RRB Group D Previous Year Paper (Held on: 17 Sept 2022 Shift 2)

According to the given information, the numbers and symbols are coded as:

Now, let's do the coding for " 7 8 4 % @ ",

As per the given information, " 7 8 4 % @ " can be coded as " M U T V Y ",

Since, it meets the condition (iii) as its first and second elements are numbers, then the third element will be coded as *.

Thus, the final coding of " 7 8 4 % @ " will be " M U * V Y ".

Hence, the correct answer is " MU*VY ".

The correct answer is Small size and greater strength of carbon-carbon bond.

Key Points

• Carbon:
• The chemical element carbon has the atomic number six and the symbol C.
• It is nonmetallic and tetravalent, which means that because its valence shell has four electrons, its atoms can form up to four covalent bonds.
• It is a member of periodic table group 14.
• It is a small atom with a small atomic radius, allowing it to form strong carbon- carbon covalent bonds.
• The strength of the carbon-carbon bond allows for the formation of long chains or rings, which is the basis of catenation.
• The strength of the bond also makes carbon compounds more stable and less reactive.
• Different carbon atoms can form different bonds with one another to form different carbon allotropes. Amorphous carbon, diamond, graphite, and fullerenes are a few examples of well-known allotropes.

Additional Information

• Catenation:
• The capacity of certain elements to create bonds with atoms of the same element is known as catenation, and it's a fascinating idea in chemistry.
• The great diversity and complexity of organic chemistry arise from this characteristic, which is especially noticeable in carbon compounds.
• Catenation's greatest champion is carbon, which has four valence electrons. It easily forms strong covalent connections with other carbon atoms to form complex structures and lengthy chains.
• Carbon may produce a variety of compounds, such as alkanes, alkenes, alkynes, and aromatic compounds, by making single, double, and even triple bonds with itself.
• The catenation property of carbon is responsible for the amazing diversity of organic chemistry.
• Other elements like silicon and germanium can also exhibit catenation, but their bonds are not as strong as carbon-carbon bonds.

The correct answer is Javagal Srinath.

Key Points

• The ICC Hall of Fame is a recognition given to the best cricketers in the history of the sport.
• It was established by the International Cricket Council (ICC) in 2009.
• Javagal Srinath:
• He is a former Indian cricketer who played for the Indian national team from 1991 to 2002.
• He was known for his fast bowling and played a key role in India's victory in the 2002 NatWest Series final against England.
• In June 2021, he was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame along with former Zimbabwean cricketer Andy Flower and former Australian cricketer Monty Noble.

Additional Information

• Dilip Vengsarkar:
• He is a former Indian cricketer who played for the Indian national team from 1976 to 1992.
• He was a part of the Indian cricket squad that took home the World Cup in 1983.
• Additionally, Vengsarkar guided his country's team to victory in the 1988 Asia Cup.
• The greatest accolade bestowed upon a former player by the BCCI**, the C. K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award, was given to him in 2014.**
• Vinu Mankad:
• Mulvantrai Himmatlal "Vinoo" Mankad, who played 44 Test matches for India between 1946 and 1959, was a former captain of the Indian cricket team.
• He was born on April 12, 1917, and passed away on August 21, 1978.
• His opening partnership of 413 runs with Pankaj Roy in 1956, which set a world record and remained until 2008, is what made him most famous.
• In cricket, Mankading is named after him for running out a batsman who is "backing up" at the non-striker's end.
• He was admitted to the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame in June 2021.
• In 1973, the Indian government bestowed upon him the civilian honor of Padma Bhushan.
• The Vinoo Mankad Trophy, an under-19 domestic event in India organized by the BCCI, bears his name.
• Ajay Jadeja: 
• He is a former Indian cricketer who played for India from 1992 to 2000.
• He participated in 196 One Day Internationals and 15 Test matches.
• At the time, he was considered as one of the Indian team's top fielders.
• Jadeja and Mohammed Azharuddin share the record for the greatest one-day partnership, having played against Sri Lanka and Zimbabwe, respectively, at the fourth and fifth wickets.

The correct answer is The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III is guaranteed.

Key Points

• Right to Constitutional Remedies:
• Enshrined in the Part III: Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution under Article 32 which provides for the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III is guaranteed.
• The SC may issue directives, orders, or writs to enforce any of the fundamental rights in accordance with Article 32.
• Among the writs that may be granted are: Habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and Quo-warranto.
• The SC has original but not exclusive jurisdiction over the enforcement of fundamental rights. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under Article 226.
• The right to move the SC cannot be suspended with the exception of Article 329 which states that in the event of a national emergency, the President may revoke the ability to petition any court to enforce fundamental rights.
• The Supreme Court held in the Chandra Kumar case (1997) that the basic structure of the Constitution includes the writ jurisdiction of both the high court and the Supreme Court.

Additional Information

• Right to Equality:
• These are enshrined in Part III: Fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution under Article 14-18.
• Article 14: No individual within the territory of India may be denied equality before the law or equal protection under the law on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 15: No citizen may be subjected to discrimination by the State based only on their place of birth, race, caste, religion, or any of them.
• Article 16: It ensures equality of opportunity in public work by prohibiting discrimination in public employment on the basis of sex, religion, race, caste, or place of birth.
• Article 17: Abolition of untouchability and all forms of its practice .
• Article 18: All titles are abolished, with the exception of academic and military titles.
• Rights to Freedom of Religion:
• Articles 25 to 28 of the Indian Constitution are part of the Fundamental Rights which gives rights to freedom of religion.
• Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
• Article 26 grants every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
• Article 27 prohibits the state from compelling any person to pay taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
• Article 28 prohibits the imparting of religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out of state funds.
• Right to Education:
• Article 21A, which reads, "The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of 6 to 14 years of age in such manner as the State, may by law determine," was added to the Indian Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002.
• The original provisions for state-funded, equitable, and accessible education were found in Article 45, Part IV: Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution.
• The Ramamurti Committee Report, 1990, was the first formal document establishing the right to an education.
• In the landmark ruling in Unnikrishnan JP versus State of Andhra Pradesh & Others (1993), the Supreme Court ruled that education is a fundamental right derived from Article 21.
• The establishment of the Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) encompassed the addition of Article 21A.
• The right to education was made a basic right in Part III: Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution by the 86th Amendment, 2002.
• 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 also amended Article 45 of DPSP which now read as, "The state shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children untill they complete the age of six years."

The correct answer is Kavach.

Key Points

• Kavach:
• It is an advanced technology that can prevent train collisions by detecting the presence of another train on the same track and automatically applying brakes to avoid a collision.
• It is based on a combination of sensors, communication systems, and artificial intelligence algorithms that can analyze and predict the movement of trains in real-time.
• It has been developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian Railways and was launched in March 2022.
• The technology is expected to significantly improve the safety and efficiency of train operations in India, which has one of the largest railway networks in the world.

Additional Information

• Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO):
• It is the research and development organisation.
• It works under the Ministry of Railways of the Government of India.
• In 1957, it was founded.
• Its headquarters is in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
• Trishool:
• It is a short-range, low-level, quick-reaction surface-to-air missile.
• As a component of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP), it is being developed in India by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• 1983 saw the launch of the Trishul missile project as a component of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme.
• It can also be deployed as an anti-sea skimmer from a navy vessel to thwart aeroplanes, assault helicopters, and low-flying missiles.

Shortcut Trick

मान लीजिए आधार (Base) b है, तो समान भुजाएं b + 4 और b + 4 होंगी।

कुल योग (Perimeter) = b + (b + 4) + (b + 4) = 3b + 8

3b + 8 = 32 ⇒ 3b = 24 ⇒ b = 8 सेमी

भुजाएं = 8, 8+4, 8+4 = 8, 12, 12 सेमी

∴ The correct answer is 8, 12, 12 cm.

Alternate Method

दिया गया है:

समद्विबाहु त्रिभुज का परिमाप = 32 सेमी

मान लीजिए त्रिभुज का आधार = x सेमी

प्रत्येक समान भुजा = (x + 4) सेमी

सूत्र:

त्रिभुज का परिमाप = सभी भुजाओं का योग

⇒ 32 = x + (x + 4) + (x + 4)

⇒ 32 = 3x + 8

⇒ 3x = 32 − 8

⇒ 3x = 24

⇒ x = 8 सेमी (आधार)

⇒ समान भुजा = 8 + 4 = 12 सेमी

⇒ त्रिभुज की भुजाएँ = 8 सेमी, 12 सेमी, 12 सेमी

∴ The correct answer is 8, 12, 12 cm.

Additional Information

Isosceles Triangle Area (समद्विबाहु त्रिभुज क्षेत्रफल)

यदि समान भुजा a और आधार b हो, तो क्षेत्रफल = (b/4) × √(4a² − b²) होता है।

Triangle Inequality Theorem (त्रिभुज असमानता प्रमेय)

किसी भी त्रिभुज की दो भुजाओं का योग हमेशा तीसरी भुजा से अधिक होना चाहिए (8+12 > 12)।

Height of Isosceles Triangle (समद्विबाहु त्रिभुज की ऊँचाई)

ऊँचाई h = √(a² − (b/2)²), जहाँ a समान भुजा और b आधार है।

The correct answer is 2 cm.

Key Points

• Given in the question:
• The magnification produced by the concave mirror (m) = - 2, which means that the image formed is Real and Inverted image.
• The height of the object (h) = 1 cm.
• The height of the image can be calculated using the formula,  m = h'/h, where h' is the height of the image.
• From the above equation, we get,
• h' = m x h = -2 x 1 cm = -2 cm.
• Therefore, the height of the image is 2 cm and negative sign indicate that the image is inverted.

Additional Information

• Concave Mirror:
• Mirror which has a depression towards the centre of sphere with polish opposite to the centre of curvature is called Concave mirror.
• This means that the mirror is curved inward, with the outer edges being closer to the viewer than the center.
• A concave mirror is also known as a converging mirror, as it focuses light rays that enter it towards a single point.
• The Centre of Curvature (C) and the Focus (f) are located in front of the mirror i.e. unpolished side.
• Magnification produced by a concave mirror is negative when the image formed is Real and Inverted.
• The height of the object is equal to the height of the image when the object is placed at the focus of the mirror.
• The magnification of a concave mirror can be calculated using the formula m = -v/u, where v is the distance of the image from the mirror and u is the distance of the object from the mirror.

The correct answer is Article 112.

Key Points 

• Union Budget:
• Article 112 of the Indian Constitution mandates the presentation of the Union Budget, also known as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS), in the Parliament every year.
• The Union Budget is a statement of the government's revenue and expenditure for the upcoming financial year, which runs from April 1 to March 31.
• The Union Budget comprises three parts: 
• The Consolidated Fund of India includes the government's revenue receipts, capital receipts, and expenditure dealt under Article 266.
• The Contingency Fund of India is used to meet unforeseen expenses dealt under Article 267.
• The Public Account of India includes transactions of the government relating to debt, deposits, and other transactions dealt under Article 266.
• The Union Budget is a crucial document that reflects the government's economic policies, priorities, and vision for the country's growth and development.

Additional Information

• Article 134 deals with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India in regard to criminal matters.
• Article 31-C under part III provides for the validation or saving of certain laws that seek to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are non-justiciable in nature.
• Article 38 enshrines the Directive Principle of State Policy that directs the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which justice, social, economic, and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.
• Aside from the Finance Minister's Budget Speech, the main budget documents that are given to Parliament are the Finance Bill (Article 110), the Annual Financial Statement (Article 112), the Demands for Grants (Article 113), and the Fiscal Policy Statements required by the FRBM Act.

The pattern followed here is;

Hence, the correct answer is "48".

Shortcut Trick

To compare fractions, convert them to a common denominator using the LCM of (6, 8, 12, 16) = 48.

Fractions become: 5/6 = 40/48, 7/8 = 42/48, 11/12 = 44/48, 13/16 = 39/48.

Smallest = 39/48 (13/16) and Largest = 44/48 (11/12).

Difference = 44/48 − 39/48 = 5/48.

∴ The correct answer is 5/48.

Alternate Method

Given: Fractions are 5/6, 7/8, 11/12, and 13/16.

⇒ Convert to decimals: 5/6 ≈ 0.833, 7/8 = 0.875, 11/12 ≈ 0.916, 13/16 = 0.8125.

⇒ Largest fraction = 11/12

⇒ Smallest fraction = 13/16

⇒ Difference = 11/12 − 13/16

⇒ LCM of 12 and 16 is 48.

⇒ (11 × 4)/48 − (13 × 3)/48 = 44/48 − 39/48 = 5/48.

∴ The correct answer is 5/48.

Additional Information

Comparison of Fractions

If the difference between numerator and denominator is the same for all proper fractions, the one with the largest numerator is the largest.

Cross-Multiplication Method

To compare a/b and c/d, check (a × d) and (b × c). If ad > bc, then a c/d.

Given Statement:- R < S ≤  T ≤ U = V > W > X

Conclusion:-

I. S = V → False (as S ≤  T ≤ U = V i.e S ≤ V No any direct relationship established between S and V)

II. V > S → False (as S ≤  T ≤ U = V i.e S ≤ V No any direct relationship established between V and S)

Combining both Conclusion I & II we get S ≤ V

So, the Conclusion I and II are complementary pair to each other so either or case is followed here.

Hence, the correct answer is "Either conclusion I or II is true".

Additional Information3 Step to find Either or case: 

1. Elements are same.2. Combine the Conclusion.3. Check combined conclusion through gate method.

The correct answer is NABARD.

Key Points

• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):
• India's top development bank, NABARD, aims to support fair and sustainable rural and agricultural development.
• The Sivaraman Committee, which was constituted on March 30, 1979, recommended the establishment of NABARD.
• As per the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981, it is a statutory body that was founded in 1982 by Parliament.
• Its headquarter is located in Mumbai, India.
• It supervises Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Cooperative Banks, assisting them in establishing safe banking procedures and integrating them with the CBS (Core Banking Solution) system.
• Chairman: Shri. Shaji K V
• It was established with the aim of providing credit flow for the development of agriculture, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and small-scale industries in rural areas.
• Self Help Group - Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP):
• It is the world's largest microfinance initiative initiated by NABARD in 1992 and has since been growing.
• It was started to provide financial assistance to self-help groups (SHGs) through banks with the objective to promote financial inclusion and empower women through microfinance.
• Banks were permitted to open savings accounts for SHGs under this policy.
• Components of SHG-BPL:
• Bank Branch Managers: Education and Sensitization
• Bank Sakhis' orientation and training at rural bank branches
• Community Based Repayment Mechanism (CBRM) should be implemented in rural bank branches.
• SHG Credit Linkage

Additional Information

• **Export-Import (**EXIM) Bank:
• It is a specialized financial institution in India that was established in 1982.
• The bank's primary function is to finance, facilitate and promote India's international trade.
• It is a statutory body.
• It is owned by the Government of India and its operations are governed by the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981.
• Exim Bank provides a wide range of financial services to Indian exporters and importers. These services include export credit, pre-shipment credit, post-shipment credit, and overseas investment finance.
• Headquarter: Mumbai
• Life Insurance Corporation (LIC):
• It is owned by the Indian government, and the Ministry of Finance is in charge of its administration.
• It is a statutory body.
• On September 1, 1956, the Life Insurance of India Act, which nationalised the insurance sector in India, was approved by the Indian Parliament, creating the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
• It is the biggest institutional investment and insurance company in India.
• LIC provides life insurance and pension products to individuals.
• Headquarter: Mumbai
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
• It is the supreme regulatory agency for general licencing and oversight of micro, small, and medium enterprise finance organisations in India.
• It is governed by the Ministry of Finance of the Government of India, which has offices around the nation.
• It is a statutory body.
• The Government of India founded the SIDBI on April 2, 1990, and it is a fully owned subsidiary of IDBI Bank. With effect from March 27, 2000, it was disconnected from IDBI.
• Headquarter: Lucknow

The correct answer is 5 ∶ 1.

Key Points

• The term "ohmic conductor" refers to a conductor that complies with Ohm's law, which states that the voltage across two points and the current flowing through it are directly proportional.
• Given in the question that:
• V = 20 V,
• Slope of the conductors are 10 (= R₁) and 50 (= R₂) respectively.
• Using Ohm's Law i.e. I = V/R, we get
• I₁ = V/R₁ = 20/10 = 2 A
• I₂ = V/R₂ = 20/50 = 0.4 A
• Now, I₁ : I₂ = 2 : 0.4 = 5 : 1
• Thus, ratio of the current flow in two wires is 5 : 1.

Additional Information

• Potential difference:
• The energy differential between two places in a circuit caused by charge carriers is known as the potential difference.
• It is measured in volts (V).
• Electric Current:
• A flow of charged particles across space or an electrical conductor, such as electrons or ions.
• The ampere is the SI unit of electric current.
• Resistance:
• The amount of obstruction to current passage in an electrical circuit is measured as resistance. Ohms, or the Greek letter omega (Ω), are used to measure resistance (R).
• Ohm's Law:
• Ohm's law states that the electric current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across its ends, provided the physical state of the conductor remains unchanged.
• If I be the current flowing through the conductor and V the potential difference across its ends, then $V {\displaystyle \propto } I$
• Hence, $V=IR$, where, R is the constant of proportionality termed as Resistance of the conductor.

The pattern followed here is :-

In SJC : XOH →

In FMT : KRY →

Similarly,

In HNF : MSK →

Hence, the correct answer is "HNF : MSK".

The correct answer is To avoid pregnancy.

Key Points

• Contraceptive methods:
• These are used by people who want to prevent pregnancy.
• Methods of contraception include oral contraceptive pills, implants, injectables, patches, vaginal rings, intra uterine devices, condoms, male and female sterilization, lactational amenorrhea methods, withdrawal and fertility awareness-based methods.
• These methods have different mechanisms of action and effectiveness in preventing unintended pregnancy.
• Each method has its own benefits and risks, and people should choose a method that suits their individual needs and preferences.
• Contraceptive methods are not 100% effective, but they can greatly reduce the risk of unintended pregnancy.
• People should use a reliable method consistently and correctly to maximize its effectiveness.

Additional Information

• Contraceptive methods do not protect against STIs, except for condoms.
• People who are at risk of STIs should also use condoms or other barrier methods in addition to their chosen contraceptive method.
• Contraceptive methods can have side effects, such as nausea, headaches, mood changes, weight gain, etc.
• People should talk to their healthcare provider about any concerns they have about side effects and how to manage them.
• Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV):
• It is a virus that attacks the immune system, which is our body's natural defense against illness.
• It is a lifelong infection because, unlike many other viruses, the human body is unable to fully eradicate it.
• It specifically attacks CD4 cells (T cells), which are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system.
• Vaccines for HIV prevention are not currently available.
• Prevention Methods:
• Safe Sex: Using condoms consistently and correctly during sexual intercourse can reduce the risk of HIV transmission.
• Needle Exchange Programs: Providing sterile needles to reduce the risk of HIV transmission among injection drug users.
• Safe Blood Transfusions: Ensuring that blood and blood products are screened for HIV.

The logic followed here is :-

(First Term + 1)² = Second Term

In 3 : 16 → (3 + 1)² = 16

In 5 : 36 → (5 + 1)² = 36

Similarly,

In 7 : 64 → (7 + 1)² = 64

Hence, the correct answer is "64".

The correct answer is Early June to mid-September.

Key Points

• Monsoons are seasonal winds that reverse their course in response to the onset of a new season.
• The Arabic term for season, "mawsim," is thought to be the source of the word "monsoon."
• It is maintained in the region between 20 °N and 20 °S.
• It lasts for 100–120 days, starting in early June and ending in mid-September.
• At the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days, which is known as the “burst” of the monsoon.
• India receives about 80% of its annual rainfall during the monsoon season.
• In India, 64% of the population makes their living from agriculture, which is reliant on the monsoon season.
• Rainfall during the monsoon season replenishes reservoirs and dams, which is then utilised to produce hydroelectric power.

Additional Information

• Two types of monsoon are as follows:
• The South-west monsoon is the primary rainy season in India, which starts in June and lasts till September.
• This monsoon is caused by the differential heating of land and sea, which results in the formation of low-pressure systems over the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea.
• The Retreating Monsoon, also known as the North-East monsoon, brings rainfall to the southern parts of India during October and November.
• This monsoon is caused by the withdrawal of the south-west monsoon winds and the formation of a low-pressure system over the Bay of Bengal.
• The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) keeps a close eye on the start of the monsoon season to assist farmers in scheduling their farming operations.

Shortcut Trick

Loss of 5% means selling price is 95% of Cost Price (CP).

Gain of 7% means selling price should be 107% of CP.

Using the unitary method: 95% units → 30,875.

107% units → (30,875 ÷ 95) × 107.

325 × 107 = 34,775.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 34,775.

Alternate Method

Given: Selling Price (SP₁) = Rs. 30,875, Loss% = 5%, Target Gain% = 7%.

Formulas: CP = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 − Loss%], New SP = [CP × (100 + Gain%)] ÷ 100.

⇒ Step 1: Find Cost Price: CP = (30,875 × 100) ÷ (100 − 5) = (30,875 × 100) ÷ 95 = 32,500.

⇒ Step 2: Find New Selling Price for 7% gain: New SP = [32,500 × (100 + 7)] ÷ 100.

⇒ Step 3: New SP = 32,500 × 1.07 = 34,775.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 34,775.

Additional Information

Cost Price and Selling Price Relation

When there is a loss, SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100. When there is a profit, SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Direct SP Ratio

For the same Cost Price, SP₁ ÷ (100 ± P/L₁) = SP₂ ÷ (100 ± P/L₂). This helps in finding the new price directly.

The correct answer is 1 litre or 2 litres a day.

Key Points

• In a healthy adult, the initial filtrate in the kidneys is about 180 L daily, but the volume excreted is much lesser.
• The initial filtrate in the kidneys is about 180 L daily, which is equivalent to about 45 gallons.
• The actual amount expelled, which is roughly 1-2 litres per day, is substantially less.
• This means that only about 1% of the initial filtrate is excreted as urine, while the rest is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream.
• Age, gender, body size, and general health are some of the variables that affect how much urine a person excretes.

Additional Information

• Human Excretory system:
• It is a system of the body that is responsible for the elimination of waste products from the body.
• It consists of organs that help the body eliminate nitrogenous waste.
• The human excretory system includes:
• A pair of kidneys.
• A pair of ureters.
• A urinary bladder.
• A urethra.
• Nephrons:
• They are the structural and functional units of the kidneys, which are vital organs responsible for filtering blood, removing waste products, and regulating various physiological processes in the body.
• Each kidney contains approximately one million nephrons, and these microscopic structures play a crucial role in maintaining the body's internal balance by regulating water and electrolyte levels and removing metabolic waste.
• Substances, such as glucose, amino acids, and electrolytes, are reabsorbed from the filtrate back into the bloodstream, primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule.

Given → Six friends Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row facing north.

1) Q is seated 2nd to the right of T and 3rd to the left of S.

2) U is not an immediate neighbour of Q.

2 Possibilities of sitting R and V.

Here, Q is sitting between R and V.

Hence, the correct answer is "Q".

The correct Venn diagram representation is:

 

Conclusions:

I) Some animals are mammals. → Follows (The relationship between animals and mammals is all mammals are animals.)

II)  All people are aliens. → Does not follows (The relationship between people and aliens is all aliens are people.) 

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

The correct answer is Smart Event Tracking System.

Key Points

• Smart Event Tracking System (SETS):
• The Ministry of Railways' in-house programme is called Smart Event Tracking System (SETS).
• A new planning and analysis tool based on Google Maps has been implemented to address the issue of cattle being run over by trains.
• The Agra Division has put the programme into use, and other divisions will eventually adopt it.
• Of the 26,000 occurrences of cattle ran over reported in 2020–21, over 6,500 occurred on the North Central Railway, which is situated in Prayagraj.
• Parts of the Delhi-Howrah and Delhi-Mumbai routes are also located in this zone.

Additional Information

• The Real Time Train Information System (RTIS):
• It was created in partnership with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), is being installed on trains to automatically acquire their "movement timing at the stations, including that of arrival and departure or run-through."
• It will provides mid-section updates with a periodicity of 30 seconds. Without requiring any manual assistance, the Train Control can keep a closer eye on the whereabouts and velocity of trains equipped with RTIS.
• For the purpose of tracking train movements, the RTIS employs data from GSAT satellites equipped with GAGAN payloads.
• The data is then transmitted to the Centre for Railway Information Systems' Central Location Server (CLS) (CRIS).

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Addition of the previous two numbers, we get the third number.

13 + 14 = 27

14 + 27 = 41

27 + 41 = 68

41 + 68 = 109

Hence, the correct answer is "109".

The correct answer is increase in atomic size and nuclear charge

Key Points

• The modern periodic table is arranged in such a way that elements are grouped based on their atomic number, which determines their chemical properties.
• As we move "down a group", a "new electron shell (energy level)" is added to each successive element.
• This results in a "gradual increase in atomic size" because the additional shell increases the distance between the nucleus and the outermost electrons.
• At the same time, the "nuclear charge (number of protons in the nucleus) increases" as we move down the group.
• However, despite the increasing nuclear charge, the "shielding effect" caused by the inner electron shells reduces the effective nuclear attraction on the outermost electrons.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Increase in atomic size and nuclear charge."

Additional Information 

• Option 1 (Decrease in atomic size and nuclear charge) - Incorrect: Atomic size "increases" as we move down the group, and nuclear charge also increases due to the addition of protons.
• Option 2 (Increase in atomic size and decrease in nuclear charge) - Incorrect: While atomic size increases, nuclear charge does "not" decrease. Instead, it increases because more protons are added to the nucleus.
• Option 4 (Decrease in atomic size and increase in nuclear charge) - Incorrect: Atomic size "does not decrease" down the group; it increases due to additional electron shells.

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: Increase in atomic size and nuclear charge.

Given a sequence of numbers is 

1 4 6 2 7 8 3 7 5 6 8 9 1 3 9 5 3

The above-underlined numbers are odd numbers

The sum of all the odd numbers is 

1 + 7 + 3 + 7 + 5 + 9 + 1 + 3 + 9 + 5 + 3 = 53

Hence, the correct answer is "53".

Additional Information

• The numbers that are not divisible by 2 are odd numbers.

1. Replace all the vowels to the following letter of them in the English alphabet. So we increased by +1 in a vowel.
   

2. Every consonant is also replaced to the preceding letter. So we decreased by -1 in a consonant.

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We can see in the new word FQBCJFMS, the F letter will appear twice in the group of letters thus formed.

Hence, the correct answer is "F".

The correct answer is gains hydrogen or loses oxygen.

Key Points

• Reduction Reaction:
• The chemical reaction which involves addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
• The process of reduction is a type of chemical reaction in which the electron density of an atom or molecule is increased.
• Reduction reactions are opposite to oxidation reactions, which involve the loss of electrons or increase in the oxidation state of an atom or molecule.
• Reduction reactions are widely used in industrial processes such as the production of metals and organic chemicals.
• Redox reaction:
• Redox reactions are chemical processes involving oxidation and reduction in which the oxidation states of the reactants change.
• In a chemical reaction, the material that is being reduced is referred to as the oxidizing agent, and the substance that is being oxidized is referred to as the reducing agent.
• Gaining oxygen would lead to an increase in the oxidation state of the substance.
• Losing oxygen would lead to a decrease in the oxidation state of the substance.
• Gaining hydrogen would lead to a decrease in the oxidation state of the substance.
• Losing hydrogen would lead to an increase in the oxidation state of the substance.

Additional Information

• Other Type of Chemical reactions are:
• Bi-displacement reaction is also known as the double displacement reaction.
• It involves two reactants exchanging their ions to form two new products.
• For example, potassium nitrate reacts with aluminium chloride and forms aluminium nitrate and potassium chloride.
• Reaction: KNO3 + AlCl3 ↔️    Al(NO3)3 + KCl
• Displacement reaction is also known as the single replacement reaction.
• It involves a more reactive element displacing a less reactive element from its compound.
• The reaction of potassium with magnesium chloride is an example of a single displacement reaction.
• Reaction: 2K + MgCl2 → 2KCl + Mg
• Combination reaction is also known as the synthesis reaction.
• It involves two or more reactants combining to form a single product.
• For example, when we burn magnesium ribbon (or magnesium), it gives a gray-black ash of magnesium oxide.
• Reaction: Mg + O2 → MgO

The correct answer is 50 Ω.

Key Points

• Given in the question:
• Resistance of the bulb (R₁) = 40 Ω.
• Resistance of the conductor (R₂) = 10 Ω.
• As the bulb and conductor are connected in series combination. The total resistance of a circuit is given by:
• R_T = R₁ + R₂ = 40 + 10
• R_T = 50 Ω.
• The total resistance of the circuit is 50 Ω.

Additional Information

• Resistance:
• The amount of obstruction to current passage in an electrical circuit is measured as resistance. Ohms, or the Greek letter omega (Ω), are used to measure resistance (R).
• There are mainly two ways of combination of resistance:
• Series Combination:
• When two or more resistances are connected end to end and the same current passes through each one successively, they are said to be connected in series. In this instance, the sum of the individual resistances found in the series combination determines the equivalent or total resistance.
• In terms of mathematics, the equivalent resistance (R) of any number of resistances connected in series (R1, R2, R3,...) is as follows:
• R = R1 + R2 + R3 + …
• Parallel Combination:
• When two or more resistances are connected between two places and have distinct current directions, they are referred to as being in parallel connections. In these circuits, the current splits off and recombines at the point where the branches meet.
• The equivalent resistance (R) of any number of parallel resistances (R1, R2, R3,...) can be found mathematically as follows:
• 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + …

The correct answer is two times.

Key Points

• Refraction of light occurs when light passes through a prism because the prism causes the light to bend or change direction due to the change in speed of light in the prism.
• The refraction of light through a prism causes the different colors of light to separate, resulting in a rainbow-like spectrum.
• The amount of refraction that occurs depends on the angle at which the light enters the prism and the refractive index of the prism material.
• When light is passed through a prism, refraction of light occurs twice.
• This refraction undergoes  at two surfaces of the prism, the entry surface and the exit surface.

Additional Information

• Prism:
• In the field of optics, a it is a transparent substance, such as glass, that has been precisely cut with plane faces and angles.
• It is used to reflect and analyze light.
• A standard triangular prism can divide white light into its component colors, or what is known as a spectrum.
• Refraction:
• It is the bending of light as it moves from one transparent substance into another.
• The refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced when it passes through that medium, compared to the speed of light in a vacuum.

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Work be LCM(21, 28) = 84 units.

Efficiency: A = 4 units/min, B = 3 units/min.

Work done by both in 4 minutes = (4 + 3) × 4 = 28 units.

Remaining work = 84 − 28 = 56 units, to be filled by A alone.

Time taken by A for remaining = 56 ÷ 4 = 14 minutes.

Total time = 4 + 14 = 18 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 18 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Pipe A fills in 21 min, Pipe B fills in 28 min. Pipe B closed after 4 min.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ Work done by (A + B) in 4 minutes = (4 + 3) × 4 = 28 units

⇒ Remaining Work = 84 − 28 = 56 units

⇒ Since Pipe B is turned off, remaining work is completed by Pipe A.

⇒ Time taken by A = Remaining Work ÷ Efficiency of A = 56 ÷ 4 = 14 min

⇒ Total Time = Initial 4 min + Remaining 14 min = 18 min

∴ The correct answer is 18 min.

Additional Information

Total Work Concept

Always assume total capacity as the LCM of individual times to avoid complex fractions.

Negative Work

If an Outlet Pipe (leak) is present, its efficiency is taken as negative in the net efficiency calculation.

Pipes and Cisterns Logic

If pipe B works for its full potential time but is closed early, its contribution is (4 ÷ 28) = 1/7 of the tank.

The correct answer is 1966.

Key Points

• The High Court of Delhi:
• By virtue of the Delhi High Court Act, 1966, the Delhi High Court was founded on October 31, 1966.
• Its first four judges were Chief Justice K.S. Hegde, Justice I. D. Dua, Justice H.R. Khanna, and Justice S.K. Kapur.
• The Delhi High Court is the highest court in the NCT of Delhi that exercises state-level judicial functions.
• Subordinate Courts operate for nine judicial districts, including Central, New Delhi, South, North, West, East, and South-West. They are located below it.
• The highest court of a state is the Delhi High Court.
• It derives its authority from Chapter V of Part VI of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information 

List of some High Courts in India:

Shortcut Trick

Side of the square = Perimeter ÷ 4

Side = 32 ÷ 4 = 8 m

Area = Side² = 8² = 64 m²

∴ The correct answer is 64 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the square = 32 m

Formula Used:

Perimeter of square = 4 × Side (a)

Area of square = Side² (a²)

Calculations:

⇒ 4 × a = 32

⇒ a = 32 ÷ 4

⇒ a = 8 m

⇒ Area = a² = 8 × 8

⇒ Area = 64 m²

∴ The correct answer is 64 m².

Additional Information

Diagonal of a Square

The diagonal of a square with side 'a' is given by the formula d = a√2.

Area in terms of Diagonal

If the diagonal 'd' is known, the area of the square can be calculated as Area = d² ÷ 2.

Properties of Square

All sides are equal, all angles are 90°, and diagonals bisect each other at right angles.

Interchanging the numbers and using the BODMAS rule,

Option 1 → 8 and 7

Given equation: 9 + 7 - (6 ÷ 3 - 4) × 8 = 31

9 + 8 - (6 ÷ 3 - 4) × 7 = 31

17 - (2 - 4) × 7 = 31

17 - (-2) × 7 = 31

17 + 2 × 7 = 31

17 + 14 = 31

31 = 31

Option 2 → 9 and 7

Given equation: 9 + 7 - (6 ÷ 3 - 4) × 8 = 31

7 + 9 - (6 ÷ 3 - 4) × 8 = 31

18 - (2 - 4) × 8 = 31

18 - (-2) × 8 = 31

18 + 2 × 8 = 31

18 + 16 =31

34 ≠ 31 

Option 3 → 6 and 7

Given equation: 9 + 7 - (6 ÷ 3 - 4) × 8 = 31

9 + 6 - (7 ÷ 3 - 4) × 8 = 31

15 - (1.33 - 4) × 8 = 31

15 - (- 2.67)  × 8 ≠ 31

Option 4 → 4 and 7

Given equation: 9 + 7 - (6 ÷ 3 - 4) × 8 = 31

9 + 4 - (6 ÷ 3 - 7) × 8 = 31

13 - (2 - 7) × 8 = 31

13 - (-5) × 8 = 31

13 + 5 × 8 = 31

13 + 40 = 31

53 ≠ 31

Hence, the correct answer is "8 and 7".

The correct answer is reusable wastes.

Key Points

• Reusable wastes:
• It include items such as glass bottles, plastic containers, and metal cans that can be reused or recycled.
• The blue one is used for collecting reusable wastes.
• Proper disposal of reusable wastes can help conserve natural resources and reduce waste in landfills.
• Recycling of reusable wastes can also create jobs and promote a circular economy.
• Reusable wastes that are not disposed of properly can contribute to pollution and environmental degradation.

Additional Information

• Kitchen wastes:
• It includes food scraps, vegetable and fruit peels, eggshells, and other organic waste generated in the kitchen.
• Green coloured dustbin is used.
• These wastes can be composted and used as a fertilizer for plants and gardens.
• It is important to separate kitchen wastes from other types of waste to ensure proper disposal and recycling.
• Kitchen wastes can also attract pests and rodents if not disposed of properly.
• Agricultural wastes:
• It includes crop residues, animal manure, and other organic waste generated in farming activities.
• Green coloured dustbin is used.
• These wastes can be used as a source of energy through anaerobic digestion or as a fertilizer for crops.
• Proper disposal of agricultural wastes can help reduce greenhouse gas emissions and promote sustainable agriculture practices.
• Agricultural wastes can also pose a risk to human health and the environment if not disposed of properly.
• Medical wastes:
• It includes syringes, needles, surgical gloves, and other waste generated in healthcare facilities.
• Yellow coloured dustbin is used.
• These wastes can be hazardous and require special handling and disposal procedures to prevent the spread of infections and diseases.
• Proper disposal of medical wastes is important to protect healthcare workers, patients, and the environment.
• Medical wastes can also pose a risk to public health if not disposed of properly.

Given:

$\frac{5}{7}$, $\frac{9}{14}$, $\frac{16}{21}$, $\frac{29}{42}$

Concept Used:

Make the denominator equal by taking LCM.

Calculation:

LCM of (7, 14, 21, 42) = 42

Now, make the denominator equal.

⇒ 5/7 = 30/42

⇒ 9/14 = 27/42

⇒ 16/21 = 32/42

New fractions,

⇒ 30/42, 27/42, 32/42, 29/42

∴ 32/42 = 16/21 is greater.

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

• The Planning Commission:
• It was set up in 1950 with the Prime Minister as its Chairperson, marking the beginning of the era of five-year plans in India.
• The first five-year plan was launched in 1951 with the objective of achieving rapid industrialization and economic growth.
• The Planning Commission was responsible for formulating and implementing the five-year plans, which were aimed at achieving specific targets for various sectors such as agriculture, industry, and infrastructure.
• The five-year plans continued until 2014, when they were replaced by the NITI Aayog, a policy think tank that serves as the government's premier policy-making body.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog:
• The Government of India's premier think tank on public policy, NITI Aayog is the nodal agency responsible for promoting cooperative federalism, encouraging economic development, and eschewing bargaining federalism by involving State Governments of India in the formulation of economic policies.
• It emphasis on a bottom-up methodology.
• It took over the role of the Planning Commission when it was founded in 2015.
• Chairperson: Narendra Modi, The Prime Minister (ex-officio)
• Vice Chairperson: Suman Bery
• CEO: B. V. R. Subrahmanyam
• HQ: New Delhi, India

The correct answer is Jinson Johnson.

Key Points

• Jinson Johnson:
• He clocked 20.52 seconds in the men's 200m final of the Federation Cup 2022 to break **Muhammed Anas Yahiya'**s previous national record of 20.63 created at a meet in the Czech Republic back in 2018.
• He is a middle-distance runner who specializes in the 800m and 1500m races.
• He has won gold medals at the Asian Games and Asian Championships in these events.
• He's achievement of breaking the national record in the 200m race is significant as it is not his usual event and shows his versatility as an athlete.
• Muhammed Anas Yahiya's national record in the 200m race stood for almost four years before Johnson broke it, highlighting the difficulty of achieving such a feat.

Additional Information

• Surendra Singh:
• Born on October 1, 1978, He is an Indian long-distance runner who competed in the 10,000 metres and represented his country in Beijing in the 2008 Summer Olympics.
• In the event, he finished 26th. With speeds of 7:50.31 minutes for the 3000 metres and 28:02.89 minutes for the 10,000 metres, he owns the Indian records in these events.
• Amlan Borgohain:
• Indian track and field athlete Amlan Borgohain was born on April 25, 1998, and he specialises in the 100 and 200 metres.
• For both the 100 and 200 metres, he currently owns the Indian national record. In April 2022, he broke the 200-meter national mark, then in August 2022, he smashed the 100-meter national record to become the fastest Indian ever.
• He won the gold in the 100- and 200-meter events in the 2022 Indian National Games.
• Amiya Kumar Mallick;
• He is an Indian sprinter from Odisha who was born on November 14, 1992.
• His time of 10.26 seconds for the 100 metres is the national record.
• Mallick, who ran a time of 21.33 seconds to win the bronze in the 200 metres at the 2008 Commonwealth Youth Games.
• He won the silver in the 100 metres at the 2006 Junior Asian Meet in Colombo.

Shortcut Trick

Let the age 10 years ago be 1 unit and age 20 years from now be 3 units.

Difference in units = 3 − 1 = 2 units.

Difference in years = 10 + 20 = 30 years.

2 units = 30 years ⇒ 1 unit = 15 years.

Present age = Age 10 years ago + 10 = 15 + 10 = 25 years.

∴ The correct answer is 25 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Krishna's present age = x

Age 10 years ago = x − 10

Age 20 years from now = x + 20

According to the question:

⇒ (x − 10) = 1/3 × (x + 20)

⇒ 3 × (x − 10) = x + 20

⇒ 3x − 30 = x + 20

⇒ 3x − x = 20 + 30

⇒ 2x = 50

⇒ x = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25 years.

Additional Information

Ages involving Ratios

If the ratio of ages of two persons is a:b and after 'n' years it becomes c:d, use the concept that the age difference remains constant.

Age Relation after n years

If present age is 'x', then age 'n' years ago was (x − n) and age 'n' years later will be (x + n).

Average Age

Average age = (Sum of ages of all persons) ÷ (Total number of persons).

As per the given information,

1. Amit starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards the south.

 

                               

  

2. He then takes a left turn, drives 4 km, turns right and drives 3 km.

3. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km.

4. He takes a final right turn, drives 9 km and stops at point B.

Here, we can see that he needs to drive 3 km towards the East to reach point A from point B.

Hence, the correct answer is "3 km towards the East".

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Parshavnatha temple:
• It is a Jain temple dedicated to Parshvanatha, the 23rd Tirthankara in Jainism.
• The temple is located in the city of Nakoda in the Barmer district of Rajasthan.
• The temple is also known as Nakoda Jain temple or Shri Nakoda Parshvanath Jain Tirth.
• The temple is considered to be one of the most important Jain pilgrimage sites in India, attracting thousands of devotees every year.

Additional Information

List of few other Jain temples:

• Ranakpur Jain Temple, Ranakpur (Rajasthan)
• Gomateshwara Temple, Vindhyagiri Hill (Karnataka)
• Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu (Rajasthan)
• Sri Digambar Jain Lal Mandir, Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
• Palitana Temples, Bhavnagar District (Gujarat)
• Sonagiri Temples, Datia (Madhya Pradesh)

The correct answer is Alaknanda and Bhagirathi.

Key Points

• Devprayag:
• It is also known as Devi prayāga, is a town and nagar panchayat located in the Tehri Garhwal District of Uttarakhand, India.
• It is the last of the five confluences, or Panch Prayags.
• It is the place where Alaknanda River meets the Bhagirathi River, and both rivers continue as the Ganges River, also known as Ganga.
• The Alaknanda rises in Uttarakhand, close to the Tibetan border, at the meeting point and base of the Satopanth
• The Gangotri and Khatling glaciers in the Garhwal Himalaya are the sources of the Bhagirathi's headwaters, which are produced at Gaumukh.
• In Devprayag, these two holy rivers converge to form the Ganges (Ganga).

Additional Information

• Yamuna:
• It is the largest tributary of the Ganges and meets the Ganges at Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The confluence of the Yamuna and Ganges is known as the Triveni Sangam.
• Sutlej:
• It is a river that flows through India and Pakistan.
• It is tributary of Indus. It meets the Indus river in Pakistan.
• Godavari:
• It is a river that flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha in India.
• It is also known as Dakshin Ganga.
• It flows into Bay of Bengal.
• Narmada:
• It is a river that flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat in India.
• It flows into Arabian sea.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the LCM of the given intervals: 45, 75, and 90 seconds.

LCM(45, 75, 90) = 450 seconds.

Convert seconds to minutes: 450 ÷ 60 = 7 minutes 30 seconds.

Next simultaneous change = 9:30:00 a.m. + 7 min 30 sec = 9:37:30 a.m.

∴ The correct answer is 9:37:30 a.m.

Alternate Method

Given: Intervals are 45 sec, 75 sec, and 90 sec. Initial time is 9:30:00 a.m.

Formula Used: Time for next simultaneous event = LCM of individual intervals.

Calculations:

⇒ Prime Factorization: 45 = 3² × 5 | 75 = 3 × 5² | 90 = 2 × 3² × 5

⇒ LCM = 2¹ × 3² × 5² = 2 × 9 × 25 = 450 seconds

⇒ Time in minutes = 450 ÷ 60 = 7.5 minutes

⇒ 0.5 minutes = 0.5 × 60 = 30 seconds

⇒ Total duration = 7 minutes 30 seconds

⇒ Next change time = 9:30:00 + 0:07:30 = 9:37:30 a.m.

∴ The correct answer is 9:37:30 a.m.

Additional Information

LCM (Least Common Multiple)

The smallest number that is a multiple of two or more numbers. Used for periodical events like bells ringing or lights flashing together.

Unit Conversion

Always ensure all intervals are in the same unit (seconds/minutes) before calculating LCM.

Simultaneous Occurrences

To find the n-th occurrence, simply multiply the LCM by 'n' and add it to the starting time.

The logic here is as follows:

(Second Number × 2) + 4 = First Number.

1. In 8 : 2 → (2 × 2) + 4 = 8

2. In 16 : 6 → (6 × 2) + 4 = 16

3. In 18 : 7 → (7 × 2) + 4 = 18

4) In 28 : ? → (12 × 2) + 4 = 28

Hence, the correct answer is "12".

The following arrangement is as follows:

There are six  pen boxes of different brands, P1, Q2, R3, S4, T5 and U6.

1. P1 is third from the top and immediately below U6.

 

 

 

 

 

2. Only two boxes are there between P1 and Q2.

 

 

 

 

 

3. There are two boxes between R3 and T5. R3 is placed below T5.

 

 

 

 

 

So the final arrangement is as follows.

 

 

 

 

 

There are Four boxes between T5 and Q2.

Hence the correct answer is "Four".

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Dree Festival:
• The Dree Festival is an occasion to honour agriculture, which provides the majority of Arunachal Pradesh's Ziro population with a living.
• Every year, on July 5th, the Dree festival is observed; festivities go off on July 4th.
• Five Gods are mainly worshipped during the festival: Danyi, Metii, Tamu, Mepin, and Meder. This is done to bless the sacrifices made in dree with a bountiful harvest.
• Following the rites, animals, eggs, and poultry are offered as offerings to the gods. Anyone would be in awe of the fascinating rites performed throughout the celebration after seeing them.
• The local priests make the gods out of bamboos for worship.
• Only a small group of priests, known as the Gaon Burhas, carry out the rites; the other priests merely observe.
• Only at this event do the Apatanis bring this treasured Ranii Akhii out into the open.
• But since it is believed to unleash curses upon those who touch it, the general public is not permitted to touch it.
• Apatani Tribe:
• Arunachal Pradesh is home to numerous more tribes, including the Apatani.
• But Ziro, in Arunachal Pradesh's lower Subansiri district, is where the Apatani tribe is mainly found.
• The Dree festival, which is celebrated with tremendous fervour and sacrifices, is the primary celebration for the Apatani people.

Additional Information

List of Festivals celebrated in West bengal, Kerla and Madhya Pradesh:

The correct answer is NaHCO3.

Key Points

• Sodium Bi-carbonate:
• Its chemical composition is NaHCO₃ .
• It has alkaline properties that can neutralize the acidic venom of the bee sting and provide relief from pain.
• Bee stings can cause swelling, redness, and pain.
• It is important to remove the stinger immediately and clean the area with soap and water.
• NaHCO₃ is commonly found in baking soda and can be mixed with water to create a paste to apply to the sting.

Additional Information

• Sodium Carbonate:
• Its chemical composition is Na2CO3
• The disodium salt of carbonic acid with alkalinizing properties is sodium carbonate.
• Sodium carbonate dissolves in water to produce sodium hydroxide and carbonic acid.
• Sodium hydroxide functions as an antacid because it is a strong base that neutralizes stomach acid.
• Calcium Sulphate:
• Its chemical composition is CaSO4
• The inorganic chemical with the formula CaSO₄ and its associated hydrates is calcium sulfate.
• It is utilized as a desiccant when it is in the anhydrous form, or γ-anhydrite.
• Calcium Carbonate:
• Its chemical formula is CaCO3
• As the minerals calcite and aragonite, calcium carbonate is a common material found in rocks.
• It is most commonly found in chalk and limestone, eggshells, gastropod shells, shellfish skeletons, and pearls.

Important Points Some Common Names of Chemical Compounds:

The correct answer is Bengali.

Key Points

• Bengali is not categorised as a classical language by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
• Bengali:
• It also known as Bangla.
• It is an Indo-Aryan language spoken predominantly in the Indian state of West Bengal and the sovereign country of Bangladesh.
• It holds the status of one of the 22 scheduled languages of India.
• Bengali literature has a rich heritage, with contributions from renowned poets, novelists, and playwrights. Notable figures include Rabindranath Tagore, the first non-European Nobel laureate in Literature, and Kazi Nazrul Islam, known as the "Rebel Poet."

Additional Information

• ​In the Rajya Sabha, the Ministry of Culture specified the requirements for designating a language as "Classical":
• Uniqueness: The literature and languages of the ancient era should be distinguished from their modern equivalents.
• Individuality: The literary heritage ought to be original and shouldn't be taken from another language group.
• Magnificent Legacy: It ought to have a collection of antique books and manuscripts that have been treasured for ages.
• High Antiquity: The language needs to have a 1500–2000 years historical record.
• There are six classical languages in India currently. They are:
• Tamil.
• Sanskrit.
• Kannada.
• Telugu.
• Malayalam.
• Odia.

Shortcut Trick

When coefficients are interchanged (2x + 3y and 3x + 2y), add and subtract the equations.

Sum: 5 Tables + 5 Benches = 7500 ⇒ 1 Table + 1 Bench = 1500

Difference: (3T + 2B) − (2T + 3B) = 4000 − 3500 ⇒ 1 Table − 1 Bench = 500

Cost of 1 Table = (Sum + Difference) ÷ 2 = (1500 + 500) ÷ 2 = 1000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost of 2 Tables and 3 Benches = ₹3,500

Cost of 3 Tables and 2 Benches = ₹4,000

Formula Used:

Linear equations in two variables: ax + by = c

Calculations:

Let the cost of one table be T and one bench be B.

⇒ 2T + 3B = 3500 --- (i)

⇒ 3T + 2B = 4000 --- (ii)

Multiply equation (i) by 2 and equation (ii) by 3 to eliminate B:

⇒ 4T + 6B = 7000 --- (iii)

⇒ 9T + 6B = 12000 --- (iv)

Subtracting equation (iii) from (iv):

⇒ (9T − 4T) + (6B − 6B) = 12000 − 7000

⇒ 5T = 5000

⇒ T = 5000 ÷ 5

⇒ T = 1000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,000.

Additional Information

Elimination Method

A process of solving a system of linear equations by adding or subtracting them to eliminate one variable.

Substitution Method

Solving one equation for one variable and then substituting that expression into the other equation.

Interchanged Coefficients Property

For equations ax + by = m and bx + ay = n, the values can be found quickly using (x + y) = (m + n)/(a + b) and (x − y) = (m − n)/(a − b).

Shortcut Trick

Direct comparison of total ages: (A + B) − (B + C) = 12 years.

Common variable B cancels out on both sides.

Remaining difference: A − C = 12 years.

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Alternate Method

Given Present Total Age of A and B = Present Total Age of B and C + 12

⇒ (A + B) = (B + C) + 12

⇒ A + B − B − C = 12

⇒ A − C = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Additional Information

Age Difference Property

The difference between the ages of two persons remains constant at any point in time.

Sum and Difference of Ages

If sum (S) and difference (D) of ages of two people are known, then Elder age = (S+D)÷2 and Younger age = (S−D)÷2.

Ratio of Ages

When a ratio and a specific year gap are given, use the Unitary method to find the values of 1 unit difference.

The given series is as follows:

33 56 93 % 28 21 @ / 84 94 39 $ 65 19 # 81

The 7th term to the right of the 14th term from the right end in the above arrangement is:

14^th term from the right is 93.

And the 7^th term from the right of 14th term from the right is 94.

Hence, the correct answer is "94".

Alternate Solution:

The 7th term to the right of the 14th term from the right end in the above arrangement:

 14^th term - 7 term = 7^th term from the right side.

The correct answer is CH4 < CHCI3 < CH3CH2OH < CH3COOH.

Key Points

• The increasing order of boiling point of the given organic compounds is as follows:
• CH₄ (methane) < CHCl₃ (chloroform) < CH3CH2OH (ethanol). <CH3COOH (acetic acid) .
• Methane has the lowest boiling point among the given compounds as it is a non-polar molecule and has weak London dispersion forces.
• Chloroform has a higher boiling point than methane due to the presence of a polar C-Cl bond, which results in dipole-dipole interactions.
• Ethanol can form hydrogen bonds due to the presence of the hydroxyl (-OH) group, which are stronger than the London dispersion and dipole-dipole interactions present in methane and chloroform, respectively. This gives ethanol a higher boiling point.
• Acetic acid can also form hydrogen bonds; however, it can form dimeric structures in the liquid phase due to the ability of each molecule to form two hydrogen bonds (one donated and one accepted) with another molecule. This effectively doubles the size of the molecule, leading to significantly higher boiling points than ethanol, which generally forms linear hydrogen-bonded chains.

Additional Information

• Acetic Acid:
• The chemical compound acetic acid has the formula CH3COOH.
• It is a carboxylic acid with a carboxyl functional group joined to a methyl group.
• The presence of acetic acid is evident in its strong aroma and tart flavour.
• When the temperature drops below 16.6ºC, it produces crystals that resemble ice.
• Vinegar, commonly known as acetic acid or ethanoic acid.
• Ethanol:
• Its chemical formula is (CH3CH2OH).
• It is a volatile, colorless liquid that has a slight odor.
• It burns with a blue flame that is smokeless and sometimes invisible in normal light.
• It is a common alcohol used as a solvent and fuel, and is also found in alcoholic beverages.
• Chloroform:
• Its chemical formula is CHCl₃ .
• It is a colorless liquid.
• It was historically used as an anaesthetic but is now recognized as a carcinogen.
• Methane:
• Its chemical formula is CH₄ .
• It is a colorless and odorless gas.
• It is the main component of natural gas and is also produced by certain microorganisms.

Important Points Boiling points of some compounds at atmospheric pressure 1 atm :

The correct answer is displacement reaction.

Key Points

• Displacement Reaction: 
• It is also known as the Single Replacement Reaction.
• It involves a more reactive element displacing a less reactive element from its compound.
• The reaction of potassium with magnesium chloride is an example of a single displacement reaction.
• Reaction: 2K + MgCl2 → 2KCl + Mg
• In the given reaction, 2 Al atoms replaces the 2 Fe atoms in Fe2O3 to form Al2O₃ as Aluminium (Al) is more reactive than Iron (Fe).
• This is an example of a displacement reaction as one element is displaced by another element in a compound.

Additional Information

• Double Displacement Reaction:
• It is also known as Bi-displacement reaction.
• It involves two reactants exchanging their ions to form two new products.
• For example, potassium nitrate reacts with aluminium chloride and forms aluminium nitrate and potassium chloride. 
• Reaction: KNO3 + AlCl3 ↔️ Al(NO3)3 + KCl
• Reduction Reaction:
• The chemical reaction which involves addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
• The process of reduction is a type of chemical reaction in which the electron density of an atom or molecule is increased.
• Gaining hydrogen would lead to a decrease in the oxidation state of the substance.
• Losing oxygen would lead to a decrease in the oxidation state of the substance.
• Oxidation Reaction:
• The che mical reaction which involves addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen is called oxidation.
• It involve the loss of electrons or increase in the oxidation state of an atom or molecule.
• Losing hydrogen would lead to an increase in the oxidation state of the substance.
• Gaining ox ygen would lead to an increase in the oxidation state of the substance.

The correct answer is 17th group.

Key Points

• The element 'X' with seven electrons in outermost shell belongs to the 17th group of the modern periodic table.
• 17th group:
• It also known as the halogen group.
• The halogen group elements have seven electrons in their outermost shell, making them highly reactive and capable of forming compounds with most other elements.
• Some of the common halogens include chlorine, fluorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine.
• These elements are widely used in various applications such as disinfectants, bleaches, and pharmaceuticals.

Additional Information 

• 7th group:
• It has bohrium (Bh), rhenium (Re), technetium (Tc), and manganese (Mn).
• Since this group is located on the periodic table's d-block, they are transition metals.
• Because it is a part of the larger grouping of transition metals, this group has not given itself a trivial name.
• It is frequently referred to as the manganese group or manganese family after its lightest member.
• Major group oxidation state (+7) is typical for group 7 elements.
• 16th group:
• It is known as the chalcogens.
• Group 16 is made up of the radioactive elements polonium (Po), livermorium (Lv), oxygen (O), sulphur (S), selenium (Se), and tellurium (Te).
• With six valence electrons, the chalcogens are all two electrons away from having a complete outer shell.
• The most prevalent oxidation states for them are +4, +6, +2, and −2.
• 18th group:
• It is known as the noble gases.
• The naturally occurring elements of group 18 of the periodic table, namely helium (He), neon (Ne), argon (Ar), krypton (Kr), xenon (Xe), and radon (Rn), are referred to as noble gases.
• These chemical elements are colourless, odourless, monatomic gases with cryogenic boiling temperatures and extremely minimal chemical reactivity under normal circumstances.
• Because of their "full" outer shell of valence electrons, which prevents them from participating in chemical reactions, noble gases are inert due to their electron configuration.

The given Statements are as follows:

1. M ranked higher than B who ranked equal to S.

M > B = S

2. B ranked higher than F.

B > F

3. S did not rank higher than Q who ranked lower than M.

S < Q < M

4. M ranked higher than F who did not rank lower than T.

M > F > T

So the final arrangement is as follows 

M > Q > B = S > F > T.

 Conclusions:

I. Q ranked higher than T.

Q > T

Follows as we can see from the final arrangement.

II. Q ranked equal to T.

Q =  T

Doesn't Follow as we can see from the final arrangement.

III. M ranked higher than F.

M > F

Follows as we can see from the final arrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Conclusions I and III follow​".

Shortcut Trick

Identify the coefficients of the Quadratic Equation: a = 2, b = −4, and c = −3.

Use the Discriminant formula: D = b² − 4ac.

D = (−4)² − 4 × 2 × (−3) = 16 + 24 = 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given:

The Quadratic Equation is 2x² − 4x − 3 = 0.

Formula Used:

For a standard Quadratic Equation ax² + bx + c = 0, the Discriminant (D) is given by:

D = b² − 4ac

Calculations:

⇒ Comparing 2x² − 4x − 3 = 0 with ax² + bx + c = 0:

⇒ a = 2

⇒ b = −4

⇒ c = −3

⇒ D = (−4)² − 4 × 2 × (−3)

⇒ D = 16 − (−24)

⇒ D = 16 + 24

⇒ D = 40

Since D > 0, the equation has two distinct real roots.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Nature of Roots

If D > 0, the roots are real and distinct. If D = 0, the roots are real and equal. If D < 0, the roots are imaginary.

Quadratic Formula

The roots of the equation can be found using x = (−b ± √D) ÷ 2a, where D is the discriminant.

Perfect Square Discriminant

If a, b, and c are rational and D is a perfect square, then the roots of the Quadratic Equation are rational.

The correct answer is 24.4%

Key Points

• Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2021:
• It was published on November 17, 2021.
• It concentrated on four primary areas: patterns of school enrollment, incidence of tuition patterns, smartphones' accessibility and availability, and resources for at-home learning.
• The following is an overview of the report's findings:
• a switch from private to public education, with children aged 6 to 14 enrolling in private schools falling from 32.5% in 2018 to 24.4% in 2021.
• In 2020, the percentage of kids not in school rose to 4.6% from 1.4%, and in 2021 it stayed the same.
• Children paying tuition increased significantly from 30% in 2018 to nearly 40% in 2021, regardless of gender, grade level, or kind of school.
• Between 2018 and 2021, the percentage of people owning smartphones nearly doubled to 67.6%. A higher percentage of students attending private schools (79%) than those attending government schools (63.7%) own a smartphone at home.
• Children attending government and private schools report receiving less support from their families now that the schools have reopened.

Additional Information

• Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2023:
• It was published on January 17, 2024.
• It is based on a survey that was completed by 34,745 children in the 14–18 age range in 28 districts spread over 26 states.
• Four areas were covered in the youth survey: reading and comprehension of written instructions; application of basic skills to daily calculations; basic reading, arithmetic, and English abilities; and financial calculations that are necessary in real life.
• The following is an overview of the report's findings:
• Approximately 42.7% of students between the ages of 14 and 18 are unable to read sentences in English, while 26.5% of rural children find it difficult to read a text at the Class 2 level in their regional language.
• The biggest obstacle is still basic math. More than half of the students (56.7%) who responded to the poll were unable to divide three numbers by one number.
• Basic math proficiency is possessed by 45% of the kids in the surveyed group.
• Male enrollment (36.3%) in the STEM stream is higher than female enrollment (28.1%).
• Surprisingly, 90.5% of young people in this age bracket said they had utilized social media during the reference week, with a slightly larger percentage of men (93.4%) than women (87.8%) reporting this information.

Shortcut Trick

Net gain or loss percentage can be calculated using the successive percentage formula: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100.

Here, the Markup (a) = +30% and the Discount (b) = −20%.

Net Gain% = 30 − 20 + (30 × (−20)) ÷ 100.

Net Gain% = 10 − (600 ÷ 100) = 10 − 6 = 4%.

∴ The correct answer is 4%.

Alternate Method

Given: Discount = 20%, Markup = 30% above Cost Price (CP).

Formulas: MP = CP × (100 + Markup%) ÷ 100 | SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100 | Profit% = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100.

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = 100.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 100 + 30% of 100 = 130.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 130 − 20% of 130 = 130 − 26 = 104.

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 104 − 100 = 4.

⇒ Profit% = (4 ÷ 100) × 100 = 4%.

∴ The correct answer is 4%.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of CP to MP can be expressed as CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%).

Successive Percentages

When a value is increased by x% and then decreased by y%, the net change is [x − y − (xy ÷ 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Expenditure % = 100% − Savings % = 100% − 20% = 80%.

Monthly Expenditure = 80% of ₹6,500.

Calculation = 0.8 × 6,500 = ₹5,200.

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Monthly Salary = ₹6,500

Savings % = 20%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Salary − Savings

Calculations:

⇒ Savings amount = (20/100) × 6,500

⇒ Savings amount = 0.2 × 6,500 = ₹1,300

⇒ Monthly Expenditure = 6,500 − 1,300

⇒ Monthly Expenditure = ₹5,200

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,200.

Additional Information

Income-Expenditure Relationship

Total Income is always the sum of Expenditure and Savings. Income = Expenditure + Savings.

Percentage Base Change

If savings decrease or income increases, the expenditure percentage can be calculated relative to the new total base of 100%.

The correct answer is Ritu Raj Awasthi.

Key Points

• Ritu Raj Awasthi:
• He was born on July 3, 1960.
• He is now the 22nd Law Commission of India's chairperson.
• He served as the Karnataka High Court's Chief Justice from October 11, 2021, to July 2, 2022.
• He was a judge of the Allahabad High Court from April 13, 2009, to October 10, 2021.

Additional Information

• Law Commission of India:
• It is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India.
• It is led by a retired judge and consists of legal experts whose job it is to research and advise the government on legal reform.
• It serves as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice and is constituted for a set period of time.
• Lord Macaulay led the first Law Commission, which was founded by the East India Company in 1833 under the Charter Act of 1833, when India was still a colony.
• The first Law Commission of independent India had a three-year tenure established in 1955.

Shortcut Trick

For a pure recurring decimal where all digits after the decimal point repeat:

The numerator is the repeating number itself.

The denominator consists of as many 9s as there are digits in the repeating part.

Repeating part 64 has 2 digits ⇒ Numerator = 64, Denominator = 99.

∴ The correct answer is 64/99.

Alternate Method

Given: x = 0.646464... — (Eq. 1)

Step 1: Since 2 digits are repeating, multiply both sides by 10² = 100.

⇒ 100x = 64.646464... — (Eq. 2)

Step 2: Subtract (Eq. 1) from (Eq. 2):

⇒ 100x − x = 64.646464... − 0.646464...

⇒ 99x = 64

⇒ x = 64/99

∴ The correct answer is 64/99.

Additional Information

Pure Recurring Decimal

A decimal in which all the figures after the decimal point are repeated. Example: 0.333... = 1/3 or 0.1212... = 12/99.

Mixed Recurring Decimal

A decimal in which some digits are not repeated and some are repeated. Formula: (Total number − Non-repeating part) ÷ (9s for repeating digits followed by 0s for non-repeating digits).

Rational Numbers

Any number that can be expressed in the form p/q where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0. All recurring decimals are rational numbers.

Shortcut Trick

In a configuration where two parallel lines form an 'M' shape with two transversals, the interior angle at the middle vertex is equal to the sum of the two alternate interior angles at the parallel lines.

Angle x = 30° + 50° = 80°.

∴ The correct answer is 80°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Line AB is parallel to line CD (AB ∥ CD).

Angle ∠ABE = 30° and Angle ∠CDE = 50°.

Formula Used:

Alternate Interior Angles Theorem: When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, the pairs of alternate interior angles are equal.

Calculations:

⇒ Draw a construction line EF passing through point E such that EF ∥ AB.

⇒ Since AB ∥ CD and EF ∥ AB, it follows that EF ∥ CD.

⇒ ∠BEF = ∠ABE = 30° (Alternate interior angles are equal).

&r

Calculation:

Profit earned by company in 2002 = Rs. 50 crore

Profit earned by company in 2001 = Rs. 20 crore

Increase in profit = 50 - 20 = 30 crore.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

The given arrangement is as follows:

There are Eight girls, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table and facing the center.

1. A is sitting second to the left of B

2. Only three girls are sitting between A and D.

3. F is sitting to the immediate left of C.

4. D is not an immediate neighbour of either F or E. H is not an immediate neighbour of B.

So, the final arrangement is as follows

The immediate neighbours of D are H and G.

Hence, the correct answer is " H and G ".

Given Equation: 7.05 - 20.92 + 16.20 × 3.99 = ?

Using approximation in the equation, we will get:

7 - 21 + 16 × 4 = ?

7 - 21 + 64 = ?

71 - 21 = ?

50 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "50".

Shortcut Trick

Roof dimensions are determined by the top of the cuboid (140 m × 10 m).

The length of the semi-cylinder = 140 m and its diameter = 10 m.

Radius (r) = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 m.

Volume of semi-cylinder = (1/2) × π × r² × h = (1/2) × (22/7) × 5² × 140 = 5500 m³.

∴ The correct answer is 5500 m³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Dimensions of cuboid base = 140 m (Length) × 10 m (Breadth) × 10 m (Height).

The semi-cylindrical roof covers the top (140 m × 10 m).

Formula Used:

Volume of cylinder = πr²h

Volume of semi-cylinder = (1/2) × πr²h

Calculations:

⇒ Length (h) of the roof = 140 m

⇒ Diameter of the roof = 10 m

⇒ Radius (r) = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 m

⇒ Volume = (1/2) × (22/7) × (5)² × 140

⇒ Volume = (1/2) × (22/7) × 25 × 140

⇒ Volume = 11 × 25 × 20

⇒ Volume = 11 × 500 = 5500 m³

∴ The correct answer is 5500 m³.

Additional Information

Volume of Cuboid

The volume of a cuboid is calculated as Length × Breadth × Height (L × B × H).

Surface Area of Cylinder

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πrh; Total Surface Area (TSA) = 2πr(r + h).

Units of Volume

Volume is always expressed in cubic units such as m³, cm³, or liters (1 m³ = 1000 liters).

The correct answer is Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Key Points

• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
• In the nineteenth century, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, also called Ishwar Chandra Bandyopadhyay, was a well-known person in India.
• Born in West Bengal on September 26, 1820, Vidyasagar was bestowed with the moniker Vidyasagar in 1839 due to his profound understanding of Sanskrit and philosophy.
• Among other things, he studied Vedanta, Smruti, Astronomy, literature, dialectics, and Sanskrit grammar.
• After passing the law exam in 1839, Vidyasagar went on to earn his degree in 1841 from Sanskrit College in Kolkata.
• As Principal of Sanskrit College, Vidyasagar supervised enormous advancements in both administration and education between 1851 and 1858.
• He felt that everyone should have access to education, regardless of gender or caste, and was a fervent advocate for universal education.
• At the age of 21, he was appointed head of Fort William College's Sanskrit department.
• His efforts culminated in the Widow Remarriage Act being passed by the Indian government in 1856.
• Along with fighting against child marriage, he established 35 schools for girls throughout Bengal.
• The first book given to a Bengali child is still Vidyasagar's Borna Porichoy, which is an introduction to the alphabet.
• Two of his books, Upakaramonika and Byakaran Koumudi, translated difficult topics from Sanskrit Grammar into Bengali.
• Among Vidyasagar's social reform writings are "Bahubivah," which condemned polygamy in 1871, "Bidhobabivah," which addresses the rights of widows to remarry in 1855, and "Balyabivah," which addresses the downsides of child marriage.

Additional Information

• Debendranath Tagore:
• Debendranath Tagore (1817-1905) was born in Calcutta.
• He was a social reformer as well as a scholar.
• In 1842, he became a member of the Brahmo Samaj, which Raja Rammohan Roy had established in 1828.
• He founded Tattvabodhini Sabha in 1839, and it began publishing a monthly theological journal called Tattvabodhini Patrika in Bengali.
• Tattvabodhini Sabha was eventually absorbed into the Bahmo Samaj.
• A Tatwabodhini Pathshala, or Theological School, was founded in 1844 by Debendranath with the purpose of teaching Vedanta and preparing young men to teach the Brahmo religion.
• Shortly after Keshab Chandra Sen's admission in samaj in 1858, he elevated Sen to the rank of acharya.
• Keshab Chandra Sen and his followers established the Brahmo Samaj of India in 1866 following his removal as acharya in 1865.
• Debendranath Tagore's Samaj was later referred to as the Adi Brahmo Samaj.
• The Brahma Dharma Grantha is a theistic textbook on religion and morality that he prepared and published.
• Swami Vivekananda:
• He was an Indian Hindu monk, philosopher, writer, and religious instructor.
• He lived from January 12, 1863, to July 4, 1902.
• Originally known as Narendranath Datta.
• He was the foremost pupil of the saint Ramakrishna from India.
• He had a significant role in bringing yoga and Vedanta to the West.
• He is recognised as the founder of contemporary Indian nationalism and for having elevated interfaith understanding and elevated Hinduism to the level of a significant global religion.
• He established the Vedanta Society of San Francisco (now known as the Vedanta Society of Northern California) and the Vedanta Society of New York, which served as the models for other Vedanta Societies in the West.
• In September 1893, he delivered his well-known speech at the "Parliament of Religions" convention in Chicago.
• In 1897, he made his way back to Inida.
• In India, Vivekananda established the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897, which offers social work, education, and charitable services, as well as the Ramakrishna Math, which trains monastics and lay followers in spirituality.
• Dwarkanath Ganguly:
• He was a Brahmo reformer who was born on 20 April 1844 and deid on 27 June 1898.
• He was also known as Dwarkanath Gangopadhyay.
• He made a significant contribution to women's freedom and societal enlightenment.
• He was the spouse of Kadambini Ganguly, the first Indian woman physician.
• He published the periodical Abalabandhab (Friend of Women) in Dhaka in May 1869.
• Sanjivani, a weekly Bengali newspaper that aimed to unite the peasants of lower Bengal, was published by him and Krishna Kumar Mitra.
• Ganguly held multiple terms as the secretary of the Sadharan Brahmo Samaj, which was established by Umeshchandra Datta, Shibchandra Deb, and Ananda Mohan Bose.

The correct answer is Menarche.

Key Points

• Menarche:
• ​It is the term used to describe the first menstrual flow that a woman experiences during puberty.
• This usually occurs between the ages of 11 and 14, but can happen earlier or later for some women.
• Menarche is an important milestone in a young woman's life, and is often accompanied by physical and emotional changes.
• Because it indicates the potential for reproduction, it is frequently regarded as the main event in female puberty.
• It is important for girls to be educated about menstruation and how to manage it, as well as to have access to sanitary products and medical care if needed.

Additional Information

• Menstruation:
• The regular release of blood and mucous tissue from the inner lining of the uterus into the vagina is called menstruation (or, informally, a period).
• Hormone levels rise and fall throughout the menstrual cycle.
• Falling progesterone levels cause menstruation, which is an indication that pregnancy has not yet begun.
• Menarche, the beginning of the first period, often occurs between the ages of 11 and 14.
• This is a typical vaginal bleed that happens during a woman's monthly cycle.
• In addition to vaginal bleeding, other symptoms includes:
• pain during pelvic or abdominal cramps
• back discomfort in the lower back
• breast pain and bloating
• cravings for food
• erratic emotions and irritation
• Fatigue and headache
• Ovulation:
• An egg (ovum) is released from one of the ovaries during the ovulation phase of the female menstrual cycle.
• It usually happens two weeks or so prior to the onset of the menstrual cycle.
• Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is released by the hypothalamus, a region of the brain, to initiate the ovulation process.
• Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are secreted by your pituitary gland (a gland located in your brain), are caused by GnRH.
• It is necessary for pregnancy to occur, as the egg must be fertilized by sperm within 24 hours of being released from the ovary.
• Menopause:
• Menopause, which signifies the end of a woman's reproductive years, is one step in a continuum of life stages.
• A woman cannot conceive after menopause, with the possible exception of rare circumstances in which specialised fertility procedures are employed.
• The menopause occurs naturally in most women between the ages of 45 and 55 as a result of biological ageing.
• Reduced levels of circulating blood oestrogen and loss of ovarian follicular activity are the two main causes of menopause.
• Changes in the menstrual cycle typically precede the menopausal transition, which might happen gradually. The term "perimenopause" describes the time frame beginning when these symptoms appear and ending a year following the last menstrual cycle.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of shares = 1 : 3 : 5

Difference between largest (5) and smallest (1) units = 5 − 1 = 4 units

Given, 4 units = ₹80,000 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹20,000

Total profit = (1 + 3 + 5) = 9 units = 9 × ₹20,000 = ₹1,80,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,80,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of profit sharing = 1 : 3 : 5

Let the shares of the three partners be x, 3x, and 5x.

Formula Used: Difference = Largest Share − Smallest Share; Total Profit = Sum of all shares.

⇒ Smallest share = x, Largest share = 5x

⇒ Difference = 5x − x = 4x

⇒ 4x = 80,000

⇒ x = 80,000 ÷ 4 = 20,000

⇒ Total Profit = x + 3x + 5x = 9x

⇒ Total Profit = 9 × 20,000 = 1,80,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,80,000.

Additional Information

Partnership Ratio

Profit is distributed based on the ratio of Capital × Time. If time is constant, profit ratio equals the investment ratio.

Unitary Method in Ratios

To find the total value, find the value of 1 unit by dividing the given difference by the difference in ratio parts, then multiply by the total ratio sum.

Types of Partners

Working partners manage the business and may receive extra commission/salary, while sleeping partners only invest capital.

The correct answer is Fringe benefits.

Key Points

• Fringe benefits:
• The extra perks provided to an employee above and beyond their stated pay in exchange for performing a particular function are known as fringe benefits.
• These are the perks that employers give to their employees above and beyond any financial compensation.
• Certain universal perks are provided to all workers in an organisation, while others might only be available to executives.
• While some perks are intended to cover work-related expenses, others are intended to promote overall worker satisfaction.
• These consist of below-market loans, employee discounts, employee stock options, health and life insurance, childcare reimbursement, cafeteria subsidies, tuition help, and personal use of a corporate vehicles.

Additional Information

• Financial compensation:
• Encouraging someone with cash or other valuables in return for their services, labour, or to cover medical expenses related to an injury they have sustained is known as financial compensation.
• Main goal of financial compensation is to keep the ties between people who are trading goods and services intact.
• Wages, overtime pay, salaries, commissions, piece work rates, bonuses, and tips are examples of common financial compensation.
• Marginal Benefits:
• The utmost price a customer is prepared to pay for an extra good or service is known as the marginal benefit.
• When a buyer purchases an additional good or service, they also gain additional enjoyment or usefulness.
• As a good or service is consumed more frequently, the consumer's marginal utility usually declines.
• In the business sector, marginal revenue is a common term used to describe the producers' marginal advantage.

Calculation:

\(\left[(12\times4)\times\left{6\div4\times\left(\frac{7-4}{6}\right)\right}\right]\)

⇒ \(\left[(12\times4)\times\left{6\div4\times\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right}\right]\)

⇒ \(\left[(12\times4)\times\left{3\div 2\times\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right}\right]\)

⇒ \(\left[(12\times4)\times\left{(\frac{3}{4})\right}\right]\)

⇒ $12 \times 3$

⇒ 36

∴ The correct option is 1.

The correct answer is 155.

Key PointsGiven in the question:

Rate of electricity = Rs. 5.00 per unit,

Power of fan = 100 W,

Time of usage = 10 hours per day,

Total days in May = 31

As we know that, Energy consumed (E) = Power (P) x Time (t)

Thus, Energy consumed by the fan per day = 100 W x 10 hours = 1000 Wh or 1 kWh

Energy consumed by the fan for the whole month = 1 kWh x 31 days = 31 kWh

Cost of running the fan for the whole month = 31 kWh x Rs. 5.00 per unit = Rs. 155.00

Therefore, the correct answer is Rs. 155.

Additional Information

• The rate of flow of  charge in a conductor is known as electric current.
• The ampere is the SI unit of electric current.
• Electrons are little particles found in a substance's molecular structure.
• These electrons are held loosely sometimes and securely other times.
• Within the boundaries of the body, electrons can move freely when the nucleus holds them loosely.

Given Series:

(Left) V 2 5 U @ ρ W ¥ # 2 Ω A R Q 1 @ F B 4 6 # H J % Z E (Right)

We know,

Consonants → All alphabets except Vowels (A, E, I, O, U)

After dropping consonants from the given series, the series we get is as follows,

2 5 U @ ρ ¥ # 2 Ω A 1 @ 4 6 # % E

Now, let's check the position of Ω from the left,

2 5 U @ ρ ¥ # 2 Ω A 1 @ 4 6 # % E

Here, we can see that the position of Ω is ninth from the left.

Hence, the correct answer is "Ninth".

The correct answer is HCl.

Key Points

• Hydrochloric Acid:
• The human stomach produces HCl as part of the gastric juice.
• It helps break down food, particularly proteins, and creates an acidic environment that is essential for the activation of enzymes involved in digestion.
• The stomach lining has protective mechanisms to prevent the acid from damaging the stomach itself.
• It is produced by specialized cells in the stomach lining called parietal cells.
• It is primarily used to denature proteins, which increases their susceptibility to enzymatic digestion.

Additional Information

• Lactic Acid:
• It is classified as a hydroxy acid and is a carboxylic acid with the chemical formula C₃H₆O₃.
• It exists in two optical isomers: L-lactic acid and D-lactic acid.
• The accumulation of lactic acid in muscles is often associated with muscle fatigue and soreness, particularly during strenuous exercise.
• It serves as an acidulant, flavoring agent, and preservative in various products.
• Acetic Acid:
• The chemical compound acetic acid has the formula CH3COOH.
• It is a carboxylic acid with a carboxyl functional group joined to a methyl group.
• The presence of acetic acid is evident in its strong aroma and tart flavour.
• When the temperature drops below 16.6ºC, it produces crystals that resemble ice.
• Vinegar, commonly known as acetic acid or ethanoic acid, is a common culinary and laboratory reagent.
• The bacteria Acetobacter aceti is the source of it.
• Methanol is carbonylated in an industrial setting to make acetic acid.
• Sulphuric Acid:
• Mineral acids having the chemical formula H₂SO₄ are sulfuric acid.
• Other names for sulfuric acid include Mattling acid and Oil of Vitriol.
• It is corrosive and has a strong acidic tendency.
• It functions as an oxidising and dehydrating agent at greater doses.
• It is a colourless, syrup-like liquid with no smell.

Let's create the arrangement using the given information:

1. O graduated in 2019.

2. M graduated in 2014.

3. Only one medical student graduated between K and O, where K graduated before O.

4. J graduated in the year immediately before the year N graduated.

Thus, the final arrangement is as follows,

Here, we can see that N graduated in 2016.

Hence, the correct answer is " N ".

The correct answer is 0.81, away from.

Key Points

• Given in the question:
• The refractive index of water = 1.65
• The refractive index of dense flint glass = 1.33
• The refractive index of water with respect to dense flint glass = The refractive index of water / The refractive index of dense flint glass.
• The refractive index of water with respect to dense flint glass = 1.33 / 1.65 = 0.81.
• Thus the refractive index of water with respect to dense flint glass is 0.81.
• This indicates that water is rarer than dense flint glass.
• The ray of light bends away from the normal as it travels from water to dense flint glass.
• Thus, the refractive index of water with respect to dense flint glass is 0.81 and the ray bends away from the normal in water.

Additional Information

• Refractive index of a medium
• It is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced when it passes through that medium, compared to the speed of light in a vacuum.
• In mathematical formulae and descriptive texts, the letter n or n' is most frequently used to represent the refractive index variable.
• Refracted light bends more in the direction of the normal line when it moves from a less dense material to a denser one.
• Refracted light bends away from the normal line when it moves from a  denser material to rarer medium.