Official Paper

FCI AG III Memory Based Question Paper (Held on: 14th January 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

English Language (25 questions)

Read the sentence given below to find out if it contains an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. if the sentence is error free, select No error or option 5.

Lower class (A) being poor was (B) not a problem (C) for the upper class. (D) No Error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The primary error in the sentence is the omission of the definite article "The" before the noun phrase "lower class."
When referring to specific social strata or collective groups (like lower, middle, or upper class), the definite article is required to denote the group as a whole.
The correct phrase should be "The lower class," which provides parallel structure with "the upper class" mentioned later in the sentence.
Thus, the error is located in part A of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Sentence: "The lower class being poor was not a problem for the upper class."

Additional Information

B: "being poor was" – This part is correct; the gerund phrase acts as the subject, and the singular verb "was" is appropriate.
C: "not a problem" – This is a standard idiomatic expression and is grammatically correct.
D: "for the upper class." – This part is correct and demonstrates the proper use of the definite article "the" before a social class.
No error – This option is incorrect because the lack of an article in part A constitutes a grammatical error.

Read the sentence below to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors in punctuation if any).

Their most significant gains (A)/ have been in the north half of the country, (B)/ a traditional stronghold of the U.S. allied (C)/ warlords who helped defeat them in 2001**(D)**/ No Error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The Correct answer is Option B

The error is B part of the sentence.
In the given sentence word north is giving additional information 'regarding half of the country'
Hence adverb form of North needs to be used, here North is to be replaced with 'Northern'

Correct answer - Their most significant gains have been in the northern half of the country, a traditional stronghold of the U.S. allied warlords who helped defeat them in 2001*.***

Mr. Rawat quit on Friday evening ostensible on (A)/ being unable to get elected to the Uttarakhand Assembly (B)/ within the constitutionally stipulated (C)/ deadline of six months from the date he took over. (D)/ No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The Correct answer is Option A

Error is in part one of the sentence, use of 'ostensible' is incorrect.
In the given statement it should in the form of adverb.
Hence 'Ostensible' should be replaced with 'ostensibly'.

Correct answer - Mr. Rawat quit on Friday evening ostensibly on being unable to get elected to the Uttarakhand Assembly within the constitutionally stipulated deadline of six months from the date he took over.

In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

He knocked out (A)/ four tooths of his assailant (B)/ with a single punch (C)/ that night (D)/.

((a))
(A)
((b))
(B)
((c))
(C)
((d))
(D)
((e))
No error

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

(B)

The correct answer is '(B)'.

Key Points

Reading the sentence we find that:

The plural tooths used in part B is incorrect.
The correct plural form of tooth is teeth.

The correct sentence will be: He knocked out four teeth of his assailant with a single punch that night.

Additional Information

Certain nouns become plural by changing their vowels.
For e.g., - Foot/feet, goose/geese, tooth/teeth

Three men were arrested for alleged (A)/ impersonating civic body officials (B)/ and extorting money from shopkeepers (C) /in east Delhi’s Mansarovar Park, the police said on Sunday. (D)/. No Error. (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The Correct answer is option A

Key Points

Error is in part A of the sentence.
The word 'alleged' is giving additional information regarding 'impersonating civic body officials'
Here we need to use the adverb of 'Alleged' i.e 'Allegedly'

Correct answer - Three men were arrested for allegedly impersonating civic body officials and extorting money from shopkeepers in east Delhi’s Mansarovar Park, the police said on Sunday.

In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

With a bag-less vacum (A) cleaner, you need to shake out the dust, dirt, hair, and food particles (B) into another trash receptacle (C), and it's not the easiest process (D) out there.

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
No error

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 'vacum '.

Key Points

The word 'vacum' has been incorrectly spelled in the given sentence.
The correct spelling and its meaning has been listed below -
vacuum - a space or container from which the air has been completely or partly removed. A 'vacuum cleaner' is an electrical apparatus that by means of suction collects dust and small particles from floors and other surfaces.
Example - There is no such thing really as a vacuum, any more than there are atoms or ultimate indivisible particles.

You'll have to do a lot more stooping when you use an upright vacuum cleaner.

Additional Information

The following are the meanings of the other highlighted words in the given sentence -

particles - the least possible amount.
receptacle - a hollow object used to contain something.
process - a series of actions or steps taken in order to achieve a particular end.

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled or contextually inappropriate. Find the misspelled/inappropriate word.

Retail (A) inflation alike (B) eased below 7% in October, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das said on Saturday, in conversation (C) with R Sukumar, editor-in-chief, of Hindustan Times at the Hindustan Times Leadership (D) Summit(E) 2022.

((a))
Retail
((b))
Alike
((c))
Conversation
((d))
Leadership
((e))
Summit

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Alike

The correct answer is 'B'.

Key Points

The emboldened words are explained in detail as follows:
Retail: To sell (goods, commodities, etc) to the public in small proportions.
Alike: Similar to each other.
Likely: Probably, Mostly, Most of the time, Almost definite.
Leadership: The set of characteristics that make a good leader.
Summit: Conclave, A large gathering of people for an event.
Thus, after understanding the meanings we can say that the word 'alike' is inappropriate as per context of the given sentence and must be replaced with the word 'likely' to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: Retail inflation likely eased below 7% in October, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das said on Saturday, in conversation with R Sukumar, editor-in-chief, Hindustan Times at the Hindustan Times Leadership Summit 2022.

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

In 2021, the JPC suggested multiple amendments(A) to its re-worded Data Protection Bill, 2021, which privilaged(B) state exceptionalism(C) over individual(D) privacy, while continuing(E) to strictly regulate corporate action.

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Amendments' means Minor changes or additions designed to improve a text, piece of legislation, etc.
'Privilaged': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Privileged' means Having special rights, advantages, or immunities.
'Exceptionalism' means The belief that something is exceptional.
'Individual' means Single; separate.
'Continuing' means Without a break in continuity; ongoing.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: In 2021, the JPC suggested multiple amendments to its re-worded Data Protection Bill, 2021, which privileged state exceptionalism over individual privacy, while continuing to strictly regulate corporate action.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Privileged' are "Fortunate, Special, Elite".
Example of 'Privileged' in a sentence:
She had privileged access to the files.

In the following sentence, some parts have been printed in bold. One of the bold parts is incorrectly spelt. Pick up that part and choose its number. If there is no error in the bold parts, choose option 5- no error as the answer.

While a moderate amount of stress can be beneficial, too much stress can exhast you.

((a))
moderate
((b))
exhast
((c))
beneficial
((d))
stress
((e))
No error

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

exhast

The correct answer is exhast.

Key Points

In the sentence, out of all the bold parts 'exhast' is the word that has no meaning.
So, 'exhast' is incorrectly spelt word.
The correct spelling is 'exhaust' which means make (someone) feel very tired.

Additional Information

Let us know the meanings of other words:
moderate - kept or keeping within reasonable or proper limits; not extreme, excessive, or intense
beneficial - resulting in good; favourable or advantageous.
stress - pressure or tension exerted on a material object.

So, the correct sentence is - While a moderate amount of stress can be beneficial, too much stress can exhaust you.

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

AU Small Finance Bank Limited is an Indian Small finance bank, based in Jaipur, India. It was founded as vehicle finance company AU Financiers (India) Ltd in 1996 and converted to a small finance bank on 19 April 2017. AU Small Finance Bank serves low and middle-income individuals and micro and small businesses that have limited or no access to formal banking and finance channels. The Bank offers loans, deposits, and payment products and services. AU Small Finance Bank ranked 355 in the list of Fortune India 500 (2019) companies, with annual revenue of ₹3,410.87 crore (US $427 million) and Total B/S Assets of ₹31,198.68 crores (US$ 3.9 billion). AU Bank enjoys a long-term credit rating of “AA-/Stable” from CRISIL Ratings, ICRA Ratings, India Ratings, and CARE Ratings.

The company was founded by Sanjay Agarwal (managing director and CEO of AU Small Finance Bank) as a private limited company, and publicly listed in an IPO on 29 June 2017. A merit holder Chartered Accountant and a first-generation entrepreneur, he holds ~28.5% stake in the Bank. He is supported by a team of 23,486 employees. AU Small Finance Bank is listed on NSE & BSE with a market capitalization of ~Rs. 37,942 crore. On its first day of trading, the stock rose 51% to be the most expensive bank in India based on price-to-book. In November 2017, the Reserve Bank of India added the bank to its schedule of commercial banks, further improving the bank's growth prospects by reducing the cost of short-term funds and improving the bank's ability to provide services.

Over the years, the Bank has attracted marquee investors like IFC, Warburg Pincus, Temasek Holdings, Nomura, Kotak Mahindra MF, etc. Private equity companies that provided venture capital, including Warburg Pincus and International Finance Corporation, made partial exits for as much as nine times their original investment.

Due to its history as a vehicle finance company, as of March 2018 almost all the loans made by AU Small Finance Bank were secured, unlike most small finance banks that have unsecured loans due to their background in microfinance. This provides lower yields (lower interest rates) than unsecured loans, so the bank has been particularly active in growing its deposits, as bank deposits have a lower cost than other sources of funds. It has also sought to diversify into savings products like deposits, payment/transaction banking, distribution of third-party products, and additional loan products thereby positioning itself as a holistic financial products and services provider.

As on June 30, 2021, AU Small Finance Bank's distribution network _______ 758 Banking Touchpoints and 23,486 employees spread contiguously across 15 states and two Union Territories with over 2 million customers. The bank has operations in 15 states and two union territories, with Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh being key states. It is one of the largest banks by a number of locations in its home state of Rajasthan.

Choose the antonym of the word 'Limited'.

((a))
Determinate
((b))
Defined
((c))
Restricted
((d))
Circumscribed
((e))
Ample

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Ample

The correct answer is 'Ample.'

Key Points

The word 'Limited' means Restricted in size, amount, or extent; few, small, or short.
Example: She has limited mobility in her arms.
Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Determinate - Having exact and discernible limits or forms.
Example: We know that authors work within determinate social and cultural conditions*.*
Defined - Having a definite outline or specification; precisely marked or stated.
Example: They have to play inside the defined boundaries.
Restricted - Limited in extent, number, scope, or action.
Example: Admission is restricted to members only.
Circumscribed - To restrict something within limits.
Example: His activities have been severely circumscribed since his illness.
Ample - Enough or more than enough; plentiful.
Example: There'll be ample opportunity to relax, swim and soak up some sun.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 5.

Additional Information

The antonyms of the word 'Limited' are "Ample, Indefinite, Infinite".
The synonyms of the word 'Limited' are "Determinate, Defined, Restricted".

Choose the antonym of the word 'Expensive'.

((a))
Economical
((b))
Extortionate
((c))
Extravagant
((d))
Valuable
((e))
Exorbitant

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Economical

The correct answer is 'Economical.'

Key Points

The word 'Expensive' means Costing a lot of money.
Example: She was wearing an expensive new outfit.
Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Economical - Cheap; inexpensive.
Example: My new car is economical in fuel.
Extortionate - Much too high; exorbitant.
Example: The price of books nowadays is extortionate.
Extravagant - Exceeding what is reasonable or appropriate; excessive or elaborate.
Example: He had a wildly extravagant lifestyle.
Valuable - Worth a great deal of money.
Example: He spent hours bargaining for the valuable watch.
Exorbitant - Unreasonably high; expensive.
Example: The price of food here is exorbitant.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 1.

Additional Information

The antonyms of the word 'Expensive' are "Economical, Cheap, Inexpensive".
The synonyms of the word 'Expensive' are "Extortionate, Extravagant, Exorbitant".

How much approx stake does the founder of AU Small Finance Bank have in AU Small Finance Bank?

((a))
51% stake.
((b))
28.5% stake.
((c))
37.97% stake.
((d))
10% stake.
((e))
49.23% stake.

×

duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 3,4

×

duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 3,4

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

28.5% stake.

The correct answer is '28.5% stake.'

Key Points

The second sentence of the second paragraph says "A merit holder Chartered Accountant and a first-generation entrepreneur, he holds ~28.5% stake in the Bank.''
From the above sentence, we can say that the founder of AU Small Finance Bank has approx 28.5% stake in AU Small Finance Bank.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

Which of the following is/are correct according to the given passage?

A. Most small finance banks have unsecured loans due to their background in microfinance.

B. The AU Small Finance Bank has operations in five states and two union territories.

C. AU Small Finance Bank is still not listed on NSE & BSE.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Both A and B
((c))
Only B

×

duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 1,3
((d))
Both B and C
((e))
Only C

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only A

The correct answer is 'Only A.'

Key Points

The first sentence of the fourth paragraph says "Due to its history as a vehicle finance company, as of March 2018 almost all the loans made by AU Small Finance Bank were secured, unlike most small finance banks that have unsecured loans due to their background in microfinance.''
From the above sentence, we can say that statement A is correct according to the given passage.
The second sentence of the fifth paragraph says "The bank has operations in 15 states and two union territories, with Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh being key states'' and the fourth sentence of the second paragraph says "AU Small Finance Bank is listed on NSE & BSE with a market capitalization of ~Rs. 37,942 crore''.
From the above sentence, we can say that statements B and C are incorrect according to the given passage.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 1.

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: ''As on June 30, 2021, AU Small Finance Bank's distribution network _______ 758 Banking Touchpoints and 23,486 employees spread contiguously across 15 states and two Union Territories with over 2 million customers.''

((a))
Considerate
((b))
Wary
((c))
Comprises
((d))
Imprudent
((e))
Compromises

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Comprises

The correct answer is 'Comprises.'

Key Points

The given sentence is saying that AU Small Finance Bank's distribution network consists of 758 Banking Touchpoints and 23,486 employees.
Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Comprises'.
Also, the use of the word ''across'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'comprises' in the blank.
The word 'Comprises' means Consist of; be made up of.
Example: The committee comprises men of widely different views.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete Sentence: As on June 30, 2021, AU Small Finance Bank's distribution network comprises 758 Banking Touchpoints, and 23,486 employees spread contiguously across 15 states and two Union Territories with over 2 million customers.

Additional Information

Let us explore the other options:
Considerate means Careful not to inconvenience or harm others.
Wary means Feeling or showing caution about possible dangers or problems.
Imprudent means Not showing care for the consequences of an action; rash.
Compromises means To settle a dispute by mutual concession.

Where is the headquarters of AU Small Finance Bank?

((a))
Ahmedabad
((b))
Jaipur
((c))
Mumbai
((d))
Delhi
((e))
Bangalore

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Jaipur

The correct answer is 'Jaipur.'

Key Points

The first sentence of the first paragraph says "AU Small Finance Bank Limited is an Indian Small finance bank, based in Jaipur, India.''
From the above sentence, we can say that the headquarters of AU Small Finance Bank is in Jaipur.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

According to the passage, AU Small Finance Bank Limited was founded as:

((a))
Health finance company.
((b))
Small finance bank.
((c))
Vehicle finance company.
((d))
Educational finance company.
((e))
Sports finance company.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Vehicle finance company.

The correct answer is 'Vehicle finance company.'

Key Points

The second sentence of the first paragraph says "It was founded as vehicle finance company AU Financiers (India) Ltd in 1996 and converted to a small finance bank on 19 April 2017.''
From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, AU Small Finance Bank Limited was founded as a vehicle finance company.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

Choose the synonym of the word 'Improving'.

((a))
Impairing
((b))
Tarnishing
((c))
Vitiating
((d))
Ameliorating
((e))
Deteriorating

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ameliorating

The correct answer is 'Ameliorating.'

Key Points

The word 'Improving' means To make or become better.
Example: Management needs to explore ways of improving office security.
Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Impairing - To weaken or damage.
Example: Many governments could increase their tax receipts without impairing the efficiency of their economies.
Tarnishing - To make or become less valuable or respected.
Example: It is not the opposition that is tarnishing the image of the regime.
Vitiating - To make something less effective; to spoil something.
Example: *The insurance company is *vitiating.
Ameliorating - To make something better.
Example: Government has assumed the responsibility for ameliorating income inequality in our society.
Deteriorating - To become progressively worse.
Example: Standards of living were deteriorating rather noticeably.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Improving' are "Ameliorating, Enhancing, Boosting".
The antonyms of the word 'Improving' are "Impairing, Deteriorating, Tarnishing".

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Mr Trump launched this policy through the Abraham Accords, and Mr Biden has wholeheartedly _____ it.

((a))
abandoned
((b))
embraced
((c))
neglected
((d))
disrespected
((e))
disregarded

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

embraced

The correct answer is 'embraced'.

Key Points

The given sentence is talking about America's West Asia policy, which Mr Trump had launched through the Abraham Accords, the use of the word wholeheartedly indicates Mr Biden's approval of the policy.
Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'embraced'.
The word 'embraced' means to accept (a belief, theory, or change) willingly and enthusiastically.
Example: The teachers are embracing digitalized methods of teaching.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

Let us explore the other options:

abandoned: give up completely (a practice or a course of action).
neglected: fail to care for properly.
disrespected: show a lack of respect for; insult.
disregarded: pay no attention to; ignore.

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

More than the law, the police must first put an end to the practice of _____ arresting first and then fishing for a possible offence

((a))
mooted
((b))
overhaul
((c))
unstated
((d))
aligned
((e))
reflexively

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

reflexively

The correct answer 'reflexively'.

Key Points

The given sentence is talking about police and the common habit of arresting a suspect first and then looking for a possible offence.
Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'reflexively'.
The word 'reflexively' means as a reflex, without conscious thought; automatically.
Example: The staff reflexively opposes the policies regarding salaries thinking it may cause them a loss.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 5.

Additional Information

Let us explore the other options:

mooted: raise (a question or topic) for discussion; suggest (an idea or possibility).
overhaul: the act of completely changing something, especially by getting rid of some people or things and replacing them with others.
unstated: not stated or declared.
aligned: the same as or similar to something else.

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Moreover, permitting construction work risks _______ the foundations of centuries-old edifices.

((a))
Strengthening
((b))
Weakening
((c))
Trafficking
((d))
Panicking
((e))
Discriminating

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Weakening

The correct answer is 'Weakening.'

Key Points

The given sentence is talking about permitting construction risks the foundations of centuries-old edifices becoming less strong.
Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Weakening'.
Also, the use of the word ''risks'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'weakening' in the blank.
The word 'Weakening' means To become less strong; to make somebody or something less strong.
Example: A spider's web can stretch considerably without weakening.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete Sentence: Moreover, permitting construction work risks weakening the foundations of centuries-old edifices.

Additional Information

Let us explore the other options:
Strengthening means To become stronger or make something stronger.
Trafficking means To deal or trade in something illegal.
Panicking means To feel or cause to feel panic.
Discriminating means To recognize a distinction; differentiate.

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

During the recent celebration of Pride month (June) globally and in India, we witnessed an _______ social media presence filled with striking images and stories.

((a))
Discernible
((b))
Avoidable
((c))
Fable
((d))
Incredible
((e))
Responsible

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Incredible

The correct answer is 'Incredible.'

Key Points

The given sentence is talking about witnessing an extraordinary social media presence during the recent celebration of Pride month (June).
Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Incredible'.
Also, the use of the word ''witnessed'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'incredible' in the blank.
The word 'Incredible' means Difficult to believe; extraordinary.
Example: It's incredible that he survived the fall.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Complete Sentence: During the recent celebration of Pride month (June) globally and in India, we witnessed an incredible social media presence filled with striking images and stories.

Additional Information

Let us explore the other options:
Discernible means Able to be discerned; perceptible.
Avoidable means Able to be avoided or prevented.
Fable means A false statement or belief.
Responsible means Being the primary cause of something and so able to be blamed or credited for it.

In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.

Jake declared that no matter what, he would win the scavenger hunt.

((a))
Announced
((b))
Denounced
((c))
Whispered
((d))
Swallowed
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Announced

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. announced

Explanation:

We have to choose the word which is similar to the emboldened word and can replace it.
Let's take a look at the meaning and usage of all the words given in the question and options-
Declared: openly or formally said something; announced
Announced: made a formal or public statement about something
Denounced: publicly declared someone as wrong or evil
Whispered: spoke very softly, under one's breath
Swallowed: allowed something to pass down one's throat

Therefore, from the given options, the best alternative for the emboldened word is 'announced'.

The reader may be confused between 'announced' and 'denounced' as they both have to do with making a public statement, but they have different meanings.

In the given sentence, a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.

The writers decided to conceal the true nature of the main character until later.

((a))
Splurge
((b))
Provoke
((c))
Hide
((d))
Reveal
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Hide

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. hide.

Explanation:

We have to choose the word which is similar to the emboldened word and can replace it.

Let's take a look at the meaning and usage of all the words given in the question and options-

Conceal: not allow something to be seen; hide
Splurge: spend money excessively
Provoke: stimulate or give rise to (a reaction or emotion, typically a strong or unwelcome one) in someone
Hide: keep something out of sight; conceal
Reveal: make a secret known to everyone

Therefore, from the given options, the best alternative for the emboldened word is 'hide'.

In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.

The Prince was known across the kingdom as a coward.

((a))
Suave
((b))
Weakling
((c))
Knight
((d))
Debonair
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Weakling

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. weakling.

Explanation:

We have to choose the word which is similar to the emboldened word and can replace it.

Let's take a look at the meaning and usage of all the words given in the question and options-

Coward: A person who lacks the courage to do something important or brave
Suave: A man who is charming and confident
Weakling: A person who is weak in terms of the courage to do something
Knight: A man who served his sovereign or lord as a mounted soldier in armour
Debonair: A confident and stylish man.

Therefore, from the given options, the best alternative for the emboldened word is 'weakling'.

In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.

There was ample evidence that Charlotte had committed the crime.

((a))
Sufficient
((b))
Inadequate
((c))
Average
((d))
Particular
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Sufficient

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. sufficient.

Explanation:

We have to choose the word which is similar to the emboldened word and can replace it.

Let's take a look at the meaning and usage of all the words given in the question and options-

Ample: more than enough, to be plenty.
Sufficient: enough; adequate.
Inadequate: lacking the quality or quantity required; insufficient for a purpose.
Average: ordinary or mediocre.
Particular: especially intense or great; used to single out an individual member of a specified group or class.

Therefore, from the given options, the best alternative for the emboldened word is 'sufficient'.

Reasoning Ability (25 questions)

Direction: Read the instruction carefully and answer the question given below.

A person starts from point L and goes 5 km towards the east to reach point M and then takes a left turn and travels 2 km to reach point N. Upon reaching point N he turns right and goes 3 km to reach point O and then turns right again and goes 6 km to reach point P. From point P he takes a left turn and goes 3 km to reach point Q and then again turns left and goes 4 km to reach point R. After reaching point R, he finally takes a left turn and goes 3 km to reach point S which is his destination.

What is the direction of point N with respect to point Q?

((a))
South-East
((b))
North-West
((c))
North-East
((d))
West
((e))
South-West

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

North-West

The person first goes 5 km towards the east.
Then he turns left and travels in the north direction.
Then he turns right and travels in the east direction.
Then again he turns right and travels in the south direction.
He then turns left and travels in the east direction and after taking one more left he travels in the north direction.
He finally takes a left turn and travels in the west direction.

The least possible graphical representation of the given data is:

Point N is to the north-west of point Q.

What is the shortest distance between the starting and the finishing point?

((a))
10 km
((b))
12 km
((c))
6 km
((d))
5 km
((e))
8 km

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

8 km

The person first goes 5 km towards the east.
Then he turns left and travels in the north direction.
Then he turns right and travels in the east direction.
Then again he turns right and travels in the south direction.
He then turns left and travels in the east direction and after taking one more left he travels in the north direction.
He finally takes a left turn and travels in the west direction.

The least possible graphical representation of the given data is:

The starting point is L and the finishing point is S which is 8 km to the east of L.

The shortest distance between the starting and the finishing point is 8 km.

What is the position of point S with respect to the position of point O?

((a))
3 km South
((b))
5 km North-East
((c))
2 Km South
((d))
4 km North
((e))
10 km North-East

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

2 Km South

The person first goes 5 km towards the east.
Then he turns left and travels in the north direction.
Then he turns right and travels in the east direction.
Then again he turns right and travels in the south direction.
He then turns left and travels in the east direction and after taking one more left he travels in the north direction.
He finally takes a left turn and travels in the west direction.

The least possible graphical representation of the given data is:

Point S is 2 km to the south of point O.

Direction: The following question are based on the number series given below.

2 4 5 6 7 9 10 13 16 18 19 21 24 25 28 29 30 34 37 39 41 49 55

If all the even numbers are deleted from the following arrangement and the numbers are arranged in decreasing order, which element will be 6^th from the right?

((a))
29
((b))
25
((c))
21
((d))
37
((e))
41

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given:

Left Side 2 4 5 6 7 9 10 13 16 18 19 21 24 25 28 29 30 34 37 39 41 49 55 Right Side

After deleting even numbers:

Left Side 5 7 9 13 19 21 25 29 37 39 41 49 55 Right Side

Numbers in decreasing order:

Left Side 55 49 41 39 37 29 25 21 19 13 9 7 5 Right Side

Thus, 21 will be 6^th from the right when arranged in decreasing order.

If all the prime numbers are deleted from the arrangement, how many elements are present to the left of 25 in the rearranged series?

((a))
9
((b))
8
((c))
7
((d))
10
((e))
6

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given: Left Side 2 4 5 6 7 9 10 13 16 18 19 21 24 25 28 29 30 34 37 39 41 49 55 Right Side

After deleting prime numbers,

4 6 9 10 16 18 21 24 25 28 30 34 39 49 55 Right Side

The numbers that are to the left of 25 after deleting all prime numbers:

4 6 9 10 16 18 21 24 Right Side

There are such 8 elements.

If all the odd numbers are deleted from the following arrangement, which element will be present exactly between the one which is 4^th from left end and the one which is 3^rd from right end?

((a))
10
((b))
28
((c))
24
((d))
16
((e))
18

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Given:

Left Side 2 4 5 6 7 9 10 13 16 18 19 21 24 25 28 29 30 34 37 39 41 49 55 Right Side

After deleting odd numbers:

2 4 6 10 16 18 24 28 30 34

4^th from left end - 10

3^rd from right end - 28

Series left now: 10 16 18 24 28

Thus 18 will be exactly between 10 and 28 after deleting all odd numbers from the series.

If first element is exchanged with the last element, then second element is exchanged with the second last element and so on, then what will be the 10^th element to the right of 7^th element from the left end?

((a))
30
((b))
10
((c))
9
((d))
16
((e))
55

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given:

Left Side 2 4 5 6 7 9 10 13 16 18 19 21 24 25 28 29 30 34 37 39 41 49 55 Right Side

After exchanging items:

55 49 41 39 37 34 30 29 28 25 24 21 19 18 16 13 10 9 7 6 5 4 2

7^th from left end - 30

10^th element to the right of 30 - 10

Thus, 10 will be the 10^th element to the right of 7^th element from the left end.

If it is possible to make only one four-lettered meaningful word without repetition of any letter with the third, fourth, eighth, and the eleventh letters of the word ‘CONSECUTIVE’, which would be the second letter of the new word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Y as your answer.

((a))
S
((b))
N
((c))
T
((d))
X
((e))
Y

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

In the CONSECUTIVE third, fourth, eighth and eleventh is N, S, T and E

Word from these are NEST TENS and SENT.

As more than one word can be formed.

Hence, X is the answer.

The consonants in the word 'EQUIVOCAL' are changed to the respective previous alphabets in the English alphabetical series and the vowels are changed to the respective alphabets succeeding them in the English alphabetical series. What is the 4th letter from the left end in the word formed after arranging these letters in alphabetical order?

((a))
F
((b))
P
((c))
J
((d))
B
((e))
None of these.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The word is "EQUIVOCAL"

If we add 1 to vowels and subtract 1 from the consonants then we get,

The arrangement is = FPVJUPBBK

After arranging in alphabetical order,

BBFJKPPUV

The fourth letter from the left side is J.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven friends namely, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V have examinations on seven different days of the same week from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. P’s examination is on Friday. Only one person has examination between P and S. Q has examination just before S. As many persons have an examination before Q as after V. Not more than one person has examination between S and T. Only two persons have examination between R and U but U’s examination is not after R’s examination.

Which among the following has examination on Saturday?

((a))
U
((b))
T
((c))
S
((d))
V
((e))
R

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Persons -P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V

P’s examination is on Friday.
Only one person has an examination between P and S.(So, S’s examination can be on Wednesday or on Sunday)
Q has an examination just before S.(So Q’s examination can be on Tuesday or on Saturday)

Case I-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday
Sunday

Case II-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	Q
Sunday	S

As many persons have an examination before Q as after V.(So, V’s examination can be on Saturday or on Tuesday)
Not more than one person has examination between S and T. (So**, case II is eliminated** and T’s examination can be Monday or on Thursday)

Case I -

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday

Only two persons have examination between R and U but U’s examination is not after R’s examination.

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday	U
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday	R

Hence, V’s examination is on Saturday.

How many persons have examination between Q and T?

((a))
None
((b))
One
((c))
Two
((d))
Three
((e))
Four

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

None

Persons -P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V

P’s examination is on Friday.
Only one person has an examination between P and S.(So, S’s examination can be on Wednesday or on Sunday)
Q has an examination just before S.(So Q’s examination can be on Tuesday or on Saturday)

Case I-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday
Sunday

Case II-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	Q
Sunday	S

As many persons have an examination before Q as after V.(So, V’s examination can be on Saturday or on Tuesday)
Not more than one person has examination between S and T. (So, case II is eliminated and T’s examination can be Monday or on Thursday)

Case I -

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday

Only two persons have examination between R and U but U’s examination is not after R’s examination.

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday	U
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday	R

According to the table:

Hence, no one has an examination between Q and T.

On which day is U’s examination?

((a))
Sunday
((b))
Wednesday
((c))
Friday
((d))
Monday
((e))
Thursday

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Thursday

Persons -P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V

P’s examination is on Friday.
Only one person has examination between P and S.(So, S’s examination can be on Wednesday or on Sunday)
Q has examination just before S.(So Q’s examination can be on Tuesday or on Saturday)

Case I-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday
Sunday

Case II-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	Q
Sunday	S

As many persons have examination before Q as after V.(So, V’s examination can be on Saturday or on Tuesday)
Not more than one person has examination between S and T. (So, case II is eliminated and T’s examination can be Monday or on Thursday)

Case I -

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday

Only two persons have examination between R and U but U’s examination is not after R’s examination.

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday	U
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday	R

According to the table:

Hence, U’s examination is on Thursday.

Which of the following person has examination on Monday?

((a))
V
((b))
T
((c))
R
((d))
S
((e))
Q

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Persons -P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V

P’s examination is on Friday.
Only one person has an examination between P and S.(So, S’s examination can be on Wednesday or on Sunday)
Q has an examination just before S.(So Q’s examination can be on Tuesday or on Saturday)

Case I-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday
Sunday

Case II-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	Q
Sunday	S

As many persons have an examination before Q as after V.(So, V’s examination can be on Saturday or on Tuesday)
Not more than one person has examination between S and T. (So, case II is eliminated and T’s examination can be Monday or on Thursday)

Case I -

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday

Only two persons have examination between R and U but U’s examination is not after R’s examination.

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday	U
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday	R

Hence, the T examination is on Monday.

Which among the following is true?

((a))
S’s exam is on Sunday
((b))
No one has examination between Q and P
((c))
Three persons have examination between R and S
((d))
S’s examination is just before P’s examination
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Three persons have examination between R and S

Persons -P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V

P’s examination is on Friday.
Only one person has an examination between P and S.(So, S’s examination can be on Wednesday or on Sunday)
Q has an examination just before S.(So Q’s examination can be on Tuesday or on Saturday)

Case I-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday
Sunday

Case II-

Days	Persons
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	Q
Sunday	S

As many persons have an examination before Q as after V.(So, V’s examination can be on Saturday or on Tuesday)
Not more than one person has examination between S and T. (So, case II is eliminated and T’s examination can be Monday or on Thursday)

Case I -

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday

Only two persons have examination between R and U but U’s examination is not after R’s examination.

Days	Persons
Monday	T
Tuesday	Q
Wednesday	S
Thursday	U
Friday	P
Saturday	V
Sunday	R

According to the table:

Hence, three persons have examinations between R and S.

If in a certain code language, BENCH is written as CDOBI, which word would be written as QGPMF?

((a))
HOPEN
((b))
PHOEN
((c))
PHEON
((d))
PHONE
((e))
PONHE

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

PHONE

The pattern for the code is as follows,

Each letter at odd place in the word is one step behind and each letter at even place in the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

So, to get the word from the code apply this pattern in reverse order (instead of + take – and vice versa)

Therefore, PHONE is written as QGPMF.

Direction: Read the information given below carefully and answer the following questions.

A person buys ten products namely I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R one after another but not necessarily in the same order. N was bought four products before P. Only one product is bought between P and K. At least three products are bought before N. The number of products before N is same as after I. Only three products are bought between I and L. L neither bought at first nor last. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N. R was bought three products before M. M was bought after I. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

How many products were bought between O and I?

((a))
Two
((b))
Three
((c))
Five
((d))
Six
((e))
Four

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Four

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P.
At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Hence, four products were bought between O and I.

Find the odd one out.

((a))
J, L
((b))
O, N
((c))
Q, I
((d))
K, I
((e))
P, K

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

K, I

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Every pair except K, I has one product between them, where K, I has two products between them.

Hence**, K, I is the odd one out.**

Number of products after N is same as the number of products before _______.

((a))
K
((b))
P
((c))
M
((d))
Q
((e))
I

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Hence, Number of products after N is same as the number of products before I.

Which of the following is true?

I. J is the last product to buy.

II. The number of products before Q is same as the number of products after N.

III. Even number of products is bought between L and K.

((a))
Both I and III
((b))
Both II and III
((c))
Only I
((d))
All the above
((e))
Only III

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Only III

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

I. J is the first product to buy.

II. The number of products before Q is same as the number of products after R.

III. Even number of products is bought between L and K.

Hence, Only III is true.

Odd number of persons sit between _____ and _____.

((a))
R, M
((b))
M, I
((c))
O, Q
((d))
I, N
((e))
J, N

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

M, I

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Hence, Odd number of persons sit between M and I.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G of same height but different weight appeared for a physical examination for a job. The minimum weight required to fulfil body mass index criteria for them is 60 kg. The weight of A is exactly same as the minimum required weight.

C’s weight is 5 kg less than A. G’s weight is 10 kg more than C. D’s weight is 1 kg less than G whereas G’s weight is 8 kg more than B.E’s weight is 2 kg more than the minimum requirement. The weight of F is average of D and E.

What is the weight of F?

((a))
62
((b))
64
((c))
60
((d))
63
((e))
61

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G

The minimum weight required to fulfil body mass index criteria for them is 60 kg.
The weight of A is exactly same as the minimum required weight i.e. A = 60 kg
C’s weight is 5 kg less than A i.e. 60 - 5 = 55 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B
3	C	55
4	D
5	E
6	F
7	G

G’s weight is 10 kg more than C i.e. 55 + 10 = 65 kg
D’s weight is 1 kg less than G, and G’s weight is 8 kg more than B.

(i.e. D’s weight = 65 - 1 = 64; B’s weight = 65 - 8 = 57 kg)

E’s weight is 2 kg more than the minimum requirement i.e. 60 + 2 = 62 kg
The weight of F is average of D and E.

{Weight of F = (weight of D + weight of E) / 2}

∴ Weight of F = (64 + 62) / 2

∴ Weight of F = 63 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B	57
3	C	55
4	D	64
5	E	62
6	F	63
7	G	65

Hence, weight of F is 63.

How many candidates did not fulfil the criteria?

((a))
Three
((b))
Two
((c))
One
((d))
Four
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Two

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G

The minimum weight required to fulfil body mass index criteria for them is 60 kg.
The weight of A is exactly same as the minimum required weight i.e. A = 60 kg
C’s weight is 5 kg less than A i.e. 60 - 5 = 55 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B
3	C	55
4	D
5	E
6	F
7	G

G’s weight is 10 kg more than C i.e. 55 + 10 = 65 kg
D’s weight is 1 kg less than G, and G’s weight is 8 kg more than B.

(i.e. D’s weight = 65 - 1 = 64; B’s weight = 65 - 8 = 57 kg)

E’s weight is 2 kg more than the minimum requirement i.e. 60 + 2 = 62 kg
The weight of F is average of D and E.

{Weight of F = (weight of D + weight of E) / 2}

∴ Weight of F = (64 + 62) / 2

∴ Weight of F = 63 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B	57
3	C	55
4	D	64
5	E	62
6	F	63
7	G	65

Final arrangement,

G (65) > D (64) > F (63) > E (62)> A (60) > B (57) > C (55)

Hence, two candidates B and C did not fulfil the criteria, because there weights are less there 60 kg.

Four of them are alike in a certain way; and thus form a group find the person who does not belongs to the group?

((a))
G
((b))
F
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G

The minimum weight required to fulfil body mass index criteria for them is 60 kg.
The weight of A is exactly same as the minimum required weight i.e. A = 60 kg
C’s weight is 5 kg less than A i.e. 60 - 5 = 55 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B
3	C	55
4	D
5	E
6	F
7	G

G’s weight is 10 kg more than C i.e. 55 + 10 = 65 kg
D’s weight is 1 kg less than G, and G’s weight is 8 kg more than B.

(i.e. D’s weight = 65 - 1 = 64; B’s weight = 65 - 8 = 57 kg)

E’s weight is 2 kg more than the minimum requirement i.e. 60 + 2 = 62 kg
The weight of F is average of D and E.

{Weight of F = (weight of D + weight of E) / 2}

∴ Weight of F = (64 + 62) / 2

∴ Weight of F = 63 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B	57
3	C	55
4	D	64
5	E	62
6	F	63
7	G	65

All the persons except C fulfil the minimum weight requirement.

Hence, C does not belong to the group.

Who weighs 62 kg?

((a))
E
((b))
F
((c))
D
((d))
G
((e))
B

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G

The minimum weight required to fulfil body mass index criteria for them is 60 kg.
The weight of A is exactly same as the minimum required weight i.e. A = 60 kg
C’s weight is 5 kg less than A i.e. 60 - 5 = 55 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B
3	C	55
4	D
5	E
6	F
7	G

G’s weight is 10 kg more than C i.e. 55 + 10 = 65 kg
D’s weight is 1 kg less than G, and G’s weight is 8 kg more than B.

(i.e. D’s weight = 65 - 1 = 64; B’s weight = 65 - 8 = 57 kg)

E’s weight is 2 kg more than the minimum requirement i.e. 60 + 2 = 62 kg
The weight of F is average of D and E.

{Weight of F = (weight of D + weight of E) / 2}

∴ Weight of F = (64 + 62) / 2

∴ Weight of F = 63 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B	57
3	C	55
4	D	64
5	E	62
6	F	63
7	G	65

Hence, E’s weight is 62 kg.

What is the difference between the weights of G and D?

((a))
9 kg
((b))
1 kg
((c))
10 kg
((d))
12 kg
((e))
7 kg

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

1 kg

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G

The minimum weight required to fulfil body mass index criteria for them is 60 kg.
The weight of A is exactly same as the minimum required weight i.e. A = 60 kg
C’s weight is 5 kg less than A i.e. 60 - 5 = 55 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B
3	C	55
4	D
5	E
6	F
7	G

G’s weight is 10 kg more than C i.e. 55 + 10 = 65 kg
D’s weight is 1 kg less than G, and G’s weight is 8 kg more than B.

(i.e. D’s weight = 65 - 1 = 64; B’s weight = 65 - 8 = 57 kg)

E’s weight is 2 kg more than the minimum requirement i.e. 60 + 2 = 62 kg
The weight of F is average of D and E.

{Weight of F = (weight of D + weight of E) / 2}

∴ Weight of F = (64 + 62) / 2

∴ Weight of F = 63 kg

S. No.	Person	Weight
1	A	60
2	B	57
3	C	55
4	D	64
5	E	62
6	F	63
7	G	65

Hence, difference between the weights of G and D is 1 kgs.

Numerical Aptitude (25 questions)

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

2, 18, 95, 384, 1155, ?

((a))
2212
((b))
2312
((c))
2629
((d))
2412
((e))
2735

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

2312

The correct answer is: 2

Given:

2, 18, 95, 384, 1155, ?

Calculation:

the series follows the following pattern:

2 x 6 + 6 = 18

18 x 5 + 5 = 95

95 x 4 + 4 = 384

384 x 3 + 3 = 1155

1155 x 2 + 2 = 2312

∴ 2312 will come in place of ?

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

10, 35, 135, 360, 760, ?

((a))
1225
((b))
1275
((c))
1365
((d))
1385
((e))
1315

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1385

The pattern of the series is as follows: +52, +102, +152, +202, +252

10 + 5² = 35

35 + 10² = 135

135 + 15² = 360

360 + 20² = 760

760 + 25² = 1385

∴ The required answer is 1385.

What will come in the place of question mark in the following number series ?

0.3 , 8.1 , 37.5 , ?

((a))
102.9
((b))
101.9
((c))
103.9
((d))
112.9
((e))
104.9

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

102.9

Given:

0.3 , 8.1 , 37.5 , ?

Calculation:

In the given series the logic follows is the cube of a odd numbers × 0.3

1³ (\times) 0.3 = 1 (\times) 0.3 = 0.3

3³ (\times) 0.3 = 27 (\times) 0.3 = 8.1

5³ (\times) 0.3 = 125 (\times) 0.3 = 37.5

Hence the next value will be

73 (\times) 0.3 = 343 (\times) 0.3 = 102.9

(\therefore) The correct answer is 102.9 .

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

4, 10, 22, 46, ?, 190

((a))
92
((b))
94
((c))
96
((d))
102
((e))
104

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The pattern of the series is as follows: +6 × 1, +6 × 2, +6 × 4, +6 × 8, +6 × 16

4 + 6 × 1 = 10

10 + 6 × 2 = 22

22 + 6 × 4 = 46

46 + 6 × 8 = 94

94 + 6 × 16 = 190

∴ The required answer is 94.

What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

7, 20, 59, 176, ?

((a))
523
((b))
513
((c))
579
((d))
557
((e))
527

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

527

The given series is 7, 20 , 59 , 176

This series follows the pattern

⇒ 7×3-1 =20

⇒ 20×3-1=59

⇒ 59×3 -1 = 176

Then next term of this series is

⇒ 176×3-1 = 527

Hence 527 is the correct answer.

60% of the employees in a bank are officers. All the remaining employees are clerks. The daily wage of each clerk is Rs. 390. The daily wage of each officer is Rs. 720. What is the average daily wage of all the employees in the bank together?

((a))
Rs. 472
((b))
Rs. 626
((c))
Rs. 588
((d))
Rs. 542
((e))
Rs. 609

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs. 588

Given:

60% of the employees in a bank are officers

Remaining 40% of the employees are clerks

Daily wage of each clerk = Rs. 390

Daily wage of each officer = Rs. 720

Formula:

Average daily wage = Total daily wage / Total number of employess

Calculation:

Let, total number of employees = 100x

∴ Number of officers = 100x × 60 / 100 = 60x

∴ Number of clerks = (100x - 60x) = 40x

Let, average daily wage of all the employees = Rs. y

According to the question,

⇒ 100x × y = 60x × 720 + 40x × 390

⇒ 100y = 43200 + 15600

⇒ y = 432 + 156

⇒ y = 588

∴ Average daily wage of all the employees in the bank = Rs. 588

At present, the ratio of the age of Hrick and Oindrila is x ∶ y. If Hirck's age is increased by 4 years and Oindrila's age is increased by 2 years, then the new ratio of their age will be 2 ∶ 3. If the sum of their present age is 44 years, find the original ratio of their age.

((a))
7 ∶ 4
((b))
4 ∶ 7
((c))
4 ∶ 5
((d))
5 ∶ 4
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

4 ∶ 7

Shortcut Trick

Sum of ages after increases = 44 + 4 + 2 = 50 years.

New ratio is 2 ∶ 3 → Total parts = 5.

5 units = 50 ⇒ 1 unit = 10.

New ages: Hrick = 2 × 10 = 20, Oindrila = 3 × 10 = 30.

Present ages: Hrick = 20 − 4 = 16, Oindrila = 30 − 2 = 28.

Original ratio = 16 ∶ 28 = 4 ∶ 7.

∴ The correct answer is 4 ∶ 7.

Alternate Method

Given: Sum of Present Ages = 44 years. New Ratio = 2 ∶ 3 after adding 4 and 2 years respectively.

Calculations:

⇒ Let Hrick's present age be H and Oindrila's be O.

⇒ H + O = 44 — (Equation 1)

⇒ (H + 4) ÷ (O + 2) = 2 ÷ 3

⇒ 3(H + 4) = 2(O + 2)

⇒ 3H + 12 = 2O + 4 ⇒ 3H − 2O = −8 — (Equation 2)

⇒ From (1), O = 44 − H. Substitute in (2):

⇒ 3H − 2(44 − H) = −8

⇒ 3H − 88 + 2H = −8 ⇒ 5H = 80 ⇒ H = 16

⇒ O = 44 − 16 = 28

⇒ Ratio x ∶ y = 16 ∶ 28 = 4 ∶ 7

∴ The correct answer is 4 ∶ 7.

Additional Information

Ratio and Sum Relation

If the sum of two quantities is S and their ratio is a ∶ b, then the quantities are [a ÷ (a+b)] × S and [b ÷ (a+b)] × S.

Age Problems Shift

When ages are increased or decreased, the sum of ages changes by the total number of years added to or subtracted from each individual.

A man sells his goods at 20% profit. If the price at which he buys the goods increases by 30% and he sells them at an 15% higher price, then what will be his profit percent( correct to two decimal place ) ?

((a))
6.15%
((b))
6.25%
((c))
6.35%
((d))
6.55%
((e))
6.65%

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

6.15%

Given:

A man sells his goods at 20% profit

Formula used:

Selling Price = Cost Price (100% + Profit%)

Profit% = (\frac{Selling\ Price-Cost\ Price}{Cost\ Price} \times 100)

Calculation:

let the cost price be 100x,

A man sells his goods at 20% profit,

Selling Price = 100x (100% + 20%)

= (100x \times \frac{120}{100})

= 120x

If the price at which he buys the goods increases by 30%,

Increased Cost Price = 100x (100% + 30%)

= (100x \times \frac{130}{100})

= 130x

he sells them at an 15% higher price,

Increased Selling Price = 120x (100% + 15%)

= (120x \times \frac{115}{100})

= 138x

Profit% = (\frac{138x-130x}{130x} \times 100)

= (\frac{8x}{130x} \times 100)

= (\frac{80}{13} )

= 6.15%(approx.)

Profit is 6.15%.

Answer is 6.15%.

The speed of boat in still water is 18 kmph and speed of stream is 2 kmph. Boat travels total distance of 320 km upstream and downstream. It take 3 hour more to travel the distance in upstream compare to downstream. Time taken to travel the upstream is ....... min.

((a))
559.23
((b))
602.5
((c))
633.6
((d))
643.75
((e))
661.96

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

633.6

Let assume time taken to travel downstream as x hr.,

Speed of boat in upstream = Speed of boat - speed of stream = 18 - 2 = 16 kmph

Speed of boat in downstream = speed of boat + speed of stream = 18 + 2 = 20 kmph

Time for upstream = x + 3 hr.

By the formula,

Distance = speed × time,

Distance in upstream + Distance in downstream = 320

⇒ 16 × (x + 3) + 20 × x = 320

⇒ 16x + 48 + 20x = 320

⇒ 36x = 320 - 48

⇒ 36x = 272

⇒ x = 7.56 hr

Time taken for upstream = x + 3 = 7.56 + 3 = 10.56 hr

∴ Upstream time in min = 10.56 × 60 = 633.6 min.

A construction company hired 1000 persons to construct a building in 77 days but the company realized after 44 days, 40% of the work had been finished. To complete the work on the scheduled time how many persons company has to increase ?

((a))
2000
((b))
4000
((c))
1000
((d))
3000
((e))
5000

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1000

Given:

A construction company hired 1000 persons to construct a building in 77 days but the company realized after 44 days 40% of the work had been finished

Formula used:

(\frac{Person_1 \times Time_1}{Work_1}= \frac{Person_2 \times Time_2}{Work_2})

Calculation:

let the total work be 100% ,

40% of the work is completed in 44 days,

Then 60% of the work should be completed in remaining 33 days,

(\frac{1000 \times 44}{40%}= \frac{Person_2 \times 33}{60%})

(\frac{1000 \times 44}{2}= \frac{Person_2 \times 33}{3})

(Person_2=\frac{1000\times44\times3}{2\times33})

= 2000

Increase in number of persons = 2000 - 1000

= 1000 persons

Company has to increase the number of persons by 1000 in order to finish the work on scheduled time.

Heath goes for a morning walk daily. He goes on his scooter at 50 km/hr from his home to a lake. There, he runs for an hour at 20 km/hr. After that, he returns home on scooter at 50 km/hr. Average speed of Heath during entire journey is 38 km/hr. What is the distance between Heath’s home and lake (in km)?

((a))
30
((b))
37.5
((c))
42
((d))
45
((e))
48.3

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

37.5

Let distance between Heath’s home and Lake is T km.

Total distance covered = T km + (20 km/hr × 1 hr) + T km = (2T + 20) km

Total time taken = (T/50 + 1 + T/50) hours = (T/25 + 1) hours = (0.04T + 1) hours

Average speed = Total distance covered/Total time taken

⇒ 38 = (2T + 20)/(0.04T + 1)

⇒ 1.52T + 38 = 2T + 20

⇒ T = 18/0.48 = 37.5

∴ Distance from home to lake is 37.5 km.

150 kg of alloy containing copper and zinc in the ratio 3 : 2 mixed with X kg of alloy containing copper and zinc in the ratio 2 : 3. If the overall alloy should contain copper between 45% to 55% , what can be minimum value of X ?

((a))
60 kg
((b))
80 kg
((c))
70 kg
((d))
50 kg
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

50 kg

Given that:

Quantity of alloy = 150 kg

in this alloy copper and zinc ratio = 3 : 2

calculation:

If overall alloy contain copper as 45%

(150 × 3/5 + 2X/5) = 45 % (150 + X)

⇒ (90 + 2X/5) = 9 (150 + X)/20

⇒ 1800 + 8X = 1350 + 9X

⇒ X = 450 kg

If overall alloy contain copper as 55%

(90 + 2X/5) = 55 (150 + X) / 100

⇒ 1800 + 8X = 1650 + 11X

⇒ x = 50 kg

∴ The minimum value of X is 50 kg.

A man wants to invest Rs. 8425 in bank account of his two daughters whose age are 24 years and 28 years in such a way that they will get equal amount on age of 40 years at the rate of 33.3% compounded annually. Find the share of elder daughter.

((a))
Rs. 6400
((b))
Rs. 6464
((c))
Rs. 5400
((d))
Rs. 7000
((e))
Rs. 6482

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs. 6400

Given:

Total amount to invest = Rs. 8425

Ages of daughters are 24 years and 28 years.

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ

Where, A = Amount

P = Principal

r = Rate

n= time

Calculation:

Let Principal of younger daughter be (P1)

And, Let Principal of elder daughter be (P₂)

Time of elder daughter = (40 – 28) years = 12 years

Time of younger daughter = (40 – 24) years = 16 years

Rate = 33.3% = (100/3)%

According to the question:

Younger daughter = Elder daughter

P₁(1 + r/100)n = P₂(1 + r/100)n

⇒ P1[1 + (100/3 × 100)]¹⁶ = P2[1 + 100/3 ×100)]¹²

⇒ P1(4/3)16 = P2(4/3)12

⇒ P₁/P₂ = [(4/3)12/(4/3)16]

⇒ P1/P2 = [1/(4/3)⁴]

⇒ P1/P2 = (3/4)4

⇒ P1/P2 = 81/256

⇒ P1 : P2 = 81 : 256

Now, again let P₁ be 81x

Let P₂be 256x

Total principal = (81x + 256x) = Rs. 337x

Again,

⇒ 337x = 8425

⇒ x = 8425/337

P₂= 256x = 256 × (8425/337) = Rs. 6400

∴ The share of elder daughter is Rs. 6400.

A solid cylinder has a total surface area of 1232 cm². It its curved surface area is three fourth of the total surface area, the volume of the cylinder is

((a))
3234 cm³
((b))
3854 cm³
((c))
3080 cm³
((d))
3634 cm³
((e))
3644 cm³

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3234 cm³

We know that,

Total surface area of a closed cylinder = area of curved surface + area of circular top and bottom

∴ Total surface area of closed cylinder = 2πrh + 2πr² = 2πr(r+h) sq. units

Where, r = radius of base of cylinder, h = height of cylinder

According to the condition given in the question,

Curved surface area = (3/4) ×Total surface area

(\therefore 2\pi rh; = \frac{3}{4} \times 2\pi r\left( {r + h} \right))

⇒ 4h = 3 × (r + h)

⇒ h = 3r

Now, total surface area of a closed cylinder = 2πr(r + h) = 1232 cm²

∴ 2πr (r + 3r) = 1232

8πr² = 1232

(\Rightarrow {r^2} = \frac{{1232}}{{8\pi }} = ;49;c{m^2})

⇒ r = 7 cm

∴ Volume of a right circular cylinder = πr²h cubic units

⇒ Volume of the given cylinder = π r² × 3r = 3π r³

⇒ Volume of the given cylinder = π r² × 3r = 3π r³ = 3234 cm³

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

63.76 ÷ √(255.79) × {24.99% of (2.89)³} = (?)³

((a))
9
((b))
3
((c))
6
((d))
4
((e))
7

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given:

63.76 ÷ √(255.79) × {24.99% of (2.89)3} = (?)3

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

63.76 ÷ √(255.79) × {24.99% of (2.89)3} = (?)³

⇒ 64 ÷ √(256) × {25% of (3)3} = (?)³

⇒ 64 ÷ 16 × {(25/100) × 27} = (?)³

⇒ 4 × (27/4) = (?)³

⇒ 27 = (?)³

⇒ ? = 3

∴ 3 will come in place of the question mark ('?').

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

250 of 56 × 25% - 128% of 650 = ? × 6 + 1024

((a))
264
((b))
274
((c))
326
((d))
318
((e))
298

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

274

Given:

250 of 56 × 25% - 128% of 650 = ? × 6 + 1024

Concept Used:

Calculation:

250 of 56 × 25% - 128% of 650 = ? × 6 + 1024

⇒ 250 of 56 × 25% - 128 of 650% = ? × 6 + 1024

⇒ 250 × 56 × (25/100) - 128 × (65/10) = {(?) × 6} + 1024

⇒ 250 × 14 - 64 × 13 = {(?) × 6} + 1024

⇒ 3500 - 832 -1024 = (?) × 6

⇒ 1644 = (?) × 6

⇒ ? = 274

∴ The value of ? is 274.

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

19.99% of 249.99 + 34.99% of 299.97 - ? = 29.99% of 349.99

((a))
49
((b))
51
((c))
52
((d))
50
((e))
53

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Given:

19.99% of 249.99 + 34.99% of 299.97 - ? = 29.99% of 349.99

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

As we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

19.99% of 249.99 + 34.99% of 299.97 - ? = 29.99% of 349.99

⇒ 20% of 250 + 35% of 300 - ? = 30% of 350

⇒ (20/100) × 250 + (35/100) × 300 - ? = (30/100) × 350

⇒ 50 + 105 - ? = 105

⇒ ? = 50

∴ 50 should come in place of the question mark (?).

What should come in place of '?' in the following question?

22% of 1250 + 1/7 of 1729 + 27² = ? - 13² - 24

((a))
729
((b))
818
((c))
1444
((d))
1238
((e))
1712

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1444

Correct answer is: 3

Concept used:

The BODMAS rule should be followed to solve the question as per the given table:

Calculation:

22% of 1250 + 1/7 of 1729 + 272 = ? - 132 - 24

⇒ 22/100 × 1250 + 1/7 × 1729 + 729 = ? - 169 - 24

⇒ 11 × 25 + 247 +729 = ? - 169 - 24

⇒ 275 + 247 + 729 = ? - 169 - 24

⇒ 1251 = ? - 169 - 24

⇒ ? = 1251 + 169 + 24

⇒ ? = 1444

∴The value of ? is 1444

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

37.5% of √576 + 150% of √1024 = (?) + 12.5% of 96

((a))
30
((b))
32
((c))
45
((d))
62
((e))
47

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given:

37.5% of √576 + 150% of √1024 = (?) + 12.5% of 96

Concept Used:

Calculation:

37.5% of √576 + 150% of √1024 = (?) + 12.5% of 96

⇒ 37.5% of 24 + 150% of 32 = (?) + 12.5% of 96

⇒ (3/8) of 24 + (3/2) of 32 = (?) + (1/8) of 96

⇒ 9 + 48 = (?) + 12

⇒ ? = 48 + 9 -12

⇒ ? = 45

∴ The value of ? is 45.

Direction: Study the given table carefully and answer the following question accordingly

In the following table, the percentage of published books distributed and the number of distributors from five publishing company in two Months May and June.

	May	June
Name of the publishing company	Percentage of published books distributed	Number of distributors	Percentage of published books distributed	Number of distributors
A	70%	15	85%	16
B	80%	10	84%	12
C	65%	13	75%	19
D	72%	8	52%	33
E	90%	6	88%	11

Note: All the given companies distributed the published books among its respective distributors during both the given months

In May, Company A published 100 books more than company B. If the number of books not distributed by company B among its distributors in May was 50% of the number of books not distributed by company A among its distributors in the same month, what was the number published by company B in May?

((a))
300
((b))
400
((c))
500
((d))
600
((e))
700

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

300

Let x be the number of books published by B in May

x + 100 be the number of books published by A in May

Now,

Number of books not distributed to the publisher by A in May

⇒ (30/100) × (x + 100)

Number of books not distributed to the publisher by B in May

⇒ (20/100) × x

According to the question

(50/100) × (30/100) × (x + 100) = (20/100) × x

⇒ 15 (x + 100) = 20x

⇒ 15x + 1500 = 20x

⇒ 5x = 1500

⇒ x = 300

∴ The number of books published by B in May is 300

Number of books published by Company C in May and June was equal. If the average number of books received by each distribution of Company C in May and June was 168 what was the number of books published by Company C in June?

((a))
3840
((b))
2480
((c))
4380
((d))
4830
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

3840

Let the number of books published by company C in May be x

Number of books published by Company C in June be x

Now,

Average number of books received by each distributor of Company C in May and June was 168.

Average = Sum of all the observations/Total number of observations

⇒ Total number of books received by each distributor of Company C in May and June

⇒ 168 × 32 = 5376

According to the given table

⇒ 65% of x +75% x = 5376

⇒ (65/100) × x + (75/100) × x = 5376

⇒ 140x = 537600

⇒ x = 3840

∴ Number of books published by Company C in June is 3840

Number of books received by each distributor of Company D in May and that by each distributor of Company E in the same month was equal. Number of books published by Company E in May was what percent of number of books published by Company D in the same month?

((a))
60
((b))
65
((c))
55
((d))
Cannot be determined
((e))
40

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Let the number of books published by company D in May be x

Number of books published by company E in May be y

According to question,

( \Rightarrow \frac{1}{8} \times \frac{{72}}{{100}} \times x = \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{{90}}{{100}} \times y)

⇒ x/y = 5/3

∴ Required percentage = (3/5) × 100 = 60%

In June, the difference between number of books distributed by Company B and that by Company D was 864. If number of books published by Company B in June was 1/3^rd of the number of books published by Company D in the same month, what was the number of books published by Company B in June?

((a))
2000
((b))
900
((c))
1800
((d))
Cannot be determined
((e))
1200

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

1200

Let the number of books published by Company D in June be 3x

According to the question,

Number of books published by Company B in June will be x

Now,

(52/100) × 3x = (84/100) × x = 864

⇒ 156x - 84x = 86400

⇒ 72x = 86400

⇒ x = 1200

∴ Number of published by company B is 1200

If each distributor of company A received 255 books in June, what was the number of books published by Company A in June?

((a))
4800
((b))
3200
((c))
3840
((d))
4480
((e))
5120

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

4800

Total number of distributors of company A in June = 16

Each distributor of company A received 255 books

Total books distributed by company A = 16 × 255 = 4080

Now,

From the table we can say that,

85% = 4080

⇒ 1% = 4080/85

⇒ 100% = (4080/85) × 100 = 4800

∴ Total number of books published by Company A in June = 4800

Number of books received by each distributor of company E in June (Considering everyone gets equal number of books) was what percent less than the number of books not distributed by the company among its distributors in the same month?

((a))
30(1/3) %
((b))
32(1/3) %
((c))
36(2/3) %
((d))
33(1/3) %
((e))
39(2/3) %

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

33(1/3) %

Calculation:

Let the number of books published by E in June be 100

Number of books received by each distributor of company E in June

(\Rightarrow \frac{1}{{11}} \times \frac{{88}}{{100}} \times 100 = 8)

Number of the books not distributed by the company E among its distributors in June

⇒ (12/100 × 100) = 12

∴ Required percentage = (12 - 8)/12 × 100 = 33.33%

General Studies (25 questions)

Which State of India is associated with Saffron production?

((a))
Assam
((b))
West Bengal
((c))
Jammu & Kashmir
((d))
Punjab
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Jammu & Kashmir

The correct answer is Jammu & Kashmir.

Key Points

The only state which produces saffron in India is Jammu – Kashmir.
Saffron:
Saffron, golden-coloured, pungent stigmas (pollen-bearing structures) of the autumn crocus (Crocus sativus).
It is used as a spice to flavour foods and as a dye to colour foods and other products.
Saffron has a strong, exotic aroma and a bitter taste and is used to colour and flavour many Mediterranean and Asian dishes.
Saffron is cultivated chiefly in Iran but is also grown in Spain, France, Italy (on the lower spurs of the Apennines Range), and parts of India.
Other Production in Jammu and Kashmir:
Agricultural exports from Jammu and Kashmir include apples, barley, cherries, corn, millet, oranges, rice, peaches, pears, saffron, sorghum, vegetables, and wheat, while manufactured exports include handicrafts, rugs, and shawls.

Additional Information

Himachal Pradesh:
The main cereals grown include wheat, maize, rice and barley with major cropping systems being maize-wheat, rice-wheat and maize-potato-wheat.
Pulses, fruits, vegetables and oilseeds are among the other crops grown in the state.

Deficiency of Vitamin-D results in

((a))
night blindness
((b))
rickets
((c))
scurvy
((d))
hairfall
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

rickets

The correct answer is Rickets.

Key Points

Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin which is naturally present in very few foods like fatty fish, and fish liver oils, beef liver, cheese, and egg yolks.
Vitamin D keeps adequate calcium and phosphate concentrations in blood. It prevents the weakening of bones.
Vitamin D has other functions in the body, including cell growth, neuromuscular and immune function, and reduction of inflammation.
Scientific Name: Calciferol.
Vitamin D deficiency can cause rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.

Vitamins	Its deficiency
Vitamin A	night blindness
Vitamin C	scurvy
Vitamin B (B7)	hair fall

The governor General of India during the revolt of 1857 was ______________.

((a))
Lord Ripon
((b))
Lord Canning
((c))
Lord Hardinge
((d))
Lord Lytton
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Lord Canning

The correct option is 2 i.e, Lord Canning.

Lord Canning was the Governor-General of India ( 1856 - 1860 ) during the revolt of 1857.
He became the first Viceroy of India in 1858.
He is also known as "Viscount Canning".
He established three modern universities in India, Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay.
During his administration, the Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn.
He is also called as Clemency Canning.
He also introduced the Portfolio system.
Lord Ripon -
He was the viceroy of India (1880 - 1884).
Illbert Bill was introduced during his tenure.
He is known as the "Father of Local Self Government in India".
Lord Hardinge -
He served as the Governor-General of India from 1910 -1916.
He was attacked by Rash Behari.
Lord Lytton -
He served as Governor-General of India from 1876 - 1880.
The second Anglo-Afghan war took place in his tenure.
The Great Famine of 1876 -78 took place in his tenure.

EXIM Bank deals with the issue of financial assistance relating to which one of the following?

((a))
Foreign Trade
((b))
Domestic Trade
((c))
Agriculture Devlopment
((d))
Industrial Development
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Foreign Trade

The correct answer is option 1 i.e., Foreign Trade.

EXIM Bank deals with the issue of financial assistance relating to Foreign Trade.
EXIM Bank extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to overseas financial institutions, regional development banks, sovereign governments.
EXIM Bank is headquartered in Mumbai.
Shri. David Rasquinha is the present Chief Executive of the EXIM Bank.
It is the premier export finance institution in India, established in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981. Since its inception, the Exim Bank of India has been both a catalyst and a key player in the promotion of cross border trade and investment.
Exim Bank is managed by a Board of Directors, which has representatives from the Government, Reserve Bank of India, Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India, a financial institution, public sector banks, and the business community.

Who was the finance minister during the 1991 economic reforms?

((a))
Manmohan Singh
((b))
PV Narasimha Rao
((c))
R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
((d))
R. Venkataraman
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Manmohan Singh

The correct answer is Manmohan Singh.

Important Points

Manmohan Singh served as the finance minister during the 1991 economic reforms.
He was the finance minister in the PV Narasimha Rao government.
Manmohan Singh is the 13th Prime Minister of India (2004 to 2014).
He is the first Prime Minister from the Sikh community.
First Prime Minister from the minority community.
Only governor of RBI who became the prime minister of India.
He was the deputy chairman of the planning commission during the period 1985 to 1987.
He is the first prime minister to visit the Siachin glacier.
Notable works: Changing India, The Quest for Equity in Development.

Additional Information

R. Venkataraman served as the finance minister from 1980 to 1982.
PV Narasimha Rao served as the 9th Prime Minister of India (1991 to 1996).
R. K. Shanmukham Chetty served as the first finance minister of India from 1947 to 1949.

Union Minister for Civil Aviation Jyotiraditya Scindia recently launched Digi Yatra from the Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi for three airports in the country, namely New Delhi, _______________ and Bengaluru.

((a))
Hyderabad
((b))
Bhopal
((c))
Chennai
((d))
Varanasi
((e))
Mumbai

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Varanasi

The correct answer is 'Varanasi'.

Key Points

Union Minister for Civil Aviation Jyotiraditya Scindia, on December 1, launched Digi Yatra from the Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi for three airports in the country, namely New Delhi, Varanasi and Bengaluru.
Digi Yatra is conceived to achieve contactless, seamless processing of passengers at airports based on Facial Recognition Technology (FRT).
With Digi Yatra, India will now stand in the ranks of world class airports like Heathrow in London and Atlanta in United States of America.
Digi Yatra in the first phase, will be launched at 7 airports. However, it has been initially launched at 3 airports i.e., Delhi, Bengaluru and Varanasi today, to be followed by 4 airports namely Hyderabad, Kolkata, Pune, and Vijayawada by March 2023.
Later it would be implemented across various airports in the country.
The service is presently being launched for domestic flights passengers only.

Additional Information

The Digi Yatra project conceived by Digi Yatra Foundation under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, envisages a traveller today pass through various check points at the airports through a paperless and contactless processing using facial features to establish her identity which could be linked to the boarding pass.
To use this facility, one-time registration on Digi Yatra app is required using Aadhar based validation and a self-image capture.
There is no central storage of Personally Identifiable Information (PII). Passenger’s ID and travel credentials are stored in a secure wallet in the passenger’s smartphone itself.
The uploaded data will utilise blockchain technology and all the data will be purged from the servers within 24 hours of use.

Which is the only Indian state that share its boundary with Sikkim?

((a))
Meghalaya
((b))
Assam
((c))
Arunachal Pradesh
((d))
West Bengal
((e))
Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

Sikkim connects with only one state of the country.
The sole state of India that connects to Sikkim is West Bengal while other borders of Sikkim connect with countries like Nepal in the West, Bhutan in the East, and China in the north.
The state is best known for its biodiversity and is the second smallest state in India.

Important Points

About Sikkim:
Capital: Gangtok
Chief Minister: Prem Singh Tamang
Governor: Ganga Prasad
Lok Sabha seats: 1
Rajya Sabha seats: 1

The _____________________ Headquarter in New Delhi has won the prestigious GRIHA Exemplary Performance Award 2022, a top national level Green Building Award.

((a))
NITI Aayog
((b))
Central Information Commission
((c))
Unique Identification Authority of India
((d))
Archaeological Survey of India
((e))
National Highway Authority of India

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Unique Identification Authority of India

The correct answer is 'Unique Identification Authority of India'.

Key Points

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) Headquarter in New Delhi has won the prestigious GRIHA Exemplary Performance Award 2022, a top national level Green Building Award.
GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) is a national rating system for green buildings in India.
UIDAI HQ has been declared a winner among the existing highest rated building category.
UIDAI believes and promotes the idea of recycle and reuse to reduce carbon footprint. It has been harnessing solar power to meet a portion of its energy consumption.
It is recycling and reusing water and has been adhering to sustainable waste management practices. The eco friendliness of the building also offers a congenial working environment to the staff.
In 2021, UIDAI HQ building was adjudged the runners up.

Additional Information

Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique identity number that can be obtained voluntarily by the citizens of India and resident foreign nationals who have spent over 182 days in twelve months immediately preceding the date of application for enrolment, based on their biometric and demographic data.
The data is collected by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), a statutory authority established in January 2009 by the Government of India, under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, following the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits and services) Act, 2016.
Aadhaar is the world's largest biometric ID system.

The Maratha King became a non-entity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of-

((a))
Balaji Bajirao
((b))
Balaji Vishwanath
((c))
Bajirao I
((d))
Madhavrao I
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Balaji Bajirao

The correct answer is Balaji Bajirao.

Key Points

Balaji Bajirao
Shrimant Peshwa Balajirao Bhat (8 December 1720 – 23 June 1761), also known as Nana Saheb, was the 8th Peshwa of the Maratha Empire in India.
He was appointed as Peshwa in 1740 upon the death of his illustrious father, the Peshwa Bajirao I.
He was appointed as Peshwa by Shahuji.
His nominated successor, Ramraja, was imprisoned by the Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao at Satara.
In this condition, the power of the Maratha empire was passed into the hands of Peshwa by the Sangola Agreement in 1750.
By Sangola agreement in 1750, the Peshwa manage to administer the wealth in the name of Chhatrapati.
By the Sangola Agreement of 1750, the Maratha king became a 'do nothing king' and the Mayor of Palace, and the Peshwa emerged as the real and the effective head of the Maratha Confederacy. Hence option 1 is correct.

Svetambara and Digambara are two sects of the _______ community.

((a))
Zoroastrian
((b))
Buddhist
((c))
Maratha
((d))
Jain
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Jain

Svetambara and Digambara are two sects of the Jain community.
Svetambara Jains are “those who wear white” and is one of the two important sects of Jainism.
Svetambaras unlike Digambaras do not believe in renunciation of clothes for attaining liberation.
They also believe that anybody can attain liberation(including women).
Digamabara Jains are those to whom “space is the garment” and do not wear anything.
The Digambara Jains worship completely nude idols of tirthankaras (omniscient beings) and siddha (liberated souls). The tirthankara is represented either seated in yoga posture or standing in the Kayotsarga posture.
They believe that liberation can only be attained through male body and nudity is necessary to break the bondage of illusory world.
Extra:-
Jainsim has 24 teerthankaras (those who have conquered the illusory world and cycles of birth and death and those who lead others towards liberation)
Rishabnath was the first Jain teerthankar and the founder of Jainism.
Mahavira was the last and 24^th Jain teerthankar.
Five main vows of Jainism:-
ahiṃsā (non-violence), satya (truth), asteya (not stealing), brahmacharya (celibacy or chastity or sexual continence), and aparigraha (non-attachment)

When did the partition of Bengal take place?

((a))
1857
((b))
1930
((c))
1905
((d))
1921
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1905

The correct answer is 1905.

Key Points

The Partition of Bengal was announced on 19 July 1905 by the then Viceroy Lord Curzon.
And was implemented on 16 October 1905
However, in 1911 it was withdrawn by Lord Hardinge.
The stated reason was to ease the administration.
But the actual reason was to weaken the growing nationalism in Bengal and break the unity.
As per Curzon, after the partition, the two provinces would be Bengal (including modern West Bengal, Odisha, and Bihar) and Eastern Bengal and Assam.
Annulment of Bengal:
The partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911 by Lord Hardinge.
The capital of British India was moved to Delhi from Calcutta in 1911.
Despite the annulment, the partition already succeeded in making a communal divide between Muslims and Hindus of Bengal.

Additional Information

Years	Events
1857	Sepoy Mutiny.
1919	Khilafat Movement.
1930	Salt March.

Which of the following won Golden Glove at the FIFA World Cup 2022?

((a))
Cristiano Ronaldo
((b))
Kylian Mbappe
((c))
Emi Martinez
((d))
Lionel Messi
((e))
Enzo Fernandez

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Emi Martinez

The correct answer is Emi Martinez.

Key Points

Emi Martinez was awarded the Golden Glove Award.
Enzo Fernandez was awarded the Young Player Award.
Kylian Mbappe was awarded the Golden Boot award at the FIFA World Cup 2022.
The 2022 FIFA World Cup:
It took place in Qatar.
It was the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world.
It was the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.
The tournament was won by Argentina.
Argentina defeated France by 4-2.
Lionel Messi was awarded the Golden Ball Award.
At the end of the world cup 2022 he had 7 goals and 3 assists.
Lionel Messi also became the first man to win two Golden Ball Awards as he had bagged the honour in 2014 when Argentina lost the final to Germany.

What does the word 'E' stand for in the term "NEFT"?

((a))
Election
((b))
Exchange
((c))
Excise
((d))
Electronic
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Electronic

The correct answer is Electronic.

"NEFT" stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer.
It is an online payment system that can be used by individuals and organizations to transfer funds.
Individuals who do not have bank accounts can deposit the money at NEFT enabled branches to avail this facility by providing their basic details.

Rabi crops are sown from ______.

((a))
April to November
((b))
September to October
((c))
December to February
((d))
October to December
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

October to December

India has many crops that have different cropping seasons divided into three - rabi, kharif and zaidi.

Important Points

Rabi crops are sown in the winter months of October through December.
They are harvested from April to June.
Wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard are all key rabi crops.
Though these crops are farmed all across India, states in the north and northwestern sections of the country, such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh are crucial for wheat and other rabi crop production

Hence rabi crops are sown from October to December.

President Droupadi Murmu launched which app to help electric vehicle users locate nearest charging station ?

((a))
Electric Darshan
((b))
Ghumo India
((c))
Digital Safar
((d))
Rath Yatra
((e))
EV -Yatra

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

EV -Yatra

The correct answer is EV-Yatra portal.

Key Points

On the occasion of National Energy Conservation Day (December 14), President Draupadi Murmu launched the EV Yatra portal and mobile application with an aim to make India’s EV plans more functional and promote e-mobility in the country.
The event took place in Delhi under the chairmanship of Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

Additional Information

The EV Yatra app provides electric vehicle customers with their nearest charging station information and in-vehicle navigation.
With the help of this app, they can easily reach your nearest e-vehicle charging station.
The EV Yatra mobile application has been developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

In India, 'Good Governance Day' is observed on the birthday of:

((a))
Jawaharlal Nehru
((b))
Indira Gandhi
((c))
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
((d))
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Atal Bihari Vajpayee

The correct answer is Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

Key Points

Good Governance Day is observed every year on 25 December.
On this day nation celebrates the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Good Governance Day was established in 2014 to honor Prime Minister Vajpayee by fostering awareness among the Indian people of accountability in government.

Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Atal Bihari Vajpayee served as the Prime Minister of India three times.
His first term was for only 13 days in 1996.
He served his second term for a period of thirteen months from March 1998 to April 1999.
And for the full term from 1999 to 2004.
His first entry into parliament was in 1962 through the Rajya Sabha.
He was elected to the Lok Sabha seven times.
He was conferred the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award.
The world's longest tunnel at Rohtang located on the Leh-Manali highway was named as Atal Tunnel recently.

Which of the following acids is present in Curd?

((a))
Formic acid
((b))
Lactic acid
((c))
Oxalic acid
((d))
Tartaric acid
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Lactic acid

Concept:

Acids are basically categorized in Organic and inorganic acids.

Organic acids: All the sour things that we use in our daily life is organic acids. Ex- lemon, apple, vinegar etc.
Inorganic acids: The acids used in laboratories which are basically very strong acids are inorganic in nature. Ex- Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) etc.

Explanation:

Various types of acids are naturally occurring in the substance.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Lactic acid.

Few naturally occurring acids are -

Sl no.	Name of the Acid	Generally Found in
1	Tartaric acid	Grapes, tamarind
2	Lactic acid	Curd
3	Formic acid	The sting of bees and red ants
4	Gastric Juice/ HCL	Human stomach
5	Oxalic acid	Tomatoes
6	Citric acid or Ascorbic Acid	Orange or lemon, gooseberries (amla)
7	Acetic Acid	Vinegar

Give an example of device in which chemical energy is converted into electric energy.

((a))
Battery
((b))
Sitar
((c))
Dynamo
((d))
Microphone
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Battery

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Battery.

Name of the device	Conversion of energy
Battery	Chemical energy into electric energy
Sitar	Mechanical energy into sound energy
Dynamo	Mechanical energy into electrical energy
Microphone	Sound energy into electrical energy

Shalimar Garden located in Lahore, Pakistan, was built by which Mughal Emperor?

((a))
Jahangir
((b))
Shah Jahan
((c))
Akbar
((d))
Aurangzeb
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Shah Jahan

Shalimar Gardens located in Lahore, Pakistan, was built by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan.
It was built in the year 1641-42 and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Monuments like the Taj Mahal, the Jama Masjid, the Red Fort, etc. were also built by Shah Jahan.

Jahangir	Shalimar Bagh, Kashmir
Shah Jahan	Shalimar Garden, Pakistan
Akbar	Buland Darwaza, Fatehpur Sikri
Aurangzeb	Moti Masjid, Delhi

Who is the principal regulatory authority for stock market in India?

((a))
RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
((b))
Supreme Court
((c))
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
((d))
Finance Ministry
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)

The correct answer is SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India).

Key Points

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), was initially constituted on April 12, 1988.
SEBI is the regulatory body for dealing with all matters related to the development and regulation of the securities market in India.
SEBI is situated in Mumbai with its regional offices at Kolkata, Delhi, and Chennai.
SEBI is managed by six members:
one chairman (nominated by Central Government), two members (officers of central ministries), one member (from RBI), and the remaining two members are nominated by Central Government.
SEBI’s primary functions include protecting investor interests, promoting and regulating the Indian securities markets.
All financial intermediaries permitted by their respective regulators to participate in the Indian securities markets are governed by SEBI regulations.

Important Points

RBI (Reserve Bank of India)

- RBI was founded on 1 April 1935, in Kolkata. - HQ in Mumbai. - Governor is Shaktikanta Das. - The RBI is responsible for implementing monetary and credit policies, issuing currency notes, being a banker to the government, a regulator of the banking system, manager of foreign exchange, and regulator of payment & settlement systems while continuously working towards the development of Indian financial markets. - RBI is not a Commercial Bank. - RBI was nationalized on 1st January 1949. - The First Governor of RBI was Sir Osborne Smith (1935 – 1937). - The First Indian Governor of RBI was CD Deshmukh (1943 – 1949). - The only Prime Minister who was the Governor of RBI was Manmohan Singh (1982 – 1985). - The First women deputy Governor of RBI was KJ Udeshi.

Supreme Court

- Supreme Court came into existence on 26 January 1950 and is the apex court in India. - HQ in New Delhi. - On 29 October 1954, Dr Rajendra Prasad the first President of India laid the foundation stone of the Supreme Court building.

Finance Ministry

- It deals with taxation, financial legislation, financial institutions, capital markets, centre and state finances, and the Union Budget. - The current Finance Minister of India is Nirmala Sitharaman (first female full-time Finance Minister). - Liaquat Ali Khan was the first Finance Minister. - Independent India’s first Union Budget was presented on 26th November 1947 by Sri. R K Shanmukham Chetty.

Who was elected the 14th Vice President of India on 6 August 2022?

((a))
Jagdeep Dhankhar
((b))
Nalin Negi
((c))
Ashishkumar Chauhan
((d))
Rama Subramaniam Gandhi
((e))
Margaret Alva

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Jagdeep Dhankhar

The correct answer is Jagdeep Dhankhar.

Key Points

Former West Bengal governor & National Democratic Alliance (NDA) candidate Jagdeep Dhankhar was elected the 14th Vice President of India on 6 August 2022.
Mr Dhankhar defeated the Opposition’s candidate, Ms Margaret Alva, by a margin of 346 votes.
He will succeed M Venkaiah Naidu.
Mr Dhankhar will take the oath of office on 11 August 2022.

Additional Information

Recent Appointments:
Fintech startup BharatPe has appointed Nalin Negi, the former chief financial officer of credit card issuer SBI Card, as its CFO.
Ashishkumar Chauhan has assumed charge as MD and CEO of the National Stock Exchange (NSE).
YES Bank has announced the appointment of Rama Subramaniam Gandhi as an additional independent director of the bank for a period of five years.

Red light is used in traffic signals, because ________.

((a))
colour or blood is red
((b))
animals can identify red
((c))
red light disperses least
((d))
red is the symbol of danger
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

red light disperses least

In traffic signals, it is important that the signal remains visible from a far distance.
And red light scatters least which enables us to see the signal from a far distance.
According to Rayleigh's scattering, electromagnetic radiation (light) is scattered by particles of radius less than 1/10th the wavelength ((\lambda)) of radiation.

(\text{Scattering intensity} \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^4})

This implies that the more the wavelength of radiation, the less it will be scattered. Since red light has the longest wavelength, it gets scattered the least and travels more distance, and the intensity of the light is not reduced due to scattering, therefore, it is used in danger signals so that they can be seen from a distance.

What is the amount of cash incentive provided to pregnant women and lactating mothers under the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana – PMMVY?

((a))
Rs. 5000
((b))
Rs. 2000
((c))
Rs. 3000
((d))
Ts. 7000
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs. 5000

The correct answer is Rs. 5000.

The amount of cash incentive provided to pregnant women and lactating mothers under the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana – PMMVY is Rs. 5000.

Key Points

Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana – PMMV
It is also partial compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentives so that the woman can take adequate rest before and after the delivery of the first living child.
The cash incentive provided would lead to improved health-seeking behaviour amongst the Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW&LM).
Under it cash incentive of Rs. 5,000 is provided to pregnant women and lactating mothers.
Introduced in 2017.
It is under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
It is a conditional cash transfer scheme.
Pregnant women of 19 years of age or above for the first live birth are the main target base.

The southernmost Himalayas are known as __________.

((a))
Shiwaliks
((b))
Himadri
((c))
Himachal
((d))
Garhwal
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Shiwaliks

The correct answer is Shiwaliks.

Key Points

Shivalik
Also known as the outer Himalayas, they are known by different names in different places. For example, they are called Jammu hills in Jammu, Dudhwa ranges in Uttarakhand, Darjeeling hills in West Bengal, etc.
The Shiwalik is the southernmost range of the Himalayas. Hence, option 1 is correct.
River Teesta cuts across Shivalik ranges in Sikkim.
Beyond Sikkim, Shivalik ranges merge with the lesser Himalayas, also known as Outer Himalayas.
Shivalik range Located between the Great Plains and Lesser Himalayas.
The altitude varies from 600 to 1500 meters.
Runs for a distance of 2,400 km from the Potwar Plateau to the Brahmaputra valley.
The southern slopes of the Shivalik range are steep while the northern slopes are gentle.
The width of the Shiwaliks varies from 50 km in Himachal Pradesh to less than 15 km in Arunachal Pradesh.
They are an almost unbroken chain of low hills except for a gap of 80-90 km which is occupied by the valley of the Tista River and Raidak River.
Shiwalik range from North-East India up to Nepal are covered with thick forests but the forest cover decreases towards west from Nepal (The quantum of rainfall decreases from east to west in Shiwaliks and Ganga Plains).
The southern slopes of the Shiwalik range in Punjab and Himachal Pradesh are almost devoid of forest cover. These slopes are highly dissected by seasonal streams called **Chaos.**

100

Coal Heritage Park and Museum is in which state of India?

((a))
West Bengal
((b))
Telangana
((c))
Bihar
((d))
Jharkhand
((e))
Assam

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Assam

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

This museum was established in 2012 for preservation of coal related artifacts of the last 120 years.
Coal mining was started in 1881 in Margherita region in Upper Assam by the British-owned Assam Railways and Trading Company (AR&TC).
This heritage museum depicts the history of coal mining in the north east region.
It also depicts the procedures of mining along with refinery processes

Attempt this paper under real exam conditions

Timed interface, section switching, instant scoring, and question-by-question analytics — free.

Start Timed Attempt