Previous Year Paper

RRB Technician Grade III Official Paper (Held On: 28 Dec, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

100 questions90 minutes
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

If the simple interest on a sum of money at 8% per annum in 2 years is ₹2,000, find the compound interest on the same sum for the same period at the same rate in case of annual compounding.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2080

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1660

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2040

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1960

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹2080

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The effective Simple Interest rate for 2 years at 8% = 8 + 8 = 16%.

The effective Compound Interest rate for 2 years = 8 + 8 + (8 × 8) ÷ 100 = 16.64%.

Given that 16% corresponds to ₹2,000.

Required Compound Interest (16.64%) = (2000 ÷ 16) × 16.64

⇒ 125 × 16.64 = ₹2080.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2080.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹2,000 | Rate (R) = 8% p.a. | Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

CI for 2 years = SI + (Interest on 1st year SI)

Calculations:

⇒ 2000 = (P × 8 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ 2000 = 16P ÷ 100

⇒ P = (2000 × 100) ÷ 16

⇒ P = ₹12,500

⇒ SI for 1st year = 2000 ÷ 2 = ₹1000

⇒ Compound Interest (CI) = SI for 2 years + (8% of 1st year SI)

⇒ CI = 2000 + (1000 × 8 ÷ 100)

⇒ CI = 2000 + 80 = ₹2080

∴ The correct answer is ₹2080.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of CI

For 2 years, the effective interest rate can be calculated using the successive percentage formula: R + R + (R × R) ÷ 100.

Difference between CI and SI

The difference (D) between CI and SI for 2 years is given by the formula: D = P × (R ÷ 100)2.

General CI Formula

Amount (A) = P(1 + R ÷ 100)n, where n is the number of years. CI = A − P.

Question 2

Seven boxes, A, B, E, F, L, M and P, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. M is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between M and B. P is kept at one of the positions below M. Only E is kept between B and F. A is kept at one of the positions above B. How many boxes are kept between L and P?

  1. AOption (a)

    Four

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    One

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

One

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Seven boxes, A, B, E, F, L, M and P, are kept one over the other. 

M is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between M and B.

A is kept at one of the positions above B.

P is kept at one of the positions below M.

Only E is kept between B and F

Boxes
A
B
E
F
L
M
P

 

Thus, 'One' box is kept between L and P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 3

Two successive discounts of 12% and 15% on any number of toys bought are equivalent to a single discount of:

  1. AOption (a)

    25.2%

  2. BOption (b)

    27%

  3. COption (c)

    26.2%

  4. DOption (d)

    26%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25.2%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find the equivalent single discount for two successive discounts, use the formula: a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100.

Here, a = 12 and b = 15.

Equivalent discount = 12 + 15 − (12 × 15) ÷ 100.

Equivalent discount = 27 − (180 ÷ 100) = 27 − 1.8 = 25.2%.

∴ The correct answer is 25.2%.

Alternate Method

Given: First discount = 12%, Second discount = 15%.

Formula: Equivalent Discount % = [1 − (1 − d1/100) × (1 − d2/100)] × 100

⇒ Let the Marked Price (MP) be 100.

⇒ Price after 12% discount = 100 − 12 = 88.

⇒ Price after 15% discount on 88 = 88 − (15% of 88) = 88 − 13.2 = 74.8.

⇒ Total discount = 100 − 74.8 = 25.2.

⇒ Single Equivalent Discount % = (25.2 ÷ 100) × 100 = 25.2%.

∴ The correct answer is 25.2%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When a series of discounts are applied one after another on the reducing balance, they are called successive discounts. The total discount is always less than the sum of individual percentages.

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price − Discount.

Question 4

If 12, 24, 45 and y are in proportion, then the value of y is:

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

90

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For four numbers a, b, c, d in proportion, the product of means equals the product of extremes: a × d = b × c.

Here, 12 × y = 24 × 45.

Dividing by 12: y = 2 × 45 = 90.

∴ The correct answer is 90.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers 12, 24, 45, and y are in proportion.

Formula Used: If a, b, c, d are in proportion, then a/b = c/d.

⇒ 12/24 = 45/y

⇒ 1/2 = 45/y

⇒ y = 45 × 2

⇒ y = 90

∴ The correct answer is 90.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If a, b, c are in continued proportion (a:b = b:c), then c is the third proportional and c = b2/a.

Fourth Proportional

If a, b, c, d are in proportion (a:b = c:d), then d is the fourth proportional and d = (b × c)/a.

Question 5

By defeating which state’s team had Punjab won the Syed Mushtaq Ali T20 Trophy at the IS Bindra PCA Stadium in November 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gujarat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Punjab defeated Gujarat to win the Syed Mushtaq Ali T20 Trophy in November 2023.
  • The final match took place at the IS Bindra PCA Stadium, Mohali.
  • This victory marked Punjab's first win in the history of the Syed Mushtaq Ali T20 Trophy.
  • The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is a domestic T20 cricket championship in India, organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
  • Punjab's cricket team showed remarkable performance throughout the tournament to clinch the title.

Additional Information

  • Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy
  • Named after the famous Indian cricketer Syed Mushtaq Ali.
  • It is a premier domestic T20 cricket championship in India.
  • The tournament is administered by the BCCI and features state teams from across the country.
  • It serves as a platform for players to showcase their talent and get selected for the Indian Premier League (IPL) and the national team.
  • Punjab Cricket Team
  • Represents the Indian state of Punjab in domestic cricket competitions.
  • Home ground is the PCA Stadium in Mohali.
  • Has produced several notable cricketers who have represented India internationally.
  • Known for its strong performances in domestic cricket tournaments over the years.
  • IS Bindra PCA Stadium
  • Located in Mohali, Punjab.
  • Named after former BCCI president Inderjit Singh Bindra.
  • It is one of the premier cricket stadiums in India and hosts international matches.
  • Known for its excellent facilities and infrastructure.

Question 6

The natural tendency of objects to resist a change in their state of rest or of uniform motion is called ______

  1. AOption (a)

    force

  2. BOption (b)

    motion

  3. COption (c)

    momentum

  4. DOption (d)

    inertia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

inertia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is inertia.

Key Points

  • Inertia is the property of an object to resist changes to its state of motion.
  • It is a fundamental concept in Newton's First Law of Motion, which states that an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.
  • The concept of inertia was first introduced by Galileo Galilei and later refined by Sir Isaac Newton.
  • Inertia is directly proportional to the mass of an object; the greater the mass, the greater the inertia.

Additional Information

  • Newton's First Law of Motion: Often called the law of inertia, it states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.
  • Mass and Inertia: Mass is a measure of the amount of matter in an object and is directly related to the object's inertia. More mass means more inertia.
  • Galileo's Contribution: Galileo's experiments with inclined planes helped in understanding that objects resist changes in their state of motion, laying the groundwork for the concept of inertia.
  • Practical Examples: Common examples of inertia include passengers moving forward in a car when it suddenly stops, or a book remaining at rest on a table until it is pushed.

Question 7

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

17, 20, 26, 35, 47, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    62

  2. BOption (b)

    64

  3. COption (c)

    63

  4. DOption (d)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

62

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the next term in the series will be '62'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 8

The average of the first 50 natural numbers is:

  1. AOption (a)

    25.5

  2. BOption (b)

    12.25

  3. COption (c)

    21.25

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25.5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For the first n natural numbers, the average is always the middle term of the series.

Shortcut Formula: Average = (n + 1) ÷ 2

Given n = 50, Average = (50 + 1) ÷ 2 = 51 ÷ 2 = 25.5.

∴ The correct answer is 25.5.

Alternate Method

Given: First 50 natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ..., 50).

Formula Used: Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Sum of first n natural numbers = [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2

⇒ Sum of first 50 numbers = [50 × (50 + 1)] ÷ 2

⇒ Sum = [50 × 51] ÷ 2 = 25 × 51 = 1275

⇒ Average = Sum ÷ n = 1275 ÷ 50

⇒ Average = 25.5

∴ The correct answer is 25.5.

Additional Information

Average of Arithmetic Progression

For any series in AP, Average = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Sum of Squares

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers = [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

Average of First n Even Numbers

The average of the first n even natural numbers is always (n + 1).

Average of First n Odd Numbers

The average of the first n odd natural numbers is exactly n.

Question 9

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ARTICLE is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given word: ARTICLE 

Now, arranging in alphabetical order:

we get, 

Given WordARTICLE
Alphabetical orderACEILRT

 

Here, the letter 'A' and 'I' will remain unchanged after arranged in alphabetical order.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 10

What is the mass number of an atom having 13 protons and 14 neutrons?

  1. AOption (a)

    27 u

  2. BOption (b)

    14 u

  3. COption (c)

    13 u

  4. DOption (d)

    1 u

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

27 u

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 27 u.

Key Points

  • The mass number of an atom is the sum of its protons and neutrons. In this case, it has 13 protons and 14 neutrons.
  • The sum of 13 protons and 14 neutrons gives a mass number of 27.
  • Mass number is represented by the symbol 'A' and is a whole number.
  • The unit used for mass number is atomic mass unit (u), though it is often just a whole number without units.

Additional Information

  • Proton:
  • A proton is a subatomic particle found in the nucleus of every atom.
  • It has a positive electric charge of +1 elementary charge.
  • The number of protons in an atom defines the element (e.g., 13 protons define an atom as aluminum).
  • Neutron:
  • A neutron is a subatomic particle, also found in the nucleus of an atom, with no electric charge.
  • Neutrons contribute to the atomic mass and stability of the nucleus.
  • Atomic Number (Z):
  • The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
  • It determines the chemical properties of an element and its place in the periodic table.
  • Isotopes:
  • Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which differ in neutron number, and consequently in nucleon number.
  • All isotopes of a given element have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons in each atom.

Question 11

If x + y = 16 and xy = 48, find the value of x2 + y2.

  1. AOption (a)

    150

  2. BOption (b)

    164

  3. COption (c)

    144

  4. DOption (d)

    160

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

160

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify two numbers whose sum is 16 and product is 48.

Factors of 48: (12, 4) → 12 + 4 = 16. (True)

Value = 122 + 42 = 144 + 16 = 160.

∴ The correct answer is 160.

Alternate Method

Given:

x + y = 16

xy = 48

Formula Used:

(x + y)2 = x2 + y2 + 2xy

Calculations:

⇒ (16)2 = x2 + y2 + 2 × 48

⇒ 256 = x2 + y2 + 96

⇒ x2 + y2 = 256 − 96

⇒ x2 + y2 = 160

∴ The correct answer is 160.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity for Squares

The identity (a − b)2 = a2 + b2 − 2ab can also be used if the difference is known.

Relationship between Identities

(x + y)2 − (x − y)2 = 4xy is a common relation used to find the difference between variables.

Question 12

Refer to the given number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 9 # 1 * £ & % 4 6 @ 8 $ 7 & 3 Ω 5 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by an odd number?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    More than two

  4. DOption (d)

    One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

None

Why this answer is correct

Given series:

(Left) 2 9 # 1 * £ & % 4 6 @ 8 $ 7 & 3 Ω 5 (Right)

Symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by an odd number

Symbol → Symbol → Odd Number

2 9 # 1 * £ & % 4 6 @ 8 $ 7 & 3 Ω 5

There is no such pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 13

The distance between two points on a map is 5 cm. The scale of the map is 1 : 6,00,000. The actual distance between the two points (in km) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    30000

  2. BOption (b)

    300

  3. COption (c)

    3000

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The distance between two points on a map is 5 cm.

The scale of the map is 1 : 6,00,000.

Formula used:

Actual distance = Map distance × Scale

Calculation:

Actual distance = 5 cm × 6,00,000

⇒ Actual distance = 30,00,000 cm

Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm

⇒ Actual distance in km = 30,00,000 cm ÷ 1,00,000

⇒ Actual distance = 30 km

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    A solution is a homogenous mixture.

  2. BOption (b)

    Because of very small particle size, particles do not scatter a beam of light passing through the solution. 

  3. COption (c)

    The solute particles can be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration.

  4. DOption (d)

    The particles of a solution are smaller than 1 nm (10-9 metre) in diameter.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The solute particles can be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The solute particles can be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration..

Key Points

  • A solution is a homogeneous mixture, meaning that its composition is uniform throughout.
  • Due to the very small size of the particles in a solution (less than 1 nm), they do not scatter light passing through the solution, making it appear clear.
  • The solute particles in a true solution cannot be separated by filtration because they are too small to be trapped by a filter.
  • In a solution, the solute is completely dissolved in the solvent, resulting in a single-phase system.

Additional Information

  • Homogeneous Mixtures:
  • Homogeneous mixtures have a uniform composition and appearance throughout.
  • Examples include saltwater, air, and alloys.
  • Particle Size:
  • The particles in a true solution are smaller than 1 nm in diameter.
  • Due to their small size, they cannot be seen with the naked eye.
  • Filtration:
  • Filtration is a method used to separate solids from liquids or gases using a filter medium that allows the fluid to pass through but retains the solid particles.
  • It is not effective for separating solute particles in a true solution.
  • Types of Mixtures:
  • Solutions are a type of homogeneous mixture, where the solute is completely dissolved in the solvent.
  • Other types of mixtures include colloids and suspensions, which have different particle sizes and properties.

Question 15

Which of the following is the longest part of the alimentary canal? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Stomach

  2. BOption (b)

    Food pipe

  3. COption (c)

    Large intestine

  4. DOption (d)

    Small intestine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Small intestine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Small intestine.

Key Points

  • The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal, with an average length of about 6-7 meters in adults.
  • It is divided into three sections: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
  • The primary function of the small intestine is the absorption of nutrients and minerals from food.
  • It has a large surface area due to villi and microvilli, which aid in maximizing nutrient absorption.
  • The small intestine is crucial for digestion, as it continues the process begun in the stomach and receives bile and pancreatic juices to aid in breaking down food.

Additional Information

  • Villi and Microvilli
  • Villi are small, finger-like projections that extend into the lumen of the small intestine.
  • Microvilli are tiny hair-like structures on the villi that further increase the surface area for absorption.
  • Both structures significantly enhance the absorption efficiency of the small intestine.
  • Duodenum
  • The first section of the small intestine, immediately following the stomach.
  • It receives chyme from the stomach along with bile from the liver and digestive enzymes from the pancreas.
  • Jejunum and Ileum
  • The jejunum is the middle section of the small intestine, primarily involved in the absorption of nutrients.
  • The ileum is the final section, which absorbs vitamin B12, bile salts, and any remaining nutrients.
  • Peristalsis
  • Peristalsis is the series of wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract.
  • In the small intestine, peristalsis helps in mixing the chyme with digestive juices and in pushing it forward for further digestion and absorption.

Question 16

If + means -, - means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

16 ÷ 96 × 6 - 4 + 20 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    56

  4. DOption (d)

    54

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60

Why this answer is correct

SignMeans
+-
×÷
÷+
−×

 

Given: 16 ÷ 96 × 6 - 4 + 20 = ?

After changing the signs, the equation we get: 

16 + 96 ÷  6 ×  4 - 20 = ?

→ 16 + 96 ÷  6 ×  4 - 20

→ 16 + 16 × 4 - 20

→ 16 + 64 - 20

→ 80 - 20

→ 60

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 17

The cost of 2 tables and 3 chairs is Rs. 540, while that of 2 tables and 1 chair is Rs. 470. What is the cost of 2 tables and 2 chairs combinedly? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 505

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 525

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 485

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 545

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 505

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Difference in Price = Price of (2 Tables + 3 Chairs) − Price of (2 Tables + 1 Chair)

Price of 2 Chairs = ₹540 − ₹470 = ₹70 ⇒ Price of 1 Chair = ₹35

Combined cost (2 Tables + 2 Chairs) = (2 Tables + 1 Chair) + 1 Chair

Total Cost = ₹470 + ₹35 = ₹505

∴ The correct answer is ₹505.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost of 2 Tables + 3 Chairs = ₹540 ... (i)

Cost of 2 Tables + 1 Chair = ₹470 ... (ii)

Calculations:

Subtracting equation (ii) from (i):

⇒ (2T + 3C) − (2T + 1C) = 540 − 470

⇒ 2 Chairs = ₹70

⇒ 1 Chair = ₹35

Substituting value of 1 Chair in equation (ii):

⇒ 2 Tables + 35 = 470

⇒ 2 Tables = 470 − 35 = ₹435

Cost of 2 Tables + 2 Chairs:

⇒ 435 + 2 × 35

⇒ 435 + 70 = ₹505

∴ The correct answer is ₹505.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in Two Variables

These problems are solved using the elimination method where one variable is removed by subtracting or adding equations.

Substitution Method

Expressing one variable in terms of the other (e.g., T in terms of C) and plugging it into the second equation to find the unit price.

Averages & Ratios

In some cases, if the coefficients are symmetrical, adding and subtracting the equations can yield the value of (x + y) or (x − y) directly.

Question 18

In a certain code language. ‘TREF’ is coded as ‘3528’ and ‘KERF' is coded as ‘5438’. What is the code for ‘K’ in the given code language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given code language:

Thus, 'REF' is common in both code language, then code for K is '4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 19

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X : 18.8 :: 21 : Y

  1. AOption (a)

    X = 20, Y = 26.8

  2. BOption (b)

    X = 17, Y = 22.6

  3. COption (c)

    X = 11, Y = 29.4

  4. DOption (d)

    X = 15, Y = 24.8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

X = 15, Y = 24.8

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number + 3.8 = 2nd  number.

X : 18.8 :: 21 : Y

For, X

X : 18.8

→ X + 3.8 = 18.8

→ X = 18.8 - 3.8

→ X = 15

Now, for Y

 21 : Y

→ 21 + 3.8 = Y

→ 24.8 = Y

Thus, Value of X is 15 and Value of Y is 24.8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 20

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ZSN, QJE, HAV, YRM,?

  1. AOption (a)

    PJD

  2. BOption (b)

    PID

  3. COption (c)

    PIC

  4. DOption (d)

    PJC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PID

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 'PID' will be the next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 21

In a certain code language,

'P + Q' means 'P is the mother of Q',

'P - Q' means 'P is the husband of Q',

'P × Q' means 'P is the sister of Q' and

'P ÷ Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'.

How is A related to E if ‘A + B - C + D × E'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father's mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother's sister

  3. COption (c)

    Mother's mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Father's sister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Father's mother

Why this answer is correct

P is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningMotherHusbandSisterBrother
to Q

 

A + B - C + D × E

 → A is Mother of B,

B is husband of C,

C is mother of D,

D is sister of E,

By using the symbols in the table, we can draw the family tree:

Thus, A is Father's mother of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 22

Which of following pairs belongs to homologous series of alkenes?

  1. AOption (a)

    C2H6 and C3H10

  2. BOption (b)

    CH4 and C2H4

  3. COption (c)

    C3H6 and C4H8

  4. DOption (d)

    CH4 and C4H8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C3H6 and C4H8

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is C3H6 and C4H8.

Key Points

  • Alkenes are hydrocarbons that contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond (C=C) and have the general formula CnH2n.
  • The pair C3H6 (propylene) and C4H8 (butene) belong to the homologous series of alkenes, which differ by a CH2 unit.
  • In homologous series, compounds have similar chemical properties and a gradual change in physical properties.
  • Each successive member of an alkene series increases by one carbon atom and two hydrogen atoms (CH2 group).

Additional Information

  • Homologous Series:
  • A series of compounds with the same functional group and similar chemical properties, where each successive member differs by a CH2 unit.
  • Examples include alkanes (CnH2n+2), alkenes (CnH2n), and alkynes (CnH2n-2).
  • Functional Group:
  • A group of atoms responsible for the characteristic reactions of a particular compound.
  • In alkenes, the functional group is the carbon-carbon double bond (C=C).
  • Isomerism in Alkenes:
  • Alkenes can exhibit structural isomerism and geometrical (cis-trans) isomerism.
  • Isomers have the same molecular formula but different structures or spatial arrangements.
  • Chemical Properties of Alkenes:
  • Alkenes typically undergo addition reactions, such as hydrogenation, halogenation, and hydrohalogenation.
  • They are also known for polymerization reactions, forming long-chain polymers.

Question 23

Which of the following statements is /are true about the field around a current carrying solenoid:

(i)The field inside the solenoid is uniform.

(ii) The field outside the solenoid is same in magnitude as the field inside the solenoid.

(iii) The field around the solenoid is similar to the field around a bar magnet.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (iii) 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (i) and (iii) 

  3. COption (c)

    Only(i) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (ii) and (iii) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (i) and (iii) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (i) and (iii).

Key Points

  • The field inside a current-carrying solenoid is uniform because the magnetic field lines are parallel and evenly spaced inside the solenoid.
  • The field outside the solenoid is weak and non-uniform compared to the field inside.
  • The magnetic field around a solenoid resembles that of a bar magnet, having a north and south pole, creating a similar field pattern.
  • The field strength inside the solenoid is determined by the current and the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid.

Additional Information

  • Solenoid
  • A solenoid is a coil of wire designed to create a strong magnetic field inside the coil when an electric current passes through it.
  • Solenoids are used in various applications such as electromagnets, inductors, and actuators.
  • Magnetic Field
  • The area around a magnet where magnetic forces can be detected is called the magnetic field.
  • Magnetic fields are visualized using magnetic field lines, which show the direction and strength of the field.
  • Electromagnetism
  • It is the interaction between electric currents and magnetic fields.
  • Electromagnetic phenomena include the behavior of solenoids and the generation of magnetic fields by electric currents.
  • Bar Magnet
  • A bar magnet is a permanent magnet in the shape of a bar with a magnetic field similar to that of a solenoid.
  • It has two poles, north and south, and the magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole and enter the south pole.

Question 24

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

All shirts are pants.

Some pants are tie.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some pants are shirts.

(II) Some shirts are tie.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions I and II follow 

  3. COption (c)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion I follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only conclusion I follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible venn diagram.

Conclusions:

(I) At least some pants are shirts → True(As, All shirts are pants, so At least some pants are shirts is definitly true)

(II) Some shirts are tie → False(As, there is no direct relation between shirts and tie)

Thus, Only conclusion I follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 25

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    PRU

  2. BOption (b)

    JLP

  3. COption (c)

    FHK

  4. DOption (d)

    UWZ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

JLP

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) PRU

Option 2) JLP

Option 3) FHK

Option 4) UWZ

Thus, 'JLP' not followed the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 26

If John travels 90 km at a speed of 30 km/h and returns at a speed of 60 km/h, his average speed is:

  1. AOption (a)

    40 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    45 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    30 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    60 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

40 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

When the distance is constant for two speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Given x = 30 km/h and y = 60 km/h.

Average Speed = (2 × 30 × 60) ÷ (30 + 60)

Average Speed = 3600 ÷ 90 = 40 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 40 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance (one way) = 90 km

Forward speed = 30 km/h

Return speed = 60 km/h

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 90 + 90 = 180 km

⇒ Time 1 (Forward) = Distance ÷ Speed = 90 ÷ 30 = 3 hours

⇒ Time 2 (Return) = Distance ÷ Speed = 90 ÷ 60 = 1.5 hours

⇒ Total Time = 3 + 1.5 = 4.5 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 180 ÷ 4.5

⇒ Average Speed = 40 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 40 km/h.

Additional Information

Harmonic Mean for Average Speed

When distances are equal, average speed is the Harmonic Mean of the individual speeds: Avg Speed = 2v1v2 ÷ (v1 + v2).

Average Speed for Unequal Distances

If distances d1, d2 are covered with speeds v1, v2, then Average Speed = (d1 + d2) ÷ (d1/v1 + d2/v2).

Arithmetic Mean Fallacy

Average speed is NOT the simple average (x+y)/2 unless the time taken for each segment is identical.

Question 27

Rough endoplasmic reticulum looks rough under a microscope because it has particles called _____  attached to its surface.

  1. AOption (a)

    ribosomes

  2. BOption (b)

    chromosomes

  3. COption (c)

    lysosomes

  4. DOption (d)

    protein particles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ribosomes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ribosomes.

Key Points

  • The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is studded with ribosomes, which gives it a rough appearance under a microscope.
  • Ribosomes are essential for protein synthesis in the cell.
  • The RER is primarily involved in the production and processing of proteins that are either secreted from the cell, incorporated into the cell's plasma membrane, or used within lysosomes.
  • Ribosomes are composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins and can be found freely floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the RER.

Additional Information

  • Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)
  • The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of membranes within the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
  • It exists in two forms: rough ER (with ribosomes) and smooth ER (without ribosomes).
  • The smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis, metabolism of carbohydrates, and detoxification of drugs and poisons.
  • Protein Synthesis
  • Protein synthesis is a two-step process: transcription and translation.
  • Transcription occurs in the nucleus where DNA is transcribed into mRNA.
  • Translation occurs at the ribosomes where mRNA is translated into a polypeptide chain, forming proteins.
  • Ribosomes
  • Ribosomes can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
  • They are the site of protein synthesis, where amino acids are assembled into proteins based on genetic instructions.
  • Ribosomes can exist as free ribosomes in the cytosol or bound ribosomes on the RER.

Question 28

If a 4-digit number 13z4 is divisible by 6, then the greatest possible value of digit ‘z’ is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a number to be divisible by 6, it must be divisible by both 2 and 3.

The number 13z4 is even, so it is divisible by 2.

For divisibility by 3, sum of digits 1 + 3 + z + 4 = (8 + z) must be a multiple of 3.

Possible values for z are 1, 4, 7. The greatest is 7.

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Alternate Method

Given: A 4-digit number 13z4 is divisible by 6.

Formula Used: Divisibility rule of 6 = Divisibility by 2 AND Divisibility by 3.

⇒ Divisibility by 2: Last digit is 4 (even), so it is satisfied.

⇒ Divisibility by 3: Sum of digits (1 + 3 + z + 4) = (8 + z).

⇒ (8 + z) must be divisible by 3.

⇒ If z = 1, 8 + 1 = 9 (Divisible by 3)

⇒ If z = 4, 8 + 4 = 12 (Divisible by 3)

⇒ If z = 7, 8 + 7 = 15 (Divisible by 3)

⇒ The values of z are {1, 4, 7}.

⇒ Greatest value of z = 7.

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 3.

Divisibility Rule of 2

A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit is 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8.

Composite Divisibility

If a number is divisible by two co-prime numbers a and b, then it is divisible by their product (a × b).

Question 29

The magnetic field due to a current carrying coil increases when:  

  1. AOption (a)

    One moves way from the coil 

  2. BOption (b)

    current through the coil is increased  

  3. COption (c)

    current through the coil is decreased 

  4. DOption (d)

    number of turns of the coil is decreased 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

current through the coil is increased  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is current through the coil is increased.

Key Points

  • The magnetic field around a current-carrying coil is directly proportional to the current passing through the coil.
  • Increasing the current results in a stronger magnetic field as per Ampere's Law, which states that the magnetic field is proportional to the current.
  • The strength of the magnetic field can be calculated using the formula B = μ₀ * (n * I), where B is the magnetic field, μ₀ is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns, and I is the current.
  • This relationship is fundamental in electromagnetism and is utilized in various applications such as electromagnets, transformers, and inductors.

Additional Information

  • Ampere's Law:
  • Ampere's Law relates the circulating magnetic field in a closed loop to the electric current passing through the loop.
  • The mathematical expression of Ampere's Law is ∮B·dl = μ₀ * I, where B is the magnetic field, dl is an infinitesimal element of the path, and I is the current enclosed by the path.
  • Electromagnetism:
  • Electromagnetism is the branch of physics involving the study of the electromagnetic force, a type of physical interaction that occurs between electrically charged particles.
  • It is the fundamental principle behind electric motors, transformers, and many other modern devices.
  • Magnetic Field Strength:
  • Magnetic field strength, often denoted as H, is a measure of the magnetizing force and is directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from the current-carrying conductor.
  • Permeability of Free Space (μ₀):
  • Permeability of free space, also known as the magnetic constant, is a physical constant that describes the magnetic permeability in a classical vacuum.
  • Its value is approximately 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m (henries per meter).

Question 30

Asexual reproduction by fragmentation occurs: 

  1. AOption (a)

    only in unicellular organisms 

  2. BOption (b)

    only in simple body organised multicellular organisms  

  3. COption (c)

    only in complex body organised multicellular organisms 

  4. DOption (d)

    in all multicellular organisms 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

only in simple body organised multicellular organisms  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is only in simple body organised multicellular organisms.

Key Points

  • Fragmentation is a type of asexual reproduction where an organism breaks into fragments, each capable of growing independently into a new organism.
  • It primarily occurs in simple body organized multicellular organisms such as algae, fungi, and some plants like liverworts.
  • This method of reproduction ensures rapid population growth and survival in stable environments.
  • Examples include species like Spirogyra (a type of green algae) and certain fungi.

Additional Information

  • Asexual Reproduction
  • It involves a single parent and produces offspring genetically identical to the parent.
  • Types include binary fission, budding, spore formation, and fragmentation.
  • Binary Fission
  • Common in unicellular organisms like bacteria and protozoa.
  • The organism splits into two equal halves, each becoming a new individual.
  • Budding
  • Occurs in organisms like yeast and hydra.
  • A new organism grows from a bud due to cell division at one particular site.
  • Spore Formation
  • Seen in fungi, algae, and some plants.
  • Reproduction occurs through the release of spores, which are resistant to adverse conditions.

Question 31

A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a false weight and thus gains 25%. For a kg, he uses a weight of:

  1. AOption (a)

    850 gm

  2. BOption (b)

    700 gm

  3. COption (c)

    800 gm

  4. DOption (d)

    900 gm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

800 gm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Gain% = 25% = 1/4 (Ratio of Profit to False Weight).

Ratio of True Weight : False Weight = (4+1) : 4 = 5 : 4.

Given True Weight (1 kg) = 1000 gm.

5 units = 1000 gm ⇒ 1 unit = 200 gm.

4 units = 4 × 200 = 800 gm.

∴ The correct answer is 800 gm.

Alternate Method

Given: Profit percentage = 25%, True weight = 1000 gm.

Formula: Gain% = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100

Let the False Weight used be 'x' gm.

⇒ Error = 1000 − x

⇒ 25 = [(1000 − x) ÷ x] × 100

⇒ 25/100 = (1000 − x) ÷ x

⇒ 1/4 = (1000 − x) ÷ x

⇒ x = 4000 − 4x

⇒ 5x = 4000

⇒ x = 800 gm.

∴ The correct answer is 800 gm.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Concept

A dealer is dishonest if he claims to sell at Cost Price but uses a weight less than the True Weight. The profit is always calculated on the weight he actually gives to the customer.

Relationship Formula

Selling Price (Effective) / Cost Price (Effective) = True Weight / False Weight. Use this ratio method for complex problems involving multiple discounts or markups.

Question 32

Ramesh invested ₹1,232 at 5% p.a. simple interest in a bank. What amount will he get after 3 years?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,145.80

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,848.80

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,285.80

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,416.80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹1,416.80

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Interest % = Rate × Time = 5% × 3 = 15%.

Total Amount % = 100% (Principal) + 15% (Interest) = 115%.

Amount = 1232 × 1.15 = ₹1416.80.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1416.80.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹1232, Rate (R) = 5%, Time (T) = 3 years.

Formula Used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100; Amount (A) = P + SI

⇒ SI = (1232 × 5 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (1232 × 15) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 18480 ÷ 100 = ₹184.80

⇒ Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

⇒ Amount = 1232 + 184.80 = ₹1416.80

∴ The correct answer is ₹1416.80.

Additional Information

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Simple Interest is calculated only on the Principal amount, whereas Compound Interest is calculated on the Principal plus accumulated interest.

Rate of Interest (R)

If the rate is given per annum, the time must be converted to years. R = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × T).

Amount Formula

The total Maturity Value or Amount is given by A = P(1 + RT/100).

Question 33

The value of 0.5×10.6−0.2×1.40.4\frac{0.5\times 10.6-0.2\times 1.4}{0.4} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    12.55

  2. BOption (b)

    1.255

  3. COption (c)

    12.25

  4. DOption (d)

    125.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12.55

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expression = 0.5×10.6−0.2×1.40.4\frac{0.5 \times 10.6 - 0.2 \times 1.4}{0.4}

Formula used:

BODMAS rule (Multiplication before Subtraction)

Calculation:

Expression = 0.5×10.6−0.2×1.40.4\frac{0.5 \times 10.6 - 0.2 \times 1.4}{0.4}

⇒ 5.3−0.280.4\frac{5.3 - 0.28}{0.4}

⇒ 5.020.4\frac{5.02}{0.4}

⇒ 50.24\frac{50.2}{4}

⇒ 12.55

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 34

When a body falls freely under gravity, then which of the following quantities DOES NOT remain constant: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Acceleration

  2. BOption (b)

    Universal Gravitational Constant

  3. COption (c)

    Distance

  4. DOption (d)

    Mass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Distance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Distance.

Key Points

  • When a body falls freely under gravity, it is under constant acceleration due to gravity, which is approximately 9.8 m/s² near the Earth's surface.
  • The mass of the falling body remains constant as it falls, as mass does not change with motion.
  • The universal gravitational constant (G) is a fundamental constant of nature and does not change.
  • The distance covered by the body, however, changes continuously as the body falls, increasing with time.

Additional Information

  • Acceleration due to Gravity (g)

  • It is the acceleration of an object due to the force of gravity alone.

  • On Earth, the average value of g is approximately 9.8 m/s².

  • It remains constant for objects in free fall near the Earth's surface.

  • Universal Gravitational Constant (G)

  • It is denoted by G and is a key quantity in Newton's law of universal gravitation.

  • The value of G is approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N(m/kg)².

  • It is a constant and does not change with location or motion.

  • Mass

  • Mass is a measure of the amount of matter in an object.

  • It remains constant regardless of an object's state of motion.

  • It is typically measured in kilograms (kg).

  • Distance

  • Distance is a measure of how far an object has moved.

  • It changes as the object moves, increasing with time as the object falls.

  • In free fall, the distance covered can be calculated using kinematic equations.

  • Kinematic Equations

  • These equations describe the motion of objects under constant acceleration.

  • They include equations for calculating velocity, distance, and time.

  • For free fall, the distance covered by a body can be calculated using s=ut+12gt²s=ut+12gt²s=ut+12gt²s=ut+12gt²s=ut+12gt²s=ut+12gt²

    Code
       , where u is the initial velocity (zero for free fall), g is the acceleration due to gravity, and t is time.
    

Question 35

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

YES, ZGV, AIY, BKB,?

  1. AOption (a)

    CMD 

  2. BOption (b)

    CME

  3. COption (c)

    CMF

  4. DOption (d)

    CNE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CME

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 'CME' will be the next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 36

According to one of the laws of refraction, the _______ ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Reflected 

  2. BOption (b)

    Incident 

  3. COption (c)

    Emergent 

  4. DOption (d)

    Parallel 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Incident 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Incident.

Key Points

  • According to the law of refraction, the incident ray, the refracted ray, and the normal to the interface all lie in the same plane.
  • This principle is derived from Snell's Law, which describes the relationship between the angles of incidence and refraction.
  • The incident ray is the ray that approaches the boundary between two different media, such as air and glass.
  • The refracted ray is the ray that passes into the second medium and changes direction due to the change in speed.

Additional Information

  • Snell's Law
  • Snell's Law states that the ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant for a given pair of media.
  • This law can be mathematically expressed as n1 * sin(θ1) = n2 * sin(θ2), where n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of the media.
  • Refractive Index
  • The refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced inside the medium compared to vacuum.
  • It is a dimensionless number defined as n = c/v, where c is the speed of light in vacuum and v is the speed of light in the medium.
  • Critical Angle
  • The critical angle is the angle of incidence above which total internal reflection occurs.
  • It occurs when light travels from a medium with a higher refractive index to one with a lower refractive index.
  • Total Internal Reflection
  • Total internal reflection happens when a ray of light completely reflects back into the original medium, with no refraction occurring.
  • This phenomenon is utilized in optical fibers and some types of prisms.

Question 37

What compound is formed when a small amount of hydrochloric acid is added to a beaker containing copper oxide? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Copper (III) chloride 

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper (II) chloride 

  3. COption (c)

    Copper (IV) chloride 

  4. DOption (d)

    Copper (I) chloride 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Copper (II) chloride 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Copper (II) chloride.

Key Points

  • When hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to copper oxide (CuO), a reaction occurs producing copper (II) chloride (CuCl2) and water (H2O).
  • The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is: CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O.
  • This reaction is an example of a neutralization reaction where an acid reacts with a base (metal oxide) to produce a salt and water.
  • Copper (II) chloride is a compound with copper in the +2 oxidation state, which is the most stable oxidation state for copper in aqueous solutions.

Additional Information

  • Hydrochloric Acid (HCl)
  • Hydrochloric acid is a strong, corrosive acid commonly used in laboratory and industrial applications.
  • It is a solution of hydrogen chloride in water and is known for its pungent smell.
  • HCl is widely used for cleaning metals, in the production of organic compounds, and in the food industry for processing and cleaning.
  • Copper Oxide (CuO)
  • Copper oxide is a black solid that is used as a pigment in ceramics and glass.
  • It is a basic oxide, meaning it reacts with acids to form salts and water.
  • CuO is also used in the production of copper salts and as a catalyst in chemical reactions.
  • Copper (II) Chloride (CuCl2)
  • Copper (II) chloride is a yellow-brown solid that dissolves in water to form a blue-green solution.
  • It is used in dyeing, printing, and in various chemical syntheses.
  • CuCl2 can also act as a catalyst in organic reactions and is used in water treatment processes.
  • Neutralization Reaction
  • A neutralization reaction is a chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react to form a salt and water.
  • This type of reaction typically results in the neutralization of the pH of the reacting solutions.
  • Neutralization reactions are fundamental in various industrial processes and in everyday life, such as in antacid tablets used to relieve heartburn.

Question 38

Iodine is necessary for which gland to make the thyroxine hormone?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Thymus

  2. BOption (b)

    Pancreas 

  3. COption (c)

    Pineal gland 

  4. DOption (d)

    Thyroid gland 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Thyroid gland 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thyroid gland.

Key Points

  • The thyroid gland requires iodine to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) hormones.
  • Thyroxine (T4) is the primary hormone produced by the thyroid gland.
  • Iodine deficiency can lead to hypothyroidism and goiter.
  • The thyroid gland is located in the neck, below the Adam's apple.
  • Thyroid hormones regulate the body's metabolic rate, heart and digestive functions, muscle control, brain development, and bone maintenance.

Additional Information

  • Hypothyroidism:
  • A condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones.
  • Symptoms include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and depression.
  • Hyperthyroidism:
  • A condition where the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones.
  • Symptoms include weight loss, heat intolerance, increased appetite, and anxiety.
  • Goiter:
  • An abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland.
  • Often caused by iodine deficiency.
  • Iodine:
  • An essential element required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones.
  • Found in foods such as seafood, dairy products, grains, and iodized salt.
  • Thyroid Function Tests:
  • Blood tests used to measure levels of T3, T4, and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
  • Help diagnose thyroid disorders and monitor treatment efficacy.

Question 39

Work done can be defined as ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    force / displacement  

  2. BOption (b)

    force × displacement 

  3. COption (c)

    force + displacement 

  4. DOption (d)

    force - displacement  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

force × displacement 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is force × displacement.

Key Points

  • Work done is defined as the product of the force applied to an object and the displacement of the object in the direction of the force.
  • The formula for work done (W) is: W = F × d, where F is the force applied and d is the displacement.
  • Work is a scalar quantity and has units of Joules (J) in the International System of Units (SI).
  • Work done is positive when the force and displacement are in the same direction, and negative when they are in opposite directions.

Additional Information

  • Force:
  • A push or pull upon an object resulting from the object's interaction with another object.
  • Measured in Newtons (N) in the SI system.
  • Displacement:
  • The change in position of an object.
  • It is a vector quantity, having both magnitude and direction.
  • Energy:
  • The capacity to do work.
  • Measured in Joules (J) in the SI system.
  • Power:
  • The rate at which work is done or energy is transferred.
  • Measured in Watts (W) in the SI system.

Question 40

Which of the following is a characteristic property of acids? 

  1. AOption (a)

    They turn blue litmus paper red. 

  2. BOption (b)

    They have a slippery feel. 

  3. COption (c)

    They have a pH greater than 7.  

  4. DOption (d)

    They turn red litmus paper blue.  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They turn blue litmus paper red. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They turn blue litmus paper red.

Key Points

  • Acids turn blue litmus paper red, which is a common test to identify acidic substances.
  • Acids have a sour taste, a characteristic resulting from the presence of hydrogen ions (H+).
  • Acids have a pH less than 7, indicating their acidic nature on the pH scale.
  • Acids react with bases in a neutralization reaction to form salt and water.
  • Common examples of acids include hydrochloric acid (HCl), sulfuric acid (H2SO4), and citric acid.

Additional Information

  • Litmus Paper:
  • It is a dye-imbued paper used to test the acidity or basicity of a substance.
  • Blue litmus paper turns red under acidic conditions, and red litmus paper turns blue under basic conditions.
  • pH Scale:
  • The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral.
  • Values less than 7 indicate acidity, and values greater than 7 indicate basicity.
  • Neutralization Reaction:
  • A chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react to form water and a salt.
  • This reaction typically results in the pH of the resulting solution being closer to neutral (pH 7).
  • Common Acids in Daily Life:
  • Hydrochloric Acid (HCl): Found in stomach acid, aiding digestion.
  • Citric Acid: Present in citrus fruits like lemons and oranges.
  • Acetic Acid: The main component of vinegar.
  • Uses of Acids:
  • In the food industry for flavoring and preservation.
  • In the chemical industry for manufacturing fertilizers, dyes, and explosives.
  • In medicine for various treatments and as disinfectants.

Question 41

Given below is a cause followed by possible effects numbered I, II and III. Read the cause carefully and decide which of the three can be a/the possible effect(s).

Cause:

There has been an increase in the number of thefts of bicycles being reported in the apartments in locality X in the last 2 months. Effects:

(I) Police have instructed security guards of locality X to record details of all entries and exits and verify the phone numbers of all delivery personnel.

(II) Many apartment complexes have decided to install multiple CCTV cameras inside and outside their gates.

(III) More women police constables have been appointed in the police station adjoining locality X.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II can be the possible effects

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II is can be a possible effect

  3. COption (c)

    Both II and III can be the possible effects

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I can be a possible effect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II can be the possible effects

Why this answer is correct

Cause: There has been an increase in the number of thefts of bicycles being reported in the apartments in locality X in the last 2 months.

(I) Police have instructed security guards of locality X to record details of all entries and exits and verify the phone numbers of all delivery personnel.

The cause mentions an increase in bicycle thefts. To combat this, the police instructing security guards to record entries and exits, and verify delivery personnel's phone numbers, is a direct and logical response. This measure aims to increase surveillance and identify potential suspects or patterns.

Therefore, Effect I is a possible effect.

(II) Many apartment complexes have decided to install multiple CCTV cameras inside and outside their gates.

Installing CCTV cameras is a common security measure to deter and detect crime. The increase in bicycle thefts would naturally lead apartment complexes to enhance their security. Installing CCTV cameras inside and outside the gates would increase surveillance and help identify potential thieves.

Therefore, Effect II is a possible effect.

(III) More women police constables have been appointed in the police station adjoining locality X.

While increasing police presence can deter crime in general, the specific cause is bicycle thefts. Appointing more women police constables doesn't specifically address bicycle thefts. It's a general increase in police personnel, not a targeted response to the specific issue.

Therefore, Effect III is not a direct or logical effect of the given cause.

Thus, Effects I and II are possible effects of the given cause.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 42

sec2 A + (cosec2 A - 1) - (1 + tan2 A) - cot2 A = ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    sec2 A

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    cot2 A

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Apply Trigonometric Identities directly to simplify the expression.

sec2 A + (cosec2 A − 1) − (1 + tan2 A) − cot2 A

Using identities: (1 + tan2 A) = sec2 A and (cosec2 A − 1) = cot2 A

⇒ sec2 A + cot2 A − sec2 A − cot2 A = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: sec2 A + (cosec2 A − 1) − (1 + tan2 A) − cot2 A

Formula Used:

  1. sec2 A − tan2 A = 1 ⇒ 1 + tan2 A = sec2 A
  2. cosec2 A − cot2 A = 1 ⇒ cosec2 A − 1 = cot2 A

Calculations:

⇒ sec2 A + (cosec2 A − 1) − (1 + tan2 A) − cot2 A

Substitute (cosec2 A − 1) with cot2 A:

⇒ sec2 A + cot2 A − (1 + tan2 A) − cot2 A

The +cot2 A and −cot2 A cancel each other out:

⇒ sec2 A − (1 + tan2 A)

Substitute (1 + tan2 A) with sec2 A:

⇒ sec2 A − sec2 A

⇒ 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Identities

The three fundamental identities are: sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1, 1 + tan2 θ = sec2 θ, and 1 + cot2 θ = cosec2 θ.

Reciprocal Relations

sec θ = 1/cos θ, cosec θ = 1/sin θ, and cot θ = 1/tan θ.

Value Substitution Trick

For such identity-based questions, you can substitute a standard angle like A = 45° to quickly verify the numerical result.

Question 43

A positive number, when added to its square, gives 56. The number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify two consecutive integers whose product is 56, because x + x2 = x(x + 1).

Factors of 56 are 7 × 8.

Comparing x(x + 1) = 7 × (7 + 1), we get x = 7.

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Alternate Method

Given: A positive number added to its square equals 56.

Formula Used: Quadratic Equation x2 + bx + c = 0

⇒ Let the number be x.

⇒ x + x2 = 56

⇒ x2 + x − 56 = 0

⇒ x2 + 8x − 7x − 56 = 0

⇒ x(x + 8) − 7(x + 8) = 0

⇒ (x − 7)(x + 8) = 0

⇒ x = 7 or x = −8

⇒ Since the question states it is a positive number, x = 7.

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Additional Information

Nature of Roots

For a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, the discriminant D = b2 − 4ac determines if roots are real or imaginary.

Factorization Method

Splitting the middle term involves finding two numbers that multiply to 'ac' and add up to 'b'.

Consecutive Product Rule

The expression x2 + x can always be written as the product of two consecutive integers x(x + 1).

Question 44

Kevin starts from point A and drives 7 km towards the North. He then takes two simultaneous right turns and drives 2 km and 1 km, respectively. He then takes a left turn and drives 3 km. He then takes two simultaneous right turns and drives 3 km each. He takes a final left turn and drives 3 km to reach point B. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)

  1. AOption (a)

    2 km West 

  2. BOption (b)

    1 km West 

  3. COption (c)

    2 km North 

  4. DOption (d)

    2 km South  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2 km West 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Kevin starts from point A and drives 7 km towards the North. He then takes two simultaneous right turns and drives 2 km and 1 km, respectively.

He then takes a left turn and drives 3 km. He then takes two simultaneous right turns and drives 3 km each.

He takes a final left turn and drives 3 km to reach point B.

Thus, Kevin has to drive 2 km West  to reach Point A again.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 45

Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon. This property is known as ______

  1. AOption (a)

    Crystallisation 

  2. BOption (b)

    catenation 

  3. COption (c)

    Isomerisation 

  4. DOption (d)

    cyclisation 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

catenation 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is catenation.

Key Points

  • Catenation is the ability of an element to form bonds with other atoms of the same element.
  • Carbon atoms can form long chains and rings due to their ability to catenate.
  • This property allows carbon to form a vast number of compounds, more than any other element.
  • Catenation is a crucial property for the formation of organic molecules, including hydrocarbons and polymers.

Additional Information

  • Tetravalency of Carbon:
  • Carbon has four valence electrons, allowing it to form four covalent bonds with other atoms, including other carbon atoms.
  • Hydrocarbons:
  • Compounds composed solely of carbon and hydrogen. They are categorized into alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes based on the types of bonds between carbon atoms.
  • Isomerism:
  • Carbon compounds can exhibit isomerism, where compounds have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements.
  • Polymerization:
  • Carbon compounds can undergo polymerization, where small monomer units join to form large polymers, such as plastics and biological macromolecules.

Question 46

The Earth's crust, metal ores are present in the form of _________

  1. AOption (a)

    only carbonates  

  2. BOption (b)

    only sulphides  

  3. COption (c)

    oxides, sulphides and carbonates 

  4. DOption (d)

    only oxides 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

oxides, sulphides and carbonates 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is oxides, sulphides and carbonates.

Key Points

  • Metal ores in the Earth's crust are commonly found in the form of oxides, sulphides, and carbonates.
  • Oxides include minerals like hematite (Fe2O3) and bauxite (Al2O3·2H2O).
  • Sulphides include minerals such as galena (PbS) and pyrite (FeS2).
  • Carbonates include minerals like calcite (CaCO3) and dolomite (CaMg(CO3)2).
  • These forms are the primary sources for extracting metals in various mining processes.

Additional Information

  • Oxides: These are compounds of oxygen and metals. They are typically formed through the oxidation process.
  • Sulphides: These are compounds of sulfur with metals. They are generally formed in reducing environments, like hydrothermal vents.
  • Carbonates: These are salts of carbonic acid containing the carbonate ion (CO32-). They are usually formed in sedimentary environments.
  • Mining and Extraction: The process of obtaining metals from ores involves various techniques like smelting, electrolysis, and chemical reduction.
  • Economic Importance: The extraction of metals from these ores is crucial for various industries including construction, electronics, and manufacturing.

Question 47

In the process of photosynthesis, what happens to the carbohydrates (glucose) that are produced? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbohydrates are stored in the form of glycogen. 

  2. BOption (b)

    All the carbohydrates are immediately used as energy. 

  3. COption (c)

    All the carbohydrates are stored in the form of a starch. 

  4. DOption (d)

    First, carbohydrates are utilised for energy production and the rest are stored in the form of starch. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

First, carbohydrates are utilised for energy production and the rest are stored in the form of starch. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is First, carbohydrates are utilised for energy production and the rest are stored in the form of starch.

Key Points

  • Carbohydrates, primarily glucose, produced during photosynthesis are first utilized by the plant for immediate energy needs.
  • Plants convert the surplus glucose into starch for storage.
  • Starch serves as a long-term energy reserve that can be mobilized when the plant requires energy, particularly during times when photosynthesis is not possible (e.g., night or winter).
  • This storage process ensures that plants have a steady supply of energy to maintain their metabolic activities.

Additional Information

  • Photosynthesis Process:
  • Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants use sunlight to synthesize nutrients from carbon dioxide and water.
  • The general equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2.
  • Glucose Utilization:
  • Glucose can be used immediately in cellular respiration to produce ATP, the energy currency of the cell.
  • It can also be used to synthesize other organic molecules like cellulose, which is essential for plant cell walls.
  • Starch Storage:
  • Starch is a polysaccharide composed of glucose units linked together.
  • It is stored in plastids such as chloroplasts and amyloplasts within plant cells.
  • Energy Metabolism:
  • During periods of low photosynthetic activity, stored starch is broken down into glucose to meet the energy demands of the plant.
  • This process ensures that the plant's metabolic functions continue uninterrupted.
  • Additional Storage Forms:
  • In addition to starch, plants may also store energy in the form of lipids (oils) and proteins in seeds.
  • These storage forms are crucial for the germination and growth of seedlings.

Question 48

Select the bisexual flower from the provided options.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Pumpkin

  2. BOption (b)

    Watermelon 

  3. COption (c)

    Mustard 

  4. DOption (d)

    Papaya 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mustard 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mustard.

Key Points

  • Mustard is a bisexual flower, meaning it has both male (stamens) and female (pistils) reproductive organs in the same flower.
  • Bisexual flowers are also known as hermaphroditic flowers.
  • In mustard flowers, the stamens and pistils are arranged in such a way that it facilitates self-pollination and cross-pollination.
  • This characteristic of mustard flowers ensures a higher probability of fertilization and seed production.
  • Mustard plants belong to the family Brassicaceae, which includes many other important agricultural crops.

Additional Information

  • Bisexual Flowers
  • Bisexual flowers have both stamens (male part) and pistils (female part) in the same flower.
  • They are capable of both self-pollination and cross-pollination.
  • Examples include roses, lilies, and tomatoes.
  • Unisexual Flowers
  • Unisexual flowers have either stamens or pistils, but not both.
  • They can be either male (staminate) or female (pistillate).
  • Examples include cucumbers, papayas, and watermelons.
  • Pollination
  • Pollination is the process of transferring pollen from the male part (anther) to the female part (stigma) of a flower.
  • It can be mediated by various agents including wind, water, insects, birds, and animals.
  • Successful pollination leads to fertilization and the production of seeds.
  • Brassicaceae Family
  • The Brassicaceae family, also known as the mustard family, includes economically important crops such as cabbage, broccoli, and radishes.
  • Members of this family are known for their distinctive four-petaled flowers arranged in a cross shape.
  • They are widely cultivated for their nutritional and medicinal values.

Question 49

Justice Sanjiv Khanna took over as the _____ Chief Justice of India on 11 November 2024.

  1. AOption (a)

    53rd

  2. BOption (b)

    51st

  3. COption (c)

    50th

  4. DOption (d)

    52nd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

51st

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 51st.

Key Points

  • Justice Sanjiv Khanna took over as the 51st Chief Justice of India on 11 November 2024.
  • He succeeded Justice Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud as the Chief Justice of India.
  • The Chief Justice of India is the head of the judiciary in India and the Supreme Court of India.
  • Justice Sanjiv Khanna was appointed by the President of India following the recommendation of the collegium of judges.

Additional Information

  • Role of Chief Justice of India
  • The Chief Justice of India is responsible for the allocation of cases and appointment of constitutional benches.
  • The CJI also plays a crucial role in judicial appointments and administrative functions of the court.
  • Supreme Court of India
  • It is the highest judicial forum and final court of appeal in India.
  • It was established on January 28, 1950, under the Constitution of India.
  • The Supreme Court comprises the Chief Justice of India and a maximum of 34 judges.
  • Judicial Appointments in India
  • Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President of India.
  • The collegium system, which includes the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges, recommends appointments and transfers of judges.
  • Appointments are made based on seniority and merit.
  • Collegium System
  • It is a system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court.
  • The collegium is headed by the Chief Justice of India and includes the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
  • It plays a significant role in maintaining the independence of the judiciary.

Question 50

Which of the following is part of mechanical energy?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Potential energy 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Light energy 

  3. COption (c)

    Only Chemical energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Heat energy  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Potential energy 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potential energy.

Key Points

  • Potential energy is a form of mechanical energy.
  • Mechanical energy is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy in a system.
  • Potential energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position or state.
  • Examples of potential energy include gravitational potential energy, elastic potential energy, and chemical potential energy.

Additional Information

  • Kinetic Energy:
  • Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.
  • The formula for kinetic energy is KE = 0.5 * m * v^2, where m is mass and v is velocity.
  • Both potential and kinetic energy are components of mechanical energy.
  • Gravitational Potential Energy:
  • It is the energy possessed by an object due to its position in a gravitational field.
  • The formula is U = m * g * h, where m is mass, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is height.
  • Elastic Potential Energy:
  • It is the energy stored in elastic materials as the result of their stretching or compressing.
  • Common examples include springs and rubber bands.
  • Conservation of Mechanical Energy:
  • In a closed system with no external forces, mechanical energy remains constant.
  • This principle is known as the conservation of mechanical energy.

Question 51

Which of the following pairs of metals are found in free state?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium and potassium 

  2. BOption (b)

    Silver and potassium 

  3. COption (c)

    Gold and silver 

  4. DOption (d)

    Gold and sodium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gold and silver 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gold and silver.

Key Points

  • Gold and silver are noble metals and are known for their low reactivity, which allows them to be found in their pure, elemental forms in nature.
  • These metals occur in free state because they do not easily form compounds with other elements due to their low reactivity.
  • Gold is often found in its native form in quartz veins, alluvial deposits, and other geological environments.
  • Silver is also found in its native form, frequently in association with gold, and in various mineral ores such as argentite.

Additional Information

  • Native Metals
  • Native metals are metals found in their pure, metallic form in nature, rather than combined with other elements as compounds.
  • Examples include gold, silver, platinum, and copper.
  • Reactivity Series
  • The reactivity series is a list of elements ordered by their ability to displace other elements in chemical reactions.
  • Gold and silver are at the bottom of the reactivity series, indicating their low reactivity.
  • Alluvial Deposits
  • Alluvial deposits are sediments deposited by rivers and streams, often containing valuable minerals such as gold and silver.
  • These deposits are a common source of native gold and silver.
  • Gold Mining
  • Gold mining is the process of extracting gold from the earth, typically from hard rock mining, alluvial deposits, or as a by-product of other mining operations.
  • Major gold producing countries include China, Australia, and Russia.

Question 52

Which of the following organisms have three-chambered hearts? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mammals 

  2. BOption (b)

    Birds 

  3. COption (c)

    Amphibians 

  4. DOption (d)

    Fishes 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Amphibians 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Amphibians.

Key Points

  • Amphibians, such as frogs, toads, and salamanders, have a three-chambered heart consisting of two atria and one ventricle.
  • The three-chambered heart allows for some separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, which is more efficient than a two-chambered heart.
  • This heart structure helps amphibians adapt to both aquatic and terrestrial environments.
  • Amphibians have a double circulation system, where blood passes through the heart twice during each circulation cycle, improving oxygen delivery to tissues.

Additional Information

  • Mammals:
  • Mammals have a four-chambered heart, consisting of two atria and two ventricles, which allows for complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
  • This separation is essential for maintaining a high metabolic rate and efficient oxygen supply to tissues.
  • Birds:
  • Birds also possess a four-chambered heart, similar to mammals, facilitating efficient oxygen delivery to support their high-energy demands for flight.
  • The four-chambered heart ensures a more effective and faster circulation of blood.
  • Fishes:
  • Fishes have a two-chambered heart, consisting of one atrium and one ventricle, which pumps blood through a single circulation loop.
  • This system is sufficient for their aquatic lifestyle but less efficient compared to the hearts of amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.

Question 53

Which of the following is the most common application of plaster of Paris?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Creating casts for supporting fractured bones 

  2. BOption (b)

    Fire extinguisher 

  3. COption (c)

    Baking 

  4. DOption (d)

    Remove the hardness of water  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Creating casts for supporting fractured bones 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Creating casts for supporting fractured bones.

Key Points

  • Plaster of Paris (POP) is primarily used to create orthopedic casts for immobilizing fractured bones during the healing process.
  • It is favored in medical applications due to its quick-setting properties and ability to conform to the shape of the body part being treated.
  • POP is applied as a bandage soaked in water which then hardens to form a sturdy support structure around the injured area.
  • Orthopedic casts made from POP are critical in ensuring proper alignment and stabilization of bones to facilitate effective healing.

Additional Information

  • Composition of Plaster of Paris
  • Plaster of Paris is chemically known as calcium sulfate hemihydrate (CaSO4·½H2O).
  • It is produced by heating gypsum (CaSO4·2H2O) to about 150°C to remove water molecules.
  • Other Uses of Plaster of Paris
  • Besides medical applications, POP is used in art for making sculptures and decorative elements.
  • It is also employed in the construction industry for creating false ceilings and coating walls.
  • Handling and Safety
  • POP should be handled with care, as it can cause skin irritation and respiratory issues if inhaled as dust.
  • It is important to use protective gear such as gloves and masks when working with POP.
  • Setting and Hardening Process
  • When mixed with water, POP undergoes an exothermic reaction, causing it to set and harden quickly.
  • The setting time can be adjusted by altering the temperature and the amount of water used.

Question 54

In November 2024, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) started the country’s first analogue space mission at which of the following places to simulate life in an interplanetary habitat?

  1. AOption (a)

     Mount Abu

  2. BOption (b)

    Itanagar

  3. COption (c)

    Leh 

  4. DOption (d)

    Rameshwaram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Leh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leh.

Key Points

  • In November 2024, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) initiated the country's first analogue space mission in Leh.
  • The mission aims to simulate life in an interplanetary habitat to prepare for future deep space missions.
  • Leh was chosen due to its harsh terrain and extreme weather conditions, which closely mimic the Martian environment.
  • This mission is part of ISRO's broader strategy to enhance its capabilities in human spaceflight and interplanetary exploration.
  • It is a significant step towards understanding the complexities of living and working in space over extended periods.

Additional Information

  • Analogue Space Mission:
  • These are simulations conducted on Earth to mimic the conditions astronauts would face in space.
  • They help in understanding the physical and psychological challenges of long-duration space missions.
  • Human Spaceflight:
  • It involves sending humans into space and ensuring their safe return to Earth.
  • ISRO's Gaganyaan mission is an example of India's effort in human spaceflight.
  • Interplanetary Exploration:
  • This refers to the exploration of planets and other celestial bodies within our solar system.
  • Missions like Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission) have marked ISRO's entry into interplanetary exploration.
  • ISRO's Future Plans:
  • ISRO is working on various projects including Chandrayaan-3 and the Aditya-L1 mission to study the Sun.
  • There are plans for more advanced missions to explore outer space and possibly land on other planets.

Question 55

The force of gravitation between two bodies is F; if the mass of one of the bodies is increased to four times it's initial value, then the gravitational force between the bodies will now be:

  1. AOption (a)

    F/4

  2. BOption (b)

    F

  3. COption (c)

    4F

  4. DOption (d)

    2F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4F

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4F.

Key Points

  • The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses, as per Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation.
  • If the mass of one body is increased to four times, the product of the masses also becomes four times.
  • The formula used is: F = G × (m₁ × m₂) / r², where F is the gravitational force.
  • Since distance (r) and gravitational constant (G) remain unchanged, the force becomes 4F.
  • Hence, the new gravitational force becomes four times the original force.

Additional Information

  • Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation
  • Formulated by Sir Isaac Newton in the 17th century.
  • States that every particle attracts every other particle with a force directly proportional to the product of their masses.
  • The force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
  • Gravitational Constant (G)
  • A fundamental physical constant with a value of approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N·m²/kg².
  • It is the same everywhere in the universe and plays a key role in gravitational calculations.
  • Applications of Gravitational Force
  • Responsible for planetary orbits, tides, and the structure of the universe.
  • Used in satellite launching and calculating planetary motion.

Question 56

To promote Indian Culture and Art, President Draupadi Murmu conferred which of the following awards in October 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    70th National Film Awards 

  2. BOption (b)

    68th National Film Awards

  3. COption (c)

    69th National Film Awards

  4. DOption (d)

    67th National Film Awards

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

70th National Film Awards 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 70th National Film Awards.

Key Points

  • The National Film Awards is one of the most prominent film award ceremonies in India, established in 1954.
  • The awards aim to encourage the production of films of high aesthetic and technical standards and educational and cultural value.
  • The 70th National Film Awards recognize the best of Indian cinema released in the year 2022.
  • President Draupadi Murmu conferred these awards in October 2024, honoring outstanding contributions in various categories including Best Feature Film, Best Actor, Best Actress, and others.
  • These awards are presented by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organization set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, India.

Additional Information

  • Directorate of Film Festivals (DFF)
  • It was established by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India, to organize national and international film festivals within the country.
  • DFF administers the National Film Awards and the International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
  • It aims to promote good cinema and facilitate the exchange of ideas and experiences between Indian and foreign filmmakers.
  • Categories of National Film Awards
  • These awards include Feature Films, Non-Feature Films, and Best Writing on Cinema.
  • Feature Film awards comprise several categories such as Best Feature Film, Best Direction, Best Actor, Best Actress, etc.
  • Non-Feature Film awards include Best Non-Feature Film, Best Director, and various technical awards.
  • Significance of National Film Awards
  • They are considered the most prestigious awards in the Indian film industry, often referred to as India's equivalent to the Oscars.
  • These awards help in recognizing and encouraging new talent and excellence in Indian cinema.
  • The awards also highlight the diversity of Indian cinema, covering films produced in different languages and regions.
  • Recent Trends in National Film Awards
  • In recent years, there has been a notable increase in the number of regional films being recognized.
  • There is also a growing emphasis on films with strong social messages and innovative storytelling.
  • Digital and independent filmmakers are increasingly gaining recognition at these awards.

Question 57

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    FMH

  2. BOption (b)

    RYT

  3. COption (c)

    JQL

  4. DOption (d)

    MTP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MTP

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) FMH

Option 2) RYT

Option 3) JQL

Option 4) MTP

Thus, 'MTP' not follow the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 58

To gather intelligence about demand and supply of drugs in border villages, Punjab police launched which mission in association with Border Security Force (BSF) and Village Defence Committees (VDCs) in June 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mission Mukti

  2. BOption (b)

    Mission Nishchay

  3. COption (c)

    Mission Madad 

  4. DOption (d)

    Mission Sathi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mission Nishchay

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mission Nishchay.

Key Points

  • Punjab police launched Mission Nishchay in collaboration with BSF and VDCs in June 2024.
  • The mission aims to gather intelligence on the demand and supply of drugs in border villages.
  • This initiative is part of the broader efforts to combat the drug menace in Punjab, particularly in areas close to the India-Pakistan border.
  • Mission Nishchay involves active participation from local communities through Village Defence Committees (VDCs).
  • Cooperation with the Border Security Force (BSF) is crucial for the successful implementation of this mission.

Additional Information

  • Border Security Force (BSF)
  • BSF is one of the five Central Armed Police Forces of India, tasked with guarding India's land border during peace time and preventing transnational crime.
  • Established on 1 December 1965, BSF is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • It plays a critical role in counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations.
  • BSF personnel are often involved in anti-smuggling operations, including drug interdiction.
  • Village Defence Committees (VDCs)
  • VDCs are community-based groups formed to assist in maintaining law and order in rural and border areas.
  • They provide local intelligence and support security forces in their operations.
  • VDC members are usually volunteers from the local population, enhancing community participation in security efforts.
  • These committees are instrumental in bridging the gap between security forces and local communities.
  • Drug Menace in Punjab
  • Punjab has faced significant challenges related to drug abuse, with a high prevalence of opioid addiction among its youth.
  • The state borders Pakistan, making it vulnerable to drug trafficking routes.
  • Efforts to combat drug abuse include rehabilitation programs, awareness campaigns, and strict law enforcement.
  • Government initiatives aim to reduce demand and supply of illegal drugs through comprehensive strategies.
  • Drug Trafficking
  • Drug trafficking is the illegal trade involving the cultivation, manufacture, distribution, and sale of substances subject to drug prohibition laws.
  • It is a global black market economy, often linked with organized crime and terrorism.
  • Efforts to combat drug trafficking include international cooperation, stringent regulations, and intelligence-sharing among nations.
  • Effective border security and community involvement are critical in curbing this illegal activity.

Question 59

Apical meristem increases the ______ of the stem and the root.  

  1. AOption (a)

    branches 

  2. BOption (b)

    flowers  

  3. COption (c)

    girth 

  4. DOption (d)

    length 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

length 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is length.

Key Points

  • The apical meristem is a region of actively dividing cells located at the tips of roots and shoots in plants.
  • It is responsible for the primary growth, which leads to an increase in the length of the stem and root.
  • Primary growth enables plants to extend their reach for sunlight and nutrients.
  • The apical meristem gives rise to various specialized tissues such as the epidermis, cortex, and vascular tissues in the plant.

Additional Information

  • Meristematic Tissue
  • Meristematic tissues are regions of undifferentiated cells in plants that can divide and form new cells.
  • They are classified into apical, lateral, and intercalary meristems based on their location and function.
  • Lateral Meristem
  • Lateral meristems, such as the vascular cambium and cork cambium, contribute to the secondary growth of plants, increasing the girth.
  • They are responsible for the thickening of stems and roots.
  • Root Cap
  • The root cap is a protective structure that covers the tip of the root apical meristem.
  • It plays a crucial role in protecting the meristematic cells as the root pushes through the soil.
  • Primary and Secondary Growth
  • Primary growth is associated with the increase in length of the plant, facilitated by the apical meristem.
  • Secondary growth, which involves the increase in girth, is facilitated by the lateral meristem.

Question 60

Who is one of the authors of the book 'Overthrowing Cricket's Empire: How Every Team Beat England for the First Time' released in July 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aniket Mishra

  2. BOption (b)

    R Ashwin

  3. COption (c)

    Joy Bhattacharjya

  4. DOption (d)

    Abishek Mukherjee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Abishek Mukherjee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abishek Mukherjee.

Key Points

  • Abishek Mukherjee is a well-known cricket writer and historian.
  • He has written extensively on the history of cricket, particularly focusing on lesser-known stories and events.
  • Mukherjee has contributed to various prominent cricket publications and websites.
  • He co-authored the book 'Overthrowing Cricket's Empire: How Every Team Beat England for the First Time' which was released in July 2024.
  • The book discusses the historical milestones of different cricket teams defeating England for the first time.

Additional Information

  • Cricket Literature
  • Cricket literature encompasses a wide range of works including biographies, histories, and statistical analyses.
  • Prominent cricket writers include Gideon Haigh, Neville Cardus, and C.L.R. James.
  • Books on cricket history often explore the social and cultural impact of the sport.
  • The genre has a dedicated following among cricket enthusiasts who seek in-depth knowledge and historical context.
  • Historical Matches
  • Historical cricket matches are often remembered for their significance in the sport's development.
  • First victories against established teams mark important milestones for emerging cricketing nations.
  • Such matches are celebrated for showcasing the rise of new talent and strategic advancements.
  • These events contribute to the rich tapestry of cricket history and its global evolution.
  • Cricket Historians
  • Cricket historians play a crucial role in documenting and analyzing the sport's past.
  • They often uncover lesser-known stories and provide context to major events and figures.
  • Their work helps preserve the heritage of cricket for future generations.
  • Notable cricket historians include David Frith and Mihir Bose.

Question 61

_______ is the process through which plants lose water in the form of water vapour. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Transpiration 

  2. BOption (b)

    Transportation 

  3. COption (c)

    Transcription 

  4. DOption (d)

    Imbibition 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Transpiration 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Transpiration.

Key Points

  • Transpiration is the process through which plants lose water in the form of water vapour from their aerial parts, primarily through the stomata of leaves.
  • This process is crucial for the plant as it helps in the uptake and transport of essential nutrients and minerals from the soil.
  • Transpiration also aids in maintaining the plant's temperature by cooling it through the evaporation of water.
  • It is estimated that about 99% of the water absorbed by plants is lost through transpiration, highlighting its significance in the water cycle.

Additional Information

  • Stomata
  • Stomata are small pores found on the surface of leaves and stems that facilitate gas exchange and transpiration.
  • Each stoma is surrounded by a pair of guard cells that regulate its opening and closing.
  • Water Cycle
  • Transpiration is a key component of the water cycle, contributing to the movement of water from the soil to the atmosphere.
  • It works in conjunction with evaporation, which is the process of water turning into vapor from surfaces like soil and water bodies.
  • Xylem
  • Xylem is the tissue responsible for the transport of water and nutrients from the roots to the rest of the plant.
  • It plays a crucial role in supporting the plant structure and facilitating transpiration.
  • Factors Affecting Transpiration
  • Environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, wind, and light intensity can significantly influence the rate of transpiration.
  • Plants can regulate their transpiration rate through physiological adjustments like closing stomata during water stress.

Question 62

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 — Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting ‘multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into | and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on | and 3 is not allowed.)  

X : 96 :: 53 : Y

  1. AOption (a)

    X = 49, Y = 118

  2. BOption (b)

    X = 58, Y = 112

  3. COption (c)

    X = 52, Y = 104

  4. DOption (d)

    X = 47, Y = 108

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

X = 47, Y = 108

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) + 2 = 2nd number.

X : 96 :: 53 : Y 

For value of X,

X : 96

→ (X × 2) + 2 = 96

→ (X × 2) = 96 - 2

→ X = 94 ÷ 2

→ X = 47.

Now, for value of Y

53 : Y

→ (53 × 2) + 2 

→ 106 + 2

→ 108 = Y

Thus, value of X is 47 and value of Y is 108.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 63

Who among the following from the Indian state of Odisha won the third Rohini Nayyar Prize for his outstanding contribution to rural development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Azim Premji

  2. BOption (b)

    Sethrichem Sangtam

  3. COption (c)

    Deenanath Rajput 

  4. DOption (d)

    Anil Pradhan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Anil Pradhan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anil Pradhan.

Key Points

  • Anil Pradhan from Odisha won the third Rohini Nayyar Prize for his significant contributions to rural development.
  • The award recognizes individuals under the age of 40 who have made outstanding contributions to rural development in India.
  • Anil Pradhan is known for his innovative approaches in the field of rural education and development.
  • He has been instrumental in implementing various educational initiatives aimed at empowering rural youth in Odisha.
  • His efforts have led to significant improvements in the quality of education and skill development in rural areas.

Additional Information

  • Rohini Nayyar Prize
  • The Rohini Nayyar Prize is instituted in memory of Dr. Rohini Nayyar, a renowned economist.
  • The prize aims to recognize and reward young individuals who have made significant contributions to rural development in India.
  • It is awarded annually to individuals under the age of 40 who have demonstrated exceptional dedication and impact in rural development.
  • The prize includes a monetary reward and a citation to honor the recipient's efforts.
  • Rural Development in India
  • Rural development encompasses a wide range of activities aimed at improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas.
  • It includes initiatives in areas such as agriculture, education, healthcare, infrastructure, and employment.
  • The government of India, along with various NGOs and private entities, implements numerous programs to promote rural development.
  • Key programs include the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), and the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin).

Question 64

What is the SI unit of acceleration? 

  1. AOption (a)

    m s-1

  2. BOption (b)

    m s-2

  3. COption (c)

    m s2

  4. DOption (d)

    m s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

m s-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is m s-2.

Key Points

  • The SI unit of acceleration is the meter per second squared (m/s2).
  • Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time.
  • In the SI system, it is derived from the base units of length (meter) and time (second).
  • This unit is universally used in physics and engineering to quantify acceleration.

Additional Information

  • Velocity and Speed
  • Velocity is a vector quantity that refers to the rate at which an object changes its position.
  • Speed is a scalar quantity that refers to how fast an object is moving regardless of direction.
  • Newton's Second Law of Motion
  • States that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass (F=ma).
  • This law is fundamental in understanding the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration.
  • Uniform and Non-uniform Acceleration
  • Uniform acceleration occurs when the velocity of an object changes by an equal amount in every equal time period.
  • Non-uniform acceleration occurs when the velocity changes by unequal amounts in equal time periods.
  • Applications of Acceleration
  • Acceleration is a key concept in various fields such as automotive engineering, aerospace, and biomechanics.
  • Understanding acceleration is crucial for designing safety systems in vehicles and optimizing performance in sports.

Question 65

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

Some rocks are apples.

Some apples are horses.

Some horses are nails.

Conclusions:

(I) Some nails are apples.

(II) Some horses are rocks.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (II) follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion (I) follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible venn diagram:

Conclusions:

(I) Some nails are apples → False(as, there is no direction relation between them)

(II) Some horses are rocks → False(as, there is no direction relation between them)

Thus, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer "Option 2".

Question 66

Which of the following compounds undergoes thermal decomposition to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium chloride

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium nitrate

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium sulphate

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium carbonate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Calcium carbonate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calcium Carbonate.

Key Points

  • Calcium carbonate (CaCO3) decomposes upon heating to produce calcium oxide (CaO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
  • The thermal decomposition reaction of calcium carbonate is: CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g).
  • This decomposition occurs at a temperature of about 825°C (1517°F).
  • Calcium oxide (CaO), also known as quicklime, is widely used in construction and industrial processes.

Additional Information

  • Thermal Decomposition:
  • It is a chemical reaction where a compound breaks down into simpler compounds or elements upon heating.
  • Thermal decomposition reactions are usually endothermic, meaning they absorb heat.
  • Calcium Oxide (CaO):
  • Also known as quicklime or burnt lime.
  • Used in the manufacture of cement, steel, and paper, and in water treatment.
  • Carbon Dioxide (CO2):
  • A colorless, odorless gas that is a byproduct of the respiration of living organisms and the combustion of fossil fuels.
  • It is used in the production of carbonated beverages, as a refrigerant, and in fire extinguishers.
  • Other Thermal Decomposition Examples:
  • Calcium nitrate (Ca(NO3)2) decomposes to calcium oxide (CaO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), and oxygen (O2).
  • Calcium sulfate (CaSO4) decomposes to calcium oxide (CaO) and sulfur trioxide (SO3).

Question 67

Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

JAIL - ALIJ-LIAJ

ZEAL - ELAZ-LAEZ

  1. AOption (a)

    MAIN - AMIN - NAIM

  2. BOption (b)

    BORE - OERB - EROB

  3. COption (c)

    GILE-GLIE - ELIG

  4. DOption (d)

    COLD-ODLC-LCOD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BORE - OERB - EROB

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

JAIL - ALIJ-LIAJ

ZEAL - ELAZ-LAEZ

Similarly, same logic followed in

Option 2) BORE - OERB - EROB

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 68

Which of the following elements is extracted by electrolysis reduction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Na

  2. BOption (b)

    Ag

  3. COption (c)

    Pb

  4. DOption (d)

    Zn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Na

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Na.

Key Points

  • Sodium (Na) is extracted by electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (NaCl).
  • The process is known as the Downs process, where molten sodium chloride is electrolyzed.
  • During electrolysis, sodium ions are reduced at the cathode to form sodium metal.
  • Sodium is highly reactive and cannot be extracted by simple reduction methods, necessitating the use of electrolysis.
  • Electrolysis is crucial for extracting highly reactive metals like sodium from their compounds.

Additional Information

  • Electrolysis Process
  • Electrolysis involves passing an electric current through a molten or aqueous solution to cause a chemical change.
  • It is widely used for extracting metals from their ores and purifying them.
  • The process is performed in an electrolytic cell, which consists of two electrodes: an anode and a cathode.
  • During electrolysis, cations move towards the cathode to gain electrons (reduction), and anions move towards the anode to lose electrons (oxidation).
  • Downs Process
  • This process is specifically used for the extraction of sodium metal from molten sodium chloride.
  • It involves the use of a carbon anode and an iron cathode in a molten sodium chloride bath.
  • Sodium is collected at the cathode, while chlorine gas is produced at the anode.
  • Calcium chloride is often added to lower the melting point of sodium chloride in this process.
  • Reactivity Series
  • The reactivity series is a list of elements ordered by their reactivity.
  • Sodium is placed high in the reactivity series, indicating its high reactivity.
  • Highly reactive metals like sodium cannot be extracted by simple chemical reduction methods.
  • Electrolysis is necessary for extracting these metals from their compounds.
  • Applications of Sodium
  • Sodium is used in various industrial processes, including the manufacture of sodium compounds and in the reduction of metals.
  • It is also used in street lighting and as a heat exchanger in some nuclear reactors.
  • Sodium compounds, such as sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide, have numerous applications in industries and households.

Question 69

Which of the following Asian countries conducted the '8th International Ancient Arts Festival and Symposium' in November 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bangladesh 

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    Nepal

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhutan 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • India hosted the '8th International Ancient Arts Festival and Symposium' in November 2024.
  • This event is a significant cultural festival that showcases ancient arts and traditions from various countries.
  • The festival aims to promote cultural exchange and understanding among participating nations.
  • Participants include artists, scholars, and enthusiasts from across Asia and beyond, contributing to a rich exchange of knowledge and art forms.
  • The event includes performances, exhibitions, workshops, and symposiums on various ancient art forms.

Additional Information

  • Ancient Indian Arts
  • India has a rich heritage of ancient arts including dance forms like Bharatanatyam, Kathak, and Odissi.
  • Ancient Indian art also includes traditional music forms, sculptures, and paintings like Madhubani and Warli.
  • These art forms are integral to India's cultural identity and heritage.
  • Cultural Festivals
  • Such festivals play a crucial role in preserving and promoting traditional art forms.
  • They provide a platform for artists to showcase their talents and for audiences to appreciate cultural diversity.
  • Cultural festivals often include educational workshops and discussions to foster a deeper understanding of the arts.
  • International Participation
  • International festivals encourage cross-cultural interactions and collaborations.
  • They help in building global networks among artists, scholars, and cultural enthusiasts.
  • These events contribute to the global recognition and appreciation of diverse art forms.

Question 70

When an object is thrown upward, the force of gravity is _____

  1. AOption (a)

    the same as the direction of motion 

  2. BOption (b)

    Zero 

  3. COption (c)

    opposite to the direction of motion 

  4. DOption (d)

    independent of direction of motion 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

opposite to the direction of motion 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is opposite to the direction of motion.

Key Points

  • When an object is thrown upwards, the force of gravity acts downward, opposite to the direction of the object's motion.
  • The force of gravity is a constant force that always acts towards the center of the Earth.
  • As the object moves upward, it slows down due to the gravitational pull acting against it.
  • Once the object reaches its peak height, gravity causes it to accelerate back downwards.

Additional Information

  • Gravity:
  • Gravity is a natural phenomenon by which all things with mass or energy are brought towards one another, including objects ranging from atoms and photons to planets and stars.
  • On Earth, gravity gives weight to physical objects and causes the ocean tides.
  • It is approximately 9.8 m/s² on the surface of Earth.
  • Newton's Laws of Motion:
  • Newton's First Law states that an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.
  • Newton's Second Law states that the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of the object times its acceleration (F = ma).
  • Newton's Third Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  • Projectile Motion:
  • Projectile motion is a form of motion experienced by an object or particle that is thrown near the Earth's surface and moves along a curved path under the action of gravity only.
  • This curved path was shown by Galileo to be a parabola, but may also be more generally any type of conic section.
  • Peak Height:
  • The peak height in projectile motion is the highest vertical position along the object's trajectory.
  • At this point, the vertical component of the velocity is zero.

Question 71

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?  

  1. AOption (a)

    In Amoeba, the splitting of the two cells during division can take place in any plane.  

  2. BOption (b)

    Yeast can put out small buds that separate and grow further.

  3. COption (c)

    Plasmodium divides into many daughter cells simultaneously by binary fission. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Binary fission occurs in a definite orientation in Leishmania.  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Plasmodium divides into many daughter cells simultaneously by binary fission. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Plasmodium divides into many daughter cells simultaneously by binary fission..

Key Points

  • Plasmodium, the causative agent of malaria, primarily reproduces through a process called schizogony, not binary fission.
  • In schizogony, a single cell divides to form multiple daughter cells, but this is distinct from the process of binary fission.
  • Binary fission involves the division of a single organism into two parts, each with a copy of the original DNA, which is not the case in Plasmodium.
  • Plasmodium undergoes multiple fission, forming numerous daughter cells at once, which is a characteristic of its asexual reproduction cycle in the human liver and red blood cells.

Additional Information

  • Amoeba Reproduction
  • Amoeba reproduces by binary fission, where the cell splits into two equal halves, and this can occur in any plane.
  • Each daughter cell is a clone of the parent cell, possessing the same genetic material.
  • Yeast Reproduction
  • Yeast reproduces asexually by budding, where a small bud forms on the parent cell, grows, and eventually separates to become a new individual.
  • Leishmania Reproduction
  • Leishmania reproduces by binary fission, which occurs in a specific orientation along the longitudinal axis of the cell.
  • This process ensures that each daughter cell receives the necessary cellular components to survive and function.
  • Plasmodium Life Cycle
  • Plasmodium has a complex life cycle involving both asexual (schizogony) and sexual (sporogony) reproduction stages.
  • In humans, the asexual stage involves schizogony in liver cells and red blood cells, producing merozoites that infect new cells.
  • The sexual stage occurs in the mosquito vector, leading to the formation of sporozoites, which are transmitted to humans during a mosquito bite.

Question 72

If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷', ‘B’ stands for '×’, 'C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-’, then the resultant of which of the following would be 113? 

  1. AOption (a)

    96 C 12 B 2 D (42 A 6) D 3 C 20 

  2. BOption (b)

    96 C 12 A 2 D (42 A 6) A 3 D 20  

  3. COption (c)

    96 D 12 A 2 C (42 B 6) A 3 C 20 

  4. DOption (d)

    96 D 12 B 2 C(42 A 6) B 3 C 20  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

96 D 12 B 2 C(42 A 6) B 3 C 20  

Why this answer is correct

Given that: 

SymbolABCD
Meaning÷×+-

After replacing the symbols with their meanings in each option.

Option 1) 96 C 12 B 2 D (42 A 6) D 3 C 20 

96 + 12 × 2 - (42 ÷ 6) - 3 + 20

→ 96 + 12 × 2 - (42 ÷ 6) - 3 + 20

→ 96 + 12 × 2 - 7 - 3 + 20

→ 96 + 24 - 7 - 3 + 20

→ 120 - 10 + 20

→ 130 ≠ 113

Option 2) 96 C 12 A 2 D (42 A 6) A 3 D 20  

96 + 12 ÷ 2 - (42 ÷ 6) ÷ 3 - 20

→ 96 + 12 ÷ 2 - (42 ÷ 6) ÷ 3 - 20

→ 96 + 6 - 7 ÷ 3 - 20

→ 96 + 6 - 2.33 - 20

→ 79.63 ≠ 113

Option 3) 96 D 12 A 2 C (42 B 6) A 3 C 20 

96 - 12 ÷ 2 + (42 × 6) ÷ 3 + 20

→ 96 - 12 ÷ 2 + (42 × 6) ÷ 3 + 20

→ 96 - 6 + 252 ÷ 3 + 20

→ 96 - 6 + 84 + 20

→ 194 ≠ 113

Option 4) 96 D 12 B 2 C(42 A 6) B 3 C 20  

96 - 12 × 2 + (42 ÷ 6) × 3 + 20

→ 96 - 12 × 2 + (42 ÷ 6) × 3 + 20

→ 96 - 12 × 2 + 7 × 3 + 20

→ 96 - 24 + 21 + 20

→ 113 = 113

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 73

In a concave mirror, the object is placed between the pole and the focus point of the mirror. What is the nature of the image?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Real and inverted 

  2. BOption (b)

    Virtual and inverted 

  3. COption (c)

    Virtual and erect 

  4. DOption (d)

    Real and erect 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Virtual and erect 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Virtual and erect.

Key Points

  • When an object is placed between the pole and the focus point of a concave mirror, the image formed is virtual and erect.
  • The image is formed on the same side of the mirror as the object.
  • The image is larger than the object (magnified).
  • The virtual image cannot be projected onto a screen as it is formed by the apparent divergence of rays.

Additional Information

  • Concave Mirror:
  • A concave mirror is a spherical mirror that curves inward, resembling a portion of the interior of a sphere.
  • It is also known as a converging mirror because it can converge light rays to a point.
  • Focus Point (F):
  • The point on the principal axis of a concave mirror where light rays parallel to the principal axis converge after reflection.
  • The distance between the focus point and the mirror's surface is called the focal length.
  • Real Image:
  • An image formed by actual convergence of light rays that can be projected on a screen.
  • Real images are always inverted in concave mirrors.
  • Virtual Image:
  • An image formed by the apparent divergence of light rays from a point.
  • Virtual images are always erect and cannot be projected onto a screen.

Question 74

If each vowel in the word FRIENDLY is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order, the how many letters will appear twice in the group of letters thus formed?  

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0

Why this answer is correct

Given word: FRIENDLY 

  1. Each vowel is changed to the letter immediately preceding in the English alphabetical order.

  2. Each consonant is changed to the letter immediately following in the English alphabetical series.

WordFRIENDLY
Condition+1+1-1-1+1+1+1+1
Changed letterGSHDOEMZ

 

Thus, there is no letter will appear twice in the group of letters thus formed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 75

In a certain code language, ‘someday in paradise’ is written as ‘yd pl ws’ and ‘in dense forest’ is written as 'fe ws nm’. How is ‘in’ coded in the given language?  

  1. AOption (a)

    nm

  2. BOption (b)

    fc

  3. COption (c)

    yd

  4. DOption (d)

    ws

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ws

Why this answer is correct

Given code language:

As, 'in' is common in both the code language.

Thus, code for 'in' is 'ws'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 76

For a given data, if mean and mode are 42 and 60, respectively, then find the median of the data using empirical relation. 

  1. AOption (a)

    44

  2. BOption (b)

    50

  3. COption (c)

    46

  4. DOption (d)

    48

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

48

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Directly apply the Empirical Relation: 3 × Median = Mode + 2 × Mean.

3 × Median = 60 + 2(42)

3 × Median = 60 + 84 = 144

Median = 144 ÷ 3 = 48

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Alternate Method

Given:

Mean = 42

Mode = 60

Formula Used:

Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean

Calculations:

⇒ 60 = 3 × Median − 2 × 42

⇒ 60 = 3 × Median − 84

⇒ 3 × Median = 60 + 84

⇒ 3 × Median = 144

⇒ Median = 144 ÷ 3

⇒ Median = 48

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Additional Information

Empirical Relationship

For a moderately skewed distribution, the relationship is given by: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Symmetric Distribution

In a perfectly symmetrical distribution, the Mean, Median, and Mode all coincide at the same point (Mean = Median = Mode).

Types of Skewness

In a positively skewed distribution, Mean > Median > Mode. In a negatively skewed distribution, Mean < Median < Mode.

Question 77

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

All schools are colleges.

No college is a university.

Conclusions:

(I) Some colleges are not schools.

(II) Some schools may be universities.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

Why this answer is correct

The least possible venn diagram:

Conclusions:

(I) Some colleges are not schools → False (As, All schools are colleges,  then all school are colleges is possibility but not definite)

(II) Some schools may be universities → False (As, No college is a university and All schools are colleges then it cannot be possible)

Thus, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 78

The ratio of the radius of the base to the height of a cylinder is 3 : 1. If its volume is 9702 cm3, then the curved surface area of the cylinder is: (Use π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. AOption (a)

    924 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    668 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    616 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    946 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

924 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of radius (r) to height (h) = 3 : 1. Let r = 3x and h = x.

Volume = πr2h ⇒ (22/7) × (3x)2 × x = 9702.

⇒ (22/7) × 9x3 = 9702 ⇒ x3 = (9702 × 7) ÷ (22 × 9) = 343 ⇒ x = 7.

Radius r = 21 cm, Height h = 7 cm.

Curved Surface Area = 2πrh = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 7 = 924 cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 924 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio r : h = 3 : 1, Volume (V) = 9702 cm3.

Formula: Volume of Cylinder = πr2h; Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πrh.

⇒ Let r = 3x and h = x.

⇒ (22/7) × (3x)2 × x = 9702

⇒ (22/7) × 9x2 × x = 9702

⇒ x3 = (9702 × 7) ÷ (22 × 9) = 343

⇒ x = √343 (cube root) = 7

⇒ r = 3 × 7 = 21 cm and h = 7 cm

⇒ CSA = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 7

⇒ CSA = 2 × 22 × 21 = 924 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 924 cm2.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cylinder

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the two circular bases: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Divisibility Shortcut

Since the formula for CSA (2πrh) contains π, the answer must be a multiple of 11. In many exams, only one option satisfies this, helping to identify 924 cm2 quickly.

Question 79

A pipe can fill a tank in 12 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 18 hours. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will be one-third filled, is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    48

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net efficiency = Efficiency of filling pipe − Efficiency of emptying pipe.

LCM of 12 and 18 is 36 units (Total Capacity).

Filling pipe efficiency = 36 ÷ 12 = 3; Emptying pipe efficiency = 36 ÷ 18 = 2.

Net efficiency = 3 − 2 = 1 unit/hour.

Time to fill 1/3rd tank = (1/3 × 36) ÷ 1 = 12 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 12 hours.

Alternate Method

Given: Filling time = 12 hours, Emptying time = 18 hours.

Formula Used: Total Work = Time × Efficiency

Pipe TypeTime (hrs)Total Work (LCM)Efficiency
Filling Pipe1236 units+3
Emptying Pipe18−2

⇒ Combined efficiency of both pipes = 3 + (−2) = 1 unit/hour.

⇒ Total capacity of the tank = 36 units.

⇒ Target volume to be filled = 1/3 × Total capacity = 1/3 × 36 = 12 units.

⇒ Time taken = Target volume ÷ Combined efficiency

⇒ Time taken = 12 ÷ 1 = 12 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 12 hours.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

Inlet pipes add water (positive efficiency), while outlet pipes remove water (negative efficiency). The net work done per hour is the algebraic sum of their efficiencies.

Filling and Emptying Formula

If pipe A fills in x hours and pipe B empties in y hours (y > x), net time to fill the tank is (x × y) ÷ (y − x).

Partial Filling

To find time for a fraction 'k' of the tank, multiply the total time for a full tank by the fraction 'k'.

Question 80

Where was the 8th India Water Week 2024 held?

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Indore

  3. COption (c)

    Bangalore

  4. DOption (d)

    Mumbai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

  • The 8th India Water Week 2024 was held in New Delhi, the capital city of India.
  • India Water Week is a biennial event organized by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India.
  • The event focuses on the water-related issues and aims to promote sustainable water management practices.
  • The conference brings together experts, policymakers, and stakeholders from around the globe to discuss and deliberate on water conservation and management strategies.
  • The theme for the 2024 event was "Water Security for Sustainable Development and Equity".

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • The Ministry of Jal Shakti was formed in May 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
  • It focuses on the management of water resources and sanitation across the country.
  • Key initiatives include the Jal Jeevan Mission and the Namami Gange Programme.
  • Jal Jeevan Mission
  • Launched in 2019, it aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all rural households.
  • The mission emphasizes community involvement and sustainable water management.
  • Namami Gange Programme
  • It is an integrated conservation mission, approved as a 'Flagship Programme' by the Union Government in June 2014.
  • The objective is to clean and rejuvenate the Ganga River.
  • The programme involves various initiatives such as sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, and afforestation.
  • Water Conservation Techniques
  • Rainwater Harvesting: Collecting and storing rainwater for reuse before it reaches the aquifer.
  • Drip Irrigation: An efficient irrigation method that saves water by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants.
  • Reuse and Recycling: Treating wastewater to make it usable again for various purposes.

Question 81

Which of the following statements is/are correct related to eco-system?

(i) Non-biodegradable substance harms the various members of eco-system.

(ii) Non-biodegradable substances break-down by biological processes.

(iii) Non-biodegradable substances never persist in the environment.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (ii) and (iii) 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (i) 

  3. COption (c)

    (i), (ii) and (iii) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (i) and (ii) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only (i) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only (i).

Key Points

  • Non-biodegradable substances do not break down by biological processes and can persist in the environment for a long time.
  • These substances include plastics, metals, and chemicals that can be harmful to various components of the ecosystem, including plants, animals, and humans.
  • Harmful effects include pollution, toxicity, and disruption of natural processes, which can lead to long-term environmental damage.
  • Since non-biodegradable substances do not decompose, they accumulate and can cause significant ecological imbalances.

Additional Information

  • Biodegradable Substances
  • These are organic substances that can be broken down by natural processes involving microorganisms like bacteria and fungi.
  • Examples include food waste, paper, and natural fibers.
  • They decompose and return nutrients to the environment, maintaining ecological balance.
  • Pollution
  • Pollution is the introduction of harmful substances or products into the environment.
  • It can be categorized into air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution, and noise pollution.
  • Waste Management
  • Waste management involves the collection, transportation, and disposal or recycling of waste.
  • Proper waste management practices help reduce the impact of non-biodegradable substances on the environment.
  • Environmental Protection
  • Environmental protection involves policies and practices aimed at preserving the natural environment against degradation.
  • It includes initiatives like reducing plastic use, recycling, and promoting sustainable practices.

Question 82

Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of particles of the matter? 

  1. AOption (a)

    They are very large in size. 

  2. BOption (b)

    They are continuously moving.  

  3. COption (c)

    They have space between them. 

  4. DOption (d)

    They attract each other. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They are very large in size. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They are very large in size..

Key Points

  • Particles of matter are extremely small and are beyond the resolution of a standard microscope.
  • They are in a state of continuous motion due to their kinetic energy, which varies with temperature.
  • There is always space between particles of matter, which is evident from the diffusion of gases and mixing of liquids.
  • Particles of matter attract each other with forces that vary depending on the type of matter.

Additional Information

  • Brownian Motion:
  • It is the random movement of particles suspended in a fluid, resulting from their collision with quick atoms or molecules in the gas or liquid.
  • This phenomenon supports the theory that particles are in continuous motion.
  • Diffusion:
  • It is the process by which particles spread from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
  • Diffusion demonstrates that particles have space between them and are constantly moving.
  • Intermolecular Forces:
  • These are forces of attraction or repulsion which act between neighboring particles (atoms, molecules, or ions).
  • Examples include hydrogen bonds, Van der Waals forces, and ionic bonds.
  • Kinetic Theory of Matter:
  • This theory states that matter is composed of a large number of small particles that are in constant motion.
  • The temperature of a substance is a measure of the average kinetic energy of its particles.

Question 83

Which of the following diseases is caused by Leishmania? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Dengue 

  2. BOption (b)

    Malaria 

  3. COption (c)

    Kala-azar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Anaemia 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kala-azar 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kala-azar.

Key Points

  • Kala-azar, also known as visceral leishmaniasis, is caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani.
  • The disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.
  • Symptoms of Kala-azar include prolonged fever, weight loss, enlargement of the spleen and liver, and anemia.
  • It primarily affects people in tropical and subtropical regions, including countries like India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Brazil, and Sudan.
  • Without treatment, Kala-azar can be fatal, but it is treatable with antileishmanial drugs such as Amphotericin B and Miltefosine.

Additional Information

  • Leishmaniasis
  • Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by infection with Leishmania parasites, which are spread by the bite of infected sandflies.
  • There are three main forms of leishmaniasis: visceral (Kala-azar), cutaneous, and mucocutaneous.
  • Cutaneous leishmaniasis causes skin sores, while mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can lead to ulcers in the mouth, nose, and throat.
  • Phlebotomine Sandflies
  • These are the vectors responsible for transmitting Leishmania parasites to humans.
  • They are tiny, about one-third the size of mosquitoes, and are typically active during dusk and dawn.
  • Diagnosis and Treatment
  • Diagnosis of Kala-azar often involves serological tests, bone marrow or spleen aspiration, and PCR testing.
  • Treatment includes antileishmanial medications such as Amphotericin B, Miltefosine, and Sodium Stibogluconate.
  • Prevention
  • Preventive measures include vector control through insecticide spraying, use of bed nets, and reducing exposure to sandfly bites.
  • Education and awareness campaigns are crucial in endemic areas to prevent the spread of the disease.

Question 84

The ratio between volume of a sphere and volume of a circumscribing right circular cylinder is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    2 : 1

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 2

  3. COption (c)

    2 : 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 : 3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a sphere circumscribed by a cylinder, the height of the cylinder h = 2r and the radius is the same r.

Volume ratio = (4/3)πr3 : πr2(2r)

Volume ratio = (4/3) : 2 = 4 : 6 = 2 : 3.

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 3.

Alternate Method

Given:

A sphere is perfectly enclosed (circumscribed) by a right circular cylinder.

Radius of sphere = r

Radius of cylinder = r

Height of cylinder (h) = Diameter of sphere = 2r

Formula Used:

Volume of Sphere (Vs) = (4/3)πr3

Volume of Cylinder (Vc) = πr2h

Calculations:

⇒ Vs : Vc = [(4/3)πr3] : [πr2 × (2r)]

⇒ Vs : Vc = [(4/3)πr3] : [2πr3]

⇒ Ratio = (4/3) : 2

⇒ Ratio = 4 : 6

⇒ Ratio = 2 : 3

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 3.

Additional Information

Archimedes' Discovery

Archimedes proved that both the volume and surface area of a sphere are 2/3 of the circumscribing cylinder.

Surface Area Ratio

The ratio of the surface area of a sphere to the total surface area of a circumscribing cylinder is 4πr2 : 6πr2 = 2 : 3.

Curved Surface Area Ratio

The surface area of the sphere is exactly equal to the curved surface area of the cylinder (4πr2 : 2πr(2r) = 1 : 1).

Question 85

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people sit to the right of A. B sits second from the left end. F is an immediate neighbour of C and G. D sits second to the left of C. How many people sit between E and D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Four

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

One

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.

Only three people sit to the right of A.

B sits second from the left end.

F is an immediate neighbour of C and G.

D sits second to the left of C.

Thus, One people sit between E and D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 86

Seven people, A, B, E, F, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the right of Q. Only two people sit between Q and B. Only two people sit between F and P. P sits to the immediate left of Q. E sits to the immediate right of R. Who sits at the third position from the left end of the row?

  1. AOption (a)

    R

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Seven people, A, B, E, F, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north.

Only two people sit to the right of Q. Only two people sit between Q and B. P sits to the immediate left of Q

Only two people sit between F and P.  

Now we two case,

Case 1

Case 2

E sits to the immediate right of R.

Now case 1 get eliminated because E and R cannot be sit together in this case.

Case 2

Thus, 'A' sits at the third position from the left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 87

Arvind spends 75% of his income. His income is increased by 20% and he increased his expenditure by 10%. His savings are increased by:

  1. AOption (a)

    50%

  2. BOption (b)

    25%

  3. COption (c)

    10%

  4. DOption (d)

    37.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

50%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Expenditure to Savings = 75 : 25 = 3 : 1.

Using Alligation/Weighted Average: % Change in Income = [ (Exp ratio × Exp % change) + (Savings ratio × Savings % change) ] ÷ Total ratio

20% = [ (3 × 10%) + (1 × x%) ] ÷ 4

80 = 30 + x ⇒ x = 50%.

∴ The correct answer is 50%.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Income = 100, Expenditure = 75%, Savings = 25%.

Formula: Income = Expenditure + Savings

⇒ Initial Income = 100, Expenditure = 75, Savings = 25.

⇒ New Income = 100 + 20% of 100 = 120.

⇒ New Expenditure = 75 + 10% of 75 = 75 + 7.5 = 82.5.

⇒ New Savings = New Income − New Expenditure = 120 − 82.5 = 37.5.

⇒ Increase in Savings = 37.5 − 25 = 12.5.

⇒ % Increase in Savings = (12.5 ÷ 25) × 100 = 50%.

∴ The correct answer is 50%.

Additional Information

Income-Expenditure Relationship

Income is always the sum of Expenditure and Savings. Percentage changes can be calculated by assuming a base value of 100 for initial income.

Successive Percentage Change

If a value changes by a% and then b%, the effective change is [a + b + (a × b)/100]%, though for components of a sum, the weighted average is preferred.

Base Value Selection

Always identify the correct base (denominator) when calculating percentage increases; in this case, the original savings of 25.

Question 88

A and B working alone can do a work in 40 days and 30 days, respectively. They started the work together, but B left after some time and A finished the remaining work in 5 days. How many days after starting did B leave the work?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 days 

  2. BOption (b)

    14 days 

  3. COption (c)

    16 days 

  4. DOption (d)

    15 days 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15 days 

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Work (LCM of 40, 30) = 120 units.

Efficiency of A = 120 ÷ 40 = 3 units/day; Efficiency of B = 120 ÷ 30 = 4 units/day.

Work done by A alone in the last 5 days = 3 × 5 = 15 units.

Work done by A and B together = 120 − 15 = 105 units.

Number of days B worked = 105 ÷ (3 + 4) = 105 ÷ 7 = 15 days.

∴ The correct answer is 15 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A = 40 days, Time taken by B = 30 days. A worked alone for the last 5 days.

Formula: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A401203
B304

⇒ Let B leave after x days. Both worked together for x days.

⇒ Work done in x days = (Efficiency of A + Efficiency of B) × x

⇒ Remaining work done by A in 5 days = 3 × 5 = 15 units

⇒ Total work = 7 × x + 15 = 120

⇒ 7x = 120 − 15

⇒ 7x = 105

⇒ x = 15 days

∴ The correct answer is 15 days.

Additional Information

Total Work Concept

Total work is always assumed to be the LCM of the number of days taken by individuals to ensure efficiencies are whole numbers.

Efficiency Calculation

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time. It represents the amount of work done in a single unit of time (1 day/1 hour).

Leaving and Joining

In problems where a person leaves, always calculate the work done by the remaining person(s) during the period they worked alone first.

Question 89

The pH value of the neutral solution is __________

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

  • A neutral solution has a pH value of 7.
  • The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral.
  • Pure water, which is a neutral solution, has a pH value of 7 at 25°C.
  • A pH value less than 7 indicates an acidic solution, while a pH value greater than 7 indicates a basic solution.

Additional Information

  • pH Scale
  • The pH scale measures the acidity or basicity of a solution.
  • It is a logarithmic scale, meaning each whole number change represents a tenfold change in acidity/basicity.
  • A pH value of 7 is considered neutral, values below 7 are acidic, and values above 7 are basic or alkaline.
  • Acids and Bases
  • Acids have a pH less than 7 and release hydrogen ions (H+) in solution.
  • Bases have a pH greater than 7 and release hydroxide ions (OH-) in solution.
  • Common examples include hydrochloric acid (HCl) for acids and sodium hydroxide (NaOH) for bases.
  • Neutralization
  • Neutralization is a chemical reaction between an acid and a base, producing water and a salt.
  • This reaction can help bring the pH of a solution closer to 7.
  • The general form of the reaction is: Acid + Base → Salt + Water.
  • Importance of pH
  • pH is crucial in various fields including chemistry, biology, medicine, agriculture, and environmental science.
  • Many biological processes are pH-dependent, such as enzyme activity and cellular metabolism.
  • Soil pH affects plant growth and nutrient availability.

Question 90

VSUR is related to KHJG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, YVXU is related to NKMJ. To which of the following options is SPRO related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    HEGD

  2. BOption (b)

    HEDG

  3. COption (c)

    GEDH

  4. DOption (d)

    GEHD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

HEGD

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

VSUR is related to KHJG

And,

YVXU is related to NKMJ

Similarly,

SPRO is related to

Thus, SPRO is related to 'HEGD'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 91

If the angles (5x - 2)° and 82° form a pair of supplementary angles, then the value of x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    90

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    45

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For supplementary angles, the sum is always 180°.

(5x − 2) + 82 = 180

5x + 80 = 180

5x = 100

x = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

First angle = (5x − 2)°

Second angle = 82°

Formula Used:

Sum of supplementary angles = 180°

Calculations:

⇒ (5x − 2) + 82 = 180

⇒ 5x + 80 = 180

⇒ 5x = 180 − 80

⇒ 5x = 100

⇒ x = 100 ÷ 5

⇒ x = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Supplementary Angles

Two angles are called supplementary when their measures add up to 180 degrees. They form a linear pair if they are adjacent.

Complementary Angles

Two angles are complementary if the sum of their measures is exactly 90 degrees.

Linear Pair Postulate

If two angles form a linear pair, then the angles are supplementary, meaning they lie on a straight line.

Question 92

A body is thrown up and it reaches a height of 5m and then falls down, the total displacement and the total distance covered by the body respectively would be:

  1. AOption (a)

    10m, 0m

  2. BOption (b)

    0m, 0m

  3. COption (c)

    5m, 5m

  4. DOption (d)

    0m, 10m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0m, 10m

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0m, 10m.

Key Points

  • Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial and final position of the body.
  • Total displacement is 0m because the body returns to its starting point.
  • Distance is the total path covered by the body.
  • Total distance covered is 10m, as it travels 5m up and 5m down.

Additional Information

  • Displacement vs Distance
  • Displacement is a vector quantity with both magnitude and direction.
  • Distance is a scalar quantity and only considers the magnitude.
  • Free Fall
  • It is the motion of a body where gravity is the only force acting upon it.
  • In free fall, the body gains speed as it descends.
  • Projectile Motion
  • It involves objects thrown into the air, affected by gravity and air resistance.
  • The motion can be analyzed in two dimensions: horizontal and vertical.
  • Acceleration Due to Gravity
  • The acceleration experienced by an object due to Earth's gravitational pull is approximately 9.8 m/s².
  • This value remains constant near the surface of the Earth.

Question 93

Express 0.52‾0.\overline{52} in the form pq\frac{p}{q} where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0

  1. AOption (a)

    5099\frac{50}{99}

  2. BOption (b)

    5299\frac{52}{99}

  3. COption (c)

    5290\frac{52}{90}

  4. DOption (d)

    5399\frac{53}{99}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5299\frac{52}{99}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a pure recurring decimal (where the repetition starts immediately after the decimal point):

Numerator = The repeating number itself = 52

Denominator = Write 9 for each digit that is repeating. Since 5 and 2 (two digits) are repeating, we write 99.

Fraction = 52/99

∴ The correct answer is 52/99.

Alternate Method

Given: A recurring decimal 0.525252...

Method: Algebraic substitution and subtraction to eliminate the recurring part.

⇒ Let x = 0.525252... — (i) ⇒ Since two digits are repeating, multiply both sides by 102 = 100: ⇒ 100x = 52.525252... — (ii) ⇒ Subtracting equation (i) from equation (ii): ⇒ 100x − x = 52.525252... − 0.525252... ⇒ 99x = 52 ⇒ x = 52/99

∴ The correct answer is 52/99.

Additional Information

Pure Recurring Decimal

A decimal in which all digits after the decimal point repeat. To convert, use the repeating digits as the numerator and an equal number of 9s as the denominator.

Mixed Recurring Decimal

A decimal where some digits repeat and some do not (e.g., 0.1222...). Rule: (Full number − Non-repeating part) ÷ (9 for each repeating digit followed by 0 for each non-repeating digit).

Rational Numbers

Any number that can be written as p/q where q ≠ 0. Every terminating or recurring decimal is a rational number.

Simplification Rule

Always check if the resulting fraction p/q can be simplified further by dividing both numerator and denominator by their HCF. In 52/99, the HCF is 1, so it is in simplest form.

Question 94

In the set {61, 62...100}, the sum of the second greatest and the second smallest prime numbers is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    150

  2. BOption (b)

    156

  3. COption (c)

    158

  4. DOption (d)

    164

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

156

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

List the prime numbers in the range {61, 62...100}.

Prime numbers: 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97.

Second smallest prime = 67.

Second greatest prime = 89.

Required Sum = 89 + 67 = 156.

∴ The correct answer is 156.

Alternate Method

Given: Set of numbers from 61 to 100.

Step 1: Identify all prime numbers between 61 and 100.

⇒ Prime numbers are: 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97.

Step 2: Identify the second smallest prime number.

⇒ Smallest = 61; Second smallest = 67.

Step 3: Identify the second greatest prime number.

⇒ Greatest = 97; Second greatest = 89.

Step 4: Calculate the sum.

⇒ Sum = 89 + 67

⇒ Sum = 156

∴ The correct answer is 156.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers (1-100)

There are exactly 25 prime numbers between 1 and 100. A prime number has only two factors: 1 and itself.

Divisibility Rule for Primes

To check if a number n is prime, test divisibility by primes up to √n. For numbers up to 100, check divisibility by 2, 3, 5, and 7.

Consecutive Primes

2 and 3 are the only consecutive natural numbers that are both prime. All other primes (except 2) are odd.

Question 95

Who was appointed as the new Managing Director of Boeing Defence India in February 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sanjay Gupta 

  2. BOption (b)

    Vijay Mehta

  3. COption (c)

    Nikhil Joshi

  4. DOption (d)

    Arun Kumar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nikhil Joshi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nikhil Joshi.

Key Points

  • Nikhil Joshi was appointed as the new Managing Director of Boeing Defence India in February 2024.
  • Prior to his appointment, Joshi held various leadership positions within Boeing and other major defense companies.
  • His role as Managing Director will involve overseeing Boeing's operations and growth strategies in the Indian defense sector.
  • Joshi's appointment is part of Boeing's strategy to enhance its presence and partnership with the Indian defense industry.
  • He brings extensive experience in defense and aerospace, which is crucial for advancing Boeing's initiatives in India.

Additional Information

  • Boeing Defence India
  • Boeing Defence India is a key division of Boeing, focusing on defense and security solutions in India.
  • The company collaborates closely with the Indian Armed Forces and local industries to deliver advanced defense capabilities.
  • Boeing Defence India plays a significant role in strengthening India's defense infrastructure through technology transfer and local partnerships.
  • It offers a wide range of products and services, including military aircraft, helicopters, and support services.
  • Indian Defense Sector
  • India is one of the largest defense markets in the world, with ongoing modernization programs and increased defense spending.
  • The Indian government encourages indigenous production and technology transfer through initiatives like 'Make in India'.
  • Foreign companies, including Boeing, are increasingly partnering with Indian firms to meet local defense requirements.
  • India's defense sector encompasses various branches, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and paramilitary forces.
  • Leadership in Aerospace and Defense
  • Effective leadership in the aerospace and defense industry requires expertise in both technical and strategic domains.
  • Leaders must navigate complex regulatory environments and foster innovation to stay competitive.
  • Building strong partnerships with local industries and governments is critical for success in international markets.
  • Leadership roles often involve overseeing large-scale projects and managing diverse teams across different geographies.

Question 96

Which of the following parts of a plant does NOT take part in vegetative propagation?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Root 

  2. BOption (b)

    Flower 

  3. COption (c)

    Stem 

  4. DOption (d)

    Leaves 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Flower 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Flower.

Key Points

  • Flowers are the reproductive parts of a plant and are primarily involved in sexual reproduction.
  • Vegetative propagation occurs through parts of the plant such as roots, stems, and leaves, but not through flowers.
  • Common methods of vegetative propagation include cutting, grafting, layering, and tissue culture.
  • Examples of vegetative propagation include the use of potato tubers (stems), sweet potato (roots), and Bryophyllum leaves.

Additional Information

  • Vegetative Propagation
  • It is a type of asexual reproduction in plants where new plants grow from vegetative parts such as roots, stems, and leaves.
  • It allows for the rapid multiplication of plants and ensures genetic uniformity of the offspring.
  • This method is widely used in horticulture and agriculture for the propagation of plants like sugarcane, banana, and grapes.
  • Sexual Reproduction in Plants
  • Involves the fusion of male and female gametes resulting in the formation of seeds and fruit.
  • Flowers are the reproductive organs that contain the male (stamens) and female (pistils) reproductive structures.
  • Pollination and fertilization are key processes in sexual reproduction in plants.
  • Grafting
  • A horticultural technique where tissues from one plant are inserted into those of another so that the two sets of vascular tissues may join together.
  • Commonly used for the propagation of fruit trees and roses.
  • Tissue Culture
  • A technique used to grow plants under sterile conditions on a nutrient culture medium.
  • It is used for the propagation of plants like orchids and for the conservation of rare and endangered species.

Question 97

Three candidates contested in an election and received 1036, 7044 and 12,120 votes, respectively. What percentage of the total number of votes did the winning candidate get? 

  1. AOption (a)

    65%

  2. BOption (b)

    57%

  3. COption (c)

    90%

  4. DOption (d)

    60%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

60%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the winning candidate by the maximum votes: 12,120.

Total votes = 1,036 + 7,044 + 12,120 = 20,200.

Winning % = (12,120 ÷ 20,200) × 100.

Winning % = 12,120 ÷ 202 = 60%.

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Votes of Candidate 1 = 1,036

Votes of Candidate 2 = 7,044

Votes of Candidate 3 = 12,120

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Component Value ÷ Total Value) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Total number of votes = 1,036 + 7,044 + 12,120

⇒ Total number of votes = 20,200

⇒ Votes of winning candidate = 12,120

⇒ Winning percentage = (12,120 ÷ 20,200) × 100

⇒ Winning percentage = (12,120 ÷ 202) = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Additional Information

Percentage Calculation

To find what percentage X is of Y, use the base formula: (X ÷ Y) × 100.

Vote Difference

The margin of victory is calculated as the difference between the votes of the winner and the runner-up.

Valid vs Invalid Votes

Total votes cast = Valid votes + Invalid votes. Percentages are usually calculated on valid votes unless stated otherwise.

Question 98

A is twice as old as B. B is 13\frac{1}{3} as old as C. The sum of ages of A. B and C is 42 years, find the sum of the ages of A and B.

  1. AOption (a)

    21 years 

  2. BOption (b)

    15 years  

  3. COption (c)

    12 years  

  4. DOption (d)

    23 years 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21 years 

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the age of B be 1 unit.

Ratio of ages A : B : C = 2 : 1 : 3.

Total ratio units = 2 + 1 + 3 = 6 units → 42 years.

1 unit = 7 years.

Sum of A and B = 2 + 1 = 3 units = 3 × 7 = 21 years.

∴ The correct answer is 21 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Age of A = 2 × Age of B

Age of B = 1/3 × Age of C ⇒ Age of C = 3 × Age of B

Calculations:

⇒ Let age of B = x years

⇒ Age of A = 2x and Age of C = 3x

⇒ 2x + x + 3x = 42

⇒ 6x = 42

⇒ x = 7 years

⇒ Sum of A and B = 2x + x = 3x

⇒ Sum = 3 × 7 = 21 years

∴ The correct answer is 21 years.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion in Ages

When ages are given in multiples or fractions, express all individuals in terms of a single variable to simplify the linear equation.

Age Difference Property

The difference between the ages of two persons remains constant regardless of the number of years passed or preceding.

Question 99

Which of the following statements is correct related to male reproductive system? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Testes are located in the abdominal cavity. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Formation of sperm takes place in seminal vessel. 

  3. COption (c)

    Sperm formation requires higher temperature than the normal body temperature. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Testes secrete testosterone hormone. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Testes secrete testosterone hormone. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Testes secrete testosterone hormone..

Key Points

  • The testes are the primary male reproductive organs responsible for producing sperm and secreting the hormone testosterone.
  • Testosterone is crucial for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics and the regulation of libido.
  • The testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum, which helps maintain a temperature slightly lower than the body temperature, essential for sperm production.
  • Spermatogenesis, the process of sperm formation, occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.

Additional Information

  • Scrotum: The scrotum is a sac-like structure that houses the testes and regulates their temperature to facilitate sperm production.
  • Spermatogenesis: This is the process of sperm cell development, which occurs in the seminiferous tubules and involves several stages of cell division and maturation.
  • Seminal Vesicles: These glands secrete a fluid that forms part of the semen and provides nutrients for the sperm.
  • Testosterone: A steroid hormone produced by the Leydig cells in the testes, responsible for male sexual development and reproductive function.
  • Epididymis: A long, coiled tube situated at the back of the testes where sperm mature and are stored.

Question 100

Consider a ray passing through the principal focus and not parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror, after reflection, it will: 

  1. AOption (a)

    emerge parallel to the principal axis 

  2. BOption (b)

    pass through the principal focus 

  3. COption (c)

    pass through the centre of curvature 

  4. DOption (d)

    emerge obliquely to the principal axis 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

emerge parallel to the principal axis 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is emerge parallel to the principal axis.

Key Points

  • A concave mirror follows the laws of reflection, where the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
  • When a ray passes through the principal focus of a concave mirror, it is reflected such that it travels parallel to the principal axis.
  • The principal focus is the point where parallel rays converge after reflection.
  • This property is used in various optical instruments like telescopes and headlights of vehicles to direct light beams.

Additional Information

  • Concave Mirror
  • A concave mirror is a spherical mirror with a reflecting surface that curves inward.
  • It converges light rays to a focal point.
  • Commonly used in applications requiring light convergence like solar cookers and shaving mirrors.
  • Principal Focus
  • The point on the principal axis where light rays parallel to the axis converge after reflection.
  • It is a characteristic point for concave mirrors and is located halfway between the mirror’s surface and the center of curvature.
  • Center of Curvature
  • The center of the sphere from which the concave mirror segment is cut.
  • It lies on the principal axis of the mirror.
  • Principal Axis
  • The line passing through the center of curvature and the midpoint of the mirror.
  • It serves as the reference line for measuring angles of incidence and reflection.

100 questions in the full paper