Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2024: Official Paper (Held On: 05 Jul, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

If she exercises daily, / she would / remain energetic / and fit forever.

  1. AOption (a)

    she would

  2. BOption (b)

    and fit forever 

  3. COption (c)

    remain energetic

  4. DOption (d)

    If she exercises daily

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

she would

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • In the second part of the given sentence, the verb form 'would' is incorrect.
  • The sentence structure suggests a conditional relationship.
  • In conditional sentences, the present simple tense is used in the 'if' clause and the future simple tense is used in the main clause.
  • Example: If she exercises daily, she will remain energetic and fit forever.
  • Therefore, the correct form should be 'will' instead of 'would'.

Hence, the correct statement is: If she exercises daily, she will remain energetic and fit forever.

Additional Information

  • If the sentence is a conditional statement, the correct structure is important.
  • Example: If it rains, we will stay indoors.
  • Use the simple present tense in the 'if' clause and the simple future tense in the main clause for most real conditional statements.
  • Example: If you study hard, you will pass the exam.

Question 2

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

A owl is a bird which has wide eyes, asymmetrical ears and is found mostly in forests.

  1. AOption (a)

    asymmetrical ears

  2. BOption (b)

    which has wide eyes,

  3. COption (c)

    and is found mostly in forests.

  4. DOption (d)

    A owl is a bird

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A owl is a bird

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Option 4)

Key Points

  • In the first part of the given sentence, the article 'A' is incorrect.
  • In the given sentence, the correct article should be 'An' because the noun 'owl' begins with a vowel sound.
  • Thus, the correct form should be 'An owl is a bird, which has wide eyes, asymmetrical ears and is found mostly in forests.'

Hence, the correct statement is: An owl is a bird which has wide eyes, asymmetrical ears and is found mostly in forests.

<br>

Additional Information

  • When a noun starts with a vowel sound, the article 'An' is used before it.
  • Example: An apple a day keeps the doctor away.
  • When a noun starts with a consonant sound, the article 'A' is used before it.
  • Example: A cat is sitting on the wall.

Question 3

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The teacher will never / give you punishment / if you will / come on time.

  1. AOption (a)

    if you will

  2. BOption (b)

    the teacher will never

  3. COption (c)

    come on time 

  4. DOption (d)

    give you punishment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

if you will

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the phrase 'if you will' is incorrect.
  • In conditional sentences, the simple present tense is used in the condition clause (after 'if').
  • The correct construction should be 'if you come'.
  • Example: If you come on time, the teacher will never give you punishment.

Hence, the correct statement is: The teacher will never give you punishment if you come on time.

<br>

Additional Information

  • In conditional sentences, when the condition clause (if-clause) is in the simple present tense, the result clause (main clause) is usually in the simple future tense.
  • Example: If it rains, we will stay indoors.
  • Do not use the future tense in the if-clause.
  • Incorrect: If you will come on time, we will start the meeting.
  • Correct: If you come on time, we will start the meeting.

Question 4

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

With hard work, commitment / and proper guidance, / Sivaram has become / a IPS officer.

  1. AOption (a)

    With hard work, commitment 

  2. BOption (b)

    and proper guidance, 

  3. COption (c)

    a IPS officer

  4. DOption (d)

    Sivaram has become

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a IPS officer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • In the third part of the given sentence, the indefinite article 'a' is incorrect.
  • The correct usage is the indefinite article 'an' before a word starting with a vowel sound like 'IPS'.
  • Therefore, the correct form should be 'an IPS officer'.

Hence, the correct statement is: With hard work, commitment, and proper guidance, Sivaram has become an IPS officer.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The indefinite article 'a' is used before words that begin with a consonant sound.
  • The indefinite article 'an' is used before words that begin with a vowel sound.
  • Examples:
  • An apple in a day keeps the doctor away.
  • A car is parked outside.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Romantic poetry is a literary movement that emerged in the late 18th century and continued through the mid-19th century. It is (1)________ by an emphasis on emotion, imagination and individualism. Romantic poets sought to express their innermost thoughts and feelings through their poetry, often exploring (2)_______ such as love, beauty and mortality. One of the defining features of Romantic poetry is its use of language and imagery to evoke powerful emotions in the reader. Many Romantic poets, such as William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge (3)________ that poetry should be written in the language of common people, rather than in the lofty, formal language of the past. They also incorporated vivid descriptions of nature and the natural world into their poetry, using it as a source of inspiration and spiritual renewal. (4)______ important aspect of Romantic poetry is its focus on the individual and the subjective experience. Romantic poets believed that each persons experience of the world was unique and valuable, and sought to capture this individuality in their writing. This led to a greater emphasis on personal expression and introspection in poetry, (5)_______ a rejection of the traditional poetic forms and structures of the past.

Question 5

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. 

  1. AOption (a)

    characterising 

  2. BOption (b)

    characterised 

  3. COption (c)

    characteristic 

  4. DOption (d)

    characterises

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

characterised 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • The context of the passage suggests a completed action or state, which requires the past participle form of the verb.
  • "Characterised" fits well in the blank as it indicates something that has been described or distinguished by certain features.
  • Other options like "characterising", "characteristic", and "characterises" do not fit the grammatical structure needed in the sentence.
  • Hence, the correct word for fill in the blanks no. 1 is: Characterised.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'characterised'.

Additional Information

  • Characterising: This form indicates an ongoing action, which does not fit the context.
  • Characteristic: This form is a noun or adjective, not a verb, which is needed in the blank.
  • Characterises: This present tense form does not fit the past context of the sentence.

Question 6

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. 

  1. AOption (a)

    themes 

  2. BOption (b)

    problems 

  3. COption (c)

    arguments 

  4. DOption (d)

    concerns

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

themes 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses various underlying ideas and patterns.
  • The appropriate noun should indicate a central topic or subject matter being discussed.
  • "Themes" fits well as it denotes the main ideas or topics covered, which aligns with the context.
  • Other options ("problems", "arguments", "concerns") do not fit the context as well as "themes".
  • Hence, the correct word fr fill in the blank no. 2 is: Themes.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

 

Additional Information

  • Problems (समस्याएं): "Problems" does not fit the context as well as "themes" since the passage is discussing central ideas rather than issues.
  • Arguments (तर्क): "Arguments" does not reflect the central ideas or topics being discussed in the passage.
  • Concerns (चिंताएं): "Concerns" does not align with the context of describing the main ideas or themes of the passage.

Question 7

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. 

  1. AOption (a)

    believes 

  2. BOption (b)

    believed 

  3. COption (c)

    will believe

  4. DOption (d)

    could believe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

believed 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses a past event or belief.
  • The appropriate verb tense should indicate a past action or belief.
  • "Believed" fits well as it denotes a past action, aligning with the context.
  • Other options ("believes", "will believe", "could believe") do not fit the context of describing a past event or belief.
  • Hence, the correct word for fill in the box no. 3 is 'believe.'

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

  • Mercy (दयालुता): "Mercy" means compassion or forgiveness, which does not fit the context of discussing forest fire hazards.
  • Trend (प्रवृत्ति): "Trend" means a general direction in which something is developing or changing, which does not reflect the idea of danger or harm.
  • Failure (विफलता): "Failure" means lack of success, which does not align with describing the risk posed by forest fires.

Question 8

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Farther 

  2. BOption (b)

    Additional 

  3. COption (c)

    Another 

  4. DOption (d)

    Mostly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Another 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The word "Another" is appropriate here because it introduces an additional aspect without repeating the same idea.
  • The phrase "another important aspect" fits well in the context of listing multiple features of Romantic poetry.
  • Other options like "Farther", "Additional," and "Mostly" do not fit as naturally in this sentence.
  • Hence, the correct word for fill in the blanks no. 4 is 'another.'

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

  • Farther (दूर): Generally used to indicate physical distance, which does not fit in the context of discussing an aspect of poetry.
  • Additional (अतिरिक्त): Though close in meaning, it does not flow as naturally as "another" in this particular context.
  • Mostly (अधिकतर): Indicates the majority of instances, which is not applicable to this context.

Question 9

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    whereas

  2. BOption (b)

    therefore 

  3. COption (c)

    but 

  4. DOption (d)

    as well as

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

as well as

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'as well as'.

Key Points

  • The passage discusses various characteristics and themes of Romantic poetry.
  • The correct word should add another feature of Romantic poetry alongside personal expression and introspection.
  • "As well as" (के साथ ही साथ) fits well as it adds another element (a rejection of traditional poetic forms and structures) that complements the focus on personal expression and introspection.
  • Other options ("whereas", "therefore", "but") do not fit the context of adding additional information without implying a cause-and-effect relationship or contrast.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

  • Whereas (जबकि): "Whereas" is used to introduce a contrast.
  • Therefore (अतः): "Therefore" is used to introduce a logical conclusion or result.
  • But (लेकिन): "But" is used to introduce a contrast or exception.
  • As well as (के साथ ही साथ): "As well as" is used to add another element or information in addition to what has already been mentioned.

Question 10

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The bride had a big villa in comparison to the bridegroom’s ______ house.

  1. AOption (a)

    small 

  2. BOption (b)

    different

  3. COption (c)

    distinct 

  4. DOption (d)

    large

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

small 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The adjective "small" is appropriate because it directly contrasts with the adjective "big."
  • The sentence compares the sizes of the bride's villa and the bridegroom's house, thus the size difference "small" is relevant.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 do not appropriately convey the comparative context based on size.

Therefore, the correct statemeent is: "The bride had a big villa in comparison to the bridegroom’s small house."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "different" is incorrect because the sentence focuses on size rather than distinction or type.
  • Option 3: "distinct" is incorrect as it implies uniqueness rather than size difference.
  • Option 4: "large" is incorrect; a large house would not explain a comparative size difference with the bride’s villa.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

The professor did an objective evaluation.

  1. AOption (a)

    unbiased

  2. BOption (b)

    unfair

  3. COption (c)

    unjust

  4. DOption (d)

    prejudiced

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

unbiased

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "objective" means not influenced by personal feelings or opinions in considering and representing facts. (वस्तुनिष्ठ)
  • Example: The judge gave an objective assessment of the case based solely on the evidence presented.
  • "Unbiased" means showing no prejudice for or against something; impartial. (निष्पक्ष)
  • Example: The committee's decision was unbiased and based on merit.

Hence, we can infer that the correct substitution for 'objective' is 'unbiased'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Unfair (अनुचित): Not based on or behaving according to the principles of equality and justice.
  • Example: It was unfair to blame him for something he didn't do.
  • Unjust (अन्यायपूर्ण): Not based on or behaving according to what is morally right and fair.
  • Example: The unjust treatment of the workers led to a strike.
  • Prejudiced (पक्षपाती): Having or showing a dislike or distrust that is derived from prejudice; bigoted.
  • Example: The prejudiced remarks made by the official were condemned by all.

Question 12

Identify the incorrectly spelt word and select its correct spelling.

It is his previlage to present all the candidates for ordination to the bishop of the diocese.

  1. AOption (a)

    odination

  2. BOption (b)

    deocease 

  3. COption (c)

    privilege 

  4. DOption (d)

    prevalage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

privilege 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "prevalage" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "privilege". (विशेषाधिकार)
  • Example: It is a privilege to be invited to such an exclusive event.
  • "Privilege" refers to a special right, advantage, or immunity granted to a particular person or group. (विशेषाधिकार)
  • Example: Being able to attend the conference was a privilege for the young scientists.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Odination (ऑर्डिनेशन): This word is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "ordination". (संन्यास)
  • Example: The ceremony of ordination was held at the cathedral.
  • Deocease (डायोसिस): This word is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "diocese". (धर्मप्रांत)
  • Example: The bishop oversees the diocese with great care.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Planets in our solar system close and big for them to twinkle.

  1. AOption (a)

    very close and big 

  2. BOption (b)

    are quite close and big 

  3. COption (c)

    are too close and big

  4. DOption (d)

    is close and big

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

are too close and big

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the phrase "are too close and big" is the correct substitution.
  • The original sentence lacks the verb "are," which is necessary for grammatical correctness.
  • The phrase "too close and big" correctly describes why planets in our solar system do not twinkle like stars.

Hence, the correct statement is: Planets in our solar system are too close and big for them to twinkle.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The phrase "too close and big" indicates that the proximity and size of the planets prevent them from twinkling, which is a phenomenon typically observed in distant stars.
  • Twinkling occurs due to atmospheric disturbances affecting the light from distant stars, but planets are close enough that their light doesn't get affected in the same way.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate connotation to fill in the blank.

Raju is such a ______ always prying into other people's business!

  1. AOption (a)

    nosy 

  2. BOption (b)

    cheeky 

  3. COption (c)

    perky 

  4. DOption (d)

    stingy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

nosy 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The adjective "nosy" is appropriate because it means inquisitive in an intrusive or prying manner, which fits the context of the sentence.
  • The sentence describes Raju as someone who pries into other people's business, thus "nosy" has the correct connotation.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 do not appropriately convey the sense of prying.

Therefore, the correct sentece is: "Raju is such a nosy always prying into other people's business!"

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "cheeky" is incorrect because it means impudently bold or disrespectful, which does not fit the context.
  • Option 3: "perky" is incorrect; it means cheerful and lively, which is not relevant here.
  • Option 4: "stingy" is incorrect as it implies unwillingness to spend money, which is unrelated to the context of being intrusive.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate idiomatic expression that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Last year art critics praised Animesh as if he were a master, but he turned out to be a pleasure for a short time.

  1. AOption (a)

    a house of cards

  2. BOption (b)

    a bull in a china shop

  3. COption (c)

    a dish fit for Gods 

  4. DOption (d)

    a nine days’ wonder

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a nine days’ wonder

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The phrase "a nine days’ wonder" means something or someone that creates a short-lived sensation or interest. (अल्पकालिक चमत्कार)
  • Example: The new movie was a nine days' wonder, quickly forgotten after its initial success.
  • Explanation: The idiomatic expression "a nine days’ wonder" accurately describes something that is briefly popular or exciting but soon loses its appeal. (अल्पकालिक चमत्कार)
  • Example: The singer's sudden rise to fame was a nine days’ wonder; now, nobody remembers his name.

Therefore, the correct idiom for the given phrase is a nine days’ wonder.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • a house of cards (ताश के पत्तों का महल): Something that is insubstantial or in danger of collapsing.
  • Example: The company's business model was a house of cards, easily falling apart when the market changed.
  • a bull in a china shop (चाइना की दुकान में सांड): Someone who is clumsy in a situation requiring delicacy.
  • Example: John is like a bull in a china shop, breaking everything in sight whenever he visits.
  • a dish fit for Gods (देवताओं के लिए उपयुक्त व्यंजन): Something that is of the highest quality.
  • Example: The chef prepared a meal that was truly a dish fit for Gods, impressing all the guests.

Question 16

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

bread and butter

  1. AOption (a)

    An activity you do with determination

  2. BOption (b)

    An activity you do to improve your culinary skills

  3. COption (c)

    An activity you do to get help others

  4. DOption (d)

    An activity you do to get money for basic needs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

An activity you do to get money for basic needs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The idiom "bread and butter" means an activity or job that provides the main source of income. (जीविका का साधन)
  • Example: Writing is his bread and butter; it pays all his bills.
  • Activity to get money for basic needs refers to something that one does primarily to earn money to cover essential living expenses. (मूलभूत आवश्यकताओं के लिए पैसा कमाने की गतिविधि)
  • Example: Many people find that their 9-to-5 job is their bread and butter.

Therefore, the correct meaning of the given idiom is: An activity you do to get money for basic needs.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: An activity you do with determination (दृढ़ संकल्प के साथ की गई गतिविधि)
  • Example: She pursued her studies with determination, never giving up.
  • Option 2: An activity you do to improve your culinary skills (अपने पाक कौशल को सुधारने के लिए की गई गतिविधि)
  • Example: Taking cooking classes is a great way to improve your culinary skills.
  • Option 3: An activity you do to get help others (दूसरों की मदद करने के लिए की गई गतिविधि)
  • Example: Volunteering at the shelter is an activity she does to help others.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Although I have a lot of work to do, I am determined to finish it all by the end of the day so that I can enjoy my weekend not having any imminent due dates.

  1. AOption (a)

    with no pending reservations 

  2. BOption (b)

    without any looming deadlines

  3. COption (c)

    not leaving any work incomplete

  4. DOption (d)

    not with any pressure of due date

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

without any looming deadlines

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The phrase "a lot of work to do" refers to having numerous tasks or responsibilities that need to be completed. (बहुत काम करना)
  • Example: She has a lot of work to do before the project deadline.
  • The phrase "without any looming deadlines" means not having any upcoming due dates that are causing pressure or stress. (बिना किसी आसन्न समय सीमा के)
  • Example: He finished his assignments early so he could relax without any looming deadlines.

Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate substitute for the underlined words is 'without any looming deadlines'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: with no pending reservations (बिना किसी लंबित आरक्षण के): This phrase means having no remaining concerns or doubts.
  • Example: She accepted the job offer with no pending reservations.
  • Option 3: not leaving any work incomplete (कोई भी काम अधूरा नहीं छोड़ना): This phrase means ensuring all tasks are completed.
  • Example: He worked late to ensure he was not leaving any work incomplete.
  • Option 4: not with any pressure of due date (समाप्ति तिथि के दबाव के बिना): This phrase means without feeling the stress of upcoming deadlines.
  • Example: She completed her tasks early, not with any pressure of due date.

Question 18

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

Her voice, soft and ________, (shrill) flowed effortlessly through the room.

  1. AOption (a)

    mellow 

  2. BOption (b)

    croaky 

  3. COption (c)

    piercing 

  4. DOption (d)

    nasal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

mellow 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "shrill" means a high-pitched and piercing sound. (तेज़ और कर्कश ध्वनि)
  • Example: The shrill sound of the alarm woke everyone up.
  • "Mellow" refers to a soft, rich, and pleasant sound. (मधुर)
  • Example: Her mellow voice was soothing to listen to.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'shrill' is 'mellow'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Croaky (गला बैठा हुआ): A rough and low-pitched sound.
  • Example: His voice turned croaky after shouting for hours.
  • Piercing (चुभने वाला): A sound that is very high, loud, and sharp.
  • Example: The piercing scream echoed through the hall.
  • Nasal (नाक से बोलना): A sound produced through the nose.
  • Example: He spoke in a nasal tone that was hard to understand.

Question 19

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Aquarium 

  2. BOption (b)

    Accurate 

  3. COption (c)

    Mantain 

  4. DOption (d)

    Excellence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mantain 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "Mantain" is incorrectly spelt. It should be "Maintain". (बनाए रखना)
  • Example: It is important to maintain a healthy diet for overall well-being.
  • "Maintain" refers to keeping something in its existing state or preserving it. (बनाए रखना)
  • Example: Engineers work hard to maintain the integrity of the structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3)

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Aquarium (मछलीघर): A tank or pool in which aquatic animals and plants are kept.
  • Example: The children were fascinated by the colorful fish in the aquarium.
  • Accurate (सटीक): Correct in all details; exact.
  • Example: The scientist provided an accurate measurement of the sample.
  • Excellence (उत्कृष्टता): The quality of being outstanding or extremely good.
  • Example: The school is known for its academic excellence.

Question 20

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

He asked his father when would come the next letter.

  1. AOption (a)

    No substitution required

  2. BOption (b)

    would the next letter come

  3. COption (c)

    the next letter would come

  4. DOption (d)

    come the next letter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the next letter would come

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the verb phrase should follow the correct word order for indirect questions.
  • The correct structure for indirect questions is: subject + verb.
  • Therefore, "when would come the next letter" should be corrected to "when the next letter would come".

Hence, the correct statement is: He asked his father when the next letter would come.

<br>

Additional Information

  • In direct questions, the structure is: question word + auxiliary verb + subject + main verb.
  • Example: When will the next letter come?
  • In indirect questions, the structure changes to: question word + subject + auxiliary verb + main verb.
  • Example: He asked when the next letter would come.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Comical

  1. AOption (a)

    Remedial 

  2. BOption (b)

    Tragic 

  3. COption (c)

    Rebellious 

  4. DOption (d)

    Farcical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tragic 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "Comical" means something that is funny or amusing; it is often used to describe situations, actions, or people that cause laughter. (हास्यपूर्ण)
  • Example: The comical antics of the clown had everyone in stitches.
  • "Tragic" refers to something that is very sad, often involving death or suffering; it is the opposite of comical. (दुखद)
  • Example: The tragic story of the young hero brought tears to everyone's eyes.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Comical' is 'Tragic'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Remedial (उपचारात्मक): Intended to correct or improve something, often used in the context of education or health.
  • Example: The remedial classes helped the student catch up with the rest of the class.
  • Rebellious (विद्रोही): Showing a desire to resist authority, control, or convention.
  • Example: The rebellious teenager refused to follow school rules.
  • Farcical (हास्यास्पद): Relating to or resembling a farce; ludicrously absurd.
  • Example: The farcical situation in the courtroom left everyone confused and amused.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Skeptic

  1. AOption (a)

    Infidel 

  2. BOption (b)

    Careful 

  3. COption (c)

    Believer

  4. DOption (d)

    Atheist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Believer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "skeptic" means a person inclined to question or doubt accepted opinions. (संशयवादी)
  • Example: She was a skeptic who always questioned the effectiveness of new policies.
  • "Believer" refers to someone who accepts something as true, especially without proof. (विश्वासी)
  • Example: He is a firm believer in the power of positive thinking.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'skeptic' is 'believer'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Infidel (नास्तिक): A person who does not believe in religion or who adheres to a religion other than one's own.
  • Example: In historical contexts, infidels were often persecuted for their beliefs.
  • Careful (सावधान): Making sure of avoiding potential danger, mishap, or harm; cautious.
  • Example: She was very careful when crossing the busy street.
  • Atheist (नास्तिक): A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of God or gods.
  • Example: As an atheist, he does not participate in any religious rituals.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the following sentence.

If you do hard work, you will have the expected results.

  1. AOption (a)

    required results

  2. BOption (b)

    desired results 

  3. COption (c)

    good results

  4. DOption (d)

    bad results

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

desired results 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "desired results" means the outcomes or results that one wants or wishes for.
  • In the context of hard work, the results that one aims to achieve are typically the "desired results."
  • The other options: "required results," "good results," and "bad results" do not appropriately convey the connotation of having goals or aspirations.

Therefore, the correct statement is: If you do hard work, you will have the desired results.

Additional Information

  • Required results: This implies results that are necessary, but not necessarily what one hopes for or desires.
  • Good results: This is a general positive outcome but does not specify that it is what one aims for.
  • Bad results: This is a negative outcome and opposite of what one would want from hard work.

Question 24

Which of the following sentences contains the ANTONYM of the word ‘ignore’ ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Avoid foods which make you sick.

  2. BOption (b)

    He did not succeed in gaining custody of his daughter. 

  3. COption (c)

    To keep a tidy kitchen, do not neglect washing your dishes.

  4. DOption (d)

    Ritika recognised Kavita in the gathering.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ritika recognised Kavita in the gathering.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "ignore" means to deliberately pay no attention to something. (अनदेखा करना)
  • Example: She chose to ignore the criticism and continued with her work.
  • "Recognise" refers to identifying or acknowledging the existence or validity of something. (पहचानना)
  • Example: Ritika recognised Kavita in the gathering.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'ignore' is 'recognise'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Avoid (बचना): To keep away from or stop oneself from doing something.
  • Example: Avoid foods which make you sick.
  • Succeed (सफल होना): Achieve the desired aim or result.
  • Example: He did not succeed in gaining custody of his daughter.
  • Neglect (उपेक्षा करना): Fail to care for properly.
  • Example: To keep a tidy kitchen, do not neglect washing your dishes.

Question 25

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence.

As a punishment for his betrayal to his country, the spy who sold secrets was sent to prison.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nasty 

  2. BOption (b)

    Loyalty 

  3. COption (c)

    Perilous 

  4. DOption (d)

    Infidelity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Loyalty 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "betrayal" means the act of being disloyal or treacherous to someone or something. (विश्वासघात)
  • Example: His betrayal of his best friend was unforgivable.
  • "Loyalty" refers to the quality of being loyal and showing constant support or allegiance to someone or something. (निष्ठा)
  • Example: Her loyalty to her family is evident in everything she does.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'betrayal' is 'loyalty'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Nasty (घिनौना): Something that is very bad, unpleasant, or offensive.
  • Example: The weather turned nasty as the storm approached.
  • Perilous (खतरनाक): Full of danger or risk.
  • Example: The journey through the desert was perilous and exhausting.
  • Infidelity (विश्वासघात): The action or state of being unfaithful to a spouse or other partner.
  • Example: Infidelity can destroy the trust in a relationship.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

What would be the word on the opposite side of 'Feb' if the given sheet is folded to form a cube?

  1. AOption (a)

    June

  2. BOption (b)

    Jan

  3. COption (c)

    Mar

  4. DOption (d)

    May

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

May

Why this answer is correct

The faces opposite to each other are shown below:

⇒ As the alternate positions become opposite to each other, the remaining two faces become opposite to each other.

So, opposite pairs are:

Mar → Apr

May → Feb

Jan → June

Therefore, 'May' is the opposite of 'Feb'.

Hence, Option 4: May is the correct answer.

Question 27

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is B’s son’.

‘A × B’ means ‘A is B’s sister’.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is B’s brother’.

‘A – B’ means ‘A is B’s mother’.

Using the mathematical operators meaning the same as given above, which of the following means that ‘S is T’s husband’?

  1. AOption (a)

    T – R + V ÷ S

  2. BOption (b)

    T × R – V + S 

  3. COption (c)

    T – R ÷ V × S

  4. DOption (d)

    T ÷ R × V + S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

T – R + V ÷ S

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the Symbols:

A is
Symbol÷×+–
MeaningSonSisterBrotherMother
to B

So, Checking the options one by one

Option - (1): T – R + V ÷ S → T is the mother of R who is the brother of V who is the son of S.

Here, S is the husband of T.

Option - (2): T × R – V + S → T is the sister of R who is the mother of V who is the brother of S.

Here, S is either the nephew or niece of T.

Option - (3): T – R ÷ V × S → T is the mother of R who is the son of V who is the sister of S.

​

Here, S is either the brother-in-law or sister-in-law of T.

Option - (4): T ÷ R × V + S → T is the son of R who is the sister of V who is the brother of S.

Here, S is either the maternal aunt or maternal uncle of T.

Thus, out of all options 'T – R + V ÷ S' shows that S is the husband of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Question 28

14 is related to 126 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 21 is related to 189. To which of the following is 32 related following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    288

  2. BOption (b)

    318 

  3. COption (c)

    286 

  4. DOption (d)

    320

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

288

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 9 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 14 : 126

⇒ 14 × 9 = 126.

For, 21 : 189

⇒ 21 × 9 = 189.

Similarly, for 32 ∶ ?

⇒ 32 × 9 = 288.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 29

If 'A' stands for '÷', 'B' stands for '×', 'C' stands for '+' and 'D' stands for '-', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

28 B 7 D 176 A 8 C 13 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    187

  2. BOption (b)

    185

  3. COption (c)

    186

  4. DOption (d)

    184

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

187

Why this answer is correct

Given Equation: 28 B 7 D 176 A 8 C 13 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetABCD
Meaning÷×+-

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 28 × 7 - 176 ÷ 8 + 13 = ?

⇒ 28 × 7 - 22 + 13 = ?

⇒ 196 - 22 + 13 = ?

⇒ 209 - 22 = 187.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Question 30

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 8 + 22 × 3 = 105

(NOTE : Numbers must be interchanged and not the constituent digits e.g. if 2 and 3 are to be interchanged in the equation 43 × 3 + 4 ÷ 2, then interchanged equation is 43 × 2 + 4 ÷ 3)

  1. AOption (a)

    11 and 22

  2. BOption (b)

    22 and 176

  3. COption (c)

    8 and 11

  4. DOption (d)

    8 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11 and 22

Why this answer is correct

Given : 136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 8 + 22 × 3 = 105

According to the question, after replacing the numbers :

Option - (1): 11 and 22

136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 8 + 22 × 3 = 105 ⇒ 136 − (176 ÷ 22) × 8 + 11 × 3 = 105

136 − (176 ÷ 22) × 8 + 11 × 3 = 105

136 − 8 × 8 + 11 × 3 = 105

136 + 33 - 64 = 105

169 - 64 = 105

105 = 105 (LHS = RHS)

Option - (2): 22 and 176

136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 8 + 22 × 3 = 105 ⇒ 136 − (22 ÷ 11) × 8 + 176 × 3 = 105

136 − (22 ÷ 11) × 8 + 176 × 3 = 105

136 − 2 × 8 + 176 × 3 = 105

136 + 528 - 16 = 105

664 - 16 = 105

648 ≠ 105 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option - (3): 8 and 11

136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 8 + 22 × 3 = 105 ⇒ 136 − (176 ÷ 8) × 11 + 22 × 3 = 105

136 − (176 ÷ 8) × 11 + 22 × 3 = 105

136 - 22 × 11 + 22 × 3 = 105

136 + 66 - 242 = 105

202 - 242 = 105

-40 ≠ 105 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option - (4): 8 and 3

136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 8 + 22 × 3 = 105 ⇒ 136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 3 + 22 × 8 = 105

136 − (176 ÷ 11) × 3 + 22 × 8 = 105

136 - 16 × 3 + 22 × 8 = 105

136 + 176 - 48 = 105

312 - 48 = 105

264 ≠ 105 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 31

In a certain code language, ‘AUDIO’ is coded as ‘59416’ and ‘BEND’ is coded as ‘6238’.

How is ‘D’ coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: No specific pattern is followed here, random digits are assigned to each letter of the word.

‘AUDIO’ is coded as ‘59416’

LettersA / U / I / OD
Codes5 / 9 / 4 / 16

And,

‘BEND’ is coded as ‘6238’

LettersB / E / ND
Codes2 / 3 / 86

As 'D' is common, therefore it can be concluded that :

D is coded as → 6

So, the code for 'D' is '6'.

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 32

ZBRL is related to UWMG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IDSQ is related to DYNL. To which of the following is EVNA related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    ZIQV

  2. BOption (b)

    ZQIV

  3. COption (c)

    ZQVI

  4. DOption (d)

    ZIVQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ZQIV

Why this answer is correct

Logic: (5) is subtracted from the position values according to the English alphabetic series.

​​So,

ZBRL is related to UWMG

​ 

​And,

IDSQ is related to DYNL

​ 

​Similarly,

EVNA is related to

​

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 33

In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statements.

Statements :

Some lions are panthers.

No panther is a tiger.

Some lions are cats.

Conclusions :

I. No tiger is a cat.

II. Some lions are tiger.

III. No cat is a panther.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither conclusions I, II nor III follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions I and II follow. 

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions II and III follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion I follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Neither conclusions I, II nor III follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. No tiger is a cat → Does not follow (As some lions are panthers, no panther is a tiger and some lions are cats. As no direct relation is given between tiger and cat, therefore it is false.)

II. Some lions are tiger → Does not follow (As some lions are panthers and no panther is a tiger. So, It is possible but not definitely true)

III No cat is a panther → Does not follow (As some lions are panthers and some lions are cats. As no direct relation is given between tiger and cat, therefore it is false.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusions I, II nor III follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusions I, II nor III follows"

Question 34

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

CPW, HRA, MTE, RVI, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    VYN

  2. BOption (b)

    XXM 

  3. COption (c)

    WXM 

  4. DOption (d)

    VXN

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

WXM 

Why this answer is correct

Logic: (5), (2), and (4) are added to the first, second, and third letters position values according to the English alphabetic series respectively.

​​So,

​ 

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 35

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

​​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 36

Select the word - pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Light : Blind

  1. AOption (a)

    Tongue : Sound

  2. BOption (b)

    Voice : Vibration 

  3. COption (c)

    Language : Deaf 

  4. DOption (d)

    Speech : Dumb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Speech : Dumb

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Disability caused by the absence of a sensory function.

Here,

Light : Blind → Blind is a disability caused by the absence of light perception.

Similarly,

Speech : Dumb → Dumb is a disability caused by the absence of the ability to produce speech.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 37

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

TMF UNE VOD ? XQB

  1. AOption (a)

    KOT

  2. BOption (b)

    ACE

  3. COption (c)

    WPI

  4. DOption (d)

    WPC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

WPC

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

  1. First and second letter → (1) is added to the position values according to the English alphabetic series.
  2. Third letter → (1) is subtracted from the position values according to the English alphabetic series.

​​So,

​

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 38

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

(Note : The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    PSU 

  2. BOption (b)

    HKN 

  3. COption (c)

    DGJ 

  4. DOption (d)

    TWZ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

PSU 

Why this answer is correct

Logic: ​

Option (1): PSU

Option (2): HKN

Option (3): DGJ

Option (4): TWZ

Thus, out of all the options "PSU" is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 39

What would be the word on the opposite side of 'Kiwi' if the given sheet is folded to form a cube?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plum

  2. BOption (b)

    Melon

  3. COption (c)

    Lime

  4. DOption (d)

    Mango

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mango

Why this answer is correct

The faces opposite to each other are shown below:

⇒ As the alternate positions become opposite to each other, the remaining two faces become opposite to each other.

So, opposite pairs are:

Plum → Pear

Mango → Kiwi

Lime → Mango

Therefore, 'Mango' is the opposite of 'Kiwi'.

Hence, "Mango" is the correct answer.

Question 40

In a certain code language. 'RUIN' is coded as '3098' and 'TURN' is coded as '9630'. How is 'I' coded in the given language?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: No specific pattern is followed here, random digits are assigned to each letter of the word.

'RUIN' is coded as '3098'

LettersR / U / NI
Codes3 / 0 / 98

And,

'TURN' is coded as '9630'

LettersR / U / NT
Codes3 / 0 / 96

As, 'R', 'U', and 'N' are common, therefore it can be concluded that :

T is coded as → 6

I is coded as → 8

So, the code for 'I' is '8'.

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 41

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if '+' and '÷' are interchanged and '×' and '-' are interchanged?

39 + 13 × 12 ÷ 5 - 4 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11

Why this answer is correct

Given : 35 × 96 - 8 + 3 ÷ 11 = ? 

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘-’ are interchanged

So,​​

39 ÷ 13 - 12 + 5 × 4 = ? 

39 ÷ 13 - 12 + 5 × 4 = ?

3 - 12 + 5 × 4 = ?

3 + 20 - 12 = ?

23 - 12 = ?

11 = ?

Hence, "11" is the correct answer.

Question 42

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 43

If 15 August 2006 is a Tuesday, then what will the day of the week on 7 September 2017 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wednesday

  2. BOption (b)

    Sunday

  3. COption (c)

    Thursday 

  4. DOption (d)

    Monday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Thursday 

Why this answer is correct

Given: 15 August 2006 was Tuesday.

Now,

2006 to 2017 = 11 Years (8 Ordinary Year and 3 Leap Year).

And, In 11 Years = 3 Leap years and 8 Ordinary Year.

So, 3 Leap Year has 6 odd days,

And, 8 Ordinary Year has 8 odd days.

Total odd days = 6 + 8 = 14.

14 odd days → 14/7 = 2 weeks and 0 odd days.

then, 15 August 2017 will be Tuesday + 0 = Tuesday.

Now, the number of days between 15 August 2017 to 7 September 2017

= 16(August) + 7(September) = 23 days.

= 23 days → 23/7 = 3 weeks and 2 odd days.

So, 7 September 2017 will be Tuesday + 2 = Thursday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 44

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

23, 27, 35, 47, 63, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    83

  2. BOption (b)

    84

  3. COption (c)

    82

  4. DOption (d)

    85

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

83

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Consecutive multiplies of (4) are added subsequently.

Hence, "83" is the correct answer.

Question 45

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

​​​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 46

Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

  1. First box alternate series → Elements shift in the downward clockwise direction diagonally.

  2. Second box alternate series → Elements shift in the anticlockwise direction at the corners and the center element is replaced by new element.

Thus, the final series is :

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 47

YZWT is related to DEAX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QROL is related to VWSP. To which of the following is RSPM related, following the same logic? 

  1. AOption (a)

    WYUQ 

  2. BOption (b)

    WTXQ 

  3. COption (c)

    WXUQ 

  4. DOption (d)

    WXTQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

WXTQ

Why this answer is correct

Logic: (5) and (4) are added to the first two and last two letter position values according to the English alphabetic series respectively.

​​So,

YZWT is related to DEAX

​ 

​And,

QROL is related to VWSP

​ 

​Similarly,

RSPM is related to

​ 

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 48

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

15

Why this answer is correct

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

Here, as marked there are a total of 15 triangles.

Hence, "15" is the correct answer.

Question 49

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

13 ÷ 3 + 2 × 2 - 11 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    29

  2. BOption (b)

    39

  3. COption (c)

    49

  4. DOption (d)

    59

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

49

Why this answer is correct

Given : 13 ÷ 3 + 2 × 2 - 11 = ? 

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

<br>

So,​​

13 × 3 - 2 ÷ 2 + 11 = ? 

13 × 3 - 2 ÷ 2 + 11 = ?

13 × 3 - 1 + 11 = ?

39 + 11 - 1 = ?

50 - 1 = ?

49 = ?

Hence, "49" is the correct answer.

Question 50

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(12, 132, 11)

(13, 104, 8)

  1. AOption (a)

    (16, 146, 9)

  2. BOption (b)

    (18, 132, 7) 

  3. COption (c)

    (7, 105, 15)

  4. DOption (d)

    (9, 128, 14)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(7, 105, 15)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 3rd number = 2nd number.

Now,

For, (12, 132, 11)

⇒ (12 × 11) = 132.

For, (13, 104, 8)

⇒ (13 × 8) = 104.

Similarly, for (7, 105, 15)

⇒ 7 × 15 = 105.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

Find the percentage increase in surface area of a cube by triple each side.

  1. AOption (a)

    650%

  2. BOption (b)

    500%

  3. COption (c)

    700%

  4. DOption (d)

    800%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

800%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial side length of the cube = a

New side length of the cube = 3a

Formula Used:

Surface area of a cube = 6a2

Percentage Increase = New Surface Area−Initial Surface AreaInitial Surface Area×100New Surface Area−Initial Surface AreaInitial Surface Area×100New Surface Area−Initial Surface AreaInitial Surface Area×100New Surface Area−Initial Surface AreaInitial Surface Area×100

Calculation:

Initial Surface Area = 6a2

New Surface Area = 6(3a)2

New Surface Area = 6 × 9a2

New Surface Area = 54a2

Percentage Increase = \(\frac{54a2 - 6a2}{6a2} \times 100\)

Percentage Increase = \(\frac{48a2}{6a2} \times 100\)

Percentage Increase = 8 × 100

Percentage Increase = 800%

The percentage increase in surface area of the cube is 800%.

Question 52

R gives 38\frac{3}{8} of the toffees he has with him to S. If now R has k% of the toffies with S, then find the value of k.

  1. AOption (a)

    2003\frac{200}{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    5003\frac{500}{3}

  3. COption (c)

    200

  4. DOption (d)

    140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5003\frac{500}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the initial toffees with R be 8 units (denominator of 3/8).

Toffees given to S = 3 units.

Remaining toffees with R = 8 − 3 = 5 units.

Current toffees with S = 3 units.

According to the question: 5 = k% of 3 ⇒ 5 = (k/100) × 3 ⇒ k = 500/3.

∴ The correct answer is 500/3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Fraction of toffees given by R to S = 3/8

Current condition: R = k% of S

Let the total toffees with R initially be 8x.

⇒ Toffees given to S = 3/8 × 8x = 3x

⇒ Remaining toffees with R = 8x − 3x = 5x

⇒ Toffees currently with S = 3x

⇒ As per the question, R = (k / 100) × S

⇒ 5x = (k / 100) × 3x

⇒ 5 = 3k / 100

⇒ 3k = 500

⇒ k = 500/3

∴ The correct answer is 500/3.

Additional Information

Percentage Base Rule

When calculating x is k% of y, the value y (following the word 'of') is always the base or denominator: k = (x / y) × 100.

Fraction to Percentage

To convert any fraction a/b to a percentage, multiply the fraction by 100 and add the % symbol.

Ratio Relation

If R and S are in the ratio a : b, then R is (a/b) × 100 percent of S, and S is (b/a) × 100 percent of R.

Question 53

A motorcyclist rides his motorcycle at a speed of 90 km/hr in the first one hour and the next two hours at a speed of 120 km/hr. Find the average speed of the rider.

  1. AOption (a)

    115 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    110 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    105 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    120 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

110 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Speed in the first hour = 90 km/hr

Speed in the next two hours = 120 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance travelled / Total time

Calculation:

Distance travelled in the first hour = Speed × Time

Distance travelled in the first hour = 90 km/hr × 1 hr

Distance travelled in the first hour = 90 km

Distance travelled in the next two hours = Speed × Time

Distance travelled in the next two hours = 120 km/hr × 2 hr

Distance travelled in the next two hours = 240 km

Total distance travelled = Distance in the first hour + Distance in the next two hours

Total distance travelled = 90 km + 240 km

Total distance travelled = 330 km

Total time = 1 hr + 2 hr

Total time = 3 hr

Average speed = Total distance travelled / Total time

Average speed = 330 km / 3 hr

Average speed = 110 km/hr

The average speed of the rider is 110 km/hr.

Question 54

If the length, breadth and total surface area of a cuboid are 30 cm, 20 cm and 2600 cm2, respectively, then find its height.

  1. AOption (a)

    30 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    50 cm

  3. COption (c)

    14 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    15 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length (l) = 30 cm

Breadth (b) = 20 cm

Total surface area (TSA) = 2600 cm2

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area of a cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl)

Calculation:

Using the formula for total surface area:

TSA=2(lb+bh+hl)TSA = 2(lb + bh + hl)

Substitute the given values:

2600 = 2(30 × 20 + 20 × h + h × 30)

Simplify inside the parentheses:

2600 = 2(600 + 20h + 30h)

2600 = 2(600 + 50h)

2600 = 1200 + 100h

Subtract 1200 from both sides:

1400 = 100h

Divide by 100:

⇒ h = 14 cm

The height of the cuboid is 14 cm.

Question 55

In a triangle ABC, BD is perpendicular to AC. E is a point on BC such that angle BEA = xº. If angle EAC = 38º and angle EBD = 40º, then the value of x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    82

  2. BOption (b)

    48

  3. COption (c)

    88

  4. DOption (d)

    96

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

88

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In right-angled ΔBDC, ∠C = 90° − ∠EBD = 90° − 40° = 50°.

In ΔAEC, the exterior angle at vertex E is ∠AEB (which is x).

By the Exterior Angle Theorem, x = ∠EAC + ∠ACE.

⇒ x = 38° + 50° = 88°.

∴ The correct answer is 88.

Alternate Method

Given: BD ⊥ AC, ∠EAC = 38°, ∠EBD = 40°, and E lies on BC.

Formula Used: Sum of angles in a triangle = 180°; Exterior angle of a triangle = Sum of two opposite interior angles.

In ΔBDC, since BD ⊥ AC, ∠BDC = 90°.

⇒ ∠BCD + ∠CBD + ∠BDC = 180°

⇒ ∠BCD + 40° + 90° = 180°

⇒ ∠BCD = 180° − 130° = 50°

Now, consider ΔAEC. The angle ∠ACE is the same as ∠BCD.

⇒ ∠ACE = 50°

In ΔAEC, the sum of interior angles is 180°:

⇒ ∠EAC + ∠ACE + ∠AEC = 180°

⇒ 38° + 50° + ∠AEC = 180°

⇒ ∠AEC = 180° − 88° = 92°

Since B, E, C are collinear points on a straight line:

⇒ ∠AEB + ∠AEC = 180°

⇒ x + 92° = 180°

⇒ x = 180° − 92° = 88°

∴ The correct answer is 88.

Additional Information

Exterior Angle Theorem

The measure of an exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the measures of its two remote interior angles.

Angle Sum Property

The sum of all interior angles in any triangle is always 180°.

Linear Pair Postulate

If two angles form a linear pair (lie on a straight line), then the sum of their measures is 180°.

Question 56

A quantity 45\frac{4}{5} is changed to 56\frac{5}{6}. How much percentage change is given to the quantity?

  1. AOption (a)

    4.73%

  2. BOption (b)

    4.37%

  3. COption (c)

    4.71%

  4. DOption (d)

    4.17%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4.17%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A quantity 45\frac{4}{5} is changed to 56\frac{5}{6}.

Calculation:

Change in percentage 

⇒ (5/6 - 4/5)/4/5

⇒ 0.04166

In percentage 

⇒ 4.17%

∴ The change in given to the quantity in 4.17%.

Question 57

Study the given table and answer that question that follows. The given table shows the loan disbursed by five banks (in crores) over four years. 

Banks2016201720182019
A15201012
B15201520
C20251520
D15203510
E10202530

Which two banks have disbursed the same sum of loan over all four years?

  1. AOption (a)

    C and D

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C

  3. COption (c)

    A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    B and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

C and D

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The table shows the loan disbursed by five banks (in crores) over four years.

Banks2016201720182019
A15201012
B15201520
C20251520
D15203510
E10202530

Formula Used:

Sum of loans disbursed by each bank over all four years = Sum of loans in 2016 + Sum of loans in 2017 + Sum of loans in 2018 + Sum of loans in 2019

Calculation:

Sum of loans disbursed by Bank A:

⇒ 15 + 20 + 10 + 12

⇒ 57

Sum of loans disbursed by Bank B:

⇒ 15 + 20 + 15 + 20

⇒ 70

Sum of loans disbursed by Bank C:

⇒ 20 + 25 + 15 + 20

⇒ 80

Sum of loans disbursed by Bank D:

⇒ 15 + 20 + 35 + 10

⇒ 80

Sum of loans disbursed by Bank E:

⇒ 10 + 20 + 25 + 30

⇒ 85

Solution:

The two banks that have disbursed the same sum of loan over all four years are:

Bank C and Bank D

Question 58

What is the area (in cm2) of an equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 24 cm? Note : Round off to the nearest two decimal places.

  1. AOption (a)

    27.14

  2. BOption (b)

    28.14

  3. COption (c)

    13.86

  4. DOption (d)

    27.71

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

27.71

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Perimeter of the equilateral triangle = 24 cm.

Formula Used:

  1. Side length of an equilateral triangle = Perimeter / 3
  2. Area of an equilateral triangle = (√3 / 4) × side2

Calculation:

Side length of the equilateral triangle = 24 / 3

⇒ Side length = 8 cm

Area = (√3 / 4) × 82

⇒ Area = (√3 / 4) × 64

⇒ Area = 16√3

Approximating √3 ≈ 1.732

Area ≈ 16 × 1.732

Area ≈ 27.712

Rounded off to the nearest two decimal places, Area ≈ 27.71 cm2

The area of the equilateral triangle is 27.71 cm2.

Question 59

If the angle of the sector with radius 7 cm is 120° then find the length of the arc (in cm). (Use π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. AOption (a)

    443\frac{44}{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    223\frac{22}{3}

  3. COption (c)

    473\frac{47}{3}

  4. DOption (d)

    673\frac{67}{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

443\frac{44}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

If the angle of the sector with radius 7 cm is 120° 

Formula Used:

Length of sector = θ/360 × 2π r

Calculation:

 Length of sector = θ/360 × 2π r

⇒ (120/360) × 2 (22/7) 7

⇒ 44/3

∴ The length of the sector (in cm) is 44/3 cm.

Question 60

A mobile phone dealer buys a phone for Rs. 10,000 and sells it for Rs. 12,000. Later, he realizes that he could have sold it for Rs. 13,000. What is the percentage loss that he incurs?

  1. AOption (a)

    15%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 10,000

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 12,000

Potential Selling Price = Rs. 13,000

Calculation:

Potential Profit = Potential Selling Price - Cost Price

Potential Profit = Rs. 13,000 - Rs. 10,000

Potential Profit = Rs. 3,000

Actual Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Actual Profit = Rs. 12,000 - Rs. 10,000

Actual Profit = Rs. 2,000

Loss = 3000 - 2000 = 1000 

In percentage = (1000/10000)× 100 

⇒ 10% loss

∴ The percentage loss that he incurs is 10%.

Question 61

Two parallel chords are drawn in a circle of radius 25 cm. The distance between the two chords is 27 cm. If the length of one chord is 48 cm, then length of the other chord is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    36 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    48 cm

  3. COption (c)

    42 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    30 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of the circle = 25 cm.

Distance between the two chords = 27 cm.

Length of one chord = 48 cm.

Formula Used:

For a chord of length 2l at a distance d from the center in a circle of radius R :

l=R2−d2l = \sqrt{R^2 - d^2}

Calculation:

Let the two chords be AB and CD with AB = 48 cm and CD = x cm.

Distance of AB from the center OM = d1d_1

Distance of CD from the center ON = d2d_2

Given, d1d_1 + d2d_2 = 27 cm

Half of AB = 24 cm

Half of CD = x/2 cm

Using the formula for chord length:

24 = 252−d12\sqrt{25^2 - d_1^2}

x/2 = 252−d22\sqrt{25^2 - d_2^2}

Solving for d1d_1 :

24=625−d1224 = \sqrt{625 - d_1^2}

Squaring both sides:

⇒ 242 = 625 - d12d_1^2

⇒ 576 = 625 - d12d_1^2

⇒ d12d_1^2 = 625 - 576

⇒ d12d_1^2 = 49

⇒ d1d_1 = 7 cm

Since d1d_1 + d2d_2 = 27 :

⇒ d2d_2 = 27 - 7

⇒ d2d_2 = 20 cm

Using d2d_2 to find x:

x/2=625−202x/2 = \sqrt{625 - 20^2}

⇒ x/2 = 625−400 \sqrt{625 - 400}

⇒ x/2 = √225

⇒ x/2 = 15

⇒ x = 30 cm

The length of the other chord is 30 cm.

Question 62

In an assembly election, a candidate got 60% of the total valid votes. 3% of the total votes were declared invalid. If the total number of voters is 2,40,000, then find the number of valid votes polled in favour of the candidate.

  1. AOption (a)

    139680

  2. BOption (b)

    193680

  3. COption (c)

    139860

  4. DOption (d)

    139608

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

139680

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total number of voters = 2,40,000

Percentage of invalid votes = 3%

Percentage of valid votes in favour of the candidate = 60%

Formula Used:

Valid votes = Total votes - Invalid votes

Votes in favour of the candidate = (Valid votes) × (Percentage of valid votes in favour)

Calculation:

Total votes = 2,40,000

Invalid votes = 3% of 2,40,000

Invalid votes = 0.03 × 2,40,000

Invalid votes = 7,200

Valid votes = Total votes - Invalid votes

Valid votes = 2,40,000 - 7,200

Valid votes = 2,32,800

Votes in favour of the candidate = 60% of valid votes

Votes in favour of the candidate = 0.60 × 2,32,800

Votes in favour of the candidate = 1,39,680

The number of valid votes polled in favour of the candidate is 1,39,680.

Question 63

If three spheres of radius 75 cm, 60 cm and 45 cm are melted into one big sphere, then the radius of the big sphere is:

  1. AOption (a)

    85 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    95 cm

  3. COption (c)

    80 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    90 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

90 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

radius of there sphere are 75cm, 60cm and 45 cm

Formula used:

Volume of sphere = 4/3 πr3

a3 + b3 + c3 = 1/2 (a + b + c)[(a - b)2 + (b - c)2 + (c - a)2] + 3abc

Calculation:

Volume of new sphere = Sum of volume of all three sphere

⇒ 4/3 πR3 = 4/3 π(75)3 + 4/3 π(60)3 + 4/3 π(45)3

⇒ 4/3 πR3 = 4/3 π [753 + 603 + 453]

⇒ R3 = [753 + 603 + 453]

⇒ R3 = 1/2 × (75 + 60 + 45) [(75 - 60)2 + (60 - 45)2 + (45 - 75)2] + 3 × 75 × 60 × 45

⇒ R3 = 1/2 × 180 [152 + 152 + 302] + 3 × 75 × 60 × 45

⇒ R3 = 90 × (225 + 225 + 900) + 3 × 75 × 60 × 45

⇒ R3 = 90 [1350 + 6750]

⇒ R3 = 90 × 8100

⇒ R3 = 90 × 90 × 90

⇒ R = 90 cm

Hence, the radius of the big sphere is 90 cm.

Question 64

A retailer gets a discount of 40% on the printed price of an article. If the retailer sells it at the printed price, then his gain percentage is:

  1. AOption (a)

    3723%37 \frac{2}{3} \%

  2. BOption (b)

    6623%66 \frac{2}{3} \%

  3. COption (c)

    6613%66 \frac{1}{3} \%

  4. DOption (d)

    3313%33 \frac{1}{3} \%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6623%66 \frac{2}{3} \%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A retailer gets a discount of 40% on the printed price of an article. 

Calculation:

Let assume marked price of an article = 100

After 40% discount on the marked price,

Cost price for the retailer = 40% of Marked price

= 60% of 100

= 60

So, cost price = Rs. 60

Now the retailer is selling at the marked price,

So, profit of the retailer = 100−6060×100\dfrac{100-60}{60} \times 100

= 4060×100\dfrac{40}{60} \times 100

= 6623%66 \frac{2}{3} \%

So, the percentage of profit of the retailer is 6623%66 \frac{2}{3} \%.

Question 65

A train 550 metres long is running at a speed of 78 km/h. How many seconds will it take to cross a 350 metres long train running in the opposite direction at a speed of 30 km/h?

  1. AOption (a)

    40 seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    50 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    20 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    30 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30 seconds

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of the first train = 550 metres.

Speed of the first train = 78 km/h.

Length of the second train = 350 metres.

Speed of the second train = 30 km/h.

Formula Used:

Time = Total distance / Relative speed

Calculation:

Convert speeds from km/h to m/s:

Speed of the first train = 78 × (1000/3600) = 21.67 m/s

Speed of the second train = 30 × (1000/3600) = 8.33 m/s

Since the trains are running in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their speeds:

Relative speed = 21.67 + 8.33 = 30 m/s

Total distance to be covered = Length of the first train + Length of the second train

Total distance = 550 + 350 = 900 metres

Time = Total distance / Relative speed

⇒ Time = 900 / 30

⇒ Time = 30 seconds

The correct answer is option 4.

Question 66

Following Pie chart presents monthly expenditure by Sushma and Preeti in different heads. Sushma and Preeti make equal expenditure every month.

<br>

What is the difference between the central angle corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Health by Sushma and Preeti?

  1. AOption (a)

    102°

  2. BOption (b)

    12°

  3. COption (c)

    112°

  4. DOption (d)

    18°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

18°

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total expenditure each Sushma and Preeti = (1800 + 5000 + 6000 + 7200 + 2500 + 7500)

⇒ 30000

Expenditure incurred on health by Sushma

⇒ 7500

Angle of health expenditure = (7500/30000) × 360

⇒ 90 

Expenditure incurred on health by Preeti

⇒ 20% of 30000

⇒ 6000

Angle of health expenditure

⇒ (6000/30000)× 360

⇒ 72

∴ The difference between the central angle corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Health by Sushma and Preeti = 90 - 72 

⇒ 18°

∴ The difference between the central angle corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Health by Sushma and Preeti is 18°

Question 67

The perpendicular length from the origin to the line 6x + 8y - 48 = 0 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2.6 unit

  2. BOption (b)

    8.3 unit

  3. COption (c)

    5.2 unit

  4. DOption (d)

    4.8 unit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4.8 unit

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Equation of the line: 6x + 8y - 48 = 0

Formula Used:

Perpendicular distance from a point (x1, y1) to a line Ax + By + C = 0 is given by:

Distance=∣Ax1+By1+C∣A2+B2 \text{Distance} = \frac{|Ax_1 + By_1 + C|}{\sqrt{A^2 + B^2}}

Calculation:

Given point (0, 0) and line 6x + 8y - 48 = 0

Here, A = 6, B = 8, C = -48, x1 = 0, y1 = 0

Substitute values into the formula:

Distance=∣6(0)+8(0)−48∣62+82 \text{Distance} = \frac{|6(0) + 8(0) - 48|}{\sqrt{6^2 + 8^2}}

⇒ Distance=∣0+0−48∣36+64\text{Distance} = \frac{|0 + 0 - 48|}{\sqrt{36 + 64}}

⇒ Distance=48100\text{Distance} = \frac{48}{\sqrt{100}}

⇒ Distance=4810 \text{Distance} = \frac{48}{10}

⇒ Distance=4.8,units\text{Distance} = 4.8 , \text{units}

The perpendicular length from the origin to the line 6x + 8y - 48 = 0 is 4.8 units.

Question 68

The following table represents the number of computers (in thousands) manufactured by four companies during the period from 2010 to 2014:

YearABCD
2010240120270280
2011300530490650
20121250650430710
20134703201180890
20143201070550480

What is the difference (in thousands) between the number of computers manufactured by company A and C during the period from 2010 to 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    320

  2. BOption (b)

    340

  3. COption (c)

    230

  4. DOption (d)

    430

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

340

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The number of computers manufactured by company A during the period from 2010 to 2014:

240, 300, 1250, 470, 320 (in thousands)

The number of computers manufactured by company C during the period from 2010 to 2014:

270, 490, 430, 1180, 550 (in thousands)

Formula Used:

Difference = Total number of computers manufactured by A - Total number of computers manufactured by C

Calculation:

Total number of computers manufactured by company A:

240 + 300 + 1250 + 470 + 320

⇒ 240 + 300 = 540

⇒ 540 + 1250 = 1790

⇒ 1790 + 470 = 2260

⇒ 2260 + 320 = 2580 (in thousands)

Total number of computers manufactured by company C:

270 + 490 + 430 + 1180 + 550

⇒ 270 + 490 = 760

⇒ 760 + 430 = 1190

⇒ 1190 + 1180 = 2370

⇒ 2370 + 550 = 2920 (in thousands)

Difference =  2920 - 2580

⇒ 340

The difference between the number of computers manufactured by company A and C during the period from 2010 to 2014 is 340 thousand.

Question 69

The mean proportion of 0.14 and 2.24 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1.12

  2. BOption (b)

    0.56

  3. COption (c)

    1.02

  4. DOption (d)
    • 2.39
View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.56

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Numbers = 0.14 and 2.24

Formula used:

Mean proportion = a×b\sqrt{a \times b}

Calculations:

⇒ Mean proportion = 0.14×2.24\sqrt{0.14 \times 2.24}

⇒ Mean proportion = 0.3136\sqrt{0.3136}

⇒ Mean proportion = 0.56

∴ The mean proportion of 0.14 and 2.24 is 0.56.

Question 70

If the ratio of principal and simple interest for 5 years is 10 ∶ 7, then the rate of interest per annum is:

  1. AOption (a)

    14%

  2. BOption (b)

    15%

  3. COption (c)

    10%

  4. DOption (d)

    11%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Principal (P) to Simple Interest (SI) = 10 : 7 for 5 years.

SI per year = 7 ÷ 5 = 1.4 units.

Rate % = (SI per year ÷ Principal) × 100

Rate % = (1.4 ÷ 10) × 100 = 14%.

∴ The correct answer is 14%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Principal (P) : Simple Interest (SI) = 10 : 7

Time (T) = 5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Principal (P) = 10x and Simple Interest (SI) = 7x.

⇒ We know that, Rate (R) = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × T)

⇒ R = (7x × 100) ÷ (10x × 5)

⇒ R = 700x ÷ 50x

⇒ R = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

It is the interest calculated only on the initial principal amount. SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Total Amount (A)

The sum of the principal and the interest earned. Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI).

Annual Rate Calculation

The percentage of the principal charged as interest for one year. R = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × T).

Question 71

Evaluate the given expression.

\(\left[7+9-2\left{\left(3 \div \frac{1}{3}\right)-3\right}+27 \div 3+(27 \div 9+3)-6\right]+2\)

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

\(\left[7+9-2\left{\left(3 ÷ \frac{1}{3}\right)-3\right}+27 ÷ 3+(27 ÷ 9+3)-6\right]+2\)

⇒ [7 + 9 - 2 (9 - 3) + 27 ÷ 3 + (3 + 3) - 6] + 2

⇒ [ 7 + 9 - 2 × 6 + 27 ÷ 3 + 6 - 6] + 2

⇒ [ 7 + 9 - 12 + 9 ] + 2

⇒ [25 - 12] + 2

⇒ 15

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Question 72

A work can be done by a man and a woman in 12 days and 8 days, respectively. In how many days will the work be done by 6 men and 4 women?

  1. AOption (a)

    (1)/(2)

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    (3)/(4)

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A man can complete the work in 12 days.

A woman can complete the work in 8 days.

Formula Used:

Work done by 1 man in 1 day = 1/12

Work done by 1 woman in 1 day = 1/8

Total work done by 6 men and 4 women in 1 day = 6 × (Work done by 1 man in 1 day) + 4 × (Work done by 1 woman in 1 day)

Time taken to complete the work = 1 / (Total work done by 6 men and 4 women in 1 day)

Calculation:

Work done by 1 man in 1 day = 1/12

Work done by 1 woman in 1 day = 1/8

Total work done by 6 men and 4 women in 1 day:

⇒ 6 × (1/12) + 4 × (1/8)

⇒ 6/12 + 4/8

⇒ 1/2 + 1/2

⇒ 1

Time taken to complete the work:

⇒ 1 / 1

⇒ 1 day

The work will be completed in 1 day by 6 men and 4 women.

Question 73

After the division of a number successively by 2,3 and 5, the remainders are 1,2 and 3, respectively. What will be the remainder, if 13 divides the same number (if the last quotient is 1)?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder

Calculation:

The number X in this case will be determined as follows:

<br>

We know that, Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder

Z = (5 × 1) + 3 = 8

Y = (3 × Z) + 2 = (3 × 8) + 2 = 26

X = (2 × Y) + 1 = (2 × 26) + 1 = 53

∴ X = 53

According to question,

When (X) is divided by 13 i.e. 5313\frac{53}{13}, then the remainder will be 1.

∴ Remainder of 5313\frac{53}{13} = 1.

Question 74

If θ be acute angle and cos θ = 2425\frac{24}{25}, then the value of cot(90 - θ) is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    625\frac{6}{25}

  2. BOption (b)

    725\frac{7}{25}

  3. COption (c)

    724\frac{7}{24}

  4. DOption (d)

    524\frac{5}{24}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

724\frac{7}{24}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

If θ be acute angle and cos θ = 2425\frac{24}{25}

Concept Used:

cot(90 - θ) = tanθ 

Calculation:

cosθ = B/H

Perpendicular = √(H2 - P2)

⇒ √(625 - 576)

⇒ √49

⇒ 7

tanθ = P/B

⇒ 7/24

∴ The value of cot(90 - θ) is equal to 7/24.

Question 75

Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.

The graph shows the number of projects completed by five companies

which company has the highest growth in percentage in completed projects from 2017 - 18 to 2020 - 21?

  1. AOption (a)

    E

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

E

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of projects completed by companies from 2017-18 to 2020-21:

Company A: 34 to 34

Company B: 17 to 32

Company C: 9 to 12

Company D: 4 to 5

Company E: 2 to 5

Formula used:

Growth Percentage = ((New Value - Old Value) / Old Value) * 100

Calculation:

Company A: Growth = ((34 - 34) / 34) * 100

⇒ Growth = 0%

Company B: Growth = ((32 - 17) / 17) * 100

⇒ Growth ≈ 88.24%

Company C: Growth = ((12 - 9) / 9) * 100

⇒ Growth ≈ 33.33%

Company D: Growth = ((5 - 4) / 4) * 100

⇒ Growth = 25%

Company E: Growth = ((5 - 2) / 2) * 100

⇒ Growth = 150%

∴ Company E has the highest growth in percentage with 150%.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

The Ayush Ministry has collaborated with the UK’s London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine (LSHTM) to conduct a study on ______ for promoting recovery from COVID - 19. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Boswellia

  2. BOption (b)

    Gotu Kola

  3. COption (c)

    Ashwagandha 

  4. DOption (d)

    Brahmi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ashwagandha 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ashwagandha

Key Points

  • The Ayush Ministry has collaborated with the UK's London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine (LSHTM) to conduct a study on Ashwagandha for promoting recovery from COVID-19.
  • Ashwagandha is a traditional herb known for its potential health benefits, including stress reduction, improved energy levels, and enhanced immunity.
  • This study aims to scientifically validate the efficacy of Ashwagandha in aiding the recovery process of COVID-19 patients.
  • Ashwagandha is widely used in Ayurvedic medicine and is considered an adaptogen, helping the body to manage stress.

Additional Information

  • Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera) is also known as Indian ginseng or winter cherry.
  • It has been used in traditional Indian medicine for over 3,000 years.
  • The herb is believed to offer numerous benefits, such as reducing anxiety and stress, boosting brain function, and combating depression.
  • Clinical trials and research are ongoing to explore its full potential and therapeutic uses.

Question 77

According to the Census of India - 2011, which state has the lowest sex ratio? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan 

  3. COption (c)

    Haryana 

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Haryana 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Haryana

Key Points

  • According to the Census of India - 2011, Haryana has the lowest sex ratio among all Indian states.
  • The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males.
  • Haryana had a sex ratio of 879 females per 1,000 males in the 2011 Census.
  • This low sex ratio is a significant social issue and reflects gender disparities in the state.
  • Efforts have been made by both the state and central governments to address this imbalance through various schemes and awareness programs.

Additional Information

  • The Census of India is conducted every ten years and provides comprehensive data on various demographic parameters including the sex ratio.
  • The sex ratio is an important indicator of gender equality in a society.
  • Several factors contribute to the low sex ratio in Haryana, including societal preferences for male children, female foeticide, and other forms of gender discrimination.
  • To combat these issues, initiatives like 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' have been launched to promote the education and welfare of girl children.
  • Improving the sex ratio requires a multifaceted approach involving education, legal measures, and changes in societal attitudes towards gender.

Question 78

Sangeeta Shankar was awarded Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2021 for her contribution in playing which musical instrument? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Veena 

  2. BOption (b)

    Santoor 

  3. COption (c)

    Flute 

  4. DOption (d)

    Violin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Violin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Violin

Key Points

  • Sangeeta Shankar was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2021 for her contribution to playing the Violin.
  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is a prestigious recognition given by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy for Music, Dance, and Drama.
  • The award is given to individuals who have made significant contributions to the fields of music, dance, and drama in India.
  • Sangeeta Shankar is renowned for her exceptional skills and dedication to the art of violin playing, making her a distinguished figure in Indian classical music.

Additional Information

  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi was established by the Indian government in 1952 to promote and preserve India's vast cultural heritage of performing arts.
  • The awards are one of the highest national recognitions given to practicing artists in the field of performing arts.
  • The Akademi also supports research, documentation, and dissemination of Indian performing arts traditions.
  • Recipients of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award receive a citation, a plaque, and a cash prize.

Question 79

Which was the first dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mamluk dynasty

  2. BOption (b)

    Tughlaq dynasty

  3. COption (c)

    Khilji dynasty

  4. DOption (d)

    Lodi dynasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mamluk dynasty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mamluk dynasty

Key Points

  • Mamluk dynasty was the first dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • It was established by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1206 AD after the death of Muhammad Ghori.
  • The dynasty is also known as the Slave dynasty because many of its rulers were former slaves.
  • The Mamluk dynasty ruled from 1206 to 1290 AD and laid the foundation for subsequent dynasties in the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Notable rulers include Qutb-ud-din Aibak, Iltutmish, and Razia Sultana.

Additional Information

  • The Delhi Sultanate was a Muslim kingdom based mostly in Delhi that stretched over large parts of the Indian subcontinent for 320 years (1206–1526).
  • The Delhi Sultanate is known for its significant contributions to the cultural and architectural landscape of India, including the construction of the Qutub Minar.
  • The Sultanate period is marked by the introduction of new administrative practices and the integration of the Indian subcontinent into a larger Islamic world.
  • Following the Mamluk dynasty, the Delhi Sultanate saw the rise of other dynasties such as the Khilji, Tughlaq, Sayyid, and Lodi dynasties.

Question 80

Which of the following is one of the largest spiral galaxies? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Cygnus 

  2. BOption (b)

    Maffei 1 

  3. COption (c)

    NGC 6872

  4. DOption (d)

    Milky Way

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NGC 6872

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NGC 6872

Key Points

  • NGC 6872 is one of the largest spiral galaxies known to date.
  • It is also known as the Condor Galaxy.
  • NGC 6872 has an impressive wingspan of over 522,000 light-years, making it more than five times the size of the Milky Way.
  • It is located approximately 212 million light-years away in the constellation Pavo.
  • The galaxy's large size is attributed to interactions with a smaller galaxy, IC 4970, which has influenced its structure and star formation.

Additional Information

  • Spiral galaxies are characterized by their spiral structures, which consist of a flat, rotating disk containing stars, gas, and dust, and a central concentration of stars known as the bulge.
  • The arms of spiral galaxies are sites of active star formation and are often bright with young, hot stars.
  • Interactions and mergers with other galaxies can significantly alter the structure and size of spiral galaxies.
  • Understanding the dynamics and evolution of spiral galaxies like NGC 6872 helps astronomers learn more about galaxy formation and the role of gravitational interactions in the universe.

Question 81

As per the Census of India - 2011, the density of population per km2 was ______ persons.

  1. AOption (a)

    382 

  2. BOption (b)

    345 

  3. COption (c)

    394 

  4. DOption (d)

    320

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

382 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 382 persons

Key Points

  • As per the Census of India - 2011, the density of population was 382 persons per km2.
  • The census data provides critical information on the population density, helping in the formulation of policies and allocation of resources.
  • Population density is calculated as the number of people per unit area of land.
  • It is an important demographic indicator that helps in understanding the population distribution of a country.
  • The states with the highest population density are Bihar, West Bengal, and Kerala, while the states with the lowest population density are Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and Sikkim.

Additional Information

  • The Census of India is conducted every ten years and is one of the largest administrative exercises in the world.
  • The first census in India was conducted in 1872, and the first complete census was conducted in 1881.
  • The census provides comprehensive data on various demographic, social, and economic aspects of the population.
  • This data is crucial for planning and policy-making at national, state, and local levels.
  • The Census of India also collects information on housing, amenities, and assets possessed by households.

Question 82

Which device is used to measure the current flow using needle deflection caused by a magnetic field force acting upon a current - carrying wire? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ammeter 

  2. BOption (b)

    Psophometer 

  3. COption (c)

    Galvanometer 

  4. DOption (d)

    Potentiometer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Galvanometer 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Galvanometer

Key Points

  • A Galvanometer is an instrument for detecting and measuring electric current by needle deflection.
  • The deflection is caused by a magnetic field force acting upon a current-carrying wire within the device.
  • It is a type of sensitive ammeter and can measure small currents accurately.
  • Galvanometers are widely used in various applications including in analog meters and in the calibration of other instruments.

Additional Information

  • The Galvanometer was named after Luigi Galvani, who discovered the principle of the device.
  • It operates on the principle of electromagnetism, where an electric current creates a magnetic field.
  • There are different types of galvanometers, including the moving coil and moving magnet types.
  • Modern digital multimeters have largely replaced galvanometers for many applications but they are still used in specific scientific experiments and educational settings.

Question 83

Community tradition is related to which of the following music streams? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Karnataka Classical Music

  2. BOption (b)

    Hindustani Lokgeet

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka Lokgeet

  4. DOption (d)

    Hindustani Classical Music

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hindustani Classical Music

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hindustani Classical Music

Key Points

  • Hindustani Classical Music is deeply rooted in community traditions and has evolved over centuries.
  • This genre of music is predominantly found in the northern regions of India and is characterized by its unique ragas and talas.
  • It is one of the two main streams of Indian classical music, the other being Karnataka (Carnatic) Classical Music, which is more prevalent in the southern regions.
  • Hindustani Classical Music includes various forms such as Dhrupad, Khayal, Thumri, and Tappa, each with its distinct style and historical significance.
  • The tradition of Guru-Shishya Parampara (teacher-disciple tradition) plays a crucial role in the transmission of this musical heritage.

Additional Information

  • Karnataka Classical Music, also known as Carnatic Music, is another major stream of Indian classical music, primarily practiced in the southern part of India.
  • Hindustani Lokgeet refers to the folk music of North India, which, while traditional, is distinct from classical music in its structure and performance.
  • Karnataka Lokgeet refers to the folk music of Karnataka, which is different from Karnataka Classical Music.
  • Both Hindustani and Karnataka Classical Music have rich traditions and have contributed significantly to the cultural heritage of India.

Question 84

As on 31 March 2024, apart from the Ministry of Home Affairs, which of the following ministries is headed by Shri Amit Shah? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Corporate Affairs

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Cooperation

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Coal 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Minority Affairs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ministry of Cooperation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ministry of Cooperation

Key Points

  • Shri Amit Shah is the head of the Ministry of Home Affairs and the Ministry of Cooperation as of 31 March 2024.
  • The Ministry of Cooperation was created to realize the vision of 'Sahkar se Samriddhi' (prosperity through cooperation).
  • This ministry aims to provide a separate administrative, legal, and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement in the country.
  • It is responsible for promoting cooperative-based economic development models, including the creation of appropriate policy, legal frameworks, and ease of doing business for cooperatives.

Additional Information

  • The Ministry of Cooperation was established in July 2021 to provide a new impetus to the cooperative movement in India.
  • It aims to streamline processes for the cooperative sector and enable the development of multi-state cooperatives.
  • Shri Amit Shah, in addition to his role as the Minister of Home Affairs, has been entrusted with this ministry to leverage his experience in cooperative societies.
  • The Ministry of Cooperation works closely with various stakeholders to ensure the growth and sustainability of cooperatives across the country.

Question 85

‘Ujjwala’, a ______, was the official mascot of Khelo India – Para Games 2023. 

  1. AOption (a)

    duck 

  2. BOption (b)

    hen 

  3. COption (c)

    sparrow 

  4. DOption (d)

    goose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

sparrow 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is sparrow

Key Points

  • Ujjwala was the official mascot of Khelo India – Para Games 2023.
  • Ujjwala is depicted as a sparrow.
  • The choice of a sparrow as a mascot represents vitality, energy, and resilience, aligning with the spirit of the Para Games.
  • The Khelo India – Para Games is an initiative to promote sports among differently-abled athletes and provide them with a platform to showcase their talents.

Additional Information

  • Khelo India is a national program aimed at the development of sports in India, launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • It includes various initiatives to identify and nurture young talent, enhance sports infrastructure, and promote a strong sports culture in the country.
  • The Khelo India – Para Games are a part of this broader initiative, focusing specifically on athletes with disabilities.
  • The event features a wide range of sports, ensuring inclusivity and equal opportunities for all participants.

Question 86

Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India provides protection to President and Governors and Rajpramukhs?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 356

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 370

  3. COption (c)

    Article 361

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 352

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 361

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 361

Key Points

  • Article 361 of the Constitution of India provides protection to the President and Governors and Rajpramukhs.
  • Under this article, the President or the Governor of a state is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
  • No criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against the President or a Governor in any court during their term of office.
  • No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President or a Governor can be issued from any court during their term of office.
  • Article 361 aims to ensure the smooth functioning of the highest constitutional offices without undue legal impediments.

Additional Information

  • Article 356 deals with the imposition of President's Rule in states under certain conditions.
  • Article 370 granted special autonomy to the region of Jammu and Kashmir, which has since been abrogated.
  • Article 352 pertains to the proclamation of emergency in the country due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • The Constitution of India, adopted on 26th November 1949 and effective from 26th January 1950, is the longest written constitution in the world.
  • It establishes the fundamental political principles, the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.

Question 87

Former Karnataka CM ______ received the Padma Vibhushan at Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi for his contribution in the field of Public Affairs in 2023.

  1. AOption (a)

    D Devaraj Urs 

  2. BOption (b)

    HD Deve Gowda 

  3. COption (c)

    SM Krishna

  4. DOption (d)

    S Nijalingappa 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SM Krishna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SM Krishna

Key Points

  • SM Krishna received the Padma Vibhushan at Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi for his contribution in the field of Public Affairs in 2023.
  • He is a former Chief Minister of Karnataka and has held various significant positions in the Indian government.
  • The Padma Vibhushan is India's second-highest civilian award and is given for exceptional and distinguished service in any field including service rendered by Government servants.
  • SM Krishna has been an influential figure in Indian politics, particularly in Karnataka, and has contributed significantly to public affairs.
  • His contributions have been recognized at the national level, exemplifying his dedication and service to the nation.

Additional Information

  • SM Krishna served as the Chief Minister of Karnataka from 1999 to 2004.
  • He has also held the position of Minister of External Affairs of India from 2009 to 2012.
  • The Padma Vibhushan was instituted in 1954 and is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service in any field including service rendered by Government servants.
  • The award is part of the Padma Awards, which include Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri, and are announced annually on the occasion of Republic Day.
  • SM Krishna's receipt of the Padma Vibhushan highlights his long and distinguished career in public service and his contributions to Indian politics and governance.

Question 88

The Central Office of the Reserve Bank of India was initially established in which present city in 1935 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai

  3. COption (c)

    Chennai

  4. DOption (d)

    Kolkata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kolkata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kolkata

Key Points

  • The Central Office of the Reserve Bank of India was initially established in Kolkata in 1935.
  • It was later moved to Mumbai in 1937.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution, which controls the issuance and supply of the Indian rupee.
  • It commenced operations on 1st April 1935 during the British Rule in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

Additional Information

  • The Reserve Bank of India was conceptualized based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
  • It plays a crucial role in the development strategy of the government of India.
  • The RBI is responsible for regulating the monetary policy of the Indian rupee and ensuring the country's financial stability.
  • It also manages the country's main payment systems and works to promote its economic development.
  • The headquarters of the RBI is currently located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

Question 89

Which city hosted the Asian Champions Trophy hockey tournament in 2023 ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Chennai

  2. BOption (b)

    Ahmedabad 

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Surat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chennai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chennai

Key Points

  • Chennai hosted the Asian Champions Trophy hockey tournament in 2023.
  • This tournament is a prestigious event in the field of hockey, featuring top teams from Asia.
  • The tournament aims to promote and develop the sport of hockey within the continent.
  • Chennai, known for its rich sports culture, provided an excellent venue for the event.

Additional Information

  • The Asian Champions Trophy is organized by the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF).
  • It was first introduced in 2011, and since then, it has become a key event in the Asian hockey calendar.
  • Teams like India, Pakistan, Malaysia, and South Korea are regular participants in the tournament.
  • The event helps in improving the competitive standards of Asian teams on the global stage.
  • Chennai last hosted a major international hockey event in 2007, making the 2023 tournament a significant occasion for the city.

Question 90

The district of Shivamogga that is famous for its Iron - Ore and Manganese mineral is located in which state of India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Karnataka 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Jharkhand 

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Karnataka 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka

Key Points

  • The district of Shivamogga is located in the state of Karnataka.
  • Shivamogga is renowned for its rich deposits of Iron-Ore and Manganese minerals.
  • Karnataka is one of the prominent states in India known for its mineral wealth.

Additional Information

  • Karnataka has a diverse geography with the Western Ghats, coastal plains, and the Deccan Plateau.
  • Besides minerals, the state is also known for its rich cultural heritage and history.
  • Shivamogga, often referred to as the "Gateway of Malnad," is also famous for its scenic beauty and waterfalls.

Question 91

Of which of the following states / UTS is Rauf a folk dance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jammu and Kashmir

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Lakshadweep

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jammu and Kashmir

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir

Key Points

  • Rauf is a traditional folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • It is performed mainly by women during the spring season and on various festive occasions.
  • The dance is characterized by its rhythmic movements and is often accompanied by folk songs.
  • Rauf is an integral part of the cultural heritage of Jammu and Kashmir and reflects the region's rich traditions and customs.

Additional Information

  • The dance is usually performed in groups, with participants forming two rows and moving forward and backward in sync with the music.
  • The costumes worn during the Rauf dance are often colorful and traditional, adding to the visual appeal of the performance.
  • Rauf is also known as "Rouf" in some regions and continues to be a popular cultural expression in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 92

Which view in MS PowerPoint is useful for editing or formatting a single slide at a time?

  1. AOption (a)

    Normal view

  2. BOption (b)

    Reading view 

  3. COption (c)

    Slide Sorter view

  4. DOption (d)

    Outline view

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Normal view

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Normal view

Key Points

  • Normal view in MS PowerPoint is particularly useful for editing or formatting a single slide at a time.
  • This view displays the slide in the main window, allowing for detailed adjustments to text, images, and other elements.
  • It also provides a thumbnail view of all the slides in the presentation, making it easier to navigate between slides.
  • Normal view is the default view in PowerPoint and is ideal for creating and editing individual slides.

Additional Information

  • Reading view is used to view the presentation as a slide show without switching to full-screen mode.
  • Slide Sorter view allows you to see multiple slides at once, making it easy to organize and arrange them.
  • Outline view shows the presentation in an outline format, useful for editing text content and organizing the structure of the presentation.

Question 93

During 2015, in, ______ sector, Government of India had allowed about 49% of FDI.

  1. AOption (a)

    defence

  2. BOption (b)

    manufacture of medical devices

  3. COption (c)

    education

  4. DOption (d)

    food products

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

defence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is defence

Key Points

  • During 2015, the Government of India allowed about 49% of FDI in the defence sector.
  • This decision was part of a broader effort to boost the defense manufacturing capabilities in India, encouraging foreign companies to invest and form joint ventures with Indian firms.
  • The aim was to modernize the defense sector and reduce dependency on imports by encouraging indigenous production.
  • This policy change was expected to bring in advanced technology, foster innovation, and create employment opportunities in the defense manufacturing sector.

Additional Information

  • The Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy in India is regulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
  • The policy framework for FDI is governed by the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA).
  • The FDI policy aims to attract foreign investment, enhance technology transfer, and improve the overall competitiveness of the Indian economy.
  • FDI in certain sectors is subject to sectoral caps and approval requirements, while in other sectors, it is allowed under the automatic route.
  • Over the years, the Government of India has liberalized the FDI policy to make India an attractive destination for foreign investors.

Question 94

In kabaddi, when a raider touches any body part of any defender or any part of their clothing, it is called :

  1. AOption (a)

    pursuit 

  2. BOption (b)

    catch 

  3. COption (c)

    raid 

  4. DOption (d)

    tag

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

tag

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is tag

Key Points

  • In kabaddi, when a raider touches any body part of any defender or any part of their clothing, it is called a tag.
  • The raider's objective is to tag as many defenders as possible in a single raid and return to their half of the court without being caught.
  • If the raider successfully tags a defender and returns to their half, the tagged defender is out.
  • The game requires a combination of strength, strategy, and agility to tag defenders and evade being caught.

Additional Information

  • Kabaddi is a contact team sport that originated in ancient India.
  • The game is played between two teams of seven players each, with the objective of scoring points by raiding into the opponent's court and tagging out as many defenders as possible.
  • The sport has gained international popularity and is played in various countries across the world.
  • Kabaddi is included in major international sporting events like the Asian Games.
  • The game is known for its fast pace and requires a high level of physical fitness and strategic thinking.

Question 95

When was air transport nationalised in India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1950 

  2. BOption (b)

    1952 

  3. COption (c)

    1953 

  4. DOption (d)

    1951

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1953 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1953

Key Points

  • Air transport was nationalized in India in the year 1953.
  • The Government of India passed the Air Corporations Act, 1953, which led to the nationalization of the airline industry.
  • Two new corporations, Air India International and Indian Airlines, were established to handle international and domestic air services, respectively.
  • This move was aimed at ensuring better management, safety, and growth of the aviation sector in India.

Additional Information

  • The Air Corporations Act, 1953, was repealed in 1994, paving the way for private airlines to operate in India.
  • Before nationalization, there were several private airlines operating in India, including Tata Airlines, which later became Air India.
  • Nationalization helped in standardizing operations and improving the safety record of Indian aviation.
  • Today, the Indian aviation sector is a mix of public and private enterprises, with numerous domestic and international players.

Question 96

With which of the following communities is the word 'Langar' (community kitchen) mainly associated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jainism

  2. BOption (b)

    Buddhism

  3. COption (c)

    Sikhism

  4. DOption (d)

    Hinduism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sikhism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sikhism

Key Points

  • The concept of Langar is primarily associated with Sikhism.
  • Langar, meaning community kitchen, is a practice in Sikhism where free meals are served to all visitors, regardless of their background, religion, or social status.
  • This tradition was initiated by Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the founder of Sikhism, and has been continued by his followers to promote equality and service to humanity.
  • Langar is typically found in Gurdwaras (Sikh temples) worldwide and is an essential aspect of Sikh community life.
  • The food served in Langar is vegetarian to ensure that it is acceptable to people of all dietary preferences.

Additional Information

  • Sikhism was founded in the 15th century in the Punjab region of India.
  • The Gurdwara is a place of worship for Sikhs, where the Guru Granth Sahib (holy scripture) is read, and Langar is served.
  • The principles of Sikhism emphasize selfless service, equality, and community welfare.
  • Langar exemplifies these values by providing food to anyone in need, fostering a spirit of community and inclusiveness.
  • Other religious traditions also have similar practices of community kitchens, but the term Langar is most closely linked with Sikhism.

Question 97

Which of the following represents the Two - Factor Authentication (2FA)? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The use of two different credentials to verify identity

  2. BOption (b)

    A technique for organising files and folders on a PC

  3. COption (c)

    A tool for optimising system resources

  4. DOption (d)

    A security measure to prevent physical damage to a PC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The use of two different credentials to verify identity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The use of two different credentials to verify identity

Key Points

  • Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) involves the use of two different credentials to verify a user's identity.
  • These credentials typically include something the user knows (like a password) and something the user has (like a mobile device or hardware token).
  • 2FA enhances security by adding an additional layer of verification, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to access an account or system.
  • Common implementations of 2FA include SMS-based codes, authenticator apps, and biometric methods like fingerprint or facial recognition.

Additional Information

  • Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) is a subset of multi-factor authentication (MFA), which can involve two or more verification methods.
  • 2FA is widely used in online banking, email services, and corporate environments to enhance security.
  • Implementing 2FA can significantly reduce the risk of identity theft, phishing attacks, and other forms of cyber threats.
  • Some common 2FA methods include Google Authenticator, Authy, and hardware tokens like YubiKey.

Question 98

From which of the following Constitutions has the India Constitution adopted the system of ‘First Past the Post’? 

  1. AOption (a)

    British Constitution

  2. BOption (b)

    Irish Constitution

  3. COption (c)

    United States Constitution 

  4. DOption (d)

    French Constitution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

British Constitution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is British Constitution

Key Points

  • The system of 'First Past the Post' has been adopted by the Indian Constitution from the British Constitution.
  • In this system, the candidate who gets the most votes in a constituency wins the election, regardless of whether they have a majority of the votes.
  • It is a simple plurality system where the highest number of votes determines the winner.
  • This system is used for the election of members of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies in India.

Additional Information

  • The British Constitution is not a single written document but a collection of laws and conventions that have evolved over time.
  • India, being a former British colony, inherited several features of the British political and legal system.
  • The First Past the Post system is known for its simplicity and ease of understanding.
  • However, it has been criticized for not always representing the proportional will of the people, as a candidate can win without a majority of the votes.

Question 99

Which of the following exchange rates is determined by the market forces of demand and supply? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Floating exchange rate 

  2. BOption (b)

    Fixed exchange rate

  3. COption (c)

    Soft pegged exchange rate

  4. DOption (d)

    Hard pegged exchange rate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Floating exchange rate 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Floating exchange rate

Key Points

  • Floating exchange rate is determined by the market forces of demand and supply.
  • In a floating exchange rate system, the value of the currency is allowed to fluctuate according to the foreign exchange market.
  • This system contrasts with a fixed exchange rate where the currency is pegged to another currency or basket of currencies.
  • Floating exchange rates can provide automatic adjustment for countries experiencing economic shocks or imbalances.

Additional Information

  • Fixed exchange rate involves a government or central bank tying the official exchange rate to another country's currency or the price of gold.
  • Soft pegged exchange rate allows for more flexibility than a hard peg but still involves some level of intervention to stabilize or manage the currency's value.
  • Hard pegged exchange rate is a strict form of currency pegging where the currency's value is firmly fixed to another currency.
  • Exchange rate systems can impact international trade, investments, and economic stability.

Question 100

Which of the following reactions leads to the formation of glucose pentaacetate from acetic anhydride?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reduction 

  2. BOption (b)

    Addition of ketone

  3. COption (c)

    Oxidation 

  4. DOption (d)

    Acetylation of glucose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Acetylation of glucose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Acetylation of glucose

Key Points

  • Acetylation of glucose refers to the chemical reaction where glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form glucose pentaacetate.
  • In this reaction, the hydroxyl groups (-OH) of glucose are replaced by acetyl groups (-COCH₃).
  • The process results in the formation of glucose pentaacetate, which is a derivative of glucose where all five hydroxyl groups are acetylated.
  • This reaction is an example of an esterification reaction, specifically known as acetylation.

Additional Information

  • Glucose pentaacetate is an important compound in organic chemistry and biochemistry, often used in research and industry.
  • The reaction can be represented by the equation:

Glucose + Acetic Anhydride → Glucose Pentaacetate + Acetic Acid

  • This reaction is typically carried out in the presence of a catalyst such as pyridine to facilitate the acetylation process.
  • Acetylation is a common method used to protect hydroxyl groups during chemical synthesis.

100 questions in the full paper