Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Previous Paper 9 (Held On: 4 July 2019 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

URBAN

  1. AOption (a)

    Modern

  2. BOption (b)

    Alien

  3. COption (c)

    Rural

  4. DOption (d)

    Casual

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rural

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. Rural.

  • Urban: relating to a town.
  • Rural: relating to a village. Hence, this is the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
  • Modern: relating to the present or recent times.
  • Alien: belonging to a foreign country.
  • Casual: relaxed and unconcerned.

Question 2

Select the most appropriate passive form of the given sentence.

How much monthly rent did you pay for the house?

  1. AOption (a)

    How much monthly rent was paid for the house? 

  2. BOption (b)

    How much monthly rent is being paid for the house? 

  3. COption (c)

    How much monthly rent was being paid for the house?

  4. DOption (d)

    How much monthly rent is paid for the house?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

How much monthly rent was paid for the house? 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. How much monthly rent was paid for the house?

  • While changing the active voice into passive voice the tense remains the same.
  • Hence, options 2 and option 4 cannot be the answer.
  • Moreover, being is used in continuous tenses, so, option 3) is also wrong.
  • Option 1) is correct because it follows all the rules.

Question 3

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence.

She said, "Deepak slipped when he was trying to skate."

  1. AOption (a)

    She said that Deepak slipped when he was trying to skate.

  2. BOption (b)

    She said that Deepak was slipping when he was trying to skate.

  3. COption (c)

    She said that Deepak has slipped when he was trying to skate. 

  4. DOption (d)

    She said that Deepak had slipped when he was trying to skate.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

She said that Deepak slipped when he was trying to skate.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e She said that Deepak slipped when he was trying to skate.

Explanation:

  • While changing direct speech into indirect speech change in the tense will not occur when the time clause is mentioned ('when')
  • Reporting speech and reported speech are joined with that if the given sentence is a simple sentence.
  • These rules are followed in option 1) making it the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • In complex sentences, the past simple and past continuous may remain unchanged if the temporal relationship between the events in the clauses is clear from the context. Examples: 
  • Bill: I was reading a book when I heard the crash.

Bill said that he was reading a book when he heard the crash.

  • John: When I got home, I went to bed straight away.

John told me that when he got home he went to bed straight away.

Question 4

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

She kept her clothes neatly arranged in the ______ .

  1. AOption (a)

    Warehouse

  2. BOption (b)

    Wardrobe

  3. COption (c)

    Larder

  4. DOption (d)

    Godown

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Wardrobe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. wardrobe.

  • Wardrobe means a large, tall cupboard in which clothes may be hung or stored. This fits in the context of the given sentence. Hence it will be the correct word to fill in the blank.
  • Warehouse: a large building where raw materials or manufactured goods may be stored.
  • Larder: a room or large cupboard for storing food.
  • Godown: a warehouse.

Question 5

Identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

The soldiers had no choice when to obey the commander.

  1. AOption (a)

    when to obey

  2. BOption (b)

    had no choice

  3. COption (c)

    The soldiers

  4. DOption (d)

    the commander 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

when to obey

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. when to obey.

  • In the given sentence 'when' will not be used.
  • 'But' will be used in place of when to make the sentence contextually and grammatically correct.
  • So, the correct sentence will be: The soldiers had no choice but to obey the commander.

Question 6

Select the correctly spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    genaral

  2. BOption (b)

    guillty

  3. COption (c)

    genuine 

  4. DOption (d)

    generus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

genuine 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 'genuine' which means authentic, real.

  • The correct spelling and meaning of other words:
  • General: Normal, representing something by form, group, idea or type.
  • Guilty: Responsible for a dishonest act.
  • Generous: Noble in behaviour or actions.

Question 7

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Head in the clouds

  1. AOption (a)

    to daydream

  2. BOption (b)

    to be very tall 

  3. COption (c)

    to be very lazy

  4. DOption (d)

     to feel giddy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to daydream

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 1.
  • The meaning of the given idiom 'HEAD IN THE CLOUDS'  is 'Daydreaming or absentminded'.
  • Therefore, out of the given options, option 1 i.e**. 'to daydream'** gives the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Question 8

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

CANDID

  1. AOption (a)

    sweet

  2. BOption (b)

    frank

  3. COption (c)

    arrogant

  4. DOption (d)

    cruel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

frank

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 2.
  • The meaning of the given options:
  • Candid: frank, open.
  • Sweet: Very pleasing; agreeable.
  • Frank: Honest, candid, blunt.
  • Arrogant: Having excessive pride in oneself.
  • Cruel: Harsh, severe.
  • Therefore, out of given options 'frank' is the most appropriate word.

Question 9

Identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

The number of visitors at the fair were much larger than expected.

  1. AOption (a)

    The number of 

  2. BOption (b)

    than expected

  3. COption (c)

    visitors at the fair

  4. DOption (d)

    were much larger 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

were much larger 

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 4.
  • The error lies in the wrong usage of the Subject-verb agreement.
  • Here, the subject is 'number' which is singular must be followed by singular verb 'was' instead of 'were'.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence is 'The number of visitors at the fair was much larger than expected'.

Question 10

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. They have no mind of their own.

B. It is misleading to imagine that computers can think like humans.

C. However, they make it possible for people to accumulate thoughts.

D. They cannot do so.

  1. AOption (a)

    BDAC

  2. BOption (b)

    BACD

  3. COption (c)

    ACBD

  4. DOption (d)

    ABCD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BDAC

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 1.
  • The answer does not begin with sentences A & D  because they are dependent sentences. In sentence A & D, we do not know what the word 'they' is talking about.
  • The answer does not begin with sentence C because a paragraph cannot begin with an adverb.
  • Therefore, the first sentence begins with B which says 'it is misleading' which means there is a contradict opinion that computers can think like humans' which is given in sentence D that they cannot do so.
  • Sentence A is the third sentence as it is continuing why computers cannot think like humans.
  • The concluding opinion is given in sentence C.
  • Therefore, the correct sequence BDAC is followed by Option 1.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

SANE

  1. AOption (a)

    foolish

  2. BOption (b)

    crazy

  3. COption (c)

    sensitive

  4. DOption (d)

    sensible

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

sensible

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 4.
  • The meaning of the given words:
  • Sane: mentally sound, rational, reasonable.
  • Foolish: lacking good sense or judgment.
  • Crazy: insane, lunatic.
  • Sensitive: tender, easily offended, upset or hurt.
  • Sensible: Perceptible by mind, reasonable.
  • Therefore, out of given options, 'sensible' is the most appropriate word.

Question 12

Identify the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment. If no substitution is required, select No substitution.

Those who have not received the invitation they should leave.

  1. AOption (a)

    they should left

  2. BOption (b)

    he should be leaving

  3. COption (c)

    No substitution 

  4. DOption (d)

    should leave

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

should leave

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 4.
  • In the given sentence, 'those' itself indicates the people who have not received the invitation, there is no need of using the pronoun again in the sentence as it becomes superfluous.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence is 'Those who have not received the invitation should leave'.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

MEAGRE

  1. AOption (a)

    common

  2. BOption (b)

    scarce

  3. COption (c)

    plentiful

  4. DOption (d)

    minor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

plentiful

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 3.
  • The meaning of the given words:
  • Meagre: Having little, deficient or inferior in amount.
  • Common: Usual, simple, ordinary.
  • Scarce: rare, insufficient.
  • Plentiful: Existing in large number, ample.
  • Minor: of little significance.
  • Therefore, out of given options, 'plentiful' is the antonym of the given words. All other words form synonym of the given word.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate word for the group of words.

A remedy for all diseases

  1. AOption (a)

    panacea

  2. BOption (b)

    antidote

  3. COption (c)

    antibiotic

  4. DOption (d)

    patent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

panacea

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is option 1.
  • The meaning of the given words:
  • Panacea:  A remedy to cure all diseases.
  • Antidote: A remedy to counteract a poison.
  • Antibiotic: substance that destroys or inhibits bacteria
  • Patent: A declaration issued by a government to an inventor.
  • Therefore, it is obvious that the word 'panacea' gives the most appropriate meaning of the given context.

Question 15

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. 

The old man has lost his memory. He is suffering from ______ .

  1. AOption (a)

    acacia.

  2. BOption (b)

    anaesthesia

  3. COption (c)

    amnesia

  4. DOption (d)

    ambrosia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

amnesia

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 3.
  • As the given sentence is talking about the suffering of an old man & his loss of memory, so the blank should contain the name of a disease.
  • The meaning of the given options:
  • Acacia: A shrub or tree of the tribe acacieae.
  • Anaesthesia: A method preventing sensation.
  • Amnesia: loss of memory.
  • Ambrosia: Any food with an especially delicious flavor or fragrance.
  • Therefore, the most suitable word in the blank is 'Amnesia' which means loss of memory.

Question 16

Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Attendance

  2. BOption (b)

    Affluence

  3. COption (c)

    Alliance

  4. DOption (d)

    Affilate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Affilate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The correct spelling is 'Affiliate' which means 'someone or something associated with a larger, related organization'.
  • The meaning of the other words:
  • Attendance:  Count of individuals, frequency of one's presence.
  • Affluence: An abundant flow or supply.
  • Alliance: The state of uniting.

Hint

  • Mnemonics (Memory Aids) for affiliation

look at the letters AFF+ATION... this word rhymes like AFFecTION...... SO YOU JOIN a group or you ASSOCIATE with only people whom you like or you have some kind of affection FOR THEM.

  • Mnemonics (Memory Aids) for affluence

sounds like influence. Rich people generally have influence over others, hence affluence can be related to richness. afFLUENCE-fluence resembles something fluent in our mind. someone fluent in something will talk much to show their skill, which is their wealth.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Green thumb

  1. AOption (a)

    to have talent in gardening

  2. BOption (b)

    to be envious 

  3. COption (c)

    to be angry

  4. DOption (d)

    to have talent in painting 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to have talent in gardening

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is Option 1.
  • The meaning of the given idiom 'Green thumb' means to have the ability to grow plants well.
  • Therefore, option 1 gives the appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Agatha Christie is a well known writer of mystery books. The (1) ______ in each of her stories involves everyday characters (2) ______ we can relate to. This makes her stories more (3) ______ because whatever she writes about can happen (4) ______ any of us. What makes her stories more interesting (5) ______ the twist at the end.

Question 18

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1

  1. AOption (a)

    style

  2. BOption (b)

    plot

  3. COption (c)

    title

  4. DOption (d)

    ending

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

plot

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. plot.

  • Plot means the main events of a play, novel, film, or similar work, devised and presented by the writer as an interrelated sequence.
  • Since the given passage talks about a writer and his books, the word 'plot' is the most appropriate word to be used in the blank.
  • Other words do not fit in the context of the given sentence, hence, they will not be used.

Question 19

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2

  1. AOption (a)

    whose

  2. BOption (b)

    these

  3. COption (c)

    those

  4. DOption (d)

    that

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

that

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. that.

  • In the given sentence we need a relative pronoun for 'characters'.
  • In the given sentence we have only two relative pronouns i.e. whose and that.
  • whose is used to show possession and that is used to refer a noun, hence, 'that' will be used here to refer to 'characters'

Question 20

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3

  1. AOption (a)

    sarcastic

  2. BOption (b)

    realistic

  3. COption (c)

    artistic

  4. DOption (d)

    exotic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

realistic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. realistic.

  • The given passage says that the stories written by the writer can happen to anyone which means we can relate her stories with real life.
  • Hence, realistic is the most appropriate option for blank 3).
  • Sarcastic: marked by or given to using irony in order to mock or convey contempt.
  • Artistic: having or revealing natural creative skill.
  • Exotic: attractive or striking because colourful or out of the ordinary.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4 

  1. AOption (a)

    to

  2. BOption (b)

    on

  3. COption (c)

    by

  4. DOption (d)

    from

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. to.

  • 'to' is used to indicate a person, place or thing.
  • In the given sentence 'to' indicate 'any of us' , hence it is the correct word to use in the blank 40.
  • On: on is used to show contact. E.g. the book is on the table.
  • BY: by is used to show the method of something, like by train, by bus, etc.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5

  1. AOption (a)

    was

  2. BOption (b)

    were

  3. COption (c)

    are

  4. DOption (d)

    is

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

is

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. is.

  • The given sentence is in the present tense, hence, we cannot use was and were.
  • The subject of the given sentence is singular i.e. what because the main verb used for what is 'makes'.
  • Hence, the auxiliary verb 'is' will be used.

Question 23

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. Children are the most adversely affected.

B. Their eyesight goes weak from their very childhood.

C. Watching television continuously is very harmful for the eyes.

D. This debilitating effect on eyes results in severe headaches as well.

  1. AOption (a)

    ABDC

  2. BOption (b)

    CABD

  3. COption (c)

    CBDA

  4. DOption (d)

    ACBD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CABD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. CABD.

  • The only independent sentence from the given sentences is 'C', hence, it will be the first sentence.
  • Sentence 'A' will follow the sentence 'C' because in the sentence 'C' it is being said that watching television is harmful and the sentence 'A', it is being said that who are most affected by it.
  • In the sentence 'B' pronoun 'their' has been used for 'children' hence, sentence 'B' will follow the sentence 'A'.
  • so, the last sentence will be 'D'.
  • Hence, the correct sequence will be: CABD

Question 24

Identify the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment. If no substitution is required, select No substitution.

No other man in the city is as rich than he is

  1. AOption (a)

    so much rich as he

  2. BOption (b)

    No substitution

  3. COption (c)

    as rich as he is

  4. DOption (d)

    more richer than he

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

as rich as he is

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. as rich as he.

  • In the given sentence 'as rich than he is' is used which is wrong because we cannot use 'than' with as.
  • 'as-as' is used for comparison, hence, 'as rich as he' is the correct answer.
  • We cannot use 'so much rich' because so and much both are used for comparison and we cannot use both of them in a sentence.
  • more richer is also wrong because both of them are used for comparison.

Question 25

Select the most appropriate word for the group of words.

That which cannot be heard

  1. AOption (a)

    inaudible

  2. BOption (b)

    invisible

  3. COption (c)

    incorrigible

  4. DOption (d)

    incredible

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

inaudible

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. inaudible

Let's look at the meaning of the given options-

  • Inaudible: that which cannot be heard.
  • Invisible: that which cannot be seen.
  • Incorrigible: that which cannot be corrected
  • Incredible: that which cannot be believed.

Hence from the above-given meanings, we find that the correct answer is option  1 i.e. inaudible

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

8, 6, 28

  1. AOption (a)

    7, 2, 45

  2. BOption (b)

    6, 4, 30

  3. COption (c)

    10, 5, 85

  4. DOption (d)

    12, 6, 98 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7, 2, 45

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

82 = 64 and 62 = 36

64 - 36 = 28.

Checking each options,

Option 1 → 

72 = 49 and 22 = 4 

49 - 4 = 45

Option 2 → 

62 = 36 and 42 = 16 

36 - 16 ≠ 30

Option 3 → 

102 = 100 and 52 = 25

100 - 25 ≠ 85

Option 4 → 

122 = 144 and 62 = 36

144 - 36 ≠ 98

So, except only 7, 2, 45 all do not follow the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is 7, 2, 45

Question 27

In a code language, COLD is written as ALHY. How will IRON be written in the same language?

  1. AOption (a)

    GOKI 

  2. BOption (b)

    GPKI

  3. COption (c)

    FOKI

  4. DOption (d)

    GUKI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

GOKI 

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is GOKI.

Question 28

Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following phrases in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. world
  2. Mumbai
  3. Gateway of India
  4. Asia
  5. Maharashtra
  6. India
  1. AOption (a)

    3, 2, 5, 6, 1, 4 

  2. BOption (b)

    3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1

  3. COption (c)

    3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1

  4. DOption (d)

    3, 2, 5, 6, 4, 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3, 2, 5, 6, 4, 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct order will be,

3.Gateway of India →  2.Mumbai → 5.Maharashtra → 6.India → 4.Asia →1.world.

Hence, the correct answer is 3, 2, 5, 6, 4, 1

Question 29

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

There is an increasing number of (*) in every figure as we move towards the left to right and decreasing of (+) as we move towards the left to right.

The number of "+" symbols is decreasing by 1 in each step.

the number of "*" symbols is increasing by 1 in each step. 

And the square is rotating in clockwise direction.

The complete series will be,

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 30

How many triangles are there in the figure given below?

  1. AOption (a)

    33

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    34

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

33

Why this answer is correct

By counting number of triangles: 

Counting All triangles above point I.

ABb,ACa,ADZ,DZI,EYI,FXI,GWI,HVI → 8 Triangles 

cZI,dYI,eXI,fWI,gVI, cDI,dEI,eFI,fGI,gHI → 10 Triagles 

Below point I,

INP,IMQ,ILR,IKS,IJT → 5 Triangles 

IJi,IKj,ILk,IMl,INO,IiT,IjS,IkS,IlQ,IOP → 10 tringles 

Total triangles = 8 + 10 + 5 + 10 = 33

Hence, the correct answer is 33.

Question 31

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

14 + 4 ÷ 5 - 18 × 2 = 25

  1. AOption (a)

    ÷ and +

  2. BOption (b)

    × and ÷

  3. COption (c)

    × and -

  4. DOption (d)

    × and +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

× and ÷

Why this answer is correct

Given expression is

14 + 4 ÷ 5 - 18 × 2

Option 1 → ÷ and +

So, we get, 14 ÷ 4 + 5 - 18 × 2

= 7/2 + 5 -18 × 2

= 7/2 + 5 - 36

= -35/2 ≠ 25

Option 2 → × and ÷

So, we get, 14 + 4 × 5 - 18 ÷ 2

= 14 + 4 × 5 - 9

= 14 + 20 -9

= 34 - 9

= 25

Option 3 → × and -

We get, 14 + 4 ÷ 5 × 18 - 2 = 25

14 + 0.8 × 18 - 2 

14 + 14.4 - 2 ≠ 25

Option 4 → × and +

14 × 4 ÷ 5 - 18 + 2 

14 × 0.8 - 18 + 2

11.2 - 18 + 2 ≠ 25

Only option 2 satisfy the given condition. 

Hence, the correct answer is × and ÷

Question 32

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    DGMJ

  2. BOption (b)

    PSZV

  3. COption (c)

    SVBY

  4. DOption (d)

    KNTQ 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PSZV

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is, 

Except option 2 the gap between the 1st letter and 2nd letter is 3,2nd letter and 3rd letter is 6 and 3rd letter and 4th letter is 3

Hence, the correct answer is PSZV.

Question 33

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

7, 11, ?, 31, 47

  1. AOption (a)

    29

  2. BOption (b)

    55

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

19

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is, 

Hence, the correct answer is 4.

Question 34

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the gaps of the given letter series will complete the series.

U_ _ R P K Q _ U K D _ P K _ R _ K D R _ K _ R

  1. AOption (a)

    KQPRQUPQ 

  2. BOption (b)

    KDRRUURQ

  3. COption (c)

    KDRRQUPQ

  4. DOption (d)

    KDRRQPPR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

KDRRQUPQ

Why this answer is correct

By checking each options:

1) U K Q R P K Q P U K D R P K Q R U K D R P K Q R → No definite pattern is followed.

2) U K D R P K Q R U K D R P K U R U K D R R K Q R → No definite pattern is followed.

  1. U K D R P K Q R/ U K D R P K Q R/ U K D R P K Q R → Definite pattern is followed. (U K D R P K Q R)

4) U K D R P K Q R U K D R P K Q R P K D R P K R R → No definite pattern is followed.

Hence, the correct answer is KDRRQUPQ.

Question 35

Three different positions of the same dice, which has one to six dots on its six faces, are shown below. When six dots are at bottom then the number of dots on the top will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

Considering the first two positions,

1 is common in two dice positions so by keep 1 as constant term we move clockwise or anticlockwise direction from 1.

We get, 3 is the opposite of 4, 6 is the opposite of 2 and 1 is the opposite of 5.

So, 2 is at the opposite of 6.

Hence, the correct answer is 2.

Question 36

Rishabh is Namita’s only brother. Rishabh’s wife, Mridu has a brother Sonu. Illena is Namita’s only niece. How is Sonu related to Illena?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maternal uncle

  2. BOption (b)

    Father

  3. COption (c)

    Brother 

  4. DOption (d)

    Paternal uncle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maternal uncle

Why this answer is correct

We will consider following table for family tree:

The family tree is as shown below:

As Illena is the only daughter of Rishabh and Mridu and Sonu is the brother of Mridu.

So, Sonu is the maternal uncle of Illena.

Hence, the correct answer is Maternal uncle.

Question 37

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. 

Sikkim, Manipur, Imphal

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Sikkim is the different state where as imphal is the capital of Manipur.

So, the correct venn diagram is,

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 38

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out.

  1. AOption (a)

    Shirt

  2. BOption (b)

    Sandals

  3. COption (c)

    Slippers

  4. DOption (d)

    Shoes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shirt

Why this answer is correct

Sandals, Slippers, Shoes are used as footwear.

Hence, the correct answer is shirt.

Question 39

Select the term that will come next in the following series.

FBA, IGE, LLI, OQM, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    RVQ

  2. BOption (b)

    QVQ

  3. COption (c)

    RVP

  4. DOption (d)

    RUP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RVQ

Why this answer is correct

The logic is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is RVQ.

Question 40

Select the option figure which contains figure X embedded in it as its part (Rotation is not allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

By observation, we can see that image is embedded as follows,

In option 2 the embedded figure is found.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 41

In a code language ‘HEDONISM’ is written as ‘QFGJOUKP’. How will ‘PROFITED’ be written as in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    HOTSFFVK

  2. BOption (b)

    HQTRFGVK

  3. COption (c)

    GSQRFUK

  4. DOption (d)

    HQTREGVL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

HQTRFGVK

Why this answer is correct

The logic is as follows:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is HQTRFGVK

Question 42

Two years ago a man was six times as old as his son. In 18 years, he will be twice as old as his son. What are their present ages of the man and his son?

  1. AOption (a)

    34 and 9 years

  2. BOption (b)

    32 and 7 years

  3. COption (c)

    32 and 13 years

  4. DOption (d)

    34 and 7 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

32 and 7 years

Why this answer is correct

Let, two years ago the of the boy = X

The age of his father = 6X

So, 6x+20X+20=;21\frac{{6x + 20}}{{X + 20}} = ;\frac{2}{1}

We get,

6x + 20 = 2x + 40;

4x = 20;

X = 5

So, the age of boy is 5 and his father is 30 two years ago.

So, the present age of the son is 5 + 2 = 7 and his father is 30 + 2 = 32

Hence, the correct answer is 32 and 7 years.

Question 43

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The mirror image would be,

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 44

Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two number of the following number-pair

4 : 49

  1. AOption (a)

    8 : 144

  2. BOption (b)

    6 : 64

  3. COption (c)

    7 : 100

  4. DOption (d)

    5 : 82

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7 : 100

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 7 : 100

Given series is 4 : 49

i.e. 4 + 3 = 72 = 49

Similarly,

Option 1 → 

8 → 8 + 3 = 112 = `121 ≠ 144

Option 2  → 

6 → 6 + 3 = 92 = `81 ≠ 64

Option 3  → 

7 → 7 + 3 = 102 = `100;

Option 4  → 

5 → 5 + 3 = 82 = `64 ≠ 82

Hence, the correct answer is 7 : 100

Question 45

If ‘TRANSFER’ is coded as ‘2018114196518’, then how will ‘INCLUDED’ be coded as in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    91431221454

  2. BOption (b)

    18231220454

  3. COption (c)

    91331121454

  4. DOption (d)

    81431222353

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

91431221454

Why this answer is correct

Alphabet and their positional value:

Code for Transfer
TRANSFER
2018114196518
Similarly the code for included
INCLUDED
91431221454

 

Here, all alphabets are taking their own positional value.

Hence, the correct answer is 91431221454.

Question 46

A figure of transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from among the four options as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

For this question, We are folding the transparent sheet diagonally upside.

After folding in left, the pattern will look like as-

Here, folded image is the same as Option (4).

Hence, Option (4) is correct

Question 47

Which two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?

618 + 37 × 12 - 703 ÷ 14 = 767

  1. AOption (a)

    14 and 37

  2. BOption (b)

    618 and 14

  3. COption (c)

    703 and 12

  4. DOption (d)

    12 and 37

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14 and 37

Why this answer is correct

Given expression:

618 + 37 × 12 - 703 ÷ 14

Option 1 → 14 and 37

618 + 14 × 12 - 703 ÷ 37

= 618 + 14 × 12 - 19

= 618 + 168 - 19

= 767

option 2 → 618 and 14

14 + 37 × 12 - 703 ÷ 618 

14 + 37 × 12 - 1.137

14 + 444 - 1.137 ≠ 767

Option 3 → 703 and 12

618 + 37 × 703 - 12 ÷ 14 

618 + 37 × 703 - 0.85

618 + 26011 - 0.86 ≠ 767

Option 4 → 12 and 37

618 + 12 × 37 - 703 ÷ 14 

618 + 12 × 37 - 50.214

618 + 444 - 50.214 ≠ 767

We get the answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "14 and 37".

Question 48

If ‘E’ is coded as ‘5’ and ‘PEN’ is coded as ‘35’ then how will ‘PAGE’ be coded?

  1. AOption (a)

    28

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

29

Why this answer is correct

positional value of E is 5.

The code for “E” is 5

“PEN” is = 16 + 5 + 14 = 35;

Similarly,

The code for “PAGE” = 16 + 1 + 7 + 5 = 29

Hence, the correct answer is 29.

Question 49

Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair.

Waiter : Serve

  1. AOption (a)

    Lawyer : Legal

  2. BOption (b)

    Architect : Fashion

  3. COption (c)

    Engineer : Technical 

  4. DOption (d)

    Mechanic : Repair

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mechanic : Repair

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

Waiter : Serve

Waiter is the one serves the food.

Similarly, 

A mechanic is the one who repairs vehicle.

Hence, the correct answer is the Mechanic : Repair.

Question 50

Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest.

  1. AOption (a)

    99

  2. BOption (b)

    97

  3. COption (c)

    89

  4. DOption (d)

    83

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

99

Why this answer is correct

97,89 and 83 are prime numbers.

But, 

99 is a compound number.

Hence, the correct answer is 99.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

A number is increased by 30%, then decreased by 25% and then further increased by 25%. What is the net increase/decrease percent in the number (correct to the nearest integer)?

  1. AOption (a)

    22% decrease

  2. BOption (b)

    22% increase

  3. COption (c)

    21% decrease

  4. DOption (d)

    21% increase

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22% increase

Why this answer is correct

Net percentage change using formula = x + y + xy/100

For first two changes,

⇒ +30 + (-25) + [30 × (-25)]/100 = -2.5% 

For further third change,

-2.5 + 25 + [(-2.5) × 25]/100 = 21.875%

⇒ 22% increase (approx.)

Question 52

If a 10-digit number 1220x558y2 is divisible by 88, then the value of (x + y) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A number 1220x558y2 is divisible by 88

Concept used:

• If a number is divisible by 88 then it must be divisible by 11 & 8

• If a number ABCD is divisible by 11 then (A + C) - (B + D) = 0 or multiple of 11 

Calculation:

The difference between the sum of alternative terms should be 0.

⇒ 1 + 2 + x + 5 + y = 2 + 0 + 5 + 8 + 2

⇒ x + y = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9

Question 53

10 years ago, the average age of a family of five members was 38 years. Now, two new members join, whose age difference is 8 years. If the present average age of the family is the same as it was 10 years ago, What is the age (in years) of the new younger member? 

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9

Why this answer is correct

Total age of family 10 years ago = 38 × 5 = 190 years

Total age at present of the family = 38 × 7 = 266 years

Age of 5 members increased = 5 × 10 = 50 years

Difference of total age then and now = 266 – (190 + 50) = 26 (sum of ages of new members)

Let the two members be x and y.

X + y = 26

X – y = 8

On solving two equations,

X = 17 and y = 9

Age of younger member = 9

Question 54

If (x - 7)3 + (x - 8)3 + (x + 6)3 = 3 (x - 7)(x - 8) (x + 6), then what is the value of x?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(x - 7)3 + (x - 8)3 + (x + 6)3 = 3 (x - 7)(x - 8) (x + 6)

Concept used:

If a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc then a + b + c = 0

Calculation:

Let (x - 7),(x - 8), and (x + 6) be a, b and c respectively

Now the equation can be written as,

⇒ a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

Using the above concept, we can write,

⇒ a + b + c = 0 

⇒ (x - 7) + (x - 8) + (x + 6) = 0    [ put the values of a, b, c ]

⇒ 3x = 9

⇒ x = 3

∴ The value of x is 3

Question 55

If cos θ = 2p/(p2 + 1), then sin θ is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    (p2 - 1)/(p2 + 1)

  2. BOption (b)

    2p/(p2 - 1)

  3. COption (c)

    (p2 + 1)/(p2 - 1)

  4. DOption (d)

    p2/(p2 + 1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(p2 - 1)/(p2 + 1)

Why this answer is correct

cos θ = 2p/(p2 + 1)

On squaring both the side,

⇒ cos2 θ = 4p2/(p2 + 1)2

⇒ 1 – sin2 θ = 4p2/(p2 + 1)2

⇒ sin2 θ = 1 - 4p2/(p2 + 1)2

⇒ sin2 θ = [(p2 + 1)2 - 4p2]/(p2 + 1)2

⇒ sin2 θ = (p2 - 1)2 /(p2 + 1)2

⇒ sin θ = (p2 - 1)/(p2 + 1).

Alternate Method

cos θ = 2p/(p2 + 1)

cos θ = 2p/(p2 + 1) = Base(B)/Hypotenuse(H)

By Pythagoras theorem 

⇒ (P)2 + (B)2 = (H)2 

⇒ (P)2 + (2p)2 = (p2 + 1)2

⇒ (P)2 + 4p2 = (p2 + 1)2

⇒ (P)2 = (p2 + 1)2 - 4p2

⇒ (P)2 = p4 + 1 + 2p2 - 4p2

⇒ (P)2 = (p2 - 1)2

⇒ P = p2 - 1

now, 

sin θ =   Perpendicular(P)/Hypotenuse(H)

⇒ sin θ =  (p2 - 1)(p2 + 1)

∴ sin θ =  (p2 - 1)(p2 + 1)

Question 56

What is the area of rhombus (in cm)2 whose side is 10 cm and the smaller diagonal is 12 cm?

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    192

  3. COption (c)

    96

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

96

Why this answer is correct

There are different ways of doing it, one method is as follows…..

Rhombus ABCD, AB = 10 cm, So BC = 10 cm, as all sides of rhombus are equal.

Diagonal AC = 12 cm

So, area of triangle ABC by Heron's formula

= √{ s(s - a)(s - b)(s - c)}, s is semi perimeter & a, b, c are sides of the triangle

= s = 32/2 = 16

Area = √{16(16 – 10)(16 – 10)(16 – 12)

⇒ area = √(16 × 6 × 6 × 4)

⇒ area = √(22 × 22 × 22 × 32 × 22)

⇒ area = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 2 = 48 cm2

⇒ area (Rhombus ABCD) = 48 × 2 = 96 cm2

Alternate Method

Given:

The side of a rhombus is 10 cm and the smaller diagonal is 12 cm

Concept use:

• All sides of a rhombus are equal

• Diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at a right angle (90°)

• Area of a rhombus = 1/2 × (product of two diagonals)

Calculation:

Let ABCD be the rhombus, where AC and BD be the diagonals intersecting at point O

Here, AC = 12, then OC = 6 and BC = 10

Now, ΔBOC is a right-angle triangle where right angle at O

So, BO = √(102 - 62) = 8

So, BD = 8 × 2 = 16 cm

Now, area of the rhombus is 1/2 × 16 × 12 = 96 cm2

∴ The area of the rhombus is 96 cm2

Directions: The given Bar Graph presents the results in terms of number of students in school for the five academic years. 2013-2014 to 2017-2018

Question 57

In which year the percentage increase in the total number of students is the highest in comparison to the previous academic year?

  1. AOption (a)

    2017 - 2018

  2. BOption (b)

    2015 - 2016

  3. COption (c)

    2016 - 2017

  4. DOption (d)

    2014 - 2015

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2014 - 2015

Why this answer is correct

Total number of student in 2013-2014 is (150 + 100) = 250

Total number of student in 2041-20015 is (200 + 100) = 300

Total number of student in 2015-2016 is (300 + 50) = 350

Total number of student in 2016-2017 is (250 + 100) = 350

Total number of student in 2017-2018 is (300 + 100) = 400

From 2014-15 the increase in number of students = (300 – 250)/250 × 100 = 20%

From 2015-16 the increase in number of students = (350 – 300)/300 × 100 = 16.66%

From 2016-17 the increase in number of students = (350 – 350)/350 × 100 = 0%

From 2017-18 the increase in number of students = (400 – 350)/350 × 100 = 14.28%

∴ the number of students increasing percentage is maximum for year 2014-15.

Question 58

What is the average of failed students in five academic years?

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    50

  3. COption (c)

    100

  4. DOption (d)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

90

Why this answer is correct

Number of failed students = 100 + 100 + 50 + 100 + 100 = Rs. 450

Average of failed students in five academic years = 450/5 = Rs. 90

Question 59

The difference between the number of students passed and those who failed is the highest in which academic year?

  1. AOption (a)

    2015-2016

  2. BOption (b)

    2014-2015

  3. COption (c)

    2017-2018

  4. DOption (d)

    2016-2017

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2015-2016

Why this answer is correct

Difference between the number of students passed and those who failed,

In 2013-14, (150 – 100) = 50

In 2014-15, (200 -100) = 100

In 2015-16, (300 -50) = 250

In 2016-17, (250 -100) = 150

In 2017-18, (300 -100) = 200

∴ In year 2015-16 difference between the number of students passed and those who failed.

Question 60

What is the approximate parentage of students passed during five academic years (correct to the nearest integer)?

  1. AOption (a)

    71%

  2. BOption (b)

    78%

  3. COption (c)

    79%

  4. DOption (d)

    73%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

73%

Why this answer is correct

Total number of students = (150 + 100) + (200 + 100) + (300 + 50) + (250 + 100) + (300 + 100) = 1650

Total number of students passed = (150 + 200 + 300 + 250 + 300) = 1200

percentage of passed students = 1200/1650 × 100 = 72.72% or 73% (Approximately)

Question 61

The simplified value of 15 of 8 – 6 + [(27 – 3) ÷ 6 - 4] is:

  1. AOption (a)

    114

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    124

  4. DOption (d)

    116

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

114

Why this answer is correct

Concept use:

Calculation:

⇒ 15 of 8 – 6 + [(27 – 3) ÷ 6 - 4]

⇒ 15 of 8 – 6 + [24 ÷ 6 - 4]

⇒ 15 of 8 – 6 + [4 - 4]

⇒ 15 of 8 – 6 

⇒ 120 – 6 

⇒ 114

∴ The correct answer is 114

Question 62

If (x - 1/x) = 10, then (x3 - 1/x3) is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    970

  2. BOption (b)

    1000

  3. COption (c)

    1030

  4. DOption (d)

    1100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1030

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(x - 1/x) = 10

Calculation:

(x - 1/x) = 10 (x - 1/x) = 10

on cubing both the side,

⇒ (x - 1/x)3 = 103

⇒ (x3 - 1/x3 - 3(x × 1/x)(x – 1/x) = 1000

⇒ (x3 - 1/x3) – 3 × 10 = 1000

⇒ (x3 - 1/x3) = 1030

Alternate Method

Concept used:

If (x - 1/x) = a then (x3 - 1/x3) = a3 + 3a

Calculation:

⇒ (x - 1/x) = 10

⇒ (x3 - 1/x3) = 103 + 3× 10

⇒ (x3 - 1/x3) = 1030

∴ The correct answer is 1030

Question 63

A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 10, 20 and 60 days respectively. Working together, they can complete the same work in how many days?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A can do the work = 10 days

B can do the work = 20 days

C can do the work = 60 days

Calculation:

One-day work of A = 1/10 days      ----(1)

One-day work of B = 1/20 days      ----(2)

One-day work of C = 1/60 days      ----(3)

Adding equations (1), (2) and (3), we get

One-day work of (A + B + C) = {(1/10) + (1/20) + (1/60)}

⇒ (A + B + C) = {(6 + 3 + 1)/60}

⇒ (A + B + C) = 10/60 = 1/6

One-day work of (A + B + C) = 1/6 days 

∴ The total work will be completed in 6 days.

Alternate Method

Total work in units = LCM of the time taken by them individually.

LCM = total work = 60

Efficiency of A = 60/10 = 6 units per day. (Efficiency = total work/time)   

Efficiency of B = 60/20 = 3 units per day. (Efficiency = total work/time)   

Efficiency of C = 60/60 = 1 unit per day. (Efficiency = total work/time)

Working together they will complete = 60/(6 + 3 + 1) = 6 days.

Question 64

A train covers 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 10 km/h more, it would have taken 3 hours less for the same journey. What is the speed of the train (in km/h)?

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Use the product of speeds formula: Distance = [s1 × s2 ÷ (s2 − s1)] × Time Difference

360 = [v × (v + 10) ÷ 10] × 3

⇒ 120 × 10 = v(v + 10)

⇒ 1200 = 30 × 40

∴ The correct answer is 30 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Distance = 360 km, Speed increase = 10 km/h, Time decrease = 3 hours.

Formula Used: Time = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Let the original speed be 'v' km/h.

⇒ Original Time (t1) = 360/v

⇒ New Time (t2) = 360/(v + 10)

⇒ Difference: t1 − t2 = 3

⇒ 360/v − 360/(v + 10) = 3

⇒ 120/v − 120/(v + 10) = 1

⇒ 120(v + 10 − v) = v(v + 10)

⇒ 1200 = v2 + 10v

⇒ v2 + 10v − 1200 = 0

⇒ (v + 40)(v − 30) = 0

⇒ Since speed cannot be negative, v = 30 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 30 km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed

For the same distance covered at speeds a and b, Average Speed = 2ab ÷ (a + b).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the opposite direction, relative speed is (s1 + s2). In the same direction, it is |s1 − s2|.

Speed-Time Relation

If distance is constant, Speed is inversely proportional to Time (s1 × t1 = s2 × t2).

Question 65

If a2 + b2 = 88 and ab = 6, (a > 0, b > 0) then what is the value of (a3 + b3)?

  1. AOption (a)

    980

  2. BOption (b)

    1180

  3. COption (c)

    820

  4. DOption (d)

    1000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

820

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a2 + b2 = 88 and ab = 6

Concept used:

• (a3 + b3) = (a + b) (a2 – ab + b2)

• (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

Calculation:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

⇒ (a + b)2 = 88 + 2 × 6 = 100 (On putting the given values)

⇒ (a + b) = 10

Again using formula,

(a3 + b3) = (a + b) (a2 – ab + b2)

⇒ (a3 + b3) = 10 × (88 - 6) = 820 (On putting the given as well as derived values)

Question 66

In triangle ABC, D and E are two points on the side AB and AC respectively so that DE || BC and AD/BD = 3/4. The ratio of the area of trapezium DECB to the area of ∆ABC is:

  1. AOption (a)

    49 : 33

  2. BOption (b)

    49 : 40

  3. COption (c)

    40 : 49

  4. DOption (d)

    33 : 49

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40 : 49

Why this answer is correct

Draw the following figure,

Using Thale’s theorem,

AD/AB = DE/BC = 3/(3 + 4) = 3/7

BC = 2k + 3k + 2k, BD = 4k

Height of trapezium (h)2 = (4k)2 – (2k)2 = 2√3k

As the sides of the triangle ABC are same (7k).

Area of equilateral triangle = √3/4 × side2

⇒ AE = (√3/4) × (7k)2 = 49(√3/4)k2

Area of the trapezium = ½ × perpendicular distance between to parallel lines × sum of the two parallel lines

AT = ½ × 2√3k × (3k + 7k) = 10√3k2

Required ratio = 10√3k2 : 49(√3/4)k2= 40 : 49.

Question 67

Rs. 60000 invested at a certain rate for a certain even number of years, compounded annually, grows to Rs. 63,654. To how much amount would it grow if it is invested on compound interrest at the same rate for half the period?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 61800

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 61809

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 61675

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 61827

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 61800

Why this answer is correct

The formula for calculating the amount is A = P(1 + r/100)n

where A = Amount, P = Principal, r = Rate of interest in % and n = Number of years

In this case both r and n are not known but P and A are given.

We have 63654 = 60,000 × (1 + r/100)n

Therefore (1 + r/100)n = 63654/60000 .

When the period is halved the formula for Amount A1 becomes

A1 = 60000(1 + r/100)n/2

Hence the multiplying factor becomes the square root of the original multiplying factor.

Hence A1 = 60,000 × √(63654/60,000)

A1 = 60,000 × 1.03 = 61,800

Question 68

Let ∆ABC ∼ ∆QPR and ar (∆ABC) : ar (∆PQR) = 9 : 4. If AB = 9 cm, BC = 6 cm and AC = 12 cm then QR is equal to: 

  1. AOption (a)

    8 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    12 cm

  3. COption (c)

    9 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    16 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 cm

Why this answer is correct

As similarity of triangles ∆ABC ∼ ∆QPR,

Ratio of area of triangles = ratio of squares of similar sides

⇒ 9 : 4 = AC2 : QR2

⇒ 9 : 4 = 122 : QR2

⇒ 12 × 12 × 4 / 9 = QR2

⇒ QR = 8 cm.

Question 69

There was 29% off on bags. A lady bought a bag and got 12% discount for paying in cash. She paid Rs. 312.40. What is the price tag (in Rs.) on the bag?

  1. AOption (a)

    600

  2. BOption (b)

    625

  3. COption (c)

    450

  4. DOption (d)

    500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

500

Why this answer is correct

Net discount = 29 + 12 – (12 × 29)/100 = 37.52%

Marked price × (100 – 37.52)/100 = Selling price

Mp × 62.48/100 = 312.40

Mp = Rs. 500

Question 70

A circle is inscribed in a triangle ABC. It touches sides AB, BC and AC at the points P, Q and R respectively. If BP = 6.5 cm, CQ = 4.5 cm and AR = 5.5 cm, then the perimeter (in cm) of the triangle ∆ABC is:

  1. AOption (a)

    16.5

  2. BOption (b)

    66

  3. COption (c)

    33

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

33

Why this answer is correct

Theorem: If from any external point two tangents are drawn on the circle, they are equal in length.

From point C,

CQ = CR = 4.5 cm

From point B,

BQ = BP = 6.5 cm

From point A,

AP = AC = 5.5 cm

Perimeter = AP + PB + BQ + QC + CR + RA

⇒ 5.5 + 6.5 + 6.5 + 4.5 + 4.5 + 5.5 = 33 cm

Question 71

A man bought 2 articles for Rs. 2650 each. He sold one article at 10% profit and another at 5% profit. The total profit percentage he earned is:

  1. AOption (a)

    8%

  2. BOption (b)

    8.5%

  3. COption (c)

    7.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    10%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7.5%

Why this answer is correct

Total Cost price = 2650 × 2 = Rs.5300

SP of one article = 2650 + 2650 × 10/100 = 2915

SP of the second article = 2650 + 2650 × 5/100 = 2782.5

Total SP = 2915 + 2782.5 = Rs. 5697.5

Profit% = (5697.5 - 5300)/5300 × 100 = 7.5%

Alternate Method

Given:

CP of two articles  Rs. 2650 each and sold one article at 10% profit and another at 5% profit.

Concept used:

• 10% = 1/10

• 5% = 1/20

Calculation:

1st article sold at a profit of 10%, CP = 10 and SP = 11

2nd article sold at a profit of 5%, CP = 20 and SP = 21

Now, according to the question CP of two articles are same,

CPSP
1st Article × 22022
2nd Article2021
Total4043

So, CP = 40 and SP =43

⇒ Profit = (43 - 40)/40 × 100 = 7.5% 

∴ The correct answer is 7.5%

Question 72

In a ∆ABC, the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C meet at point O within the triangle. If ∠A is given, then which among the given options is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    ∠BOC = 90° + (∠A/2)

  2. BOption (b)

    ∠BOC = 180° - (∠A/2)

  3. COption (c)

    ∠BOC = 90° - (∠A/2)

  4. DOption (d)

    ∠BOC = 180° - (∠A)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

∠BOC = 90° + (∠A/2)

Why this answer is correct

From the above figure,

∠BOC = 90° + (∠A/2)

Question 73

If tan x = cot (65° + 9x), then what is the value of x?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.5°

  2. BOption (b)

    1.0°

  3. COption (c)

    2.0°

  4. DOption (d)

    1.5°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2.5°

Why this answer is correct

We can write it as,

tan x = tan [90° - (65° + 9x)

x = 25 - 9x

10x = 25

x = 2.5°

Question 74

If x4 + x-4 = 2207, (x > 0) then the value of x + x-1 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7

Why this answer is correct

x4 + 1/x4 = 2207

On adding 2 on both the sides,

x4 + 1/x4 + 2 = 2209

(x2 + 1/x2)2 = (47)2

x2 + 1/x2 = 47

On adding 2 on both the sides,

x2 + 1/x2 + 2 = 49

(x + 1/x) = √49

∴ The value of x + x-1 will be 7.

Question 75

Two circles of radii 5 cm and 8 cm intersect at the points A and B. If AB = 8 cm and the distance between the centres of two circles is x cm, then the value of x (to the closest integer) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

Let O and O’ be the senter of the circle and AB be the length of the common chord.

⇒ OA = 8, O’A = 5

AM = ½ AB (as perpendicular from the center of the circle to a chord bisects the chord)

⇒ AM = ½ × 8 = 4

By applying Pythagoras theorem in triangle AMO,

OM2 = OA2 – AM2

OM2 = 64 – 16 = 48

OM = 6.92

By applying Pythagoras theorem in triangle AMO

O’M2 = O’A2 - AM2

O’M2 = 25 – 16 = 9

O’M = 3

x = OM + O’M

x = 6.92 + 3 = 9.92 or 10 (approximately)

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Which of the following instruments is used for the visual examination of eardrum?

  1. AOption (a)

    Phonograph

  2. BOption (b)

    Polygraph

  3. COption (c)

    Otoscope

  4. DOption (d)

    Optometer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Otoscope

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. Otoscope.

  • An Otoscope is an instrument with lighting and magnifying systems used for visual examination of the tympanic membrane and the canal connecting it to the exterior of the body.
  • Otolaryngology, also called otorhinolaryngology, medical speciality concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the ear, nose, and throat.
  • A phonograph, also called record player, an instrument for reproducing sounds by means of the vibration of a stylus, or needle, following a groove on a rotating disc.
  • The lie detector, also called polygraph, an instrument for recording physiological phenomena such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and respiration of a human subject as he answers questions put to him by an operator.
  • Optometer is an instrument for measuring the refractive error of an eye.

Question 77

The Barabar Caves, the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, mostly belong to which of the following periods? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Chola Dynasty 

  2. BOption (b)

    Gupta Empire

  3. COption (c)

    Maurya Empire

  4. DOption (d)

    Chera Dynasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maurya Empire

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. the Maurya Empire.

  • The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, mostly dating from the Maurya Empire (322–185 BCE), some with Ashokan inscriptions, located in the Bela Ganj Block of Gaya district, Bihar, India, 24 km north of Gaya.
  • These caves are situated in the twin hills of Barabar and Nagarjuni.
  • Caves of Nagarjuni Hill sometimes are singled out as Nagarjuni Caves. These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC, Maurya period, of Ashoka (273-232 BCE) and his son Dasaratha Maurya.
  • The caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect, founded by Makkali Gosala, a contemporary of Gautama Buddha, the founder of Buddhism, and of Mahavira, the last and 24th Tirthankara of Jainism.

Question 78

Which of the following countries was declared as a malaria-free country in May 2019 by World Health Organization?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    Nigeria

  3. COption (c)

    Madagascar

  4. DOption (d)

    Argentina

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Argentina

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. Argentina.

  • On 22 May 2019, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially recognized Algeria and Argentina as malaria-free.
  • Algeria is the second country in the WHO African Region and Argentina the second country in the WHO Region of the Americas to achieve WHO certification of malaria-free status.
  • A total of 38 countries and territories worldwide have now achieved malaria-free status.
  • Maldives & Sri Lanka are the only country in South-East Asia to have received this Malaria-free certification from WHO.

Question 79

Rafael Nadal, one of the top male tennis players in the world hails from which European country? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Spain

  2. BOption (b)

    Switzerland

  3. COption (c)

    Serbia

  4. DOption (d)

    Austria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Spain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Spain.

  • Rafael Nadal was born in Mallorca, Spain on June 3rd 1986. From a very young age, he was passionate about sport, and played football and tennis.
  • Soon, he would have to choose between the two, and decided to focus on tennis.
  • In 2004, Nadal was a member of the Spanish National Team that won the Davis Cup.
  • A year later, he established himself on the professional scene by winning Roland Garros, the first of his nine victories at the French Open.
  • Until this day, he has won 19 Grand Slams, 2 Olympic gold medals and 4 Davis Cup with the National Team.
  • Rafael Nadal won the U.S. Open in September 2019 beating Daniil Medvedev.

Question 80

What is the minimum age requirement to become a Member of the Legislative Assembly ?

  1. AOption (a)

    32 years

  2. BOption (b)

    42 years

  3. COption (c)

    20 years 

  4. DOption (d)

    25 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

25 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. 25 years.

  • The minimum age requirement to become a Member of the Legislative Assembly is 25 years.

Additional Information

According to the Indian Constitution the minimum age for a person for the following posts is as follows:

PostsThe minimum age for elections in years
President35
Governor35
Rajya Sabha member30
Member of Legislative Council (MLC)30
Lok Sabha member25
Member of legislative assembly (MLA)25

Question 81

In which city of India would you find the Swami Vivekananda Airport?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kanyakumari

  2. BOption (b)

    Raipur

  3. COption (c)

    Ranchi

  4. DOption (d)

    Durgapur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Raipur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Raipur.

  • The Swami Vivekananda International Airport is the main serving airport of the state of Chattisgarh.
  • It was formerly called the Mana Airport.
  • The airport is centrally located at Mana, 15 km south of Raipur between the old city and the new seat of the state government Naya Raipur.
  • Birsa Munda Airport is the main serving airport of Ranchi, capital of Jharkhand.
  • Kazi Nazrul Islam Airport is a domestic airport located at Andal, Paschim Bardhaman in West Bengal 15km from the city centre of Durgapur.

Question 82

Who among the following has the power to promulgate ordinances under Article 123 of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    The President 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

  4. DOption (d)

    The Attorney-General

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The President 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. The President.

  • Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain lawmaking powers to promulgate Ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament.
  • In the State, the Governor can promulgate an ordinance. Article 213 provides the Governor with this power.
  • The President can only promulgate an Ordinance when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
  • The President cannot promulgate an Ordinance unless he is satisfied that there are circumstances that require taking ‘immediate action'.
  • Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembling or they shall cease to operate.

Question 83

Which one of the following business groups is associated to Carborundum Universal Limited (CUMI), one of the largest abrasive manufacturing companies in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kirloskar Group

  2. BOption (b)

    Birla Group

  3. COption (c)

    Adani Group

  4. DOption (d)

    Murugappa Group

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Murugappa Group

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. Murugappa Group.

  • CUMI was founded in 1954 as a tripartite collaboration between the Murugappa Group, The Carborundum Co., USA and the Universal Grinding Wheel Co. Ltd., U.K.
  • The company pioneered the manufacture of Coated Abrasives and Bonded Abrasives in India in addition to the manufacture of Super Refractories, Electro Minerals, Industrial Ceramics and Ceramic Fibres.
  • CUMI’s products are exported to 43 countries spread across North America, Europe, Australia, South Africa and Asia.
  • CUMI has earned a place in Forbes’ list of ‘Asia’s Best 200 Companies Under a Billion’.

Question 84

In May 2019, who among the following was appointed by the UN Secretary-General as the new Force Commander of the United Nations Mission in South Sudan (UNMISS)? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Lieutenant General Frank Kamanzi

  2. BOption (b)

    Private Ankush Cheema

  3. COption (c)

    Lieutenant General Shailesh Tinaikar

  4. DOption (d)

    Colonel Amit Gupta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lieutenant General Shailesh Tinaikar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. Lieutenant General Shailesh Tinaikar.

  • Lieutenant General Tinaikar succeeded Lieutenant General Frank Kamanzi of Rwanda.
  • Lieutenant General Shailesh Tinaikar has had a long and distinguished career with the Indian Armed Forces spanning over 34 years.
  • He graduated from the Indian Military Academy in 1983.
  • From 1996 to 1997, he served in the United Nations Angola Verification Mission III, and from 2008 to 2009, in the United Nations Mission in Sudan.

Question 85

Which of the following is the largest bone in the human body?

  1. AOption (a)

    Femur

  2. BOption (b)

    Incus

  3. COption (c)

    Malleus

  4. DOption (d)

    Stapes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Femur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Femur.

  • The femur, also called the thighbone, the upper bone of the leg or hind leg is the largest bone in the human body.
  • The head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the hip, being held in place by a ligament within the socket and by strong surrounding ligaments.
  • A ligament is a tough fibrous band of connective tissue that serves to support the internal organs and hold bones together in proper articulation at the joints.
  • Human femurs have been shown to be capable of resisting compression forces of around 800–1,100 kg.

Question 86

Which book among the following won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Sympathizer 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Overstory 

  3. COption (c)

    The Underground Railroad 

  4. DOption (d)

    Less

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Overstory 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. The Overstory.

  • The Overstory, a novel written by Richard Powers won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction 2019.
  • Richard Powers is an American Novelist born in 1957.
  • In this twelfth novel, he delivers a sweeping, impassioned novel of activism and resistance that is also a stunning evocation of the natural world.
  • Pulitzer Prize is a series of annual prizes awarded by Columbia University, New York City, for outstanding public service and achievement in American journalism, letters, and music.

Question 87

Albert Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in the year _______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    1934

  2. BOption (b)

    1921

  3. COption (c)

    1924

  4. DOption (d)

    1920

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1921

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. 1921.

  • The Nobel Prize in Physics 1921 was awarded to Albert Einstein "for his services to Theoretical Physics, and especially for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect."
  • Albert Einstein is a German-born physicist who also developed the special and general theories of relativity.
  • Photoelectric effect - A phenomenon in which electrically charged particles are released from or within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation. The effect is often defined as the ejection of electrons from a metal plate when light falls on it.

Question 88

Who amongst the following established an institution named 'Kalashram' for imparting training in dance and associated disciplines?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shambhu Maharaj

  2. BOption (b)

    Pandit Birju Maharaj 

  3. COption (c)

    Sitara Devi

  4. DOption (d)

    Lachhu Maharaj

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pandit Birju Maharaj 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Pandit Birju Maharaj.

  • Kathak Maestro Pt. Birju Maharaj established Kalashram focuses on imparting training in the field of Kathak & associated disciplines.
  • Kathak is one of the eight Indian classical dances.
  • The word Kathak has been derived from the word Katha which means a story.
  • Kathakars or storytellers are people who narrate stories largely based on episodes from the epics, myths and legends.
  • Thus evolved a simple form of expressional dance, providing the origins of what later developed into Kathak as we see it today.
  • Other Indian classical dances are Bharatanatyam, Kathakali, Kuchipudi, Manipuri, Odissi, Mohiniattam & Assam.

Question 89

Bugyals are high altitude meadows and pastures in the Himalayan slopes. In which state would you find them most?

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttarakhand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uttarakhand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. Uttarakhand.

  • Bugyal which literally means "Meadows" is a high altitude grassland which serves as a grazing field for the livestock.
  • These lush green pastures sprawl over acres of land in Uttarakhand.
  • During winters they remain engulfed in snow and in summers the meadows reappear with varied Himalayan Flora particular to that region.
  • Many wildflowers, berries, and shrubs grow in these meadows.
  • These meadows are usually seated at high altitudes ranging between 3300 m to 4000 m.

Question 90

When is 'International Dance Day' celebrated by the International Theatre Institute (ITI), the main partner for performing arts of UNESCO?

  1. AOption (a)

    7th June

  2. BOption (b)

    29th April 

  3. COption (c)

    23rd March

  4. DOption (d)

    8th May 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

29th April 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. 29th April.

  • In 1982 the Dance Committee of ITI founded International Dance Day to be celebrated every year on the 29th April, the birthday of Jean-Georges Noverre (1727-1810), creator of modern ballet.
  • The intention of the International Dance Day Message is to celebrate dance, revel in the universality of this art form, cross all political, cultural and ethnic barriers, and bring people together with a common language - dance.
  • Every year a message from an outstanding choreographer or dancer is circulated throughout the world.
  • The author of the message is selected by the International Dance Committee of ITI and the Executive Council of ITI. The message is translated into numerous languages and circulated globally.

Question 91

During the reign of which of the following kings did Chinese traveller Xuanzang visit India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Harshavardhana

  2. BOption (b)

    Prabhakara Vardhana

  3. COption (c)

    Chandragupta Maurya

  4. DOption (d)

    Ashoka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Harshavardhana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Harshavardhana.

  • With the commencement of the 7th century, Harshavardhana (606-647 A.D.) ascended the throne of Thaneshwar and Kannauj on the death of his brother, Rajyavardhana.
  • By 612 Harshavardhana consolidated his kingdom in northern India.
  • In 620 A.D. Harshavardhana invaded the Chalukya kingdom in the Deccan, which was then ruled by Pulakesin II. But the Chalukya resistance proved tough for Harshavardhana and he was defeated.
  • He maintained diplomatic relations with China and sent envoys, who exchanged ideas of the Chinese rulers and developed their knowledge about each other.
  • The Chinese traveller, Hiuen Tsang, also known as "Xuanzang" who visited India during his reign, has given a vivid description of the social, economic and religious conditions, under the rule of Harsha spoke highly of the king.
  • Harsha's death, once again, left India without any central paramount power.

Question 92

According to Global Peace Index 2019, which one of the following is the most peaceful country? 

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    Indonesia

  3. COption (c)

    Bhutan

  4. DOption (d)

    Iceland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Iceland

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. Iceland.

  • Iceland remains the most peaceful country in the world, a position it has held since 2008.
  • It is joined at the top of the index by New Zealand, Austria, Portugal, and Denmark.
  • India is ranked 141. It has slipped 5 places in the past year.
  • Bhutan has recorded the largest improvement of any country in the top 20, rising 43 places in the last 12 years.

Afghanistan is now the least peaceful country in the world, replacing Syria, which is now the second least peaceful.

  • South Sudan, Yemen, and Iraq comprise the remaining five least peaceful countries
  • The 13th edition of the Global Peace Index ranked 163 independent countries based on their level of peacefulness.
  • It is produced by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP).
  • It measures the state of peace using three thematic domains - The level of Societal Safety and Security, the extent of Ongoing Domestic and International Conflict, and the degree of Militarisation.

Question 93

In which of the following states is the Kolleru Lake located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Karnataka

  3. COption (c)

    Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Andhra Pradesh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Andhra Pradesh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. Andhra Pradhesh.

  • The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir is the result of the tectonic activity and is the largest freshwater

lake in India

  • Most of the freshwater lakes are in the Himalayan region.
  • They are of glacial origin. In other words, they formed when glaciers dug out a basin, which was later filled with snowmelt.
  • The Dal Lake, Bhimtal, Nainital, Loktak and Barapani are some other important freshwater lakes.

Note:

  • A meandering river across a flood plain, forms cut-offs that later develop into ox-bow lakes. Spits and bars form lagoons in the coastal areas, eg the Chilika lake, the Pulicat lake, the Kolleru lake.

Question 94

Which of the following computers are used in hospitals to measure the heartbeat of patients?

  1. AOption (a)

    Digital computers 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hybrid computers

  3. COption (c)

    Mainframe computers 

  4. DOption (d)

    Analog computers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hybrid computers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Hybrid computers.

  • Hybrid computers are used in hospitals to measure the heartbeat of patients.
  • They have the features of both analog and digital computers.
  • The digital component behaves like the 'controller', providing logical operations.
  • The analog component behaves like the 'solver', computing differential equations.
  • Hybrid computers have been necessary for successful system development and are generally used in scientific applications or in controlling industrial processes."

Question 95

Which of the following teams won the UEFA Champions League football trophy at Madrid on 1 June 2019? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Tottenham Hotspur

  2. BOption (b)

    Manchester United

  3. COption (c)

    Liverpool

  4. DOption (d)

    Real Madrid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Liverpool

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. Liverpool.

  • Liverpool lifted the UEFA Champions League football trophy at Madrid by beating Tottenham Hotspur for 2-0.
  • Liverpool lifted the European Cup for the 6th time.
  • Divock Origi and Mohamed Salah scored the goals in the finals.
  • Jurgen Klopp was the coach of Liverpool.

Question 96

Sanjhi Art is associated to which of the following states of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    West Benga

  4. DOption (d)

    Gujarat 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Uttar Pradesh.

  • Sanjhi art is the traditional art of stenciling from Mathura, Uttar Pradesh Krishna’s hometown.
  • The art grew in the 16th and 17th centuries, when the walls and floors of temples were decorated with Sanjhi motifs.
  • The term Sanjhi is derived from the Hindi word sandhya, the period of dusk with which the art form is typically associated.
  • The art depicts Indian mythological stories in numerous forms, with predominant focus on Krishna’s Leela.

Question 97

In March 2019, the Reserve Bank of India bought how many USD billions through long-term forex swap auction in a bid to ease liquidity ahead of elections? 

  1. AOption (a)

    USD 5 billion

  2. BOption (b)

    USD 1 billion

  3. COption (c)

    USD 4 billion

  4. DOption (d)

    USD 2 billion 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

USD 5 billion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. USD 5 billion.

  • The Reserve Bank of India in March 2019 successfully concluded a forex swap auction intended to ease liquidity conditions.
  • The central bank bought the targeted $5 billion as part of the long term Dollar/Rupee swap auction with a three-year tenor, it said in a release.
  • In turn, Rs 34,561 crore was infused into the Indian banking system.

Question 98

With how many states/Union Territories does Uttar Pradesh share its borders?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. 9.

  • Uttar Pradesh is the only state that shares its boundaries with maximum states.
  • Uttar Pradesh shares its borders with as many as 9 states/Union Territories,
  • It also shares an international border with Nepal.
  • Assam is the only Indian State which shares the border with 7 states. Assam bordering states – West Bengal in the west, Arunachal Pradesh in the northeast, Nagaland, and Manipur in east, Mizoram, Tripura and Meghalaya in the south.
  • Uttar Pradesh is the Indian State which shares its border with 8 states and 1 union territory which is maximum. Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand in North, Bihar Jharkhand in the east, Rajasthan in West and Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh in the south.
  • West Bengal In the north it is bounded by the state of Sikkim and the country of Bhutan. To the North-East, it is bounded by the state of Assam. To the East, it is bounded by the country of Bangladesh. To the south, it is bounded by the Bay of Bengal. To the South-West, it is bounded by the state of Odisha. To the West, it is bounded by the states of Jharkhand and Bihar and the North-West, it is bounded by the country Nepal.
  • Manipur shares it border with 3 states Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam.
  • Uttrakhand shares its borders with Tibet in the north, Uttar Pradesh in the south, Nepal in the east, Haryana in the west, and Himachal Pradesh in the North West.

Question 99

Who among the following created the Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer (EDVAC) with a memory to hold both, a stored program as well as data? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Thomas H Flowers

  2. BOption (b)

    Arthur Samuel 

  3. COption (c)

    Bletchley Park

  4. DOption (d)

    John von Neumann

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

John von Neumann

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. John von Neumann.

  • EDVAC stands for Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer.
  • The first stored-program computer was designed by John von Neumann.
  • It had a memory to hold both, a stored program as well as data.
  • He published the influential  First Draft of a Report on the EDVAC where the stored program idea was explained to the world.

Question 100

Where was Khelo India Youth Games 2019 held?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pune

  2. BOption (b)

    Ludhiana

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Noida

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pune

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Pune.

  • ​The second edition of Khelo India Youth Games was held in Pune.
  • Maharashtra topped the Medal tally with 228 medals, whereas Haryana and Delhi claimed the second and third spot.
  • Maharashtra bagged 'General Championship of Khelo India 2019' with 85 Gold Medals.
  • Students from colleges and universities competed in the games.
  • The 1st edition of Khelo India games was held in Delhi in January 2018.
  • The Khelo India games are organised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
  • 3rd edition of the Khelo India Youth Games will be held at Guwahati from January 18-30, 2020. The Games will see a participation of more than 10,000 athletes and officials. It will be conducted in partnership with IOA, SGFI, and Assam as a host state.

100 questions in the full paper