Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2024: Official Paper (Held On: 03 Jul, 2024 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He _________ a long distance

  1. AOption (a)

    running 

  2. BOption (b)

    runned 

  3. COption (c)

    ran

  4. DOption (d)

    run

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ran

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The verb "ran" is the simple past tense of "run."
  • The other options ("running," "runned," "run") are not correct in this context.
  • "Running" is a gerund or present participle, "runned" is not a correct form, and "run" is the base form or past participle.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "He ran a long distance."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "running" – This is the gerund or present participle form and does not fit the past tense context.
  • Option 2: "runned" – This is an incorrect form of the verb "run."
  • Option 4: "run" – This is the base form or past participle, not the simple past tense.

Question 2

The following sentence has been divided into three segments. One of them may contain an adverbial usage error. Select the option that has the segment with the error. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

Mr. Narayanan / is a rather / lazy man.

  1. AOption (a)

    lazy man.

  2. BOption (b)

    No error

  3. COption (c)

    is a rather

  4. DOption (d)

    Mr. Narayanan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

No error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence provided is: "Mr. Narayanan is a rather lazy man."
  • There is no adverbial usage error in any segment of the sentence.
  • The sentence is grammatically correct as it stands.
  • Thus, the correct answer is "No error".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

  • Mr. Narayanan – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • is a rather – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • lazy man – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This is the correct option as there are no errors in the sentence.

Question 3

Select the option to replace the incorrect word in the following sentence.

Chotu is a bright young child, who yearn to go to school but works in his uncle’s dhaba.

  1. AOption (a)

    yearned 

  2. BOption (b)

    working 

  3. COption (c)

    worked 

  4. DOption (d)

    yearns

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

yearns

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the word "yearn" instead of "yearns."
  • The subject "Chotu" is singular and requires the verb "yearns" to match in number.
  • Therefore, the correct form should be "yearns."
  • Thus, the error is located in the verb form used in the sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "Chotu is a bright young child, who yearns to go to school but works in his uncle’s dhaba."

 

Additional Information

  • Subject-Verb Agreement: Ensuring that the verb matches the subject in number is crucial for grammatical correctness.
  • Context: The context of the sentence indicates Chotu's desire to attend school, which is expressed through the correct verb form "yearns."
  • Other Options: The other options (yearned, working, worked) do not fit the context or correct the grammatical error in the sentence.

Question 4

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

I had seen / her with her mother / in the cinema hall / yesterday.

  1. AOption (a)

    yesterday

  2. BOption (b)

    in the cinema hall

  3. COption (c)

    her with her mother 

  4. DOption (d)

    I had seen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I had seen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the past perfect tense "had seen" with the specific time reference "yesterday".
  • The past perfect tense is used to describe an action that was completed before another action in the past, and it is not typically used with specific time expressions like "yesterday".
  • The correct phrase should be "I saw her with her mother in the cinema hall yesterday," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Thus, the error is located in part 4 of the sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "I saw her with her mother in the cinema hall yesterday."

 

Additional Information

  • 1) yesterday – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 2) in the cinema hall – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 3) her with her mother – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes,

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Trees are (1)________ best gift of nature for us. They make the environment beautiful and clean. Water and sunlight are very important to helping trees grow. Human beings get food from trees. Trees also give us wood and shade. Houses, chairs, and toys (2) ________ from wood we receive from trees. Trees can be called the best friends of mankind. Many animals get their food from leaves, vegetables, and fruits grown (3) ________ trees. They also live in the shadows of trees. We (4) ________ cutting trees to save nature. Children and adults need to plant more trees and teach each other to stop causing harm to (5) ________. One tree can save many lives.

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.  

  1. AOption (a)

    No article

  2. BOption (b)

    an 

  3. COption (c)

    the 

  4. DOption (d)

    a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The superlative form "best" directly follows the definite article "the," which is typical in English to indicate that something is the most outstanding example among all options.
  • In this context, "the best gift of nature" implies that among all possible gifts of nature, trees are considered the most exemplary.
  • "The" precedes superlative adjectives like "best," "most," "least," etc., when there is a clear comparison.
  • The use of "the best gift" introduces definiteness, emphasizing the uniqueness of trees as nature's gift.
  • Using "an" or "a" would be grammatically incorrect as these articles would not correctly set up the superlative degree.
  • Omitting the article would make the phrase grammatically incomplete and unclear in meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (No article): Incorrect because it leaves the phrase incomplete and grammatically incorrect.
  • Option 2 (an): Incorrect because "an best gift" does not follow grammatical norms.
  • Option 4 (a): Incorrect because "a best gift" does not correctly set up the superlative form.

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.  

  1. AOption (a)

    was make 

  2. BOption (b)

    had make

  3. COption (c)

    will made

  4. DOption (d)

    a​re made

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a​re made

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The phrase "Houses, chairs, and toys..." lists multiple items, so the plural form "are" is the correct conjugation of the verb to agree with the plural subject.
  • The verb "made" is in the past participle form, which is appropriate following a form of "to be" in passive voice constructions.
  • The passive voice ("are made") correctly indicates that houses, chairs, and toys are created using wood without specifying who makes them.
  • "From wood" correctly describes the material used in the construction of houses, chairs, and toys.
  • Using "are made" fits the present simple tense, which is commonly used for general facts and truths.
  • The entire phrase "are made from wood we receive from trees" clearly communicates the relationship between the objects and their source material.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (was make): Incorrect because "was make" is grammatically incorrect; "was" should be followed by the past participle "made."
  • Option 2 (had make): Incorrect because "had make" is not a recognized conjugation; it should be "had made."
  • Option 3 (will made): Incorrect because "will made" is incorrect tense-wise; it should be "will be made."

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.  

  1. AOption (a)

    on

  2. BOption (b)

    of 

  3. COption (c)

    out 

  4. DOption (d)

    for

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

on

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The preposition "on" is commonly used to indicate something that is physically resting or growing on a surface or object.
  • "Grown on trees" specifies that leaves, vegetables, and fruits are physically situated on the trees as they grow.
  • This usage is consistent with how we describe the location of parts of plants, such as leaves growing on branches or fruits hanging on trees.
  • The phrase "grown on trees" accurately conveys the natural process where these items develop on the branches and structure of the tree.
  • Using "on" fits the context of explaining where certain foods that animals consume come from.
  • The preposition "on" effectively indicates the source or origin of the vegetation that animals eat.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (of): Incorrect because "grown of trees" does not convey the correct relationship of physical growth on the tree.
  • Option 3 (out): Incorrect because "grown out trees" does not fit grammatically or contextually; the phrase should be "grown out of," which is not suitable here.
  • Option 4 (for): Incorrect because "grown for trees" suggests that the leaves, vegetables, and fruits are intended for the trees, which is not the intended meaning.

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.  

  1. AOption (a)

    may stopped 

  2. BOption (b)

    should stop

  3. COption (c)

    have stop

  4. DOption (d)

    can stopped

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

should stop

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The context of the passage focuses on ecological conservation and the relationship between humans, trees, and the environment, making "nature" the most fitting word.
  • The phrase "stop causing harm to nature" is a common and clear expression of the idea that humans should protect the natural world.
  • "Nature" is a noun that encompasses the entire environment, including plants, animals, and ecosystems, which is what the passage is talking about.
  • The passage discusses saving nature and planting trees, both of which are directly related to protecting and preserving natural ecosystems.
  • Using "nature" maintains the thematic consistency of the passage, which is centered on natural conservation and the benefits trees provide to the natural world.
  • The phrase effectively communicates the call to action for environmental protection and stewardship.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (natural): Incorrect because "natural" is an adjective and does not fit the grammatical structure of the sentence.
  • Option 2 (nurture): Incorrect because "nurture" refers to the act of caring and nurturing, which does not fit contextually here.
  • Option 4 (nurturing): Incorrect because "nurturing" is a present participle or gerund form, and does not fit grammatically in the sentence.v

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. 

  1. AOption (a)

    natural 

  2. BOption (b)

    nurture 

  3. COption (c)

    nature 

  4. DOption (d)

    nurturing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

nature 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • "Nature" is a noun that encompasses the entire natural world, including plants, animals, and ecosystems, which aligns with the passage’s thematic focus.
  • The phrase "harm to nature" is a common expression and accurately conveys the importance of protecting the environment.
  • Using "nature" maintains the thematic consistency of the passage, which emphasizes ecological conservation and the benefits trees provide.
  • The context of the passage is about preserving the environment and preventing damage, making "nature" the most contextually appropriate option.
  • Adding "nature" fits grammatically within the sentence, ensuring the passage flows smoothly and maintains clear meaning.
  • The overall theme is about the human relationship with the environment, and "nature" directly refers to all elements of the natural world that we must protect.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3.'

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (natural): Incorrect because "natural" is an adjective and the sentence requires a noun.
  • Option 2 (nurture): Incorrect because "nurture" is a noun or verb related to care and upbringing, which doesn't fit the context of environmental conservation.
  • Option 4 (nurturing): Incorrect because "nurturing" is a gerund or adjective, and does not fit grammatically as the required noun in the sentence.

Question 10

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Chaste

  1. AOption (a)

    Flashy 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sullied 

  3. COption (c)

    Pure 

  4. DOption (d)

    Corrupt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pure 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "chaste" means morally pure or abstaining from extramarital, or from all, sexual intercourse. (शुद्ध)
  • Example: She lived a chaste life, dedicated to her spiritual beliefs.
  • "Pure" refers to something that is not mixed or adulterated with any other substance or material; it also means morally clean. (शुद्ध)
  • Example: The water from the mountain spring is pure and refreshing.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'chaste' is 'pure'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Flashy (चमकीला): Ostentatiously attractive or impressive.
  • Example: He wore a flashy suit that caught everyone's attention.
  • Sullied (मैला): Made dirty or impure.
  • Example: Her reputation was sullied by false accusations.
  • Corrupt (भ्रष्ट): Dishonestly exploiting one's power for personal gain.
  • Example: The corrupt official was finally arrested for accepting bribes.

Question 11

Select the option that can substitute the bracketed word segment meaningfully.

If you behave well and exhibit good manners, then (people will be likely to remember you) in a positive way.

  1. AOption (a)

    people likely you remember

  2. BOption (b)

    people will like in remember 

  3. COption (c)

    people are likely to remember you

  4. DOption (d)

    people are like remember you 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

people are likely to remember you

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The correct substitution should ensure that the sentence is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 contain grammatical errors or do not make sense in the context.
  • Option 3, "people are likely to remember you," is grammatically correct and fits well within the sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct choice is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "If you behave well and exhibit good manners, then people are likely to remember you in a positive way."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "people likely you remember" – This option has incorrect word order and is grammatically incorrect.
  • Option 2: "people will like in remember" – This option is not coherent and does not make sense in the context.
  • Option 4: "people are like remember you" – This option is also grammatically incorrect and does not convey the intended meaning.
  • Option 5: – Not provided, thus irrelevant in this context.

Question 12

Read the sentence carefully and select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined part.

Greta Thunberg’s tirade against environmental degeneration shocked the world leaders.

  1. AOption (a)

    debatable account

  2. BOption (b)

    minute observation 

  3. COption (c)

    long and angry speech

  4. DOption (d)

    innate liberal opinion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

long and angry speech

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The term "tirade" typically refers to a long and angry speech, especially one that criticizes someone or something.
  • In the context of Greta Thunberg's speech, "long and angry speech" accurately captures the essence of her message against environmental degeneration.
  • The other options do not fit the context as precisely as "long and angry speech" does.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Greta Thunberg’s long and angry speech against environmental degeneration shocked the world leaders."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "debatable account" – This does not convey the intensity and length of Greta Thunberg's speech.
  • Option 2: "minute observation" – This implies a detailed, careful look at something, which is not the case here.
  • Option 4: "innate liberal opinion" – This does not capture the nature of the speech.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The movie ‘Desperate Ghosts’ was watched by my younger brother and he was ____________ horror.

  1. AOption (a)

    filled with 

  2. BOption (b)

    filled of 

  3. COption (c)

    filled on

  4. DOption (d)

    filled off

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

filled with 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The correct preposition to use with "filled" in this context is "with." Therefore**, "filled with horror"** is the correct phrase.
  • Option 2 (filled of) is incorrect because "of" is not the appropriate preposition to use with "filled" in this context.
  • Option 3 (filled on) is incorrect because "on" does not convey the correct meaning in this context.
  • Option 4 (filled off) is grammatically incorrect and does not make sense in this context.

Therefore, the correct option is filled with.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

It was her who first saw the criminal.

  1. AOption (a)

    hers 

  2. BOption (b)

    she 

  3. COption (c)

    them 

  4. DOption (d)

    him

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

she 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the incorrect pronoun "her" in the subject position.
  • The correct pronoun to use in the subject position is "she".
  • Therefore, the sentence should read "It was she who first saw the criminal."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "It was she who first saw the criminal."

 

Additional Information

  • Pronoun Usage: Pronouns must be used correctly to maintain the grammatical integrity of a sentence. In this case, "she" is the correct subject pronoun.
  • Subject-Verb Agreement: Always ensure that the subject and verb in a sentence agree in number and person.
  • Clarity: Using the correct pronoun helps in maintaining the clarity of the sentence.

Question 15

Read the sentence carefully and select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined part.

The sudden declaration of war between two countries led to a disarray.

  1. AOption (a)

    elusive situation

  2. BOption (b)

    peaceful treaty 

  3. COption (c)

    refined argument

  4. DOption (d)

    disorderly situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

disorderly situation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the term "a disarray," which is incorrect.
  • "Disarray" is an uncountable noun and does not require an article ("a" or "an").
  • The correct phrase should be "led to disarray," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Thus, the error is located in the use of the term "a disarray."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is**: disorderly situation**.

Correct Sentence: "The sudden declaration of war between two countries led to a disorderly situation."

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "elusive situation" – This option does not fit the context as it suggests something hard to grasp or define, which does not match the scenario of war leading to chaos.
  • Option 2: "peaceful treaty" – This option is incorrect as it contradicts the context of war.
  • Option 3: "refined argument" – This option is incorrect as it does not fit the context of war leading to chaos.
  • Option 4: "disorderly situation" – This option correctly captures the chaos and confusion resulting from the declaration of war.

Question 16

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

This makes readers contemplate the motives people have for performing acts of charity.

  1. AOption (a)

    overlook 

  2. BOption (b)

    deviate 

  3. COption (c)

    follow up 

  4. DOption (d)

    understate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

overlook 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "contemplate" means to think deeply or carefully about something. (विचार करना)
  • Example: She likes to contemplate the meaning of life during her morning walks.
  • "Overlook" refers to fail to notice or consider something or someone. (नज़रअंदाज़ करना)
  • Example: It is easy to overlook small details when you are in a hurry.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'contemplate' is 'overlook'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Deviate (विचलित होना): To depart from an established course or norm.
  • Example: He tends to deviate from the main topic during discussions.
  • Follow up (अनुसरण करना): To pursue or investigate something further.
  • Example: The doctor asked her to follow up with him in a week.
  • Understate (कम करके आंकना): To describe something as being smaller or less important than it actually is.
  • Example: He tends to understate his achievements.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Cheerful

  1. AOption (a)

    Joyful 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sunny 

  3. COption (c)

    Hilarious 

  4. DOption (d)

    Gloomy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gloomy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "Cheerful" means noticeably happy and optimistic. (प्रसन्न)
  • Example: She always has a cheerful smile on her face, no matter the situation.
  • "Gloomy" refers to a state of being dark, depressing, or pessimistic. (उदास)
  • Example: The room felt gloomy after the lights went out and the rain started pouring.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Cheerful' is 'Gloomy'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Joyful (आनंदित): Feeling, expressing, or causing great pleasure and happiness.
  • Example: The joyful children ran around the playground with big smiles on their faces.
  • Sunny (धूपदार): Bright with sunlight; cheerful and optimistic.
  • Example: She has a sunny disposition that brightens up everyone's day.
  • Hilarious (प्रफुल्लित करने वाला): Extremely amusing or funny.
  • Example: The comedian's hilarious jokes had everyone in stitches.

Question 18

Select the most appropriate to fill in the blank.

The boxer was knocked out cold by a powerful________ punch to the jaw.

  1. AOption (a)

    write 

  2. BOption (b)

    right 

  3. COption (c)

    rite

  4. DOption (d)

    wright

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

right 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The word "right" is the correct choice in this context, as it refers to the direction or side, fitting with the context of the punch.
  • The other options "write", "rite", and "wright" have entirely different meanings and do not fit the context of a punch.
  • The term "right punch" is commonly used in boxing to describe a punch thrown with the right hand.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "The boxer was knocked out cold by a powerful right punch to the jaw."

Additional Information

  • Write – To form letters or words on a surface with a pen, pencil, or other instrument.
  • Rite – A religious or other solemn ceremony or act.
  • Wright – A maker or builder, such as a playwright or shipwright.
  • Right – Correct or appropriate, or a direction (opposite of left). In this context, it refers to the direction/side.

Question 19

Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined word segment in the given sentence.

Delivering that furniture to the tenth floor without the lift and an incline is incredibly foolish and next to impossible.

  1. AOption (a)

    like nailing jelly to the tree

  2. BOption (b)

    like a tree known by its fruits

  3. COption (c)

    as tight as the bark of the tree

  4. DOption (d)

    like going between the bark and the tree

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

like nailing jelly to the tree

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The given word segment "incredibly foolish and next to impossible" means something that is extremely unwise and almost impossible to achieve. (अत्यंत मूर्खतापूर्ण और लगभग असंभव)
  • Example: Climbing Mount Everest without any training is incredibly foolish and next to impossible.
  • "like nailing jelly to the tree" is an idiom that means trying to do something that is very difficult or impossible. (ऐसा कार्य करने की कोशिश करना जो बहुत कठिन या असंभव हो)
  • Example: Trying to get the kids to sit still during the long lecture was like nailing jelly to the tree.

Therefore, the correct answer is: like nailing jelly to the tree.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • like a tree known by its fruits (पेड़ को उसके फलों से पहचाना जाता है): This idiom means that you can judge the quality of something by its results or outcomes.
  • Example: A teacher's effectiveness can be seen in the success of their students, like a tree known by its fruits.
  • as tight as the bark of the tree (पेड़ की छाल की तरह कसा हुआ): This idiom means something that is very close or tight.
  • Example: The friends were as tight as the bark of the tree, never seen apart.
  • like going between the bark and the tree (छाल और पेड़ के बीच जाना): This idiom means to interfere in a close relationship.
  • Example: Trying to mediate between the two lifelong friends was like going between the bark and the tree.

Question 20

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Apparent 

  2. BOption (b)

    Acknowledgement 

  3. COption (c)

    Fulfil 

  4. DOption (d)

    Conscientous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Conscientous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Conscientous" is incorrectly spelt and should be "Conscientious". It means wishing to do one's work or duty well and thoroughly. (ईमानदार)
  • Example: She is a conscientious worker who pays attention to details.
  • "Conscientious" refers to a person who is diligent and careful in their work. (ईमानदार)
  • Example: He was a conscientious student, always completing his assignments on time.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Apparent (स्पष्ट): Clearly visible or understood; obvious.
  • Example: The error was apparent to everyone who looked at the report.
  • Acknowledgement (स्वीकृति): Acceptance of the truth or existence of something.
  • Example: He gave an acknowledgment of her contribution to the project.
  • Fulfil (पूरा करना): Achieve or realize something desired, promised, or predicted.
  • Example: She hopes to fulfil her dreams of becoming a doctor.

Question 21

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a spelling error.

In all instances of frustrasion, / you will always find / the anger directed towards / a single person only.

  1. AOption (a)

    you will always find

  2. BOption (b)

    the anger directed towards

  3. COption (c)

    In all instances of frustrasion 

  4. DOption (d)

    a single person only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

In all instances of frustrasion 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "frustrasion" is a misspelling of the correct word "frustration". "Frustration" means the feeling of being upset or annoyed as a result of being unable to change or achieve something. (निराशा)
  • Example: She couldn't hide her frustration when the project was delayed again.
  • The correct word is "frustration". (निराशा)
  • Example: His frustration was evident when the computer crashed just before he saved his work.

Therefore, the correct answer is:  'In all instances of frustration'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • you will always find (आप हमेशा पाएंगे): This segment is correct and means that something will be consistently discovered or observed.
  • Example: You will always find her reading a book in her free time.
  • the anger directed towards (गुस्सा निर्देशित होता है): This segment is correct and means that anger is aimed at or focused on someone or something.
  • Example: The anger directed towards him was understandable given his actions.
  • a single person only (केवल एक व्यक्ति): This segment is correct and means that something is limited to one individual.
  • Example: The blame was placed on a single person only, even though it was a team effort.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘echoed’ to fill in the blank.

The thunderous applause ________ through the stadium.

  1. AOption (a)

    reverberated 

  2. BOption (b)

    pulsed 

  3. COption (c)

    bounced

  4. DOption (d)

    recoiled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

reverberated 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "reverberated" means to echo or resound, especially over a large area, which fits the context of the thunderous applause echoing through the stadium.
  • The sentence describes the sound of applause filling the stadium, and "reverberated" perfectly captures the idea of the sound being reflected and carried throughout the space.
  • The other options: "pulsed," "bounced," and "recoiled" do not fit as well. "Pulsed" refers to a rhythmic movement or vibration, "bounced" implies a physical rebound, and "recoiled" means to spring back, which does not align with the context of sound echoing.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: The thunderous applause reverberated through the stadium.

Additional Information

  • Pulsed (धड़कना): Refers to a rhythmic or periodic beating or vibration, not suitable for describing the spread of sound.
  • Bounced (उछलना): Refers to something rebounding off a surface, not related to the propagation of sound in the context given.
  • Recoiled (पीछे हटना): Refers to a backward movement, usually due to shock or recoil, which does not apply to the echoing sound of applause.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the sentence.

He tried to improve the working conditions in his office.

  1. AOption (a)

    Spoil 

  2. BOption (b)

    Spatter 

  3. COption (c)

    Sprinkle 

  4. DOption (d)

    Specify

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Spoil 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "improve" means to make something better or enhance its quality. (सुधारना)
  • Example: She enrolled in a course to improve her English skills.
  • "Spoil" means to damage or ruin something, making it worse or less enjoyable. (बिगाड़ना)
  • Example: The rain could spoil our picnic plans.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'improve' is 'spoil'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Spatter (छींटें देना): To scatter or splash liquid or small particles.
  • Example: The paint spattered all over the floor as she knocked over the can.
  • Sprinkle (छिड़कना): To scatter small drops or particles of a substance over a surface.
  • Example: She sprinkled some sugar on top of the cake.
  • Specify (निर्दिष्ट करना): To state or identify clearly and definitely.
  • Example: Please specify the time and place for the meeting.

Question 24

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Can I please request you all to stand up?

  1. AOption (a)

    claim 

  2. BOption (b)

    petition 

  3. COption (c)

    plead 

  4. DOption (d)

    require

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

petition 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • "Request" means to ask for something politely or formally.
  • "Petition" means to make a formal or polite request to a person or authority, making it the closest synonym in the given context.
  • In the sentence, the speaker is politely asking everyone to stand up, which matches the meaning of "petition".
  • Hence, Option 2 is the most appropriate synonym.

Therefore, the correct answer is Petition.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Claim" – Means to assert ownership, state something as true, or demand something as a right. It does not mean to ask politely.
  • Option 3: "Plead" – Means to make an emotional or urgent appeal. It implies desperation rather than a polite request.
  • Option 4: "Require" – Means to need or demand something as necessary. It does not convey the polite nature of a request.

Question 25

Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

This gun should be handled with care and ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    shot for safety

  2. BOption (b)

    mince the matters 

  3. COption (c)

    nip in the bud 

  4. DOption (d)

    kept at arm’s length

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

kept at arm’s length

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The idiom "kept at arm’s length" means to avoid intimacy or close contact with someone or something.
  • In the context of the sentence, it suggests that the gun should be handled carefully and kept at a safe distance to avoid accidents.
  • Other options do not fit the context of handling a gun with care.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "This gun should be handled with care and kept at arm’s length."

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "shot for safety" – This phrase is incorrect and does not make sense in the context of handling a gun with care.
  • Option 2: "mince the matters" – This idiom means to speak indirectly or to soften the impact of something, which is not relevant to the context.
  • Option 3: "nip in the bud" – This idiom means to stop something at an early stage, which does not fit the context of handling a gun.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.  

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 27

ADFI is related to CFHK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, EHJM is related to GJLO. To which of the following is ILNQ related to, following the same logic? 

  1. AOption (a)

    KNQS

  2. BOption (b)

    KMPS

  3. COption (c)

    KNPS

  4. DOption (d)

    KNQT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

KNPS

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:​

ADFI is related to CFHK

​ 

​And,

EHJM is related to GJLO

​ 

​Similarly,

ILNQ is related to

​ 

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 28

In a certain code language, 'BABE' is coded as '20' and 'EACH' is coded as '34'. What is the code for 'FACT' in the given code language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    63

  2. BOption (b)

    62

  3. COption (c)

    64

  4. DOption (d)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

60

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:​

'BABE' is coded as '20'

​ 

​And,

'EACH' is coded as '34'

​ 

​Similarly,

'FACT' is coded as

​ 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 29

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10

Why this answer is correct

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

Here, as marked there are a total of 10 triangles.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 30

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

59 + 39 - 63 × 21 ÷ 26 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    93

  2. BOption (b)

    96

  3. COption (c)

    98

  4. DOption (d)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

98

Why this answer is correct

Given : 59 + 39 - 63 × 21 ÷ 26 = ?

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

59 - 39 + 63 ÷ 21 × 26 = ?

59 - 39 + 3 × 26 = ?

59 + 78 - 39 = ?

137 - 39 = ?

98 = ?

Hence, "98" is the correct answer.

Question 31

If ‘R’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘K’ stands for ‘×’, ‘G’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘–’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

32 G 15 R 15D 17 K 18 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    –879

  2. BOption (b)

    –456

  3. COption (c)

    –235

  4. DOption (d)

    –273 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

–273 

Why this answer is correct

Given Equation: 32 G 15 R 15 D 17 K 18 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetRKGD
Meaning÷×+-

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 32 + 15 ÷ 15 - 17 × 18 = ?

⇒ 32 + 1 - 17 × 18 = ?

⇒ 32 + 1 - 306 = ?

⇒ 33 - 306 = -273.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

Question 32

In a certain language,

A & B means A is the wife of B,

A ÷ B means A is the mother of B,

A × B means A is the son of B,

A + B means A is the sister of B and

A @ B means A is the father of B.

If A @ B & C @ D + K ÷ F, how is C related to K?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister

  3. COption (c)

    Brother

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Father

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the Symbols:

A to
Symbol&÷×+@
MeaningWifeMotherSonSisterFather
is B

 

 

 

 

Given: A @ B & C @ D + K ÷ F

A @ B → A is the father of B.

B & C → B is the wife of C.

C @ D → C is the father of D.

D + K → D is the sister of K.​

K ÷ F → K is the mother of F.

Here, C is the father of K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 33

If 19 July 2000 is Wednesday, then what will be the day of the week on 17 March 2015?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Sunday 

  2. BOption (b)

    Tuesday 

  3. COption (c)

    Wednesday 

  4. DOption (d)

    Friday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tuesday 

Why this answer is correct

Given: 19 July 2000 was Wednesday.

Now,

2000 to 2015 = 15 Years (12 Ordinary Years and 3 Leap Years).

So, 3 Leap Years have 6 odd days,

And, 12 Ordinary Years have 12 odd days.

Total odd days = 6 + 12 = 18.

18 odd days → 18/7 = 2 weeks and 4 odd days.

then, 19 July 2015 will be Wednesday + 4 = Sunday.

Now, the number of days between 17 March 2015 to 19 July 2015

= 14(March) + 30(Apr) + 31(May) + 30(June) + 19(July) = 124 days.

= 124 days → 124/7 = 17 weeks and 5 odd days.

So, 17 March 2015 will be Sunday - 5 = Tuesday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 34

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

105 ÷ 2 + 4 - 120 × 6 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    126

  2. BOption (b)

    216

  3. COption (c)

    266

  4. DOption (d)

    226

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

226

Why this answer is correct

Given : 105 ÷ 2 + 4 - 120 × 6 = ? 

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

105 × 2 - 4 + 120 ÷ 6 = ?

105 × 2 - 4 + 20 = ?

210 + 20 - 4 = ?

230 - 4 = ?

226 = ?

Hence, "226" is the correct answer.

Question 35

In a certain code language. 'RISK' is coded as '3921' and 'KIRT' is coded as '1693'. How is 'S' coded in the given language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: No specific pattern is followed here, random digits are assigned to each letter of the word.

'RISK' is coded as '3921'

LettersR / I / KS
Codes3 / 9 / 12

And,

'KIRT' is coded as '1693'

LettersR / I / KT
Codes3 / 9 / 16

Therefore it can be concluded that :

S is coded as → 2

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 36

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

WYS, BDX, GIC, LNH. ?

  1. AOption (a)

    QSM

  2. BOption (b)

    PSM

  3. COption (c)

    QMS

  4. DOption (d)

    SMQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QSM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:​

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 37

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

244, 232.1, 220.2, 208.3, 196.4 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    176.5

  2. BOption (b)

    184.5

  3. COption (c)

    172.5

  4. DOption (d)

    180.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

184.5

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "184.5" is the correct answer.

Question 38

What should come in place of X in the given series?

3 9 21 41 71 X

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    110

  3. COption (c)

    113

  4. DOption (d)

    117

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

113

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "113" is the correct answer.

Question 39

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 40

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 41

129 is related to 387 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 164 is related to 492. To which of the following is 148 related, following the same logic? 

  1. AOption (a)

    444 

  2. BOption (b)

    362

  3. COption (c)

    352 

  4. DOption (d)

    468 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

444 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 3) = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 129 : 387

⇒ 129 × 3 = 387.

For, 164 : 492

⇒ 164 × 3 = 492.

Similarly, for 148 : ?

⇒ 148 × 3 = 444.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 42

In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statements.

Statements:

Some carrots are onions.

All onions are potatoes.

All potatoes are radish.

Conclusions:

I. Some carrots are radish.

II. All onions are radish.

III. No carrot is a potato.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion I follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion III follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both conclusions I and II follow.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some carrots are radish → Follow (As some carrots are onions, all onions are potatoes and all potatoes are radish. As some part of carrots is common with onions which whole comes in potatoes which whole comes in radish, therefore some carrots are radish is true.)

II. All onions are radish → Follow (As all onions are potatoes and all potatoes are radish. As some part of carrots is common with onions which whole comes in potatoes which whole comes in radish, therefore all onions are radish is true.)

III. No carrot is a potato → Does not follow (As some carrots are onions and all onions are potatoes. As no direct relation is given between carrot and potato, therefore no carrot is potato is false.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follow"

Question 43

cSelect the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).  

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option Figure - 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 44

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 45

Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. AOption (a)

    ​

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

  1. The first box series → Corner elements shift in the clockwise direction and the rest elements interchange positions.

2) The second box series → Bottom elements shift in the clockwise direction and the rest elements interchange positions. 

Thus, the final series is :

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 46

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

BOJ, FQO, JST, NUY, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    QWD 

  2. BOption (b)

    QVC 

  3. COption (c)

    RVB 

  4. DOption (d)

    RWD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RWD

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 47

If 10 October 2003 was a Friday, then what was the day of the week on 8 October 2015?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Thursday 

  2. BOption (b)

    Friday 

  3. COption (c)

    Tuesday 

  4. DOption (d)

    Monday 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Thursday 

Why this answer is correct

Given: 10 October 2003 was Friday.

Now,

2003 to 2015 = 12 Years (9 Ordinary Years and 3 Leap Years).

And, In 12 Years = 3 Leap years and 9 Ordinary Years.

So, 3 Leap Years have 6 odd days,

And, 9 Ordinary Years have 9 odd days.

Total odd days = 6 + 9 = 15.

15 odd days → 15/7 = 2 weeks and 1 odd day.

Then, 10 October 2015 will be Friday + 1 = Saturday.

Now, the number of days between 10 October 2015 to 8 October 2015

= 2 days.

So, 8 October 2015 will be Saturday - 2 = Thursday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 48

This question consists of a pair of words which have a certain relationship to each other. Select the pair which does NOT have the same relationship.

Allure : Repulse

  1. Creation : Destruction

  2. Fluctuate : Stabilize

  3. Immense : Huge

4) Notion : Reality

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Opposites.

Here,

Allure : Repulse → Allure is the opposite of Repulse.

Similarly,

Creation : Destruction → Creation is the opposite of Destruction.

Fluctuate : Stabilize → Fluctuate is the opposite of Stabilize.

Notion : Reality → Notion is the opposite of Reality.

However,

Immense : Huge → Immense is not the opposite of Huge; they are synonyms.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 49

‘P + F’ means ‘P is the son of F’

‘P – F’ means ‘P is the wife of F’

‘P × F’ means ‘P is the brother of F’

‘P ÷ F’ means ‘P is the mother of F’

‘P = F’ means ‘P is the sister of F’.

What does ‘K = R ÷ M’ mean?

  1. AOption (a)

    K is the aunt (mother’s sister) of M 

  2. BOption (b)

    K is the daughter of M

  3. COption (c)

    K is the niece of M

  4. DOption (d)

    K is the sister of M

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

K is the aunt (mother’s sister) of M 

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the Symbols:

P to
Symbol+–×÷=
MeaningSonWifeBrotherMotherSister
is F

 

 

 

 

Given: K = R ÷ M

K = R → K is the sister of R.

R ÷ M → R is the mother of M.

Here, K is the maternal aunt or mother’s sister of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 50

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(4, 16, 32)

(7, 49, 98)

  1. AOption (a)

    (12, 134, 288)

  2. BOption (b)

    (12, 144, 288) 

  3. COption (c)

    (12, 144, 278)

  4. DOption (d)

    (14, 144, 288)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(12, 144, 288) 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number)2 = 2nd number; 2nd number × 2 = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (4, 16, 32)

⇒ 42 = 16;

⇒ 16 × 2 = 32.

For, (7, 49, 98)

⇒ 72 = 49;

⇒ 49 × 2 = 98.

Similarly, for (12, 144, 288) 

⇒ 122 = 144;

⇒ 144 × 2 = 288.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

Simplify the following expression.

214×315+516 2 \frac{1}{4} \times 3 \frac{1}{5}+5 \frac{1}{6} of 2431÷323+417 2 \frac{4}{31} \div 3 \frac{2}{3}+4 \frac{1}{7} of 1629 1 \frac{6}{29} .

  1. AOption (a)

    1615 16 \frac{1}{5}

  2. BOption (b)

    1415 14 \frac{1}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    1515 15 \frac{1}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    1315 13 \frac{1}{5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1515 15 \frac{1}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation :-

( 9/4 × 16/5)  + (31/6 × 66/31 × 3/11) + (29/7 × 35/29)

36/5 + 3 + 5

76/5 = 15(1/5)

Question 52

Ram and Shyam start walking from the same place in the opposite direction. If Shyam walks at a speed of 514 5\frac{1}{4}km/hr and Ram at a speed of 3 km/hr, then after how much time will they be 44 km apart?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 hours 20 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    3 hours 20 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    6 hours 20 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    5 hours 20 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5 hours 20 minutes

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

When two people move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.

Relative Speed = 5.25 + 3 = 8.25 km/hr.

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 44 ÷ 8.25 = 16/3 hours.

16/3 hours = 5 hours + (1/3 × 60) minutes = 5 hours 20 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 5 hr 20 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of Shyam = 51/4 km/hr = 21/4 km/hr

Speed of Ram = 3 km/hr

Total Distance apart = 44 km

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = Speed1 + Speed2

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Relative Speed = 21/4 + 3

⇒ Relative Speed = (21 + 12) / 4 = 33/4 km/hr

⇒ Time = 44 ÷ (33/4)

⇒ Time = (44 × 4) ÷ 33

⇒ Time = (4 × 4) ÷ 3 = 16/3 hours

⇒ Time = 51/3 hours

⇒ Time = 5 hours + (1/3 × 60) minutes

⇒ Time = 5 hours 20 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 5 hr 20 min.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, the relative speed is the difference of their speeds: |S1 − S2|.

Speed Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed for Constant Distance

If a person covers a distance at speed x and returns the same distance at speed y, average speed = (2xy) ÷ (x + y).

Question 53

Rakesh is the owner of a rectangular field. Because of the construction of an expressway near his field, the length and breadth of his field are reduced by 30% and 10%, respectively. What is the percentage decrease in the area of his field?

  1. AOption (a)

    37%

  2. BOption (b)

    33%

  3. COption (c)

    35%

  4. DOption (d)

    40%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

37%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Original length of the field = L

Original breadth of the field = B

New length of the field = 70% of L = 0.7L

New breadth of the field = 90% of B = 0.9B

Formula Used:

Percentage Decrease in Area = ((Original Area - New Area) / Original Area) × 100

Calculation:

Original Area = L × B

New Area = 0.7L × 0.9B

New Area = 0.63LB

Percentage Decrease in Area = ((L × B - 0.63LB) / L × B) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = ((LB - 0.63LB) / LB) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = (0.37LB / LB) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = 0.37 × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = 37%

The percentage decrease in the area of Rakesh's field is 37%.

Question 54

Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.

The bar-graph shows the production (in lakh) of kitchen appliances manufactured by three companies A, B, and C over a period of six years from 2012 to 2017.

 

In which year was the percentage of rise / fall in production from the previous year the maximum for company C?

  1. AOption (a)

    2017

  2. BOption (b)

    2013

  3. COption (c)

    2015

  4. DOption (d)

    2016

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2016

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The bar graph shows the production (in lakh units) of kitchen appliances for Company C over the years:

2012: 70 lakh

2013: 90 lakh

2014: 120 lakh

2015: 80 lakh

2016: 110 lakh

2017: 140 lakh

Formula used:

Percentage change = New Value−Old ValueOld Value×100\frac{\text{New Value} - \text{Old Value}}{\text{Old Value}} \times 100

Calculations:

From 2012 to 2013:

⇒ 90−7070×100=28.57%\frac{90 - 70}{70} \times 100 = 28.57\%

From 2013 to 2014:

⇒ 120−9090×100=33.33%\frac{120 - 90}{90} \times 100 = 33.33\%

From 2014 to 2015:

⇒ 80−120120×100=−33.33%\frac{80 - 120}{120} \times 100 = -33.33\%

From 2015 to 2016:

⇒ 110−8080×100=37.5%\frac{110 - 80}{80} \times 100 = 37.5\%

From 2016 to 2017:

⇒ 140−110110×100=27.27%\frac{140 - 110}{110} \times 100 = 27.27\%

∴ The maximum percentage change in production for Company C occurred from 2015 to 2016, with a 37.5% fall.

Question 55

There are 160 multiple choice questions in a test. 4 marks are allotted for a correct answer and 1 mark is deducted for a wrong answer or un-attempted question from the total score of correct answers. If a candidate scored 400 marks in the test, how many questions did he answer correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    110

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    112

  4. DOption (d)

    115

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

112

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

If all questions were answered correctly, the total score would be 160 × 4 = 640 marks.

The total marks lost from the maximum possible score = 640 − 400 = 240 marks.

Marks lost per incorrect or un-attempted question = 4 (for correct) + 1 (penalty) = 5 marks.

Number of incorrect or un-attempted questions = 240 ÷ 5 = 48.

Number of correctly answered questions = 160 − 48 = 112.

∴ The correct answer is 112 questions.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total questions = 160

Marks for a correct answer = +4

Marks for a wrong or un-attempted answer = −1

Total score obtained = 400 marks

Method Used: Alligation

⇒ If all 160 questions are correct, total score = 160 × 4 = +640

⇒ If all 160 questions are wrong or un-attempted, total score = 160 × (−1) = −160

⇒ The ratio of Correct to Wrong questions = 560 : 240 = 7 : 3

⇒ Total ratio parts = 7 + 3 = 10 parts

⇒ 10 parts = 160 questions

⇒ 1 part = 160 ÷ 10 = 16 questions

⇒ Correct questions = 7 parts = 7 × 16 = 112 questions

∴ The correct answer is 112 questions.

Additional Information

Linear Equation Approach

Let the number of correct answers be x. Then the incorrect or un-attempted answers will be (160 − x). The equation is formulated as 4x − 1(160 − x) = 400.

Rule of Alligation

It is a quick cross-multiplication visual method used to find the ratio in which two components of different values are combined to produce a specific average overall value.

Penalty Mark Evaluation

In negative marking exams, each mistake causes a total loss equal to the correct mark plus the penalty mark. For example, in this case, the total loss per error is 4 + 1 = 5 marks.

Question 56

A seller decreased the selling price of each item from ₹5,000 to Rs. 4,680, by which his loss percentage increased by 4%. If he has to get 4% profit, then the selling price of the item should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 7,800

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 7,280

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 8,320

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 8,840

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 8,320

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial selling price = ₹5,000

Decreased selling price = ₹4,680

Loss percentage increased by 4%

Desired profit percentage = 4%

Formula Used:

Loss% = (Cost Price - Selling Price) / Cost Price × 100

Selling Price for desired profit = Cost Price × (1 + Profit%)

Calculation:

Let Cost Price be CP.

Initial Loss% = (CP - 5000) / CP × 100

New Loss% = (CP - 4680) / CP × 100

New Loss% = Initial Loss% + 4%

⇒ (CP - 4680) / CP × 100 = (CP - 5000) / CP × 100 + 4

⇒ 100(CP - 4680) = 100(CP - 5000) + 4CP

⇒ 100CP - 468000 = 100CP - 500000 + 4CP

⇒ -468000 = -500000 + 4CP

⇒ 4CP = 32000

⇒ CP = 8000

To get 4% profit:

Selling Price = CP × (1 + 4/100)

⇒ Selling Price = 8000 × 1.04

⇒ Selling Price = 8320

The selling price of the item should be ₹8,320 to get a 4% profit.

Question 57

Two circles with centre O and A touch each other externally. The radius of the first circle with centre O is 6 cm. The radius of the second circle with centre A is 3 cm. Find the length of their common tangent CB (in centimetres).

  1. AOption (a)

    6√2

  2. BOption (b)

    4√3

  3. COption (c)

    3√2

  4. DOption (d)

    4√2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6√2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of the first circle = 6 cm

Radius of the second circle = 3 cm

Solution:

1. Distance Between the Centers:

Distance between centers = 6 + 3 = 9 cm

2. Length of the Common Tangent:

Length of the common tangent = √[(6 + 3)2 - (6 - 3)2]

Substitute the values:

Length of the common tangent = √[92 - 32]

= √[81 - 9]

= √72

= 6√2

Answer:

The length of the common tangent is 6√2 cm.

Question 58

Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.

The graph shows the exports from three companies (A, B and C) over the years (in Rs.  crore).

In which year was the difference between the exports from companies A and B the minimum?

  1. AOption (a)

    1999

  2. BOption (b)

    1995

  3. COption (c)

    1998

  4. DOption (d)

    1997

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1998

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The exports (in Rs. crore) from Companies A and B for the years are as follows:

1995: Company A = 60, Company B = 125

1996: Company A = 72, Company B = 138

1997: Company A = 80, Company B = 145

1998: Company A = 95, Company B = 152

1999: Company A = 102, Company B = 172

Formula used:

Difference between exports = |A - B|

Calculations:

For 1995: |60 - 125| = 65

For 1996: |72 - 138| = 66

For 1997: |80 - 145| = 65

For 1998: |95 - 152| = 57

For 1999: |102 - 172| = 70

∴ The minimum difference between exports from Companies A and B occurred in 1998, with a difference of 57 crore.

Question 59

What is the discount that Rohan should offer on the remaining Rs. 8,000 of a laptop priced at Rs. 48,000, given that, he has already given a 12% discount on the first Rs. 28,000 and 8% discount on the next Rs. 12,000 to match the discount amount of 9.5% given on the total price?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 240

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 204

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 420

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 402

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 240

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Price of laptop = Rs. 48,000

Discount on first Rs. 28,000 = 12%

Discount on next Rs. 12,000 = 8%

Total discount to match = 9.5%

Remaining amount to discount = Rs. 8,000

Formula Used:

Total discount = (Discount on first part) + (Discount on second part) + (Discount on remaining part)

Calculation:

Discount on first Rs. 28,000 = 28,000 × 12/100

⇒ Rs. 3,360

Discount on next Rs. 12,000 = 12,000 × 8/100

⇒ Rs. 960

Total discount on Rs. 48,000 at 9.5% = 48,000 × 9.5/100

⇒ Rs. 4,560

Remaining discount to offer = Total discount - (Discount on first part + Discount on second part)

Remaining discount to offer = 4,560 - (3,360 + 960)

⇒ Rs. 240

Rohan should offer a discount of Rs. 240 on the remaining Rs. 8,000 to match the total discount of 9.5%.

Question 60

Two parallel chords of length 8 units each are 6 units away from each other in a circle. What is the radius of the circle in units?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Two parallel chords, each of length 8 units, are 6 units apart in a circle.

Formula used:

For a chord of length 2a at a distance d from the center of a circle with radius r:

We use the formula for the distance from the center to the chord:

r2 = d2 + a2

Where a is half the length of the chord.

Calculations:

Let the distance from the center of the circle to one chord be d1, and to the other chord be d2.

Since the chords are 6 units apart, we assume one chord is 3 units above the center, and the other is 3 units below.

Half the length of each chord is a = 8/2 = 4 units.

For the first chord, the distance from the center is 3 units:

⇒  r2 = 32 + 42 = 9 + 16 = 25 

⇒  r = √25 = 5 units

∴ The radius of the circle is 5 units.

Question 61

A cylindrical rod of iron whose height is twelve times its radius, is melted and cast into spherical balls, each of one-third the radius of the cylinder. Find the number of spherical balls.

  1. AOption (a)

    224

  2. BOption (b)

    212

  3. COption (c)

    243

  4. DOption (d)

    198

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

243

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Volume of Cylinder to Volume of Sphere gives the number of balls.

Number of balls (n) = (π × r2 × 12r) ÷ [4/3 × π × (r/3)3]

n = 12 ÷ (4 / (3 × 27)) = 12 ÷ (4 / 81)

n = 12 × 81 ÷ 4 = 3 × 81 = 243

∴ The correct answer is 243.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the cylinder = r

Height of the cylinder (h) = 12r

Radius of each spherical ball (rs) = r/3

Formula Used:

Volume of Cylinder = πr2h

Volume of Sphere = 4/3 πr3

Calculations:

⇒ Total Volume of iron = Volume of the cylindrical rod

⇒ Volume of cylinder = π × r2 × 12r = 12πr3

⇒ Volume of one spherical ball = 4/3 × π × (r/3)3

⇒ Volume of one ball = 4/3 × π × (r3 / 27) = 4πr3 / 81

⇒ Let 'n' be the number of spherical balls

⇒ n × (4πr3 / 81) = 12πr3

⇒ n = (12πr3 × 81) / (4πr3)

⇒ n = 3 × 81

⇒ n = 243

∴ The correct answer is 243.

Additional Information

Conservation of Volume

When a 3D solid is melted and recast into another shape, the total volume remains constant, assuming no wastage.

Cylinder Surface Area

The Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a cylinder is 2πrh, and the Total Surface Area (TSA) is 2πr(h + r).

Sphere Surface Area

The surface area of a sphere is given by the formula 4πr2.

Volume Ratios

If dimensions are scaled by a factor k, the volume changes by a factor of k3.

Question 62

If the perimeters of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 4 ∶ 7, and the sum of the areas is 195 cm2, then what is 1/3 of the difference between the areas (in cm2) of the two triangles?

  1. AOption (a)

    63

  2. BOption (b)

    33

  3. COption (c)

    54

  4. DOption (d)

    99

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

33

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Perimeter ratio of two similar triangles = 4 ∶ 7

Sum of the areas of two triangles = 195 cm2

Formula Used:

If the perimeters of two similar triangles are in the ratio a ∶ b, then their areas are in the ratio a2 ∶ b2.

Calculation:

Perimeter ratio = 4 ∶ 7

Area ratio = 42 ∶ 72 = 16 ∶ 49

Let the areas of the two triangles be 16x and 49x.

⇒ 16x + 49x = 195

⇒ 65x = 195

⇒ x = 195 / 65

⇒ x = 3

Area of the first triangle = 16x = 16 × 3 = 48 cm2

Area of the second triangle = 49x = 49 × 3 = 147 cm2

Difference between the areas = 147 - 48 = 99 cm2

(1/3) of the difference between the areas = 99 / 3 = 33 cm2

The correct answer is option 2.

Question 63

Four cubes each of volume 216 cubic cm are joined end to end to form a new solid. The surface area of the new solid is:

  1. AOption (a)

    672 sq cm

  2. BOption (b)

    648 sq cm

  3. COption (c)

    324 sq cm

  4. DOption (d)

    1296 sq cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

648 sq cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Side of each cube = √[3]{216} = 6 cm.

Area of one face = 6 × 6 = 36 sq cm.

Total faces in 4 cubes = 4 × 6 = 24 faces.

When 4 cubes are joined, 3 junctions are formed, hiding 3 × 2 = 6 faces.

Remaining visible faces = 24 − 6 = 18 faces.

Total surface area = 18 × 36 = 648 sq cm.

∴ The correct answer is 648 sq cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Volume of each cube = 216 cm3

Number of cubes = 4

Formula:

Side of cube (a) = (Volume)1/3

Surface area of cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl)

⇒ Side of each cube (a) = √[3]{216} = 6 cm

⇒ When joined end-to-end, only the length changes.

⇒ Length (l) = 4 × 6 = 24 cm

⇒ Breadth (b) = 6 cm

⇒ Height (h) = 6 cm

⇒ Surface Area = 2 × (24×6 + 6×6 + 6×24)

⇒ Surface Area = 2 × (144 + 36 + 144)

⇒ Surface Area = 2 × 324 = 648 sq cm

∴ The correct answer is 648 sq cm.

Additional Information

Surface Area of a Cube

The total surface area of a single cube with side 'a' is 6a2.

Volume of a Cuboid

The amount of space occupied by a cuboid is given by Length × Breadth × Height (l × b × h).

Lateral Surface Area

For a cuboid, the area of the four side walls is 2h(l + b).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The longest rod that can be placed in a cuboid has length √(l2 + b2 + h2).

Question 64

∆ABC ∼ ∆EDF and area (∆ABC) : area (∆EDF) = 9 :4. If AB = 5 cm, BC = 8 cm and CA = 10 cm, then DF is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    5135 \frac{1}{3} cm

  2. BOption (b)

    3143\frac{1}{4} cm

  3. COption (c)

    4234\frac{2}{3} cm

  4. DOption (d)

    3233\frac{2}{3} cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5135 \frac{1}{3} cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Areas of similar triangles = Square of the ratio of Corresponding Sides.

Area(ΔABC) : Area(ΔEDF) = 9 : 4 ⇒ Ratio of sides = √9 : √4 = 3 : 2.

Since ΔABC ∼ ΔEDF, side BC corresponds to side DF.

3 units = BC = 8 cm ⇒ 1 unit = 8/3 cm.

2 units = DF = 2 × (8/3) = 16/3 = 5 1/3 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 5 1/3 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: ΔABC ∼ ΔEDF, AB = 5 cm, BC = 8 cm, AC = 10 cm, Area(ΔABC) : Area(ΔEDF) = 9 : 4.

Formula: If Δ1 ∼ Δ2, then Area(Δ1)/Area(Δ2) = (Side1/Side2)2.

For similar triangles ΔABC and ΔEDF, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides.

⇒ Area(ΔABC) / Area(ΔEDF) = (BC / DF)2

⇒ 9 / 4 = (8 / DF)2

Taking square root on both sides:

⇒ √(9 / 4) = 8 / DF

⇒ 3 / 2 = 8 / DF

⇒ 3 × DF = 8 × 2

⇒ 3 × DF = 16

⇒ DF = 16 / 3

⇒ DF = 5 1/3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5 1/3 cm.

Additional Information

Area and Side Ratio Theorem

If two triangles are similar, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of any two corresponding sides, altitudes, medians, or angle bisectors.

Similarity Criteria

Triangles are similar if they satisfy AA (Angle-Angle), SAS (Side-Angle-Side), or SSS (Side-Side-Side) conditions.

Perimeter Ratio

The ratio of the perimeters of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides: P1/P2 = s1/s2.

Question 65

If α + β = 45º and (tanα + 1)(tan ẞ + 1) = 2x, then x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    -1

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

α + β = 45º

(tanα + 1)(tan β + 1) = 2x

Formula Used:

Using the identity: tan(α + β) = (tanα + tanβ) / (1 - tanαtanβ)

Since α + β = 45º, tan 45º = 1

So, 1 = (tanα + tanβ) / (1 - tanαtanβ)

Calculation:

1 = (tanα + tanβ) / (1 - tanαtanβ)

⇒ 1 - tanαtanβ = tanα + tanβ

⇒ tanα + tanβ + tanαtanβ = 1

Let tanα = a and tanβ = b

⇒ a + b + ab = 1

Given: (a + 1)(b + 1) = 2x

⇒ ab + a + b + 1 = 2x

We know a + b + ab = 1

⇒ 1 + 1 = 2x

⇒ 2 = 2x

⇒ x = 1

The correct answer is option 4.

Question 66

If the area of a triangle whose base measures 6 cm is 18 cm2, then its height is:

  1. AOption (a)

    6 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    3.1 cm

  3. COption (c)

    9 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    2.2 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Area of the triangle = 18 cm2

Base of the triangle = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a triangle = 1/2 × Base × Height

Calculation:

Using the formula:

Area = 1/2 × Base × Height

⇒ 18 = 1/2 × 6 × Height

⇒ 18 = 3 × Height

⇒ Height = 18 / 3

⇒ Height = 6 cm

The height of the triangle is 6 cm.

Question 67

In an engineering college, there are four branches namely Computer Science (CS), Electronics (EC), Civil (CE), and Mechanical (ME). The respective ratio of the number of students in these branches is 11 ∶ 5 ∶ 6 ∶ 7. What is the percentage of students belonging to CS and ME branches in the college (correct up to two decimal places)?

  1. AOption (a)

    62.37%

  2. BOption (b)

    61.07%

  3. COption (c)

    61.37%

  4. DOption (d)

    62.07%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

62.07%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ratio of students in CS, EC, CE, and ME branches = 11 ∶ 5 ∶ 6 ∶ 7

Formula Used:

Percentage of students in a branch = (Number of students in the branch / Total number of students) × 100

Calculation:

Let the number of students in CS be 11x, in EC be 5x, in CE be 6x, and in ME be 7x.

Total number of students = 11x + 5x + 6x + 7x

Total number of students = 29x

Number of students in CS and ME = 11x + 7x = 18x

Percentage of students in CS and ME branches = (18x / 29x) × 100

⇒ Percentage of students in CS and ME branches = (18 / 29) × 100

⇒ Percentage of students in CS and ME branches = 0.6207 × 100

⇒ Percentage of students in CS and ME branches = 62.07%

The percentage of students belonging to CS and ME branches in the college is 62.07%.

Question 68

In an election between two candidates, one got 60% of the total valid votes and 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes were 8400, the number of valid votes that the other candidate got were:

  1. AOption (a)

    2998

  2. BOption (b)

    2856

  3. COption (c)

    3117

  4. DOption (d)

    3213

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2856

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Valid votes = 100% − 15% = 85% of total votes.

Other candidate's share of valid votes = 100% − 60% = 40%.

Number of votes for other candidate = 8400 × 85% × 40%.

Calculation: 8400 × (85/100) × (40/100) = 84 × 85 × 0.4 = 2856.

∴ The correct answer is 2856.

Alternate Method

Given: Total votes = 8400, Invalid votes = 15%, Winner's share = 60% of valid votes.

⇒ Total votes = 8400

⇒ Valid votes = 8400 × (100 − 15)/100 = 8400 × 85/100

⇒ Valid votes = 84 × 85 = 7140

⇒ Other candidate's percentage = 100% − 60% = 40%

⇒ Votes for other candidate = 7140 × (40/100) = 714 × 4

⇒ Votes for other candidate = 2856

∴ The correct answer is 2856.

Additional Information

Percentage of a Quantity

To find x% of a value y, use the formula: Value = (x/100) × y.

Valid and Invalid Votes

In election problems, Total Votes = Valid Votes + Invalid Votes. Candidate shares are usually calculated based on Valid Votes unless stated otherwise.

Successive Percentage Reduction

If a value is reduced by a% and then the remaining is distributed as b% and (100−b)%, the final part is: Total × [(100−a)/100] × [(100−b)/100].

Question 69

The simple interest on a sum for 8 years is 4/5 of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is:

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    5%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total interest in percentage = (4 ÷ 5) × 100 = 80%.

This total interest is for a duration of 8 years.

Annual Rate of Interest = Total Interest % ÷ Time = 80% ÷ 8 = 10%.

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time (T) = 8 years

Simple Interest (SI) = 4/5 of Principal (P)

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Principal (P) be 5 units.

⇒ Simple Interest (SI) = 4/5 × 5 = 4 units.

⇒ Using the formula: 4 = (5 × R × 8) ÷ 100

⇒ 4 = (40 × R) ÷ 100

⇒ 4 = 0.4 × R

⇒ R = 4 ÷ 0.4

⇒ R = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Components

Simple interest is calculated only on the initial Principal amount throughout the entire Time period at a constant Rate.

Amount Formula

The total Amount (A) at the end of the term is the sum of Principal and Interest: A = P + SI = P(1 + RT/100).

Rule of SI Variation

If the Principal and Time are constant, the Simple Interest is directly proportional to the Rate of Interest.

Question 70

Read the given information and answer the question that follows.

If 400 chocolate ice creams are sold in a day, how many vanilla ice creams are sold?

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    400

  4. DOption (d)

    350

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

350

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Chocolate ice creams sold = 400

Chocolate percentage = 40%

Vanilla percentage = 35%

Formula used:

Total ice creams sold = Chocolate ice creamsChocolate percentage×100\frac{\text{Chocolate ice creams}}{\text{Chocolate percentage}} \times 100

Vanilla ice creams sold = Vanilla percentage100×Total ice creams\frac{\text{Vanilla percentage}}{100} \times \text{Total ice creams}

Calculation:

Total ice creams sold = 40040×100=1000\frac{400}{40} \times 100 = 1000

Vanilla ice creams sold = 35100×1000=350\frac{35}{100} \times 1000 = 350

∴ The number of vanilla ice creams sold is 350.

Question 71

The distribution of total 1500 students in a school for different games is shown in the following figure. Study the given figure carefully and answer the question that follows.

Find the total number of students selected for cricket and tennis.

  1. AOption (a)

    525 

  2. BOption (b)

    825 

  3. COption (c)

    625 

  4. DOption (d)

    415

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

825 

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

Total students = 1500

Cricket percentage = 35%

Tennis percentage = 20%

Students selected for cricket = 35% of 1500 = 0.35 × 1500 = 525

Students selected for tennis = 20% of 1500 = 0.20 × 1500 = 300

Total students selected for cricket and tennis = 525 + 300 = 825

Question 72

A class of 25 students took an English test. 15 students had an average score of 80. The other students had an average score of 60. What is the average score of the whole class?

  1. AOption (a)

    72

  2. BOption (b)

    74

  3. COption (c)

    76

  4. DOption (d)

    80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

72

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of students with an average score of 80 = 15

Average score of these 15 students = 80

Number of students with an average score of 60 = 25 - 15 = 10

Average score of these 10 students = 60

Formula Used:

Average score of the whole class = Total score of all students / Total number of students

Calculation:

Total score of 15 students = 15 × 80

⇒ Total score of 15 students = 1200

Total score of 10 students = 10 × 60

⇒ Total score of 10 students = 600

Total score of the whole class = 1200 + 600

⇒ Total score of the whole class = 1800

Total number of students = 25

Average score of the whole class = 1800 / 25

⇒ Average score of the whole class = 72

The average score of the whole class is 72.

Question 73

When x is added to each of the numbers 7, 11, 18 and 23, then the number so obtained are in proportion. What is the mean proportional between the (x - 1) and (2x - 10)?

  1. AOption (a)

    48

  2. BOption (b)

    68

  3. COption (c)

    78

  4. DOption (d)

    98

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

48

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

The numbers after adding x to 7, 11, 18, and 23 will be: 7 + x, 11 + x, 18 + x, and 23 + x.

Since they are in proportion:

7 + x / 11 + x = 18 + x / 23 + x

Cross multiplying, we get:

(7 + x)(23 + x) = (11 + x)(18 + x)

Expanding both sides:

161 + 30x + x2 = 198 + 29x + x2

Canceling x2 from both sides:

161 + 30x = 198 + 29x

Simplifying:

30x - 29x = 198 - 161

x = 37

Now, we need to find the mean proportional between x - 1 and 2x - 10.

x - 1 = 37 - 1 = 36

2x - 10 = 2(37) - 10 = 74 - 10 = 64

The mean proportional between 36 and 64 is:

√(36 × 64) = √(2304) = 48

∴ The mean proportional between x - 1 and 2x - 10 is 48.

Question 74

When the integer n is divided by 18, the quotient is x and the remainder is 6, When the integer n is divided by 25, the quotient is y and the remainder is 15. Which of the following is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    25y - 18x = 9

  2. BOption (b)

    18x - 25y = 9

  3. COption (c)

    18x + 25y = 9

  4. DOption (d)

    25y +18x = 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18x - 25y = 9

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Express n in terms of both quotients and remainders. n = 18x + 6 and n = 25y + 15. Equating both: 18x + 6 = 25y + 15. Rearranging: 18x − 25y = 15 − 6 = 9. ∴ The correct answer is 18x − 25y = 9.

Alternate Method Given: n divided by 18 gives quotient x and remainder 6. n divided by 25 gives quotient y and remainder 15. Formula Used: Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

Calculations: ⇒ Case 1: n = 18 × x + 6 ⇒ Case 2: n = 25 × y + 15 ⇒ Equating n: 18x + 6 = 25y + 15 ⇒ 18x − 25y = 15 − 6 ⇒ 18x − 25y = 9 ∴ The correct answer is 18x − 25y = 9.

Additional Information Euclid's Division Lemma For any two positive integers a and b, there exist unique integers q and r such that a = bq + r, where 0 ≤ r < b. Linear Diophantine Equation Equations of the form ax + by = c are solvable if the greatest common divisor (GCD) of a and b divides c. Verification Rule Always ensure the remainder is smaller than the divisor. If n = dq + r, then r must be in the range [0, d−1].

Question 75

Riya and Sangeeta can finish a work in 6 days and 8 days, respectively. Riya started the work alone and then after 3 days, Sangeeta joined Riya. They both finish the remaining work. How long did the total work last?

  1. AOption (a)

    4474 \frac{4}{7}  days

  2. BOption (b)

    4174 \frac{1}{7}days

  3. COption (c)

    4374 \frac{3}{7} days

  4. DOption (d)

    4574 \frac{5}{7}days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4574 \frac{5}{7}days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency ratio of Riya and Sangeeta = 4 : 3 (Total work = 24).

Riya works alone for 3 days: 3 × 4 = 12 units done.

Remaining work (24 − 12 = 12 units) done by both: 12 ÷ (4 + 3) = 1 5/7 days.

Total time = 3 + 1 5/7 = 4 5/7 days.

∴ The correct answer is 4 5/7 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Riya = 6 days

Time taken by Sangeeta = 8 days

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
Riya624 (LCM)4
Sangeeta83

Calculations:

⇒ Total Work = LCM of 6 and 8 = 24 units.

⇒ Work completed by Riya in first 3 days = Efficiency × Time = 4 × 3 = 12 units.

⇒ Remaining work = 24 − 12 = 12 units.

⇒ Combined efficiency of Riya and Sangeeta = 4 + 3 = 7 units/day.

⇒ Time taken to finish remaining work = 12 ÷ 7 = 1 5/7 days.

⇒ Total duration of work = 3 days + 1 5/7 days = 4 5/7 days.

Therefore, the total time the work lasted is 4 5/7 days, which corresponds to Option (4).

∴ The correct answer is 4 5/7 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Combined Work Formula

If A does work in 'x' days and B in 'y' days, together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days to complete the entire work.

Partial Work Remaining

When a person leaves or joins, always subtract the work already done from the total work to find the remaining task.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Norman Ernest Borlaug was awarded the _____ in 1970 for his contributions to the green revolution.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Nobel Prize in Chemistry

  2. BOption (b)

    Nobel Prize in Physiology 

  3. COption (c)

    Nobel Prize in Physics

  4. DOption (d)

    Nobel Peace Prize

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nobel Peace Prize

Why this answer is correct

The Correct is Answer Nobel Peace Prize.

Key Points

  • Borlaug's work in developing high-yielding varieties of wheat and other grains significantly increased agricultural production, helping to alleviate hunger and poverty in many countries.
  • His contributions to global food security were recognized with the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970.
  • Borlaug is often referred to as the "Father of the Green Revolution" due to his pioneering efforts in agricultural research and development.
  • His work has had a lasting impact on the world's food supply and has saved countless lives.

Important Points

  • M.S. Swaminathan: An Indian agricultural scientist who played a crucial role in the Green Revolution in India.
  • Indira Gandhi: The Prime Minister of India during the Green Revolution, who provided political and financial support for agricultural development.
  • Robert McNamara: The President of the World Bank during the Green Revolution, who helped to finance agricultural development projects in developing countries.

Question 77

Which dwarf planet orbits the sun in 310 years at a distance between 38.5 to 53 AU? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Eris 

  2. BOption (b)

    Pluto 

  3. COption (c)

    Makemake 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ceres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Makemake 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct is Answer Makemake.

Key Points

 

  • Makemake is a distant dwarf planet located in the Kuiper Belt, a region beyond Neptune's orbit.  
  1. Makemake - NASA Science

science.nasa.gov

  • It has an orbital period of approximately 310 years and an average distance from the Sun of about 45.5 astronomical units (AU).

Additional Information

  • Makemake was discovered in 2005 and is named after the Polynesian creation deity.  
  1. Makemake - NASA Science

science.nasa.gov

  • It is one of the largest known dwarf planets in the Solar System, with a diameter estimated to be around 1,430 kilometres.
  • Makemake is believed to have a cold, icy surface and is thought to be a potentially habitable world due to the possibility of subsurface oceans.

Question 78

Who among the following discovered that a wire carrying electric current can attract or repel another wire next to it that's also carrying electric current?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Guglielmo Marconi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Andre-Marie Ampere 

  3. COption (c)

    Michael Faraday

  4. DOption (d)

    James Maxwell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Andre-Marie Ampere 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is André-Marie Ampère.

Key Points

  • Ampère's Law describes the relationship between electric current and the magnetic field it produces.
  1. Magnetic Fields Produced by Currents: Ampere's Law | Physics

courses.lumenlearning.com

  • He discovered that parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other, while wires carrying currents in opposite directions repel each other.
  • Ampère was a French physicist and mathematician who made significant contributions to the understanding of electromagnetism.
  • His work laid the foundation for the development of electric motors, generators, and other electromagnetic devices.

Additional Information 

  • Ampère's Law is a fundamental equation in electromagnetism that relates the magnetic field to the electric current producing it. It states that the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed loop is equal to the product of the permeability of free space (μ₀) and the total current passing through the loop.

Mathematical Expression: ∮ B · dl = μ₀I_enc  ​ 

  1. www.numerade.com

www.numerade.com

  1. www.numerade.com

www.numerade.com

  • B: Magnetic field vector
  • dl: Line element along the closed loop
  • μ₀: Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A)
  • I_enc: Net current enclosed by the loop

Question 79

In cost theory, the usual shape of the ________ curve is a rectangular hyperbola.  

  1. AOption (a)

    total cost

  2. BOption (b)

    average fixed cost 

  3. COption (c)

    fixed cost 

  4. DOption (d)

    variable cost

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

average fixed cost 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is average fixed cost.

 Key Points

  • AFC is the average fixed cost per unit of output, calculated by dividing total fixed costs by the quantity of output produced.
  • ​Behavior: AFC decreases as output increases since fixed costs remain constant, but they are spread over more units of output.
  • Graph Shape: The AFC curve is downward sloping and never touches the axes, indicating that as output rises, AFC approaches but never reaches zero.

 Additional Information

  • Rectangular Hyperbola
  • Geometerically, it is a curve where (x,y) co-ordinates of the production at any point on the curve becomes constant.
  • The graph indicates inverse relationship.
  • Some other important Cost curves:
  • Total Cost Curve: It is the sum of Total fixed costs and Total Variable Costs.
  • Average Cost Curve (Average Total Cost): it is the ratio of Total cost to the quantity of output produced.
  • Marginal cost: It is additional cost of producing one more unit of output.

Question 80

The establishment of Union Public Service Commission, State Public Service Commissions and Joint Public Service Commission falls under which of the following features of the Constitution of India?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Fundamental Rights

  2. BOption (b)

    Parliamentary Government 

  3. COption (c)

    Federalism 

  4. DOption (d)

    Directive Principles of State Policy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Federalism 

Why this answer is correct

Solution: The correct answer is Federalism.

Key Points

  • The establishment of UPSC, SPSC's, and JPSC's falls under "Federal" feature of Indian Constitution.
  • The role and creation of all these Commissions  are enshrined in Part-XIV (14) of Constitution of India.
  • Article 315 to 323, deals with the establishment appointments role and participations of these commissions.
  • These commission are formed to maintain and regulate public services for general and essential purposes in country.

Additional Information Fundamental Rights

  • Fundamental rights are enshrined part-III of Indian constitution form article 12 to 35.
  • They are known as Magna Carta.
  • They are provided protection against the rights which sometimes violated by the state/country.

Parliamentary government

  • A Parliamentary form of Government is defined as a setup in which the Executive is directly answerable to legislature.
  • Parliament is formed by the elected members through voting.
  • The elected members are directly answerable to the people of land.
  • INDIA is an example of Parliamentary form of Government.

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP's)

  • DPSP's are instructions given to government while framing any policy or law for the peoples of india.
  • These are enshrined in Part-IV of Indian Constitution from articles 36 to 51.
  • These are non-justiciable in Court of law.
  • Some important DPSP's are:
  • Article 38: state to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
  • Article 39: certain principles of policy to be followed by the state, such as the right to adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work, and protection of children.
  • Article 40: organization of village panchayats.
  • Article 41: right to work, education, and public assistance in certain cases.
  • Article 44: uniform civil code for the citizens.
  • Article 45: provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years.
  • Article 48: organization of agriculture and animal husbandry.
  • Article 50: separation of judiciary from the executive.

Question 81

Who was the first Indian woman wrestler to win a medal at the Olympics?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Geeta Phogat

  2. BOption (b)

    Sakshi Malik 

  3. COption (c)

    Babita Phogat 

  4. DOption (d)

    Alka Tomar 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sakshi Malik 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Sakshi Malik.

Key Points

  • Sakshi Malik was the first Indian Women Wrestler to win Medal in Olympics.
  • She won this medal in 2016 Olympics held in Rio de Janeiro.
  • She won the Bronze medal in 56 kg weight freestyle wrestling category.
  • She had honoured with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award **(**presently known as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award) and Padma Shri in 2017.

 Additional InformationGeeta Phogat

  • Geeta Phogat is an Indian freestyle wrestler.
  • She won the gold medal in the 55 kg freestyle category at the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi.
  • She was the the first Indian woman wrestler to win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games.

​Babita Phogat

  • Babita Phaogat is also a renounced wrestling player of India
  • She won Silver medal in Commonwealth Games 2010.
  • She won Gold medal in Commonwealth Games 2014.
  • She won Silver medal in Commonwealth Games 2018.

Alka Tomar

  • Alka Tomar is also Prominent Wrestler of India.
  • She won Gold medal at Commonwealth Wrestling Championship.

Important Points

  • Olympics
  • Anciently, it was originated in Greece in 776BC. Modern Olympics were started in 1896. It held after every four years.
  • There are two forms of Olympics: Summer Olympics and Winter Olympics.
  • it is organized by  International Olympic Committee.
  • its symbol have 5 rings where each ring represents one continent..

Question 82

Which country hosted the first FIFA World Cup? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Italy

  2. BOption (b)

    Brazil

  3. COption (c)

    Uruguay

  4. DOption (d)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uruguay

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uruguay.

Key Points

  • The first FIFA World Cup was hosted by Uruguay.
  • The choice of Uruguay as the host country was influenced by its recent success in football, having won gold in the 1924 and 1928 Olympic Games.
  • FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association), founded in 1904, sought to organize a world football championship independent of the Olympics.
  • The inaugural FIFA World Cup took place from July 13 to July 30, 1930.
  • Uruguay became the first-ever FIFA World Cup champion by defeating Argentina by 4-2 in the final.

Additional Information

  • The 1930 World Cup was organized to celebrate the 100th anniversary of Uruguay's independence.
  • 13 teams participated:
  • 7 from South America: Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Bolivia, Paraguay, Peru, Uruguay.
  • 4 from Europe: Belgium, France, Romania, Yugoslavia.
  • 2 from North America: Mexico and the United States.
CountryCapitalCurrency
ItalyRomeEuro
BrazilBrasiliaBrazilian Real
UruguayMontevideoUruguayan Peso
FranceParisEuro

Question 83

What is the name of the festival that ends the Holy Ramzan month? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bakrid

  2. BOption (b)

    Eid-Ul-Zuha

  3. COption (c)

    Eid-Ul-Fitr

  4. DOption (d)

    Muharram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Eid-Ul-Fitr

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Eid-Ul-Fitr.

Key Points

  • Eid al-Fitr, also known as the "Festival of Breaking the Fast," is celebrated by Muslims worldwide.
  • It is celebrated to mark the end of Ramadan, a month of fasting, prayer, and reflection.
  • It is a day of joy and thanksgiving to Allah for the strength and patience shown during the month of fasting.
  • The festival is also a time for community prayers, and giving charity (known as Zakat al-Fitr).

Additional Information

FestivalSignificance
BakridBakrid is another name for Eid al-Adha, also known as the Festival of Sacrifice. It is one of the two major Islamic festivals, the other being Eid al-Fitr.
Eid-Ul-Zuha (Eid al-Adha or the Festival of Sacrifice)It commemorates the willingness of Prophet Ibrahim (Abraham) to sacrifice his son as an act of obedience to God's command.
MuharramUnlike Eid al-Fitr, which is a festival of joy, Muharram is a solemn time, particularly for Shia Muslims, as it commemorates the martyrdom of Imam Hussain, the grandson of the Prophet Muhammad, in the Battle of Karbala.

Question 84

Who among the following cabinet ministers was appointed as the Governor of Karnataka in July 2021? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Hari Babu Kambhampati 

  2. BOption (b)

    Thawarchand Gehlot 

  3. COption (c)

    Rajendra Vishwanath 

  4. DOption (d)

    Arjun Munda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Thawarchand Gehlot 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thawarchand Gehlot.

Key Points

  • Thawarchand Gehlot is an Indian politician from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
  • He was appointed as the Governor of Karnataka in July 2021.
  • He is currently serving as Governor of Karnataka.
  • Prior to that, he was the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment in the Government of India.

Additional Information

  • In July 2021, Hari Babu Kambhampati was serving as the Governor of Mizoram. He is currently serving as Governor of Mizoram.
  • In July 2021, Rajendra Vishwanathan was the Governor of the Indian state of Sikkim. Rajendra Vishwanath is currently serving as the governor of the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • In July 2021, Arjun Munda was serving as the Minister of Tribal Affairs in the Government of India. Currently, the Minister of Tribal Affairs is Shri Jual Oram.

Question 85

‘Chang dance’ is popular in the state of:  

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan 

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Tripura

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rajasthan 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Chang dance is also referred to as Dhamal, performed during festivals like Holi and Maha-Shivratri.
  • Chang dance is named after the instrument "Chang"
  • Rajasthan is known as the cultural Capital of India. Also referred to as the "Abode of Rajas"
  • Other Folk dances of Rajasthan are Ghoomar, Kalbeliya, Kachi Ghodi, Bhavai, Chari, Gair, and Kathputli.
  • Rajasthan is the largest state of India, followed by Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Additional Information 

StateFolk dances
BiharJaat-Jatin, Dhobia, Jharni,Paika, Kajri, Bidesia
GoaMando, Dhalo, Fugdi, Lamp dance, Romat, Dekhni
TripuraHojagiri, Ghimsa, Gusadi, Mathuri

Question 86

Who wrote the book ‘Gulamgiri’?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Swami Shraddhanand

  2. BOption (b)

    Dwarkanath Tagore

  3. COption (c)

    Jyotiba Phule 

  4. DOption (d)

    BR Ambedkar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jyotiba Phule 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jyotiba Phule.

Key Points

  • Jyotiba Phule was the founder of Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873.
  • Social activist Vithalrao Krishanji Vandekar gave him the title of "Mahatma"
  • He wrote Gulamgiri in 1873 for all those Americans who had fought to free slaves.
  • The first school for women in Pune was opened by Jyotiba Phule.

Additional Information

  • Dwarkanath Tagore was the Grandfather of Rabindranath Tagore.
  • In 1828, he founded Union Bank in Calcutta.
  • B.R. Ambedkar wrote books such as The Constitution of India, Philosophy of Hinduism, and Annihilation of Caste.
  • Swami Shraddhanand was an Arya samaj Sanyasi who established Gurukul Kangri University in Haridwar, Uttarakhand.

Question 87

In India, the musical instrument “Flute” is also known as _____________.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Veena 

  2. BOption (b)

    Bansuri 

  3. COption (c)

    Manjira 

  4. DOption (d)

    Tabla

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bansuri 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bansuri.

Key Points

  • The flute is an instrument that comes under the class Sushira Vadya(Wind instrument).
  • Exponents: Hariprasad Chaurasiya, Panna lal Ghosh, Rajendra Prasanna, Rajendra Kulkarni.
  • The flute is associated with the Hindu God Krishna.
  • The flute is mentioned in Rigveda as the Nadi and Tunava.

Additional Information

  • Samudragupta, a Gupta emperor is associated with Veena.
  • Tabla Exponents: Ustaad Allah Rakha, Zakir Hussain, Nikhil Ghosh, Pt. Swapan Chaudhary, Anokhelal Mishra.
  • Veena Exponents: Aurangzeb, S. Balachander
Musical instrument typesExamples
Tantu Vadya (stringed instruments)Sitar, Veena, Santoorr, Sarod.
Sushir Vadya (wind instruments)Flute, Shehnai, Poongi, Baanki, Aerophone.
Avanaddha Vadya ( Stretched skin instrument)Tabla, Dholak, Damroo, Mridanga.
Ghan Vadya (Vibrate when stuck )Manjira, Chimta, Ghatam, Morchang.

Question 88

According to Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, what was the total food grain production of India in the year 2022-23?  

  1. AOption (a)

    2266.23 lakh tonnes

  2. BOption (b)

    2876.17 lakh tonnes

  3. COption (c)

    2491.58 lakh tonnes

  4. DOption (d)

    3296.87 lakh tonnes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3296.87 lakh tonnes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3296.87 lakh Tonnes.

Key Points

  • The total food grain production in India for the year 2022-23 was a record 3296.87 lakh Tonnes.
  • This production was higher by 140.71 lakh Tonnes compared to the 2021-22 production of 3156.16 lakh Tonnes.
  • The production in 2022-23 was higher by 308.69 lakh Tonnes than the previous five years’ average production of 2988.18 lakh Tonnes.
  • The major crops contributing to this record production included rice, wheat, and coarse cereals.

Additional Information

Cereal Production in India (2022-23):

CerealProduction (lakh Tonnes)
Rice1357.55
Wheat1105.54
Coarse Cereals833.78
Total3296.87

Question 89

Which of the following sequences is correct, according to taxonomy?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Class-Phylum-Family-Order Genus-Species

  2. BOption (b)

    Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species

  3. COption (c)

    Family-Phylum-Class-Order-Genus-Species

  4. DOption (d)

    Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species.

Key Points

  • Taxonomy, the science of classifying organisms.
  • The classification system of Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species is primarily attributed to Carl Linnaeus.
  • who developed the hierarchical system of taxonomy in the 18th century.
  • This system is known as Linnaean taxonomy.

Additional InformationAristotle (384-322 BC):

  • Known as the “Father of Science.”
  • Introduced the early concepts of classification and binomial definition

Carl Linnaeus (1707-1778):

  • Developed the binomial nomenclature system.
  • Known as the “Father of Modern Taxonomy.”
  • Published “Systema Naturae,” which laid the foundation for modern taxonomy

Charles Darwin (1809-1882):

  • Proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection.
  • His work influenced the classification of organisms based on evolutionary relationships

Robert Whittaker (1920-1980):

  • Proposed the five-kingdom classification system (Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia).
  • His system was based on cell structure, mode of nutrition, and other factorsclassification of humans:
  • Phylum: Chordata
  • Class: Mammalia
  • Order: Primates
  • Family: Hominidae
  • Genus: Homo
  • Species: Homo Sapien

Question 90

The moderate margin of a page in MS Word can be applied to the page from which of the following?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Review tab

  2. BOption (b)

    Page Layout Tab

  3. COption (c)

    Design Tab

  4. DOption (d)

    View Tab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Page Layout Tab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Page Layout Tab.

Key Points

  • Page Layout Tab: This tab in MS Word allows users to set up the page layout, including margins, orientation, size, columns, and more.
  • Review Tab: This tab is primarily used for proofing, comments, tracking changes, and comparing documents.
  • Design Tab: This tab focuses on the overall design of the document, including themes, colors, fonts, and effects.
  • View Tab: This tab allows users to change the view of the document, such as switching between print layout, web layout, outline, and draft views.

Additional Information

  • First released on October 25, 1983, as Multi-Tool Word for Xenix systems.
  • File Extensions:
  • .doc: Used in older versions (Word 97-2003).
  • .docx: Default format since Word 2007 (Office Open XML).
  • .dotx: Word template.
  • .docm: Macro-enabled document.

Question 91

Dinesh K Tripathi was appointed as ______ in January, 2024

  1. AOption (a)

    Rear Admiral

  2. BOption (b)

    Vice Chief of Naval Staff

  3. COption (c)

    Chief of Personnel

  4. DOption (d)

    Chief of Naval Staff

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vice Chief of Naval Staff

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vice Chief of Naval Staff.

Important Points

  • The current Vice Chief of Naval Staff (VCNS) is Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan who took over from Vice Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi on 1 May 2024.
  • Vice Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi became the 26th Chief of Naval Staff on April 30, 2024.
  • For more clarification: click here:

Key Points

  • Vice Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi was commissioned into the Executive Branch of the Indian Navy on July 01, 1985.
  • He was the Fleet Operations Officer of the Western Fleet, the Director of Naval Operations, and the Principal Director of Naval Plans in New Delhi.
  • Before taking over as the Vice Chief of the Naval Staff, he had served as the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, of Western Naval Command.
  • Admiral Tripathi has commanded Indian naval ships Trishul, Vinash, and Kirch.
  • Vice Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi was honored with the Ati Vishisht Seva Medal, and the Nausena Medal, for his contributions to the Indian Navy.
  • He also received the Robert E Bateman International Prize at the Naval Command College at the US Naval War College, Newport, Rhode Islands.

Additional Information

RANKS IN INDIAN AIR FORCERANKS IN INDIAN ARMYRANKS IN INDIAN NAVY
Marshal of the Indian AirforceField MarshalAdmiral of the Fleet
Air Chief MarshalGeneralAdmiral
Air MarshalLieutenant General (Army Commodore/VCOAS)Vice Admiral/FOC-in-C/VCNS
Air Vice MarshalLieutenant GeneralVice Admiral
Air CommodoreBrigadierCaptain
Group CaptainColonelCaptain
Wing CommanderLieutenant ColonelCommander
Squadron LeaderMajorLieutenant Commander
Flight LieutenantCaptainLieutenant
Flying OfficerLieutenantSub Lieutenant

Question 92

In Microsoft Excel, which chart type is best suited for comparing proportions or percentages of a whole?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Pie Chart 

  2. BOption (b)

    Line Chart 

  3. COption (c)

    Bar Chart 

  4. DOption (d)

    Scatter Chart

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pie Chart 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pie Chart.

Key Points

  • Pie charts display data as slices of a circle, where each slice represents a category's contribution to the total.
  • Example of Pie chart:-

Additional Information

  • A line chart displays data points connected by straight lines. It is used to show trends over time or continuous data such as stock prices, temperature changes, or sales growth.
  • A bar chart uses rectangular bars to represent data. It is suitable for comparing discrete categories or groups, such as sales by region, product performance, or survey responses.
  • A scatter chart (scatter plot) uses Cartesian coordinates to display values for two variables for a set of data. It is ideal for showing the relationship or correlation between two variables and identifying patterns or clusters.

Important Points

  • Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet software, known for its powerful data analysis, visualization, and calculation capabilities.
  • Microsoft Excel was first released in 1985 for the Apple Macintosh. It was later released for Windows in 1987.
  • Excel supports 1,048,576 rows and 16,384 columns in a single worksheet.

Question 93

Which of the following teams won the IPL 2023 championship? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Gujarat Titans

  2. BOption (b)

    Chennai Super Kings 

  3. COption (c)

    Lucknow SuperGiants

  4. DOption (d)

    Mumbai Indians

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Chennai Super Kings 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chennai Super Kings.

Key Points

  • Chennai Super Kings (CSK) defeated the Gujarat Titans (GT) by 5 wickets in a thrilling last-ball finish.
  • The CSK team was led by their iconic captain, MS Dhoni.
  • Devon Conway was awarded the "Player of the Match" for his brilliant 47 off 25 balls in the final.
  • This victory marked CSK's 5th IPL title, putting them on par with the Mumbai Indians (MI) for the most IPL titles won by a franchise.
  • Their previous wins were in 2010, 2011, 2018, and 2021.

Additional Information

  • The Gujarat Titans led by Hardik Pandya, finished as the runners-up in the 2023 IPL season.
  • In the 2023 IPL season, Lucknow Super Giants led by KL Rahul, finished 3rd in the league stage.
  • Mumbai Indians (MI) is the most successful franchise in IPL history, having won the IPL title five times—in 2013, 2015, 2017, 2019, and 2020.

Important Points

Key achievements and Highlights of the IPL 2023 season:

IPL 2023 WinnerChennai Super Kings (CSK)
Runner-upGujarat Titans (GT)
Orange Cap WinnerShubman Gill (GT)
Purple Cap WinnerMohammed Shami (GT)
Most Valuable PlayerShubman Gill (GT)
Emerging Player of the SeasonYashasvi Jaiswal (Rajasthan Royals)
Best Catch of the SeasonAjinkya Rahane (CSK)

Question 94

The largest inland salt lake ‘Sambhar’ is located in the ____ of India. 

  1. AOption (a)

    south-west 

  2. BOption (b)

    north-east

  3. COption (c)

    north-west

  4. DOption (d)

    south-east

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

north-west

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is north-west.

Key Points

  • Location: Sambhar Lake is situated in the state of Rajasthan, India, approximately 64 kilometers Northwest of Jaipur.
  • Size: It is the largest inland saltwater lake in India, covering an area of around 230 square kilometers when full.
  • Salt Production: The lake is a major source of salt production, with a history of salt harvesting that dates back centuries.
  • Salinity: Due to high evaporation rates and low inflow of fresh water, the lake's water is highly saline, often more saline than seawater.
  • Ecology: Sambhar Lake supports a variety of bird species, especially migratory birds like flamingos, making it an important site for birdwatching.
  • Geological Formation: It is a rift valley lake formed by tectonic activity and is part of the larger Sambhar Salt Lake Basin.
  • Water Sources: The lake is fed by several seasonal rivers and streams, primarily the Manohar and the Kharag rivers.

Question 95

According to Global Multidimensional poverty index (2022), On the basis of four indicators- nutrition, cooking fuel, sanitation and housing, how much poor people live in India?  

  1. AOption (a)

    54.4 million 

  2. BOption (b)

    44.4 million

  3. COption (c)

    34.4 million

  4. DOption (d)

    24.4 million

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

34.4 million

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 34.4 million.

Key Points

  • The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (GMMPI) 2022 uses ten indicators across three dimensions: health, education, and living standards to measure poverty.
  • In India, 36.1% of the population lives below the multidimensional poverty line.
  • This means that nearly 361 million Indians are deprived of at least one of the ten indicators.
  • The most common deprivations are in nutrition, sanitation, and housing.

Question 96

Which Articles of the Constitution deal with citizenship? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Articles 5 to 8

  2. BOption (b)

    Articles 5 to 11

  3. COption (c)

    Articles 5 to 9

  4. DOption (d)

    Articles 5 to 10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Articles 5 to 11

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Articles 5 to 11.

Key Points

  • Article 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Citizenship of India.
  • Article 5 of the Indian constitution deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
  • Article 6 of the Indian constitution deals with the citizenship of certain persons who have migrated from Pakistan.
  • Article 7 of the Indian constitution deals with the citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan.
  • Article 8 of the Indian constitution deals with the citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India.
  • Article 9 of the Indian constitution says that "people voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign country will not be citizens of India".
  • Article 11 of the Indian constitution deals with Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.

Question 97

According to the Census of India 2011, which of the following states is the most urbanised?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Himachal Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Goa 

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala 

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Goa 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

  • Among the given options, Goa is the most urbanized state, with about 62.2% of its population living in urban areas (Census 2011).
  • Tamil Nadu had the highest urbanization rate among large states at 48.4%, followed by Maharashtra and Gujarat.
  • Notably, Kerala had a rapid increase in urbanization between 2001 and 2011, with 47.7% of its population urbanized, primarily due to the reclassification of rural areas.
  • Punjab had 37.5% urbanization, while Himachal Pradesh remained one of the least urbanized states with just 10% of its population living in urban areas.

Additional Information

  • 2023 Estimates: As per recent estimates, India's urban population is about 35-38% of the total population. States like Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, and Gujarat continue to lead in urbanization.
  • Kerala & Goa: Both states have seen further increases in urbanization due to development and tourism.
  • The first full census in India was conducted in 1881 under British rule.
  • In the 1881 Census of India, the Madras Presidency (now part of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala) was among the most urbanized regions.
  • The first regular census in India was conducted in 1872 by British administrator W.C. Plowden. However, it was not synchronous across the entire country and is considered a partial census.
  • Mumbai remains one of the most urbanized cities in India, with a population of over 20 million (2023 estimates).

Question 98

The Palas were:  

  1. AOption (a)

    a dynasty that first appeared in Cambodia 

  2. BOption (b)

    a dynasty that appeared in eastern India 

  3. COption (c)

    a dynasty that appeared in Puri 

  4. DOption (d)

    a dynasty that united eastern India and Burma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a dynasty that appeared in eastern India 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A dynasty that appeared in eastern India.

Key Points

  • Dynasty Overview:
  • Period: Ruled from the 8th to 12th centuries.
  • Founder: Gopala established the dynasty around the 8th century.
  • Regions: Primarily Bengal and parts of Bihar.
  • Religious and Cultural Contributions:
  • Buddhism: The Palas were prominent patrons of Mahayana Buddhism.
  • Educational Institutions: Founded and supported renowned Buddhist universities like Nalanda and Vikramashila.
  • Key Rulers:
  • Dharma Pala (circa 770–810 CE): Consolidated and expanded the empire, strengthening its influence.
  • Devapala (circa 810–850 CE): Furthered the empire's reach and prosperity.
  • Decline and Legacy:
  • The empire declined due to invasions by the Cholas and the rise of new regional powers, including the Senas.
  • The Palas are remembered for their significant contributions to art, architecture, and the promotion of Buddhist learning and culture in the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

  • Palas' contemporary dynasties:
DynastyRegionCapitalKey Ruler(s)
PratiharasNorthern India (Rajasthan, parts of northern India)KannaujNagabhata II (730–756 CE)
RashtrakutasDeccan region (Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh)Manyakheta (Malkhed)Dantidurga (753–756 CE), Amoghavarsha I (814–878 CE)
CholasSouth India (Tamil Nadu, parts of Karnataka)ThanjavurRaja Raja Chola I (985–1014 CE), Rajendra Chola I (1014–1044 CE)

Question 99

On 7 November 2022, the Supreme Court of India upheld the reservations for the weaker sections (EWS). Which of the following amendments brought this reservation in the first place?  

  1. AOption (a)

    ​101st Amendment of the Constitution

  2. BOption (b)

    104th Amendment of the Constitution

  3. COption (c)

    102nd Amendment of the Constitution

  4. DOption (d)

    103rd  Amendment of the Constitution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

103rd  Amendment of the Constitution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the 103rd Amendment of the Constitution.

Key Points

  • Introduction of EWS Reservation:
  • Objective: Provides 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and government jobs.
  • Criteria: Applies to individuals not covered by SC, ST, or OBC reservations, based on economic status.
  • Amendments to the Constitution:
  • Article 15: Allows for the provision of reservation in educational institutions for EWS.
  • Article 16: Permits reservation in government employment for EWS.
  • Eligibility:
  • Income Limit: Individuals with annual income below ₹8 lakh or possessing less than 5 acres of land are eligible.
  • Impact:
  • Expansion: Increases the scope of affirmative action by including economically disadvantaged individuals who are not otherwise covered by existing reservation policies.

Additional Information

  • Recent Amendments in the Indian Constitution:-
AmendmentObjectiveArticles Amended
101stImplement GSTArticle 246A
102ndConstitutional status for NCBCArticles 338B, 342A
104thExtend SC/ST reservation in legislaturesArticle 334
105thStrengthening Anti-Defection LawArticles 102, 191

Question 100

Chhannulal Mishra is related to which Musical Lineage? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jaipur Musical Family 

  2. BOption (b)

    Agara Musical Family

  3. COption (c)

    Kirana Musical Family

  4. DOption (d)

    Delhi Musical Family

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kirana Musical Family

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kirana Musical Family.

Key Points

  • Rich Legacy deep-rooted tradition in Hindustani classical music.
  • Prominent Figures notable musicians like Ustad Abdul Karim Khan.
  • Innovative Style emphasis on melodic depth and intricate rhythms.
  • Cultural Influence Significant impact on the evolution and preservation of Indian classical music.

Additional Information

  • Thumri and Khayal Expertise A master of Hindustani classical genres like Thumri, Dadra, and Khayal.
  • Unique Style recognized for his soulful voice, emotional expression, and blending of classical and semi-classical forms.
  • Cultural Contribution honored with prestigious awards like the Padma Bhushan for his contributions to Indian classical music.

100 questions in the full paper