SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 05 Dec 2022 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The pattern followed here is:

The given words are arranged as they would appear in the English dictionary.

3. Accursed 1. Accusable 5. Accuser 2. Acerbity 4. Acetify

Hence, the correct answer is "3, 1, 5, 2, 4".

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Given: 

A & B means 'A is the wife of B'

A # B means 'A is the father of B'

A @ B means 'A is the son B'

A % B means 'A is the husband of B'

A + B means 'A is the mother of B'

Find how is D related to G.

Given:- A & B # C & D @ E % F + G

Clearly, D is the brother of G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Brother".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held on the MN side.

Detailed Explanation:

• The correct mirror image of the given figure is "

" the third number of the given image is '5' and the correct mirror image is "

" but it is wrongly given in option 2 so option 2 is eliminated.

• The correct mirror image of the given figure is "

" the second letter of the given image is 't' and the correct mirror image is "

" but it is wrongly given in options 3 & 4 so options 3 & 4 are eliminated.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

1. In the mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

2. In a real given mirror image the farthest number or alphabet appears closest in the mirror image.

The pattern followed here is:

The unfolding pattern of the paper is shown below step by step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "81".

The pattern followed here is:

'OXYGEN' is written as 'QZAIGP'.

And,

'MIND' is written as 'OKPF'

Similarly,

'DOCTOR' be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "FQEVQT".

The pattern followd here is:

1. Every sign and complete figure is rotated 90º anticolck wise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: First number : (First number)² : [(First number)² + First number]

1. (5 : 25 : 30)

⇒ 5 : (5)² : [(5)² + 5]

⇒ 5 : 25 : [ 25 + 5]

⇒ 5 : 25 : 30

And,

2. (16 : 256 : 272)

⇒ 16 : (16)2 : [(16)2 + 16]

⇒ 16 : 256 : [ 256 + 16]

⇒ 16 : 256 : 272

Similarly,

3. (13 : 169 : 182)

⇒ 13 : (13)2 : [(13)2 + 13]

⇒ 13 : 169 : [169 + 13]

⇒ 13 : 169 : 182

Hence, the correct answer is "(13 : 169 : 182)".

The pattern followed here is:

Let's check each option one by one:

Given: 7 and 4

Option 1) 4 - 7 + 6 ÷ 2 × 3 = 12

After interchanging the number we get the;

⇒ 7 - 4 + 6 ÷ 2 × 3 = 12

⇒ 7 - 4 + 3 × 3 = 12

⇒ 7 - 4 + 9 = 12

⇒ 16 - 4 = 12

⇒ 12 = 12

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2) 4 × 3 + 7 - 9 ÷ 3 = 20

After interchanging the number we get the;

⇒ 7 × 3 + 4 - 9 ÷ 3 = 20

⇒ 7 × 3 + 4 - 3 = 20

⇒ 21 + 4 - 3 = 20

⇒ 25 - 3 = 20

⇒ 22 ≠ 20

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) 7 + 4 × 2 - 6 ÷ 2 = 17

After interchanging the number we get the;

⇒ 4 + 7 × 2 - 6 ÷ 2 = 17

⇒ 4 + 7 × 2 - 3 = 17

⇒ 4 + 14 - 3 = 17

⇒ 18 - 3 = 17

⇒ 15 ≠ 17

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 7 + 5 × 2 - 4 ÷ 1 = 9

After interchanging the number we get the;

⇒ 4 + 5 × 2 - 7 ÷ 1 = 9

⇒ 4 + 5 × 2 - 7 = 9

⇒ 4 + 10 - 7 = 9

⇒ 14 - 7 = 9

⇒ 7 ≠ 9

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (First number × 4) + 4 = Second number.

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) 12 - 50

⇒ 12 × 4 = 48 + 4 ⇒ 52 ≠ 50 (Incorrect)

Option 2) 8 - 36

⇒ 8 × 4 = 32 + 4 = 36 = 36 (Correct)

Option 3) 10 - 44

⇒ 10 × 4 = 40 + 4 = 44 = 44 (Correcct)

Option 4) 18 : 76

⇒ 18 × 4 = 72 + 4 = 76 = 76 (Correct)

Hence, the correct answer is "12 - 50".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (√First number)³ : First number × Coming next number = Second number

1. 729 : 90

⇒ (√729)³ = 9

⇒ 9 × 10 = 90

And,

2. 512 : 72

⇒ (√512)3 = 8

⇒ 8 × 9 = 72

Similarly,

3. ? : 56

⇒ (√343)³ = 7

⇒ 7 × 8 = 56

Hence, the correct answer is "343".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: 

Step 1: Letters are coded as opposite positional values.

Step 2: Then the positional number is shifted diagonally.

1) 'STAR' is coded as '92678'

And,

2) 'FLAG' is coded as '20261521'

Similarly,

3) 'LOGO' be coded as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "12201215".

The pattern followed here is:

We have to interchanged the numbers to make the given equation correct.

Given: 72 + (7 × 8) - (126 ÷ 14) - (4)2 = 150

Option 1) 72 and 126

After interchanging the numbers we get the;

⇒ 126 + (7 × 8) - (72 ÷ 14) - (4)2 = 150

⇒ 126 + 56 - 5.14 - 16 = 150

⇒ 182 - 5.14 - 16 = 150

⇒ 160.86 ≠ 150

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) 7 and 4

After interchanging the numbers we get the;

⇒ 72 + (4 × 8) - (126 ÷ 14) - (7)2 = 150

⇒ 72 + 32 - 9 - 49 = 150

⇒ 104 - 9 - 49 = 150

⇒ 46 ≠ 150

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) 8 and 4

After interchanging the numbers we get the;

⇒ 72 + (7 × 4) - (126 ÷ 14) - (8)2 = 150

⇒ 72 + 28 - 9 - 64 = 150

⇒ 100 - 9 - 64 = 150

⇒ 27 ≠ 150

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 14 and 7

After interchanging the numbers we get the;

⇒ 72 + (14 × 8) - (126 ÷ 7) - (4)2 = 150

⇒ 72 + 112 - 18 - 16 = 150

⇒ 184 - 18 - 16 = 150

⇒ 150 = 150

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: First number : (First number)³ - [(First number)² + First number]

1. 17 : 4607

⇒ 17 : (17)³ - [(17)² + 17]

⇒ 17 : 4913 - [289 + 17]

⇒ 17 : [4913 - 306]

⇒ 17 : 4607

And,

2. 23 : 11615

⇒ 23 : (23)3 - [(23)2 + 23]

⇒ 23 : 12167 - [529 + 23]

⇒ 23 : [12167 - 552]

⇒ 23 : 11615

Similarly,

3. 11 : ?

⇒ 11 : (11)3 - [(11)2 + 11]

⇒ 11 : 1331 - [121 + 11]

⇒ 11 : [1331 - 132]

⇒ 11 : 1199

Hence, the correct answer is "1199".

The pattern followed here is:

1. AREA : BRFA

And,

2. BABY : CACY

Similarly,

3) GOLD : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "HOMD".

The pattern followed here is:

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below according to the given information:

Statements :

I. All colours are small.

II. No small are big.

Conclusion :

I. All small are colour → Does not follow → As all colours are small and No small are big. So All small are colour is possible but  not definitely followed.

II. Some small are colour → Follow → As all colours are small and No small are big. So some small are colour is definitely followed.

III. All big are colour → Does not follow → As all colours are small and No small are big. So all big are colour is not definitely followed.

So, Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) ZWSQ

Option 2) TRNL

Option 3) PNJH

Option 4) JHDB

Hence, the correct answer is "ZWSQ".

The pattern followed here is:

Given: TMT, ZOB, FQJ, LSR, ?

Hence, the correct answer is "RUZ".

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

Hence, the correct answer is "OFU".

The pattern followed here is:

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below according to the given information.

Statements :

All books are pencils.

Some pencils are pens.

All pens are erasers.

Conclusions :

I. Some erasers are pencils → Follow → As all books are pencils and all pens are erasers. So some erasers are pencils is definitely followed.

II. All pens are books → Does not follow → As all books are pencils, some pencils are pens and all pens are erasers. So all pens are books is not definitely followed.

III. Some erasers are pens → Follow → As some pencils are pens and all pens are erasers. So some erasers are pens is definitely followed.

So, Only conclusions I and III follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

A ÷ B means that A is the mother of B

A - B means that A is the father of B

A + B means that A is the sister of B

Given relation code:

Find: Which expression shows that P is the mother of R?

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) P + Q - R

Here, P is the aunt of R. (Incorrect)

Option 2) P ÷ Q + R

Here, P is the mother of R. (Correct)

Option 3) P - R + Q

Here, P is the father of R. (Incorrect)

Option 4) Q + P - R

Here, P is the father of R. (Incorrect)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The pattern followed here is:

1. Square figure is shifted on the right upper side in the second figure and the black part is one step backward, then shifted middle of the bottom, and the black part is shifted one step backward, then finally shifted left upper corner and the black part shifted one step backward.

2. Pentagon figure is rotated 90º degrees anticlockwise direction in every next figure, first shifted middle of the bottom, then shifted left upper corner, then shifted right upper corner in the last figure.

3. Here shape rotate 90º degrees anticlockwise  direction in every next figure, first shifted right upper corner in second figure, then shifted left upper corner in the second figure, then shifted middle of the figure in the bottom side in the last figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The pattern followed here is:

Race: Track → A race track is a facility built for the racing of vehicles, athletes, or animals.

Similarly,

The word pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given (Race : Track) is:

Athletics : Stadium

Just as a race takes place on a track, athletics events occur in a stadium. This pair maintains the same relationship between an activity and the location where that activity typically takes place.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information1) Cart: Wheel → Cart is a vehicle with two of four wheels that are pulled by a horse and are used for transporting things and the cart runs over the road.

2) Wrestling: Court → Wrestling is played between two people and it s not played on the court it is played on the ring.

3. Exercise: Course → Exercise is a body activity that enhances or maintains physical fitness and overall health and wellness.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern followed here is:

We have to interchange the given signs and numbers so that the equation will be not correct.

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) 6 ÷ 3 - 1 + 4 × 2 = 5

After interchanging the signs and numbers we get the:

⇒ 6 × 1 - 3 + 4 ÷ 2 = 5

⇒ 6 × 1 - 3 + 2 = 5

⇒ 6 - 3 + 2 = 5

⇒ 8 - 3 = 5

⇒ 5 = 5 (Correct)

Option 2) 4 × 3 - 1 + 8 ÷ 2 = 9

After interchanging the signs and numbers we get the:

⇒ 4 ÷ 1 - 3 + 8 ×  2 = 9

⇒ 4 - 3 + 8 × 2 = 9

⇒ 4 - 3 + 16 = 9

⇒ 20 - 3 = 9

⇒ 17 ≠ 9 (Not correct)

Option 3) 5 - 8 × 3 + 9 ÷ 1 = 24

After interchanging the signs and numbers we get the:

⇒ 5 - 8 ÷ 1 + 9 × 3 = 24

⇒ 5 - 8 + 9 × 3 = 24

⇒ 5 - 8 + 27 = 24

⇒ 32 - 8 = 24

⇒ 24 = 24 (Correct)

Option 4) 6 + 4 - 9 × 3 ÷ 1 = -17

After interchanging the signs and numbers we get the:

⇒ 6 + 4 - 9 ÷ 1 × 3 = -17

⇒ 6 + 4 - 9 × 3 = -17

⇒ 6 + 4 - 27 = -17

⇒ 10 - 27 = -17

⇒ -17 = -17 (Correct)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is polysomes.

Key Points

• Ribosomes of a Polysome 
• The cellular organelles known as ribosomes are made up of proteins and rRNA.
• Before they bind to mRNA, they are present free in the cytoplasm.
• Multiple ribosomes that are joined to the mRNA and contain developing polypeptide chains are known as polysomes.
• A polysome is made up of all the ribosomes that translate a single mRNA into many polypeptides (Proteins) at once.
• The coding portion of mRNA, which is transported by multiple ribosomes, forms a polysome.
• The presence of so much mRNA in cells is due to the ability of multiple ribosomes to participate in an mRNA's function.

Additional Information

• Prokaryotic, eukaryotic, and membrane-bound polrsomes all have different structures of multiple ribosomes also known as polyribosomes.
• Bacterial polysomes are found in double-row formations in prokaryotic cells, and ribosomes are in touch with one another within smaller subunits.
• Planar double row polysomes and densely packed 3D helices, which are similar to that of prokaryotic polysomes, are also present in eukaryotic cells.
• Polysomal profiling is a method for determining the level of gene expression by monitoring polysome activity.
• Translation is stopped using polysomal profiling, and sucrose gradient is then used to separate the resultant cells so that they may be collected by centrifugation.

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

• ​Kelucharan Mohapatra was a well-known guru, performer, and exponent of Indian classical dance.
• In the 20th century, he is credited with bringing back and popularizing this classical dancing style.
• He is the first recipient of Odisha's Padma Vibhushan.
• Odissi dance:
• The temples of Odisha are where the odissi dance had its start.
• Throughout its history, women predominately performed odissi.
• Through songs, it conveyed spiritual and religious beliefs, particularly those of Vaishnavism.
• The concepts of other traditions, such as those relating to the Hindu Gods Shiva and Surya and Hindu Goddesses, have also been conveyed through odissi performances.

Additional Information

• Kathakali:
• A significant type of classical Indian dance is kathakali.
• The elaborately colorful make-up and costumes set this "story play" kind of art apart.
• In Kerala between the 16th and 17th centuries, kathakali first emerged.
• Kathak:
• One of the eight primary styles of Indian classical dance is kathak.
• It is an Uttar Pradeshi classical dance style.
• Manipuri:
• One of the eight principal Indian traditional dance styles, the Manipuri Dance is a product of the state of Manipur.
• The spiritual themes of Madhura Raas of Radha-Krishna are infused into the dance style.
• Gentle gaze and calm, serene body movements define it.

The correct answer is Article 25 to Article 28.

Key Points

• Article 25 of the Indian constitution guarantees the Right to Freedom of Religion to its citizens.
• It provides freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
• It is a basic human right guarantee that cannot be subverted or misinterpreted in any manner.
• Article 25 to Article 28 of the Indian constitution deals with the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• The objective of the Constitutional Right to Freedom of Religion in India is to sustain the principle of secularism.

Additional Information Secularism:

• The term secular has been derived from the Latin word ‘seculum’ which means an age, an indefinite period, or the present age.
• Secularism in the Indian context means first, ‘Dharmanirapaksata’ or impartiality to religion and secondly, ‘Sarva Dharma Sama Bhava’ or equal respect for all religions based on the principle of accommodation of all religions.
• A Secular State does not identify itself with any particular religion but protects and respects all faiths until they become a danger to the unity and integrity of the country.
• The most essential factors of secularism were granting equal status to all religions in India.
• Indian secularism is a multi-value character and gives importance to moral reasoning and equally respecting all religions.

The correct answer is a Wealth tax.

Key Points

Direct Taxes:

• The tax that is directly paid to the Government, is directly imposed on the taxpayer and the liability of tax cannot be passed on to other taxpayers.
• Some examples of Direct taxes are Income-tax, Wealth tax, Corporate tax, Minimum Alternate Tax, Dividend Distribution Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, Capital gains Tax, etc.

Indirect Taxes:

• An indirect Tax is a tax imposed on an individual or entity which is passed on to other individuals.
• The is imposed on products or services which are used by the customer.
• Common examples of indirect taxes are Goods and services taxes, excise duties, sales tax, etc. ​

Additional Information

• The tax levied on all services is called Service Tax.
• The tax levied on the sale of goods under indirect tax is called sales tax.
• The tax levied on the products made in the country is called Excise Duty.
• Types of Indirect Taxes -
• Sales Tax
• Service Tax
• Excise Duty
• Professional Tax
• Entertainment Tax
• Stamp Duty
• VAT Tax (VAT)
• Toll Tax

Important Points

• GK Trick: Trick to remember Direct & Indirect Taxes
  

Trick –– "Wepro, co, in (Direct Taxes)"

• We- Wealth Tax

• Pro- Property Tax

• Co- Corporate Tax

• In-Income Tax

Trick –– "Excuse Me (Indirect Taxes)"

• Ex- Excise tax

• Cu- Custom tax

• Se- Service tax

• M- Market tax/vat

• E- Entertainment tax

The correct answer is AVSAR Scheme of Airport Authority of India.

Key Points

• ​The "AVSAR" initiative was started by the Airport Authority of India (AAI).
• Its aim is to support and give chances to women, artisans, and craftspeople.
• "Airport as Venue for Skilled Artisans of the Region" is referred to as AVSAR.
• Each airport run by AAI has set aside a space of 100–200 square feet.
• For a period of 15 days, the self-help groups will each get their time in the area.
• In the airports in Chennai, Agartala, Dehradun, Kushinagar, Udaipur, and Amritsar, a few stores have already been put into operation.
• At Srinagar International Airport, Jammu and Kashmir's Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha opened the "UMEED Market Square" as part of the AVSAR Initiative.
• A comparable marketplace has also been established at the Jammu Airport, and both locations will feature goods from all 20 districts.

Additional Information

• Stand Up India Scheme:
• The Government of India introduced Stand-Up India in 2016, to encourage female entrepreneurs and those from SC & ST communities.
• The goal is to make it easier for at least one SC or ST borrower and at least one women borrower per bank branch to get a bank loan between 10 lakh and 1 crore for starting a new project.
• Ujjwala scheme:
• On May 1, 2016 Indian Prime Minister introduced the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana.
• Its main objective was to provide 50 million LPG connections to women from households living below the poverty line.
• KUSUM scheme:
• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Utthaan Mahabhiyan Yojana was launched by the Government of India.
• Its primary goals are to boost farmers' incomes, supply resources for irrigation, and de-dieselize the agricultural industry.

The correct answer is Temperate deciduous forest.

Key Points

• The mid-latitude regions are home to temperate deciduous woods.
• Between the arctic regions and the tropics, they can be found.
• Due to the exposure of the deciduous forest parts to both warm and cold air masses, this region experiences four distinct seasons.
• There are significant seasonal temperature variations, with freezing winters and hot, humid summers.
• In deciduous forests, a wide variety of trees, shrubs, and herbs can be found.
• Broadleaf trees including oak, maple, beech, hickory, and chestnut make up the majority of the trees.
• Several diverse species of plants, including mountain laurel, azaleas, and mosses, can be found growing on the shaded forest floor where little sunshine penetrates.
• Birds like pheasants, monals are found in temperate deciduous forest.

Additional Information

• Tropical evergreen forest:
• Tropical Evergreen forests thrive where there is more than 200 cm of annual rainfall.
• The various species that inhabit evergreen forests are birds like owls, hawks, and cardinals as well as some mammals like deer, possums, and raccoons.
• Temperate evergreen forest:
• In the middle latitude coastal regions, temperate evergreen forests can be found.
• These forests are known for their presence of moose, reindeer, elk, caribou, racoons, eagles, and owls, among other distinctive species.
• The rainforest is home to several cat species, including jaguars, ocelots, civets, and jaguarondis.
• Mediterranean forests:
• The area surrounding the Mediterranean Sea, Central Chile, the Southwest United States, Australia, and Africa are all home to Mediterranean forests.
• The Mediterranean basin is home to 299 species of indigenous terrestrial reptiles.
• Reptiles like snakes, lizards, tortoises and two species of chameleon are found in the basin of mediterranean.

The correct answer is 1853.

Key Points

• In 1853, the first passenger train in India run from Bombay (Bombay, now Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus) to Thane.
• Indian Railways:
• Lord Dalhousie introduced railways in India in 1853.
• Indian Railway Board was established in March 1905.
• Indian Railway was nationalised in 1951.
• The first Indian railway line in India was operated for public traffic in 1853 between Mumbai and Thane over a distance of 34 km.

Additional Information 

• Railways have been divided into 18 zones.
• Ashwini Vaishnav is the current Minister of Railways (July 2021).
• The first electric train in India was ‘Deccan Queen’.
• It was introduced in 1929 between Bombay and Poona.

The correct answer is Mohiniyattam.

Key Points

• Kerala is where the Indian classical dance style known as mohiniyattam was born and has since flourished.
• The word Mohini is the source of the term "Mohiniyattam dance."
• The term "mohini" refers to a historical enchantress and Vishnu avatar who, by harnessing her feminine powers, aids in the triumph of good over evil.
• Both the 1709 work Vyavaharamala by Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri and the subsequent poem Ghoshayatra by poet Kunjan Nambiar contain references to Mohiniyattam.

Additional Information

• Sattriya:
• A notable form of Indian classical dance is sattriya.
• Ankiya Nat, one-act dramas that Sankardev originally produced, are performed as part of Bhaona, where this dance was first established.
• Manipuri:
• One of the eight principal Indian traditional dance styles, the Manipuri Dance is a product of the state of Manipur.
• The spiritual themes of Madhura Raas of Radha-Krishna are infused into the dance style.
• Gentle gaze and calm, serene body movements define it.
• Odissi dance:
• The temples of Odisha are where the odissi dance had its start.
• Throughout its history, women predominately performed odissi.
• Through songs, it conveyed spiritual and religious beliefs, particularly those of Vaishnavism.

The correct answer is Coulomb.

Key Points

• Coulomb
• The SI Unit of Charge is Coulomb.
• It is denoted as C.
• The coulomb is defined as the quantity of electricity transported in one second by a current of one ampere.​

Additional Information

• • There are 7 base Units, which are -

The correct answer is 24 weeks.

Key Points

• In September 2022, the Supreme Court allowed all women, irrespective of their marital status, to safely and legally abort their child till 24 weeks of pregnancy under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act.
• The Bill allows for the termination of pregnancy after 24 weeks based on the opinion of the Medical Board in the case of substantial foetal abnormalities.
• The Bill does not provide a time frame within which the Board must make its decision.  .
• It proposes the requirement of the opinion of two registered medical practitioners for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of gestation and it aims to enhance the gestation limit for ‘special categories’ of women which includes survivors of rape, victims of incest, and other vulnerable women like differently-abled women and minors.

Additional Information 

• Medical termination of pregnancy act given for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners.
• The MTP act was passed in 1971 in India.
• MTP is a legalized method to terminate the unwanted or unintentional pregnancy before its full term. There are certain conditions involved under abortion that is:-
• When the continuation of the pregnancy will harm the mother physically or mentally,
• When the newborn is at risk or can suffer from severe mental or physical problems or can be handicapped,
• For a minor girl, guardians or parents should give written consent for MTP.
• Unwanted pregnancies due to unsafe sex or rapes or failure of the contraceptive can be terminated.
• Termination of the pregnancy can be conducted in a government hospital or a place approved for this act by the government.

The correct answer is Article 120.

Key Points

• Article 120 in The Constitution Of India 1949: Language to be used in Parliament:

1. Notwithstanding anything in Part XVII, but subject to the Article 348, business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English: Provided that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or Person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother tongue.
2. Unless Parliament by law otherwise provides, this article shall, after the expiration of a period of fifteen years from the commencement of this Constitution, have effect as if the words or in English were omitted therefrom.

Additional InformationArticle 121

• Restriction on discussion in Parliament
• No discussions shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge as hereinafter provided.

Article 122

• Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament
• The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called into question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure
• No officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under this Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers CHAPTER III LEGISLATIVE POWERS OF THE PRESIDENT.

Article 119

• Regulation by law of procedure in Parliament in relation to financial business
• ​Parliament may, for the purpose of the timely completion of financial business, regulate by law the procedure of, and the conduct of business in, each House of Parliament in relation to any financial matter or to any Bill for the appropriation of amounts of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India, and, if and so far as any provision of any law so made is inconsistent with any rule made by a House of Parliament under clause (1) of article 118 or with any rule or standing order having an effect in relation to Parliament under clause (2) of that article, such provision shall prevail.

The correct answer is Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.

Key Points

• The First Battle of Panipat:
• The first battle of Panipat was fought in 1526 between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.
• ​In 1526, the Mughal forces of Babur, the Timurid ruler of Kabulistan, defeated the much larger ruling army of Ibrahim Lodi, Sultan of Delhi.​
• Panipat was a legendary location where after 1526, multiple battles were fought between the Mughal and varying other forces.
• He was invited by Daulat Khan, the governor of Punjab, to invade the region and unsettle Ibrahim Lodi.
• Lodi’s army relied heavily on cavalry and especially on elephants, which in earlier times, could shock the enemy and rout them.
• This battle made the foundation of the Mughal dynasty in India.​

Additional Information

• Second Battle of Panipat (1556):​
• It was fought between Hemu Vikramaditya and Akbar.
• Date: November 5, 1556.
• Third Battle of Panipat (1761):
• It was fought between Marathas and Ahmad Shah Durrani.
• Date: 14 January 1761.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The highest sex ratio according to the census 2011 is in Kerala.
• Sex Ratio of Different Indian States:
• Kerala - 1084
• Puducherry - 1037
• Tamil Nadu - 996
• Andhra Pradesh - 993
• Chhattisgarh - 991
• Andaman and Nicobar Island - 876
• Delhi - 868
• Chandigarh - 818
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli - 774
• Daman and Diu - 618

Additional Information

• In the Population Census of 2011, it was revealed that the population ratio in India in 2011 is 943 females per 1000 males.
• The sex ratio is used to describe the number of females per 1000 males.
• Sex ratio is a valuable source for finding the population of women in India and what is the ratio of women to that of men in India.
• The Sex Ratio 2011 shows an upward trend from the census 2001 data.
• Census 2001 revealed that there were 933 females to that 1000 males.
• For decades India has seen a decrease in the sex ratio, but in the last two decades, there has been a slight increase in the sex ratio.
• Over the last five decades, the sex ratio has been moving from around 930 females to that of 1000 males.

The correct answer is 17 - 18 years.

Key Points

• The age range for the Youth Boxer category is 17 - 18 years.
• The Youth world championship began in 1979 in Yokohama, Japan, and has been held biennially since 1990.
• The Junior world championship began in 2001 in Baku, Azerbaijan, and has been held biennially since 2007.

Additional Information

• In boxing, six Indian junior boxers claimed the gold medal at the 2022 ASBC Asian Youth & Junior Boxing Championships in Amman, Jordan on 13 March 2022.
• Nikita Chand (60kg) defeated Uldana Taubay of Kazakhstan.
• Yakshika (52kg) defeated Uzbekistan’s Rakhima Bekniyazova.
• With 21 medals in junior and 18 in the youth section, the Indian contingent has secured 39 medals at the tournament.

The correct answer is Loo.

Key Points

• The Loo is a strong, dusty, gusty, hot, and dry summer wind from the west which blows over the Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India and Pakistan.
• It is especially strong in the months of May and June.
• ​Heatstroke is brought about by excessive exposure to the sun heat.
• It results due to an imbalance in the thermosetting of the body.
• The cooling mechanism of the body relies upon water evaporation in the form of sweat.​

Additional Information

• North easterly winds
• India lies in the region of northeasterly winds.
• These winds originate from the subtropical high-pressure belt of the northern hemisphere.
• They blow south, get deflected to the right due to the Coriolis force, and move on toward the equatorial low-pressure area.
• Generally, these winds carry very little moisture as they originate and blow over land.
• Therefore, they bring little or no rain
• Westerlies​ 
• Westerlies are permanent winds.
• Westerlies are prevailing winds that flow from the west toward the East.
• It flows between 30°N-60°N and 30°S-60°S degrees latitude.
• It is also known as anti trades winds as it originates from the high-pressure area of Horse latitude and flows towards the subpolar low-pressure area.
• ​Nor westers
• Nor'westers or the Kalbaishakhi mostly referred to in Odisha or Bordoisila or Bardoli Chhera an isolated rainfall and thunderstorm which occurs in India and Bangladesh, often with violent hurricane-speed winds.
• Kal Baisakhi originates over Bihar and Jharkhand area moves eastwards and strikes West Bengal and Odisha.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Lokrang festival observed in Madhya Pradesh.
• The Lokrang Festival is celebrated on 26th January every year.
• It is celebrated for 5 days.
• The Madhya Pradesh Adivasi Lok Kala Academy organizes the event.
• The festival's actual motive is to erase the geopolitical demarcations of India.
• It is held in the city of Bhopal.

Additional Information 

• Bhopal is the capital of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is also the administrative headquarters of both Bhopal district and Bhopal division.
• It is known as the City of Lakes.

NeolThe correct answer is Neolithic.

Key Points

• Catal Huyuk was an ancient and large city settlement in south-central turkey
• It dates back to the Neolithic era, or the New Stone Age.
• Catal Huyuk is noteworthy because it is one of the first human proto-cities to have been built
• The houses in Catal Huyuk were built primarily out of mud bricks with wooden supports.
• Much of what archaeologists believe about daily life in Catal Huyuk is by necessity speculative, as there are no written records from that time and the site is still being excavated.

Additional Information

• Neolithic Age (8000 BCE - 4300 BCE)
• The Stone age is a period of the prehistory of India where there was no development n the script, information from this period is derived from archaeological sources such as tools and pottery.
• Mesolithic Age (10,000 BCE- 8000 BCE)
• The use of microliths characterizes the period. They were miniature store tools made to hut smaller animals as birds, and used to make composite and more extensive tools like arrowheads, and spearheads.
• Palaeolithic Age ( 30,000 BCE - 10,000 BCE)
• This period was also known as the Old Stoe age. During the Palaeolithic age, hominids grouped in small societies such as bands.
• Chalcolithic Age ( 4000 BCE – 2000 BCE)
• The Chalcolithic Age was the first period when metal was used. It is also called the Copper-Stone Age.

The correct answer is Queen Elizabeth-I.

Key Points

• The English East India Company was established on 31 December 1600 as per the Royal Charter issued by the Queen of England, Elizabeth I.
• English company was formed for the purpose of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India.
• The Company had sent Captain Hawkins to the court of the Mughal Emperor, Jahangir in 1608 to secure permission to establish a storehouse of goods at Surat.
• In 1613, Jahangir issued the firman permitting the East India Company to establish its first trading post at Surat.
• English set up business centres at Agra, Ahmedabad and Broach.

Additional Information

• Kaiser-I-Hind means Empress of India was the Title given to Queen Victoria in the year 1877 in Delhi Durbar by Viceroy Lord Lytton (1876-1880).
• In 1608, King James I of Great Britain sent Captain William Hawkings to the court of the Mughal emperor, Jahangir requesting permission to trade with them.

The correct answer is Sanjay Manjrekar.

Key Points

• The book 'Imperfect' is the autobiography of batsman turned commentator Sanjay Manjerakor.
• The book talks about his cricket career, his life and his obsession with batting technique, the quest for perfection.
• Sanjay Manjrekar played 37 Tests and 74 ODI matches for Indian Team.

Additional Information

• Rahul Dravid's biography was written by Devendra Prabhudesai in the book "The Nice Guy Who Finished First".
• Ravi Shastri's autobiography was written in "Stargazing: The players in My Life"
• Milkha Singh and his daughter, Sonia Sanwalka, co-wrote his autobiography, titled The Race of My Life.

The correct answer is Both A and B.

Key Points

• Green Revolution in India : 
• At independence, about 75 per cent of the country’s population was dependent on agriculture.
• Productivity in the agricultural sector was very low because of the use of old technology and the absence of the required infrastructure for the vast majority of farmers.
• India’s agriculture vitally depends on the monsoon and if the monsoon fell short the farmers were in trouble unless they had access to irrigation facilities which very few had.
• The stagnation in agriculture during colonial rule was permanently broken by the green revolution.
• This refers to the large increase in the production of food grains resulting from the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, especially for wheat and rice.
• The use of these seeds required the use of fertilizer and pesticide in the correct quantities as well as a regular supply of water; the application of these inputs in correct proportions is vital.
• The farmers who could benefit from HYV seeds required reliable irrigation facilities as well as financial resources to purchase fertilizer and pesticides.
• As a result, in the first phase of the green revolution (the approximately mid-1960s up to mid-1970s), the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent states such as Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• Further, the use of HYV seeds primarily benefited the wheat-growing regions only. In the second phase of the green revolution (the mid-1970s to mid-1980s), the HYV technology spread to a larger number of states and benefited more variety of crops.
• The spread of green revolution technology-enabled India to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains; we no longer had to be at the mercy of America, or any other nation, for meeting our nation’s food requirements.

The correct answer is 6-4.

Key Points

• Tennis matches work in three phases: A game, a set and a match.
• A game is played until a player scores four points, which a player can earn in several different ways
• A set is a collection of games, played until a player wins six games
• A match is played to a best of three or five sets.
• To win a set, a player or team must win six games but must be ahead by at least two games.

Additional Information

• The Grand Slam Tournaments 
• Australian Open - Played on a hard court in the month of January.
• French open - Played on a clay court in the month of May.
• Wimbledon - Played on the grass court in the month of July.
• US Open - Played on a hard court in the month of August.

The correct answer is Pepsin.

Key Points

• Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme.
• So, if the acid-secreting cells of the stomach wall get damaged due to some reasons, the digestion of protein would be affected to a large extent.
• Pepsin activation would be reduced resulting in low to no protein digestion.
• This may also lead to increased bacterial growth as a result of the non-production of HCl.

Important Points

• The Gastric Glands secrete the enzyme Pepsin.
• Gastric glands are found in the stomach. They secrete enzymes like Pepsin, Rennin which act upon the Proteins.
• Glands in the mucous membrane which line the stomach make and store an inactive protein known as pepsinogen. When pepsinogen is released into the stomach and mixed with gastric juice, it is converted into pepsin.
• Pepsin partially degrades proteins into smaller units called peptides.

Additional Information

• Salivary amylase is a digestive enzyme that helps in the breakdown of carbohydrates (starch) into simpler molecules.
• Collagen fiber is a type of connective tissue fiber.
• It is made up of collagen protein.
• It provides strength to the body in various ways.
• Lipase is an enzyme that splits fats so the intestines can absorb them.
• Lipase hydrolyses fats like triglycerides into their component fatty acid and glycerol molecules.
• It is secreted by Pancreas.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• NeVA is a work-flow system deployed on NIC Cloud, MeghRaj which helps the Chair of the House to conduct the proceedings of the House smoothly, Hon’ble Members to carry out their duties in the House efficiently, and to conduct Legislative Business of the House in a Paperless manner.
• The aim of the project is to bring all the legislatures of the country together, in one platform thereby creating a massive data depository without having the complexity of multiple applications.

Additional Information

• Nagaland
• CM - Neiphiu Rio
• Governor - Prof Jagdish  Mukhi
• Tripura
• CM - Manik Saha
• Governor - Satyadev Narayan Arya[
• Haryana
• CM - Manohar Lal Khattar
• Governor - Bandaru Dattatreya
• Assam 
• CM - Himanta Biswa Sarma
• Governor - Gulab Chand Kataria

The correct answer is Ananga Pala.

Key Points

• Anangpal, a Tomer ruler possibly created the first known regular defence- work in Delhi called Lal Kot- which Prithviraj took over and extended for his city Qila Rai Pithora.
• The Tomar was one of the clans of Rajputs, who ruled parts of present-day Delhi and Haryana from the 8th to the 12th century.
• Initially, they were feudatories of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, later on, Tomaras built up an independent kingdom around Delhi by the 10th century.
• the Tomaras established a sovereign principality around Delhi by the 10th century.
• According to the bardic tradition, the dynasty's founder Anangapal Tuar (that is AnangapalaITomara) founded Delhi in 1052 CE.

Additional Information 

• The earliest Tomara ruler of Gwalior was Virasimha-deva.
• The Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi by Yahya-bin-Ahmad Sirhindi mentions that in 1390-91, the Tughluq ruler Muhammad Shah (r. 1390–1394) visited Etawah.
• The Chauhans or Chahamanas of Ajmer defeated the Tomara Rajputs in the mid of the 12th century.
• Prithviraj Chauhan lost the second battle of Tarain. This established a long period of Muslim rule in India. So Prithviraj Chauhan was the last Hindu ruler of Delhi.

The correct answer is uniform.

Key Points

• It is known as uniform motion when an object moves in a straight path as direction remains constant at a constant speed.
• This indicates that the body's velocity stays constant as it travels the same distance in the same amount of time.

Additional Information 

Non-Uniform Motion:

• When an object travels at varying speeds and does not cover the same distance in a constant amount of time.

Speed:

• Speed is a change in an object's location in any direction.
• Speed is also defined as the ratio of distance to the amount of time it took to cover that distance.

Direction:

• Direction is characterized as the course that anything follows.
• The route that must be taken to go to a particular location.
• The direction in which something is beginning to take shape, or the direction you are facing.

Given:

cos2 35° + cos 55°. sin 35° + $\frac{\tan34°}{\cot56°}$ =            .

Concept used:

1. sin θ = cos (90° - θ)
2. tan θ = cot (90° - θ)
3. sin² θ + cos² θ = 1

Calculation: 

cos2 35° + cos 55°. sin 35° + $\frac{\tan34°}{\cot56°}$

⇒ cos2 35° + cos (90 - 35)°. sin 35° + $\frac{\tan34°}{\cot(90 - 34)°}$

⇒ cos2 35° + sin 35°. sin 35° + $\frac{\tan34°}{\tan34°}$

⇒ cos2 35° + sin² 35° + 1

⇒ 1 + 1 = 2

∴ The simplified value is 2.

Given:

The total surface area of a cube is 1536 m2. 

Concept used:

1. Volume of a cube = Side³ 2. Total surface area of a cube = 6(Side)²

Calculation:

Let the measure of each side of the cube be A m.

​According to the question,

6A² = 1536

⇒ A² = 256

⇒ A = 16

Volume of the cube = 16³ = 4096 m³

∴ The volume of the cube is 4096 m3.

Given:

A certain sum of money becomes triple of itself in 26 years at simple interest. 

Concept used:

Simple Interest, SI = (P × R × T)/100

Amount = P + SI

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

T = Time in years

Calculation:

Let the interest rate be R%.

​According to the question,

(P × R × 26)/100 = 3P - P

⇒ (P × R × 26)/100 = 2P

⇒ R = 100/13

Let's suppose, it will take T years for the principal amount to be five times of itself.

​According to the question,

(P × 100/13 × T)/100 = (5P - P)

⇒ T = 13 × 4

⇒ T = 52

∴ it will take 52 years for the principal amount to be five times of itself.

Given:

On dividing a certain number by 363, we get 17 as the remainder. 

Calculation:

Let the number be N and the quotient when N is divided by 363 is Q.

​According to the question,

N = 363Q + 17

⇒ N = (112 × 3)Q + 17

⇒ N = (112 × 3)Q + 11 + 6

⇒ N = (112 × 3 + 11)Q + 6

Here, (112 × 3 + 11)Q is completely divisible by 11. 

Hence, the remainder is 6.

∴ The remainder when the same number is divided by 11 is 6.

Given:

a - b = 2 and a3 - b3 = 80

Concept used:

a3 - b3 = (a - b)3 + 3ab(a - b)

Calculation:

a3 - b3 = 80

⇒ (a - b)³ + 3ab(a - b) = 80

⇒ 2³ + 3ab × 2 = 80

⇒ ab = 12

∴ The value of ab is 12.

Given:

$\rm \frac{1}{x^2+a^2}$= x2 - a2

Concept used:

a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

$\rm \frac{1}{x^2+a^2}$= x2 - a2

⇒ (x2 - a2)(x2 + a2) = 1

⇒ x⁴ - a⁴ = 1

⇒ x⁴ =  1 + a⁴

⇒ x = (a4 + 1)1/4

∴ The value of x is (a4 + 1)1/4.

Calculation:

Now, the average of the high rates of the shares in all the four stock exchanges for kolgate

⇒ (34 + 60 + 25 + 20)/4 = Rs. 34.75

∴ The average of the high rates of the shares in all four stock exchanges for kolgate is Rs. 34.75.

Given:

The speed of a boat in still water is 5$\frac{1}{3}$ km/h.

It is found that the boat takes thrice as much time to row up than it does to row down the same distance in the river stream. 

Concept used:

1. While rowing upstream, the upstream speed is the difference between the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the flow. 2. While rowing downstream, the downstream speed is the addition of the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the flow. 3. Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let the distance and the speed of the stream be D and R respectively.

​According to the question,

$\frac {D}{\frac{16}{3} - R} = \frac {3D}{\frac{16}{3} + R}$

⇒ $\frac {1}{\frac{16}{3} - R} = \frac {3}{\frac{16}{3} + R}$

⇒ $\frac {16}{3} + R = 16 - 3R$

⇒ 4R = $16 - \frac {16}{3}$

⇒ R = 8/3

Now, the speed of the stream in m/s = 8/3 × 5/18 = $\frac {20}{27}$ m/s​

∴ The speed of the river stream is $\frac {20}{27}$ m/sec.

Given:

The required largest five-digit number when divided by 7, 9, and 11, leaves the same remainder as 3.

Concept used:

LCM is the smallest common multiple of two or more numbers.

Calculation:

LCM(7, 9, 11) = 693

Largest five-digit number = 99999

Quotient when 99999 is divided by 693 = 144

The largest five-digit number that is divisible by 7, 9, and 11 = 144 × 693 = 99792

Now, the required number = 99792 + 3 = 99795

∴ The required number is 99795.

Given:

Ratio of area of two similar triangles is $√3$ ∶ $√2$ 

Concept Used:

Area of ΔABC/Area of ΔPQR = AB²/PQ²

Calculation:

According to question,

⇒ √3 : √ 2 =  AB2/PQ2

⇒ 3 : 2 = AB⁴/PQ⁴

⇒ AB : PQ = $\sqrt[4]{3}:\sqrt[4]{2}$  

∴ The correct answer is $\sqrt[4]{3}:\sqrt[4]{2}$

Calculation:

Now, the total sales of P, R and S are how much percent less than the total sales of Q, T and U

⇒ $\frac {(150 + 37 + 15) - (26 + 12 + 70)}{150 + 37 + 15} \times 100\%$

⇒ $\frac {94}{202} \times 100\%$

⇒ 46.5346% ≈ 46.53%

∴ The total sales of P, R, and S are 46.53% less than the total sales of Q, T, and U.

Shortcut Trick

Put a standard angle, let θ = 90°.

Expression = √[(1 + cos 90°)/(1 − cos 90°)] + √[(1 − cos 90°)/(1 + cos 90°)]

⇒ √[(1 + 0)/(1 − 0)] + √[(1 − 0)/(1 + 0)] = √1 + √1 = 1 + 1 = 2.

Check options for θ = 90°: Option (3) 2 cosec 90° = 2 × 1 = 2.

∴ The correct answer is 2 cosec θ.

Alternate Method

Given: √[(1 + cos θ)/(1 − cos θ)] + √[(1 − cos θ)/(1 + cos θ)]

Formula Used: sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 | (a − b)(a + b) = a² − b²

⇒ [√(1 + cos θ) / √(1 − cos θ)] + [√(1 − cos θ) / √(1 + cos θ)]

⇒ Take LCM: [(1 + cos θ) + (1 − cos θ)] / [√(1 − cos θ) × √(1 + cos θ)]

⇒ 2 / √(1 − cos² θ)

⇒ 2 / √(sin² θ)

⇒ 2 / sin θ = 2 cosec θ.

∴ The correct answer is 2 cosec θ.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identity

The fundamental identity sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 implies that √(1 − cos²θ) = sinθ.

Reciprocal Relations

The ratio 1/sin θ is equal to cosec θ, which is the reciprocal of the sine function.

Conjugate Multiplication

Multiplying numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator is a common technique to remove radicals.

Calculation:

Now, the difference between the total marks obtained by A and B in all the 6 subjects

⇒ (90 + 420 + 390 + 210 + 270 + 120) - (180 + 240 + 360 + 300 + 60 + 330)

⇒ 30

∴ The difference between the total marks obtained by A and B in all the 6 subjects is 30.

Given:

ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent respectively.

AB = 6 = DE, BC = 8 = EF and m ∠B = 30°

Concept used:

1. SAS Congruency: If two sides and the included angle of one triangle are equal to two sides and included angle of another triangle, then the triangles are congruent. E.g.: if ∠A = ∠X and AB/XY = AC/XZ then ΔABC ≅ ΔXYZ.

From the congruency, 

AB/XY = BC/YZ = AC/XZ

and ∠B = ∠Y and ∠C = ∠Z

2. The three interior angles of a triangle will always have a sum of 180°.

Calculation:

​According to the concept,

Since ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent and AB = 6 = DE, BC = 8 = EF and m ∠B = 30°, m ∠B = m ∠E = 30°.

Also, m ∠C = m ∠F      ....(1)

Hence, m ∠A = m ∠D      ....(2)

​According to the concept,

m ∠C + m ∠A = (180 - 30)°      ....(3)

m ∠E + m ∠F = (180 - 30)°      ....(4)

From 1, 2, 3 and 4,

m ∠D + m ∠C = (180 - 30)° 

⇒ m ∠D + m ∠C = 150° 

∴ The value of m ∠D + m ∠C is 150°.

Calculation:

Since A obtained 58 in science, he didn't obtain 60% marks and above in all subjects.

Since B obtained 36 in social science, he didn't obtain 60% marks and above in all subjects.

Since C obtained 58 in science, he didn't obtain 60% marks and above in all subjects.

D obtained 60% marks and above in all subjects.

Since E obtained 59 in mathematics, he didn't obtain 60% marks and above in all subjects.

F obtained 60% marks and above in all subjects.

Now, the number of students who obtained 60% marks and above in all subjects

⇒ 2

∴ The number of students who obtained 60% marks and above in all subjects is 2.

Given:

An angle of a right-angled triangle is 35°.

Concept used:

All internet angle of a triangle sum up to 180°.

Calculation:

Hence, the measure of the third angle

⇒ 180° - 90° - 35°

⇒ 55°

∴ The other angles are 90° and 55°.

Given:

A dishonest dealer sells a product at an 11% loss on cost price but uses 22% less weight.

Concept used:

1. Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 - Loss%) 2. Profit% = ${(Selling\ Price\ -\ Cost\ Price) \over Cost\ Price} \times 100\%$

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the product be Rs. 1/gm.

Cost price of 1000gm = Rs. 1000

Selling price of 1000gm = 1000 × (1 - 11%) = Rs. 890

Since he's using 22% less weight, the selling price of the net quantity sold

⇒ 1000 × (1 - 22%) × 1 = Rs. 780

Now, profit% = $\frac {890 - 780}{780} \times 100\%$ ≈ 14.10%

∴ His percentage gain is 14.10%.

Given:

A shopkeeper earns 10% on an investment but loses 20% on another investment.

The ratio of the two investments is 2 ∶ 3.

Concept used:

Weighted average, W = $\frac {\sum^n_{i = 1} X_iW_i}{\sum^n_{i = 1} W_i}$

W = weighted average

n = number of terms to be averaged

W_i = weights applied to x values

X_i = data values to be averaged

Calculation:

His combined loss percentage

⇒ $\frac {10 \times 2 - 20 \times 3}{2 + 3}$(Loss is taken in a negative manner in contrast to the profit)

⇒ -8% (Negative sign indicates loss)

∴ The combined loss percentage is 8%.

Given:

I. The value of 1002 - 992 + 982 - 972 + 962 - 952 + 942 - 932 + ...... + 222 - 212 is 4840.

II. The value of 

$\rm \left( {{k^2}+\frac{1}{{{k^2}}}} \right)\left( {k - \frac{1}{k}} \right)\left( {{k^4}+\frac{1}{{{k^4}}}} \right)\left( {k+\frac{1}{k}} \right)\left( {{k^4}-\frac{1}{{{k^4}}}} \right)$ is k16 - $\frac{1}{k^{16}}$.

Concept used:

A, (A + D), (A + 2D), ....., L is an arithmetic progression with the first term A and common difference D. (L being the N^th term)

Number of terms, N = (L - A)/D + 1

Sum of all terms = (A + L)/2 × N

Calculation:

II. ​According to the concept,

1002 - 992 + 982 - 972 + 962 - 952 + 942 - 932 + ...... + 222 - 212

(100 + 99)(100 - 99) + (98 + 97)(98 - 97)+...........(22 + 21)(22 - 21)

So, the series will be

100 + 99 + 98 + 97 .............................................22 + 21.

The first term is 100 and the last is 21, the difference is 1.

Sum = (100 + 21) × 80/2 = 121 × 40 = 4840

II. $\rm \left( {{k^2}+\frac{1}{{{k^2}}}} \right)\left( {k - \frac{1}{k}} \right)\left( {{k^4}+\frac{1}{{{k^4}}}} \right)\left( {k+\frac{1}{k}} \right)\left( {{k^4}-\frac{1}{{{k^4}}}} \right)$

⇒ $(k + \frac {1}{k}) (k - \frac {1}{k}) (k^2 + \frac {1}{k^2}) (k^4 + \frac {1}{k^4}) (k^4 - \frac {1}{k^4})$

⇒ $(k^2 - \frac {1}{k^2}) (k^2 + \frac {1}{k^2}) (k^4 + \frac {1}{k^4}) (k^4 - \frac {1}{k^4})$

⇒ $(k^4 - \frac {1}{k^4}) (k^4 + \frac {1}{k^4}) (k^4 - \frac {1}{k^4})$

⇒ $(k^{8} - \frac {1}{k^{8}}) (k^4 - \frac {1}{k^4})$ ≠ $(k^{16} - \frac {1}{k^{16}})$

∴ Only I is true.

Given:

A contractor decided to complete a work in 80 days and employed 60 men at the beginning and 20 men additionally after 20 days and got the work completed as per schedule.

Concept used:

Total work = Efficiency of each worker × Number of days to finish × Number of total workers

Calculation:

​According to the question,

The contractor employed 60 men at the beginning and 20 men additionally after 20 days. So 80 men are employed for 60 days.

Total work = 20 × 60 + 60 × 80 = 6000 units

So if he had not employed the additional men, the time is taken to complete the work by 60 men

⇒6000 units/ 60

⇒ 100 days

Now, extra days = 100 - 80 = 20 days

∴ If he had not employed the additional men, 20 extra days he would have needed to complete the work.

Given:

The length of the side of a cube is 4.2 cm. 

Concept used:

1. The diameter of the largest sphere that can be taken out of the cube should be equal to the measure of each side of the cube.
2. Volume of a sphere = 4π(Radius)³ ÷ 3

Calculation:

Diameter of the sphere = 4.2 cm³

Radius of the sphere = 4.2/2 = 2.1 cm³

Now, the volume of the sphere

⇒ (4π × 2.1³)/3

⇒ 38.808 ≈ 38.80 cm³

∴ The volume of the sphere that can be taken out of the cube is 38.80 cm3.

Given:

A tradesman marks his goods 20% above his cost price.

He allows his customer 20% discount on the marked price.

Concept used:

Final percentage change after two successive increments of A% and B% = $(A + B + {AB \over 100})\%$

Calculation:

His profit or loss percentage

⇒ ${(20 + (-20) + \frac {20 \times -20}{100})}\%$ (Here, the 20% discount is taken as a negative increment in contrast to the 20% mark up)

⇒ -4% (Negative value indicates loss)

∴ He makes a 4% loss.

Given:

cos x cosec x - sin x sec x

Concept used:

1. cos^2x - sin^2x = cos 2x 2. 2 × sinx × cosx = sin 2x 3. cot x = cos x ÷ sin x

Calculation:

cosx ×  cosecx - sinx × secx

⇒ $\frac {cosx}{sinx}$ - $\frac {sinx}{cosx}$

⇒ $\frac {cos^2x - sin^2x}{sinx . cosx }$

⇒ $2 × \frac {cos\ 2x}{2sinx . cosx}$

⇒ $2 × \frac {cos\ 2x}{sin\ 2x}$

⇒ 2cot 2x

∴ The simplified value is 2cot 2x.

Shortcut Trick

The relationship is given by A ∝ √B / C³.

Since C is constant (C = 2 in both cases), the relationship simplifies to A ∝ √B.

Therefore, A₁ / A₂ = √B₁ / √B₂ ⇒ 15 / 9 = √27 / √B₂.

5 / 3 = 3√3 / √B₂ ⇒ √B₂ = 9√3 / 5.

Squaring both sides: B₂ = (81 × 3) / 25 = 243 / 25.

∴ The correct answer is 243/25.

Alternate Method

Given: A ∝ √B and A ∝ 1/C³.

Formula: A = k × √B / C³, where k is the constant of proportionality.

⇒ Case 1: 15 = k × √27 / 2³

⇒ 15 = k × 3√3 / 8 ⇒ k = (15 × 8) / 3√3 = 40 / √3.

⇒ Case 2: A = 9, C = 2, find B.

⇒ 9 = (40 / √3) × √B / 2³

⇒ 9 = (40 / √3) × √B / 8 ⇒ 9 = (5 / √3) × √B.

⇒ √B = 9√3 / 5.

⇒ B = (9√3 / 5)² = (81 × 3) / 25 = 243 / 25.

∴ The correct answer is 243/25.

Additional Information

Direct Variation

When one quantity increases as the other increases at a constant rate, expressed as y = kx.

Inverse Variation

When one quantity increases as the other decreases, expressed as y = k / x.

Joint Variation

A situation where a quantity varies directly with the product of two or more other quantities, such as z = kxy.

Given:

The average weight of 5 men decreases by 3 kg when one of them weighing 150 kg is replaced by another person.

Concept used:

Total = Average × Number of entities

Calculation:

Let the initial average of 5 men and the weight of the new person be N and P respectively.

​According to the question,

5N - 150 + P = 5(N - 3)

⇒ P = 150 - 15

⇒ P = 135

∴ The weight of the new person is 135 kg.

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. 'A mini-getaway has been booked for me by my parents.'

Key Points 

• The given sentence is in the active voice. We have to change the sentence into passive form.
• The given sentence is written in 'present perfect tense.'
• The structure of these kinds of sentences is:
• Active Voice: Subject + has/have + V3 + Object.
• Passive Voice:  Object + has/have + been + V3 + by (preposition) + Subject.
• Let’s see another example:
• Active voice: The police have opened a file on the case.
• Passive voice: A file has been opened by the police on the case.
• The subject of the given sentence is 'My parents' and the object of the given sentence is 'a mini-getaway'.
• So, in the passive voice, the position of ‘subject’ and ‘object’ will be interchanged.
• Also here, 'have booked' will be changed into 'has been booked'.

 

Correct Sentence: A mini-getaway has been booked for me by my parents.