Official Paper

FCI AG III Memory Based Question Paper (Held on: 14th January 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

English Language (25 questions)

1

Directions: In the question given below, a sentence is given, divided into parts. One of the parts may contain an error. Identify the part that contains the error and mark it as the answer. Ignore errors in punctuation. In case the sentence is correct as it is, mark option (E), i.e. 'No error'. Note - The words in bold are grammatically and contextually correct.

One of the / side effect (A)/ of the drug (B)/ is an / increased susceptibility (C)/ to infections (D)/. No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • In the second part of the given sentence, the singular form of the noun ''effect'' is incorrect.
  • The phrase ''One of'' specifies a person, place, or thing in a sentence and shows that it is different from other people, places, or things or it also falls in the category of the best.
  • ''One of'' is always followed by a plural noun.
  • Hence ''One of + plural noun'' acts as a singular subject in a sentence and it takes a singular verb.
  • Therefore, the plural form of the noun ''effects'' should be used in place of the singular noun 'effect'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: One of the side effects of the drug is an increased susceptibility to infections.

2

The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Ritu has (A)/ such a fine memory (B)/ that she can recollect (C)/ anything what happened (D)/ many years ago (E)/.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The correct answer is i.e. 'D' this part of the sentence has an error

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Key Points

  • In the fourth part of the sentence 'what' should be replaced by 'that'.
  • In the given sentence there is an incorrect use of conjunction.
  • Therefore, the conjunction needs to be replaced.
  • We must use correct conjunction in order to make the sentence logically and grammatically correct.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct SentenceRitu has such a fine memory that she can recollect anything that happened many years ago.

3

Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

A COVID-19 pandemic is (A)/ an ongoing global pandemic (B)/ of coronavirus disease 2019 (C)/ caused by severe acute (D)/ respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) (E)/.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points 

  • In the first part of the given sentence, the noun 'COVID-19 pandemic' is a specified noun.
  • The definite article 'the' is used before singular and plural nouns when the noun is specific or particular.
  • 'A' and 'an' are indefinite articles, which means that they refer to, or introduce, an unspecified noun.
  • We use 'a' before a consonant sound and we use 'an' before a vowel sound.
  • ''No article'' is used when we refer to general ideas, plurals, or uncountable nouns.
  • Therefore, the definite article 'the' should be used in place of the indefinite article 'a'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: The COVID-19 pandemic is an ongoing global pandemic of coronavirus disease 2019 caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2).

Additional Information

There are three articles: a, an, and the. Articles are used before nouns or noun equivalents and are a type of adjective.

RULESCOUNT NOUNSNON-COUNT NOUNS
Specific identity not knowna, an(no article)
Specific identity is knownthethe
All things or things in general(no article)
(no article)
4

Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The law further provide (A)/ for the re-engagement (B)/ of men of all ranks, (C)/ under conditions varying (D)/ according to their ranks (E)/.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • In the first part of the given sentence, the plural form of the verb 'provide' is incorrect.
  • The subject 'The law' in the given sentence is a singular subject.
  • We know that a singular subject always takes a singular verb.
  • The singular form of the verb 'provides' should be used with the singular subject 'The law'.
  • Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'provides' should be used in place of the plural form of the verb 'provide'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: The law further provides for the re-engagement of men of all ranks, under conditions varying according to their ranks.

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Additional Information

  • Subjects and verbs must agree with one another in number (singular or plural).
  • Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular; if the subject is plural, its verb must also be plural.
5

In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

We had to travel 50 km (A)/ out of the way to (B)/ reach our destination, which (C)/ are not a long distance. (D)/ No error (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The correct answer is ‘D’, i.e this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • When plural nouns explain specific 'amount, sum, distance, quality, time, period' as a whole, the verb should be singular.
  • The fifty kilometres, mentioned in the sentence are taken as a whole to mention distance, so the verb used here will be singular.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 'is not a'.

Hence, the correct option is option 4.

The correct sentence is: We had to travel 50 km out of the way to reach our destination, which is not a long distance.

6

In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

The house I bought (A)/ is ten times (B)/ cheaper than (C)/ his luxury car. (D)/ No Error

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

The correct answer is ‘C’, i.e this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • Because a comparison is being made between the prices of two different items, a comparative degree of the adjective 'cheap' should be used.
  • As a rule, no comparison is implied in the sentences when there is 'time' used for comparison, like 'ten times' is used here, so 'cheaper than' makes the sentence incorrect.
  • Therefore, the use of positive degree 'as cheap as' is correct.

Hence, the correct option is option 3.

The correct sentence is: The house I bought is ten times as cheap as his luxury car.

Additional Information 

  • We use comparative degree when the sentence is without 'times'.
  • example: The car I bought is a lakh rupees cheaper than his car.
7

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelt. Find the misspelt word.

An almost unbareable (A) degree of self-awareness of his alienation(B) from the so-called ordinary(C) Indian or Aam Admi occasioned(D) his entry into politics. (E)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is 'A'.

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:
  • 'unbareable' - there is no such word in English or we can say there is some spelling mistake.
  • But the word that contextually fits here is 'unbearable' which means not able to be endured or tolerated.
  • 'alienation' means the state or experience of being alienated.
  • 'ordinary' means with no special or distinctive features; normal.
  • 'occasioned' means cause (something).
  • 'politics' means the activities associated with the governance of a country or area, especially the debate between parties having power.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: An almost unbearable degree of self-awareness of his alienation from the so-called ordinary Indian or Aam Admi* occasioned his entry into politics.* 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'unbearable' are "intolerable, unexpectable, unendurable".
  • Example of 'unbearable' in a sentence:
  • The heat and humidity during the month of July are unbearable in some parts of India.
8

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

By cancelling(A) all visas that had been issued(B) earlier to Afghan citizens, including government officials, journalists(C), and other frequent(D) visitors, India has turned friends into unwanted enterants(E).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

E

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Cancelling' means To decide or announce that something will not take place.
  • 'Issued' means To give or say something to somebody officially.
  • 'Journalists' means People who write for newspapers, magazines, or news websites or prepare news to be broadcast.
  • 'Frequent' means Occurring or done many times at short intervals.
  • 'Enterants': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • ​The correct spelling is 'Entrants' means A person or group that enters or takes part in something.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: By canceling all visas that had been issued earlier to Afghan citizens, including government officials, journalists, and other frequent visitors, India has turned friends into unwanted entrants.

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Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Entrants' are "Candidates, Entries, Probationers".
  • Example of 'Entrants' in a sentence:
  • New entrants to the job market are considerably better educated than workers who are retiring.
9

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

After the dramatic(A) events on July 9, new complexities(B) have arisen in Sri Lanka’s politics and are characterized(C) by both excitement(D) and anxeity(E).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

E

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Dramatic' means An event or circumstance sudden and striking.
  • 'Complexities' means The state or quality of being intricate or complicated.
  • 'Characterized' means To be typical of somebody or something.
  • 'Excitement' means A feeling of great enthusiasm and eagerness.
  • 'Anxeity': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • ​The correct spelling is 'Anxiety' means A feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: After the dramatic events on July 9, new complexities have arisen in Sri Lanka’s politics and are characterized by both excitement and anxiety.

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Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Anxiety' are "Worry, Concern, Apprehension".
  • Example of 'Anxiety' in a sentence:
  • He felt a surge of anxiety.
10

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

Global and Indian evidence(A) fully supports this strategy(B), which prevents the largely irreversible(C) stunting(D) occuring(E) by two years of age.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

E

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:-
  • 'Evidence' means The available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.
  • 'Strategy' means A plan of action designed to achieve a long-term or overall aim.
  • 'Irreversible' means Not able to be undone or altered.
  • 'Stunting' means To prevent from growing or developing properly.
  • 'Occuring': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
  • ​The correct spelling is 'Occurring' means To happen; take place.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: Global and Indian evidence fully supports this strategy, which prevents the largely irreversible stunting occurring by two years of age.

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Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Occurring' are "Happen, Transpire, Materialize".
  • Example of 'Occurring' in a sentence:
  • After 19 May, strikes were occurring on a daily basis.
11

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blanks.

Madhavan has ______ Brahmanical and religious elements throughout the movie as a director and producer.

  1. ((a))

    said

  2. ((b))

    seemed

  3. ((c))

    agreed

  4. ((d))

    sprinkled

  5. ((e))

    corresponded

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

sprinkled

The correct answer is 'sprinkled'.

 

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about the actor turned director and producer Madhavan, who has incorporated the elements of Brahmanical and religious elements in his film.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank, from the given options is 'sprinkled'.
  • The word 'sprinkled' means to scatter a few drops or small pieces of something.
  • Example: He sprinkled his magic on the painting and brought it to life.

 

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • Said: utter words so as to convey information, an opinion, a feeling or intention, or an instruction
  • Seemed: to give the impression of being something or having a particular quality.
  • Agreed: discussed or negotiated and then accepted by all parties.
  • Corresponded: have a close similarity; match or agree almost exactly.
12

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

At ______ moments, he prays to the almighty to give him strength.

  1. ((a))

    trivial

  2. ((b))

    secondary

  3. ((c))

    optional

  4. ((d))

    voluntary

  5. ((e))

    crucial

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

crucial

The correct answer is 'crucial'.

 

 Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about a person praying to the almighty to give him strength, in difficult situations.
  • Therefore the most appropriate word to fill in the blank, from the given options is 'crucial'.
  • The word 'crucial' means decisive or critical, especially in the success or failure of something.
  • Example: Clearing the competitive exam is crucial to me and my career.

 

Hence, the correct option is option 5.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • Trivial: of little value or importance.
  • Secondary: coming after, less important than, or resulting from someone or something else that is primary.
  • Optional: available to be chosen but not obligatory.
  • Voluntary: done, given, or acting of one's own free will.
13

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Mr. Kumar’s appeal had _______, and his party, the JD(U), got fewer seats than the RJD and the BJP.

  1. ((a))

    Polished

  2. ((b))

    Diminished

  3. ((c))

    Astonished

  4. ((d))

    Established

  5. ((e))

    Wished

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Diminished

The correct answer is 'Diminished.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is saying that Mr. Kumar’s appeal had caused to seem less impressive or valuable, and his party, the JD(U), got fewer seats than the RJD and the BJP.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Diminished'.
  • Also, the use of the word ''fewer'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'diminished' in the blank.
  • The word 'Diminished' means To cause to seem less impressive or valuable.
  • Example: His influence has diminished with time.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete Sentence: Mr. Kumar’s appeal had diminished, and his party, the JD(U), got fewer seats than the RJD and the BJP.

<br>

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Polished means Accomplished and skillful.
  • Astonished means Greatly surprised or impressed; amazed.
  • Established means Having existed or done something for a long time and therefore recognized and generally accepted.
  • Wished means To feel or express a strong desire or hope for something that cannot or probably will not happen.
14

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

One can only hope that sometime in the not distant future the Court corrects the _______.

  1. ((a))

    Error

  2. ((b))

    Terror

  3. ((c))

    Prefer

  4. ((d))

    Fetor

  5. ((e))

    Abductor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Error

The correct answer is 'Error.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about the Court correcting the mistake in the near future.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Error'.
  • Also, the use of the word ''corrects'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'error' in the blank.
  • The word 'Error' means A mistake; the state of being wrong.
  • Example: The program not only corrects the error in your document but also learns from its mistake.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete Sentence: One can only hope that sometime in the not distant future the Court corrects the error.

<br>

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Terror means Extreme fear.
  • Prefer means To like one thing or person better than another or others; tend to choose.
  • Fetor means A strong, foul smell.
  • Abductor means A person who abducts another person.
15

Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

She added that an increase in public investment would crowd in (or pull in) private investment, thus _______ the economy.

  1. ((a))

    Preserving

  2. ((b))

    Swerving

  3. ((c))

    Reviving

  4. ((d))

    Reversing

  5. ((e))

    Regressing

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reviving

The correct answer is 'Reviving.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about the way of giving new strength to the economy.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Reviving'.
  • Also, the use of the word ''economy'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'reviving' in the blank.
  • The word 'Reviving' means To give new strength or energy to something.
  • Example: Major new investments are aimed at reviving the stagnant economy.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete Sentence: She added that an increase in public investment would crowd in (or pull in) private investment, thus reviving the economy.

<br>

Additional Information

  • Let us explore  the other options:
  • Preserving means To maintain something in its original or existing state.
  • Swerving means To change or cause to change direction abruptly.
  • Reversing means To move backward.
  • Regressing means To return to a former or less developed state.
16

Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

ORDER

A. The poor boy smelled the delicious order of cooked meat.

B. The union issued an order instructing its members not to work overtime.

C. The tests in this book are arranged in order of difficulty.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both B and C

  5. ((e))

    Only C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both B and C

The correct answer is '​Both B and C.'

Key Points

  • The word 'Order' as a noun means An authoritative command or instruction.
  • The word 'Order' as a noun means The arrangement of people or things in relation to each other according to a particular sequence, pattern, or method.
  • In sentence A, the word 'Order' is inappropriately used and doesn't fit the context of the sentence.
  • In sentence B, the word 'Order' has been correctly used as a noun as the sentence is talking about an instruction given by the Union to its members.
  • In sentence C, the word 'Order' ​has been correctly used as a noun as the sentence is talking about the arrangement of tests in a book.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

17

Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

CASE

A. Fire-brigades are standing by in case of an explosion.

B. The bigger girls used to case me and tickle me.

C. The boy's case was adjudged in the juvenile court.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Both A and C

  4. ((d))

    Only B

  5. ((e))

    Only C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both A and C

The correct answer is '​Both A and C.'

Key Points

  • The word 'Case' as a noun means An instance of a particular situation; an example of something occurring.
  • The word 'Case' as a noun means A legal action, especially one to be decided in a court of law.
  • In sentence A, the word 'Case' has been correctly used as a noun as the sentence is talking about the presence of fire-brigades if an explosion occurs.
  • In sentence B, the word 'Case' is inappropriately used and doesn't fit the context of the sentence.
  • In sentence C, the word 'Case' has been correctly used as a noun as the sentence is talking about the decision of the legal action against a boy.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

18

Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

CITE

A. The article cites several experts on the subject.

B. They've finally chosen a cite for the new school.

C. He cited evidence suggesting she was in the area when the crime was committed.

  1. ((a))

    Only B

  2. ((b))

    Only A

  3. ((c))

    Both B&C

  4. ((d))

    Both A&C

  5. ((e))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both A&C

Here the correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the different meanings of Cite:
  • refer to (a passage, book, or author) as evidence for or justification of an argument or statement, especially in a scholarly work.
  • praise (someone, typically a member of the armed forces) in an official report for a courageous act.
  • In sentence B, 'site' should have been used which means an area of ground on which a town, building, or monument is constructed.
  • In sentence A and C, 'cite' has been used correctly.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.
19

Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

VIEW

A. In my view, he has done nothing wrong.

B. You shall have a view dress for your birthday.

C. Our hotel room has a good view of the ocean.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    Only C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both A and C

The correct answer is '​Both A and C.'

Key Points

  • The word 'view' as a noun means an opinion or a particular way of thinking about something; the ability to see something or to be seen from a particular place.​
  • In sentence A, the word 'view' has been correctly used as a noun as the sentence is saying in one's opinion someone has done nothing wrong.
  • In sentence B, the word 'view' is inappropriately used and doesn't fit the context of the sentence.
  • In sentence C, the word 'view' has been correctly used as a noun as the sentence is talking about the ability to see the ocean from the hotel room.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

In a village, a small boy called chottu and his mother lived. Chottu loved his mother so much. He used to go to school and his mother used to go for a small job at a construction site but they lived very happily with that small income also. Chottu’s father died because of overdrinking, he never cared for his family and always beats his mother. But chottu likes everyone. Chottu never hates his father also. He used to help every person even if a small beggar begging for money. If he has some food he used to share some food with that beggar or person.

His mother doesn’t know about this and all and always thought he is a very bad person like his father but tried always to make him a good person and told him to study well and be a good person and a great person _______. A few days from the construction site in a small accident chottu’s mother got fractured and since that day she was not able to work. She doesn’t know how to live the remaining days. Chottu felt very sad and don’t know what to do. He saw some students going to work. But he remembered his mother's words that he should be a great person in life. He got confused about what to do. For living need to work and for the life, he should learn.

After some days he decided to go to work. He tried in many places all made him run from their workplace. Then also he tried again and again and at last, he got a job in a hotel. He cleaned the glasses and cleaned the tables and plates. But his ultimate aim was to learn. Then he started working and learning. It became very difficult to manage both.

One day he found his mother dead. Like that he became alone in life. From that day he decided he will fulfill his mother's dream and won’t follow his father's way. Morning time he used to go to school and evening and night time he used to go to work. Like that long time and years finished. He has grown up and he followed his good character and helping mentality, he completed his degree and applied for IAS. He tried very hard to get IAS but on the first attempt, he failed. He tried again and again.

On his third attempt, he got IAS and became a collector of his own district, he helped everyone who need help and he became a helping hand for everyone. He prompted and helped small students with their studies. And he has given a message to everyone that ” If there is a will means..there is a way”.

20

Choose the antonym of the word 'Fulfill'.

  1. ((a))

    Accomplish

  2. ((b))

    Attain

  3. ((c))

    Fail

  4. ((d))

    Achieve

  5. ((e))

    Execute

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fail

The correct answer is 'Fail.'

Key Points

  • The word 'Fulfill' means To achieve or realize something desired, promised, or predicted.
  • Example: He wouldn't be able to fulfill his ambition to visit Florida.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
  • Accomplish - To achieve or complete something successfully.
  • Example: People usually accomplish things that are sources of pride — like goals or records.
  • Attain - To succeed in achieving something that one has worked for.
  • Example: They ought to attain this aim.
  • Fail - To be unsuccessful in achieving one's goal.
  • Example: If you don't work hard, you may fail.
  • Achieve - To successfully bring about or reach a desired objective or result by effort, skill, or courage.
  • Example: We will use every possible means to achieve our objective.
  • Execute - To put a plan, order, or course of action into effect.
  • Example: Never once did I doubt that I would be able to execute my plan.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Fulfill' are "Fail, Slight, Slur".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Fulfill' are "Accomplish, Attain, Achieve".
21

Choose the synonym of the word 'Prompted'.

  1. ((a))

    Encouraged

  2. ((b))

    Restricted

  3. ((c))

    Impeded

  4. ((d))

    Quelled

  5. ((e))

    Deterred

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Encouraged

The correct answer is 'Caused.'

Key Points

  • The word 'Prompted' means To encourage someone to do something.
  • Example: He prompted his brother to win the match.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
  • Restricted - To put a limit on something.
  • Example: Membership of the club is restricted to adults.
  • Impeded - To delay or prevent someone or something by obstructing them; hinder.
  • Example: The rescue attempt was impeded by bad weather.
  • Quelled - To put an end to something.
  • Example: The threat of nuclear terrorism has been quelled.
  • Deterred - To prevent the occurrence of something.
  • Example: The company's financial difficulties have deterred potential investors.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Prompted' are "Encouraged, Caused, Brought, Produced".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Prompted' are "Restricted, Impeded, Deterred".
22

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: ''His mother doesn’t know about this and all and always thought he is a very bad person like his father but tried always to make him a good person and told him to study well and be a good person and a great person _______.''

  1. ((a))

    Who never cares for his family.

  2. ((b))

    Who can only care for his family and not others.

  3. ((c))

    Who always hate others.

  4. ((d))

    Who can help the people who need help.

  5. ((e))

    Without helping mentality.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Who can help the people who need help.

The correct answer is 'Who can help the people who need help.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is talking about a mother who is trying to make his son a good person who can help needy people.
  • The use of the phrase ''good person'' in the sentence indicates the use of the phrase 'help the people' in the blank.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option to be filled in the blank is 'Who can help the people who need help.'

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Complete Sentence: His mother doesn’t know about this and all and always thought he is a very bad person like his father but tried always to make him a good person and told him to study well and be a good person and a great person who can help the people who need help.

23

What was the ultimate aim of the boy even after getting a job?

  1. ((a))

    His ultimate aim was to live a life of a beggar.

  2. ((b))

    His ultimate aim was to remain jobless.

  3. ((c))

    His ultimate aim was to become a very bad person like his father.

  4. ((d))

    His ultimate aim was to go for a small job like his mother.

  5. ((e))

    His ultimate aim was to learn.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

His ultimate aim was to learn.

The correct answer is 'His ultimate aim was to learn.'

Key Points

  • The fifth sentence of the third paragraph says "But his ultimate aim was to learn.''
  • From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, the ultimate aim of the boy even after getting a job was to learn.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 5.

24

How did Chotu's father die?

  1. ((a))

    In a car accident.

  2. ((b))

    Because of overdrinking.

  3. ((c))

    Because of heart attack.

  4. ((d))

    Due to COVID-19.

  5. ((e))

    Because of unintentional injuries.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Because of overdrinking.

The correct answer is 'Because of overdrinking.'

Key Points

  • The fourth sentence of the first paragraph says "Chottu’s father died because of overdrinking, he never cared for his family and always beats his mother.''
  • From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, Chotu's father died because of overdrinking.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

25

Where did Chotu's mother use to work?

  1. ((a))

    In a hotel.

  2. ((b))

    At a restaurant.

  3. ((c))

    At a construction site.

  4. ((d))

    In a bungalow.

  5. ((e))

    In a sugar mill.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

At a construction site.

The correct answer is 'At a construction site.'

Key Points

  • The third sentence of the first paragraph says "He used to go to school and his mother used to go for a small job at a construction site but they lived very happily with that small income also.''
  • From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, Chotu's mother use to work at a construction site.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

Reasoning Ability (25 questions)

Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Eight persons Rita, Tina, Sonu, Pinku, Rahul, Priya, Gaurav, and Rohit are sitting around a circular table facing inside the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Rahul is not sitting immediate left of Rohit. Tina is not immediate neighbor of Sonu. Two persons are sitting between Rohit and Priya. Gaurav sits second to the right of Pinku. Two persons are sitting between Rita and Rohit. Priya is not neighbor of Tina. Two persons are sitting between Priya and Sonu.

26

Who sits opposites to Priya?

  1. ((a))

    Rahul

  2. ((b))

    Sonu

  3. ((c))

    Pinku

  4. ((d))

    Rohit

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rahul

Persons: Rita, Tina, Sonu, Pinku, Rahul, Priya, Gaurav, and Rohit.

1). Two persons are sitting between Rohit and Priya.

2). Two persons are sitting between Rita and Rohit.

3). Two persons are sitting between Priya and Sonu.

4). Tina is not an immediate neighbor of Sonu.

5). Priya is not a neighbor of Tina.

6). Gaurav sits second to the right of Pinku.

7). Rahul is not immediate left of Rohit. ( from here Case 1 gets eliminated)

The final arrangements:

Hence, Rahul sits opposites to Priya.

27

Who sits third to the Right of Pinku?

  1. ((a))

    Sonu

  2. ((b))

    Rohit

  3. ((c))

    Tina

  4. ((d))

    Rahul

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tina

Persons: Rita, Tina, Sonu, Pinku, Rahul, Priya, Gaurav, and Rohit.

1). Two persons are sitting between Rohit and Priya.

2). Two persons are sitting between Rita and Rohit.

3). Two persons are sitting between Priya and Sonu.

4). Tina is not an immediate neighbor of Sonu.

5). Priya is not a neighbor of Tina.

6). Gaurav sits second to the right of Pinku.

7). Rahul is not immediate left of Rohit. ( from here Case 1 gets eliminated)

The final arrangements:

Hence, Tina sits third to the right of Pinku.

28

How many persons sits between Sonu and Tina , when we move in anti-clockwise directions from Sonu?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Four

Persons: Rita, Tina, Sonu, Pinku, Rahul, Priya, Gaurav, and Rohit.

1). Two persons are sitting between Rohit and Priya.

2). Two persons are sitting between Rita and Rohit.

3). Two persons are sitting between Priya and Sonu.

4). Tina is not an immediate neighbor of Sonu.

5). Priya is not a neighbor of Tina.

6). Gaurav sits second to the right of Pinku.

7). Rahul is not immediate left of Rohit. ( from here Case 1 gets eliminated)

The final arrangements:

Hence, Four persons sit between Sonu and Tina, when we move in an anticlockwise direction from Sonu.

29

If Priya change its position with Sonu, who sits immediate right of Sonu?

  1. ((a))

    Rita

  2. ((b))

    Pinku

  3. ((c))

    Tina

  4. ((d))

    Gaurav

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gaurav

Persons: Rita, Tina, Sonu, Pinku, Rahul, Priya, Gaurav, and Rohit.

1). Two persons are sitting between Rohit and Priya.

2). Two persons are sitting between Rita and Rohit.

3). Two persons are sitting between Priya and Sonu.

4). Tina is not an immediate neighbor of Sonu.

5). Priya is not a neighbor of Tina.

6). Gaurav sits second to the right of Pinku.

7). Rahul is not immediate left of Rohit. ( from here Case 1 gets eliminated)

The final arrangements:

After changing of position the new arrangements is

 

Hence, After changing positions Gaurav sits immediate right of Sonu.

30

Who among the following is the immediate neighbors of Tina?

  1. ((a))

    Rohit

  2. ((b))

    Sonu

  3. ((c))

    Gaurav

  4. ((d))

    Both Rohit and Gaurav

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both Rohit and Gaurav

Persons: Rita, Tina, Sonu, Pinku, Rahul, Priya, Gaurav, and Rohit.

1). Two persons are sitting between Rohit and Priya.

2). Two persons are sitting between Rita and Rohit.

3). Two persons are sitting between Priya and Sonu.

4). Tina is not an immediate neighbor of Sonu.

5). Priya is not a neighbor of Tina.

6). Gaurav sits second to the right of Pinku.

7). Rahul is not immediate left of Rohit. ( from here Case 1 gets eliminated)

The final arrangements:

Hence, Both Rohit and Gaurav are the immediate neighbors of Tina.

31

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ENTERPRISE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Three

Hence, ‘three’ pairs are there in the word ‘ENTERPRISE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet.

32

If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 624739854, then the sum of digits which is 4th and 5th from right and left respectively ____.

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    10

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 10

Given number is 624739854

Now we add 1 in all even digits and subtract 1 from all odd digits.

After the arrangement we get:

735628945

The 5th digit from the left end is 2 and the 4th digit from the right end is 8. so the sum is 8 + 2 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is 10.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.

An uncertain number of person is sitting in a row facing towards North. Q is sitting second from on the extreme ends. S is sitting seventh to the right of M. L is sitting exactly in between Q and S. O is sitting third to the left of R. Only two people are sitting between Q and M. Only one person is sitting between S and O. P is sitting second to the left of N who is sitting fourth to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

33

Who is sitting at the extreme right end of the row?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    N

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

N

Facing: North

  1. Q is sitting second from on the extreme ends. 

(Here two cases are possible Case I Q is sitting second from the extreme North end Case II where Q is sitting second from the extreme south end) 

  1. Only two people are sitting between Q and

  1. S is sitting seventh to the right of M. 

Here Case II eliminates as Q is sitting second from the extreme end so S will not sit beyond.

  1. L is sitting exactly in between Q and S. 

  1. Only one person is sitting between S and O. 

(As O can sit both the sides of S. So, In Case I.I O is sitting second to the right of S and in Case I.II O is sitting second to the left of S.)

  1. O is sitting third to the left of R. 

  1. R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

Here Case I.II eliminates as R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

  1. P is sitting second to the left of N, who is sitting fourth to the right of R. 

The final arrangement:

Hence, N is sitting at the extreme right end of the row.

34

How many people are sitting in the row?

  1. ((a))

    23

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    22

  5. ((e))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21

Facing: North

  1. Q is sitting second from on the extreme ends. 

(Here two cases are possible Case I Q is sitting second from the extreme North end Case II where Q is sitting second from the extreme south end) 

  1. Only two people are sitting between Q and M.

  1. S is sitting seventh to the right of M. 

Here Case II eliminates as Q is sitting second from the end so S will not sit beyond.

  1. L is sitting exactly in between Q and S. 

  1. Only one person is sitting between S and O. 

(As O can sit both the sides of S. So, In Case I.I O is sitting second to the right of S and in Case I.II O is sitting second to the left of S.)

  1. O is sitting third to the left of R. 

  1. R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

Here Case I.II eliminates as R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

  1. P is sitting second to the left of N, who is sitting fourth to the right of R. 

The final arrangement:

Hence, 21 people are sitting in the row.

NOTE - we always count the number of person whether they are defined or not in the final arrangement so here we will count all the seats as these are for the persons.

35

Which of the following statement is correct regarding P?

  1. ((a))

    Second to the right of N

  2. ((b))

    Second to the left of R

  3. ((c))

    Second from one the extreme ends

  4. ((d))

    Immediate neighbour of N

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

Facing: North

  1. Q is sitting second from on the extreme ends. 

(Here two cases are possible Case I Q is sitting second from the extreme North end Case II where Q is sitting second from the extreme south end) 

  1. Only two people are sitting between Q and M.

  1. S is sitting seventh to the right of M. 

Here Case II eliminates as Q is sitting second from the end so S will not sit beyond.

  1. L is sitting exactly in between Q and S. 

  1. Only one person is sitting between S and O. 

(As O can sit both the sides of S. So, In Case I.I O is sitting second to the right of S and in Case I.II O is sitting second to the left of S.)

  1. O is sitting third to the left of R. 

  1. R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

Here Case I.II eliminates as R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

  1. P is sitting second to the left of N, who is sitting fourth to the right of R. 

The final arrangement:

  1. Second to the right of N - False (As P is second to left of N )
  2. Second to the left of R - False ( As P is second to the right of R ) 3. Second from one the extreme ends - False ( As P is third from right end ) 4. Immediate neighbour of N - False ( As P is not the neighbour of N )

 

Hence, None of the statement is true for P.

36

How many people are sitting in between L and O?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Seven

  3. ((c))

    Six

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Six

Facing: North

  1. Q is sitting second from on the extreme ends. 

(Here two cases are possible Case I Q is sitting second from the extreme North end Case II where Q is sitting second from the extreme south end) 

  1. Only two people are sitting between Q and M.

  1. S is sitting seventh to the right of M. 

Here Case II eliminates as Q is sitting second from the end so S will not sit beyond.

  1. L is sitting exactly in between Q and S. 

  1. Only one person is sitting between S and O. 

(As O can sit both the sides of S. So, In Case I.I O is sitting second to the right of S and in Case I.II O is sitting second to the left of S.)

  1. O is sitting third to the left of R. 

  1. R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

Here Case I.II eliminates as R is not an immediate neighbour of S.

  1. P is sitting second to the left of N, who is sitting fourth to the right of R. 

The final arrangement

Hence, Six people are sitting in between L and O.

 

NOTE - we always count the number of person whether they are defined or not in the final arrangement so here we will count all the seats as these are for the persons.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are eight members in the family, in which there are only two married couples. Either both or none of the parents is alive. Amu is the father-in-law of Rahul, who is the brother-in-law of Ravi. Priya is the sister of Ravi and Karan. Karan is the maternal uncle of Vani. Monu is the brother of Bhanu, who is the mother of Priya. Amu has only one son.

37

How many male members in the family?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

The table is drawn describing symbols and their meanings,

  1. Amu is father-in-law of Rahul, who is brother-in-law of Ravi.

  2. Priya is the sister of Ravi and karan.

  1. Karan is the maternal uncle of Vani.

  2. Monu is the brother of Bhanu, who is mother of Priya.

  3. Amu has only one son.

Hence, the final arrangement will be, 

As the gender of Vani is unknown, number of males in the family cannot be determined.

Hence, Cannot be determined is the correct answer.

38

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among the given conclusion is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: K < B < C = D > M < H ≥ N

Conclusions:

I. K < N

II. B < D

  1. ((a))

    Only I follow

  2. ((b))

    Only II follow

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follow

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only II follow

Given Statement: K < B < C = D > M < H ≥ N

Conclusions:

I. K < N → False (As K < B < C = D > M < H ≥ N, there is no relation between K and N because there are opposite signs between K and N. So, it is false)

II. B < D → True ( As K < B < C = D > M < H ≥ N → B < D. So, it is true)

Hence, Only II follow.

39

Directions**:** In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given some conclusion is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: X < Y < Z ≤ A ≤ B = C > D ≥ E < F < G

Conclusions:

I. C ≥ X

II. B > E

  1. ((a))

    Only I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only II is true

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is true

  5. ((e))

    Neither I and II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only II is true

Given statements: X < Y < Z ≤ A ≤ B = C > D ≥ E < F < G

Conclusions:

I  C ≥ X → False (Given X < Y < Z ≤ A ≤ B = C > D ≥ E < F < G so from the statement C > X is true but C ≥ X is false because Y is only greater then X not Y is equal to X thus C ≥ X is false )

II B > E → True (Given X < Y < Z ≤ A ≤ B = C > D ≥ E < F < G thus B > E is true)

Hence, Only II is true.

40

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: E < F ≤ G > H ≥ K

Conclusions:

I. F > H

II. G < E

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II is true

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II are true

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Given statement: E < F ≤ G > H ≥ K

Conclusions: 

I. F > H → False (as E < F ≤ G > H ≥ K → F ≤ G > H → no clear relation between F and H can be determined as there are opposite signs between F and H. So, It is false)

II. G < E → False (as E < F ≤ G > H ≥ K → E < F ≤ G → E < G. So, it is false)

Hence, Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Directions: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below:

H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M

41

Which letter is third to the right of the letter which is exactly in the middle letter between J and K?

  1. ((a))

    G

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

I

Given series: Left side H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M Right side

The letter exactly between J and K is A.

 Left side H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M Right side

The letter third to the right of A is I.

42

Which of the following is the fourth letter to the left of the seventh letter from the right side?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    W

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    E

  5. ((e))

    F

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

E

Given series: Left side H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M Right side

The seventh letter from the right side is I.

Left side H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M Right side

The fourth letter to the left of I is E.

Thus, the fourth letter to the left of the seventh letter from the right side will be E.

43

How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Three

Given series: Left side H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M Right side

Vowels that are immediately preceded by a consonant are:

H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M

Hence, three vowels are immediately preceded by a consonant i.e D E, G I, H U.

44

Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the eighth letter from the left side of the above arrangement?

  1. ((a))

    G

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    M

  5. ((e))

    X

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G

Given series: Left side H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M Right side

The eighth letter from the left side is F.

Left side H N T K Q S C F D E A W G I X H U J B M Right side

The fifth letter to the right of F is G.

Thus, the fifth to the right of the eighth letter from the left side will be G.

45

Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster

  1. ((a))

    LPU

  2. ((b))

    PTY

  3. ((c))

    ADL

  4. ((d))

    NRW

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ADL

Let’s check each option

L + 4 = P; P + 5 = U

P + 4 = T; T + 5 = Y

A + 3 = D; D + 8 = L

N + 4 = R; R + 5 = W

Hence, ADL is the correct answer.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R have to deliver lectures on either the 8th or 15th of four different months among January, April, June, and August but not necessarily in the same order. Not more than 2 persons will give a lecture in a month. Only one person will deliver a lecture each day. K delivers his lecture on the 8th of a month which has only 30 days. Only three lectures were delivered between K and L. O delivers the lecture immediately after L. Number of persons who give the lecture after O is the same as the number of persons who give the lecture before P. Only two persons give lectures between P and M. Q and M give their lectures in the same month. N gives the lecture before R.

46

Who gives the lecture on 8th August?

  1. ((a))

    K

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    M

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P

Person: K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R.

Month: January, April, June, and August

Dates: 8th & 15th 

  1. K delivers his lecture on the 8th of a month which has only 30 days.

  2. Only three lectures were delivered between K and L.

  3. O delivers the lecture immediately after L.

(Here 2 cases are possible, Case1: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of April, Case2: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of June.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8
15
April (30 days)8K
15
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Number of persons who give the lecture after O is the same as the number of persons who give the lecture before P.

  1. Only two persons give lectures between P and M.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8P
15
April (30 days)8K
15M
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15
<br>
  1. Q and M give their lectures in the same month.

(From here Case 1 is eliminated because no vacant position for Q as according to statement 6 Q and M give their lecture in the same month)

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. N gives the lecture before R.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15N
August (31 days)8P
15R

Hence, P gives the lecture on 8th August.

47

How many lectures were delivered after Q?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    7

  5. ((e))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

Person: K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R.

Month: January, April, June, and August

Dates: 8th & 15th 

  1. K delivers his lecture on the 8th of a month which has only 30 days.

  2. Only three lectures were delivered between K and L.

  3. O delivers the lecture immediately after L.

(Here 2 cases are possible, Case1: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of April, Case2: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of June.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8
15
April (30 days)8K
15
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Number of persons who give the lecture after O is the same as the number of persons who give the lecture before P.

  1. Only two persons give lectures between P and M.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8P
15
April (30 days)8K
15M
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15
<br>
  1. Q and M give their lectures in the same month.

(From here Case 1 is eliminated because no vacant position for Q as according to statement 6 Q and M give their lecture in the same month)

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. N gives the lecture before R.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15N
August (31 days)8P
15R

Hence, 5 lectures were delivered after Q.

48

Who among the following doesn’t deliver the lecture in the month having 30 days ?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    N

  5. ((e))

    L

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

L

Person: K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R.

Month: January, April, June, and August

Dates: 8th & 15th 

  1. K delivers his lecture on the 8th of a month which has only 30 days.

  2. Only three lectures were delivered between K and L.

  3. O delivers the lecture immediately after L.

(Here 2 cases are possible, Case1: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of April, Case2: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of June.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8
15
April (30 days)8K
15
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Number of persons who give the lecture after O is the same as the number of persons who give the lecture before P.

  1. Only two persons give lectures between P and M.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8P
15
April (30 days)8K
15M
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15
<br>
  1. Q and M give their lectures in the same month.

(From here Case 1 is eliminated because no vacant position for Q as according to statement 6 Q and M give their lecture in the same month)

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. N gives the lecture before R.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15N
August (31 days)8P
15R

Hence, L doesn’t deliver the lecture in the month having 30 days.

49

Who delivers the lecture immediately before R?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    O

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

P

Person: K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R.

Month: January, April, June, and August

Dates: 8th & 15th 

  1. K delivers his lecture on the 8th of a month which has only 30 days.

  2. Only three lectures were delivered between K and L.

  3. O delivers the lecture immediately after L.

(Here 2 cases are possible, Case1: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of April, Case2: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of June.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8
15
April (30 days)8K
15
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Number of persons who give the lecture after O is the same as the number of persons who give the lecture before P.

  1. Only two persons give lectures between P and M.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8P
15
April (30 days)8K
15M
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15
<br>
  1. Q and M give their lectures in the same month.

(From here Case 1 is eliminated because no vacant position for Q as according to statement 6 Q and M give their lecture in the same month)

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. N gives the lecture before R.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15N
August (31 days)8P
15R

Hence, P delivers the lecture immediately before R.

50

Who gives the lecture on 15th April?

  1. ((a))

    L

  2. ((b))

    O

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    M

  5. ((e))

    K

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

M

Person: K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R.

Month: January, April, June, and August

Dates: 8th & 15th 

  1. K delivers his lecture on the 8th of a month which has only 30 days.

  2. Only three lectures were delivered between K and L.

  3. O delivers the lecture immediately after L.

(Here 2 cases are possible, Case1: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of April, Case2: K delivers his lecture on the 8th of June.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8
15
April (30 days)8K
15
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Number of persons who give the lecture after O is the same as the number of persons who give the lecture before P.

  1. Only two persons give lectures between P and M.

Case 1:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8P
15
April (30 days)8K
15M
June (30 days)8
15
August (31 days)8L
15O

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case 2:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15
<br>
  1. Q and M give their lectures in the same month.

(From here Case 1 is eliminated because no vacant position for Q as according to statement 6 Q and M give their lecture in the same month)

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15
August (31 days)8P
15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. N gives the lecture before R.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

MonthsDatesPerson
January (31 days)8L
15O
April (30 days)8Q
15M
June (30 days)8K
15N
August (31 days)8P
15R

Hence, M gives the lecture on 15th April.

Numerical Aptitude (25 questions)

51

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 

?% of (40% of 1500) = (60% of 20)% of 750

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    20

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Step-1- Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket, the BODMAS rule must be followed,

?% of (40% of 1500) = (60% of 20)% of 750

⇒ ?% of (40/100 × 1500) = (60/100 × 20)% of 750

⇒ ?% of 600 = 12% of 750

Step-2- Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

⇒ ?/100 × 600 = 12/100 × 750

⇒ ? = 90/6

∴ ? = 15

52

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

21.80% of 700 + 65.74 = 169.14 + ? % of 300.10

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    32

  5. ((e))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

17

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order is given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Given expression is,

21.80% of 700 + 65.74 = 169.14 + ? % of 300.10

We can write the given values as:

21.80 ≈ 22 and 65.74 ≈ 66

169.14 ≈ 169 and 300.10 ≈ 300

Then,

⇒ 22% of 700 + 66 = 169 + ?% of 300

⇒ (22/100) × 700 + 66 = 169 + (?/100) × 300

⇒ 22 × 7 + 66 = 169 + (3 × ?)

⇒ 154 + 66 = 169 + (3 × ?)

⇒ 220 = 169 + (3 × ?)

⇒ (3 × ?) = 220 - 169

⇒ 3 × ? = 51

⇒ ? ≈ 17

53

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

√5041 × 61.67 × (2.98/17.89) ÷ 3√215 = ?1/3 + 45.48

  1. ((a))

    76.273

  2. ((b))

    168.272

  3. ((c))

    1894

  4. ((d))

    173

  5. ((e))

    7009

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

76.273

√5041 × 61.67 × (2.98/17.89) ÷ 3√215 = ?1/3 + 45.48

It can be approximated as √5041 × 62 × (3/18) ÷ 3√216 = ?1/3 + 46

 71 × 62 × (1/6) × 1/6 = ?1/3 + 46

4402/36 = ?1/3 + 46

?1/3= 122.27 – 46

? = 76.273

54

What approximate value should come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(80.0003% of 1601.73) + (75.123% of 1003.158) + 1000 - (50.82% of 3001.72) × 2.0007 = ?

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

30

(80.0003% of 1601.73) + (75.123% of 1003.158) + 1000 - (50.82% of 3001.72) × 2.0007

Concept used:

Calculation:

⇒ (80% of 1600) + (75% of 1000) + 1000 - (50% of 3000) × 2,

⇒ (80 × 16) + (75 × 10) + 1000 - (50 × 30) × 2, (Simplifying ‘brackets’)

⇒ 1280 + 750 + 1000 - 1500 × 2,

⇒ 3030 - 3000,

⇒ 30

∴ ? = 30

55

Find out the approximate value which should replace the question mark (?) in the following question.

98.8 × 4032 ÷ 27.89% of 599 = 16 × 339.7 ÷ 17.2 + ? + 80.1

  1. ((a))

    1800

  2. ((b))

    1900

  3. ((c))

    2200

  4. ((d))

    2000

  5. ((e))

    2100

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2000

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Step-1- Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2- Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3- Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4- Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Given expression is,

98.8 × 4032 ÷ 27.89% of 599 = 16 × 339.7 ÷ 17.2 + ? + 80.1

Taking Approximate values as,

98.8 ≈ 99, 27.89 ≈ 28, 599 ≈ 600, 339.7 ≈ 340, 17.2 ≈ 17, 80.1 ≈ 80

⇒ 99 × 4032 ÷ 28% of 600 = 16 × 340 ÷ 17 + ? + 80

⇒ 99 × 4032 ÷ 0.28 × 600 = 16 × 20 + ? + 80

⇒ 99 × 24 = 320 + ? + 80

∴ ? = 2000

56

What should come at the place of ‘?’ in the following question?

[{(1948 + 652 – 140) ÷ (41 × 8)} + (313 ÷ 2)] = 26 + 10?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

Given,

⇒ [{(1948 + 652 – 140) ÷ (41 × 8)} + (313 ÷ 2)] = 26 + 10?

⇒ [{(2600 – 140) ÷ (41 × 8)} + (313 ÷ 2)] = 26 + 10?

⇒ [{2460 ÷ (41 × 8)} + (313 ÷ 2)] = 26 + 10?

⇒ [{2460 ÷ 328} + (313 ÷ 2)] = 26 + 10?

⇒ [7.5 + 156.5] = 26 + 10?

⇒ 164 = 26 + 10?

⇒ 164 = 64 + 10?

⇒ 10? = 100

⇒ 10? = 102

⇒ ? = 2

57

Find the value of ( √7 + 2) ( √28 – 4 ) ( 3 + √5 ) ( 6 – √20 )

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    56

  5. ((e))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

48

Formula used:

(a – b) (a + b) = a2 – b2

Calculations:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

<br>

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

<br>

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

<br>

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

<br>

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

 

Given expression is  :

( √7 + 2) ( √28 – 4 ) ( 3 + √5 ) ( 6 – √20 )    

⇒ ( √7 + 2) (2( √7 – 2 ))  ( 3 + √5 ) (2( 3 – √5 ))

⇒ 4 × ( √7 + 2) ( √7 – 2 ) ( 3 + √5 ) ( 3 – √5 )

⇒ 4 × (7 – 4)(9 – 5)

⇒ 4 × 3 × 4

  48

58

The speed of a boat in still water is 6 km/h. Time taken by the boat to cover a certain distance upstream is 3 hours more than the time taken to cover the same distance downstream. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/h, then what is the total distance (upstream and downstream) covered by the boat?

  1. ((a))

    24 km

  2. ((b))

    18 km

  3. ((c))

    36 km

  4. ((d))

    48 km

  5. ((e))

    46 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

48 km

Given, the speed of boat in still water is 6 km/hour

And the speed of stream is 2 km/hour

⇒ The speed of stream in downstream = 8 km/hour

And the speed of stream in upstream = 4 km/hour

Let the fixed distance be x km

Now, according to question

x/4 = 3 + x/8

⇒ x/4 – x/8 = 3

⇒ x/8 = 3

⇒ x = 24

⇒ The total distance covered by the boat in upstream and downstream = 24 × 2

∴ The total distance is 48 km

59

A certain amount P is invested in scheme A for 3 years at a simple interest of 8% per annum and the same amount P is invested in scheme B for 3 years at 8% per annum compounded annually. If the difference in the interest earned is ₹197.12, then find the value of P.

  1. ((a))

    ₹10,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹7,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹8,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹12,000

  5. ((e))

    ₹15,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹10,000

Shortcut Trick

The difference in the interest earned in three years on a certain sum P at R% p.a. (compounded annually and simple interest) = (\frac{PR^2}{100^2} \times (\frac{R}{100} + 3))

According to the question,

⇒ ₹197.12 = (\frac{P(8)^2}{100^2} \times (\frac{8}{100} + 3))

⇒ ₹197.12 = (\frac{64P}{10000} \times (\frac{308}{100}))

⇒ P = ₹10,000

 The principal invested is ₹10,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

A certain amount P is invested in scheme A for 3 years at a simple interest of 8% per annum.

The same amount P is invested in scheme B for 3 years at 8% per annum compounded annually.

The difference in the interest earned is ₹197.12.

Formula used:

(1) S.I = (\frac{P \times R \times T}{100})

(2) C.I = P[(1 + (\frac{R}{100}))T - 1]

Where, 

P, is the principal invested

R, rate of interest applied

T, is the time of investment 

S.I, is the simple interest earned

C.I, is the compound interest earned

Calculation:

Let P is the principal invested.

Let S.I is the simple interest earned.

Let C.I is the compound interest earned.

In the first case:

⇒ S.I = (\frac{P× 8 × 3}{100})    ----(1)

In the second case:

⇒ C.I = P[(1 + (\frac{8}{100}))3 - 1]

⇒ C.I = P[((\frac{27}{25}))3 - 1]    ----(2)

According to the question,

⇒ C.I - S.I = P[((\frac{27}{25}))3 - 1] - (\frac{P× 8 × 3}{100})

⇒ ₹197.12 = P[(\frac{19683}{15625}) - 1] - (\frac{P× 8 × 3}{100})

⇒ ₹197.12 = P[(\frac{4058}{15625})] - (\frac{24P}{100})

⇒ ₹197.12 = P[(\frac{4058-3750}{15625})]

⇒ P = ₹10,000

∴ The principal invested is ₹10,000.

60

A train crosses a platform having a length of 300 m in 30 seconds and a standing pole in 10 seconds. Calculate the length of the train in meters.

  1. ((a))

    85 m

  2. ((b))

    220 m

  3. ((c))

    150 m

  4. ((d))

    200 m

  5. ((e))

    110 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

150 m

Shortcut Trick

Time to cross platform (Train + Platform) = 30 seconds

Time to cross standing pole (Train only) = 10 seconds

Time taken to cover platform length alone = 30 − 10 = 20 seconds

Ratio of Train length to Platform length = 10 : 20 = 1 : 2

If 2 units = 300 m, then 1 unit = 150 m

∴ The correct answer is 150 m.

Alternate Method

Given: Length of platform = 300 m, Time to cross pole = 10 s, Time to cross platform = 30 s.

Formula Used: Speed = Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Speed of train (v) = Train Length (L) ÷ 10

⇒ Speed of train (v) = (L + 300) ÷ 30

⇒ L ÷ 10 = (L + 300) ÷ 30

⇒ 3 × L = L + 300

⇒ 2 × L = 300

⇒ L = 150 m

∴ The correct answer is 150 m.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S1 − S2. In opposite directions, relative speed = S1 + S2.

Train Crossing Objects

To cross a point object (pole, man), distance = length of train. To cross a stationary object with length (bridge, tunnel, platform), distance = length of train + length of object.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

61

If the cost price of an article is 20% less than its marked price and a shopkeeper allows a discount of 10%. Find its profit or loss percent?

  1. ((a))

    12.5% loss

  2. ((b))

    12.5% profit

  3. ((c))

    25% loss

  4. ((d))

    25% profit

  5. ((e))

    12% profit

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12.5% profit

Given:

The cost price of an article is 20% less than its marked price.

Discount% = 10%

Concept:

We assume total percentage will 100%.

Formula used:

S.P = M.P × [(100 – D%)/100]

P = S.P – C.P

P% = (P/C.P) × 100

Where, C.P = Cost Price, S.P = Selling Price, P = Profit, D = Discount, M.P = Marked Price

Calculation:

Let the marked price of an article be Rs. x.

Then C.P = x × (100 – 20)% = x × 80% = 4x/5

After 20% discount,

S.P = M.P × [(100 – D%)/100]

⇒ x × [(100 – 10)/100]

⇒ x × (90/100)

⇒ 9x/10

Since S.P > C.P

P = S.P – C.P

⇒ (9x/10) – (4x/5)

⇒ (9x – 8x)/10

⇒ x/10

P% = (P/C.P) × 100

⇒ [(x/10)/(4x/5)] × 100

⇒ [(x/10) × (5/4x)] × 100

⇒ 1/8 × 100

⇒ 25/2

⇒ 12.5

The Profit percentage is 12.5%

Alternate Method

Let M.P be 100.

C.P = 100 – 20 = 80

S.P = 100 – 10 = 90

P = S.P – C.P = 90 – 80 = 10

P% = (P/C.P) × 100 = (10/80) × 100 = 12.5

The Profit percentage is 12.5%

62

There are two brothers Rohan and Rajiv. Rohan is three years older than his brother Rajiv. Ten years ago, At the time of the birth of their sister, the age of Rohan was 8 years. The present age of the father is the sum of the age of Rohan, Rajiv, and their sister. The sum of the present age of Parents is 84 years. Find the difference between the present age of their parents.

  1. ((a))

    2 years

  2. ((b))

    1 years

  3. ((c))

    3 years

  4. ((d))

    5 years

  5. ((e))

    0 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 years

According to the question,

⇒ The present age of Rohan = 8 + 10 = 18 yrs

⇒ The present age of Rajiv = 18 - 3 = 15 yrs

Similarly

The present age of  sister = 10 yrs

⇒ Present age of Father = 18 + 15 +10 = 43 yrs

Sum of Present age of Parents = 84 years

⇒ Present age of Mother = 84 - 43 = 41 yrs

∴ The required Difference = 43 - 41 = 2 yrs

63

The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 48. Find the area of the triangle.

  1. ((a))

    (64\sqrt 3\ c{m^2})

  2. ((b))

    (111{1 \over 2}\ c{m^2})

  3. ((c))

    144 cm2

  4. ((d))

    336 cm2

  5. ((e))

    39 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(64\sqrt 3\ c{m^2})

We know that,

Area of an equilateral triangle (= {{\sqrt 3 } \over 4}{\left( {side} \right)^2})

∵ Side of the triangle (= {{48} \over 3} = 16\ cm)

∴ Area of the triangle ​(= {{\sqrt 3 } \over 4} \times {\left( {16} \right)^2}\ c{m^2})

(= {\rm{ }}64\sqrt 3\ c{m^2})

64

In a mixture of 80 litres, milk and water were in the ratio of 2 : 3. If 25% of the mixture is replaced with the same amount of milk, then what is the amount of milk in the final mixture?

  1. ((a))

    44 litres

  2. ((b))

    46 litres

  3. ((c))

    54 litres

  4. ((d))

    56 litres

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44 litres

Shortcut Trick

Initial milk in 80 L (ratio 2:3) = 80 × (2/5) = 32 L.

Mixture replaced = 25% of 80 L = 20 L.

Milk removed = 25% of 32 L = 8 L.

Milk added = 20 L (equal to the mixture removed).

Final Milk = 32 − 8 + 20 = 44 L.

∴ The correct answer is 44 litres.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Mixture = 80 L, Ratio (M:W) = 2:3.

Initial Milk = (2/5) × 80 = 32 L.

Initial Water = (3/5) × 80 = 48 L.

Replacement amount = 25% of 80 = 20 L.

Milk in 20 L mixture = (2/5) × 20 = 8 L.

Milk left after removal = 32 − 8 = 24 L.

Milk added = 20 L.

Final amount of Milk = 24 + 20 = 44 L.

∴ The correct answer is 44 litres.

Additional Information

Mixture Replacement Rule

When a part of a mixture is replaced by one of its components, the ratio of the components in the remaining part stays the same as the original ratio.

Formula for Remaining Quantity

Remaining amount of original liquid = Initial amount × (1 − x/V)n, where x is quantity replaced, V is total volume, and n is number of operations.

Alligation in Replacement

Replacement problems can also be solved by treating the added pure component as a 100% concentration mixture.

65

A, B and C can do a piece of work in 60 days, 45 days and 30 days  respectively  when they are working alone. A started the work alone after 5 days B joined him. After 7.5 days of joining of B, C also joined. After 5 days working of C Both B and C left. Find the time taken by A alone to finish 500% more of remaining work.

  1. ((a))

    90 days

  2. ((b))

    92 days

  3. ((c))

    95 days

  4. ((d))

    98 days

  5. ((e))

    96 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

95 days

Let the total work = 360 units

Efficiency of A (= \frac{360}{60} = 6) units/day

Efficiency of B (= \frac{360}{45} = 8) units/day

Efficiency of C (= \frac{360}{30} = 12) units/day

According to question

Amount of work done 

(= 6 \times 5 + (6 + 8) \times 7.5 + (6 + 8 + 12) \times 5\ = 30 + 105 + 130 = 265: units)

Remaining work = 360 – 265 = 95 unit

Required time (= \frac{(600% \times 95)}{6} = 95: days )

Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Price per kilogram (in Rs.) at which 5 different shopkeepers sell six different products

ProductsShopkeepers
ABCDE
Bajra3634.537.53435
Jowar3839.53736.539
Rice43.542404442.5
Wheat404341.54139
Maize32.533343133.5
Sugarcane30292830.531
66

What is the difference between the average price of per kg of rice sold by all the shopkeepers and the average price of per kg of jowar sold by all the shopkeepers?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 4

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 4.8

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4.4

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 5.4

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 4.4

The average price of per kg of rice sold by all the shopkeepers = (43.5 + 42 + 40 + 44 + 42.5)/5 = Rs. 42.4

The average price of per kg of jowar sold by all the shopkeepers = (38 + 39.5 + 37 + 36.5 + 39)/5 = Rs. 38

 ∴ The difference = 42.4 – 38 = Rs. 4.4

67

What is the respective ratio of the total price (per kg) of all the products sold by C to those sold by E?

  1. ((a))

    108 : 111

  2. ((b))

    109 : 111

  3. ((c))

    109 : 108

  4. ((d))

    111 : 108

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

The total price (per kg) of all the products sold by C = (37.5 + 37 + 40 + 41.5 + 34 + 28) = 218

The total price (per kg) of all the products sold by E = (35 + 39 + 42.5 + 39 + 33.5 + 31) = 220

∴ Required ratio = 109 : 110

68

If shopkeeper D sells 15 kg of jowar 18 kg of wheat and 31 kg of sugarcane, what will be his total earning?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 2131

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 2031

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2210

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2231

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 2231

Total earning of shop keeper D = 15 × 36.5 + 18 × 41 + 31 × 30.5 = Rs. 2231

∴ Total earning of shop keeper D = Rs. 2231

69

If shopkeeper B sells 66 kg of jowar and shopkeeper D sells 75 kg of bajra, what is the difference in amount earned by the shopkeepers in selling their products?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 66

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 57

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 63

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 75

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 57

Amount earned by shopkeeper B = 66 × 39.5 = Rs. 2607

Amount earned by shopkeeper D = 75 × 34 = Rs. 2550

∴ The difference = 2607 – 2550 = Rs. 57

70

If each shopkeeper sells 88 kg of rice and 66 kg of wheat, which shopkeeper will earn the highest?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

Amount earned by shopkeeper A = 88 × 43.5 + 66 × 40 = Rs. 6468

Amount earned by shopkeeper B = 88 × 42 + 66 × 43 = Rs. 6534

Amount earned by shopkeeper C = 88 × 40 + 66 × 41.5 = Rs. 6259

Amount earned by shopkeeper D = 88 × 44 + 66 × 41 = Rs. 6578

Amount earned by shopkeeper E = 88 × 42.5 + 66 × 39 = Rs. 6314

∴ Shopkeeper D will earn the highest.

71

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 – 11√3x + 90 = 0

II. y2 – 9√7y + 140 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

x < y

Calculations:

I. x2 – 11√3x + 90 = 0

⇒ x2 – 6√3x – 5√3x + 90 = 0

⇒ x(x – 6√3) – 5√3(x - 6√3) = 0

⇒ (x – 6√3) (x – 5√3) = 0

x = 6√3, 5√3

 

II. y2 – 9√7y + 140 = 0

⇒ y2 – 5√7y – 4√7y + 140 = 0

⇒ y(y - 5√7) – 4√7(y – 5√7) = 0

⇒ (y – 5√7) (y – 4√7) = 0

y = 5√7, 4√7

 

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

Value of xValue of yRelation
5√35√7y > x
5√34√7y > x
6√35√7y > x
6√34√7y > x

∴ x < y

Important PointsThe value of √3 = 1.732 

The value of √7 = 2.645

72

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 2x2 - 33x + 136 = 0

II. 2y2 - 37y + 171 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

x < y

I. 2x2 - 33x + 136 = 0

⇒ 2x2 - 17x - 16x + 136 = 0

⇒ (x - 8) (2x - 17) = 0

x = 8, 17/2

II. 2y2 - 37y + 171 = 0

⇒ 2y2 - 19y - 18y + 171 = 0

⇒ (y - 9) (2y - 19) = 0

y = 9, 19/2

Value of xValue of yRelation
89x < y
819/2x < y
17/29x < y
17/219/2x < y

 

x < y

73

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x = √529

II. y2 – 21y + 104 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x > y

Calculation:

I. x = √529

⇒ x = 23

II. y2 – 21y + 104 = 0

⇒ y2 – 8y – 13y + 104 = 0

⇒ (y – 13) (y – 8) = 0

⇒ y – 13 = 0, and y – 8 = 0 

So, y = 13, and y = 8.

Value of xValue of yRelation
2313x > y
238x > y

∴ x > y

Kindly note that:  x = √529, which is the 1 st equation is a linear equation.

This means it will only have one solution. The solution will be positive.

If the equation was x2 = 529, then we will have 2 roots, as it is a quadratic equation. 

Keep this fact in mind as this will help us in solving this type of problem.

74

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer-

I. x2 + 14x + 24 = 0

II. 9y2 – 4 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    y ≤ x

  3. ((c))

    y ≥ x

  4. ((d))

    x < y

  5. ((e))

    Either x = y or Relation between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

x < y

I. x2 + 14x + 24 = 0

⇒ x2 + 12x + 2x + 24 = 0

⇒ x(x + 2) + 12(x + 2) = 0

⇒ (x + 12)(x + 2) = 0

⇒ x = -12, x = -2

II. 9y2 – 4 = 0

⇒ 9y2 = 4

⇒ y = 2/3, y = -2/3

Value of xValue of yRelation
-122/3x < y
-22/3x < y
-12-2/3x < y
-2-2/3x < y

 

Hence, x < y

75

In the following question, two equations are given in variables x and y. You have to solve these equations and determine the relation between x and y.

I. 6x + 16y = - 4

II. 8x + 36y = 2

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation cannot be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

x < y

CALCULATION :

I. 6x + 16y = - 4

Multiplying on both sides by 4, we get,

⇒ 24x + 64y = - 16      ----(1)

II. 8x + 36y = 2

Multiplying on both sides by 3, we get,

⇒ 24x + 108y = 6      ----(2)

Subtracting equation 1 from 2, we get,

⇒ 44y = 22

⇒ y = 1/2      ----(3)

Substituting equation 3 in equation 1, we get,

⇒ 24x + 32 = - 16

⇒ 24x = - 48

⇒ x = - 2

We can observe that x < y.

General Studies (25 questions)

76

The iron pillar near Qutb Minar in Delhi was made by?

  1. ((a))

    Ashoka

  2. ((b))

    Akbar

  3. ((c))

    Razia Sultan

  4. ((d))

    Chandragupta II

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Chandragupta II

The Correct Answer is Chandragupta II.

  • The iron pillar is a structure 23 feet 8 inches high with 16 inches in diameter that was built by a "King Chandra,"  Chandragupta II, and now stands at Mehrauli in Delhi, in the Qutb complex.
  • It is known for the rust-proof nature of the metals used in its construction.
  • The pillar weighs more than six tonnes and is believed to have been erected elsewhere, perhaps outside the Udayagiri Caves, and shifted early in the Delhi Sultanate to its present position.
  • The pillar carries a variety of inscriptions from various periods, some of which were not systematically examined considering the prominent location and easy access of the pillar.
  • The oldest inscription on the pillar is that of a king called Chandra, commonly known as Chandragupta II, the Gupta Emperor.
77

Who has been appointed as the new prime minister of Nepal on 25 December 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Pushpa Kamal Dahal

  2. ((b))

    Sher Bahadur Deuba

  3. ((c))

    Girija Prasad Koirala

  4. ((d))

    KP Sharma Oli

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pushpa Kamal Dahal

The correct answer is Pushpa Kamal Dahal.

Key Points

  • President Bidya Devi Bhandari of Nepal appointed Pushpa Kamal Dahal 'Prachanda' as the new prime minister of Nepal on 25 December 2022.
  • He will become the prime minister for the third time.
  • He has formed a coalition government with the support of other parties.
  • He will replace Sher Bahadur Deuba of the Nepali Congress party as the PM.
  • The parliament of Nepal is called Sanghiya Sansad.

Additional Information

  • Nepal:
  • Capital - Kathmandu.
  • Currency - Nepalese rupee.
  • President - Bidhya Devi Bhandari.
  • Nepal is a landlocked country in South Asia.
78

The Chambal is a major tributary of which of the following rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Yamuna

  2. ((b))

    Ganges

  3. ((c))

    Godavari

  4. ((d))

    Brahmaputra

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yamuna

The correct answer is the Yamuna.

Key Points

  • River Chambal, a principal tributary of river Yamuna.
  • The Chambal river originates in the Vindhyan ranges near Mhow in Indore District of Madhya Pradesh.
  • The length of the river is 900 km and it is a tributary of the Yamuna river.
  • The Chambal River remains one of North India’s unpolluted rivers, home to a rich diversity of flora and fauna.

Additional Information

  • ​Yamuna River System
  • ​The Yamuna River is the largest tributary of the Ganga River.
  • It originates from the Yamunotri glacier, at the Bandarpoonch peak in Uttarakhand.
  • The main tributaries joining the river include the Sin, Hindon, Betwa Ken, and Chambal.
  • The Tons is the largest tributary of the Yamuna.

79

In December 2022, Sam Curran has become the costliest cricketer ever to be bought by any franchise of the Indian Premier League (IPL), he belongs to which country?

  1. ((a))

    Australia

  2. ((b))

    New Zealand

  3. ((c))

    South Africa

  4. ((d))

    West Indies

  5. ((e))

    England 

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

England 

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

  • Cricketer Sam Curran on 23 December 2022 became the costliest cricketer ever to be bought by any franchise of the Indian Premier League (IPL).
  • He was bought by Punjab Kings during the IPL auction for ₹18.5 crores.
  • The IPL auctions for the 2023 season are being held in Kerala.
  • He broke cricketer Ishan Kishan’s record who was picked last season for ₹15.25 crore by Mumbai Indians.

Important Points 

  • The other big buys at the IPL 2023 were Cameron Green who was sold to Mumbai Indians for ₹17.50 crore, while Chennai Super Kings bought English player Ben Stokes for ₹16.25 crore.
  • Among other notable pics, Shivam Mavi was bagged by Gujarat Titans for ₹6 crore, Joshua Little was sold to Gujarat Titans for ₹4.4 crore, Will Jacks was picked up by Royal Challengers Bangalore for ₹3.2 crore, while Mayank Dagar was sold to Sunrisers Hyderabad for ₹1.8 crore.
80

In which year, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) was established?

  1. ((a))

    1956

  2. ((b))

    1986

  3. ((c))

    1976

  4. ((d))

    1966

  5. ((e))

    1998

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1966

The Correct Answer is 1966.

Key Points

  • The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established on 19 December 1966, which is headquartered in the Ortigas Center located in the city of Mandaluyong, Metro Manila, Philippines.

Important Points

About ADB:

  • It is a regional development bank
  • Established on 19 December 1966.
  • Headquartered — Manila, Philippines.
  • Official United Nations Observer.
  • Membership: The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East or ECAFE) and non-regional developed countries.
  • Currently, it has 68 members.
  • India was a founding member of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) in 1966 and is now the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder and top borrower.
  • As of 31 December 2019, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).

In news:

  • ADB announced that it had appointed Election Commissioner Ashok Lavasa as its vice president (V­P) for private sector operations and public­private partnerships.
81

Which Greek letter denotes wavelength?

  1. ((a))

    Epsilon (ε)

  2. ((b))

    Mu (μ)

  3. ((c))

    Omega (ω)

  4. ((d))

    Lambda (λ)

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lambda (λ)

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Lambda (λ).

  • The wavelength, the distance between corresponding points of two consecutive waves. “Corresponding points” refers to two points or particles in the same phase—i.e., points that have completed identical fractions of their periodic motion.
  • Wavelength is usually denoted by the Greek letter lambda (λ); it is equal to the speed (v) of a wave train in a medium divided by its frequency (f): λ = v/f.

 

SymbolNameQuantityUnit
λLambdawavelengthMeter
ωOmegaangular frequencyRadian per second
εEpsilonlinear strainUnit less
µs, µkMucoefficient of friction (static, kinetic)Unit less
82

Rudreshwara, popularly known as Ramappa Temple, is located in:

  1. ((a))

    Telangana 

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh 

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telangana 

The correct answer is Telangana.

Important Points

  • Ramappa Temple, also known as the Rudreshwara temple, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Telangana, India.
  • Its construction started in the year 1213 CE by Recharla Rudra, a General of Kakatiya ruler Ganapati Deva 1199–1262.

Additional Information

  • World Heritage Sites are some of the special places present in the world which are protected by the international body UNESCO.
  • UNESCO celebrates 'World Heritage Day' every year on 18 April to create awareness among people about these places.
  • According to the Union Ministry of Cultural Affairs, the total number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India is 40.
  • Khangchendzonga National Park is the only Mixed UNESCO site in India.​
83

In TDS, what does D stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Demanded

  2. ((b))

    Diminished

  3. ((c))

    Declared

  4. ((d))

    Deducted

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Deducted

The correct answer is Deducted.

Key Points

Tax Deducted at Source

  1. TDS stands for 'Tax Deducted at Source'.
  2. It was introduced to collect tax at the source from where an individual's income is generated.
  3. The government uses TDS as a tool to collect tax in order to minimize tax evasion by taxing the income (partially or wholly) at the time it is generated rather than at a later date.
84

Who wrote the book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India"?

  1. ((a))

    Dadabhai Naoroji

  2. ((b))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  3. ((c))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

  4. ((d))

    M. G. Ranade

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dadabhai Naoroji

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

  • Dadabhai Naoroji wrote the book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India".

Key Points

  • Dadabhai Naoroji (1825 AD-1917 AD):
  • He was the first Indian to demand Swaraj in the Calcutta Session of INC, 1906.
  • He was also known as the Indian Gladstone and Grand Old Man of India.
  • He was the first Indian to be elected to the House of Commons on a Liberal Party ticket.
  • He highlighted the draining of wealth from India by the British and its effect in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (1901).

Additional Information

  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded The Servants of India Society in 1905.
  • He wrote Speeches of Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak authored books The Arctic Home of Vedas and Gita Rahasya.
  • Atmaram Pandurang founded the Prarthna Samaj in 1867 AD.

85

Who is the founder of 'Din-i-Ilahi'?

  1. ((a))

    Muhammad Ghaznavi

  2. ((b))

    Humayun

  3. ((c))

    Akbar

  4. ((d))

    Sher Shah Suri

  5. ((e))

    Babur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Akbar

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

  • Din-i Ilahi “the religion of God,” was a system of religious beliefs introduced by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582 CE.
  • His idea was to combine Islam and Hinduism into one faith, but also to add aspects of Christianity, Zoroastrianism and Jainism.
  • He founded an academy, the Ibadat Khana, “the House of Worship,” in 1575, where representatives of all major faiths could meet to discuss questions of theology.
  • Akbar was the 3rd Mughal emperor of India.
  • Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun, in 1556.
  • The 13-year-old Akbar was enthroned by Bairam Khan and was proclaimed Shahanshah.
  • Akbar was given the nickname 'the Great' because of his many accomplishments, among which, was his record of unbeaten military campaigns that established the Mughal rule in the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

  • Muhammad Ghaznavi:
  • Mahmud of Ghazni (971-1030) was the first sultan of the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan
  • Humayun:
  • He was, also called Naṣir al-Din Muḥammad, the second Mughal ruler of India, who was more an adventurer than a consolidator of his empire.
  • The son and successor of Babur, who had founded the Mughal dynasty, Humayun ruled from 1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 to 1556.
86

Birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh is celebrated as?

  1. ((a))

    National Mathematics Day

  2. ((b))

    Human Rights Day

  3. ((c))

    Vijay Diwas

  4. ((d))

    Good Governance Day

  5. ((e))

    National Farmers Day

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

National Farmers Day

The correct answer is ​National Farmers Day.

Key Points

  • I ndia observes National Farmers Day or Kisan Diwas on December 23 every year.
  • The day marks the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh.
  • He served as the PM of India from July 28, 1979, to January 14, 1980.
  • Shri Charan Singh was born in 1902 at Noorpur in Meerut district of Uttar Pradesh.
  • He was a farmer leader.
  • On December 23, 1978, he founded the Kisan Trust, aiming to educate the rural masses of India against injustice.

Additional Information 

DatesImportant Days
1 DecemberWorld AIDS Day
2 DecemberInternational Day for the Abolition of Slavery, World Computer Literacy Day
3 DecemberWorld Day of the Handicapped or International Day of Persons with Disabilities
4 DecemberIndian Navy Day
5 DecemberInternational Volunteer Day, World Soil Day
6 DecemberBR Ambedkar’s death anniversary, National Microwave Oven Day
7 DecemberArmed Forces Flag Day, International Civil Aviation Day
9 DecemberInternational Anti-Corruption Day
10 DecemberHuman Rights Day
11 DecemberInternational Mountain Day, UNICEF Day
12 DecemberUniversal Health Coverage Day
14 DecemberNational Energy Conservation Day
16 DecemberVijay Diwas
18 DecemberMinorities Rights Day in India, International Migrants Day
19 DecemberGoa's Liberation Day
20 DecemberInternational Human Solidarity Day
22 DecemberNational Mathematics Day
23 DecemberKisan Diwas
24 DecemberNational Consumer Rights Day
25 DecemberGood Governance Day (India)
87

Which satellite was sent to space on 19 April 1975?

  1. ((a))

    Aryabhatta

  2. ((b))

    Apple

  3. ((c))

    Jerelina

  4. ((d))

    Bhaskar I

  5. ((e))

    EDUSAT

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aryabhatta

Concept:

  • Satellite: A satellite is an object that moves around a larger object. But usually when someone says "satellite," they are talking about a "man-made" satellite. Man-made satellites are machines made by people. These machines are launched into space and orbit Earth or another body in space. Ex - Moon, sputnik -1 etc.
  • Natural Satellite: A natural satellite is an object that orbits a planet or other body larger than itself and which is not man-made. Ex- Earth has a moon as a natural satellite.

Explanation:

  • Aryabhata was the first Indian satellite launched on 19 April 1975.
  • It was named after Indian Mathematician and astronomer Aryabhata.
  • It was built by ISRO and launched with Russian rocket launch vehicle Kosmos-3M

Important Points

  • ISRO - Indian Space Research Organisation, Indian space agency develop Indian space programs.
  • Founded - 1969
  • Headquarter - Bangalore
  • Chairman - S. Somanath

Additional InformationList of Important Indian satellites:

NameLaunch DateApplicationLaunch site
AryabhataApril 19, 1975ExperimentalVolgograd Launch Station (presently in Russia)
Bhaskara-IJune 07, 1979Earth Observation, ExperimentalVolgograd Launch Station (presently in Russia)
Rohini Satellite RS-1July 18, 1980ExperimentalSHAR Centre, Sriharikota, India
KALPANA-1Sep. 12, 2002Climate & environment, Communication
EDUSATSep. 20, 2004Communication
GSAT-17Jun. 29, 2017Communication
Cartosat-2 Series SatelliteJun. 23, 2017Earth Observation
88

Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?

  1. ((a))

    Cholera

  2. ((b))

    Diphtheria

  3. ((c))

    Pneumonia

  4. ((d))

    Malaria

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Malaria

The correct answer is Malaria.

Important Points

  • Malaria
  • Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called Plasmodium.
  • Carrier is a female anopheles mosquito.
  • Affects the spleen organ.

Additional Information

  • Cholera
  • Cholera is caused by the bacteria Vibrio cholerae.
  • Cause of disease is contaminated water/food.
  • Diphtheria
  • Diphtheria is caused by bacteria.
  • Bacteria name Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
  • Spread from person to person through sneezing and coughing.
  • Pneumonia
  • Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs caused by germs (fungi, bacteria, or viruses).
  • It causes cough, fever, chest pain, problem in respiration.
89

The National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a fixed income investment scheme that you can open with any post office branch. NSCs certificates can be earned at a fixed interest, which is currently at a rate of____ per annum. 

  1. ((a))

     6.8%

  2. ((b))

     6.5%

  3. ((c))

     6.0%

  4. ((d))

     7.0%

  5. ((e))

     7.8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

 7.0%

  • The National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a fixed income investment scheme that you can open with any post office branch. The scheme is a Government of India initiative. It is a savings bond that encourages subscribers – mainly small to mid-income investors – to invest while saving on income tax.
  • A fixed-income instrument like Public Provident Fund and Post Office FDs, this scheme too is a low-risk fixed-income product. You can buy it from the nearest post office in your name, for a minor or with another adult as a joint account. NSC comes with a fixed maturity period of five years. There is no maximum limit on the purchase of NSCs, but only investments of up to Rs.1.5 lakh can earn you a tax break under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act. The certificates earn a fixed interest, which is currently at a rate of 7.0% per annum. The interest rate is revised on a regular basis by the government.
  • NSC offers guaranteed interest and complete capital protection. However, like most fixed income schemes, they cannot deliver inflation-beating returns like tax-saving mutual funds and the National Pension System. The government has made NSC easily accessible for prospective investors by making it available in post office branches spread across the country.
  • The government has promoted the National Savings Certificate as a savings scheme for individuals. Hence, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) and trusts cannot invest in it. Furthermore, even non-resident Indians (NRI) cannot purchase NSC certificates. The scheme is open only for individual Indian resident citizens
90

Where is 'National Museum of India' located?

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Bangalore

  3. ((c))

    Patna

  4. ((d))

    Delhi

  5. ((e))

    Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Delhi

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

  • National Museum of India:
  • The National Museum, New Delhi as we see it today in the majestic building on the corner of Janpath and Maulana Azad Road is the prime museum in the country. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • The blueprint for establishing the National Museum in Delhi had been prepared by the Maurice Gwyer Committee set up by the Government of India in 1946.
  • On the auspicious day of the 15th August 1949, the National Museum was formally inaugurated by the Governor-General of India, Shri R.C. Rajagopalachari, and it was announced that till a permanent building for housing the National Museum was constructed, the Museum would continue to function in the Rashtrapati Bhawan.
  • It continued to be looked after well by the Director-General of Archaeology until the Ministry of Education, the Government of India declared it a separate institution to grow in its collections that were sought painstakingly.
  • It received several gifts but artifacts were collected mainly through its Art Purchase Committee.
  • In the meanwhile, the foundation of the present building was laid by Pt. J.L. Nehru, Prime Minister of India, on the 12th May 1955, and the new building where works of art were displayed elegantly on scientific lines, was handed over to Museum authorities in June 1960.
  • The Museum was formally thrown open to the public on December 18, 1960. And it is now within the administrative control and fully financed by the Department of Culture, Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India.
<br>

Image of the Museum:

Additional Information

  • Chennai:
  • Located on the Bay of Bengal in eastern India, is the capital of the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • The city is home to Fort St. George, built in 1644 and now a museum showcasing the city’s roots as a British military garrison and East India Company trading outpost, when it was called Madras.
  • Religious sites include Kapaleeshwarar Temple, adorned with carved and painted gods, and St. Mary’s, a 17th-century Anglican church.
  • Bengaluru:
  • Also called Bangalore is the capital of India's southern Karnataka state.
  • The center of India's high-tech industry, the city is also known for its parks and nightlife.
  • By Cubbon Park, Vidhana Soudha is a Neo-Dravidian legislative building.
  • Former royal residences include 19th-century Bangalore Palace, modeled after England’s Windsor Castle, and Tipu Sultan’s Summer Palace, an 18th-century teak structure.
  • Patna:
  • It is an ancient city that sprawls along the south bank of the Ganges River in Bihar, northeast India.
  • The state capital, it’s home to Bihar Museum, a contemporary landmark exhibiting bronze sculptures and old coins from the region.
  • Nearby, Indo-Saracenic–style Patna Museum displays a casket believed to contain the Buddha’s ashes. Close to the river, the Golghar is a domed colonial granary overlooking the city.
  • Delhi:
  • India’s capital territory is a massive metropolitan area in the country’s north.
  • In Old Delhi, a neighborhood dating to the 1600s, stands the imposing Mughal-era Red Fort, a symbol of India, and the sprawling Jama Masjid mosque, whose courtyard accommodates 25,000 people.
  • Nearby is Chandni Chowk, a vibrant bazaar filled with food carts, sweets shops, and spice stalls.
91

The mother of Mahatma Gandhi was ______________.

  1. ((a))

    Kamlabai

  2. ((b))

    Heerabai

  3. ((c))

    Putlibai

  4. ((d))

    Kasturbabai

  5. ((e))

    Ramabai

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Putlibai

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Putlibai.

  • Mahatma Gandhi, by name of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, (born October 2, 1869, Porbandar, India—died January 30, 1948, Delhi), Indian lawyer, politician, social activist, and writer who became the leader of the nationalist movement against the British rule of India.
  • Gandhi’s mother, Putlibai, was completely absorbed in religion, did not care much for finery or jewellery, divided her time between her home and the temple, fasted frequently, and wore herself out in days and nights of nursing whenever there was sickness in the family.
  • Karamchand Gandhi, who was the dewan (chief minister) of Porbandar, the capital of a small principality in western India (in what is now Gujarat state) under British suzerainty—did not have much in the way of formal education.
  • Mohandas grew up in a home steeped in Vaishnavism—worship of the Hindu god Vishnu—with a strong tinge of Jainism, a morally rigorous Indian religion whose chief tenets are nonviolence and the belief that everything in the universe is eternal.
92

The highest rice producing state in India is:

  1. ((a))

    West Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Telangana

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

  5. ((e))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

  • West Bengal produces the highest amount of rice in India.
  • According to a survey by the Government in 2015-16 West Bengal produced 15.75 million tonnes of rice.
  • Globally India is the second-largest producer of rice after China.
  • But according to 2024–25.
  • West Bengal is traditionally the highest rice-producing state in India, contributing around 15.75 million tonnes to the national production.
  • Telangana has become a significant contributor, with an estimated rice output of 16.87 million tonnes in 2024–25, making it one of the top rice-producing states.

Important Points

  • In 2022:
StateCapitalChief MinisterGovernor
West BengalKolkataMamata BanerjeeLa Ganesan
TelanganaHyderabadK. Chandrashekhar RaoDr Tamilisai Soundararajan
Tamil NaduChennaiM. K. StalinR.N Ravi
OdishaBhubaneshwarNaveen PatnaikGaneshi Lal
93

Who among the following has been awarded the Sahitya Akademi Awards 2022 in the Hindi language?

  1. ((a))

    Anis Ashfaq

  2. ((b))

    Badri Narayan

  3. ((c))

    Praveen Bandekar

  4. ((d))

    Manoj Kumar Goswami

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Badri Narayan

The correct answer is Badri Narayan.

Key Points

  • Badri Narayan would be conferred the award for his collection of poems in Hindi titled ‘Tumadi Ke Shabd.
  • He is currently the director of G.B. Pant Social Science Institute, Allahabad.
  • He is an eminent Hindi poet, Some of his famous collections of poems include “Khudai Mein Himsa”, “Shabpadiyam” and “Sach Sune Kai Din” his poems have been translated into English, Bengali, Oriya, Malayalam, Urdu, and many other Indian languages.

 Additional Information

  • Anis Ashfaq would be conferred for his novel Khwab Saraab in the Urdu language category.
  • Praveen Dashrath Bandekar has been awarded for his novel Ujavya Sondechya Bahulya in the Marathi language category.
  • Manoj Kumar Goswami was awarded for his Short Stories Bhool Satya in the Assamese language category.
94

Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a scheme for people of what age group?

  1. ((a))

    65 years and above

  2. ((b))

    60 years and above

  3. ((c))

    50 years and above

  4. ((d))

    55 years and above

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

60 years and above

  • PMVVY stands for Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana and is a pension scheme exclusively for elderly persons aged 60 years and above.
  • The citizens can invest a maximum investment of 15 Lakhs in the PMVVY scheme and the scheme is valid till March 31, 2020.
  • The senior citizens will get assured returns of 8% per annum for 10 years depending on their investments.
  • The exclusive privilege to operate the scheme has been given to the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
95

Which is an example of a shrub?

  1. ((a))

    Lemon

  2. ((b))

    Onion

  3. ((c))

    Mango Tree

  4. ((d))

    Spinach

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lemon

The correct answer is Lemon.

Key Points

  • A shrub is a woody perennial plant that is smaller than a tree and has numerous large branches that emerge from the main stem's base.
  • Lemon is an example of a shrub.

Additional Information

  • Any seed-bearing plant that dies down to the ground after flowering, lacks a woody stem and produces seeds is considered a herb. Spinach is an example of a herb.
  • The tree is a woody perennial plant with a single stem or trunk that normally grows to a significant height and has lateral branches that are positioned some distance from the ground. Mango tree is an example of a tree.
  • Onions are classified as a herb.
96

Which of the following is a non-metal?

  1. ((a))

    Sodium

  2. ((b))

    Fluorine

  3. ((c))

    Magnesium

  4. ((d))

    Aluminium

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fluorine

The correct answer is Fluorine.

Key Points

  • Fluorine is an element with the symbol F and atomic number 9.
  • It is the lightest halogen and exists under standard conditions as a highly toxic, pale yellow diatomic gas.
  • It is the most electronegative element and is extremely reactive, as it reacts with all other elements except argon, neon, and helium.

Additional Information

  • Sodium (Na) is a very soft silvery-white metal.
  • It is the most common alkali metal and the sixth most abundant element on Earth.
  • The human body requires a small amount of sodium to conduct nerve impulses, contract and relax muscles, and maintain the proper balance of water and minerals.
  • Magnesium (Mg) is a shiny grey solid metal.
  • It is a key factor in making several parts of the body run smoothly such as the heart, bones, muscles, nerves, and others.
  • Aluminium (Al) is a light, silvery metal extracted from bauxite.
  • It has a density lower than those of other common metals and is hence used to build aircraft components.
97

How many banks were nationalized in 1969?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

The correct answer is 14.

  • The government through the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, 1969 and nationalised the 14 largest commercial banks on 19th July 1969.

Additional Information

  • On July 19, 1969, Indira Gandhi who was both Prime Minister and Finance Minister at that time decided to nationalise 14 largest private banks of the country.
  • The largest and the oldest bank which is still in existence is the State Bank of India (SBI).
  • It originated and started working as the Bank of Calcutta in mid-June 1806.
  • In 1809, it was renamed as the Bank of Bengal.
  • This was one of the three banks founded by a presidency government, the other two were the Bank of Bombay in 1840 and the Bank of Madras in 1843.
  • The three banks were merged in 1921 to form the Imperial Bank of India, which upon India's independence, became the State Bank of India in 1955.
  • For many years, the presidency banks had acted as quasi-central banks, as did their successors, until the Reserve Bank of India was established in 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • In 1960, the State Banks of India was given control of eight state-associated banks under the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Banks) Act, 1959. These are now called its associate banks.
  • In 1969, the Government of India nationalised 14 major private banks; one of the big banks was Bank of India. In 1980, 6 more private banks were nationalised.
  • These nationalised banks are the majority of lenders in the Indian economy.
  • They dominate the banking sector because of their large size and widespread networks.
98

Which among the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?

  1. ((a))

    Wind

  2. ((b))

    Rainfall

  3. ((c))

    Grass

  4. ((d))

    Minerals

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Grass

The correct answer is Grass.

Key Points

  • Biotic components are made up of organisms, living organisms, dead organisms, and the waste products of these.
  • Biotic components are classified on how they obtain energy.
  • Autotrophs: these organisms feed themselves and are thus known as self-feeders.
  • They prepare their food using sunlight, water, CO2 and nutrients.
  • They are also known as producers.
  • Heterotrophs: these organisms can’t produce their food and thus rely on the other organisms for their energy requirements.
  • They are also called consumers as they consume food from the producers.​
  • There is another category apart from the heterotrophs and autotrophs without which life can’t function, the decomposers.
  • Decomposers are the second most important organisms after the producers.
  • These decomposers also help the producers to produce their food too.
  • They are the second most important organisms because they decompose all the remaining organic matter.
  • They also provide nutrients that the producers use to produce food. ​

Additional Information

  • Abiotic components are usually the non-living components of our ecosystem which are, sun, rainfall, temperature, air, and soil.
  • The abiotic components are affected by many things such as altitude, location and seasons.
  • The abiotic factors change from weather to weather, climate to climate, season to season and place to place.
99

Ibn Battuta, the famous Muslim explorer who came to India during the times of Muhammad bin Tughlaq, belonged to which country?

  1. ((a))

    Egypt

  2. ((b))

    Greece

  3. ((c))

    Iran

  4. ((d))

    Morocco

  5. ((e))

    France

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Morocco

The correct answer is Morocco.

Key Points

  • Ibn Battuta, the famous Muslim explorer who came to India during the times of Muhammad bin Tughlaq, belonged to Morocco.

Additional Information

  • The full name of Ibn Battuta was Muhammad Ibn Battuta.
  • By profession, he was a Geographer, Jurist, Judge and Explorer. His travelling left out an exclusive note on the Tughlaq dynasty.
  • In 1325, when Ibn Battuta was 20 years old, he started travelling, as he wanted to go on a Pilgrimage to Mecca, which is called Hajj as all Muslims wanted to go there so he was also interested to go there.
  • But, in actual his travelling time went to about 29 years and during which he almost covered 75,000 miles distance, and this was actually equivalent to that of 44 modern countries.
  • Ibn Battuta wrote book Rihla.
  • Arrival in India:
  • In 1334, Ibn Battuta arrived in India all the way through the mountains of Afghanistan, during the time when the Tughlaq dynasty was at its height.
  • On his approach towards Sultan Muhammad Tughlaq, he learnt that the great Sultan liked to take gifts from his visitors, and in return, the Sultan, used to give gifts, which are of far superior worth to visitors.
  • Ibn Battuta, on meeting with Muhammad bin Tughluq, presented him with arrows, camels, thirty horses, slaves and some other goods.
  • In return, Muhammad bin Tughlaq responded to him with a welcoming gift of 2,000 silver dinars, a furnished house and the job of a judge with an annual salary of 5,000 silver dinars.
100

"Blue Revolution" is related with the following

  1. ((a))

    Food grain production

  2. ((b))

    Oil seed production

  3. ((c))

    Fish production

  4. ((d))

    Milk production

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fish production

The correct answer is Fish production.

Key Points

  • The Blue Revolution is an initiative taken by the government for the growth of the aquaculture industry(Fish Production).
  • It started in China.
  • Blue Revolution also called as Neel Kranti Mission in India was launched in 1985-1990 during the 7th Five-Year Plan.
  • The main objective is to develop, manage, and promote fisheries to double the farmers’ income.

Additional Information

  • The Green Revolution involved the production of high yielding varieties of seeds.
  • The white revolution involved the operation flood that enhanced the production of milk.
  • The Yellow revolution involved a sudden increase in the production of edible oil.
  • The Golden Revolution involved a significant increase in the production of fruits, honey, vegetables, and other important horticultural products.

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