DSSSB Jail Warder : (24 Nov 2025) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Let the number of girls be G and the number of boys be B.

According to the given information:

B = 2G

B + G = 66

Substituting B = 2G into the second equation:

2G + G = 66

3G = 66

G = 66 / 3

G = 22

Therefore, the number of girls is 22 and the number of boys is 44.

Pavithra is ranked 18^th from the top, and there are 11 boys ahead of her.

So, the number of girls ahead of Pavithra = 18 - 11 - 1 = 6 (since Pavithra is also a girl).

Total number of girls = 22

Number of girls after Pavithra = 22 - 7 = 15

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given equation: 4 + 18 – 3 × 2 ÷ 6 = 10

1. Interchanging ÷ and –

= 4 + 18 ÷ 3 × 2 - 6 

= 4 + 6 × 2 - 6 

= 4 + 12 - 6

= 16 - 6

10 = 10

2.Interchanging × and +

= 4 × 18 – 3 + 2 ÷ 6 

= 4 × 18 – 3 + 0.3333

= 72 - 3 + 0.333

= 72.333 - 3 

69. 33 ≠ 10

3.Interchanging × and ÷

= 4 + 18 – 3 ÷ 2 × 6 

= 4 + 18 – 1.5 × 6 

= 4 + 18 – 9

= 22 - 9 

13 ≠ 10

4.Interchanging + and –

= 4 - 18 + 3 × 2 ÷ 6 

= 4 - 18 + 3 × 0.3333

= 4 - 18 + 1

= 4 - 17

• 13 ≠ 10

Hence, by interchanging "÷ and –" we get the correct answer.

Arranging them according to the given information:

1)Only 3 boxes are placed between T and P, and neither is placed at the top or bottom.

2. S is placed in the middle of the boxes. Two boxes are kept between S and L, which is immediately below T. So case 2 will be eliminated

3) F is kept above L and below P, but not immediately below. 

4) Two boxes are kept between S and H.

The final arrangement is as below:

So, T is placed third below O.

Hence, "T" is the correct answer.

Seven persons: F, G, H, I, J, K and L

i) F and I are sitting at extreme ends of the row.

ii) J is sitting third to the right of H.

iii) G is sitting to the right of J.

This eliminates case 2.

iv)  L is not an immediate neighbour of H.

This also determines the position of K.

Hence, three persons are sitting between H and G.

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number ÷ 2) + 4 = 2^nd number

So, the last number is:

(84 ÷ 2) + 4 = 46

Hence the correct answer is "46".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The number in the coded language denotes the number of vowels present in the given word to be coded.

DESK is coded as 'BCQI1',

→ There is only 1 vowel in the word DESK.

CHAIR is coded as 'AFYGP2',

 → There is only 2 vowels in the word CHAIR.

Similarly,

'TABLE' can be coded as,

 → There is only 2 vowels in the word TABLE.

Hence, the correct answer is "RYZJC2".

According to the given information:

1. There are Maths and Biology classes on Monday and Friday.

2. Maths and English classes are scheduled on Tuesday and Friday. ​

3. Chemistry and Biology classes are scheduled on Wednesday and Monday.

4. Physics and English are scheduled on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday.

Thus, 'Friday' has classes for English, Biology and Maths.

Hence, the correct answer is "Friday".

Sequence goes as:

Egg → Larva → Pupa → Butterfly → Death.

The logic followed here is:

DESK is coded as 'CEDFRTJL'

CHAIR is coded as 'BDGIZBHJQS',

Similarly, TABLE will be coded:

Hence, the correct answer is "SUZBACKMDF".

Given:

• Number of floors = 7
• Number of people = 6, namely  A, B, C, D, E, and G.
• One of the floors in the building is vacant.
• The ground floor is numbered floor number 1 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7.

​Explanation:

• A stays two floors above G who lives on an odd prime numbered floor.

• B stays two floor below E, who does not stay at the topmost floor → There are two possibilities for the position of B and E.
• C is living above E and G but below A → As in case -(2) there is no possible position for C i.e above E and G and below A , therefore this case is eliminated.

• An even numbered floor is vacant.→ As in case - (1) there is no possible position for vacant floor, therefore this case is eliminated.
• Also after the condition of vacant position at even numbered floor, only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e D.​

Thus, according to the final arrangement either E or G is living immediate above the vacant floor. As out of all the options only G is given, therefore G lives immediate above vacant floor.

Hence, "G" is the correct answer.

1. Eight friends K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a dinner.

2. Q sits third to the left of P and opposite to K.

3. M sits between L and N.

4. L is not an immediate neighbour of Q (this statement eliminates Case II )

5. R sits third to the right of M.

The final arrangement will be as shown below:

Hence, 'S'  is sitting immediate right of R

Drawing the Venn diagram,

Conclusion 1: Some trust are excuse → True (as all lie are excuse and some lie are trust)

Conclusion 2: Some excuse are lie → True (as all lie are excuse, so, some excuse must be lie)

Hence, both conclusion I and II follow.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, “SMJ” is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

ABROAD is coded as 'RBAQCF',

COUPLE is coded as 'UOCRNG',

Similarly, 'DECADE' ?

Hence, the correct answer is "CEDCFG".

Given Expression: 320 × 4 - 16 ÷ 4 + 24

1. Option 1: + and –

After interchanging given signs,

= 320 × 4 + 16 ÷ 4 - 24

= 1280 + 4 - 24

= 1284 - 24

= 1260 ≠ 40

2. Option 2: + and ÷

After interchanging given signs,

= 320 × 4 - 16 + 4 ÷ 24

= 1280 - 16 + 0.16

= 1280 - 15.83

= 1264.16 ≠ 40

3. Option 3: ÷ and ×

After interchanging given signs,

= 320 ÷ 4 - 16 × 4 + 24

= 80 - 64 + 24

= 80 - 40

= 40

4. Option 4: × and +

After interchanging given signs,

= 320 + 4 - 16 ÷ 4 × 24

= 320 + 4 - 4 × 24

= 320 + 4 - 96

= 324 - 96

= 228 ≠ 40

Hence the correct answer is ÷ and ×.

Total Students: 50

Ram is sitting at the 11^th position from the front.

Vikas is sitting at the 17^th position from the back.

Total Students between Ram and Vikas = 50 - (11 + 17) = 50 - 28 = 22

Hence, the correct answer is "22".

Check all the options:

Option (1): 16 × 8 + 5 – 32 ÷ 8

After sign + and × are interchanged

= 16 + 8 × 5 – 32 ÷ 8

= 16 + 8 × 5 – 4

= 16 + 40 – 4

= 56 - 4

= 52

Option (2): 9 + 6 – 36 ÷ 4 × 17

After sign + and × are interchanged

= 9 × 6 – 36 ÷ 4 + 17

= 9 × 6 – 9 + 17

= 54 – 9 + 17

= 71 – 9

= 62 ≠ 52

Option (3): 18 ÷ 9 × 6 – 13 + 2

After sign + and × are interchanged

= 18 ÷ 9 + 6 – 13 × 2

= 2 + 6 – 13 × 2

= 2 + 6 – 26

= 8 – 26

= - 18 ≠ 52

Option (4): 99 ÷ 9 + 2 × 6 – 19

After sign + and × are interchanged

= 99 ÷ 9 × 2 + 6 – 19

= 11 × 2 + 6 – 19

= 22 + 6 – 19

= 28 – 19

= 9 ≠ 52

Hence, “Option (1)” is the correct answer.

1. Two persons were seated between Peter and Priya. Padma was seated second to the right of Priya. 

2. Prince was seated second to the left of Pawan but not adjacent to Priya. 

3. One person was seated between Preethi and Prasidh. Neither Pawan nor Prasidh was seated adjacent to Padma.

Hence, case 2 is invalid 

Prasidh was seated second to the right of Peter

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Synonyms

Here,

Engage and Involve are synonyms, meaning they have similar meanings.

Similarly,

Diverse and Varied are synonyms, meaning they have similar meanings.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Explanation :

• Number of floors - 8,  topmost floor is numbered as 8 - to - Bottom most floor numbered as 1
• Number of person - 8 i.e L, M, N, X, Y, Z, P and Q

​1) P lives three floors above Z on an even numbered floor.

2) The number of person living above Z is equal to number of person living below Q - As in Case - (2) possible position for Q is at the sixth where already P is positioned, thus case-(2) is eliminated.

3) L lives immediate below and immediate above of Y and N respectively.

4) M is above X, who does not live on a prime numbered floor - As in Case -(3) possible possible position is at second floor which is prime numbered floor, thus it is eliminated.

⇒ Thus, according to the final arrangement the number of person living above X is two which is equal to number of persons living below Y.

Hence, "Y" is the correct answer.

Given information,

1) There is a gap of two days between persons B and C, where B is going after C. 

2. B is not going office on Thursday and Friday.

3) A is going on the first day of the week. 

4) E is going to the office just after F, who is not going to the office on Friday.

So, the final arrangement is,

Hence, person D is going to the office on Tuesday.

"Who" is used for the second person in a sentence.

 For example,

E is going to the office just after F, who is not going to the office on Friday → E is going to the office just after F, and  F is not going to the office on Friday.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Given: S $ T @ U ! V % W # X

Clearly, T is the son-in-law of X.

Hence, the correct answer is "Son-in-law".

For this question, the relation of given series is mentioned below-

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

The logic followed here is :

XZDI is not following the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "XZDI".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '5' is added to the positional value of each alphabet.

JKGI is related to OPLN →

QRNP is related to VWSU →

Similarly, NOKM will be written as:

Here, 'NOKM' is related to 'STPR'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The given series is:

4, 6, 9, 13.5, ?

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is 20.25.

According to the given information,

1) Sociology is on the top of all the books.

2) Accountancy is immediately below Physiology which is immediately below Sociology.

3) Economics is immediately above Psychology but in the middle. 

4) Hindi is immediately below Psychology.

Here, we can see that Accountancy is between Economics and Physiology.

Hence, the correct answer is "Economics and Physiology".

The figure that is embedded in the given figure is:- 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given number: 5673128

According to the question, 

So, difference between the digits which are third from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed → (8 - 0) = 8

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Sum of the place value of the alphabets) - 3 = Code.

'LEAVE' is coded as '42'

→ (12 + 5 + 1 + 22 + 5) - 3

→ 45 - 3 = 42

'TEAM' is coded as '36'

→ 20 + 5 + 1 + 13 = 39

→ 39 - 3 = 36

Similarly, for OFFER

→ 15 + 6 + 6 + 5 + 18 = 50

→ 50 - 3 = 47.

So, 'OFFER' will be coded as '47'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

We draw the following table from given conditions:

Following symbols are used:

When the symbol A and B is interchanged we will proceed from the end side for better understanding.

We will check each option one by one: 

a) A*Q#N$X (X is the father of N, N is the mother of Q, Q is the sister of A)

clearly seen, X is the grandfather of A not grandmother. FALSE

b)  A@Q$N#X (X is the mother of N, N is the father of Q, Q is the husband of A)

Clearly seen, X is the grandmother of A's husband. FALSE

c)  A#Q$X*N (N is the sister of X, X is the father of Q, Q is the mother of A)

Clearly seen, X is the grandfather of A not grandmother. FALSE

d)  A#Q@N#X ( X is the mother of N, N is the husband of Q, Q is the mother of A)

Clearly seen, X is the grandmother of A. This is the correct relation. TRUE

Hence, A#Q@N#X is the correct option.

Decoding the information, 

Given:

208 D 113 B (5² D (6 B 4)) A 279 C 3 A 386 D 506

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

= 208 – 113 × (5² - (6 × 4)) + 279 ÷ 3 + 386 – 506

= 208 – 113 × (25 - 24) + 279 ÷ 3 + 386 – 506

= 208 – 113 × 1 + 279 ÷ 3 + 386 – 506

= 208 – 113 × 1 + 93 + 386 – 506

= 208 – 113 + 93 + 386 – 506

= 687 – 113 – 506

= 687 – 619

= 68

Hence, “68” is the correct answer.

The water image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Important Points

• The reflection of an object into the water is its water image.
• It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.
• The water image of the figure looks like the mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Decoding the information, 

Given:

21 $ 7 M 13 < 2 R 6

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

= 21 ÷ 7 + 13 - 2 × 6

= 3 + 13 - 2 × 6

= 3 + 13 – 12

= 16 – 12

= 4

Hence, “4” is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is as follows:

So, the next term is:

17 + 6 = 23

Hence, the correct answer is "23".

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

Given information –

1. M is daughter of R, who is not the father of M.

2. O and R are married couple

3. P is brother of O.

4. O is father of N.

We can draw the following Family Tree from the information given above:

Hence, M is sister of N.

The logic follows here is:-

Each 1^st letter is increasing by 4.

Each 2^nd letter is increasing by 5.

And each 3^rd letter is increasing by 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "FLQ".

Important Points

Concept:

1. We have to check the conclusions are 100% match with the statement. If the conclusion is 100% match with the given statement then the conclusion is true. If there is a 1% chance of not following the statement then the conclusion is considered to be false.

2. The possibility case can be considered to be "false" in "definite case".

3. In Possibility case, either "can" or "possible" word must be present.

The least possible venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some tigers are weird → False (It can be possible, but it is not definite)

II. All brave are tigers → False (It can be possible, but it is not definite)

III. No weird is tiger → False (It can be possible, but it is not definite)

But, conclusion I and III forms a complementary pair.

Hence, either conclusion I or III follows.

Note: 

Conditions of Either-or case:

1. The elements should be the same in both the statements.
2. Individually both the conclusions should be false.
3. One conclusion should be positive and one conclusion should be negative (Complementary pair)

The two complementary pairs are:

1. All + Some not

2. No + Some

Additional Information

From the given information,

 We can dram following Family Tree from information given above 

According to the given information:-

M % N & R % P @ L means M is married to N, N is brother of R, R is married to P, P is father of L.

The possible family tree diagram is

1. M is married to N

2. N is brother of R

3. R is married to P

4. P is father of L. So Final Family Tree is

Hence, N is the Uncle of L is the correct answer.

The relationship between "Apostate" and "Religion." An apostate is someone who renounces or abandons their religion. The key element of this relationship is the action of turning away from or betraying a fundamental belief or loyalty.

Now, let's analyze the given options:

1. Potentate : Kingdom - A potentate is a ruler or monarch of a kingdom; this pair signifies a position of authority over something rather than a betrayal or abandonment.

2) Teacher : Education - A teacher is an individual who imparts education or teaches. This pair indicates a role of providing or contributing to something rather than renouncing it.

3) Traitor : Country - A traitor is someone who betrays their country, typically by aiding an enemy. This relationship mirrors the notion of betrayal or abandonment inherent in the "Apostate : Religion" relationship.

4) Jailor : Law - A jailor is an individual who is in charge of a jail, responsible for overseeing prisoners. This relationship describes a custodial or overseeing role rather than abandonment or betrayal.

Given these analyses, the pair of words that bear the same relationship as "Apostate : Religion" is: Traitor : Country.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Explanation:

Connective Cells:

• Tissue that bind, support, connect, or separate other tissues or organs are connective tissues.
• In addition to helping to transport nutrients and other substances between tissues and organs, connective tissue also helps to store fat and mend damaged tissue.
• Bone, cartilage, fat, blood, and lymphatic tissue are examples of different types of connective tissue.
• In connective tissue, fibroblasts, mast cells, plasma cells, macrophages, adipocytes, and leukocytes are frequent cell types.
• The most prevalent form of connective tissue cells are fibroblasts.
• Both fibers and an amorphous ground substance are produced by them.

Thus, the function of connective tissues is of binding the various parts of the body of an animal.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 2 i.e. Shivaji Maharaj.

Key Points

Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj:

• He was the second son of Shahaji, was the creator of the Maratha nation.
• He united the Maratha Chiefs from Malwa, Konkan, and Desh regions to carve out a small kingdom.
• He took control of the hereditary Jagir after the death of his guardian Konadev in 1647.
• He was born in the hill fort of Shivner in 1630.
• He began his military career at a young age. He captured the fort of Toran in 1656.
• From 1656, he started capturing many other forts from the local officers of Bijapur.
• After some time, Shivaji raided the Bijapur.
• Ali Adil Shah of Bijapur sent his General Afzal Khan to capture Shivaji.
• But Shivaji was too clever for him and killed him with a deadly weapon called Baghnakh or tiger's claw.
• Shivaji now began to attack the Mughal territories.
• Aurangzeb sent Shaista Khan, the Viceroy of the Deccan, with a big army against Shivaji.
• Shaista Khan captured Poona but Shivaji managed to outwit the Mughals in 1663.
• Aurangzeb sent his son, Prince Muazzam, and then, on his failure, Mirza Raja Jai Singh of Amber was sent against Shivaji.
• Raja Jai Singh won a few victories against Shivaji and besieged him in Purandhar in 1665.
• Shivaji visited the Mughal Court of Agra at the persuasion of Jai Singh, but he was put there in detention.
• However, Shivaji escaped in 1666 and resumed his career of conquests.
• In 1674, Shivaji made Raigrah as his capital and celebrated his coronation and assumed the title of 'Chatrapati'.
• He died in 1680 at the age of 53.

The correct answer is Madhav National Park.

In News

• Madhav National Park in Madhya Pradesh has been designated as India's 58^th Tiger Reserve.

Key Points

• Madhav National Park is located in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It was previously a hunting ground for the Scindia Maharajas of Gwalior and was notified as a national park in 1958.
• The park spans 355 square kilometers and is part of the Upper Vindhyan Hills.
• Madhav National Park features diverse landscapes, including forests, grasslands, and lakes like Sakhya Sagar and Madhav Sagar.

Additional Information

• Panna National Park
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, it was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1994.
• It is famous for its successful tiger reintroduction program.
• Satpura National Park
• Situated in Madhya Pradesh, it was established in 1981.
• It is known for its rugged terrain and high biodiversity.
• Kanha National Park
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, it was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1973 under Project Tiger.

The correct answer is Mangrove Forests

Key PointsMangrove Forests

• Found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Mud and silt get accumulated on such coasts.
• Dense mangroves are the common varieties with roots of the plants submerged underwater.
• The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishana, the Godavari, and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
• In the Ganga Brahmaputra delta, Sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber.
• Palm, coconut, keora, agar, also grow in some parts of the delta.
• Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials, and snakes are also found in these forests.

Additional InformationTropical Evergreen Forests:

• These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman, and Nicobar, upper parts of Assam, and Tamil Nadu coast.
• They are at their best in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season.
• The trees reach great heights up to 60 meters or even above.
• Since the region is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds.
• The trees, shrubs, and creepers give it a multilayered structure.
• There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves.
• As such, these forests appear green all the year-round

Tropical Deciduous Forests

• ​These are the most widespread forests of India.
• They are also called the monsoon forests and spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.
• Trees of this forest type shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer.
• On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.

Natural vegetation refers to a plant community, which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. The following major types of vegetation may be identified in our country

1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
3. Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs
4. Montane Forests
5. Mangrove Forests

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

In News

• Himachal Pradesh was declared fully literate by its Chief Minister on International Literacy Day, achieving a 99.30% literacy rate, surpassing the national average of 95%.

Key Points

• Himachal Pradesh became the fourth state, after Tripura, Mizoram, and Goa, to achieve full functional literacy.
• Ladakh is the first fully literate Union Territory of India.
• India's national literacy rate rose from 74% in 2011 to 80.9% in 2023–24.
• The ULLAS Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram enrolled over 3 crore learners with a 90% success rate.

Additional Information

• ULLAS Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram
• A national literacy initiative aimed at promoting education and increasing literacy across India with over 3 crore learners enrolled.
• International Literacy Day (ILD)
• Observed annually on September 8, ILD highlights the importance of literacy, with a focus on different themes, such as "Promoting Literacy in the Digital Era" in 2025.
• India's Literacy Growth
• The literacy rate in India has risen significantly, from 74% in 2011 to 80.9% in 2023–24, showing continued progress in national education efforts.

The correct answer is Tappa.

Key Points

• Tappa is a form of Indian semi-classical vocal music that was derived from the folk music of Punjab and Sindh.
• Tappa is the oldest and most admired form of Pashto folk literature which originated from the folk songs of the camel riders in Punjab.
• It is one of the most difficult classical forms in Punjab.
• It was believed to be a song of the cameleers of Punjab and Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• Bhajan refers to any devotional song with a religious theme or spiritual ideas, specifically among Indian religions, in any of the languages from the Indian subcontinent.
• Qawwalis are the compositions and devotional music of Sufi saints who belong to the tradition of Islamic mysticism.
• Ghazal is a well-known poetic genre of Arabic literature.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• The National Council for Promotion of Sindhi Language (NCPSL) is headquartered in Delhi, India.
• NCPSL was established in 1994 under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• The council aims to promote, develop, and preserve the Sindhi language and its rich cultural heritage.
• It organizes workshops, seminars, and cultural events to encourage the use of Sindhi in literature and daily communication.
• NCPSL also provides financial assistance to authors, publishers, and organizations working towards the development of Sindhi literature.

Additional Information

• Sindhi Language
• Sindhi is one of the 22 scheduled languages recognized by the Constitution of India under the Eighth Schedule.
• It is primarily spoken in the Sindh province of Pakistan and by the Sindhi diaspora globally, including India.
• Sindhi has a rich literary history with contributions in poetry, prose, and philosophical texts.
• Ministry of Education
• The NCPSL operates under the Ministry of Education, which oversees policies related to education, literacy, and language promotion in India.
• The ministry also supports other language promotion councils, such as the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL) and the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL).
• Preservation of Regional Languages
• The Government of India runs various schemes to preserve and promote regional languages, ensuring cultural diversity and inclusivity.
• These efforts include financial support, scholarships, and the development of digital tools for language learning.
• Importance of Language Councils
• Language councils like NCPSL play a vital role in safeguarding linguistic heritage and fostering unity in a diverse country like India.
• They work towards making education and literature accessible to different linguistic communities.

The correct answer is Marine National Park and Sanctuary, Jamnagar.

In News

• Gujarat is conducting India’s first coastline and waders census from January 3 to 5, 2025, at the Marine National Park and Sanctuary in Jamnagar.

Key Points

• The Marine National Park and Sanctuary is India’s first designated marine national park, covering 170 km of coastline and 42 islands.
• It hosts over 300 species of local and migratory birds, including rare wader birds like the Crab Plover and Great Knot.
• The census is jointly organized by the Gujarat Forest Department and the Bird Conservation Society of Gujarat.
• Activities include expert talks, bird counting, and knowledge-sharing sessions over the three-day event.

Additional Information

• Marine National Park and Sanctuary: Located in the Gulf of Kutch, it is a protected area established to conserve marine biodiversity and mangrove ecosystems.
• Jamnagar: Known as a paradise for coastal birds, it supports numerous local and migratory bird species, including over 50 species of waders.
• Crab Plover (Shankhlo): A rare wader bird species that thrives in Jamnagar but is seldom found elsewhere in India.
• Knowledge-Sharing Sessions: These aim to raise awareness about conservation efforts and the importance of coastal ecosystems.

The correct answer is Third.

Key Points

• The Third 5-Year Plan symbolizes the 1^st phase in a system of enduring expansion extending over the next 1the 5 years or so.
• In the course of this period, India's economy must not only enlarge swiftly but must, in unison, become independent and self-generating.
• The focus was on agriculture and improvement in the production of wheat.
• The Third 5 year Plan focused on agriculture enhancement in the production of wheat, but the succinct Sino - Indian War in the year 1962 exposed flaws in the economy and shifted the spotlight towards the Defence industry.
• The target growth rate was 5.6% and the actual growth rate only achieved 2.4%.
• This indicated a miserable failure of the Third Plan, and the government had to declare "Plan Holidays" (1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69).

Additional Information

• The Five Year Plans were formulated, implemented and regulated by a body known as the Planning Commission.
• The First Five Year Plan laid the thrust of economic development in India.
• It was presented by the first Indian Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru to the Parliament of India.
• The Planning Commission was replaced by a think tank called NITI AAYOG in 2015.
• Chairman of NITi AYOG - Prime Minister of India ( Sh Narendra Modi)
• Vice Chairman - Shri Suman Bery
• CEO of NITI AYOG - Shri B.V.R. Subrahmanyam

Confusion Points

• The Fourth Five-Year Plan, spanning from 1969 to 1974, was implemented during the tenure of Indira Gandhi as Prime Minister, aimed at rectifying past shortcomings.
• It was developed following the Gadgil Formula and prioritized achieving growth with stability, as well as promoting self-reliance.

The correct answer is Ministry of Finance

• Departments under Finance Ministry:
• ​Department of Expenditure
• ​Department of Revenue
• ​Department of Financial Services
• ​Department of Investment and Public Asset Management
• ​Department of Economic Affairs
• Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Additional Information

• Departments under Defence Ministry
• ​Department of Defence (DOD)
• Department of Defence Production (DDP)
• Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare (DESW)
• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
• Department of Military Affairs (DMA)
• Departments under the Ministry of Home Affairs
• ​Department Of Border Management
• Department Of Internal Security
• Department Of Jammu, Kashmir And Ladakh Affairs
• Department Of Home
• Department Of Official Language
• Department Of States

The correct answer is Sovereign Exposure Exchange Agreement (EEA).

In News

• The Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a three-billion-US-dollar Sovereign Exposure Exchange Agreement (EEA) with the World Bank to increase ADB’s lending capacity for developing countries.

Key Points

• This agreement is ADB’s first EEA with the World Bank and its sixth such agreement with other multilateral development banks since 2020.
• The total exchanged amount through these EEAs has reached 9 billion dollars.
• EEA is a risk management tool designed to reduce portfolio concentration risks, thus increasing lending capacity.
• Roberta Casali, ADB Vice-President for Finance and Risk Management, highlighted the transformative nature of exposure exchanges in enhancing ADB’s reach and reducing concentration risk.

Additional Information

• Asian Development Bank (ADB)
• Established in 1966, ADB is a regional development bank aimed at promoting economic and social development in Asia.
• Its headquarters are in Manila, Philippines, and it is composed of 68 member countries.
• World Bank
• Founded in 1944, the World Bank provides financial and technical assistance to developing countries worldwide.
• The bank’s headquarters are in Washington, D.C., USA.
• Sovereign Exposure Exchange Agreement (EEA)
• EEA is a financial arrangement where multilateral development banks exchange a portion of their sovereign credit exposure to reduce risks associated with concentration.
• It helps in diversifying credit portfolios and enhancing the lending capacity of institutions like ADB.
• Capital Usage and Lending Capacity
• By reducing exposure concentration through EEAs, ADB optimizes capital usage, thereby increasing its lending capacity.
• This tool enables the bank to extend more funds to developing nations for infrastructure and development projects.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Ghaggar River: The Ghaggar River is a seasonal river that flows primarily through the state of Haryana. It originates from the Shivalik Hills in Himachal Pradesh and flows through Haryana and Punjab.
• Seasonal Nature: The Ghaggar River is seasonal because it primarily depends on monsoon rains for its water flow. During dry months, the river often dries up completely, making it a non-perennial water source.
• Main River of Haryana: It is considered the main river of Haryana because of its historical and geographical significance within the state. The river supports agricultural activities during the monsoon season and is integral to the region's ecosystem.
• Historical Importance: Historically, the Ghaggar River is believed to be associated with the ancient Saraswati River mentioned in Vedic texts. Some research suggests that the Ghaggar-Hakra channel might have been the course of the mythical Saraswati River.
• Geographical Path: The Ghaggar River flows through major cities of Haryana, including Sirsa and Fatehabad, before entering Rajasthan. In Rajasthan, it dissipates into the Thar Desert without reaching the sea. This reinforces its importance as a regional water body for Haryana.
• Support to Agriculture: The Ghaggar River is vital for agriculture in Haryana during the monsoon season, as it provides water for irrigation, especially in districts like Ambala, Kurukshetra, and Kaithal.
• Hydrological Characteristics: The river contributes to the groundwater recharge during its peak flow, helping to sustain water levels in the region.

Additional Information

• Ghaggar River in Punjab:
• The Ghaggar River also flows through Punjab, where it supports agricultural activities. However, it is not considered the main river of Punjab, as larger rivers like Sutlej and Beas dominate the state's hydrology.
• Punjab's agricultural irrigation is heavily dependent on perennial rivers, unlike Haryana, which relies on seasonal rivers like the Ghaggar.
• Rivers in Rajasthan:
• In Rajasthan, the Ghaggar River loses its flow as it enters the arid Thar Desert. It does not have a significant impact on Rajasthan's hydrology compared to rivers like Chambal and Banas.
• Rajasthan depends on groundwater and man-made reservoirs for water rather than seasonal rivers like the Ghaggar.
• Uttar Pradesh's Rivers:
• Uttar Pradesh is home to major perennial rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Gomti, which provide year-round water. Seasonal rivers like Ghaggar do not play a significant role in its hydrology.
• The state's agricultural output is significantly supported by the irrigation provided by perennial rivers and canal systems.
• Features of Seasonal Rivers:
• Seasonal rivers like Ghaggar are characterized by their dependency on rainfall for water flow.
• They play an essential role in regions with a monsoon-dominated climate by supporting temporary water needs for agriculture and ecosystems.
• However, these rivers often dry up during non-monsoon periods, limiting their utility for year-round water supply.

Important Points

• Ghaggar River and Historical Significance:
• The Ghaggar River is often linked to the ancient Saraswati River, which holds significant importance in Indian history and mythology.
• Several studies and archaeological findings indicate that the Ghaggar-Hakra channel was part of the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Environmental Challenges:
• Seasonal rivers like Ghaggar face challenges due to erratic rainfall patterns caused by climate change.
• Efforts are needed to conserve and manage these rivers sustainably to support the regions dependent on them.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Both statements are correct regarding direct taxes:
• Direct taxes are levied on taxable income earned by individuals and corporate entities.
• Examples of direct taxes include income tax, corporate tax, and wealth tax.
• These taxes are directly imposed on the income or wealth of individuals and entities.
• Gift tax is indeed a type of direct tax.
• It is a tax imposed on the transfer of property or assets as a gift from one individual to another.
• The person giving the gift (donor) is usually responsible for paying the tax, although in some cases, the recipient may be liable for reporting the gift.
• Gift tax is considered a direct tax because it is directly imposed on the transfer of property or assets.

The Correct Answer is Moldova.

In News

• Moldova Joins International Solar Alliance as 107^th Member.

Key Points

• Moldova has become the 107^th member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA).
• ISA was launched in 2015 by India and France during COP21 in Paris.
• The Alliance aims to promote solar energy development globally.
• It focuses on reducing technology and financing costs for solar energy.
• ISA supports sustainable energy adoption in both developed and developing nations.
• Moldova will benefit from technical assistance, financial frameworks, and multilateral partnerships.
• The goal is to expand Moldova’s solar capacity through ISA cooperation.

The correct answer is Stamen.

Key Points

• Stamens are the male reproductive organs of flowering plants.
• They contain an anther, the site of pollen development, and in most species a pedicel-like filament that conducts water and nutrients to the anther and positions it to aid in pollen dispersal.

Additional Information

• The female reproductive organ in humans is the uterus, also known as the womb.
• The uterus is a pear-shaped organ located in the lower abdomen, between the bladder and rectum. Its primary function is to house and nourish a developing fetus during pregnancy.
• The uterus is connected to the vagina by the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus that protrudes into the vaginal canal.
• The ovaries, which produce and release eggs, are located on either side of the uterus and are connected to it by the fallopian tubes.
• The oviducts, also known as the fallopian tubes, are a pair of structures in the female reproductive system that connect the ovaries to the uterus. They play a crucial role in fertilization and pregnancy.

The correct answer is Jane Austen.

Key Points 

• The novel Pride and Prejudice were written by Jane Austen in 1813.
• It is a romantic novel based in rural England.
• Pride and Prejudice:
• It is an 1813 romantic novel of manners written by Jane Austen.
• The novel follows the character development of Elizabeth Bennet, the dynamic protagonist of the book who learns about the repercussions of hasty judgments and comes to appreciate the difference between superficial goodness and actual goodness.
• Its humour lies in its honest depiction of manners, education, marriage, and money during the Regency era in England.

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Pingali Venkayya.

In News

• India commemorates National Flag Day on July 22 to mark flag adoption in 1947.

Key Points

• National Flag Day: observed on 22^nd July to commemorate adoption of the Indian National Flag in 1947.
• Adopted by the Constituent Assembly, chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, just before Independence.
• Designed by Pingali Venkayya, who began flag work after serving in British Army in South Africa.
• He published a book on flags in 1916 and proposed a flag to unite India.
• His tricolor design was adopted by the INC in 1931, and later modified for national use.
• The Tricolor symbolizes unity, freedom struggle, and national pride.

The correct answer is Sunderbans.

Key Points

• Coral reefs in India:
• India with its coastline of 7,517 km and subtropical climatic conditions has coral reef areas along its coastline and islands.
• All the three major reef types, atoll, fringing, and barrier, occur in India.
• In India, Coral reefs are present in the areas of Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep Islands, and Malvan. Hence option 4 is the correct answer.
• The Gulf of Kutch in the northwest, which has some of the most northerly reefs in the world) and Palk Bay and the Gulf of Mannar in the southeast.
• Coral patches are found in Ratnagiri, Malvan, and Redi, south of Bombay and at the Gaveshani Bank, west of Mangalore.
• Corals along the shore are found at Quilon on the Kerala coast to Enayem in Tamilnadu.
• Corals also occur on the east coast between Parangipettai (Porto Novo), south of Cuddalore, and Pondicherry.
• Among island corals, in Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Fringing and barrier) and Lakshadweep (Atolls) corals are found.

The correct answer is stagflation.

Key Points

• An economy that is suffering both rising inflation and stagnant economic output is said to be in stagflation.
• Stagflation was initially identified in the 1970s when an oil shock caused high unemployment and rapid inflation in many industrialised nations.
• Slow economic development and relatively high unemployment, sometimes known as economic stagnation, are the hallmarks of stagflation, which is also characterised by rising prices (i.e., inflation).
• An alternative definition of stagflation is a time when there is both inflation and a fall in the GDP.

Important Points

• A needed return's inflation risk compensation is represented by the inflation premium component.
• The difference between the actual gross domestic product (GDP) at the present and the GDP that would be present if an economy were experiencing full employment is known as the inflationary gap, a macroeconomic concept.
• Policies to boost the economy and fight deflation are referred to as reflation.

Bijapur and Golkonda were the two kingdoms in the Deccan which were conquered by Aurangzeb.

Key Points

• Aurangzeb wanted to establish a sovereign state over the whole of India.
• After conquering North India, he turned his attention to South India.
• He ordered the imperial army to attack in the south.
• In 1665-66 AD, the Mughal army first tried under the leadership of Rajput Raja Jaisingh to take over the Bijapur state, but success could not be achieved.
• In 1682 AD, Aurangzeb sent Shahzada Shah Alam with a huge army to fight against Bijapur, but he also did not get success.
• In April, 1685, Aurangzeb himself attacked Sultan Sikandar Alishah of Bijapur.
• In September, 1686, Bijapur surrendered.
• Aurangzeb merged the state of Bijapur in the Mughal Empire.
• Abul Hasan, the ruler of Golconda, was an opponent of Aurangzeb.
• Aurangzeb besieged the fort of Golconda in 1687 AD and succeeded in winning the fort of Golconda.
• Thus Golconda was included in the Mughal Empire.

Hence we can conclude that Bijapur and Golkonda were the two kingdoms in the Deccan which were conquered by Aurangzeb.

The central highlands of the Indian peninsula are composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Key Points 

• Baghelkhand is one of the igneous rock plateaus that make up the Central Highlands.
• A tableland made up of ancient crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks is known as the Peninsular plateau.
• It belongs to the oldest landmass because it was created by the fracturing and drifting of the Gondwana region.
• The plateau contains rounded hills and wide, shallow valleys.
• The Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau are the two main sections of Peninsular plateau.
• The Central Highlands are a significant portion of the Malwa plateau and are located on the Peninsular plateau to the north of the Narmada river.

Additional Information

• Towards the west, the Central Highlands are wider; in the east, they are narrower.
• Locally, this plateau's eastern extensions are referred to as the Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.
• The further extension to the east, drained by the Damodar river, is the Chotanagpur plateau.
• South of the Narmada River is a triangle-shaped continent known as the Deccan Plateau.
• The Deccan Plateau rises slightly eastward and is taller in the west. Northeastern residents refer to the Meghalaya, Karbi-Anglong, and North Cachar Hills as extensions of the Plateau.
• It is divided from the Chotanagpur Plateau by a fault. The Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills are three notable hill ranges that stretch from the west to the east.

Therefore, the central highlands of the Indian peninsula are composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.

The correct answer is Lahore.

Key Points

• Maharaja Man Singh I, the ruler of Amber (Jaipur), is credited with introducing the art of Meenakari (enamel work) to Rajasthan.
• He brought skilled artisans from Lahore to Jaipur during his reign in the late 16^th century.
• Meenakari was traditionally used to decorate jewelry and other objects, combining vibrant colors with intricate designs.
• The art form flourished under royal patronage and became an integral part of Jaipur's rich artistic heritage.
• Jaipur is now globally renowned for its exquisite Meenakari work, especially in jewelry making.

Additional Information

• Meenakari
• It is the art of decorating metal surfaces with intricate designs using colored enamel.
• The technique involves fusing powdered colored glass onto metal surfaces through intense heat.
• Gold is traditionally used as the base metal for Meenakari due to its compatibility with the enamel, though silver and copper are also used.
• It is often combined with Kundan and Jadau jewelry to create elaborate designs.
• Historical Context
• Maharaja Man Singh I ruled Amber (now Jaipur) from 1589 to 1614 during the Mughal era.
• He was a trusted general of Emperor Akbar and established a strong cultural and artistic influence in his kingdom.
• The introduction of Meenakari to Jaipur reflects the fusion of Mughal and Rajput art traditions.
• Jaipur as an Artistic Hub
• Jaipur is often referred to as the "Pink City" and has been a center for craftsmanship and artistry since its foundation in 1727.
• It is especially famous for its jewelry-making traditions, including Meenakari, Kundan, and Jadau techniques.
• The city attracts artisans and patrons from across the world for its distinctive artistic heritage.
• Modern Relevance
• Meenakari jewelry and artifacts are highly sought after in domestic and international markets.
• The art form is protected and promoted as part of India’s cultural heritage.
• Efforts are being made to train new generations of artisans to preserve this traditional craft.

The correct answer is 151^st.

In News

• India ranks 151^st in the 2025 World Press Freedom Index, showing a slight improvement from 159^th in 2024.

Key Points

• India ranks 151^st in the 2025 World Press Freedom Index, improving from 159^th in 2024.
• The report highlights significant threats to press freedom in India, including financial instability among media outlets.
• Many media outlets in India have shut down due to economic hardship, further limiting press freedom.

Additional Information

• World Press Freedom Index
• The World Press Freedom Index is compiled by Reporters Without Borders, evaluating the press freedom situation in 180 countries.
• It measures the degree of freedom available to journalists in each country and the dangers they face in reporting the news.
• Press Freedom Threats
• Press freedom faces significant challenges globally, including economic pressures, violence against journalists, and government censorship.

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

• Clouded leopard National Park is located in Tripura.
• The park is located in the Sipahijola wildlife sanctuary in Tripura.
• An area of about 5.08 square km is covered by the park.
• Primate monkeys are commonly found here.
• The park was established in 2007.

Additional Information

• Tripura forest development and plantation corporation limited govern the park.
• The weather of the area is temperate for the most part of the year.
• An artificial Lake is also present here.
• The beauties of mother nature can be best realized at this place.
• For the betterment of wildlife and biodiversity, national parks are established.
• Hunting, grazing, cultivation activities are prohibited here.

The correct answer is 2 i.e. Quit India Movement.​

 Key Points

Quit India Movement:

• The failure of the Cripps Mission and the fear of an imminent Japanese invasion of India led Mahatma Gandhi to begin his battle for the British to leave India.
• Mahatma Gandhi believed that an interim government could be made only after the British left India and the Hindu-Muslim problem sorted out.
• Detail of the movement:
• The All India Congress Committee gathered at Bombay on 8 August 1942 and passed the famous Quit India Resolution.
• On the same day, Gandhi gave his call of ‘do or die’.
• On 8^th and 9^th August 1942, the government seized all the prominent leaders of the Congress.
• For once, this pre-prepared action of the government left the Indian people without leadership.
• Mahatma Gandhi was held in prison at Poona.
• Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Abul Kalam Azad, and other leaders were detained in the Ahmednagar Fort.
• At this time, leadership was provided by Ram Manohar Lohia, Achyuta, and S.M. Joshi.
• The role of Jayaprakash Narain in this movement was significant.

Additional Information

The reach of the Movement:

• A large number of students also left their schools and colleges to join the movement.
• The youth of the nation also participated in this movement with patriotism.
• Strikes, demonstrations and public meetings were organized in various towns and cities.
• Slowly the movement spread in the rural areas.
• In 1943, as the movement gained further momentum, there were armed attacks on government buildings in Madras and Bengal.
• In 1944 Mahatma Gandhi was released from jail. Quit India Movement was the final attempt for the country’s freedom.
• The British Government ordered for 538 rounds of firing. Nearly 60,229 persons were jailed. At least 7,000 people were killed.
• This movement paved the way for India’s freedom. It moved among Indians the feelings of bravery, enthusiasm, and sacrifice.

The correct answer is 97

Key Points 

• The main source of salt water is the ocean.
• All oceans and seas have salty water.
• More than 97% of the Earth’s water is found in the oceans and is too salty for human use.
• Don Juan Pond is the saltiest among all seas and oceans.
• A dead sea in Israel has a salinity of 340 grams/liter of water.
• Swimmers can float in the dead sea because the increased salt content makes it dense.
• The seawater collected in shallow beds dug in the sand is allowed to dry in the sun and the salt remains on the ground is collected for commercial purposes.
• All waters in nature contain dissolved mineral salts.
• Salinity is the amount of salt in grams present in 1000 grams of water.
• The average salinity of the oceans is 35 parts per thousand.

The correct answer is Shaktikanta Das

In News

• Shaktikanta Das, former RBI governor, appointed as 'Principal Secretary-2' to PM Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• His appointment is "co-terminus" with the PM's term or until further orders.
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved his appointment.
• Shaktikanta Das served as RBI governor for six years before stepping down in December 2024.
• Sanjay Malhotra succeeded him as the 26^th governor of RBI.
• Das is a 1980-batch IAS officer from the Tamil Nadu cadre.
• He holds a master's degree in history from St. Stephen's College, Delhi, and a postgraduate degree in public administration from the University of Birmingham.
• He was the Economic Affairs Secretary during India's 2016 demonetization.
• Played a key role in implementing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) on July 1, 2017.
• As RBI governor, he helped navigate India's economy during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• His tenure was extended for three years in 2021.
• He has also served as Secretary of the Department of Revenue and Department of Economic Affairs.
• Post-retirement, he was appointed as Member of the 15^th Finance Commission and G20 Sherpa of India.

The correct answer is Lord Canning.

Key Points

• After the 1857 revolt, the Company rule was abolished and India came under the direct control of the British crown.
• The post of Governor-General of India was renamed by the Viceroy of India after the Government of India Act of 1858.
• The first Viceroy of India was Lord Canning.
• He was the Viceroy from 1857 to 1862.
• He established three universities in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857.

 Thus, we can say that Lord canning was the first Viceroy of India after the enactment of the Government of India Act of 1858.

Additional Information

• Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.
• Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931.

The correct answer is Sikkim

Key Points

• Sakewa is a religious festival celebrated by the Kirat Khambu Rai community of Sikkim.
• It is also known as the Bhoomi puja or Chandi puja (worship of mother earth).
• The festival begins on the full moon day of the Hindu month of Baisakh, which usually falls in April/May.
• Other festivals celebrated in Sikkim: Maghe Sankranti, Sonam Lochar, Losar, Ramnawami (Chaite Dasain), Sakewa, Saga Dawa, Pang Lhabsol, Tamu Lochar.

Additional Information List of a religious festival in a different state in India:

Correct Answer Balloon Mortgage

Key Points In this type of loan, borrowers make low payments for a certain period of time and then pay off the remaining balance in one large lump sum, or "balloon" payment, at the end of the loan term.

Initial Low Payments:

• Balloon loans typically have lower initial payments compared to traditional loans.
• This is because these payments are primarily based on the interest of the loan, not the principal.

Lump Sum Payment:

• The defining feature of a balloon loan is the large "balloon" payment due at the end of the loan term.
• This payment covers the remaining principal of the loan.

Short Term:

• Balloon loans usually have shorter terms than traditional installment loans.
• The term is often 5 to 7 years, but the balloon payment is based on what the balance would be after a longer term, often 30 years.

Risk of Default:

• There is a higher risk of default with balloon loans.
• If borrowers cannot make the large balloon payment at the end of the term, they may need to refinance the loan, sell the asset, or default on the loan.

Common in Real Estate:

• Balloon loans are often used in real estate transactions, particularly for commercial properties or short-term real estate investments.
• They can also be used for personal loans and auto loans.

Key Points

• The scientific name is the standardized naming of living organisms such that a particular organism is known by the same name all over the world.
• The scientific names ensure that each organism has only one name.
• These also ensure that such a name has not been used for any other known organism.
• Each scientific name has two components- the generic epithet and the specific epithet. Thus it is also called binomial nomenclature.

Explanation: 

• India's national bird is the peacock.
• The Peacock was recognized as India's National Bird in 1963.
• Pavo cristatus is the scientific name of the peacock.
• It belongs to the order Galliformes of the Phasianidae family.
• Pavo is a ground-living, heavy-bodied, terrestrial feeder, and polygamous bird.
• It is a colorful bird about the size of a swan, with a fan-shaped feathered crest, a white spot under each eye, and a long, thin neck.
• The omnivorous peacocks can be easily found in low-elevation meadows, woods, and close-by human areas.
• These are important to the ecosystems as they are seed dispersers and predators.

Additional Information

• Psittacula eupatra - 
• The Psittacula eupatra is commonly known as the Alexandrine parrot or Alexandrine parakeet.
• It belongs to the family Psittacidae.
• These are medium-sized parrots from the genus Psittacula.
• Passer domesticus - 
• The common name of Passer domesticus is house sparrow.
• It is a member of the Passeridae, the family of sparrows.
• These are categorized as the least concern in

 IUCN Red List categorizes animal conservation.

• Corvus splendens - 
• The common name of Corvus splendens is house crow.
• It belongs to the family Corvidae, a cosmopolitan family of passerine birds.
• They are widespread Asian-born birds of the crow family.
• It is sometimes known as the Indian, Grey-necked, Ceylon, or Colombo crow.

​​Hence, the correct option is (3) Pavo cristatus.

The Correct Answer is 4.2%.

In News

• Rural Unemployment Dips, Urban Workforce Participation Rises: PLFS 2024.

Key Points

• Unemployment Rate: The unemployment rate in rural areas has marginally declined from 4.3% to 4.2%.
• Labour Force Participation in Urban Areas: The labour force participation rate in urban areas has increased from 50.3% to over 51%.
• Worker Population Ratio: The worker population ratio has slightly improved across all categories, with the overall ratio in urban areas increasing from 47% to 47.6%.
• Source: The data is from the latest Annual Report of the Periodic Labour Force Survey (January to December 2024).

The correct answer is MRI.

Key Points 

• MRI stands for magnetic resonance imaging.
• MRI based on Magnetism technique.
• It is a common scan procedure around the world.
• MRI scanning is non-invasive and painless.
• By using a strong magnetic field and radio waves detailed images of the organs and tissues within the body are created.
• The magnetic field inside the body forms the basis for obtaining images of different body parts.
• An MRI scan uses a large magnet, radio waves, and a computer to create a detailed, cross-sectional image of internal organs and structures.
• It differs from CT scans and X-rays, as it does not use potentially harmful ionizing radiation.
• Uses: For scanning tumors, cysts, and other anomalies in various parts of the body.

Additional InformationCRI (color rendering index)

• The most useful measure of a light source's color characteristics is the color rendering index (CRI).
• CRI is a measure of a light source's ability to show object colors "realistically" or "naturally" compared to a familiar reference source, either incandescent light or daylight.
• The color rendering index (CRI) is measured as a number between 0 and 100.

The correct answer is Eight.

Key Points

• Indian Hockey in Olympics:
• The number of Gold Medals won by Indian Hockey in the Olympics is eight. 
• India won gold medals in hockey in the following years: 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, and 1980.
• The number of Silver Medals won by Indian Hockey in the Olympics is one in 1960.
• The number of Bronze Medals won by Indian Hockey in the Olympics is three. (1968,1972 and 2020).

​Thus, the Indian Hockey team has won 8 Gold Medals in Olympics.

Additional Information

• Field Hockey:
• Field Hockey is a team game.
• It is played between two teams of 11 players each.
• It is played with the help of a hockey stick and a ball.
• A hockey stick is equipment used to play hockey.
• It consists of mainly four parts i.e., grip, shaft, heel, and toe.
• The ball should way between 5.5 to 5.75 ounces.
• The "International Hockey Federation" makes the rules.

The Correct Answer is S. Mahendra Dev.

In News

• S Mahendra Dev Appointed New Chief of EAC-PM.

Key Points

• S. Mahendra Dev has been appointed as Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).
• He resigned as independent director of Axis Bank after this appointment.
• Suman Bery, Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog, currently heads EAC-PM.
• Dev is an expert in agriculture and rural economy.
• He is editor of Economic and Political Weekly and chairs the Institute for Development Studies, Andhra Pradesh.
• Former Director of Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research (IGIDR).
• Holds a PhD from Delhi School of Economics and did post-doc at Yale University.
• EAC-PM is an independent body that advises the PM on economic and policy issues.
• Functions include: analyzing macroeconomic issues, providing advice, and undertaking tasks referred by the PM.

The correct answer is Article 213.

Key Points

• Article 213 Indian Constitution can the Governor promulgate an Ordinance.
• ​It deals with the ordinance making power Governor.
• Governor can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session these ordinances must be approved by the state legislature within 6 weeks from their reassembly.
• All Ordinances promulgated by the Governor in the State have the same effect and force as an Act of the Legislature of the State.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Afghanistan.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has been conferred with Amir Amanullah Khan Award, Afghanistan’s highest civilian honor.
• He has bestowed the honor of President Ashraf Ghani after the inauguration of the landmark Afghan-India Friendship Dam in Herat.
• As the first Indian, and amongst only a handful of foreign leaders to receive the award, it signifies the strength of a unique relationship and is a testament to the personal commitment of the PM in advancing India-Afghan ties.
• Background:
• The Amir Amanullah Khan medal is the highest civilian honor of Afghanistan.
• The award is named after the Afghan national hero, Amanullah Khan (Ghazi), who championed the cause of Afghanistan’s freedom.
• He was the ruler of the Emirate of Afghanistan from 1919-1929 who led Afghanistan to independence.

Additional Information

The Eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the issue of language.

Key Points

• The 8^th schedule of the Indian Constitution recognizes 22 official languages.
• Initially, there were 14 official languages.

Thus, the Eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the issue of language.

The correct answer is God particles.

Key Points

• Higgs Boson is related to the origin of the universe.
• The Higgs Boson is also known by the name of 'God Particle', there is such a concept that the secrets of the universe are hidden in the 'Higgs Boson' itself.
• To solve the mystery of the universe, on 30 March 2010 scientists from around the world in Geneva conducted a historic successful experiment called 'Large Hadron Collider'.
• John Wheeler is credited with the Blackhole concept according to which no substance, even light, can pass through, from the black hole.

The correct answer is Godavari River.

Key Points

• Godavari River is the second longest river in India after the Ganga River. It is approximately 1,465 kilometers long and flows through several Indian states.
• The Godavari River originates from the Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and flows eastward into the Bay of Bengal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The river has one of the largest river basins in the Indian subcontinent, covering an area of approximately 312,812 square kilometers. This basin extends across Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Karnataka. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Godavari is often referred to as the "Dakshin Ganga" or the "Ganga of the South", due to its significance and vast size. It is a lifeline for the people living in the states it flows through. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The river is heavily used for agriculture, irrigation, and drinking water supply. Several dams and reservoirs have been constructed along the river, such as the Polavaram Dam and Sriram Sagar Project. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• The Godavari River is also culturally and religiously significant, with many temples located along its banks, including the Trimbakeshwar Temple in Maharashtra. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
• Hence, the correct answer is Godavari River.

Additional Information

• Godavari River Basin:
• The Godavari basin is the second largest in India, covering an area of 312,812 square kilometers. It spans across Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Karnataka.
• The basin supports extensive agricultural activities due to its fertile soil, providing livelihoods to millions of people.
• Significant Features of the Godavari:
• The river flows through various landscapes, including plateaus, plains, and deltas, before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• It is known for its religious importance, with many temples located along its banks, such as the Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple and Bhadrachalam Temple.
• The Godavari has several tributaries, including the Pranhita, Indravati, Sabari, and Manjira rivers.
• Water Projects and Dams:
• The Godavari hosts several important irrigation and hydroelectric projects such as the Polavaram Irrigation Project, Jayakwadi Dam, and Sriram Sagar Project.
• These projects are essential for water supply, agriculture, and generating electricity for the regions along the river.

Important Points

• Comparison with Other Rivers:
• Kabini River: A tributary of the Kaveri River, it is much smaller in length and basin size compared to the Godavari.
• Krishna River: While the Krishna River is one of the major rivers in India and flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana, it is shorter than the Godavari, with a length of approximately 1,400 kilometers.
• Noyyal River: It is a minor river in Tamil Nadu and does not compare in size or basin area to the Godavari.

Given data:

Length = 20 cm

Breadth = 10 cm

Height = 8 cm

Formula:

TSA = 2 × (l × b + b × h + l × h)

Where-

TSA = Total Surface Area

l = Length

b = Breadth

h = Height

Calculations:

TSA = 2 × (20 × 10 + 10 × 8 + 20 × 8) = 880 cm²

∴ The total cardboard area needed to make a closed box is 880 cm².