(a) The tropical cyclones move from East to West direction under the influence of trade winds.

(b) Tropical cyclones are not disastrous hazards in tropical regions.

(c) Tropical cyclones usually develop in the vicinity of ITCZ.

(d) Tropical cyclones become weak and feeble while over the land areas.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) and (d)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only (b)

Why this answer is correct

  • Tropical cyclones start with a westward movement
  • This is because the earth is rotating from west to east and the zone of cyclone formation is under the influence of easterly trade wind.
  • Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and move over to the coastal areas bringing about large-scale destruction due to violent winds (squalls), very heavy rainfall (torrential rainfall), and storm surge.
  • Trade winds from both the hemispheres meet along the inter-tropical front.
  • Temperature contrasts between these air masses must exist when the ITCZ is farthest, from the equator.
  • Low-level disturbance (thunderstorms – they are the seeds of cyclones) in the form of easterly wave disturbances in the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) should pre-­exist.
  • Tropical cyclones become weak and feeble while passing over the land areas.

Hence, the only b is incorrect as tropical cyclones are most disastrous in nature.

Question 84

The tropical depression gets intensifies into tropical storms after crossing -

  1. AOption (a)

    Greenland

  2. BOption (b)

    Arctic Ocean

  3. COption (c)

    Atlantic Ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    Pacific Ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Atlantic Ocean

Why this answer is correct

Tropical depressions intensity into tropical storms as they cross the Atlantic

  • In the North Atlantic, tropical cyclones are called hurricanes;
  • In the North Pacific, they are called typhoons; and in the Indian Ocean, they are called cyclones.
  • Hurricanes start as tropical depressions with wind speeds of at least twenty-five miles per hour.
  • Cyclonic motion and warm temperatures feed the system.
  • If a storm reaches sustained winds of thirty-nine to seventy-three miles per hour, it is upgraded to a tropical storm.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 85

From which of the following longitudes, the tropical storms tend to curve northward toward the North Atlantic, missing the United States?

  1. AOption (a)

    10° W

  2. BOption (b)

    20° W

  3. COption (c)

    30° W

  4. DOption (d)

    40° W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40° W

Why this answer is correct

The critical position is approximately 40° W longitudes

  • Tropical cyclones forming between 5 and 30 degrees North latitude typically move toward the west.
  • Sometimes the winds in the middle and upper levels of the atmosphere change and steer the cyclone toward the north and northwest.
  • When tropical cyclones reach latitudes near 30 degrees North, they often move northeast.
  • Hurricanes are thus accelerated toward the North Pole.

Question 86

Typically, the maximum number of tropical cyclones annually occur during -

  1. AOption (a)

    June 5 - November 25

  2. BOption (b)

    July 1 - November 30

  3. COption (c)

    June 29 - December 5

  4. DOption (d)

    June 1 - November 30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

June 1 - November 30

Why this answer is correct

Officially, tropical cyclone season is from June 1 to November 30 each year".

  • In the northern hemisphere, tropical cyclones occur between June and November peaking in September.
  • In the southern hemisphere, the season lasts from November to April but storms remain less common here than in the northern hemisphere.
  • More than one tropical storm can occur in the same ocean and region at once.
  • They originate in late summer or autumn. within 5 degrees of the equator, so they develop within latitudes of 5 and 20 degrees North or South of the Equator

Question 87

'Rally for Valley' program in India was organized to highlight the problem of -

  1. AOption (a)

    Environmental degradation

  2. BOption (b)

    Biodiversity

  3. COption (c)

    Resettlement of displaced persons

  4. DOption (d)

    Loss of agricultural land

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Resettlement of displaced persons

Why this answer is correct

'Rally for Valley' program in India was organized to highlight the problem of - Resettlement of displaced persons

Key Points

'Rally for Valley' program:

  • Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) starts its 'rally for the valley' from Indore to resume its protest against increasing the water level of the Sardar Sarovar Dam and the submergence of villages that it will cause.
  • It is an Indian social movement initiated by native tribals (Adivasis), farmers, environmentalists, and human rights activists against the construction of a large number of dams and projects across the river Narmada.
  • The river flows through the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
  • Sardar Sarovar Dam in Gujarat is one of the biggest dams on the river and was one of the first focal points of the movement.
  • It is a part of the Narmada Dam Project.
  • The main aim is to provide irrigation and electricity to people of the above states.
  • Narmada Bachao Andolan is the most powerful mass movement, started in 1985, against the construction of a huge dam on the Narmada river.
  • As per the Narmada Dam Project, the plan was to build over 3000 big and small dams along the river.
  • The big fight of the Save the Narmada Movement was over the resettlement or the rehabilitation of these people.
  • Medha Patkar has been the guiding light of the movement.

Question 88

Which of the following parameters is the basis of the 'Fujita Scale' for classifying tornadoes?

a) Pressure Gradient

b) Temperature Gradient

c) Wind speed

d) Related property damages

  1. AOption (a)

    a) and b)

  2. BOption (b)

    b) and d)

  3. COption (c)

    c) and d)

  4. DOption (d)

    a) and d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c) and d)

Why this answer is correct

Wind speed and Related property damages are the basis of the 'Fujita Scale' for classifying tornadoes.

'Fujita Scale' for classifying tornadoes:

  • In 1971, Dr. Theodore Fujita developed a method for categorizing tornadoes by looking at how much damage they cause and using this to estimate the wind speed.
  • This system is called the F-Scale or Fujita Scale; it classifies tornadoes by their estimated wind speed, which is determined by looking at how strong the wind must have been to cause the resulting damage.
  • Tornadoes are classified into five categories, F-0 through F-5. F-0 tornadoes are the mildest. F-5 tornadoes are the most dangerous (and the rarest).
  • ​F-0 40-72 mph, Light damage, chimney damage, tree branches broken
  • F-1 73-112 mph, Moderate damage, mobile homes pushed off foundation or flipped over
  • F-2 113-157 mph, Considerable damage, mobile homes demolished, trees uprooted
  • F-3 158-205 mph, Severe damage, roofs, and walls were torn down, trains overturned, cars thrown around
  • F-4 207-260 mph, Devastating damage, well-constructed walls leveled
  • F-5 261-318 mph, Violent damage, homes lifted off the foundation and carried considerable distances, autos thrown as far as 100 meters.
  • It is not easy to measure wind speed in a tornado because a tornado usually destroys local measuring equipment, and tornadoes exist for a short time at random places and they are gone before meteorologists can study them.

Question 89

Match the economy types (List- I) with their characteristic features  (List-II).

 

List-I (Type of Economy)List-II (Characteristic features)
a) Subsistencei) Market competition as the primary force to shape production pattern
b) Commercialii) Self-sufficiency, low production, low density of population
c) Intensive subsistenceiii) Self-sufficiency, high production, high density of population
d) Extensive subsistenceiv) Little exchange of goods, only the limited need for markets
<br>

Choose the correct options from below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

Type of economyCharacteristics
Subsistence- In a subsistence economy, goods are produced to provide for oneself or one's family. - A subsistence economy is an economy directed to basic subsistence (the provision of food, clothing, shelter) rather than to the market - That means, little exchange of goods, only the limited need for markets
Commercial- The commercial economy is driven by a market (protected thoroughly from fraud) that consistently produces technology and increases personal wealth. - When the cost of the inventory falls, the efficiency of said market increases. - Commercial economics is the study of economic principles and concepts used in decision-making and as such it lies on the border line of economics and business management. - Commercial economics bridges the gap between economics on the one hand and business management on the other.
Intensive subsistence- The term, ‘intensive subsistence agriculture’ is used to describe a type of agriculture characterized by high output per unit of land and relatively low output per worker. - Self-sufficiency, high production, high density of population are the main characteristic feature.
Extensive subsistence- Extensive Subsistence Agriculture. an agricultural technique where a vast expanse of land is cultivated to yield minimal output of crops and animals for the primary consumption of the grower's family. - Self-sufficiency, low production, low density of population are the main character.

Hence, the correct matching is (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

Question 90

Which one of the following groups of landforms are erosional features?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stalagmites, Natural levees, Stacks, Talus

  2. BOption (b)

    Corrie, Yardang, Gorge, Sinkholes

  3. COption (c)

    Natural bridges, Beaches, Eskers, Star dunes

  4. DOption (d)

    Flood plain, Morains, Calderas, 'U' shaped valley

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Corrie, Yardang, Gorge, Sinkholes

Why this answer is correct

Exogenetic forces:

  • Erosion and deposition both are the product of exogenetic forces.
  • It means the forces responsible have an external origin.
  • The agents involved in the exogenetic processes are river, wind, sea wave, groundwater, glacier, etc.
  • They complete a process through erosion, transportation, and deposition.
  • The landforms formed due to the detachment, removal, transportation, and deposition of rock debris are known as erosion.

Important Points

AgentErosional featuresDepositional features
River1. Gorge 2. Canyon 3. Waterfalls 4. Rapids 5. Cascade 6. Pothole 7. Terraces, etc.1. Flood plain 2. Natural levee 3. Deltas 4. Bars 5. Meanders 6. Ox-bow lakes, etc.
Wind1. Yardang 2. Zuigen 3. Mushroom rock 4. Ventifacts 5. Blowouts1. Sand dunes 2. Loess
Glacier1. Cirque or Corris 2. Hanging valley 3. Horn 4. Arates 5. 'U' shaped valley1. Morain 2. Esker 3. Kame 4. Drumline
Groundwater1. Sinkhole 2. Dolain 3. Uvala 4. Lapies 5. Cave, etc- Stalactite - Stalagmite - Helictite - Pillar, etc

Hence, it is clear that Corrie, Yardang, Gorge, Sinkholes are erosional features.

So, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 91

How is stratified sampling carried out?

  1. AOption (a)

    Divide the population into homegeneous groups and select equally but randomly

  2. BOption (b)

    Assign numbers to the population by selecting the numbers

  3. COption (c)

    Divide the population itself into random groups and select equally from each group

  4. DOption (d)

    Made sample of elements which are randomly selected from the population

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Divide the population into homegeneous groups and select equally but randomly

Why this answer is correct

Definition: Sampling is a technique where the sampler selects some of the elements with the intention of finding out a conclusion about the total population from which they are taken. It may be defined as the selection of some part of an aggregate or totality on the basis of which a judgment about the aggregate or totality is made. In other words, it is the process of obtaining information about an entire population by examining only a part of it.

Sampling can be categorized into two,

  1. Probability sampling
  2. Non-probability sampling

​Stratified sampling:

  • In a stratified sample, researchers divide a population into homogeneous subpopulations called strata (the plural of stratum) based on specific characteristics (e.g., race, gender, location, etc.).
  • Every member of the population should be in exactly one stratum.
  • Each stratum is then sampled using another probability sampling method, such as cluster or simple random sampling, allowing researchers to estimate statistical measures for each sub-population.
  • Researchers rely on stratified sampling when a population’s characteristics are diverse and they want to ensure that every character is properly represented in the sample.
  • So the overall process is dividing the population into homogeneous groups and select equally but randomly.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 92

Which of the following is the correct sequence from land to sea?

  1. AOption (a)

    Continental slope, Sea plain, Ocean deeps, Continental shelf

  2. BOption (b)

    Continental shelf, Continental slope, Sea plain, Ocean deeps

  3. COption (c)

    Ocean deeps, Sea plain, Continental slope, Continental shelf

  4. DOption (d)

    Sea plain, Ocean deeps, Continental slope, Continental shelf

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Continental shelf, Continental slope, Sea plain, Ocean deeps

Why this answer is correct

About three fourth of the earth covered by the hydrosphere. A major portion of the Hydrosphere is covered by the ocean. The ocean floors are characterized by four relief zones – Continental Shelf, Continental Slope, Deep Sea Plain, and Oceanic deep or trench. Besides, these divisions, there are also major and minor relief features in the ocean floors like ridges, hills, seamounts, guyots, trenches, canyons, etc.

Continental Shelf:

  • The Continental marginal areas submerged under oceanic water.
  • The average water depth of 100 fathoms (1 fathom – 6 feet) and gently sloping (1°-3°) towards the sea are called Continental Shelves.
  • Continental Shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs.
  • It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less.
  • The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break.
  • Massive sedimentary deposits received over a long time by the continental shelves become the source of fossil fuels.

Continental Slope:

  • The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins.
  • It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope.
  • The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°.
  • The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m.
  • The seaward edge of the continental slope loses gradient at this depth and gives rise to continental rise.
  • The continental slope boundary indicates the end of the continents.
  • Canyons and trenches are observed in this region.

Sea plain:

  • Deep seaplanes are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins.
  • These are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world because of terrigenous and shallow water sediments that bury the irregular topography.
  • It covers nearly 40% of the ocean floor.
  • The depths vary between 3,000 and 6,000 m.
  • These plains are covered with fine-grained sediments like clay and silt.

Ocean deeps:

  • Ocean deeps represent depressions and trenches (reaches a depth of 5,000 fathoms) on the ocean floors, which are the deepest parts of the ocean basins.
  • Ocean deeps are grouped into, deeps and trenches.
  • Deeps: very deep but less extensive depressions.
  • Trenches: long and narrow linear depressions. (E.g. Mariana Trench located to the west of the Philippines in the North Pacific Ocean is the deepest trench (11,000 metres).

Thus, the correct sequence from land to sea is Continental shelf, Continental slope, Sea plain, Ocean deeps.

Question 93

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the definition of 'census towns' formulated by the Census of India?

a) 75 percent of total working population should be engaged in agricultural activities

b) Minimum population size is 5,000 persons

c) 75 percent of total males of main working population should be engaged in non-agricultural activities

d) Maximum population density is 400 persons per square kilometer

Select the correct option:

  1. AOption (a)

    a) and c)

  2. BOption (b)

    b) and c)

  3. COption (c)

    b) and d)

  4. DOption (d)

    a) and d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b) and c)

Why this answer is correct

Census of India defined the urban regions in two ways, census town, and statutory town.

Key Points

The definition of 'census towns' formulated by the Census of India:

All other places which satisfied the following criteria:

  1. A minimum population of 5,000;
  2. At least 75 percent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and
  3. A density of population of at least 400 persons per sq. km.

It is known as Census Town. These were identified on the basis of Census 2001 data. 

Hence, b) and c) are correct.

Important Points

Statutory Towns:

  • These towns are notified under the law by the concerned State/UT Government and have local bodies like municipal corporations, municipalities, municipal committees, etc., irrespective of their demographic characteristics as reckoned on 31st December 2009.
  • Examples: Vadodara (M Corp.), Shimla (M Corp.), etc.
  • All places with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee, etc.

Question 94

During which five-year plan, the Government of India adopted a regional approach to agricultural planning?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fifth Five Year Plan

  2. BOption (b)

    Sixth Five Year Plan

  3. COption (c)

    Eighth Five Year Plan

  4. DOption (d)

    Tenth Five Year Plan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Eighth Five Year Plan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Eighth Five Year Plan

Key Points

Eighth Five Year Plan:

  • (1992 - 97) Target Growth 5.6 % Actual Growth 6.8%
  • The eighth plan was postponed by two years because of political uncertainty at the Centre
  • Worsening Balance of Payment position, rising debt burden, widening budget deficits, recession in the industry, and inflation were the key issues during the launch of the plan.
  • The plan undertook drastic policy measures to combat the bad economic situation and to undertake an annual average growth of 5.6% through the introduction of fiscal & economic reforms including liberalization under the Prime Ministership of Shri P V Narasimha Rao.
  • Some of the main economic outcomes during the eighth plan period were rapid economic growth (highest annual growth rate so far – 6.8 %), high growth of agriculture and allied sector, and manufacturing sector, growth in exports and imports, improvement in trade, and current account deficit.
  • A high growth rate was achieved even though the share of the public sector in total investment had declined considerably to about 34 %.

Additional InformationSixth Five Year Plan:

  • The Sixth Five-Year Plan marked the beginning of economic liberalization. Price controls were eliminated and ration shops were closed.
  • This led to an increase in food prices and an increase in the cost of living.
  • The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development was established for the development of rural areas on 12 July 1982 by recommendation of the Shivaraman Committee.
  • Family planning was also expanded.
  • NCR planning board in 1985 and Integrated Development of Small and Medium Towns (IDMST)
  • The Sixth Five-Year Plan was a great success for the Indian economy. The target growth rate was 5.2% and the actual growth rate was 5.7%.

Question 95

Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Rayleigh scattering is responsible for the blue colour of the sky.

Reason (R): Rayleigh scattering occurs, when atmospheric particles have diameters that are small relative to the wavelength of radiation

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

Atmosphere scattering: Scattering is the redirection of electromagnetic energy by suspended particles in the atmosphere. The type and amount of scattering that occur depending on the size of the particles and the wavelength of the energy. There are three main types of scattering that impact incoming solar radiation:

  1. Rayleigh Scatter
  2. Mie Scatter
  3. Non-Selective Scatter

Rayleigh Scatter:

  • Rayleigh scatter occurs when radiation (light) interacts with molecules and particles in the atmosphere that are smaller in diameter than the wavelength of the incoming radiation.
  • Shorter wavelengths are more readily scattered than longer wavelengths.

Hence, the reason is correct.

  • Light at shorter wavelengths (like blue and violet visible light) is scattered by small particles that include NO2 and O2.
  • Since blue light is at the short-wavelength end of the visible spectrum, it is more strongly scattered in the atmosphere than longer wavelength red light.
  • Rayleigh scattering is responsible for the blue color of the sky.
  • Rayleigh scatter is can also produce haze in images.
  • In aerial photography special filters are used to filter out the scattering of blue light to reduce haze.

Therefore, Assertion is also correct.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  • In digital images, there are different techniques used to minimize the impacts of Rayleigh scatter.
  • At sunrise and sunset, the incoming sunlight travels a longer distance (path length) through the atmosphere.
  • The longer path leads to scattering of the short (blue) wavelengths that are so complete that we only see the longer wavelengths of light, the red and orange.
  • In the absence of particles and scattering the sky would appear black.

Question 96

Which of the following statements relating to Ratzel's concept of Lebensraum, is correct?

(a) It is the geographical area within which living organisms develop.

(b) It is the economic and cultural activity of the people outside their enclosed settled area.

(c). It deals with the relation between human society and a spatial organization and its physical setting.

(d). It is a geopolitical term that studies space from the viewpoint of the state.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b) and (c)

  3. COption (c)

    (b), (c) and (d)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) and (c) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(a) and (c) only

Why this answer is correct

The concept of Lebensraum:

  • The German concept of Lebensraum comprises policies and practices of settler colonialism that proliferated in Germany from the 1890s to the 1940s.
  • For Ratzel, the Lebensraum was of fundamental significance when the scientist wants to understand the spatial characteristics of life, as life cannot be separated from its spatial requirements.
  • In Ratzel’s own words: “ new form of life needs space in order to come into existence, and yet more space to establish and pass on its characteristics”
  • For Ratzel the same laws that governed organic differentiation governed the differentiation of human societies and states.
  • The focus on overpopulation and its detrimental effects were common in nineteenth-century social science.
  • The key event influencing and to some degree shaping German geographical thought during the second half of the 19th century was the publication of Charles Darwin’s On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection or the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle for Life.

Hence, options (a) and (c) only are correct only to Ratzel's concept of Lebensraum.

Question 97

Match the following Indian states (List- I) with their demographic characteristics (List-II).

List-I (State Name)List-II (Demograpic characteristics)
a) Haryanai) Largest population size
b) Keralaii) Lowest child sex ratio
c) Mizoramiii) Highest sex ratio
d) Uttar Pradeshiv) Highest percentage share of urban population
<br>

Choose the correct options from below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

State NameDemographic characteristicsMeasure
HaryanaLowest child sex ratio830 females/ 1000 male
KeralaHighest sex ratio1084 females/ 1000 male
MizoramHighest percentage share of urban population51.51 %
Uttar PradeshLargest population size19,95,81,477 persons

Hence, the correct combination is (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)​

  1. Child sex ratio:
  • The Child Sex Ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the age group 0–6 years.
  • In the census 2001, the child sex ratio of India was 927 which declined to 919 in the census 2011.
  • The highest child sex ratio found in Mizoram (971 females per 1000 male) and lowest in Haryana (830 females/ 1000 male)
  1. Sex rato:
  • The Sex Ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males
  • The Sex ratio in India is 940 females per 1000 male
  • The highest sex ratio found in Kerala (1084 females per 1000 male) and lowest in Haryana (877 females/ 1000 male)
  1. Population size:
  • Population size is the total population of a country.
  • In India, the highest population found n Uttar Pradesh (19,95,81,477 persons) and the lowest population found in the state Sikkim (6,07,688 persons)
  1. Highest percentage share of urban population: 
  • India's three-tiered census definition of 'urban' regions are those where at least 5,000 inhabitants, the density of 400 people per sq, and at least 75% of the male working population engaged in non-farm activities.
  • Under the census definition, 31% of the Indian population lived in urban areas in 2011.
  • Goa has the highest percentage share of the urban population (62%), and Mizoram obtaining the second position.

Question 98

Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Most of the developing countries in the world have progressive population

Reason (R): The developing countries recorded declining fertility rate and high mortality rate

Select the correct answer from options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) is true, but (R) is false

Why this answer is correct

The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population. There are 3 basic age structures:

  1. Progressive (Brazilian) Type
  2. Stationery (American) Type
  3. Regressive (European) Type

Progressive (Brazilian) Type

  • It has a wide base that quickly narrows upwards to a point.
  • It indicates a large birth rate, but poor conditions mean people rapidly die-off
  • Hence the triangular shape of the structure.
  • The population is increasing
  • Most of the developing countries in the world have a progressive population.

Stationery (American) Type

  • The shape of this structure is more "square." All age groups are well represented.
  • It indicates that the birth rate is moderate, and few people die off as they get older.
  • The population is stagnant

Regressive (European) Type

  • The structure has a fairly wide top with a bulging middle and narrow base.
  • The birth rate is low, hence the low base, and there are more adults than children.
  • The population is decreasing.

Hence, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Progressive PopulationRegressive Population
The progressive population is where the death rate and birth rate are high.The regressive population has a low death rate and a declining birth rate.
The age-sex pyramid shows a wide base and rapid tapering apex.The age-sex pyramid has a narrow base and narrow top.
Life expectancy is low.Life expectancy is high.
The progressive population is found in less developing countries passing through the first stage of demographic transition.Developed countries such as Sweden, France, Germany are good examples of regressive population.

Question 99

Identify the correct option from the following terms regarding the formation of a mid-latitude cyclone.

a) Pressure gradient zone

b) Coriolis force

c) Surface friction

  1. AOption (a)

    a) only

  2. BOption (b)

    b) only

  3. COption (c)

    c) only

  4. DOption (d)

    a), b) and c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a), b) and c)

Why this answer is correct

Mid-latitude cyclone:

  • An extratropical cyclone is a synoptic scale of a low-pressure weather system that does not have tropical characteristics, as it is connected with fronts and horizontal gradients (rather than vertical) in temperature and dew point otherwise known as "baroclinic zones".
  • "Extratropical" is applied to cyclones outside the tropics, in the middle latitudes.
  • These systems may also be described as "mid-latitude cyclones" due to their area of formation, or "post-tropical cyclones" when a tropical cyclone has moved (extratropical transition) beyond the tropics.
  • They are often described as "depressions" or "lows" by weather forecasters and the general public.
  • These are the everyday phenomena that, along with anti-cyclones, drive weather over much of the Earth.
  • Although extratropical cyclones almost form along zones of temperature and dewpoint gradient within the westerlies, they can sometimes become barotropic late in their life cycle when the temperature distribution around the cyclone becomes fairly uniform with radius.
  • A particularly intense type of extratropical cyclone that strikes during winter is known colloquially as a nor'easter.

Therefore, a), b) and c) are correct regarding the formation of a mid-latitude cyclone.

Important Points

Forces Affecting the Velocity and Direction of Wind:

  • Pressure Gradient Force:
  • ​ The differences in atmospheric pressure produce a force.
  • The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient.
  • The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and are weak where the isobars are apart.
  • Frictional Force:
  • It affects the speed of the wind.
  • It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends up to an elevation of 1 - 3 km.
  • Over the sea surface, the friction is minimal.
  • Coriolis Force:
  • ​The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind.
  • This force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844.
  • It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

Question 100

Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The agropolitan approach to regional development postulated that rural development could be best pursued by linking it to urban development at the local level.

Reason (R): The decentralization, democratization and participation were taken as the key factors in agropolitan approach to regional development.

Select the correct answer from options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

According to Friedmann, the development of agropolitan focuses on meeting the basic needs of society, that is to ensure the achievement of food security, clothing, health, and education. Inside the agropolitan area provided various functions of services to support the ongoing activities of agribusiness.

The Agropolitan approach:

  • The Agropolitan approach is a strategy in structuring rural area by adapting the appropriate urban idea to the rural environment based on agriculture.
  • It turns the existing traditional economic activities that already ongoing for so long into new modem economic activities.
  • It integrates urban economic activities such as Market Centre, Training Centre, Processing Centre, agro base Industries centre and also residential that is fully provided with infrastructure and social facilities.
  • The agropolitan approach to regional development postulated that rural development could be best pursued by linking it to urban development at the local level.
  • Rural development concerns in developing countries often emphasize the development of agropolitan programs as the key to development.
  • Agropolitan has been regarded as an important strategy for alleviating economic problems, such as rural poverty through the acceleration of rural economic growth based on the agricultural industry.
  • Rural areas in developing countries are often closely linked to issues of agricultural production, employment, human resources, and technology.
  • Agropolitan concept is the result of an approach to the theory of development based on the agricultural sector with the support of infrastructure and supporting that can produce a more dynamic economic structure in the agropolitan area

Hence, the assertion is correct.

Key factors in the agropolitan approach:

  • Relatively small geographic scale, i.e. the process of decentralization.
  • Autonomous and independent planning and decision-making processes based on local community participation;
  • Diversification of rural labor in agriculture and non-agricultural sectors, emphasizing small industry growth;
  • A functional relationship of rural-urban industry and circles with local economic resources;
  • Utilization and improvement of local resource and technological capabilities
  • Hence, the reason is also correct as a statement but not satisfying the assertion.

So, option  2 is the correct answer.

100 questions in the full paper