SSC CHSL Previous Paper 5 (Held On: 3 Jul 2019 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

• The correct answer is Option 3.
• The error lies in the wrong usage of the preposition 'to' which is used to determine the movement. 'to' should be replaced by 'on' which indicates the state of something. The verb 'depend' takes the preposition 'on'.
• Therefore, the correct sentence is 'The launch of the small electric car will depend on the willingness of buyers to pay more for it.'

• The correct answer is Option 4.
• The meaning of the given idiom 'The crux of the matter' means 'The basic, central or critical point of an issue'.
• Out of the given options, only Option 4 gives the meaning of the idiom and all other options are irrelevant.

• The correct answer is Option 3.
• The meaning of the given idiom 'Four corners of the earth' means 'The far ends of the world; all parts of the world.'
• Out of given options, only Option 3 gives the exact meaning of the given idiom and all other options are irrelevant.

• The correct answer is Option 3.
• The structure of the given active sentence is 'Subject+V2+object+other words'.
• The structure of the passive sentence should be 'Object+was/were+V3+other words'.
• Option 1 is wrong because the verb 'is' is used instead of 'was'.
• Option 2 is wrong because of the wrong usage of the verb 'taking out'.a
• Option 4 is wrong because the verb is in 2nd form i.e. 'took'.
• The only option which satisfies the structure is 'Option 3' i.e. 'The dead parrot was taken out from the cage by the merchant.'

• The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 'clear'.
• The meaning of the given words:
• Opaque: Unclear, Difficult to see through.
• Hazy: Thick or obscure; not clear or transparent.
• Clear: Transparent, bright, obvious.
• Frosty: Cold, chilly.
• Dull: Boring, not exciting or interesting, not shiny.
• Therefore, it is obvious that the antonym of the given word 'opaque' is 'clear'.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points 

The given sentence is an interrogative statement in Direct speech. It needs to be converted into the indirect speech.

When we convert a sentence from the direct to the indirect mode, the following changes take place:

• The Reported verb 'Said to' is changed to 'asked' as it is an interrogative form.
• The tense of the reporting speech 'is' is changed to 'was'.
• The given sentence is in interrogative form while changing to indirect sentence it becomes an assertive sentence.
• Thus the indirect speech sentence is: Bhola asked his mother why that charcoal was so black.

Additional Information 

When we convert a sentence from direct to indirect speech, we make the following changes:

• Quotation marks are omitted and the sentence ends with a full stop.
• The tense of the verb, in the reported speech involving any order, request and instruction does not undergo any change during the conversion from direct to indirect mode. This is also true if the statement is a universal truth.
• If the reporting verb is in the present tense, it does not undergo any change.
• We add the word 'to' before the verb if the verb is in the bare infinitive.
• When the reporting or principal verb is in the present tense, all present tenses of the direct are changed into the corresponding past tenses.
• Words expressing nearness in time or place are generally converted into words expressing distance. For eg. now becomes then, today becomes that day, yesterday becomes the previous day, this becomes that etc.
• In reporting commands and requests, the verb expressing command or request is added and the imperative is changed into the infinitive.
• In reporting questions the verbs like asked, inquired are added
• In reporting exclamations and wishes, the verbs expressing exclamation or wish are added.
• When we convert a sentence from the direct to the indirect mode(for a sentence ending with a mark of interrogation), we reverse the subject-verb placement. In direct sentences, we have the verb before the subject; while in indirect, the verb follows the subject.

No other option fits as per the rules of conversion and hence other options are incorrect.

• The correct answer is Option 2.
• The word 'yet' is always preceded by the verb which is in present perfect tense.
• Therefore, the only option that satisfies the condition is Option 2 i.e. 'has not finished it'.

The correct answer is BDAC.

• Among the given jumbled sentences, the only independent sentence we have is sentence B.
• Sentence D is talking about visiting temples which is continued in sentence A. Lastly, the overall opinion is given in sentence C
• Therefore, the sequence is correctly followed in option 4 i.e. BDAC

• The correct answer is Option 2.
• The meaning of the given options:
• Enthrall: To hold spellbound, charm or captive.
• Repel: To turn away, to reject.
• Mesmerize: Spellbound, enthrall.
• Disgust: To cause an intense dislike for something.
• Free: Unconstrained.
• Therefore, the best alternative is Option 2 i.e. mesmerize.

• The correct answer is Option 4.
• The meaning of the given options:
• Denounce: To criticize or to speak out against; to openly accuse.
• Criticize: To find fault.
• Blame: Censure.
• Vilify: To say defamatory things about someone or something.
• Applaud: The act of praising.
• Therefore, Option 4 'applaud' is the antonym and all other words form the synonyms.

The correct answer is 'fortunate'.​

Key Points 

• The meaning of the given options:
• Favourable: pleasing, encouraging.
• Charmed: bewitched, impressed.
• Fortunate: Auspicious, lucky.
• Affluent: Somebody who is wealthy.
• The given sentence is conveying the meaning that she was feeling lucky or fortunate to have worked with great personalities.
• Therefore, option 3 fits the blank.

• The correct answer is option 1.
• The word dissuade means 'To convince not to try or do' is followed by the preposition 'from'.
• Therefore, option 1 i.e. 'from visiting' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The meaning of the given options:
• Inevitable: impossible to avoid or prevent.
• Inaudible: Unable to be heard or not loud.
• Illegible: Not clear enough to be read
• Incomprehensible: impossible or very difficult to understand.
• Therefore, the correct one word substitution is 'Inaudible'.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "behaive" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling should be "behave". (व्यवहार करना)
• Example: Children should learn to behave properly in public places.
• "Behave" means to act in a particular way, especially to be good by following rules and norms. (व्यवहार करना)
• Example: Please behave nicely when you visit your grandparents.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Board (बोर्ड): A flat, thin, rectangular piece of material.
• Example: The teacher wrote the lesson on the board.
• Better (बेहतर): Of a more excellent or effective type or quality.
• Example: She felt better after taking the medicine.
• Bliss (परमानंद): Perfect happiness; great joy.
• Example: They were in a state of bliss after their wedding.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. remote.

lost- unable to find one's way; not knowing one's whereabouts.

remote- (of a place) situated far from the main centres of population; distant.

lonesome- solitary or lonely.

dreaming- experience dreams during sleep.

As hardly any tourist can reach there it means it is very far from the central area.

Only option 2 fits the blanks space contextually.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. ADBC.

FIrst try to find out the starting sentence. 

C will not be the first one because it starts with a pronoun.

D and C will not be the first one because both are talking about the tree and shade respectively.

A will be the first sentence as it introduces the main noun of the passage.

Now we have two option starting with A.

after A, C will not come because It is not clear what THEY is used for.

So, the option 3 is out and answer will be option 1.

The correct answer is: burrow.

Key Points

• Let us look at the meanings of the given options:
• ​burrow: a hole or tunnel dug by a rabbit, as a dwelling.
• den: a wild mammal's home
• lair: a place where a wild animal lives
• sty: a place where a pig lives

So, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. is facing.

For conveying that an event or thing is going on in the present, we use present continuous tense.

As the sentence contains the words 'at the moment', it is clear that this sentence should be in the present continuous tense.

So, the chosen option is correct.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. which.

For talking about or referring to an idea, matter, or thing we use both THAT and WHICH (relative pronouns). But only one of them has been given here and therefore, it is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. discovered.

The verb Discover is used when something that already existed on the planet is seen, found, or realised for the first time.

As the virus was somewhere in existence but was found in August the previous year for the first time, the correct term here would be discover.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. deadly.

Anything that can cause death is called deadly. It is clearly mentioned in the passage that it has caused death.

So, the chosen option is correct.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. its.

A possessive pronoun has to be used here.

Since neuter gender is used for country names, the pronoun used here should be 'its'.

So, the chosen option is correct.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. inefficent.

inequality- the difference in size, degree, circumstances, etc.; lack of equality.

independence- the fact or state of being independent.

influence- the capacity to have an effect on the character, development, or behaviour of someone or something, or the effect itself.

The chosen word is not correct.

The correct word will be- inefficient

The correct answer is option 2.

As the verb used in part 2 of the sentence is for THE PROMOTERS and it is in the plural form so, we need to use plural verb here.

We have to replace Has with Have for making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. secure.

FORTIFY- provide (a place) with defensive works as a protection against attack.

loosen-make (something tied, fastened, or fixed in place) less tight or firm.

neglect- fail to care for properly.

harm- physical injury, especially that which is deliberately inflicted.

secure- fixed or fastened so as not to give way, become loose, or be lost.

The given word and the chosen word convey the same idea so they are synonyms of each other.

There are no triangles in options 3 and 4 and therefore, they get eliminated.

The triangles in option 2 are not equilateral and hence are not similar to the one in the question figure.

Therefore, option 2 gets eliminated.

The question figure is embedded in the figure in option 1 as follows:

Hence, the figure in option 1 the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

4842 = 4 + 8 + 4 + 2 = 18;

5472 = 5 + 4 + 7 + 2 = 18;

2421 = 2 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 9;

7261 = 7 + 2 + 6 + 1 = 16;

Here the sum of digits of all numbers is multiple of 9 except option 4.

Hence, 7261 is the odd one among the given options.

Alternate solution:

1. 48 = 6 × 8 and 42 = 6 × 7 where 7 and 8 are consecutive numbers

2) 54 = 18 × 3 and 72 = 18 × 4 where 3 and 4 are consecutive numbers

3. 24 = 3 × 8 and 21 = 3 × 7 where 7 and 8 are consecutive numbers

4. in the number 7261, 61 is a prime number.

Hence, 7261 is the odd one among the given options.

The first letter of all the words is the same.

So, we will compare the second letters.

The second letter is e for all words, except diagonal. The second letter of diagonal is i.

e < i.

Therefore, words with the second letter as e will come before those with second letter as i.

Thus, we get: Denote, Destiny, Demand, Density < Diagonal

Now, we will compare the third letters of Denote, Destiny, Demand, Density.

m < n < s.

Therefore, Demand < Denote, Density < Destiny < Diagonal.

Let's compare the fourth letters of Denote, Density.

o < s

Therefore, Demand < Denote < Density < Destiny < Diagonal.

Hence, the dictionary order is “4, 1, 5, 2, 3”.

The pattern followed here is:

For letters with positional values having 2 digits: the digits are added to obtain a sum and the code is the letter with this sum as its positional value.

For letters with positional values having 1 digit: the code is the letter with positional values decreased by 4.

Similarly,

Hence, EEBFIDWBEFE is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

(The sum of 1^st and 3^rd digit) - 2^nd digit = an odd number

Option 1: EZV = (5 + 22) - 26 = 1;

Option 2: OKL = (15 + 12) - 11 = 16;

Option 3: UPF = (21 + 6) - 16 = 11;

Option 4: AVZ = (1 + 26) - 22 = 5;

So, in option 2 the resultant form is 16 which is not an odd number.

Hence, the odd one among the given options is OKL.

The pattern followed here is:

(11, 13, 288) → 11 + 13 = 24; 24² = 576 and 576 ÷ 2 = 288

Similarly,

(7, 11, 162) → 7 + 11 = 18; 182 = 324 and 324 ÷ 2 = 162

Hence, the correct answer is (7, 11, 162).

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is 74.

Some men are singers and also lecturer.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

20 teams are there. Here each team will get 19 matches.

Consider this 19 = n

So, n (n + 1)/2 is the total number of matches played.

Therefore total number of matches = 19(19 + 1)/2 = 190;

Hence, the correct answer is 190.

Given expression is:

28 - 42 ÷ 2 + 276 × 23

Using “BODMAS” we solve this

1. × and +

28 - 42 ÷ 2 × 276 + 23

= 28 - 21 × 276 + 23

= 28 - 5796 + 23

= 51 - 5796

= -5745 ≠ -44;

2. • and ÷

28 - 42 + 2 ÷ 276 × 23

= 28 - 42 + 1/138 × 23

= 28 - 42 + 0.17

= 28.17 - 42

= -13.83 ≠ -44;

3. × and ÷

28 - 42 × 2 + 276 ÷ 23

= 28 - 42 × 2 + 12

= 28 - 84 +12

= 40 - 84 = -44;

4) + and -

28 + 42 ÷ 2 - 276 × 23

= 28 + 21 - 6348

= 49 - 6348

= 6299 ≠ -44

Hence, the correct answer is × and ÷

When unfolded, the paper will look as in the below figure:

Hence, the figure in option 1 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is EVVS.

A painter uses paintbrush for painting.

Similarly, a farmer uses plough for farming.

Hence, the correct answer is “plough”.

Hence, the figure in option 3 is the correct answer.

1) adbbaadccaadbccadbaa → doesn't follow a pattern

2) adbcaadacabdbcaadbca → doesn't follow a pattern

3) adbcaadacabdbccadbaa → doesn't follow a pattern

4) adbca/adbca/adbca/adbca → follows a pattern i.e., adbca

Hence, the correct answer is dcbaac.

The pattern followed here is:

FINGER: 15232112239 

F + I = 6 + 9 = 15

I + N = 9 + 14 = 23

N + G = 14 + 7 = 21

G + E = 7 + 5 = 12

E + R = 5 + 18 = 23

R = 18 = 1 + 8 = 9

and

MARKET: 14192916252

M + A = 13 + 1 = 14

A + R = 1 + 18 = 19

R + K = 18 + 11 = 29

K + E = 11 + 5 = 16

E + T = 5 + 20 = 25

T = 20 = 2 + 0 = 2

Similarly,

M + I = 13 + 9 = 22

I + L = 9 + 12 = 21

L + T = 12 + 20 = 32

T + O = 20 + 15 = 35

O + N = 15 + 14 = 29

N = 14 = 1 + 4 = 5

Hence, MILTON is coded as 22213235295.

1) % has two children.

2) F is daughter of %.

3) A is wife of @ who is brother of #.

4) U is sister of S who is son of @.

5) T is son of #, who is a male.

Since there are two married couples, we get the following tree diagram:

Since A is the wife of @ who is the brother of #, A is the sister-in-law of %.

Hence, the correct answer is sister-in-law.

Parasailing, swimming and surfing are water sports but driving is not.

Hence, the odd one among the given options is driving.

The pattern followed here is:

• 11, 13, and 17 are consecutive prime numbers.
• Similarly, 19, 23, and 29 are consecutive prime numbers.
• Hence, the correct answer is (19, 23, 29).

Additional Information

• Option 1 - 9 is not prime.
• Option 2 - The next prime number after 37 is 41.
• Option 3 - The next prime number after 31 is 37.

Alternate Method The pattern followed here is:

• (11, 13, 17) → 11 + 2 = 13 and 13 + 4 = 17; 4 - 2 = 2
• Similarly, (19, 23, 29) → 19 + 4 = 23 and 23 + 6 = 29; 6 - 4 = 2
• Hence, the correct answer is (19, 23, 29).

The pattern followed here is:

68 → 6² = 36 and 8² = 64;

Then, 36 + 64 = 100.

Similarly,

45 → 4² = 16 and 5² = 25;

Then, 16 + 25 = 41.

Hence, the related number is 41.

1. The double-pointed arrow is moving clockwise first by 90° and then by 45°; this pattern is repeated throughout the series.

Therefore, the required figure must have this arrow pointing towards the north-west direction.

Thus, option 3 gets eliminated.

2. The arrow inside the square is moving clockwise first by 90° and then by 45°; this pattern is repeated throughout the series.

Therefore, the required figure must have this arrow pointing towards the south direction.

Thus, options 2 and 4 get eliminated.

3. A new shape appears opposite to the arrow inside the square in each step.

The figure in option 1 satisfies all these conditions.

Hence, the figure in option 1 will be the next one in the given series.

The pattern followed here is:

June is a month of a year.

Similarly, Thursday is a day of a week.

Hence, the correct word-pair is Week : Thursday.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Explanation:

I. Some tractors are cups → False (it is possible but not definite)

II. No jar is boat → False (it is possible but not definite)

III. Some cups are jars → False (it is possible but not definite)

Hence, none of the conclusions follows.

3 is common to both the positions of the given dice.

6 and 4 are adjacent to 3 in the first position.

5 and 2 are adjacent to 3 in the second position.

Thus, the only remaining number 1 must be on the face opposite to that of 3.

This means 5, 3 and 1 are adjacent to 2.

We have 2 choices: either 6 is opposite to 2 or 4 is opposite to 2.

Now, if on rotating the first position such that 3 is on the front face, the initial position of 3 gets replaced by 2 such that 4 is opposite to 2.

We will end up with the following situation:

This is not possible as if 2 faces of the given positions are the same, then the third one should also be the same.

Therefore, 4 is not on the face opposite to 2.

So, the opposite face of 2 is 6.

Hence, 6 will be at the top if 2 is at the bottom.

The triangles are as follows:

AKM, LHM, ACP, JIC, CIG, CGJ, EJK, CLK, ACH, CHP, EIL, MFP, NOF, EGF, POD, PGD, DGO, DMN, HBD, LBN, COB, BDI, DEN, DEM, DIH, DAJ, LFC, KFC.

Hence, the correct answer is 28.

Given:

5y5888406x6 is divisible by 72

Concept used:

Divisibility rule of 8:- When the last three digits are divisible by 8 then the whole numbers will be divisible by 8.

Divisibility rule of 9 :-  sum of the all digits of the number must be divided by 9

Calculation:

72 = 8 × 9. So, the number will be divided by 8 and 9 both

For divisibility of 8, we have

For least value of x = 1, the number 616 will be divisible by 8.

Also, For divisibility of 9, we have

the sum of all digits = 5 + y + 5 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 4 + 0 + 6 + 1 + 6 = y + 51

So it should 54 then

the value of y = 54 – 51 = 3

∴ the required value of  (9x – 2y) = 9 × 1 – 2 × 3 =  3.

Given:

PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral

∠P = 4 × ∠R 

∠S = 3 × ∠Q

Concept used:

For a cyclic quadrilateral, the opposite angles are supplementary to each other.

∠P + ∠R = 180° and ∠Q + ∠S = 180°

Calculation:

Let the  ∠R and ∠Q be x and y respectively.

According to the question,

∠P =  4x   and ∠S = 3y.

∠P + ∠R = 180°

⇒ 4x + x = 180°

⇒ x = 36°

Similarly,

∠Q + ∠S = 180°

⇒ y + 3y = 180°

⇒ y = 45°

∴ ∠Q + ∠R = 36° + 45° = 81°

Given:

∠BEA = x°, ∠EAC = 38°, ∠EBD = 40°

Calculation:

In ΔBDC

⇒ 40° + 90° + ∠C = 180° (sum of all the angles in a triangle is 180°)

⇒ ∠C = 50°

In ΔAEC

⇒ 38° + 50° + ∠AEC = 180°

⇒ ∠AEC = 92°

Now,

⇒ x° + 92° = 180° (angles on a straight line)

⇒ x° = 88°

Given:

M.P. = 1.2 × C.P.

Profit reduction after certain discount offered = 10%

Formula used:

S.P. = {(100 + gain%)/100} × C.P.

Discount% = {(M.P. - S.P.)/M.P.} × 100

Calculation:

Let the CP of the article be Rs. 100.

According to the question,

MP = 1.2 × CP = Rs. 120

Also, allowing discount the profit reduces to = 10%

Therefore, 

∴ SP = 100 × 110/100 = Rs.110

Discount percentage = (120 – 110)/120 × 100 = 8(1/3)%

The equation can be written as:

$\Rightarrow \frac{{\left( {\sin \theta - 1/\sin \theta } \right)\left( {\cos ;\theta - \frac{1}{{\cos }}\theta } \right)}}{{\left( {\frac{{{{\sin }^2}\theta }}{{{{\cos }^2}\theta }} - ;{{\sin }^2}\theta } \right)}} = ;{r^3}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{\left[ {({{\sin }^2}\theta - 1} \right)\left( {{{\cos }^2}\theta - 1} \right)]/(\sin \theta .;\cos ;\theta )}}{{{{\sin }^2}\theta \left( {\frac{1}{{{{\cos }^2}\theta }} - ;1} \right)}} = ;{r^3}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{{{\sin }^2}\theta .{{\cos }^2}\theta /(\sin \theta .;\cos ;\theta )}}{{{{\sin }^2}\theta \left( {\frac{{1 - ;{{\cos }^2}\theta ;}}{{{{\cos }^2}\theta }}} \right)}} = ;{r^3}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{[\cos ;\theta /(\sin \theta )] \times {{\cos }^2}\theta }}{{\left( {{{\sin }^2}\theta } \right)}} = ;{r^3}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{[\cos ;\theta /(\sin \theta )] \times {{\cos }^2}\theta }}{{\left( {{{\sin }^2}\theta } \right)}} = ;{r^3}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{;{{\cos }^3}\theta }}{{{{\sin }^3}\theta }} = ;{r^3}$

⇒ r = cot θ.

Calculation:

The change in export of Type A vehicle

⇒ (35 – 25)/25 × 100 = 40%

The change in export of Type B vehicle

⇒ (50 – 40)/40 × 100 = 25%

The change in export of Type C vehicle

⇒ (52.5 – 45)/45 × 100 = 16.66%

The change in export of Type D vehicle

⇒ (60 – 47.5)/47.5 × 100 = 27.77%

The change in export of Type E vehicle

⇒ (62.5 – 52.5)/52.5 × 100 = 19%

Calculation:

Average number of vehicles exported

⇒ (25 + 40 + 45 + 47.5 + 52.5)/5 = 42 lacs

the number of type B exported in 2017 = 50 lacs

∴ Required percentage = (50 – 42)/50 × 100 = 16%

Formula used:

a³ - b³ = (a + b)(a² + b² + ab)

Calculation:

24√3x³ + 5√5y³ = (2√3x + √5y) × (Ax² + Bxy + Cy²)

⇒ (2√3x)³ + (√5y)³ = (2√3x + √5y) × (Ax² + Bxy + Cy²)

⇒ (2√3x + √5y) (12x² – 2√15xy + 5y²) = (2√3x + √5y) × (Ax² + Bxy + Cy²)

⇒ A = 12, B = - 2√15 & C = 5

the value of (A² – B² + C²) = 12² – (-2√15)² + 5² = 109.

Calculation:

The total number of vehicles of type C and E exported by the company in 2017

⇒ (52.5 + 62.5) = 115 lacs

The total number of vehicles of type A, B and C exported in 2016

⇒ (25 + 40 + 45) = 110 lacs

∴ Required percentage = (115 – 110)/110 × 100 = 4.5%

Given:

Sudha spending = 80% of income

Increase in income = 30%

Increase of expenditure = 25%

Concept used:

Income = Expenditure + Saving

Calculation:

Ratio of income : expenditure : savings

⇒ 100 : 80 : 20 or 5 : 4 : 1

Now let 5x, 4x and x be the income, expenditure and savings.

According to the question,

new income = 5x + 5x × 30% = 6.5x

new expenditure = 4x + 4x × 25% = 5x

new savings = 6.5x – 5x = 1.5x

% change in savings = (1.5x – x)/x × 100 = +50%

∴ her savings are increased by 50%.

Alternate MethodLet Income = 100

Then expenditure = 80  and income = 100 - 80 = 20

New Income = 100 + 30% of 100 = 130

New Expenditure = 80 + 25% of 80 = 100

New Income = 130 - 100 = 30

Increase in saving = 30 - 20 = 10

% change in savings = 10/20 × 100 = 50%

Given:

Principal = Rs. 10000

Amount = Rs. 11664

Time period = 2 years

Formula used:

If interest is compounded annually, then

A = P(1 + R/100)^T

If case of Simple Interest, then

S.I. = (P × R × T)/100

where P → Principal

R → rate of interest

T → Time period

S.I. → Simple Interest

Calculation:

Compound interest = Amount – Sum

⇒ 11664 – 10000 = Rs. 1664

1664 can be written as = 800 + 800 + 64

Rate of interest = 8% (∵ 800 = 8% of 10,000 and also 64 is 8% of 800)

Simple interest on sum for 27/5 years

⇒ (10000 × 8 × 27/5)/100 = Rs.4320.

Given:

Time taken by pipe A to fill tank = 8 hours

Time taken by pipe B to fill tank = 12 hours

Time taken by pipe C to empty tank = 6 hours

Concept used:

Work done = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

Taking LCM of the time taken by 3 pipes for filling and one emptying the tank.

LCM = 24 units

Efficiency of A = 24/8 = 3 units/hour

Efficiency of B = 24/12 = 2 units/hour.

Efficiency of C = 24/6 = 4 units/hour.

(A + B) opened for 3 hours together.

Work done by them in 3 hours = (3 + 2) × 3 = 15 units

Now C has to empty = 15 units

Time taken by C to empty this tank = 15/4 = 3(3/4) hours

Given:

Cost price of 40 dozen fruits = Rs 2400

Number of fruits rotten away = 30

Profit percentage =  25%

Concept used:

Selling price = Cost price × (100 + P)% 

Calculation:

Number of fruits in 40 dozen fruits = 40 × 12 = 480

After 30 fruits rotten thrown = 480 – 30 = 450

C.P of 40 dozen fruits = Rs.2400

SP of 450 fruits = 2400 + 2400 × 25% = Rs.3000

S.P of 1 fruit = 3000/450 = Rs.20/3

S.P of 1 dozen of fruits = 20/3 × 12 = Rs. 80

∴ The selling price of one dozen fruits is Rs 80.

Given:

x + y + z = 2

xy + yz + zx = -11

Formula used:

x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = (x + y + z)(x² + y² + z² - xy - yz - zx)

(x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx 

Calculation:

(x + y + z)² = 4

x² + y² + z² + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx = 4

x² + y² + z² = 4 – 2 × (-11) = 26

As we know that,

(x + y + z)(x² + y² + z² - xy -  yz - zx) = x³ + y³ + z³ – 3xyz

On putting the values,

⇒ 2 × [26 – (-11)] 

⇒ 2 × 37 = 74

In ∆AED and ∆ABC

∠ABC = ∠ADE (given)

∠A = ∠A (common)

∴ From A-A similarity

∆AED ~ ∆ACB

∴ AE/AC = DE/BC

⇒ 8/(x + 3) = 6/9

⇒ 8/(x + 3) = 2/3

⇒ x + 3 = 12

∴ x = 9

∴ AD = 9 cm

Given:

The average weight of the students in a group = 75.4kg

Weights of four students who joined the group = 72.9kg, 73.8kg, 79.5kg, 87.4kg

Increase in average weight = 0.24kg

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation ÷ number of observation

Calculation:

Let the number of students be X.

Total weight = 75.4 × X = 75.4X

After  4 students joining, Average weight of the group

⇒ 75.4 + 0.24 = 75.64 kg.

New total weight = 75.64 × (X + 4)

According to the question,

⇒ 75.64 × (X + 4) = 75.4X + 72.9 kg + 73.8 kg + 79.5 kg + 87.4 kg

⇒ 0.24X = 313.6 – 302.56

⇒ 0.24X = 11.04

⇒ X = 46

∴ The number of students in the group, initially was 46.

Given:

3 × 2 ÷ 3 of 2 × 3 ÷ (5 + 5 × 5 ÷ 5 of 5 – 5 ÷ 10 of 1/5)

Concept used:

Calculation:

3 × 2 ÷ 3 of 2 × 3 ÷ (5 + 5 × 5 ÷ 5 of 5 – 5 ÷ 10 of 1/5)

⇒ 3 × 2 ÷ 6 × 3 ÷ (5 + 5 × 5 ÷ 25 – 5 ÷ 2)

⇒ 3 × 1/3 × 3 ÷ (5 + 5 × 1/5 – 5/2)

⇒ 3 ÷ (5 + 1 – 5/2)

⇒ 3 ÷ (6 – 5/2)

⇒ 3 ÷ (7/2)

⇒ 3 × 2/7

⇒ 6/7.

Given:

x⁴ – 5x² – 1 = 0

Calculation:

x4 – 5x2 – 1 = 0

Dividing both sides by x²

x² – 5 – 1/x² = 0

⇒ x² – 1/x² = 5      ---(1)

Cubing both sides

x⁶ – 1/x⁶ – 3(x² – 1/x²) = 125

⇒ x⁶ – 1/x⁶ – 3 × 5 = 125

⇒ x⁶ – 1/x⁶ = 140      ---(2)

Now,

x⁶ – 3x² + 3/x² – 1/x⁶ + 1 = x⁶ – 1/x⁶ – 3(x² – 1/x²) + 1 = 140 – 3 × 5 + 1 = 141 – 15 = 126

∴ x⁶ – 3x² + 3/x² – 1/x⁶ + 1 = 126

Given

∠QAX = 49° and ∠QBY = 62°

From alternate segment theorem

∠APQ = ∠QAX = 49°

And ∠BPQ = ∠QBY = 62°

∠APQ + ∠BPQ = 49° + 62° = 111°

∴ ∠APB = 111°

We know that in cyclic quadrilateral the sum of opposite angle is 180°

∴ ∠AQB + ∠APB = 180°

⇒ ∠AQB + 111° = 180°

∴ ∠AQB = 180° − 111° = 69°

Given:

The ratio of sides of a circumscribed rectangle = 4 : 3

The perimeter of the rectangle = 56 cm

Formula used:

Perimeter of  the rectangle = 2(l + b)

Diagonal of the rectangle = √l² + b²

Diameter of the circle = Diagonal of the rectangle

where l → length  and b → breadth of the rectangle

Area of the circle = πr2

Calculation:

Let the l and b of the rectangle be 4x and 3x respectively.

According to the question,

2(l + b) = 56

⇒ 4x + 3x = 28

⇒ x = 4

l = 4 × 4 = 16 cm.

b = 3 × 4 = 12 cm.

Diagonal of the rectangle = √(16² + 12²) = 20 cm

The diameter of the circle = 20 cm.

Radius = 20/2 = 10 cm.

Area of the circle circumscribed = π × 10 × 10 = 100π

Given:

cot θ = √6

Formula used:

cot θ = Base/ Perpendicular

(Hypotenuse)2 = Base² + Perpendicular²

Calculation:

cot θ = √6/1

perpendicular = 1

base = √6

(Hypotenuse)² = (√6)² + 1² = 7

$\frac{{cose{c^2}θ ; + ;se{c^2}θ }}{{cose{c^2}θ ; - ;se{c^2}θ }}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{{7 + ;\frac{7}{6}}}{{7 - ;\frac{7}{6}}}$

$\Rightarrow ;\frac{{42 + 7}}{{42 - 7}}$

$\Rightarrow ;\frac{{49}}{{35}}$ = $\frac{7}5{}$

∴ Required answer is 7/5

Given:

sin θ.sec²θ = 2/3

Concept used:

tan30 = 1/√3, sec 30 = 2/√3, cos30 = √3/2

Calculation:

tan θ × sec θ = 2/3

Putting θ = 30° in L.H.S.

tan θ × sec θ = tan 30^° × sec 30°

⇒ 1/√3 × 2/√3 = 2/3

LHS = RHS = 2/3

∴ value of θ = 30°

⇒ (tan²θ + cos²θ) = (tan² 30^° + cos² 30°)

⇒ 1/3 + 3/4 = 13/12

Calculation:

The total number of vehicles of type D and E exported in 2016

⇒ (47.5 + 52.5) = 100

The total number of vehicles of type C and E exported in 2017

⇒ (52.5 + 62.5) = 115

Required ratio = 100/115 = 20 : 23

Given:

The ratio of ages of A and B eight years 8 years ago = 9 : 10

The ratio of ages of A and B 4 years from now = 12 : 13

Age of C now = A's present age + 6

Calculation:

Let 8 years ago the ages of A and B be 9x and 10x respectively.

Present ages of A and B = (9x + 8) and (10x + 8) respectively.

4 years hence, the ages of A and B = (9x + 12) and (10x + 12) respectively.

But according to the question,

(9x + 12) : (10x + 12) = 12 : 13

⇒ x = 4.

A’s present age = (9 × 4 + 8) = 44 years

C’s age = A’s age + 6 = 44 + 6 = 50 years

Shortcut Trick 

⇒ Total age gap = 13 - 10 = 3 units

Here, 3 units = 4 - (-8) = 12 years

⇒ 1 units = 4

⇒ 12 units = 12 × 4 = 48 years

Present age of A = 48 - 4 = 44 years

The present age of C = 44 + 6 = 50 years

Given:

Length of train = 360m

Time taken to cross a platform and man  = 55s and 24 s respectively

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time traveled

Calculation:

Speed of the train = 360/24 = 15 m/s

Let the length of the platform be x.

Time taken to cover the platform = 55 seconds

⇒ (360 + x)/15 = 55

⇒ x = 465 m

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Power Center

• Robotic Process Automation is the technology that allows anyone today to configure computer software, or a “robot” to emulate and integrate the actions of a human interacting within digital systems to execute a business process.
• RPA robots utilize the user interface to capture data and manipulate applications just like humans do.
• They interpret, trigger responses and communicate with other systems in order to perform on a vast variety of repetitive tasks.
• Only substantially better: an RPA software robot never sleeps, makes zero mistakes and costs a lot less than an employee.
• There are numerous RPA tools (software)  available in market such as, UiPath, Blue Prism, Pega, OpenConnect, Automation Anywhere, etc.
• Power Center is not the RPA software.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e Ministry of Women and Child Development.

• ​Narendra Modi won 17^th Lok sabha elections with 303 seats.
• The Union Cabinet for the 17th Lok Sabha includes 24 cabinet ministers, 9 ministers of state with independent charge and 24 ministers of state.
• As per the new allocation, Narendra Modi is Prime Minister and also in-charge of: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions; Department of Atomic Energy; Department of Space; and All important policy issues; and All other portfolios not allocated to any Minister.
• Smriti Irani is in-charge of Ministry of Women and Child Development and Ministry of textiles.
• Below is the list of main cabinets ministry and their respective Ministers.

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Bhagat Singh.

• "Bombs and pistols do not make a revolution. The sword of revolution is sharpened on the whetting stone of ideas" is quoted by Bhagat Singh.
• This was said in the context of explaining the word "revolution", when they threw two bombs in the Legislative Assembly on April 8, 1929, and the hall was echoed by revolutionary slogans, "Long Live Revolution” and “Down With Imperialism”.
• He stated that  "Generally a wrong meaning is attributed to the word revolution. That is not our understanding. Bombs and pistols do not make revolution. That is not our understanding. The sword of revolution is sharpened on the whetting stone of ideas. This is what we wanted to emphasize. By revolution, we mean the end of the miseries of capitalist wars."

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Measuring blood pressure.

• Blood pressure is measured using two numbers.
• The first number, called systolic blood pressure, measures the pressure in your blood vessels when your heartbeats.
• The second number, called diastolic blood pressure, measures the pressure in your blood vessels when your heart rests between beats.
• If the measurement reads 140 systolic and `100 diastolic, you would say, “140 over 100,” or write, “140/100 mmHg.”

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. 1963.

• The Central Board of Revenue Act was established in 1963, in India.
• An Act to provide for the constitution of separate Boards of Revenue for Direct Taxes and for Indirect Taxes and Customs and to amend certain enactments for the purpose of conferring powers and imposing duties on the said Boards.
• The Department of Revenue functions under the overall direction and control of the Secretary (Revenue).
• It exercises control in respect of matters relating to all the Direct and Indirect Union Taxes through two statutory Boards namely, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).
• Each Board is headed by a Chairman who is also ex-officio Special Secretary to the Government of India.
• Matters relating to the levy and collection of all Direct Taxes are looked after by the CBDT whereas those relating to levy and collection of Customs and Central Excise duties and other Indirect Taxes fall within the purview of the CBIC.
• The two Boards were constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
• **At present, the CBDT has six Members and the CBIC has six Members. The Members are also ex-officio Special Secretaries to the Government of India.**​

In News

• ​IRS officer Nitin Gupta has been appointed as the new Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) chairman. (2022)

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Hirasar

• Reliance Infrastructure Limited (RInfra), a part of Anil-Ambani-lead Reliance Group, has received the Letter of Award (LOA) from the Airport Authority of India (AAI) for construction of a  new greenfield Airport at Hirasar in Rajkot district of Gujarat.
• The engineering, procurement and construction (EPC) contract is worth Rs 648 crore.
• The greenfield airport at Hirasar will be located about 28 km from Rajkot, is to be built at a cost of over Rs 1,400 crore.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 2011.

• India has won the world cup for men two times in 1983 and 2011.
• Australia has won the ODI world cup five times in year 1987, 1999, 2003, 2007 and 2015. India and West Indies have won it two times each. Pakistan (1992), Sri Lanka (1996) and England (2019) has won one time each. First two tournaments was won by West Indies in 1975 and 1979.
• England has hosted five world cups, including first three and in 1999. India has hosted three times. Every Test-playing nation has hosted or co-hosted a Cricket World Cup at least once. Four hosts, Sri Lanka (1996), India (2011), Australia (2015) and England (2019) has won world cup. India, Austailia and England has won the world cup on home soil.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Silk Route.

• Silk Route had their debut in the year 1998 with the album Boondein.
• Their songs have been influenced by Europen folk music.
• The band has Mohit Chauhan as the lead vocalist and guitarist, Kem Trivedi as the keyboard player, Atul Mittal as the lead guitarist, clarinet-player ,and backing vocals, and Kenny Puri as the percussionist and drummer.

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Santoor.

• Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma is a renowned player of Santoor instrument (was known as the Shata-Tantri Veena in earlier days) and also the vocalist.
• Shiv Kumar Sharma is the recipient of many prestigious awards like “Padma Shree”, “Padma Vibhushan”, “Sangeet Natak Academy Award”.

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. World Bicycle day.

• United Nations has declared June 3rd as International World Bicycle Day, by adopting a resolution on April 12th 2018, during the 72nd Regular Session of the UN General Assembly, in New York City.
• To acknowledge the “uniqueness, longevity, and versatility” of the bicycle.
• Encourages stakeholders to emphasize and advance the use of the bicycle as a means of fostering sustainable development, strengthening education, including physical education, for children and young people, promoting health, preventing disease, promoting tolerance, mutual understanding and respect and facilitating social inclusion and a culture of peace;

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Platform as a Service.

• Cloud platform services, also known as Platform as a Service (PaaS), provide cloud components to certain software while being used mainly for applications.
• PaaS delivers a framework for developers that they can build upon and use to create customized applications.
• All servers, storage, and networking can be managed by the enterprise or a third-party provider while the developers can maintain management of the applications.
• Examples: AWS Elastic Beanstalk, Windows Azure, Heroku, Force.com, Google App Engine, Apache Stratos, OpenShift

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. D.K. Jain.

• Supreme Court-appointed BCCI Ombudsman Justice D K Jain (retd) will now serve as the Ethics Officer of the Indian cricket board on an ad-hoc basis, the Committee of Administrator (CoA) in March, 2019.
• He served as Supreme Court's Judge from 2006 to 2013.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Pannir Selvam Committee.

• Pannir Selvam Committee Report submitted in 1998 on NPAs of public sector banks suggests Arbitration/Conciliation under the Arbitration Act 1996 as an effective tool.
• Some of the observations made in that report in this connection are extracted below.
• The Pannir Selvam Committee has pointed out that the main reason for the growth of NPAs and slump in recoveries in banks in India is the antiquated legal system and the laws prevalent in the country.
• Thus according to the committee unless the legal system in the country is thoroughly overhauled/ reformed it would be increasingly difficult to tackle the NPA problem.
• In contrast, banks abroad have been able to contain their NPAs because of quick disposal of litigation by their judicial systems to release their dues.
• The committee suggests various measures to strengthen credit monitoring by setting up special recovery cells placing persons with credit management skills in branches having sizeable NPAs, and intensive follow up of substandard assets for the up-gradation.
• It further suggests periodic meetings with borrowers, the constitution of special recovery teams, exploring possibilities to quickly get the account adjusted by compromise/write off. Provisions have been made for doubtful and loss assets, obtaining additional security to strengthen loan assets and reduce the provision requirements.
• The committee strongly recommends making the Arbitration act 1996 to be made applicable to banks. Compulsory Arbitration by senior Retd Judges or Ex- ED/CMD of Banks / FIs is advocated before a reference to high court /DRT.

Malegam committee

• The Board of Directors of RBI constituted a Sub-Committee to study the issues and concerns on the microfinance sector.
• This SubCommittee of the Board was formed on October 15, 2010, under the chairmanship of Mr Y.H. Malegam

Mandal commitee

• The Mandal Commission was established in India on 1 January 1979 by the Janata Party government under Prime Minister Morarji Desai
• Its mandate was to "identify the socially or educationally backward classes" of India.
• It was headed by the late B.P. Mandal

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Indian Overseas Bank.

• Muttaiya Chidambaram Chettiar Muthiah Chidambaram Chettiar (2 August 1908 – 13 March 1954) was an Indian industrialist and banker who founded the Indian Overseas Bank.
• Chidambaram Chettyar succeeded his father as a director of the Indian Bank on the latter's death in 1929.
• Chidambaram Chettyar soon emerged as one of the top industrialists in the country.
• On 10 February 1937, he founded the Indian Overseas Bank, which concentrated on improving the country's industrial sector.
• The bank began business simultaneously from its branches at Karaikudi and Rangoon.
• Chidambaram Chettyar was also one of the founders of United India Assurance.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 1951.

• ​The Union Parliament passed the State Financial Corporation Act on September 28, 1951 empowering the state governments to establish financial corporations for their respective regions.
• This act came into force from 1^st Aug. 1952.
• State Financial Corporations (SFCs) are the State level financial institutions which play a vital role in the growth of small & medium enterprises in the concerned States.
• They offer financial assistance in the form of direct subscription to debentures/equity, term loans, guarantees, discounting of bills of exchange & seed/ special capital, etc.
• SFCs have been set up with the purpose of catalyzing higher investment, engendering greater employment & extending the ownership base of industries.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Badminton.

• The world body governing Badminton, Badminton World Federation (BWF), has launched two new formats of the game --Airbadminton and Triples with new dimensions of the court and an innovative shuttlecock called Airshuttle.
• Traditional competitive badminton has been an indoor game. In contrast to that Airbadminton is an outdoor game.
• Airbadminton was globally launched at Guangzhou in China by Badminton World federation.
• In Triples, each team of a total of three players will have at least one female athlete.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Ganga.

• The Padma is a major river in Bangladesh.
• It is the main distributary of the Ganges, flowing generally southeast for 120 kilometres (75 mi) to its confluence with the Meghna River near the Bay of Bengal.
• The city of Rajshahi is situated on the banks of the river.
• The name the Padma is given to the lower part of the course of the Ganges (Ganga) below the point of the off-take of the Bhagirathi River (India), another Ganges River distributary also known as the Hooghly River. The Padma had, most probably, flowed through a number of channels at different times.

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. He designed the Indian National Flag.

• Pingali Venkayya was a fervant freedom fighter and the designer of the Indian National Tricolour who went on to become synonymous with the spirit of free and independent India.
• The national flag that we see today was based upon his design.
• He met the Mahatma once again in Vijayawada and showed him his publication with the various designs of the flag. Acknowledging the need for a national flag, Gandhi then asked Venkayya to design a fresh one at the national congress meeting in 1921.
• Initially, Venkayya came up with saffron and green colours, but it later evolved with a spinning wheel at the centre and a third colour-white. The flag was officially adopted by the Indian National Congress in 1931.

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Pascal's Law.​

Concept:

Explanation:

From the above explanation, we can see that, 

• Pascal’s principle, also called Pascal’s law, in fluid (gas or liquid) mechanics, statement that in a fluid at rest in a closed container, a pressure change in one part is transmitted without loss to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of the container.
• The principle was first enunciated by the French scientist Blaise Pascal.
• The pressure is equal to the force divided by the area on which it acts.
• According to Pascal’s principle, in a hydraulic system, a pressure exerted on a piston produces an equal increase in pressure on another piston in the system.
• If the second piston has an area 10 times that of the first, the force on the second piston is 10 times greater, though the pressure is the same as that on the first piston. This effect is exemplified by the hydraulic press, based on Pascal’s principle, which is used in such applications as hydraulic brakes.
• Pascal also discovered that the pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same in all directions; the pressure would be the same on all planes passing through a specific point. This fact is also known as Pascal’s principle, or Pascal’s law.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Nandan Nilekani Panel.​

• The Reserve Bank of India constituted a high-level committee under Nandan Nilekani to suggest measures to strengthen the safety and security of digital payments in the country.
• The five-member panel on deepening of digital payments has been constituted with a view to encourage digitisation of payments and enhance financial inclusion through digitisation.
• Infosys co-founder and chairman Nandan Nilekani is the former chairman of Aadhaar-issuing body, Unique Identity Authority of India.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Madhya Pradesh.

• Indira Sagar Project (ISP) situated on River Narmada, 10 Km from village Punasa in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh.
• Indira Sagar Project is the mother project for the downstream projects on Narmada Basin with the largest reservoir in India, having 12.22 m³ storage capacity.
• River Narmada, the fifth largest river in India, with a river flow length of 1312 km originates from Amarkantak in Shahdol district of Madhya Pradesh.
• The Narmada flows westward and after passing through Madhya Pradesh, Gujrat and Maharashtra, it drains into the Arabian Sea near Gulf of Cambay.