Official Paper

FCI AG III Memory Based Question Paper (Held on: 7th January 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

English Language (25 questions)

Read the passage given below and then answer the given questions. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Read carefully.

A boy was waiting for the bus at the bus stop. He saw an old man who was just crossing the road. Suddenly a car was coming towards him from the opposite side. Then he rushed towards the old man. His heart was beating fast. He was scared that the old man will get hit by the car. But the old man didn’t move at all. The car hit the old man but it didn’t stop. He was surprised to see that the old man was still moving. Then he saw blood dripping from the old man’s leg. The boy was so sad to see the old man in this condition. He was helpless and so was the old man. Then he thought of something and ran to the nearby shop. He came back with a bottle of water. He asked the old man if he can let the old man drink some water.

Then, an idea suddenly came to his mind. He took his phone from his pocket and dialed a number. He was afraid that the accident was caused because he did not cross the road. He was also afraid that someone will blame him for this. However, he had no other option left. He had to help the old man. He called the ambulance and explained the situation to the person who answered the phone. He asked him to inform the police and the rescue team that there was an old man lying on the road. Then he asked him to inform the old man that he should not be worried about anything and that the rescue team and the police will come and help him. He also asked him to inform the old man that he will be there with him in the ambulance. The police and rescue team came and took the old man away in the ambulance.

Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word 'rescue' used in the passage?

((a))
Saving
((b))
Liberate
((c))
Recovery
((d))
Abandon
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Abandon

The correct answer is 'Abandon.'

Key Points

The word 'Rescue' means To save someone from a dangerous or difficult situation.
Example: He had attempted to rescue the drowning man.
Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Saving - To keep safe or rescue someone or something from harm or danger.
Example: You are saving five lives a day, simply by being my mate.
Liberate - To set someone free from imprisonment, slavery, or oppression; rescue.
Example: Rebels fought to liberate the country.
Recovery - A return to a normal state of health, mind, or strength.
Example: Her recovery was a special providence of God.
Abandon - To cease to support or look after someone.
Example: Good love makes you see the whole world from one person while bad love makes you abandon the whole world for one person.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

Additional Information

The antonyms of the word 'Rescue' are "Abandon, Endanger, Jeopardize".
The synonyms of the word 'Rescue' are "Saving, Liberate, Relieve".

Which word is the most similar in meaning to the word 'dripping' used in the passage?

((a))
Sprinkle
((b))
Leak
((c))
Splash
((d))
Both 1 and 2
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Leak

The correct answer is 'Leak.'

Key Points

The word 'Dripping' means To let fall or be so wet as to shed small drops of liquid.
Example: Water was dripping down through the roof.
Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Sprinkle - To scatter or pour small drops or particles of a substance over an object or surface.
Example: She is trying to sprinkle the floor with water.
Leak - To allow liquid or gas to get through a hole or crack.
Example: Water had started to leak into the cellar.
Splash - To fall or to make liquid fall noisily or fly in drops onto a person or thing.
Example: The baby liked to splash in its tub.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Dripping' are "Leak, Sprinkle, Splash".
The antonyms of the word 'Dripping' are "Gushing, Spurting, Spouting".

Where was the boy waiting ?

((a))
Railway Station
((b))
Bus Stop
((c))
Airport
((d))
None of the above
((e))
Data Inadequate

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Bus Stop

The correct answer is 'Bus Stop.'

Key Points

The first sentence of the first paragraph says "A boy was waiting for the bus at the bus stop.''
From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, the boy was waiting at the bus stop.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

Why was the boy scared?

((a))
Because he saw the car coming towards him
((b))
He was scared that the old man will get hit by the bike
((c))
He was scared because he saw the ghost
((d))
He was scared that the old man will get hit by the car.
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

He was scared that the old man will get hit by the car.

The correct answer is 'He was scared that the old man will get hit by the car.'

Key Points

The sixth sentence of the first paragraph says "He was scared that the old man will get hit by the car.''
From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, the boy was scared that the old man will get hit by the car.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

What did the person who answered the call asked the boy ?

((a))
He asked him to inform the old man that he will be there with him in the ambulance.
((b))
He asked him to inform the old man that he should not be worried about anything and that the rescue team and the police will come and help him.
((c))
He asked him to inform the police and the rescue team.
((d))
Both 1 and 2
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the above

The correct answer is 'All of the above.'

Key Points

The eighth sentence of the second paragraph says "He asked him to inform the police and rescue team that there was an old man lying on the road'', the ninth sentence of the second paragraph says "Then he asked him to inform the old man that he should not be worried about anything and that the rescue team and the police will come and help him'', and the tenth sentence of the second paragraph says "He also asked him to inform the old man that he will be there with him in the ambulance''.
From the above sentences, we can say that the fifth option is correct.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 5.

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. supplies and

B. increased employment

C. World War I resulted

D. in the manufacturing of

E. munitions and other war

((a))
CDEAB
((b))
DEABC
((c))
EDABC
((d))
BAEDC
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

CDEAB

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. CDEAB.

Explanation

First is C as it establishes the subject i.e. World War I. C is the only opening segment that can lead to the formation of a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
Next is D as it tells what the war resulted in.
E follows D as it mentions what was manufactured.
Next is A as it elaborates E.
Last is B as it mentions what else WW1 resulted in i.e. increased employment.

Correct sentence- World War I resulted in the manufacturing of munitions and other war supplies and increased employment.

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. malnourished of the world

B. undernourished and the

C. world food day is meant

D. to highlight the plight

E. of the hungry, the

((a))
ABDEC
((b))
CDEBA
((c))
DEABC
((d))
EDACB
((e))
BEACD

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

CDEBA

The correct answer is CDEBA.

Key Points

C is the part that establishes the subject of the matter,i.e., 'world food day is meant '. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
Part D refers to the reason why we celebrate it. Hence, D follows C.
Now three parts are remaining, and out of them, part E starts with 'of'. It describes the people getting affected by a lack of food. So, part E follows C.
Part B talks about undernourished people and also contains connector 'and', so it must come after part E.
Part A is the only part left that talks about malnourished people. Hence, E follows A.

Correct rearrangement of segments is - World food day is meant to highlight the plight of the hungry, the undernourished and the malnourished of the world.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So these parts will always be at the end.

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. other throat disorders

B. the fresh juice of raw

C. papaya mixed with honey can

D. for diphtheria and

E. be applied over inflamed tonsils,

((a))
ABDEC
((b))
DEBCA
((c))
BCEDA
((d))
CAEBD
((e))
EADCB

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

BCEDA

The correct answer is BCEDA.

Key Points

B is the part that establishes the subject of the matter,i.e., 'the fresh juice of raw'. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
Part C refers to the fruit whose fresh juice mixed with honey is good. Hence, C follows B.
Now three parts are remaining, and all of them refer to diseases treated by fresh juice of raw papaya.
To complete part C, part E is put.
Then, we will put part D as it contains a connector 'and' which means it is joining part A at last.

Correct rearrangement of segments is - The fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey can be applied over inflamed tonsils, for diphtheria and other throat disorders.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So these parts will always be at the end.

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. satisfaction may or may not

B. and the perceived expectancy

C. lead to high performance

D. depending on the perceived

E. availability of valued outcomes

((a))
BCAED
((b))
CDEAB
((c))
DEABC
((d))
ACDEB
((e))
EADBC

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

ACDEB

The correct answer is ACDEB

Key Points

A is the part that establishes the subject of the matter,i.e., 'satisfaction may or may not. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
Part C states that satisfaction may or may not be the reason to perform higher. Hence, C follows A.
Part D refers to the factors on which the it depdends. So, part D follows C.
Part E talks about first factor,i.e. 'availability of valued outcomes', so it must come after part D, which talks about factors.
Part B talks about the second factor which will come after E and begins with connector 'and'. Hence, E follows A.

Correct rearrangement of segments is - Satisfaction may or may not lead to high performance depending on the perceived availability of valued outcomes and the perceived expectancy.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So these parts will always be at the end.

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. galaxies of all types

B. which contains a thousand

C. the nearest cluster

D. rich in members

E. is the Virgo Cluster,

((a))
CDEBA
((b))
DBECA
((c))
ABECD
((d))
EBCDA
((e))
BDEAC

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

CDEBA

The correct answer is CDEBA.

Key Points

C is the part that establishes the beginning of the matter,i.e., 'the nearest cluster '. Hence, it will be the first part after rearrangement.
Part D refers to the fact that it is rich in members. Hence, D follows C.
Now Part E refers to the specific cluster we are referring to here. So, part E follows D.
Part B talks about what does Virgo cluster contains, so it must come after part E.
Part A talks about the thousand galaxies it contains. Hence, A follows B.

Correct rearrangement of segments is - The nearest cluster rich in members is the Virgo Cluster, which contains a thousand galaxies of all types.

Hint

While solving jumbles, one must first look for any independent sentences/segments or the option which establishes the subject matter.
Then, one must look for connections between the sentences/segments.
Some sentences/segments might have some concluding notion. So these parts will always be at the end.

Direction: Pick out the part of the following sentence which has an error. If there is no error, your answer is (4).

One of the state in which (A) / Satyagraha was offered was Rajkot (B) / where he spent his youth. (C)

((a))
C
((b))
A
((c))
B
((d))
No error
((e))
Not attempted

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Here, the erroneous part is- 'A'

Key Points

The error lies in part (A) of the sentence.
The noun following the phrase "one of the" is always a plural noun.
The use of verbs as singular or plural will entirely depend upon the subject of the statement, i.e. singular verb for the singular subject and plural verb for the plural subject.
Example: *Pistachio is one of the few flavors that appeal to me.*
We can see that a singular helping verb "was" in part B.
To make the sentence grammatically correct, we must substitute "state" with "states."
So, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: One of the states in which Satyagraha was offered was Rajkot where he spent his youth.

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

Flying required a lot of (1)/energy, so bats need (2)/to consume nutritious food. (3)/No error (4)

((a))
Flying required a lot of
((b))
energy, so bats need
((c))
to consume nutritious food.
((d))
No error
((e))
Not Attempted

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Flying required a lot of

The erroneous part is 'Flying required a lot of'.

Key Points

The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
Here, 'Flying requires a lot of' should be used instead of 'Flying required a lot of'.
The given sentence is in the present tense.
The later part of the sentence is in the present tense.
Hence, 'required' should be changed into 'requires'.
Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: Flying requires a lot of energy, so bats need to consume nutrituios food.

Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

If he has (A)/ not used the phone (B)/ while driving, (C)/ the police wouldn't (D)/ have fined him (E)/.

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

In the first part of the given sentence, the use of the present tense form of the verb ''has'' in the if-clause is incorrect.
The given sentence is the third conditional sentence explaining that present circumstances would be different if something different had happened in the past.
The third conditional sentence format: If + past perfect, modal auxiliary (would, could, should, etc.) + have + past participle.
When using the third conditional, we use the past perfect i.e. had + past participle (here, used) in the if-clause and the modal auxiliary (would, could, should, etc.) + have + past participle (here, fined) in the main clause.
Therefore, the past tense form of the verb ''had'' should be used in place of the present tense form of the verb ''has''.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: If he had not used the phone while driving, the police wouldn't have fined him.

Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

If you feel (A)/ you have any cause for (B)/ complaint at the (C)/ service you should write (D)/ to the Hospital Administrator (E)/.

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is 'C' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

In the third part of the given sentence, the use of the preposition 'at' is incorrect.
The preposition 'at' is used to show where somebody or something is or where something happens.
The use of the word 'complained' in the sentence indicates to say that someone is not satisfied with or happy about something.
Therefore, the preposition 'about' should be used in place of the preposition 'at'.
The preposition 'about' means 'on the subject of; concerning '.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: If you feel you have any cause for complaint about the service you should write to the Hospital Administrator.

Directions: Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, select No error or option 5. Ignore errors of punctuation if any.

None of (A)/ the girls (B)/ have done (C)/ her home task.(D)/ No error. (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is 'C' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

In the third part of the given sentence, the plural form of the verb 'have done' is incorrect.
In the given sentence, the subject 'None of the girls' should take a singular verb because it implies "not one of the girls".
When 'none' is the subject, it generally takes a singular verb unless the context clearly indicates plurality.
Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'has done' should be used in place of the plural form 'have done'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: None of the girls has done her home task.

Additional Information

If the subject 'none' refers to countable nouns (e.g., people, books), it can take either a singular or a plural verb, but it is more commonly used with a singular verb in formal writing.
Example: None of the books has been read by the children yet.
If the subject 'none' clearly refers to something plural as a collective entity, you may occasionally see a plural verb, particularly in informal contexts.
Example: None of the students have submitted their assignments (informal).

Directions: Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

Her ________ told her it was unwise to argue.

((a))
Intention
((b))
Intuition
((c))
Aptitude
((d))
Attitude
((e))
Imagination

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Intuition

The correct answer is 'Intuition'

Key Points

Let's understand the meaning of options:
Intuition(noun) - the feeling or understanding that makes you believe or know that something is true without being able to explain why
Intention(noun) - An anticipated outcome that is intended or that guides your planned actions
Aptitude(noun) - Inherent ability
Attitude(noun) - A complex mental state involving beliefs and feelings and values and dispositions to act in certain ways
Imagination(noun) - The formation of a mental image of something that is not perceived as real and is not present to the senses
From the above explanation of words, we can say that it is intuition that told her it was unwise to argue.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct sentence is: Her Intuition told her it was unwise to argue.

Directions: Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

The headache lasts from 15 minutes to four hours and may _____ several times in a day.

((a))
recur
((b))
occur
((c))
abhor
((d))
abdicate
((e))
abduct

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

recur

The correct answer is 'recur'

Key Points

Here in the blank, we need a verb.
Let's understand the meaning of options:
Recur(verb) - Happen or occur again
Occur(verb) - Come to one's mind; suggest itself
Abhor(verb) - Find repugnant
Abdicate(verb) - Give up, such as power, as of monarchs and emperors, or duties and obligations
Abduct(verb) - Take away to an undisclosed location against their will and usually in order to extract a ransom
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct sentence is: The headache lasts from 15 minutes to four hours and may recur several times in a day.

Directions: Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

He wasn't a tall man, but he walked with the _________ of one.

((a))
Sense
((b))
Wisdom
((c))
Confidence
((d))
Action
((e))
Affect

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Confidence

The correct answer is 'Confidence'

Key Points

Here in the blank, we need a noun.
Let's understand the meaning of options:
'Confidence(Noun)' - Freedom from doubt; belief in yourself and your abilities
‘Affect(Verb)’ - To have an effect upon
‘Sense(Noun)’ - A general conscious awareness
‘Wisdom(Noun)’ - Accumulated knowledge, erudition or enlightenment
'Action(Noun)' - Something done (usually as opposed to something said)
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct sentence is: He wasn't a tall man, but he walked with the confidence of one.

Directions: Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

The freedoms they offer provide a new ________ for all to improve.

((a))
Story
((b))
Foundation
((c))
Incentive
((d))
Company
((e))
Reflect

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Incentive

The correct answer is 'Incentive'

Key Points

Here in the blank, we need a noun.
Let's understand the meaning of options:
‘Incentive(Noun)’ - Something that stimulates one to take action, work harder, etc.; stimulus.
‘Story(Noun)’ - Something viewed as or providing material for literary or journalistic treatment.
‘Foundation(Noun)’ - The basis on which something is grounded
'Company(Noun)' - An institution created to conduct business
'Reflect(verb)' - Manifest or bring back
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct sentence is: The freedoms they offer provide a new incentive for all to improve.

Directions: Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

You'll get to meet all my ______ members.

((a))
counsel
((b))
council
((c))
councillor
((d))
counsellor
((e))
consul

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

council

The correct answer is 'council'

Key Points

Here in the blank, we need a noun.
Let's understand the meaning of options:
‘Council(noun)’ - A body serving in an administrative capacity.
‘Counsel(verb)’ - Give advice to
‘Councillor(noun)’ - A member of a council
'Counsellor'(noun)- Someone who gives advice about problems
'Consul' (noun)- A diplomat appointed by a government to protect its commercial interests and help its citizens in a foreign country
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct sentence is: You'll get to meet all my council members

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The exsessive(A) obsession(B) over GDP growth by policymakers and politicians can be unhealthy(C) and dangerous(D) in a democracy(E).

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Exsessive': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Excessive' means More than is necessary, normal, or desirable; immoderate.
'Obsession' means The state of being obsessed with someone or something.
'Unhealthy' means Not having or showing good health.
'Dangerous' means Likely to cause injury or damage.
'Democracy' means A system in which the government of a country is elected by the people.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: The excessive obsession over GDP growth by policymakers and politicians can be unhealthy and dangerous in a democracy.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Excessive' are "Immoderate, Intemperate, Imprudent".
Example of 'Excessive' in a sentence:
Excessive weight gain doesn't do you any good.

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelt. Find the misspelt word.

Two recent pronouncemants,(A) one a judicial(B) order and another a public speech(C) by the Chief Justice of India (CJI), have drawn attention(D) to the manner in which bail law operates(E) in the country.

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 'A'.

Key Points

Let us explore the options:
'pronouncemants' means an increase in rate.
But the word that contextually fits here is 'pronouncements' which means a formal or authoritative announcement or declaration.
'judicial' means of, by, or appropriate to a law court or judge; relating to the administration of justice.
'speech' means the expression of or the ability to express thoughts and feelings by articulate sounds.
'attention' means notice taken of someone or something; the regarding of someone or something as interesting or important.
'operates' means (of a person) control the functioning of (a machine, process, or system).

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: Two recent pronouncements, one a judicial order and another a public speech by the Chief Justice of India (CJI), have drawn attention to the manner in which bail law operates in the country.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'pronouncement' are "advertisement, announcement, proclamation".
Example of 'pronouncement' in a sentence**:**
The pronouncements made by politicians are usually distrusted.

Find the misspelt word out of the given bold words in the sentence. If all are correct then choose option 5.

The BJP inductad AGP leaders and appropriated many of their demands.

((a))
Inductad
((b))
Leaders
((c))
Appropriated
((d))
Demands
((e))
All are correct

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Inductad

The correct answer is Inductad i.e. this word is misspelt.

Key Points

The correct word is Inducted.
Inducted: Place ceremoniously or formally in an office or position.
Ex: "there was a ceremony to induct the president of the Academy"
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

It provides a welcome opportunity(A) to spend a day in Paris to congratulate(B) Mr. Macron and impart(C) new momentem(D) to the relationship(E).

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is 'D.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Opportunity' means A time or set of circumstances that makes it possible to do something.
'Congratulate' means To give someone one's good wishes when something special or pleasant has happened to them.
'Impart' means To give a certain quality to something.
'Momentem': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Momentum' means The ability to keep increasing or developing.
'Relationship' means The way that people, groups, countries, etc. feel about or behave towards each other.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Sentence: It provides a welcome opportunity to spend a day in Paris to congratulate Mr. Macron and impart new momentum to the relationship.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Momentum' are "Boost, Encouragement, Impetus".
Example of 'Momentum' in a sentence:
The campaign has been gaining momentum ever since the television appeal.

Directions: In the following questions, a sentence is given with five words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no change is required, mark 'No arrangement required’ as your answer.

A time(A) who lived table(B) always had gentleman(C) plates placed on the two(D) at dinner alone(E).

((a))
CEDBA
((b))
ABCDE
((c))
CDEAB
((d))
ACDBE
((e))
No rearrangement

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

CEDBA

The correct answer is CEDBA.

Key Points

Let's consider A, B, C, D, and E to be five blanks, with A being the first B second, and so on.

The first blank requires a noun because the verb 'lived' is used later in the sentence to describe the noun. Therefore, 'gentleman' is the correct answer here
The second blank requires an adjective, as in, 'how the gentleman lived?'- alone. Therefore, 'alone' is the correct answer here.
The third blank requires a number because a countable noun is used after it, 'plates'. Therefore, 'two' is the correct answer here.
The fourth blank requires a noun as in, the plates are placed where?- 'on the table'. Therefore 'table' is the correct answer.
The fifth blank requires a noun that is a part of another noun 'dinner'. Therefore, 'time' is the correct answer

Therefore, the correct answer is,

A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at dinner time.

Reasoning Ability (25 questions)

Direction: The question below is given three statements followed by two conclusions: I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

Only a few caps are hats

All hats are masks

Some masks are covers

Conclusion:

I. Some masks are hats

II. No caps are covers is a possibility

((a))
Only II follows
((b))
Either I or II follows
((c))
Only I follows
((d))
Neither I nor II follows
((e))
Both I and II follow

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both I and II follow

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusion:

I. Some masks are hats → True (As all hats are masks so, Some hats are definitely masks)

II. No caps are covers is a possibility → True (As there is no relation between caps and covers so we cannot say anything here but any possibility can follow here, So it is true)

Hence, Both I and II follow.

Important points:

Some: In this case, Some part is definitely true whereas the rest part can be true if there is the possibility of Some not and All.

Some Not: In this case, Some part is negative that is definite. If the rest part is positive then some part can which is positive will be true otherwise possibility of No will be true.

Only a few: In this case, The cases of Some and Some Not will follow.

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few Pen is Red.

Only a few Red is Blue.

No Blue is Black.

Conclusions

I.Some Pen can be Blue.

II.Some Red can be Black

((a))
Both I and II follow
((b))
Only I follows
((c))
Only II follows
((d))
Either I or II follows
((e))
None follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both I and II follow

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions

I.Some Pen can be Blue → True (As we know that only a few pen are red that means some part of the pen is red but we don't know rest part of pen whether that is red or not. Hence the possibility is True)

II.Some Red can be Black → True (As we know that only a few red is blue that means some part of the red is blue but we don't know rest part of red whether that is blue or not. Hence the possibility is True)

Hence, conclusion Both I and II follow.

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

I. Some scales are glue

II. No glue is pencil

III. Only a few pencils are eraser

Conclusions:

I. Some scales are eraser

II. No scales are eraser

((a))
Only conclusion I follows
((b))
Only conclusion II follows
((c))
Either conclusion I or II follows
((d))
Neither conclusion I nor II follows
((e))
Both conclusion I and II follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Either conclusion I or II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some scales are eraser → False (It is possible, but there is no definite positive or negative relation is given between the elements, therefore it is false)

II. No scales are eraser → False (It is possible, but there is no definite positive or negative relation is given between the elements, therefore it is false)

Conclusion I and II thus form a complementary pair.

Hence, either conclusion I or II follows.

Directions: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some fruit is Apple.

Only a few Apple is Orange.

Conclusions:

I. No fruit is Orange.

II. Some fruit is not Apple.

((a))
Only I follow
((b))
Only II follow
((c))
Both I and II follows
((d))
Either I or II follows
((e))
Neither I Nor II follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Neither I Nor II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions

I. No fruit is Orange → False (As there is no relation between fruit and orange, No fruit is orange is possible but not definite. So it is false)

II. Some fruit is not Apple → False (As some fruit is apple means some part of the fruit is in an apple but we don't know about rest part of fruit whether it is in apple or not so it is possible but not definite. So it is false)

Hence, Neither I Nor II follows.

Direction: Study the given question carefully and answer the question.

Eight friends – Manoj, Mani, Mohan, Manu, Manju, Meena, Madhu and Mahesh are sitting in a row and all of them are facing North. They are not necessarily seated in the same order.

Four people are sitting between Manju and Manu, but neither of them is sitting at any extreme ends of the row. Two people are sitting between Manju and Mohan, who is sitting to the immediate right of Meena. Only one person is sitting between Meena and Madhu, who is not sitting at any extreme ends of the row. Mani is sitting exactly in the middle of Mohan and Manoj. Madhu is sitting second to the left of Mahesh.

Who is sitting at the extreme right end of the row?

((a))
Manu
((b))
Manoj
((c))
Madhu
((d))
Meena
((e))
Mahesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Mahesh

Names of Person: Manoj, Mani, Mohan, Manu, Manju, Meena, Madhu and Mahesh.

Facing direction: All of them are facing North.

1. Four people are sitting between Manju and Manu, but neither of them is sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

(Here two cases exists, Case - 1: Manu sits to the right of Manoj and four people sit between them. Case - 2: Manu sits to the left of Manju and four people sit between them.)

2. Two people are sitting between Manju and Mohan, who is sitting to the immediate right of Meena.

3. Only one person is sitting between Meena and Madhu, who is not sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

4. Mani is sitting exactly in the middle of Mohan and Manoj.

5. Madhu is sitting second to the left of Mahesh.

(Here Case - 2 gets eliminated, as Madhu can not be placed second to the left of Mahesh.)

Hence, Mahesh is sitting at the extreme right end of the row.

Who is sitting to the immediate left of Manju?

((a))
Mani
((b))
Manoj
((c))
Meena
((d))
Mohan
((e))
Mahesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Manoj

Names of Person: Manoj, Mani, Mohan, Manu, Manju, Meena, Madhu and Mahesh.

Facing direction: All of them are facing North.

1. Four people are sitting between Manju and Manu, but neither of them is sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

(Here two cases exists, Case - 1: Manu sits to the right of Manoj and four people sit between them. Case - 2: Manu sits to the left of Manju and four people sit between them.)

2. Two people are sitting between Manju and Mohan, who is sitting to the immediate right of Meena.

3. Only one person is sitting between Meena and Madhu, who is not sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

4. Mani is sitting exactly in the middle of Mohan and Manoj.

5. Madhu is sitting second to the left of Mahesh.

(Here Case - 2 gets eliminated, as Madhu can not be placed second to the left of Mahesh.)

Hence, Manoj is sitting to the immediate left of Manju.

Who is sitting second to the left of Mohan?

((a))
Meena
((b))
Madhu
((c))
Mahesh
((d))
Mani
((e))
Manoj

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Mani

Names of Person: Manoj, Mani, Mohan, Manu, Manju, Meena, Madhu and Mahesh.

Facing direction: All of them are facing North.

1. Four people are sitting between Manju and Manu, but neither of them is sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

(Here two cases exists, Case - 1: Manu sits to the right of Manoj and four people sit between them. Case - 2: Manu sits to the left of Manju and four people sit between them.)

2. Two people are sitting between Manju and Mohan, who is sitting to the immediate right of Meena.

3. Only one person is sitting between Meena and Madhu, who is not sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

4. Mani is sitting exactly in the middle of Mohan and Manoj.

5. Madhu is sitting second to the left of Mahesh.

(Here Case - 2 gets eliminated, as Madhu can not be placed second to the left of Mahesh.)

Hence, Mani is sitting second to the left of Mohan.

Who are the immediate neighbours of Manu?

((a))
Madhu and Mahesh
((b))
Mahesh and Mohan
((c))
Meena and Mohan
((d))
Mani and Mohan
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Madhu and Mahesh

Names of Person: Manoj, Mani, Mohan, Manu, Manju, Meena, Madhu and Mahesh.

Facing direction: All of them are facing North.

1. Four people are sitting between Manju and Manu, but neither of them is sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

(Here two cases exists, Case - 1: Manu sits to the right of Manoj and four people sit between them. Case - 2: Manu sits to the left of Manju and four people sit between them.)

2. Two people are sitting between Manju and Mohan, who is sitting to the immediate right of Meena.

3. Only one person is sitting between Meena and Madhu, who is not sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

4. Mani is sitting exactly in the middle of Mohan and Manoj.

5. Madhu is sitting second to the left of Mahesh.

(Here Case - 2 gets eliminated, as Madhu can not be placed second to the left of Mahesh.)

Hence, Madhu and Mahesh are the immediate neighbours of Manu.

Who is sitting exactly between Mani and Mohan?

((a))
Manju
((b))
Manoj
((c))
Meena
((d))
Manu
((e))
Mahesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Meena

Names of Person: Manoj, Mani, Mohan, Manu, Manju, Meena, Madhu and Mahesh.

Facing direction: All of them are facing North.

1. Four people are sitting between Manju and Manu, but neither of them is sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

(Here two cases exists, Case - 1: Manu sits to the right of Manoj and four people sit between them. Case - 2: Manu sits to the left of Manju and four people sit between them.)

2. Two people are sitting between Manju and Mohan, who is sitting to the immediate right of Meena.

3. Only one person is sitting between Meena and Madhu, who is not sitting at any extreme ends of the row.

4. Mani is sitting exactly in the middle of Mohan and Manoj.

5. Madhu is sitting second to the left of Mahesh.

(Here Case - 2 gets eliminated, as Madhu can not be placed second to the left of Mahesh.)

Hence, Meena is sitting exactly between Mani and Mohan.

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusions among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: P ≥ Q ≥ R = S; U ≤ V ≤ S

Conclusions:

I. P ≤ U

II. P > U

((a))
Only II is True
((b))
Only I is True
((c))
Both I and II are True
((d))
Either I or II is true
((e))
None is True

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None is True

Given statements: P ≥ Q ≥ R = S; U ≤ V ≤ S

On combining: P ≥ Q ≥ R = S ≥ V ≥ U

Conclusions:

I. P ≤ U → False (On combining the statements we get P ≥ U Hence, P ≤ U is definitely false and will not follow)

II. P > U → False ( On combining the statements we get P ≥ U. Hence, P > U is false as it cannot be definitely said and thus will not follow)

Therefore, Neither I nor II is true.

Mistake Points

After combining the statements, we get P ≥ U which means two cases

either P > U or P = U, we eliminate the second conclusion because of this uncertainty. And this 'either-or' case is different from the given option's 'either-or'.

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statement to be true. Find which conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true then give your answer accordingly.

Statement: P > Q ≥ R < S; V > U < T ≥ S

Conclusion:

I. T > R

II. T < P

((a))
None is true
((b))
Only II is true
((c))
Both I and II are true
((d))
Only I is true
((e))
Either I or II is true

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Only I is true

Given Statements: P > Q ≥ R < S; V > U < T ≥ S

On combining: P > Q ≥ R < S ≤ T > U < V

Conclusions:

I. T > R → True (as P > Q ≥ R < S ≤ T → R < T)

II. T Q ≥ R < S ≤ T, no relation is definite)

Hence, only I is true.

Direction: In the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/ are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: R < L = N > P ≤ Q > S = M

Conclusions:

I. P = Q

II. P < Q

((a))
Only I is true
((b))
Only II is true
((c))
Either I or II is true
((d))
Neither I nor II is true
((e))
Both I and II are true

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Either I or II is true

Given statements: R < L = N > P ≤ Q > S = M

Conclusions:

I. P = Q → False (as P ≤ Q)

II. P < Q → False (as P ≤ Q)

Therefore conclusion I and II forms a complementary pair.

Hence, either I or II is true.

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: M ≥ Q ≥ R = F = T ≥ U ≤ V ≤ D = G

Conclusion:

I. D > F

II. U ≤ R

((a))
None follows
((b))
Both conclusion I and II follow
((c))
Only conclusion II follows
((d))
Only conclusion I follows
((e))
Either conclusion I or II follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Only conclusion II follows

Statements: M ≥ Q ≥ R = F = T ≥ U ≤ V ≤ D = G

Conclusions:

I. D > F → False (F = T ≥ U ≤ V ≤ D → F ≥ U ≤ D, thus clear relationship between D and F cannot be determined)

II.U ≤ R → True (R = F = T ≥ U → R ≥ U)

Thus only conclusion II follows.

Direction: In the given word "AUTHORISE" replace the consonants with the succeeding letter as per the English alphabet series and vowel with their preceding letter as per the English alphabet series. Then arrange the letters in reverse alphabetical order from right to left. Which of the following letter is third from the left end after arrangement?

((a))
D
((b))
H
((c))
I
((d))
N
((e))
S

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given word: AUTHORISE

Replacing the consonants with the succeeding letter and vowel with their preceding letter, we get

Given word	A	U	T	H	O	R	I	S	E
After rearrangement	Z	T	U	I	N	S	H	T	D
Descending order from right to left	D	H	I	N	S	T	T	U	Z

Hence, I is third letter from the left end.

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ CELLPHONES ’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word ( both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet ?

((a))
Two
((b))
Three
((c))
Four
((d))
Five
((e))
More than Five

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Five

From the given information

Hence there are five pairs in the word ‘ CELLPHONES ’.

If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 5th letters of the word “TESTBOOK”, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made give ‘Y’ as the answer.

((a))
S
((b))
E
((c))
T
((d))
X
((e))
Y

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Given Word	TESTBOOK
Chosen Letters	T E S B
Possible word	BEST, BETS

Two words are formed

Hence, "Y" is the correct answer.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H &

In the above arrangement, which of the following is the seventeenth element to the right of a symbol which is immediately followed by a digit and immediately preceded by an alphabet?

((a))
@
((b))
Z
((c))
1
((d))
5
((e))
£

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given series:

Left Side R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H & Right Side

Symbol immediately followed by a digit and immediately preceded by an alphabet: Alphabet > Symbol > Digit

R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H &

As there is only one symbol immediately followed by a digit and immediately preceded by an alphabet i.e. €

Hence, the element which is seventeenth to the right of € is Z.

How many letters are there in the above arrangement which is/are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a digit?

((a))
Four
((b))
Three
((c))
Two
((d))
One
((e))
Zero

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Three

Given Series:

Left Side R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H & Right Side

Alphabets followed immediately by a symbol and preceded immediately by a Digit: Digit > Alphabets > Symbol

R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H &

Hence, there are three such alphabets which are followed by a symbol and preceded by a digit: 8 C $, 5 U £, 6 A @

How many symbols are there in the above arrangement which is/are immediately followed and immediately preceded by a digit?

((a))
5
((b))
6
((c))
7
((d))
2
((e))
9

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Given Series:

Left side R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H & Right side

Symbols immediately followed and immediately preceded by a digit: Digit > symbol > Digit.

R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H &

So, there are two such symbols which are immediately followed and immediately preceded by a digit i.e. ® and %.

Hence, There are 2 Symbols ® and %.

If we drop all the symbols and letters from the above series, find the average of the digits that are at the third and seventh place from the left end in the new series.

((a))
4
((b))
5
((c))
6
((d))
7
((e))
8

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given Series:

Left side R € 3 W 8 C $ D © K 2 ® 7 T F 5 U £ Z 1 % 6 A @ X 4 Q H & Right side

If all the symbols and alphabets are removed then the new series will be:

3 8 2 7 5 1 6 4

So, the third digit from the left end = 2

and, the seventh digit from the left end = 6

Now, the average between two numbers is defined as half of the sum of the given two numbers.

Therefore, average of third and seventh digit from the left end i.e. 2 and 6 = (2 + 6)/2 = 8/2 = 4.

Hence, 4 is the correct answer.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions

Eight people K, P, T, J, M, U, B, and F are going on a trip one after another. Two persons are going between F and K. No one is going after P. K is going after B. T is going just before U. K is not going just before P. The number of persons is going before B is same as the number of persons who are going after K. F is going just after M.

If all the people will go in alphabetical order then who will be the last one?

((a))
B
((b))
J
((c))
P
((d))
U
((e))
T

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1) No one went after P.

2) The number of persons goes before B is same as the number of persons goes after K who goes after B.

3) K is not going just before P.

Case 1

|--------|--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

Case 2

|--------|--------B--------|--------|--------K--------|--------P

4) Two persons go between F and K.

5) F goes just after M.

Using statement 4, Case 2 will be eliminated.

Case 1

M--------F--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

6) T goes just before U**.**

Solution:-

Case 1

M--------F--------J--------B--------K--------T--------U--------P

When they go in alphabetical order we will get the below arrangement.

B--------F--------J--------K--------M--------P--------T--------U

Hence, U will go at last.

How many persons are going before K?

((a))
One
((b))
Two
((c))
Three
((d))
More than three
((e))
No one

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

More than three

1) No one went after P.

2) The number of persons goes before B is same as the number of persons goes after K who goes after B.

3) K is not going just before P.

Case 1

|--------|--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

Case 2

|--------|--------B--------|--------|--------K--------|--------P

4) Two persons go between F and K.

5) F goes just after M.

Using statement 4, Case 2 will be eliminated.

Case 1

M--------F--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

6) T goes just before U.

Case 1

M--------F--------J--------B--------K--------T--------U--------P

Four persons go before K.

Hence, the correct answer is More thanThree.

How many persons are going between B and U?

((a))
One
((b))
Two
((c))
Three
((d))
More than three
((e))
No one

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Two

1) No one went after P.

2) The number of persons goes before B is same as the number of persons goes after K who goes after B.

3) K is not going just before P.

Case 1

|--------|--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

Case 2

|--------|--------B--------|--------|--------K--------|--------P

4) Two persons go between F and K.

5) F goes just after M.

Using statement 4, Case 2 will be eliminated.

Case 1

M--------F--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

6) T goes just before U.

Case 1

M--------F--------J--------B--------K--------T--------U--------P

Solution:-

Only two persons go between B and U.

Hence, the correct answer is Two.

Find the odd one out.

((a))
JK
((b))
MJ
((c))
FB
((d))
TP
((e))
BU

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

1) No one went after P.

2) The number of persons goes before B is same as the number of persons goes after K who goes after B.

3) K is not going just before P.

Case 1

|--------|--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

Case 2

|--------|--------B--------|--------|--------K--------|--------P

4) Two persons go-between F and K.

5) F goes just after M.

Using statement 4, Case 2 will be eliminated.

Case 1

M--------F--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

6) T goes just before U.

Case 1

M--------F--------J--------B--------K--------T--------U--------P

Except in option 5, only one person goes between the first one and the second one.

Hence, the correct answer is BU.

Which of the following person/s are going after J?

((a))
B
((b))
K
((c))
B and K
((d))
J and F
((e))
M

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

B and K

1) No one went after P.

2) The number of persons goes before B is same as the number of persons goes after K who goes after B.

3) K is not going just before P.

Case 1

|--------|--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

Case 2

|--------|--------B--------|--------|--------K--------|--------P

4) Two persons go between F and K.

5) F goes just after M.

Using statement 4, Case 2 will be eliminated.

Case 1

M--------F--------|--------B--------K--------|--------|--------P

6) T goes just before U.

Case 1

M--------F--------J--------B--------K--------T--------U--------P

B and K both are going after J

Hence, the correct answer is B and K.

Numerical Aptitude (25 questions)

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

234, 230, 221, 196, 147, 114

((a))
221
((b))
147
((c))
114
((d))
196
((e))
230

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

114

The series follows the following pattern:

234 - 22 = 230

230 - 32 = 221

221 - 52 = 196

196 - 72 = 147

147 - 112 = 26

∴ The wrong term in the series is 114.

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

49, 56, 77, 112, 151, 224

((a))
224
((b))
77
((c))
112
((d))
151
((e))
56

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

151

The series follows the following pattern:

49 + 7 = 56

56 + 21 = 77

77 + 35 = 112

112 + 49 = 161

161 + 63 = 224

∴ The wrong term in the series is 151.

In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that number.

62, 98, 142, 194, 258, 322

((a))
142
((b))
322
((c))
194
((d))
98
((e))
258

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

258

Given:

62, 98, 142, 194, 258, 322

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

82 – 2 = 62

102 – 2 = 98

122 – 2 = 142

142 – 2 = 194

16² – 2 = 254

18² – 2 = 322

∴ The wrong term in the series is 258.

What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

4 × ( ? + 120 ) = (8)³+ 640 ÷ 80 + 2²

((a))
12
((b))
6
((c))
8
((d))
16
((e))
11

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Given :

4 × ( ? + 120 ) = 8³ + 640÷ 80 + 2²

Calculation :

4 × ( ? + 120 ) = 8³ + 640÷ 80 + 2²

⇒ 4 × ( ? + 120 ) = 512 + 8 + 4

⇒ 4 × ( ? + 120 ) = 524

⇒ ( ? + 120 ) = 524 /4

⇒ ( ? + 120 ) = 131

⇒ ? = 131 - 120

⇒ ? = 11

Hence,11 will come in the place of '?'.

What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

133 ÷ 49^1/2× 20 + ? = 22500^1/2 + 310

((a))
70
((b))
60
((c))
90
((d))
55
((e))
80

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Given :

133 ÷ 49^1/2 × 20 + ? = 22500^1/2 + 310

Calculation :

133 ÷ 49^1/2 × 20 + ? = 22500^1/2 + 310

⇒ 133 ÷ (7)^2×1/2× 20 + ? = (150)^2×1/2+ 310

⇒ 133 ÷ 7 × 20 + ? = 150 + 310

⇒ 19 × 20 + ? = 460

⇒ ? = 460 - 380

⇒ ? = 80

Hence,80 will come in the place of '?'.

What will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

50% of 170 + 60% of 180 + 110 = ? + 10

((a))
293
((b))
273
((c))
313
((d))
413
((e))
253

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

293

Given :

50% of 170 + 60% of 180 + 110 = ? + 10

Calculation :

50% of 170 + 60% of 180 + 110 = ? + 10

⇒ 85 + 108 + 110 = ? + 10

⇒ 193 + 110 = ? + 10

⇒ 303 + ? = 10

⇒ ? = 303 - 10

⇒ ? = 293

Hence,293 will come in the place of '?'.

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

1023 ÷ 31 + 12500 ÷ 5 - ? = 75% of 2500

((a))
658
((b))
601
((c))
500
((d))
468
((e))
397

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

658

Given:

841 ÷ 29 + 650 ÷ 5 + ? = 35% of 1600

Concept Used:

Calculation:

1023 ÷ 31 + 12500 ÷ 5 - ? = 75% of 2500

⇒ 33 + 2500 - ? = 75 × 25

⇒ ? = 2533 - 1875

⇒ ? = 658

∴ The value of (?) is 658.

What should come in the place of '?' in the following question?

√729 × 6 + 15 × 50% of 450 - 366 ÷ 3 = ?

((a))
2088
((b))
3415
((c))
3375
((d))
2812
((e))
3130

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

3415

Correct answer is: 2

Concept used:

The BODMAS rule should be followed to solve the question as per the given table;

Calculation:

√729 × 6 + 15 × 50% of 450 - 366 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 27 × 6 + 15 × 50/100 × 450 - 366 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 27 × 6 + 15 × 225 - 122 = ?

⇒ 162 + 3375 - 122 =?

⇒ 3537 - 122 = ?

⇒ ? = 3415

∴The value of ? is 3415

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

((4\frac{2}{3}-1\frac{{1}}{{3}}) \times( 3\frac{1}{2} -\frac{3}{8}) of \frac{2}{5}= ?)

((a))
(\frac{{25}}{{6}} )
((b))
(\frac{{25}}{{3}} )
((c))
(\frac{{25}}{{7}} )
((d))
(\frac{{23}}{{6}} )
((e))
Answer not known

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

(\frac{{25}}{{6}} )

Concept Used:

Calculation:

((4\frac{2}{3}-1\frac{{1}}{{3}}) \times( 3\frac{1}{2} -\frac{3}{8}) of \frac{2}{5}= ?)

⇒ ((\frac{14}{3}-\frac{{4}}{{3}}) \times( \frac{7}{2} -\frac{3}{8}) of \frac{2}{5}= ?)

⇒ ((\frac{{14-4}}{{3}}) \times(\frac{28 -3}{8}) of \frac{2}{5}= ?)

⇒ (\frac{{10}}{{3}} \times\frac{25}{8} of \frac{2}{5}= ?)

⇒ (\frac{{10}}{{3}} \times\frac{5}{4}= ?)

⇒ (\frac{{25}}{{6}} )

∴ The value of ? is (\frac{{25}}{{6}} )

What value can come in place of the 'x' in the question below?

14(\frac{2}{7}) + 39 + 26(\frac{5}{7}) - (\sqrt{x}) = (\sqrt{4096})

((a))
256
((b))
196
((c))
216
((d))
324
((e))
184

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

256

Given:

14(\frac{2}{7}) + 39 + 26(\frac{5}{7}) - (\sqrt{x}) = (\sqrt{4096})

Calculation:

⇒ 14(\frac{2}{7}) + 39 + 26(\frac{5}{7}) - (\sqrt{x}) = (\sqrt{4096})

⇒ (14(\frac{2}{7}) + 26(\frac{5}{7})) + 39 - (\sqrt{4096}) = (\sqrt{x})

⇒ [(14 + 26) + ((\frac{2}{7}) + (\frac{5}{7}))] + 39 - (\sqrt{4096}) = (\sqrt{x})

⇒ 40 + (\frac{7}{7}) + 39 - 64 = (\sqrt{x})

⇒ 40 + 1 + 39 - 64 = (\sqrt{x})

⇒ (\sqrt{x}) = 16

⇒ x = 16²

⇒ x = 256

∴ The value of 'x' is 256.

Abhishek got an amount of ₹ 1580, he spent this amount on rent, petrol, and food in the ratio (1/5) : (1/3) : (1/8). Find the amount spent on food if he left with no money after spending.

((a))
₹ 100
((b))
₹ 200
((c))
₹ 300
((d))
₹ 400
((e))
₹ 500

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

₹ 300

Given:

The amount that Abhishek got = ₹ 1580

Spending on rent, petrol, and food in terms of ratio = (1/5) : (1/3) : (1/8)

Concept used:

If ratio is in fraction = (1/a) : (1/b) : (1/c)

Then take the L.C.M of a, b & c

New ratio = bc : ac : ab

Calculation:

Take L.C.M of 5, 3, and 8

L.C.M = 120

New ratio of spending = 24 : 40 : 15

Total spending in terms of ratio = 24 + 40 + 15 = 79 units

Equating the total amount,

79 → ₹ 1580

⇒ 15 → (1580/79) × 15 = ₹ 300

∴ The amount spent on food is ₹ 300.

Two trains having lengths of 90 m and 110 m are running on parallel track in the same direction with slower trains running at a speed of 45 km/h. The train, having a length of 110 m, crosses a man in the slower train in 18 s. Find the speed of the faster train.

((a))
67 km/hour
((b))
72 km/hour
((c))
70 km/hour
((d))
66 km/hour
((e))
74 km/hour

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

67 km/hour

Given speed of slower train V1 = 45 km/h

Let the speed of faster train V2 = V km/h

Since both the trains are moving in parallel direction.

∴ Relative speed = V2 – V1 = V – 45

∴ To cross a man in the smaller train longer train has to cross it’s own length with relative speed

Time taken to cross the 110 m length = 18 s

Speed = Distance/Time

⇒ (V – 45) × (1000/3600) = 110/18 (since 1 km/h = (1000/3600) m/s)

⇒ V – 45 = (110/18) × (3600/1000) [(3600/1000) m/s = 1 km/h]

⇒ V – 45 = 22

⇒ V = 67 km/h

∴ Speed of longer train = 67 km/h

There are three people in a family, husband, wife, and their son. The husband's age is four times his son's age and the wife is 9 years younger than her husband. What is the ratio of the ages of husband, wife, and son if the sum of their ages is 99 years?

((a))
20 : 16 : 5
((b))
12 : 9 : 3
((c))
16 : 13 : 4
((d))
16 : 11 : 4
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

16 : 13 : 4

Given:

Husband's age = 4 × son's age

Wife's age = husband's age - 9

Sum of ages = 99 years

Calculation:

Let husband's age be 4x.

∴ Son's age = x, wife's age = 4x - 9

A.T.Q

4x + x + 4x -9 = 99 years

⇒ 9x = 108

⇒ x = 12 years

Husband's age = 12 × 4 = 48 years

Wife's age = 48 - 9 = 39 years

Required ratio = 48 : 39 : 12 = 16 : 13 : 4

∴ The ratio is 16 : 13 : 4

A man sells a bicycle at a marked price which is 50% more than the cost price and allows three successive discounts of 20%, 10%, and 5% respectively. If a profit of Rs 52 is earned on the bicycle. Then find at what price the shopkeeper should have sold the bicycle so that he can make a profit of 25%

((a))
₹ 2600
((b))
₹ 2300
((c))
₹ 2500
((d))
₹ 3000
((e))
₹ 2900

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

₹ 2500

Given:

Three successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 5% respectively.

Profit = ₹ 52

Concept Used:

Profit = S.P - C.P

Profit% = (Profit/C.P) × 100

Calculation:

Let C.P. of Cycle = ₹ 100x

M.P. of Cycle = ₹ 150x

S.P. of Cycle = 150x × (80/100) × (90/100) × (95/100)

⇒ ₹ 102.6x

According to the question

⇒ 102.6x - 100x = 52

⇒ x = 20

C.P. of Cycle = 100 × 20 = ₹ 2000

For 25% of profit

S.P. of Cycle = 2000 × (125/100)

⇒ ₹ 2500

∴ Price man sold the cycle to make a profit of 25% is ₹ 2500.

Time taken by A and B to complete a work is in the ratio 2 : 3. A alone worked for 5 days and left the work then B alone worked for 10 days on the same work, It is found than 70% of the work is completed. Find the time in which they together can complete the work.

((a))
10 days
((b))
15 days
((c))
8 days
((d))
200/13 days
((e))
12 days

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

10 days

Ratio of time taken by A and B to complete a work = 2 ∶ 3

∴ Ratio of efficiency of A and B = 3 ∶ 2

Let, efficiency of A = 3x/day and efficiency of B = 2x/day

Let, quantity of total work = a

According to problem,

⇒ 5 × 3x + 10 × 2x = 0.7a

⇒ 0.7a = 35x

⇒ a = 50x

Let, they together do the work in = y days

⇒ y × (3x + 2x) = 50x

⇒ y = 50x/5x

⇒ y = 10

∴ They together will complete the work in = 10 days

3 men can do a piece of work in 12 days, 5 women in 8 days and 20 children in 3 days. In how many days can a man, a woman and a child working together complete the piece of work?

((a))
12
((b))
13
((c))
19
((d))
18
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of these

3 men can do a piece of work in 12 days

1 man will do the same piece of work in 36 days

5 women will do the same piece of work in 8 days

1 woman will do the same piece of work in 40 days

20 children can do a piece of work in 3 days

1 child will do the same piece of work in 60 days

Now, (1 man + 1 woman + 1 child)’s 1 day work

(\frac{1}{{36}} + \frac{1}{{40}} + \frac{1}{{60}}=\frac{5}{{72}})

So, the work is complete in (\frac{{72}}{5} = 14\frac{2}{5}) days

The Compound interest earned on Rs. x in 3^rdyear is equal to the simple interest of 1 year on Rs. 33880. If the rate of compound interest is 10% per annum and the rate of simple interest is 25% per annum. Find the value of Rs x which was given on Compound Interest.

((a))
Rs. 44000
((b))
Rs. 45000
((c))
Rs. 68000
((d))
Rs. 70000
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Rs. 70000

Simple interest on Rs. 33880 at the rate of 25% for 1 year = (33880 × 25 × 1) /100 = Rs. 8470

Rate of Compound interest = 10%

Assume Rs. x = 1000

The chart for compound interest on Rs. 1000 for 3 years at the rate of 10% per annum will be as

Rs. 1000 (Principal)

1^st year 2^nd year 3^rd year

Rs. 100 Rs. 100 Rs. 100

Rs. 10 Rs. 10

Rs. 10

Rs. 1

Compound interest for 3^rd year = Rs. 100 + Rs. 10 + Rs. 10 + Rs. 1 = Rs. 121

But the compound interest is = Rs. 8470 (given)

⇒ 121y = 8470

⇒ y = 70

∴ The amount given on Compound interest = Rs. 1000 × 70 = Rs. 70000

A and B together invested Rs. 64000 for 4 years. A decreased the amount by Rs. 5000 each year and B increased the amount by Rs. 4000 each year. If the ratio of their profits is 13 : 12, find the amount (in Rs.) invested by A.

((a))
50000
((b))
60000
((c))
45000
((d))
55000
((e))
40000

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

40000

GIVEN:

Investment of A and B is Rs. 64000

A decreased the amount by Rs. 5000 each year and B increased the amount by Rs. 4000 each year

FORMULA USED:

Profit = Investment x time

ASSUMPTION :

Let the amount invested by A and B in the first year be a and b respectively.

⇒ a + b = Rs. 64000

CALCULATION :

According to the question,

A decreased the amount by Rs. 5000 each year and B increased the amount by Rs. 4000 each year

Amount invested by A in the four years = a + a – 5000 + a – 10000 + a – 15000 = 4a – 30000

Amount invested by B in the four years = b + b + 4000 + b + 8000 + b + 12000 = 4b + 24000

Ratio = (4a – 30000) : (4b + 24000) = a – 7500 : b + 6000

The ratio of their profits is 13 : 12

⇒ a – 7500 : b + 6000 = 13 : 12

⇒ a + b = 64000

Putting b = 64000 – a, we get

⇒ (a – 7500) : (64000 – a + 6000) = 13 : 12

⇒ (a – 7500)/(64000 – a + 6000) = 13/12

⇒ 12a – 12(7500) = 13(70000) - 13a

⇒ 25a = 1000000

⇒ a = 40000

∴ Amount invested by A is Rs. 40000

One container contains a mixture of spirit and water in the ratio 2 : 3 and another contains the mixture in the ratio 3 : 2. How much quantity from the second should be mixed with 10 litres of the first so that the resultant mixture has ratio of 4 : 5?

((a))
2.86 litres
((b))
3.45 litres
((c))
4.31 litres
((d))
5.67 litres
((e))
8.94 litres

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

2.86 litres

Quantity of first mixture taken = 10 litres

∴ Amount of spirit = 2/5 × 10 = 4 litres

⇒ Amount of water = 6 litres

Let the quantity of second mixture be x litres

∴ Amount of spirit = 3/5 × x = 3x/5 litres

⇒ Amount of water = 2x/5 litres

Now, total quantity of mixture = (10 + x) litres

∴ Amount of spirit = 4/9 × (10 + x) = 4(10 + x)/9 litres

Total spirit = spirit from first container + spirit from second container

∴ 4(10 + x)/9 = 4 + 3x/5

⇒ 20 × (10 + x) = 180 + 27x

⇒ 200 + 20x = 180 + 27x

⇒ 20 = 7x

⇒ x = 2.86 litres

In a class of 30 students, average marks obtained by them is 76. If the marks of two students were misread as 78 and 52 instead of the actual marks 82 and 60 respectively. What would be the correct average?

((a))
65.6
((b))
62.46
((c))
72.5
((d))
70
((e))
76.4

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

76.4

Given:

Total number of students = 30

Average marks of 30 students = 76

Formula used:

Average marks = total marks obtained by all students/number of students

Calculation:

Total marks obtained by 30 students = 76 × 30 = 2280

∵ Two marks were wrongly read, so we shall subtract wrong marks from total marks and then add actual marks in total marks

⇒ 2280 – (78+ 52) + (82 + 60)

⇒ 2280 – 130 + 142 = 2292

Actual correct marks = 2292

Now, the correct average = 2292/30 = 76.4

∴ The correct average is 76.4

Shortcut Trick Difference between the wrongly read and the actual marks

78 - 82 = - 4

52 - 60 = - 8

Total difference = - 12

Then, change in average marks = 76 + 12/30 = 76.4

For negative value we add in the average.

And for positive value we subtract in the average.

Directions: In the given Bar graph, the number of male and female participated in the voluntary work for helping the poor affected due to the lockdown from three district Chamba, Shimla, Kullu and Kangra in the month of April 2020.

What is the average number of male participants in the voluntary work from all four districts?

((a))
50
((b))
49
((c))
48
((d))
58
((e))
68

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given:

District	Male	Female
Chamba	42	30
Shimla	48	52
Kullu	46	60
Kangra	56	20

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observations/Number of observations

Calculation:

Total number of male participants from all district = 42 + 48 + 46 + 56 = 192

Average number of male participants = 192/4 = 48

∴ The average number of male participants in the voluntary work from all four districts are 48.

What is the ratio between the total number of male participants from Shimla and Kangra together and the total number of female participants from Chamba and Kullu together?

((a))
52 : 45
((b))
45 : 52
((c))
45 : 49
((d))
49 : 45
((e))
53 : 45

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

52 : 45

Given:

District	Male	Female
Chamba	42	30
Shimla	48	52
Kullu	46	60
Kangra	56	20

Calculation:

Total number of male participants from Shimla and Kangra = 48 + 56 = 104

Total number of female participants from Chamba and Kullu = 30 + 60 = 90

⇒ Required ratio = 104 : 90 = 52 : 45

∴ The ratio between the total number of male participants from Shimla and Kangra together and the total number of female participants from Chamba and Kullu together is 52 : 45.

Find the difference between the district having the maximum participation and the district having the minimum participation.

((a))
32
((b))
34
((c))
44
((d))
54
((e))
64

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given:

District	Male	Female
Chamba	42	30
Shimla	48	52
Kullu	46	60
Kangra	56	20

Calculation:

Total participation from the district Chamba = 42 + 30 = 72

Total participation from the district Shimla = 48 + 52 = 100

Total participation from the district Kullu = 46 + 60 = 106

Total participation from the district Kangra = 56 + 20 = 76

From the above districts, the participation from Kullu is maximum, and the participation from Chamba is minimum

⇒ The required difference = 106 – 72 = 34

∴ The difference between the district having the maximum participation and the district having the minimum participation is 34.

By what approximate percentage is the total number of female participants from district Chamba and Shimla together is more or less than the total number of male participants from district Kangra and Kullu together?

((a))
22%
((b))
20%
((c))
25%
((d))
18%
((e))
17%

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

20%

Given:

District	Male	Female
Chamba	42	30
Shimla	48	52
Kullu	46	60
Kangra	56	20

Formula used:

Percentage change = {(Final value – Initial value)/Initial value} × 100

Calculation:

Total number of female participants from district Chamba and Shimla = 30 + 52 = 82

Total number of male participants from district Kangra and Kullu = 46 + 56 = 102

⇒ Percentage change = {(102 – 82)/102} × 100

⇒ (20/102) × 100 = 19.60%

⇒ 19.60% ≈ 20%

∴ The required percentage is 20%.

By what approximate percentage is the number of female voluntary from district Kangra is less than the male voluntary from Shimla?

((a))
53.34%
((b))
55.34%
((c))
56.34%
((d))
57.34%
((e))
58.33%

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

58.33%

Given:

District	Male	Female
Chamba	42	30
Shimla	48	52
Kullu	46	60
Kangra	56	20

Formula used:

Percentage change = {(Final value – Initial value)/Initial value} × 100

Calculation:

Difference between the male voluntary from Shimla and female voluntary from Kangra = 48 – 20 = 28

⇒ Percentage change = {(28/48) × 100} = 58.33%

∴ The required percentage is 58.33%.

General Studies (25 questions)

The shortest day among all the planets in the solar system is on?

((a))
Jupiter
((b))
Saturn
((c))
Mercury
((d))
Neptune
((e))
None of The above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Jupiter

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Jupiter.

The planet Jupiter has the shortest day of all the eight major planets in the Solar System.
It spins around on its axis once every 9 hr 55 min 29.69 sec.
Jupiter has a small axial tilt of only 3.13 degrees, meaning it has little seasonal variation during its 11.86year-long orbit of the Sun.
In Saturn, one day is completed in 10h 42m.
In Mercury, one spin around its axis is completed in 1408 hours!
In Neptune, it's completed in 16 hours.

The longest river of Indian peninsula is

((a))
Kaveri
((b))
Narmada
((c))
Godavari
((d))
Krishna
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Godavari

The correct answer is Godavari.

Key Points

The Godavari is the longest river in peninsular India.
The Godavari, also known as 'Dakshin Ganga'- the South Ganga, is the longest river in peninsular India, and the second longest river in India after the Ganga.
It is also called Vridh Ganga.
It is the seasonal river that normally dries and widens during the monsoons during the summers.
The river originates from Trimbakeshwar, in Maharashtra, near Nasik.

Additional Information

Kaveri:

It is the lifeblood of both Karnataka and Tamil-Nadu covering a large distance from the Western Ghats, it joins the Bay of Bengal in the east of India
It is the fourth largest river in South India.

Narmada:

It is also known as Reva and previously also known as Narbada or anglicized as Nerbudda.
It is the 5th largest river in India.

Krishna:

It is located in Deccan Plateau.
It is the 3rd largest river in south India

Map of Peninsular river

Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador visited the court of

((a))
Ashoka
((b))
Samudragupta
((c))
Skandgupta
((d))
Chandragupta Maurya
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Chandragupta Maurya

Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador visited the court of Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

Megasthenes was an ancient Greek historian, diplomat, and explorer in the Hellenistic period.
Between 302 and 288 BC, Megasthenes travelled to India as an ambassador for Seleucus I Nikator.
During the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Maurya dynasty, Megasthenes paid a visit to Pataliputra, the Maurya capital.
In his book Indica, he described about India.
Famous Greek authors including Arrian, Strabo, Diodorus, and Pliny mentioned about Indica in their writings.
The Indian subcontinent was described by Indica as a quadrilateral-shaped country, bounded on the southern and eastern sides by the ocean.
It also includes information on India's soils, rivers, plants, animals, administration, and social and religious life.
His book also stated that at the time, Indians worshipped Lord Krishna and that there were seven castes in India.
Endogamy and hereditary occupation are two significant components of the Indian caste system that he established.

Therefore, we can conclude that Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador visited the court of Chandragupta Maurya.

The Delhi Sultan who transferred the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Devagiri) was

((a))
Qutbuddin Aibak
((b))
Iltutmish
((c))
Muhammad-bin Tughlaq
((d))
Firoz shah Tughlaq
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Muhammad-bin Tughlaq

The correct answer is Muhammad-bin Tughlaq.

Important Points

In 1329 AD, Muhammad-bin Tughlaq shifted his capital from Delhi to the more centrally located Devagiri in Maharashtra, which was renamed Daulatabad.
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq is known as a “Man of Ideas” and can be said one of the most striking sultans of medieval India.
Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq succeeded his father, Ghyasuddin Tughlaq, and extended the kingdom beyond India, into Central Asia.
He is known for the idea of a Central Capital and experiments with a nominal token Currency.
"Diwan-e-Amirkohi" was the Department of agriculture introduced by Muhammad bin Tughluq.
His Five Disastrous Projects are:
Taxation in the Doab.
Transfer of Capital.
Khurasan Expedition.
Quarachi Expedition.
Introduction of Token Currency.
He died in Thatta while battling in Sindh against Taghi, a Turkish slave.

Additional Information

Qutbuddin Aibak

- He was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who became the ruler after the death of his master, founded the Slave Dynasty. - He was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate and also the founder of the Slave dynasty. - He was a great builder who built the majestic 238 feet high stone tower known as Qutub Minar in Delhi. - In 1210, Qutb-ud-din Aibak died in an accident while he was playing polo. He fell from the horseback and was severely injured.

Iltutmish

- He is known as “slave of a slave”. - He was the slave and the successor of Qutubbuddin Aibak. - He launched the silver tanka and the copper jital as the regular currency. - Iltutmish started the system of Iqtadari. - Chahalgani or chalisa was formed by Iltutmish. - He was the first to make Delhi the capital.

Firoz Shah Tughlaq

- He was the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty after the death of Mohammad-bin Tughlaq. - He imposed Jizya tax on all non-Muslims and did not even exempt Brahmins and beggers as done by his predecessors. - He built Feroz Shah Kotla (Kotla means fortress), peppered Delhi with gardens, constructed canals, hunting lodges, and repaired Qutub Minar, Hauz Khas (royal tank), and Surajkund (lake of the Sun).

In which year SAARC was formed?

((a))
1970
((b))
1975
((c))
1985
((d))
1990
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1985

The correct answer is 1985.

Key Points

SAARC was founded on 8 December 1985 in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
The full form of SAARC is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
Member states Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
Headquarters: Kathmandu, Nepal.
Secretary general: Esala Weerakoon.
The 2020 SAARC Summit will take place in Islamabad. Pakistan.

Additional Information

List of some important organization

Organization	Founded	Headquarters
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)	8 August 1967	Jakarta, Indonesia
Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)	6 June 1997	Dhaka, Bangladesh
BRICS (Brazil Russia India China South Africa)	June 2006	Shanghai, China
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)	4 April 1949	Brussels, Belgium
Organization of Islamic Cooperation	25 September 1969	Jeddah, Saudi Arabia
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation	November 1989	Singapore
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)	15 June 2001	Beijing, China

Aizawl is the capital of which Indian state?

((a))
Manipur
((b))
Tripura
((c))
Mizoram
((d))
Arunachal Pradesh
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Mizoram

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

The largest city in the state, Aizawl is the capital of the state of Mizoram in India.
Aizawl was officially established on 25 February 1890.

Additional Information

The capital of Manipur is Imphal. It is the birthplace of polo, the sport, and the birthplace of Ras Lila, a classical dance form.
Tripura is a hilly state in northeast India, bordered on 3 sides by Bangladesh, and home to a diverse mix of tribal cultures and religious groups.
Arunachal Pradesh became a full-fledged State on 20th February 1987. Till 1972, it was known as the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA). It gained the Union Territory status on 20 January 1972 and renamed as Arunachal Pradesh.

Kanha National Park is located in which of the following states?

((a))
Gujarat
((b))
Uttar Pradesh
((c))
Madhya Pradesh
((d))
Rajasthan
((e))
Assam

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

The Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh came into being in 1955 and forms the core of the Kanha Tiger Reserve, created in 1974 under Project Tiger.
The Park's landmark achievement is the preservation of the rare hardground Swamp Deer (Barasingha), saving it from near extinction.
The State animal of Madhya Pradesh - Hard Ground Barasingha
The lush sal and bamboo forests, grassy meadows, and ravines of Kanha provided inspiration to Rudyard Kipling for his famous novel "Jungle Book".

Important Points

In 1972, a comprehensive Wildlife Act was enacted, which provides the main legal framework for the conservation and protection of wildlife in India.
The two main objectives of the Act are
To provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of the Act.
To provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as National parks, sanctuaries, and closed areas.
This Act has been comprehensively amended in 1991, making punishments more stringent, and has also made provisions for the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild animals.
There are 103 National parks and 535 wildlife sanctuaries in the country.

Bronze is mainly made of which metal?

((a))
Zinc
((b))
Copper
((c))
Cobalt
((d))
Iron
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Copper

The correct answer is Copper.

Key Points

Bronze is an alloy of Copper and tin.
One of the first alloys made by humans was bronze.
Bronze is the mixture of the metals tin and copper.

Alloy	Metals
Brass	Copper, Zinc
Bronze	Copper, Tin
Steel	Iron, Carbon
Invar	Iron, Nickel
Electrum	Gold, Silver
Gun Metal	Copper, Tin, Zinc
Fuse Wire	Lead, Tin
Alnico	Aluminium, Nickel, Cobalt, Iron
Magnalium	Aluminium. Magnesium

Who among the following publishes the Economic Survey of India?

((a))
Institute of finance
((b))
National Development Council
((c))
Indian Statistical Institute
((d))
Ministry of Finance
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ministry of Finance

The Correct Answer is Option 4 i.e Ministry of Finance.

National Development Council:
It is the apex body for decision creating and deliberations on development matters in India.
It is presided over by the Prime Minister.
Economic Survey of India:
It is a flagship annual report of the Ministry of Finance.
The department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of finance presents the survey in parliament every year, just before the union budget.
It is prepared under the guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser of India.
The survey is a detailed report of the country's economic performance during the past year.
It is released every year before the Budget.

‘Light year’ is a unit of measurement for which of the following?

((a))
Illumination
((b))
Time
((c))
Total solar energy incident on the earth in a year
((d))
Distance
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Distance

Light year is a unit of distance, which is equal to the distance light travels in one year.
It is about 951 Trillion kilometres.
It is mainly used to measure the distance between celestial bodies of very far distances.
There are approximately 9.4×1015 meters in a light year.
Parsec is its preferred unit.
Light travels approximately one foot in a nanosecond.
A light year contains 0.3066016 parsecs.

Which of the following was a port city of the Indus Valley Civilization?

((a))
Rakhigarhi
((b))
Dholavira
((c))
Kalibangan
((d))
Lothal
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Lothal

Lothal is a port city in Gujarat, located on the banks of the Bhogava River, a right tributary of the Sabarmati River.
It had the earliest known dock in the world, used mainly for trade purposes in the Indus Valley Civilization.
Lothal is situated in the Ahmedabad District in modern Gujarat.
It is considered a port town according to the Archaeological Survey of India.

What is the full form of CNG?

((a))
Carbon natural gas
((b))
Compressed natural gas
((c))
Composed natural gas
((d))
Carbon Nitrogen Gas
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Compressed natural gas

The correct answer is Compressed Natural Gas.

Key Points

The major component of bio-gas and Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is Methane.
Bio-CNG contains about 92-98 % of methane and only 2-8 % carbon dioxide.
The high methane content and calorific value combined with the low quantity of moisture, hydrogen sulphide and impurities makes Bio-CNG an ideal fuel for automobiles and power generation.
Compressed natural gas is a fuel that can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).
CNG is made by compressing natural gas, which is mainly composed of methane (CH4).

Additional Information

Fuel Gases	Major component	Uses
Compressed natural gas (CNG)	Methane Ethane	- Can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)
Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)	Butane Propane	- LPG is used for cooking. - An alternative to electric heating, heating oil, or kerosene. - As it is odourless so Methyl Mercaptan is added to it so there may be a smell if LPG leaks from its storage container.

Which of the following is an example of an Artificial magnet?

((a))
A bar magnet
((b))
Horse - shoe magnet
((c))
Cylindrical magnet
((d))
Electromagnet
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the above

CONCEPT:

Magnet: A magnet is an object that has a magnetic field. A magnet attracts or repels other magnets or magnetic materials.
When two magnets are brought together, the opposite poles will attract one another, but the like poles will repel one another.
A natural magnet is nothing but an ore of iron that attracts small pieces of iron, nickel, and cobalt towards it.

EXPLANATION:

Artificial magnets can be either temporary or permanent. Temporary magnets are magnets that aren't usually magnetic but can become magnetic when needed. Magnets that never lose their magnetic pull are said to be permanent magnets.
Bar magnets, Horseshoe magnets, Cylindrical Magnets & Electromagnets are examples of artificial magnets.
Electromagnets are temporary and artificial magnets.

Additional Information

A magnet that naturally occurs in nature is known as a natural magnet. Because they are all permanent magnets, natural magnets never lose their magnetic properties.
In numerous locations around the world, sand deposits contain natural magnets. Lodestone, commonly known as magnetite, is a substance that makes a strong natural magnet.

Which country held the third position in the FIFA World Cup held in 2022

((a))
France
((b))
Croatia
((c))
Portugal
((d))
Argentina
((e))
Morocco

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Croatia

The correct answer is Croatia.

Key Points

Croatia finished its FIFA World Cup 2022 campaign by beating Morocco 2-1 to take the third place.
Argentina defeated France 4-2 on penalties to win their third World Cup, after 36 years on 19 December 2022.
Golden Ball was awarded to Lionel Messi.
He also got this award in 2014.
With eight goals, Kylian Mbappe was awarded the Golden boot.
Enzo Fernandez is awarded the Young Player of the Tournament award.
While the goalkeeper of the tournament was given to Emiliano Martinez.

Additional Information

Other Sports News:
Indian swimmer Chahat Arora set a national record in the women's 100-metre breaststroke at the FINA World Swimming Championships 2022 in Melbourne, Australia on 14 Dec 2022.
Men's badminton world number one Viktor Axelsen won the men's singles title after defeating Indonesian ace Anthony Ginting at the season-ending World Tour Finals in Bangkok on 11 December 2022.
Indian swimmer Siva Sridhar broke the national record in the men’s 200m individual medley heats at the Short Course World Championships in Melbourne on 13 Dec 2022.
Manu Bhaker bagged a gold medal in the 10-metre pistol junior women's event at the National Shooting Championship in Bhopal.

Who is Science and Technology Minister of India?

((a))
Harsh Vardhan
((b))
Dr Jitendra Singh
((c))
Kiran Bedi
((d))
Smriti Irani
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Dr Jitendra Singh

The correct answer is Dr Jitendra Singh.

Key Points

Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh inaugurated north India’s first Industrial Biotech Park at Ghatti, Kathua, Jammu, on 28 May'22.
The park would act as hub for incubation of new ideas and will act as a robust platform to support the agri-entrepreneurs, startups, progressive farmers, etc.
It will carry out research on biodiversity, medicinal and aromatic plants of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

Additional Information

Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh inaugurated India’s ‘First Lavender Festival' in Bhaderwah, J&K, on 26 May 2022.
The 2 days Lavender Festival 2022 is being conducted under Union Government's Aroma Mission 2.
The country’s first National Institute of High Altitude Medicine is also being built in Bhaderwah.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the 540 Megawatt (MW) Kwar Hydro Electric Project located on river Chenab, in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir.

The national pension scheme (NPS) is administered and regulated by?

((a))
NABARD
((b))
IRDAI
((c))
CRA
((d))
RBI
((e))
PFRDA

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

PFRDA

The correct answer is Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).

Key Points

The National Pension System (NPS) is a voluntary defined contribution pension system in India.
National Pension System, like PPF and EPF, is an EEE (Exempt-Exempt-Exempt) instrument in India where the entire corpus escapes tax at maturity and the entire pension withdrawal amount is tax-free.
NPS started with the decision of the Government of India to stop defined benefit pensions for all its employees who joined after 1 January 2004.
It is administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
On 10 December 2018, the Government of India made NPS an entirely tax-free instrument in India where the entire corpus escapes tax at maturity; the 40% annuity also became tax-free.

Important Points

While the scheme was initially designed for government employees only, it was opened up for all citizens of India between the age of 18 and 65 in 2009, for OCI cardholders and PIOs in October 2019.

After Independence, which leader helped in unification of States earning him the title of Iron Man of India?

((a))
Jawaharlal Nehru
((b))
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
((c))
Rabindranath Tagore
((d))
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

The key factors that led the states to accept integration into India were, the efforts of Lord Mountbatten, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and V. P. Menon.
Patel was the political head of the States Department, which was in charge of relations with the princely states.
At the time of the Partition of India in 1947, there were 565 ;Princely States.
The 26th Constitutional Amendment abolished the purses and privileges of all rulers of the princely states. It took place in the year of 1971.

The oldest oil refinery in India Digboi was established when

((a))
1911
((b))
1937
((c))
1879
((d))
1925
((e))
1901

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

1901

The correct answer is 1901.

Digboi oil refinery was established by Assam Oil Company Limited at Digboi on 11th Dec 1901.
It is Asia's oldest and longest operating oil refinery.

Key Points

The installed capacity at Digboi oil refinery was 0.50 million metric tons per annum but production capacity was enhanced at about 0.65 million metric tons per year.
The refinery also has a wax-making unit from crude oil.
This refinery has been improved over time and several steps have been taken to improve it.
The historic Digboi Refinery is also called the "Gangotri of the Indian Hydrocarbon Sector".

What is the new name of ‘Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Ko Kaam Karyakram (PMKKK)’?

((a))
Pradhan Mantri Virat Ka Samvardhan
((b))
Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samrthan
((c))
Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan
((d))
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Ka Samvardhan
((e))
None of above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan

The correct answer is 'Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)'.

Key Points

In a written reply to a question in the Lok Sabha on December 15, Minister of Minority Affairs Smriti Zubin Irani informed that the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Ko Kaam Karyakram (PMKKK) has now been named as Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) Scheme.
The integrated scheme converges five erstwhile schemes of the Ministry viz. Seekho aur Kamao, USTTAD, Hamari Dharohar, Nai Roshni and Nai Manzil.
The scheme has been approved by the Cabinet for the period of 15th Finance Commission.
PM VIKAS aims to improve livelihoods of the minorities, particularly the artisan communities, using the components of skill development, education, women leadership & entrepreneurship.
These components compliment each other in the ultimate objective of the scheme to increase the incomes of the beneficiaries and provide support by facilitating credit and market linkages.

Additional Information

Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) is an umbrella scheme that converges five of the existing schemes of the Ministry namely Seekho aur Kamao, USTTAD, Hamari Dharohar, Nai Roshni and Nai Manzil.
The Ministry of Minority Affairs implements Seekho Aur Kamao, and USTTAD schemes for socio-economic empowerment of minorities in the country. Seekho Aur Kamao scheme (Learn and Earn) is a placement-linked skill development scheme that was launched in September 2013 and aims to upgrade the skills of minority youth (14-45 years) in various modern/ traditional skills.
USTTAD scheme was launched in 2015 and targets capacity building and upgrading the traditional skills of master craftsmen/ artisans from the minority communities.

Which of these are not required during the Photosynthesis process

((a))
Cholorophyll
((b))
Oxygen
((c))
Carbon Dioxide
((d))
Water
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Oxygen

The correct answer is Oxygen.

Key Points

Oxygen is not required for photosynthesis.
Oxygen is liberated during photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis is the process through which green plants manufacture food by converting solar energy into chemical energy. In this process, water and carbon dioxide react in the presence of sunlight to give off oxygen and glucose molecules.
Leaves of a plant contain green colour due to the presence of chloroplasts.
Chloroplasts contain the green substance called chlorophyll.
Chlorophyll absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis.

7th Edition of the India Water Impact Summit held at

((a))
New Delhi
((b))
Dehradoon
((c))
Varanasi
((d))
Kanpur
((e))
Nashik

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

New Delhi

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

The 7th edition of the India Water Impact Summit concluded on 17 December 2022.
The theme of the 7th India Water Impact Summit (IWIS 2022) was ‘Restoration and Conservation of Small Rivers in a Large Basin’.
Experts from the water, environment and administrative sectors consented to an urgent need of forming a National River Framework in the country.

Important Points

The valedictory session was presided over by Shri G. Asok Kumar, Director General, National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG).
On the concluding day of the Summit, Session A3 was centred on the ‘Formulation and Execution of River Monitoring Programmes’.
The objective of the session was to determine challenges in river restoration and conservation programmes.
Session E2 was on the ‘Impact of Land use on Rejuvenation of Small Rivers’.
Representatives of the European Union, Norway, Germany and Slovenia participated in the discussion on the international track at the summit.

What is the annual premium of Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) ?

((a))
35
((b))
200
((c))
49
((d))
40
((e))
20

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is 'The Premium is just Rs. 20 per annum for each policyholder.'

Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a government scheme launched on 9th May 2015 by PM Narendra Modi.
It intends to provide an affordable insurance scheme for the poor and underprivileged people in the age group of 18 to 70 years with a bank account at a premium of Rs.20 per annum; risk coverage of Rs.2 lakh for accidental death and full disability and Rs.1 lakh for partial disability.
As per the latest PIB release, about 41.50 per cent of enrolment under this scheme belong to women, and 61.29 percent of claim beneficiaries are women.
Some of the benefits provided by the scheme are mentioned below:
The Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana offers a life cover of Rs. 2 lakhs for one year to all its account holders. This life cover is provided in case of accidental death or permanent disability.
A life cover of Rs. 1 lakh is provided to the beneficiary in case of partial disability.
This scheme can be availed by any individual aged between 18 years to 70 years.
In case of the death of the account holder, the benefits of the scheme can be availed by his/her nominee.
The scheme provides an annual premium of Rs. 20 per annum per member. This premium is auto-debited in one instalment on or before 1st June of every year.

Which country ranks top in the Henley passport Index 2022?

((a))
Finland
((b))
India
((c))
Afghanistan
((d))
Japan
((e))
USA

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Japan

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

As per Henley Passport Index 2022, Japan's passport is the most powerful in the world.
Singapore and South Korea held onto the joint second position in the latest ranking, while Germany and Spain shared third place.
Afghanistan and Iraq continue to be in the 'worst passports to hold' category.

Important Points

The Henley Passport Index is the original ranking of all the world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa.
It was originally created by Dr. Christian H. Kaelin.
This ranking is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), which maintains the world’s largest and most accurate database of travel information.
It was launched in 2006 and includes 199 different passports.

Additional Information

In 2023, India's position in the Hensley passport index is 85th.
India has been ranked 83rd in the most powerful passport report ‘Henley Passport Index 2022(for the first quarter of 2022)’. climbing six places from the 90th rank in 2021.

What is Make in India 2.0 main motive?

((a))
Build Artificial Intelligence
((b))
Decrease Imports
((c))
Raise in service sector growth
((d))
Raise in manufacturing sector growth
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Raise in manufacturing sector growth

The correct answer is Raise in manufacturing sector growth.

Key Points

Make in India 2.0

It presently focuses on 27 sectors with a special focus on ten champion sectors including
capital goods
Auto
Defence
Pharma
renewable energy
Biotechnology
Chemicals
Leather
Textiles
food processing.
These sectors have the potential to become global champions and drive double-digit growth in manufacturing.
In manufacturing, the action plans are coordinated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
In services, action plans are coordinated by the Department of Commerce.

Thus, B is the correct answer.

100

What do the first four alphabetic characters of the IFSC code represent?

((a))
Branch name
((b))
Bank's name
((c))
Bank's GST
((d))
Bank's code
((e))
Bank's head office name

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Bank's name

The correct answer is Bank's name.

Key Points

IFSC:

Indian Financial System Code (IFSC) is an 11 digit alpha-numeric code used to uniquely identify bank branches within the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) network by the central bank.
It is used by electronic payment system applications such as Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), NEFT, and Centralized Funds Management System (CFMS).
This code is mandatory for fund transfers from one bank to another.
Every bank branch will have a unique code and no two branches will ever be the same.
In an IFSC, the first 4 alphabetic characters of the IFSC represent the bank and the last 6 digits represent the branch; the 5th digit is zero.
For example, in State Bank of India's 11 digits IFSC, the first 4 letters will be 'SBIN', and the last 6 digits will represent a specific branch code.

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