Previous Year Paper

56th - 59th BPSC Prelims (Held in 2015) Official paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2015

150 questions120 minutes
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Question 1

On which of the following dates did the Union Health Minister launch the "Mental Health Policy"?

  1. AOption (a)

    20th October, 2014

  2. BOption (b)

    10th October, 2014

  3. COption (c)

    5th October, 2014

  4. DOption (d)

    11th July, 2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10th October, 2014

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10th October 2014.

Key Points

  • The Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan launched Mental Health Policy on 10th October 2014.
  • Mental Health Policy:
  • National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) was started in 1982 with the following objectives:
  • To ensure availability and accessibility of minimum mental health care for all.
  • To encourage mental health knowledge and skills.
  • To promote community participation in mental health service development, and stimulate self-help in the community.
  • The need for NMHP has always been felt.
  • The latest Lancet Report’s findings also reflect on the mental health of the people in India.
  • Hence, NMHP is the right step towards mental health support.
  • The main objective of this new "Mental Health Policy" is to provide universal access to mental health care by enhancing understanding of mental health and strengthening leadership in the mental health sector at all levels.

Question 2

On which of the following dates did the Prime Minister Narendra Modi launch Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana?

  1. AOption (a)

    11th October, 2014

  2. BOption (b)

    10th November, 2014

  3. COption (c)

    26th August, 2014

  4. DOption (d)

    15th August, 2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11th October, 2014

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 11th October 2014.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana on 11th October 2014.
  • Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana:-
  • The scheme was started by the Prime Minister of India on 11th October 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jai Prakash Narayan.
  • Under the Yojana, Members of Parliament (MPs) are responsible for developing the socio-economic and physical infrastructure of three villages each by 2019, and a total of eight villages each by 2024.
  • The first Adarsh Gram (Model Village) was to be developed by 2016, and two more by 2019.
  • From 2019 to 2024, five more Adarsh Grams must be developed by each MP, one each year.
  • This implies that a total of 6,433 Adarsh Grams, of the 2,65,000 gram panchayats, will be created by 2024.

Question 3

On which of the following dates was the 11th Metropolis Congress organized in Hyderabad?

  1. AOption (a)

    September 2013

  2. BOption (b)

    January 2014

  3. COption (c)

    October 2014

  4. DOption (d)

    November 2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

October 2014

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is October 2014.

  • The 11th Metropolis Congress was organized in Hyderabad in October 2014.
  • During the 11th Metropolis World Congress in Hyderabad, there was a special series of exhibitions dedicated to the rich art, culture, and people of the region.

Key Points

  • Metropolis:
  • In India, urban planning and spatial planning are not integrated.
  • This leads to a significant deterioration in the quality of public services and ease of living.
  • Metropolitan regions are being created by default and not by design.
  • Current urban centers are established without paying attention to the need to create a unified market, especially the labor market, which would forge strong economic linkages between the core city and the periphery.
  • There are 53 urban agglomerations in India with a population of one million and above, but these agglomerations spread across various states. With different rules and regulations regarding land, transport across the states, this severely affects infrastructure development.

Question 4

In which area was the Indo-US military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’ held?

  1. AOption (a)

    Solan (Himachal Pradesh)

  2. BOption (b)

    Gairsen (Uttarakhand)

  3. COption (c)

    Ranikhet (Uttarakhand)

  4. DOption (d)

    Poonch (Jammu and Kashmir)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ranikhet (Uttarakhand)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ranikhet (Uttarakhand).

Key Points

  • Yudh Abhyas:
  • Yudh Abhyas is a joint military exercise, bilaterally occurring between India and the US.
  • It was started in 2002 and is undertaken by the armies of both countries to promote defense cooperation.
  • The recent Yudh Abhyas exercise took place from 5th September 2019 to 18th September 2019 at Joint Base Lewis McChord in Washington, USA.
  • India and the US participate in the following joint exercises apart from Yudh Abhyas:
  • Cope-India (Air Force)
  • Vajra Prahar (Special Forces)
  • A few multilateral exercises that India and the US participate in are:
  • MALABAR
  • RED FLAG
  • RIMPAC

Question 5

Which of the following groups of political parties could not win a single seat in the 16th Lok Sabha Election?

  1. AOption (a)

    MNS, HSP, SP, and RJD

  2. BOption (b)

    SP, BSP, National Conference, and RLD

  3. COption (c)

    JDU, BSP, NCP, and RJD

  4. DOption (d)

    DMK, RLD, National Conference, and BSP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

DMK, RLD, National Conference, and BSP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is DMK, RLD, National Conference, and BSP.

Key Points

  • DMK, RLD, National Conference, and BSP could not win a single seat in the 16th Lok Sabha Election.
  • 16th Lok Sabha:
  • The 16th Lok Sabha passed a total of 133 Bills, of which 6% were passed within 30 minutes.
  • The number of Bills passed within half an hour in the previous Lok Sabha was 26%.
  • This 16th Lok Sabha sat for 331 days (against a 468-day average for all previous full-term Lok Sabhas), and lost 16% of its time to disruptions.
  • In terms of referral of Bills to various committees, the 16th Lok Sabha referred only 25% of the Bills, while the previous House had referred around 70% of the Bills to various panels.

Question 6

President Pranab Mukherjee on 7th October 2014 presented the Lal Bahadur Shashtri National Award for excellence in Public Administration, Academics, and Management for the year 2014 to

  1. AOption (a)

    V. Sampath

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. A.S. Pillai

  3. COption (c)

    Arvind Mayaram

  4. DOption (d)

    Ajit Dobhal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dr. A.S. Pillai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dr. A.S. Pillai.

Key Points

  • President Pranab Mukherjee on 7th October 2014 presented the Lal Bahadur Shashtri National Award for excellence in Public Administration, Academics, and Management for the year 2014 to Dr. A.S. Pillai.
  • Dr. A.S. Pillai:
  • Dr. A.S. Pillai is a former Chief Controller and founder of Brahmos Aerospace.
  • He contributed a lot in the field of aerospace along with Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, Satish Dhawan, etc.
  • He is the author of The Path Unexplored, Thoughts For Change.
  • He had been awarded Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan by the Government of India.

Question 7

Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the 7th Central Pay Commission constituted by the Government of India in February 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Justice B.K. Singh

  2. BOption (b)

    Justice Swatanter Kumar

  3. COption (c)

    Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur

  4. DOption (d)

    Justice Mridula Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur.

Key Points

  • Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur has been appointed as the Chairman of the 7th Central Pay Commission constituted by the Government of India in February 2014.
  • Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur has served as Chief justice of Calcutta High Court till 2004 and Justice of the Supreme Court of India till 2008.
  • 7th Central Pay Commission:
  • The 7th Pay Commission was formed by the UPA government on 28 February 2014.
  • It was chaired by Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur and given a time period of 18 months to submit its report.
  • The 7th Central Pay Commission (7 CPC), constituted in February 2014 to review the principles and structure of emoluments of all central government civilian employees including defense forces in India, submitted its report on 19 November 2015.
  • CPC’s recommendations would affect the organization, rank structure, pay, allowances and pension, of 13,86,171 armed forces personnel.

Question 8

Justice J.S.Verma Committee’s Report, 2013 deals with

  1. AOption (a)

    Centre-State relations

  2. BOption (b)

    Change in law pertaining to offenses against women

  3. COption (c)

    The Fundamental Rights

  4. DOption (d)

    Rights of children

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Change in law pertaining to offenses against women

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Change in law pertaining to offenses against women.

Key Points

  • Justice J.S.Verma Committee’s Report, 2013 deals with Change in law pertaining to offenses against women.
  • Justice J.S.Verma Committee’s Report:-
  • Justice J.S. Verma Committee had recommended setting up an employment tribunal instead of an internal complaints committee (ICC) in the Sexual Harassment at the Workplace Act.
  • To ensure speedy disposal of complaints, the committee proposed that the tribunal should not function as a civil court but may choose its own procedure to deal with each complaint.
  • An internal complaints committee as laid down under the act could be counterproductive as dealing with such complaints in-house could discourage women from filing complaints.
  • Domestic workers should be included within the purview of the Act.
  • The Committee has termed the Sexual Harassment Act “unsatisfactory” and said, it did not reflect the spirit of the Vishakha guidelines framed by the Supreme Court in 1997 to curb sexual harassment at the workplace.
  • The Committee said any “unwelcome behavior” should be seen from the subjective perception of the complainant, thus broadening the scope of the definition of sexual harassment.

Question 9

How many members are elected from Bihar to the Lok Sabha?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 40.

Key Points

  • 40 members are elected from Bihar to the Lok Sabha.
  • 6 Seats out of 40 are reserved for the Scheduled castes.

Question 10

What is the unique festival of Bihar?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deepawali

  2. BOption (b)

    Bisu

  3. COption (c)

    Vinayak Chaturthi

  4. DOption (d)

    Chhath Puja

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chhath Puja

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chhath Puja.

Key Points

  • Chhath Puja:
  • Chhath is a Hindu festival dedicated to the Sun god and his wife Usha in order to thank them for bestowing the bounties of life on earth.
  • The Goddess who is worshipped during the famous Chhath Puja is known as Chhathi Maiya (also known as Usha, wife of the sun god).
  • The word Chhath means sixth and the festival is celebrated on the sixth day of the month Kartika of the Hindu lunar Vikram Samvat calendar.
  • The festival is observed over a period of four days.
  • The rituals include holy bathing, fasting, standing in water for long periods of time, and offering prayers and food to the setting and rising sun.

Question 11

Who among the following has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kailash Satyarthi

  2. BOption (b)

    Malala Yousafzai

  3. COption (c)

    Jean Tirole

  4. DOption (d)

    Patrick Modiano

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Patrick Modiano

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Patrick Modiano.

Key Points

  • Patrick Modiano has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2014.
  • Nobel Prize:
  • The Nobel Prizes regarded as the most prestigious awards given for intellectual achievement in the world are awarded annually from a fund bequeathed for that purpose by the Swedish inventor and industrialist Alfred Nobel.
  • It is announced every year for excellence in Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature, Economics, and a distinguished achievement towards humanity – commonly known as the Nobel Peace Prize.
  • Nobel Prizes in all the above said fields except Economics were first awarded in 1901.
  • Nobel Prize in Economics was established in 1968.
  • Poet and writer Rabindranath Tagore was the first non-European and Indian to get a Nobel Prize in 1913 in literature.
  • India received its first Nobel Prize in physics in 1930 when scientist Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman was awarded “for his work on the scattering of light and for the discovery of the effect named after him”.
  • This phenomenon is now known as Raman Effect.
  • Har Gobind Khorana shared his 1968 Nobel Prize in physiology or medicine with Robert W Holley and Marshall W Nirenberg.
  • The trio was honored “for their interpretation of the genetic code and its function in protein synthesis”.

Additional Information

  • Malala Yousafzai and Kailash Satyarthi won Nobel Peace Prize in 2014.
  • Jean Tirole won Nobel Prize in Economics in 2014.

Question 12

Which among the following European Union countries is the first to officially recognize the State of Palestine?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sweden

  2. BOption (b)

    Denmark

  3. COption (c)

    Norway

  4. DOption (d)

    Italy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sweden

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key Points

  • Sweden is the first European Union country to officially recognize the State of Palestine.
  • State of Palestine:
  • Sweden will join more than 130 other countries that recognize a Palestinian state.
  • Most of the EU's 28 member states have refrained from recognizing Palestinian statehood and those that do, such as Hungary, Poland, and Slovakia, did so before joining the bloc.
  • The Palestinians have long sought to establish an independent, sovereign state in the West Bank, including East Jerusalem as its capital, and the Gaza Strip - occupied by Israel during the 1967 Six-Day War.

Additional Information

CountryCapital
SwedenStockholm
DenmarkCopenhagen
NorwayOslo
ItalyRome

​

Question 13

Which one of the following countries has decided in January 2014 to make military service compulsory for all its adult males?

  1. AOption (a)

    North Korea

  2. BOption (b)

    U.A.E.

  3. COption (c)

    Israel

  4. DOption (d)

    Turkey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

U.A.E.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is U.A.E.

Key Points

  • The United Arab Emirates Armed Forces were formed in 1951.
  • The UAE introduced mandatory military conscription for adult males in 2014 of 16 months to expand its reserve force.
  • The UAE is a federal monarchy.
  • President:- Khalifa bin Zayed Al Nahyan.
  • Prime Minister:- Mohammed bin Rashid.

Additional Information

  • North Korea:
  • North Korea has remained isolated from the international community, with its governmental, economic, and other operations veiled in secrecy.
  • Restrictions on travel into or out of the country and a tightly controlled press helped maintain this isolation.
  • North Korea’s foreign policy has been marked by two significant alliances, with China and the Soviet Union, and by enduring hostility to South Korea and the United States.
  • The President of North Korea is Kim Jong-Un.
  • He is a member of the Worker's Party of Korea.
CountryCapital
North KoreaPyongyang
UAEAbu Dhabi
IsraelJerusalem
TurkeyAnkara

Question 14

What is the theme of Global Financial Development Report, 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hunger and poverty

  2. BOption (b)

    Corruption and fraud in corporate sector

  3. COption (c)

    Financial inclusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Global recession and the Third World

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Financial inclusion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Financial inclusion.

Key Points

  • The theme of the Global Financial Development Report, 2014 is Financial inclusion.
  • Global Financial Development Report:-
  • It provides a unique contribution to financial sector policy debates, building on novel data, research, and wide-ranging country experience, with emphasis on emerging markets and developing economies.
  • It is released by World Bank.
  • The report’s findings and policy recommendations are relevant for policymakers, staff of central banks, ministries of finance, and financial regulatory agencies.
  • The report tracks financial systems in more than 200 economies before and during the global financial crisis.
  • After the global financial crisis of 2007-08, governments and regulators recognized and began to address the dangers of large and complex banking and financial structures.
  • But they largely missed the argument that opening up the financial sector to foreign players was important to boost efficiency and bring sophisticated products to local customers.

Additional Information

  • The Global Financial Development Database is an extensive dataset of financial system characteristics for 214 economies.
  • It contains annual data, starting from 1960.
  • It has been last updated in September 2019 and contains data through 2017 for 109 indicators, capturing various aspects of financial institutions and markets.
  • The Global Financial Development Report 2019/2020 provides new data and evidence on the regulatory remedies adopted to prevent future financial instability and sheds light on ongoing policy debates.

Question 15

Who among the following has/have figured in ‘Time’ magazine’s list of 25 most influential teens of 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Malia and Sasha obama

  2. BOption (b)

    Kendall and Kylie Jenner

  3. COption (c)

    Malala Yousafzai

  4. DOption (d)

    All of them

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of them

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of them.

Key Points

  • Time’ magazine’s few most influential teens of 2014:-
NameAge
Mone Davis13 years
Sasha Obama13 years
Malia Obama16 years
Kiernan Shipka14 years
Jazz Jennings14 years
Flynn McGarry15 years
Erik Finman15 years

Question 16

The Seventh BRICS Summit is proposed to be held in 2015 at?

  1. AOption (a)

    Durba, South Africa

  2. BOption (b)

    Ufa, Russia

  3. COption (c)

    New Delhi, India

  4. DOption (d)

    Sanya, China

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ufa, Russia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ufa, Russia.

Key Points

  • BRICS Summit:
  • BRICS is an acronym for 5 emerging economies of the world viz. – Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa.
  • The term BRIC was coined by Jim O’ Neil, the then chairman of Goldman Sachs in 2001.
  • The first BRIC summit took place in the year 2009 in Yekaterinburg (Russia).
  • In 2010, South Africa formally joined the association making it BRICS.
  • BRICS is an association with more than 40% of the global population and with 25% of the global GDP (nominal GDP of US16.039trillion)andanestimatedUS16.039 trillion) and an estimated US4 trillion in combined forex. Bilateral relations are conducted mainly on the basis of equality and mutual benefit.
  • The 11th summit of the BRICS grouping comprising Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa was held in Brasilia on 13th & 14th November 2019.
  • The 12th summit (Russia) of BRICS was held on 17th Nov 2020 via videoconference.

Question 17

The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is celebrated on?

  1. AOption (a)

    10th December

  2. BOption (b)

    24th October

  3. COption (c)

    19th November

  4. DOption (d)

    3rd December

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3rd December

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3rd December.

Key Points

  • International Day of Persons with Disabilities observed every year on 3 December is started by the United Nations in 1992.
  • It aims to promote an understanding of disability issues and mobilize support for the dignity, rights, and well-being of persons with disabilities.
  • The theme for International Day of Persons with Disabilities, 2020 is "Building Black Better: toward a disability-inclusive, accessible and sustainable post-COVID-19 World".

Additional Information

  • Important Days in December:-
  • 1 December- World Aids Day
  • 2 December- National Pollution Control Day
  • 2 December- International Day for the abolition of slavery
  • 3 December- World day of the handicapped
  • 4 December- Indian Navy Day
  • 5 December- International Volunteer Day
  • 5 December- World soil day
  • 7 December- Armed Forces Flag Day

Question 18

Amnesty International is an organization which is associated with

  1. AOption (a)

    Protection of women’s rights

  2. BOption (b)

    Protection of human rights

  3. COption (c)

    Abolition of untouchability

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Protection of human rights

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Protection of human rights.

Key Points

  • Amnesty International is an organization that is associated with the Protection of human rights.
  • Amnesty International:-
  • Amnesty International is a global movement of more than 10 million people in over 150 countries and territories who campaign to end abuses of human rights.
  • Amnesty International (AI), an international Non-Governmental Organization (NGO) founded in London on May 28, 1961.
  • Agnes Callamard is the current Secretary-General of Amnesty International.
  • The organization seeks to publicize violations by governments and other entities of rights recognized in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948).
  • Amnesty International actively seeks the release of political prisoners and the relief, when necessary, of their families.
  • It also works with inter-governmental human rights bodies to expand and enforce human rights protections in international law.

Question 19

In October 2014, India has been rechecked for three years as a member to?

  1. AOption (a)

    The UN Security Council

  2. BOption (b)

    The UN General Assembly

  3. COption (c)

    The UN Economic and Social Council(ECOSOC)

  4. DOption (d)

    The World Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The UN Economic and Social Council(ECOSOC)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The UN Economic and Social Council(ECOSOC).

Key Points

  • The UN Economic and Social Council(ECOSOC):-
  • Economic and Social Council(ECOSOC), one of the six principal organs of the United Nations (UN).
  • It is responsible for the direction and coordination of the economic, social, humanitarian, and cultural activities carried out by the UN.
  • It is the UN’s largest and most complex subsidiary body.
  • ECOSOC was established by the UN Charter (1945), which was amended in 1965 and 1974 to increase the number of members from 18 to 54.
  • ECOSOC membership is based on geographic representation, 14 seats are allocated to Africa, 11 to Asia, 6 to eastern Europe, 10 to Latin America and the Caribbean, and 13 to western Europe and other areas.
  • Members are elected for three-year terms by the General Assembly.

Additional Information

The UN Security Council- Headquarter:- New York - Founded in:- 1945 - President:-  Amr Abdellatif Aboulatta
The UN Economic and Social Council(ECOSOC)- Headquarter:- New York - Founded in:- 1945 - President:- Munir Akram
The UN General Assembly- Headquarter:- New York - Founded in:- 1945 - President:- Volkan Bozkır
The World Bank- Headquarter:- Washington, D.C. - Founded in:- 1944 - CEO:-  Kristalina Georgieva

Question 20

Angola, Malaysia, New Zealand, Spain, and Venezuela were elected as Non-Permanent members on 16th October, 2014 to serve in?

  1. AOption (a)

    The UN General Assembly

  2. BOption (b)

    The UN Trusteeship Council

  3. COption (c)

    The UN Human Rights Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    The UN Security Council

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The UN Security Council

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The UN Security Council.

Key Points

  • The UN Security Council:
  • United Nations Security Council, United Nations (UN) organ whose primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security.
  • The Security Council originally consisted of 11 members - five permanent members (the Republic of China [Taiwan], France, the Soviet Union, the United Kingdom, and the United States) and six Non-Permanent members elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms.
  • An amendment to the UN Charter in 1965 increased council membership to 15, including the original five permanent members and 10 Non-Permanent members.
  • Among the permanent members, the People’s Republic of China replaced the Republic of China in 1971, and the Russian Federation succeeded the Soviet Union in 1991.
  • The Non-Permanent members are generally chosen to achieve equitable representation among geographic regions, with five members coming from Africa or Asia, one from eastern Europe, two from Latin America, and two from Western Europe or other areas.
  • Five of the 10 nonpermanent members are elected each year by the General Assembly for two-year terms, and five retire each year.
  • The presidency is held by each member in rotation for a period of one month.

Additional Information

  • The UN Security Council
  • Headquarter:- New York
  • Founded in:- 1945
  • President:-  Amr Abdellatif Aboulatta
  • The UN Trusteeship Council
  • Headquarter:- New York
  • Founded in:- 1945
  • President:- Anne Gueguen
  • The UN General Assembly
  • Headquarter:- New York
  • Founded in:- 1945
  • President:- Volkan Bozkır
  • The UN Human Rights Commission
  • Headquarter:- Geneva, Switzerland
  • Founded in:- 1946
  • CEO:- Nazhat Shameem

Question 21

Which one of the following countries won the highest number of Gold Medals at the Winter Olympic Games held in Sochi in February 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Canada

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Norway

  4. DOption (d)

    USA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Russia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

  • Winter Olympic Games 2014:
  • Sochi 2014 Olympic Winter Games, an athletic festival held in Sochi, Russia, took place from 7 February to 23 February 2014.
  • It was officially called the XXII Olympic Winter Games and commonly known as Sochi 2014, was an international winter multi-sport event.
  • The Sochi Games were the 22nd occurrence of the Olympic Winter Games.
  • The Sochi Games marked the first time that the Winter Olympics were held in Russia.
  • The country had previously been home to the Olympics when Moscow hosted the 1980 Summer Games.
  • Sochi was awash in controversy in the months leading up to the Games, as the choice of a city with a temperate climate as a Winter Games site led to concerns about whether there would be adequate snow cover.
  • Moreover, the construction of venues and other buildings ran far behind schedule, and preparations were plagued by allegations of mismanagement and corruption.
  • Russia reportedly spent $51 billion on the Games, a total that surpassed any paid by a previous host country.
  • Sochi is the largest resort city situated on the Sochi River, along the Black Sea in Southern Russia$.

Question 22

Who among the following cricket all-rounders cracked the fastest century in one-day international cricket history in January 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Darren Bravo

  2. BOption (b)

    James Faulkner

  3. COption (c)

    Glenn Maxwell

  4. DOption (d)

    Corey Anderson

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Corey Anderson

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Corey Anderson.

Key Points

  • List of fastest Centuries in One Day International:-
CricketerNo. of BallsYear
AB de Villiers31 balls2015
Corey Anderson36 balls2014
Shahid Afridi37 balls1996
Mark Boucher44 balls2006
Brian Lara45 balls1999

Question 23

Who was the winner of the following Champions League T-20, 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kolkata Knight Riders (India)

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan Royals (India)

  3. COption (c)

    Sydney Sixers (Australia)

  4. DOption (d)

    Chennai Super Kings (India)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chennai Super Kings (India)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chennai Super Kings (India).

Key Points

  • List of winners of Champions League T-20 tournament:
  • 2009 - New South Wales Blues
  • 2010 - Chennai Super Kings
  • 2011 - Mumbai Indians
  • 2012 - Sydney Sixers
  • 2013 - Mumbai Indians
  • 2014 - Chennai Super Kings

Question 24

What was India’s position in the 17th Asian Games in 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    8th

  2. BOption (b)

    6th

  3. COption (c)

    3rd

  4. DOption (d)

    4th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8th

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 8th.

Key Points

  • 17th Asian Games 2014:-
  • The 17th edition of the Asian Games took place in Incheon, South Korea in September and October 2014.
  • It was the third time South Korea had staged the Olympic Council of Asia's showpiece event, following in the footsteps of 1986 hosts Seoul and 2002 hosts Busan.
  • A total of 9,501 athletes from 45 National Olympic Committees competed in 36 sports.
  • Three spotted seal siblings were the official mascots of the Games, known as Barame, Chumuro, and Vichuon, meaning wind, dance, and light. They were chosen as symbols of the future peace between North Korea and South Korea.

Question 25

Who among the following was the Gold Medal winner in the 17th Asian games Men’s Freestyle 65kg Wrestling?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jittu Rai

  2. BOption (b)

    Sandeep Kumar

  3. COption (c)

    Rajat Chauhan

  4. DOption (d)

    Yogeshwar Dutt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Yogeshwar Dutt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Yogeshwar Dutt.

Key Points

  • Yogeshwar Dutt won the Gold Medal in the 17th Asian games Men’s Freestyle 65kg Wrestling.
  • Yogeshwar Dutt:
  • In the 17th Asian Games, at Incheon, South Korea, the 31-year-old Yogeshwar Dutt came the first place to win the gold medal in wrestling.
  • He defeated Zalimkhan Yusupov of Tajikistan to win the gold.
  • He is the first Indian to win gold in wrestling after 28 years.​
  • The native of Haryana bettered his own bronze-winning performance in the 2006 edition of the Asian Games.
  • He has been awarded the Padma Shri in 2013.
  • He had won a bronze medal in freestyle wrestling at the 2012 Olympics and a gold in the 2014 Commonwealth Games.

Question 26

Which country achieved the fifth position in the 20th Commonwealth Games?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sri Lanka

  2. BOption (b)

    Nepal

  3. COption (c)

    England

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • India achieved the fifth position in the 20th Commonwealth Games.
  • Commonwealth Games:-
  • The Commonwealth of Nations is an association of independent sovereign states, most of which are former colonies of the United Kingdom.
  • The British Monarch remains the Head of the Commonwealth. Hence, the Queen of the United Kingdom, Elizabeth II is given the title of Head of the Commonwealth.
  • This title doesn’t hold any political power over its member countries.
  • There are 54 countries in the Commonwealth, Africa, Asia, the Americas, Europe, and the Pacific.
  • Commonwealth countries are diverse - they are amongst the world’s biggest, smallest, richest, and poorest countries.
  • 32 of the members are classified as small states.
  • Small states are especially vulnerable to things like climate change or developmental challenges.

Question 27

Who won her first Grand Slam Australian Open Tennis Competition, 2014 (Women’s Singles)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Li Na

  2. BOption (b)

    Dominika Cibulkova

  3. COption (c)

    Sara Errani

  4. DOption (d)

    None of them

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Li Na

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Li Na.

Key Points

  • Li Na won her first Grand Slam Australian Open Tennis Competition, 2014 (Women’s Singles).
  • Australian Open Tennis Competition:-
  • The Australian Open is a Tennis Tournament held in Melbourne, Australia over the last fortnight of January.
  • It is the first of the Four Tennis Grand Slam Events i.e French Open, Wimbledon, and the US Opens.
  • It is managed by Tennis Australia earlier known as the Lawn Tennis Association of Australia (LTAA).
  • The First Australian Open (Men) was played in 1905 at Warehouseman’s Cricket Ground Melbourne now known as the Albert Reserve Tennis Centre.
  • The First Australian Open Women was played in 1922.
  • Before 1988 the AO was played on the grass courts but now it is played on hard courts.
  • Since 1905, Australian Open has been staged in five Australian and two New Zealand cities namely Melbourne (55 times), Sydney (17 times), Adelaide (14 times), Brisbane (7 times), Perth (3 times), Christchurch (1906) and Hastings (1912).

Question 28

The winner of the SAFF Tournament 2013 was?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    Maldives

  3. COption (c)

    Afghanistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Nepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Afghanistan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Afghanistan.

Key Points

  • The winner of the SAFF Tournament, 2013 was Afghanistan.
  • SAFF Tournament:-
  • The South Asian Football Federation Championship or SAFF Championship, popularly known as SAFF Suzuki Cup for sponsorship reasons.
  • It is the main international association football tournament of the men's national football teams governed by the South Asian Football Federation (SAFF).
  • Previous names have included the South Asian Association of Regional Co-operation Gold Cup in 1993 and the South Asian Gold Cup in 1995.
  • Seven teams play against each other in the South Asian Football Federation Tournament.
  • After a "hostile takeover" of the Pakistan Football Federation, Pakistan was suspended from any kind of association football and was banned from taking part in the 2021 SAFF Championship.

Question 29

Which award is given for excellence in sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jamnalal Bajaj Award

  2. BOption (b)

    Arjuna Award

  3. COption (c)

    Tagore Award

  4. DOption (d)

    Moortidevi Award

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arjuna Award

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arjuna Award.

Key Points

  • Arjuna Award is given for excellence in sports.
  • Arjuna Award:-
  • Arjuna Award is one of the famous sports awards given to individuals for their exemplary performance in various sports.
  • The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India extends this award.
  • The Arjuna Award is given to promote sports in India by motivating the sportsperson for their fantastic performance.
  • The First Arjuna award was given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in 1961.
  • The award carries a cash prize of Rs 15 lakh, a bronze statue of Arjuna and a scroll of honour.

Additional Information

  • Jamnalal Bajaj Award recognizes and commemorates businessmen and industrialists who uphold the highest ethical practices in business.
  • Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony was instituted by the Government of India from 2012 recognizing the contributions made by Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore to humanity at large with his works and ideas.
  • Moortidevi Award is given every year for excellence in the field of Literature.

Question 30

‘Prince of Wales Cup’ is associated with the game of _______?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hockey

  2. BOption (b)

    Cricket

  3. COption (c)

    Football

  4. DOption (d)

    Golf

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Golf

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Golf.

Key Points

  • Prince of Wales Cup is associated with Golf.
  • Cups related to other games:-
  • Hockey - Murugappa Gold cup, Maharaja Ranjit Singh Gold Cup, Beighton Cup.
  • Cricket - C.K. Naidu Trophy, Deodhar Trophy.
  • Football - Durand Cup, DCM Trophy.
  • Golf - Bombay Gold Cup.

Confusion Points

  • The Prince of Wales Trophy, also known as the Wales Trophy, is an award presented by the National Hockey League (NHL) to the Eastern Conference (formerly the Wales Conference) playoff champions, prior to the final series of games for the Stanley Cup.
  • Prince of Wales Cup is associated with Golf.

Question 31

Who among the following was not associated with the excavation of Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro?

  1. AOption (a)

    R.D.Banerjee

  2. BOption (b)

    K.N.Dikshit

  3. COption (c)

    M.S.Vats

  4. DOption (d)

    V.A.Smith

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

V.A.Smith

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is V.A.Smith.

Key Points

  • V.A.Smith was a renowned historian of Ireland.
  • The Early History of India and The Oxford History of India are the two comprehensive volumes of Indian history published by him.
  • Excavations and their excavators:
  • Harappa - Daya Ram Sahni
  • Mohenjo-Daro - Rakhal Das Banerjee
  • Chanhudaro - NG Mazumdar
  • Lothal - SR Rao
  • Kalibanga - BB Lal
  • Dholavira - JP Joshi
  • Surkotada - JP Joshi

Question 32

Gautam Buddha gave his first sermon at?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vaishali

  2. BOption (b)

    Kaushambi

  3. COption (c)

    Sarnath

  4. DOption (d)

    Pawanpuri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sarnath

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sarnath.

Key Points

  • Gautam Buddha gave his first sermon at Sarnath.
  • Gautam Buddha:
  • After 49 consecutive days of meditation, Gautama attained Bodhi (enlightenment) under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya a village in Bihar.
  • Buddha gave his first sermon in the village of Sarnath, near the city of Benares in UP.
  • This event is known as Dharma-Chakra-Pravartana (turning of the wheel of law).
  • He died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at a place called Kushinagara a town in UP.
  • The event is known as Mahaparinirvan.

Question 33

Who is called ‘the Napoleon of Ancient India’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandragupta Maurya

  2. BOption (b)

    Pushyamitra

  3. COption (c)

    Kanishka

  4. DOption (d)

    Samudragupta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Samudragupta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

  • Samudragupta is called ‘the Napoleon of Ancient India’.
  • Samudragupta:
  • Samudragupta was the son of Chandragupta-I and Kumaradevi.
  • He ascended the throne in 335 AD.
  • Before his death, probably 4 or 5 years back, Chandragupta-I had publicly announced that Samudragupta would be his heir apparent and thus abdicated the throne in his favor.
  • This was justified by the killer instincts of Samudragupta who displayed a greater degree of skill in the arts of both peace and war.
  • But this nomination was perhaps not liked by many and coins of an obscure prince Kacha say that there was some trouble over the succession.
  • Samudragupta was the greatest ruler of the Gupta Dynasty and ruled till around 380 AD.
  • The western scholars equate him with Napoleon and call him Indian Napoleon due to the extensive military conquests.

Question 34

Which Chinese traveler visited India during Harshavardhana’s rules?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fa-Hien

  2. BOption (b)

    Hiuen-Tsang

  3. COption (c)

    I-tsing

  4. DOption (d)

    Taranath

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hiuen-Tsang

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hiuen-Tsang.

Key Points

  • Hiuen-Tsang visited India during Harshavardhana’s rules.
  • Hiuen-Tsang:
  • Huen Tsang or Xuanzang was a Chinese Buddhist Traveler who belongs to the early Tang period of China.
  • He was born in the Henan province.
  • He was basically interested in improving the incomplete & misinterpreted information provided by the earlier Chinese monks, particularly Fa-Hien.
  • The title of his work is “Journey to the West”(Si-Yu-Ki).
  • Huen-Tsang followed the Central Asian Route and visited from Kashmir in North to Saurashtra and Vallabhi in the west, Kamarupa in East, and Malakotta in South.
  • He stayed in various monasteries and came in touch with the scholars of that time.
  • His association with Harshavardhana and Bhaskarvarmana of Kamarupa adds special value to his work.

Question 35

What is ‘Dhai Din Ka Zhonpda’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mosque

  2. BOption (b)

    Temple

  3. COption (c)

    Saint’s hut

  4. DOption (d)

    Tower

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mosque

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mosque.

Key Points

  • Dhai Din Ka Zhonpda:-
  • Adhai Din ka Jhonpra is a mosque that is said to be built within two and a half days by the order of Mohammad Ghori.
  • The sultan ordered the mosque to be built within 60 hours and the workers worked day and night but were only able to construct a screen wall so that the sultan could offer his prayers.
  • After defeating Prithvi Raj Chauhan III, once Mohammad Ghori was passing by Ajmer and saw many temples so he ordered his slave named Qutbuddin Aibak to construct a mosque so that he can offer prayers.
  • The sultan also ordered that the mosque has to be built within two and a half days.

Question 36

In which language was Tuzuk-i-Baburi written?

  1. AOption (a)

    Persian

  2. BOption (b)

    Arabic

  3. COption (c)

    Turkish

  4. DOption (d)

    Urdu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Turkish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Turkish.

Key Points

  • Tuzuk-i-Baburi is the autobiography of Babur, the founder of the Mughal empire in India.
  • Babur wrote it in the Turkish language.
  • On the instruction of Akbar, Tuzuk-i-Baburi was translated into Persian named, ‘Baburnamah’ in 1589 by one of his nobles, Mirza Abdur-Rahim.
  • The Tuzuk-i-Baburi is a faithful description of the world the author had lived in, and of the people, he had come into contact with.

Question 37

Who was the commander of Rana Pratap’s army in the Battle of Haldighati?

  1. AOption (a)

    Amar Singh

  2. BOption (b)

    Man Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Hakim Khan

  4. DOption (d)

    Shakti Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hakim Khan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hakim Khan.

Key Points

  • Hakim Khan was the commander of Rana Pratap’s army in the Battle of Haldighati.
  • Battle of Haldighati**:**
  • The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between the armies of the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.
  • Although the battle ended in defeat for the forces of Mewar, Maharana Pratap escaped continuing his valiant resistance against the Mughal Empire.
  • Maharana Pratap was in the thick of the fighting at the Mewari center slaying many of his foes.
  • Although both Rajput and Mughal chroniclers allude to a duel by him and Man Singh, modern historians point out that Maharana Pratap fought against Madho Singh instead in a duel.

Question 38

Where was the capital of Shivaji Maharaj?

  1. AOption (a)

    Raigarh

  2. BOption (b)

    Sindhudurg

  3. COption (c)

    Poona

  4. DOption (d)

    Kolhapur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Raigarh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Raigarh.

Key Points

  • Raigarh was the capital of Shivaji.
  • Shivaji:
  • Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, great Maratha ruler was born on 19 February 1630 at Shivneri Fort in Pune District in the present-day state of Maharashtra.
  • Shivaji was given excellent training in military warfare and administration.
  • He was married for the first time in 1640 to Saibai.
  • Shivaji displayed his military zeal for the first time in 1645 when as a teenager.
  • He successfully got control of the Torna Fort which was under Bijapur.
  • He also acquired the Kondana Fort.
  • Both these forts were under Adil Shah of Bijapur.
  • Shah then got Shahaji imprisoned in a bid to contain Shivaji.
  • Some accounts say that Shivaji surrendered these forts to get his father released.
  • Shahaji died in 1664-65 in an accident.
  • After this, Shivaji resumed his raids and extended his territories.

Question 39

In which year was the Regulating Act passed?

  1. AOption (a)

    AD 1757

  2. BOption (b)

    AD 1765

  3. COption (c)

    AD 1773

  4. DOption (d)

    AD 1793

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

AD 1773

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is AD 1773.

Key Points

  • Regulating Act 1773:
  • The regulating Act of 1773 was passed by the British Parliament to control the territories of the East India Company majorly in Bengal.
  • This act was passed due to the misgovernment by the British East India government that introduced a situation of bankruptcy and the government had to interfere with the affairs of the Company.
  • This act permitted the company to retain its territorial possessions in India but sought to regulate the activities and functioning of the company.
  • It did not take over power completely, hence called ‘regulating’.
  • The act provided for the appointment of a Governor-General along with four Councillors in the Presidency of Fort William (Calcutta), jointly called the Governor-General in Council.
  • As per this, Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor-General of the Presidency of Fort William.
  • A Supreme Court was established at Fort William, Calcutta. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice.

Question 40

Who was the Governor-General of India in 1857?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wellesley

  2. BOption (b)

    Dalhousie

  3. COption (c)

    Canning

  4. DOption (d)

    Minto

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Canning

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Canning.

Key Points

  • Lord Canning:
  • Charles John Canning, 1st Earl Canning, was an English statesman who was the Governor-General of India.
  • Canning later became the first Viceroy of India when power was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown following the end of the revolt of 1857.
  • He entered Parliament in 1836, siding with the Conservatives faction in the House of the Commons.
  • In 1837 he entered the House of Lords.
  • He held many administrative posts such as Under-Secretary of State of Foreign Affairs, and First Commissioner of Woods and Forests.
  • Lord Canning served as the Postmaster-General in July 1855.

Question 41

After which incident Mahatma Gandhi had called Non-Cooperation Movement as his ‘Himalayan Blunder’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chauri-Chaura

  2. BOption (b)

    Kheda Satyagraha

  3. COption (c)

    Nagpur Satyagraha

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajkot Satyagraha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chauri-Chaura

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chauri-Chaura.

Key Points

  • Mahatma Gandhi had called Non-Cooperation Movement his ‘Himalayan Blunder' after the incident of Chauri Chaura.
  • Chauri-Chaura:
  • Chauri Chaura is a town in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.
  • On 4th February 1922, this town witnessed a violent incident. A large crowd of peasants set on fire a police station that killed 22 policemen.
  • Due to this incident, Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22).
  • It involved the use of swadeshi and boycott of foreign goods, especially machine-made cloth, and legal, educational, and administrative institutions, "refusing to assist a ruler who misrules".

Additional Information

  • Events and their respective years:-
  • ​Chauri-Chaura -  4th February, 1922.
  • Kheda Satyagraha - 11th March 1918.
  • Nagpur Satyagraha - 1923.
  • Rajkot Satyagraha - 7th March 1939.

Question 42

Which movement started after the Partition of Bengal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Civil Disobedience Movement

  2. BOption (b)

    Swadeshi Movement

  3. COption (c)

    Quit India Movement

  4. DOption (d)

    Non-Cooperation Movement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Swadeshi Movement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Swadeshi Movement.

Key Points

  • Swadeshi Movement started after the partition of Bengal.
  • Swadeshi Movement:
  • The Swadeshi movement was one of the most successful movements of the Pre-Gandhian era.
  • The movement finds itself in the backdrop of the mendicant policies of the early nationalist leaders who resisted the Un-British-like rule in India but believed in the English monarchy.
  • The major cause of the Swadeshi movement can be attributed to the partition of Bengal in 1905 which was seen by the Indian nationalist as a divisionary tactic of Britishers to weaken the Bengali (Bhadralok) intelligentsia class which was seen as a cradle of Indian resistance.

Additional Information

  • Events and their occurrence years:
  • Civil Disobedience Movement - March 12, 1930.
  • Swadeshi Movement - 1905.
  • Quit India Movement - August 1942.
  • Non-Cooperation Movement - 1 August 1920.

Question 43

Who was the first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mrs. Annie Besant

  2. BOption (b)

    Scheta Kripalani

  3. COption (c)

    Sarojini Naidu

  4. DOption (d)

    Indira Gandhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sarojini Naidu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sarojini Naidu.

Key Points

  • Sarojini Naidu:
  • Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman president of the Indian National Congress Organization.
  • In 1925, she was appointed the President of the Indian National Congress.
  • Sarojini Naidu was the first woman governor of Independent India.
  • Sarojini Naidu was born on 13 February 1879 in Hyderabad to Bengali parents.
  • Her father administered the Nizam College in Hyderabad while her mother was a prolific writer.
  • She was the eldest of eight siblings.
  • Sarojini Naidu graduated from the University of Madras and the Nizam Charitable Trust founded by Mahbub Ali Khan gave her a chance to study at Girton College at Cambridge.
  • Sarojini married Pradipati Govindarajulu Naidu after completing her education.
  • The couple would have five children, one of them, Paidipati Padmaja would join the independence struggle and become a part of the Quit India Movement.

Additional Information

  • Annie Besant:
  • First female President of Indian National Congress: 1847-1933 (Calcutta, 1917)
  • She joined the Theosophical Society in May 1889 and became Mme Blavatsky's devoted pupil and helper.

Question 44

Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolor flag in 1907 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    London

  2. BOption (b)

    Paris

  3. COption (c)

    Moscow

  4. DOption (d)

    Stuttgart

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Stuttgart

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stuttgart.

Key Points

  • Madam Cama hoisted the first tricolor flag in 1907 at Stuttgart.
  • Madam Cama:
  • Bhikaiji Rustom Cama was a prominent figure in the Indian Independence Struggle.
  • She is famous for hosting the precursor to the Indian National Flag on foreign soil.
  • For this act, she came to be known as the ‘Mother of the Indian Revolution.
  • During her visit to London, Bhikaiji Cama came into contact with Shyamji Krishna Varma, an Indian nationalist known for the speeches he gave in Hyde Park.
  • She met Dadabhai Naoroji, the president of the British committee of the Indian National Congress (founded on December 28, 1885).

Question 45

Who was the founder of Nalanda University?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandragupta Vikramaditya

  2. BOption (b)

    Kumargupta

  3. COption (c)

    Dharmapala

  4. DOption (d)

    Pushyagupta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kumargupta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kumargupta.

Key Points

  • Kumargupta founded Nalanda University in the 5th century A.D.
  • He was also called Shakraditya.
  • Nalanda University:
  • Constructed during the rule of Kumargupta of the Gupta dynasty.
  • Mahayana monks Asnaga and Vasubandhu said to have found Nalanda in 400-500AD.
  • Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang came during Harsha’s reign, gave a detailed account of Nalanda University.
  • Nalanda was a huge monastic-educational establishment.
  • Primary teaching focus: Mahayana Buddhism, yet included other ‘secular’ subjects as well- Like, Grammar, logic, epistemology, and sciences.

Additional Information

  • Dharmapala revived Nalanda University.
  • He founded Vikarmshila University.
  • He was a great patron of Buddhism.
  • He founded the Vikaramasila monastery in Bhagalpur district in Bihar, and a monastery at Odantapuri in Bihar.

Question 46

At which place in Bihar Gandhiji had first Satyagraha?

  1. AOption (a)

    Champaran

  2. BOption (b)

    Chhapra

  3. COption (c)

    Bettiah

  4. DOption (d)

    Patna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Champaran

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Champaran.

Key Points

  • Champaran Satyagraha:
  • The first Satyagraha movement inspired by Mahatma Gandhi occurred in the Champaran district of Bihar in the year 1917.
  • The Champaran Satyagraha was the first to be started, but the word Satyagraha was used for the first time in Anti Rowlatt Act agitation.
  • Champaran, a district in the state of Bihar where tens of thousands of landless serfs, indentured laborers, and poor farmers were forced to grow indigo and other cash crops instead of the food crops which were necessary for their survival.
  • These goods were bought from the farmers at a very low price.
  • Suppressed by the brutal militias of the landlords, they were given negligible compensation, leaving them in extreme poverty.
  • Even in the throes of a devastating famine, the British government levied a heavy tax on them and insisted on increasing the rate.

Question 47

Who was the author of ‘Indica’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vishnugupta

  2. BOption (b)

    Megasthenes

  3. COption (c)

    Diamechus

  4. DOption (d)

    Pliny

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Megasthenes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Megasthenes.

Key Points

  • Megasthenes:
  • Megasthenes was the Greek ambassador of Seleucus Nicator who spent time in the court of Chandragupta Maurya.
  • His account was mentioned in his book Indica which was survived only in fragments.
  • Indica gives details about the Mauryan administration.
  • The capital city of Pataliputra and its administration and military organization was particularly mentioned.
  • He has given a notable picture of contemporary social life.

Question 48

Which Sikh Guru was born at Patna?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nanak

  2. BOption (b)

    Teg Bahadur

  3. COption (c)

    Hargobind

  4. DOption (d)

    Gobind Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gobind Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gobind Singh.

Key Points

  • Guru Gobind Singh:
  • The last of the ten Sikh Gurus, Guru Gobind Singh was born on 22nd December 1666 in Patna, Bihar.
  • His birth anniversary is based on the Nanakshahi calendar according to which it will fall on January 20 in 2021 while for the last year it was celebrated on January 2.
  • He became the Sikh guru at the age of nine, following the demise of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru.
  • He was assassinated in 1708 by Jamshed Khan and Wasil Beg.

Question 49

Who was the President of Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chittaranjan Das

  2. BOption (b)

    S. N. Banerjee

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    Hakim Ajmal Khan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chittaranjan Das

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chittaranjan Das.

Key Points

  • Chittaranjan Das was the President of the Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922.
  • List of Presidents in their respective Sessions and years:
  • Chittaranjan Das - Gaya Session, 1922.
  • S.N.Banerjee - Pune Session, 1895 and Ahmedabad Session, 1902.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad - Bombay Session, 1934.
  • Hakim Ajmal Khan -  Ahmedabad Session, 1921.

Question 50

By which Name is Jay Prakash Narayan Known?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lokmanya

  2. BOption (b)

    Loknayak

  3. COption (c)

    Lokhitwadi

  4. DOption (d)

    Lokneta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Loknayak

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Loknayak.

Key Points

  • Jay Prakash Narayan:
  • Lok Nayak Jay Prakash Narayan’s birthday i.e. 11 October is celebrated as Save Democracy Day for his invaluable contribution to anti-emergency agitation during 1975-76.
  • His entire life is one of supreme sacrifice and commitment to the nation.
  • In 1921 he joined the Non-cooperation movement and was influenced by Gandhian Ideology.
  • Later he went to the US, where he was deeply influenced by Marxist ideology.
  • In 1929 he joined the INC at the invitation of Jawahar Lal Nehru.

Additional Information

  • Titles to the eminent personalities:-
  • Lokmanya - Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
  • Loknayak - Jai Prakash Narayan.
  • Lokhitwadi - Gopal Hari Deshmukh.
  • Lokneta - Gopinath Munde.

Question 51

Which country has the largest coastline?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Australia

  3. COption (c)

    Canada

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Canada

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

  • Canada is the second-largest country in the world in the area after Russia.
  • Canada has the largest coastline.
  • Canada:
  • Prime Minister: Justin Trudeau
  • Total Area of Canada: 9,984,670 km2
  • List of countries with the largest coastline:
  • Canada - 356,000 km
  • Norway - 202,080 km
  • Indonesia - 83,281 km
  • Greenland - 54,716 km
  • Russia - 44,087 km
  • Philippines - 37,653 km

Question 52

The largest producer of aluminium in the world is

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    China

  4. DOption (d)

    Italy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

China

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

  • China is the largest producer of aluminium in the world.
  • China:
  • It is located in East Asia with a population of around 1.4 Billion.
  • China is divided into 23 Provinces.
  • Capital: Beijing
  • Largest City: Shanghai
  • Area: 9596961 km2
  • Currency: Renminbi
  • President: Xi Jinping

Question 53

The Pennines (Europe), the Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of

  1. AOption (a)

    Young Mountains

  2. BOption (b)

    Old Mountains

  3. COption (c)

    Block Mountains

  4. DOption (d)

    Fold Mountains

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Old Mountains

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Old Mountains.

Key Points

  • The Pennines (Europe), the Appalachians (America), and the Aravallis (India) are examples of Old Mountains.
  • Old Mountains:
  • Old Mountains are such mountains that rise prominently above its surroundings, generally exhibiting steep slopes, a relatively confined summit area, and considerable local relief.
  • Old Mountains generally are understood to be larger than hills, but the term has no standardized geological meaning.
  • Very rarely do old mountains occur individually.
  • In most cases, they are found in elongated ranges or chains.
  • When an array of such ranges is linked together, it constitutes a mountain belt.

Additional Information

  • The Pennines are a mountain range said to as the backbone of England.
  • Pennines hills is a range of hills and mountains separating North West England from Yorkshire and North East England.
  • The Appalachians are a system of mountains in eastern to northeastern North America.
  • The Aravalli Range is a mountain range in Northwestern India.
  • It is approximately 670 km in a southwest direction, starting near Delhi, passing through southern Haryana, Rajasthan, and ends in Gujarat.
  • The highest peak is Guru Shikhar at 1722 metres.

Question 54

Match the rivers with the cities through which they are flowing and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

CityRiver
a. Rotterdam1. Seine
b. Paris2. Potomac
c. Budapest3. Rhine
d. Washington4. Danube
  1. AOption (a)

    a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

  2. BOption (b)

    a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

  3. COption (c)

    a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

  4. DOption (d)

    a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2.

Key Points

CityRiver
RotterdamRhine
ParisSeine
BudapestDanube
WashingtonPotomac

 

Additional Information

  • Seine:-
  • Seine River, a river of France, after the Loire its longest.
  • It rises 18 miles (30 kilometers) northwest of Dijon and flows in a northwesterly direction through Paris before emptying into the English Channel at Le Havre.
  • Rhine:-
  • Rhine River, German Rhein, French Rhin, Dutch Rijn, Celtic Renos, Latin Rhenus, river and waterway of western Europe.
  • It is culturally and historically one of the great rivers of the continent and among the most important arteries of industrial transport in the world.
  • It flows from two small headways in the Alps of east-central Switzerland north and west to the North Sea, into which it drains through the Netherlands.
  • Danube:
  • Danube River is the second-longest river in Europe after the Volga.
  • It rises in the Black Forest mountains of western Germany and flows for some 1,770 miles (2,850 km) to its mouth on the Black Sea.
  • Along its course, it passes through 10 countries: Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, and Ukraine.
  • Potomac:-
  • Potomac River is found within the Mid-Atlantic region of the United States and flows from the Potomac Highlands into the Chesapeake Bay.
  • The rive is approximately 405 miles (652 km) long, with a drainage area of about 14,700 square miles.

Question 55

Which is the largest metal trading center?

  1. AOption (a)

    Johannesburg

  2. BOption (b)

    New York

  3. COption (c)

    London

  4. DOption (d)

    Singapore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

London

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is London.

Key Points

  • The largest metal trading centre is in London.
  • London:
  • London, city, capital of the United Kingdom.
  • It is among the oldest of the world’s great cities—its history spanning nearly two millennia.
  • By far Britain’s largest metropolis, it is also the country’s economic, transportation, and cultural centre.
  • London is situated in southeastern England, lying astride the River Thames some 50 miles (80 km) upstream from its estuary on the North Sea.
  • In satellite photographs, the metropolis can be seen to sit compactly in a Green Belt of open land, with its principal ring highway (the M25 motorway) threaded around it at a radius of about 20 miles (30 km) from the city centre.

Question 56

Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godawari

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery

  3. COption (c)

    Luni, Narmada and Tapti

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and B.

Key Points

  • Bay of Bengal:-
  • Bay of Bengal, large but relatively shallow embayment of the northeastern Indian Ocean.
  • It occupies an area of about 839,000 square miles (2,173,000 square km).
  • It lies roughly between latitudes 5° and 22° N and longitudes 80° and 90° E.
  • It is bordered by Sri Lanka and India to the west, Bangladesh to the north, and Myanmar (Burma), and the northern part of the Malay Peninsula to the east.

Additional Information

 

  • The bay is about 1,000 miles (1,600 km) wide, with an average depth of more than 8,500 feet (2,600 meters).
  • The maximum depth is 15,400 feet (4,694 meters).
  • A number of large rivers—the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri (Cauvery) on the west and the Ganges (Ganga) and the Brahmaputra on the north—flow into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The Andaman and Nicobar groups, which are the only islands, separate the bay from the Andaman Sea.

Question 57

The oldest oil field in India is in _____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bombay High, Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Ankleshwar, Gujarat

  3. COption (c)

    Navagam, Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    Digboi, Assam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Digboi, Assam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Digboi, Assam.

Key Points

  • The oldest oil field in India is Digboi, Assam.
  • Digboi, Assam:-
  • It is India's oldest operating refinery and one of the oldest operating refineries in the world.
  • It is situated in the Tinsukia district of Assam.
  • The historic Digboi Refinery has been termed as the "Gangotri of the Indian Hydrocarbon sector".
  • A stretch of Dihing or Burhi Dihing in Eastern Assam’s Dibrugarh district witnessed fire following the spillage of crude oil which was being transported to Digboi refinery.
  • Assam is an ecologically sensitive state, spillage of crude or processed oil in river bodies threatens aquatic life.

Additional Information

  • India's important oil fields are:
  • Bombay High Oil Field:-
  • Bombay High (now Mumbai High) field is an offshore oilfield located in the Arabian Sea, approximately 160km west of the Mumbai coast, India.
  • Discovered in 1974, the field commenced production in 1976 and is operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).
  • The oil field consists of two blocks named Mumbai High North (MHN) and Mumbai High South (MHS).
  • The blocks were divided based on shale barriers, assisting in the independent exploitation of reserves at both sites.
  • Ankleshwar Oil Field:-
  • Ankleshwar oil field is one of the main onshore Cenozoic hydrocarbons bearing anticline of deltaic origin known in the Cambay Basin.
  • It runs into the Gulf of Cambay in approximately ENE-WSW direction.

Question 58

In India, ‘Yarlung Zangbo River’ is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Ganga

  2. BOption (b)

    Indus

  3. COption (c)

    Brahmaputra

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahanadi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brahmaputra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

  • In India, the ‘Yarlung Zangbo River’ is known as the Brahmaputra.
  • Brahmaputra:
  • Majuli Island, the world's largest riverine island is on the Brahmaputra river in the state of Assam.
  • Important cities along the Brahmaputra river are Dibrugarh, Pasighat, Neamati, Tezpur, and Guwahati.
  • Source of origin:
  • The Brahmaputra river rises from the Chemayundung glacier of the Kailash range near the Mansarovar Lake to the north of the Himalayas in the southwest Tibet region.
  • Confluence of Mouth:
  • ​The Brahmaputra drains into the Bay of Bengal before forming a huge delta along with the Ganga.

Additional Information

  • Important cities on the bank following rivers:
  • Ganga - Patna, Varanasi, Kanpur, Haridwar
  • Indus - Gilgit, Karachi, Rawalpindi
  • Brahmaputra - Guwahati, Dibrugarh, Tezpur, Jorhat
  • Mahanadi - Sambalpur, Cuttak, Sonepur, Subalaya.

Question 59

Which one of the following is the driest region?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Leh

  4. DOption (d)

    Bengaluru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Leh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leh.

Key Points

  • Leh is the driest region among the following.
  • The reason behind this is because Leh has a cold desert climate with long, cold winters from late November to early March, with minimum temperatures well below freezing for most of the winter.
  • The city gets occasional snowfall during winter.
  • The weather in the remaining months is generally fine and warm during the day.
  • The average annual rainfall is only 102 mm (4.02 inches).
  • In 2010 the city experienced flash floods that killed more than 100 people.

Additional Information

  • Chief Minister of Maharashtra - Eknath Shinde
  • Governor of Maharashtra - Bhagat Singh Koshyari
  • National Parks in Maharashtra - Sanjay Gandhi National Park, Tadoba-Andhari National Park, Chandoli National Park, etc.
  • Literacy rate of Maharashtra - 82.34%
  • Total districts in Maharashtra - 36.
  • Sex Ratio of Maharashtra - 902.

Question 60

Who amongst the following States has not identifies tribal community ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Haryana

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Haryana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

  • Haryana has not identified any tribal community.
  • Haryana:
  • Haryana was carved out of Punjab on 1st November 1966, as the 17th Indian state.
  • There are diverse interpretations about the origin of the name of Haryana.
  • In ancient times, this region was known as Brahmavarta, Aryavarta, and Brahomoupdesa.
  • These names are based on the emergence of Brahma-Lord on the land of Haryana.
  • The abode of Aryas and home of the preachings of Vedic cultures and other rites.
  • Its other names Bahudhanyaka and Bahudhana suggest Haryana as the land of plentiful grains and immense riches.
  • The capital of Haryana, Chandigarh, is shared by its neighbouring state of Punjab, designed by Swiss-born French architect, Le Corbusier.
  • At 44,212 sq km, Haryana covers 1.34% of India's geographical area.

Additional Information

  • Maharashtra:
  • Bhania, Andh, Bhil, Binjhwar, Dhanka, Tadvi, Tetaria, Valvi, Gamit, Gamta, Gavit, Mavchi, Padvi, etc. are some of the listed tribes of Maharashtra.
  • Chhattisgarh:
  • Halbas, Batras, and Gonds. are some of the listed tribes of Chhattisgarh.
  • Karnataka:
  • Bedar, Toda, Hakkipikki, Jenu Kuruba, Kadu Kuruba, Kattunayakan, Konda Kapus, Sholaga, etc. are some of the listed tribes of Karnataka.

Question 61

Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located at

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandigarh

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatpur

  3. COption (c)

    Gurgaon

  4. DOption (d)

    Gandhinagar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gurgaon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gurgaon.

Key Points

  • Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is a very popular national park located at Gurgaon.
  • Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary:
  • Sultanpur National Park & Bird Sanctuary is located in the Gurgaon district of Haryana, 46 km. from Delhi and 15 km. from Gurgaon on the Gurgaon - Farukh Nagar Road.
  • The Sultanpur National Park is lush with trees, shrubs and clusters of bougainvillea.
  • A good pair of binoculars is a must to clearly see the wildlife from a safe distance, without disturbing them.
  • To facilitate bird watching, there are four watch towers (machans) located at different points.
  • In addition, there is adequate parking and facilities like toilets and drinking water.
  • The Educational Interpretation Center has been established here to offer proper guidance to the tourist visiting the place.
  • The Tourist Complex built in the Park has elegant rooms equipped with all modern amenities, a restaurant and a bar.
  • Sultanpur National Park is essentially a bird watcher's paradise with few trees obscuring the visitor's view of the lake.
  • The birds here can be easily spotted wading, swimming or flying.

Additional Information

  • Bird Sanctuaries present at different places:
  • Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary - Rajasthan
  • Chilika Lake Bird Sanctuary - Orissa
  • Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary - Gujrat
  • Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary - Tamil Nadu
  • Velavadar National Park - Gandhinagar
  • Keoladeo Ghana National Park - Bharatpur

Question 62

The forest area in India per person (in average hectare) is(2019)

  1. AOption (a)

    0.23

  2. BOption (b)

    0.34

  3. COption (c)

    0.20

  4. DOption (d)

    0.29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.29

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0.29.

Key Points

  • The forest area in India per person (in average hectare) is 0.29.
  • Forest Report 2019:-
  • The total forest and tree cover is 24.56% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The total forest cover is 7,12,249 sq km which is 21.67% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The tree cover is 2.89% of the geographical area of the country.

Additional Information

  • Key findings of ISFR 2021:
  • According to the report, India's total forest and tree cover is now spread across 80.9 million hectares, which is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The total tree-and-forest cover in the country includes an increase of 1,540 square kilometres of forest cover and 721 sq km of tree cover compared to the 2019 report.
  • The top five states in terms of increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km), Telangana (632 sq km), Odisha (537 sq km), Karnataka (155 sq km), and Jharkhand (110 sq km). Hence option B is the correct answer.
  • The gain in forest cover or improvement in forest canopy density may be attributed to better conservation measures, protection, afforestation activities, tree plantation drives, and agroforestry
  • Area-wise, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.
  • The report also added that the northeast did not show positive results as the current assessment showed a decrease of forest cover to the extent of 1,020 sq km in the region.
  • Arunachal Pradesh lost the maximum forest cover of 257 sq km, followed by Manipur which lost 249 sq km, Nagaland 235 sq km, Mizoram 186 sq km, and Meghalaya 73 sq km.
  • The Kanha to Navegaon-Nagzira-Tadoba-Indravati corridor has the highest area under ‘Very Dense Forest’ comprising 857.65 sq km.

Question 63

Which of the following States has agricultural area less than 60 percent?

  1. AOption (a)

    West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

West Bengal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

  • West Bengal has an agricultural area of less than 60 per cent.
  • West Bengal:
  • West Bengal is situated in eastern India and shares its borders with Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, Sikkim, and Assam.
  • The state also shares international borders with Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal.
  • The Bay of Bengal is in the south of West Bengal.
  • At current prices, the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of West Bengal is estimated at Rs 14.44 trillion (US$ 206.64 billion) in 2020-21.
  • The average annual GSDP growth rate from 2015-16 to 2020-21 is about 12.62%.
  • West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India.
  • Rice production for the state totalled 14.99 million tonnes in 2017-18.
  • West Bengal is also a major producer of fish.
  • During 2018-19, the state produced a total of 1.85 million tonnes of fish.
  • West Bengal is the second largest tea-producing state in India and is home to the globally acclaimed Darjeeling tea variety.

Additional Information

  • India's largest agricultural producing states:
  • West Bengal - Rice, Jute, Sesamum, Tobacco
  • Uttar Pradesh - Rice, Bajra, food grains
  • Punjab - Wheat, Sugarcane, Cotton
  • Haryana - Paddy, Sunflower
  • Madhya Pradesh - Pulses, Soyabean$

Question 64

Nagarjuna Sagar Multipurpose Project is on which river?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tapti

  2. BOption (b)

    Kosi

  3. COption (c)

    Godawari

  4. DOption (d)

    Krishna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Krishna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

  • Nagarjuna Sagar Multipurpose Project is on the river Krishna.
  • Multipurpose Projects on the following rivers:
  • Tapti - Vallabh Sagar Sarovar
  • Kosi - Sapta Kosi High Dam Multipurpose Project
  • Godawari - Sriram Sagar Project
  • Krishna - Nagarjuna Sagar Project

Additional Information

  • Various Multipurpose Projects in India along with River names:
  • Almatti Dam - Krishna
  • Baspa Hydro Electric Project - Baspa
  • Bhakra Nangal - Sutlej
  • Chukha Project - Wang Chu
  • Farakka Barrage - Hooghly

Question 65

Dalmianagar of Bihar is famous for

  1. AOption (a)

    Silk

  2. BOption (b)

    Cement

  3. COption (c)

    Leather

  4. DOption (d)

    Jute

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cement.

Key Points

  • Dalmianagar of Bihar is famous for Cement.
  • The economy of Bihar:
  • Agriculture engages nearly three-fourths of Bihar’s population, and Bihar is one of India’s top producers of vegetables and fruits.
  • Despite significant gains in mining and manufacturing in the late 20th century, the state has continued to lag behind other Indian states in per capita income.
  • By government standards, a large segment of the population remains below the poverty level.
  • At the turn of the 21st century, the creation of the state of Jharkhand from Bihar’s southern region further strained Bihar’s struggling economy.

Question 66

How much square kilometres forest area is there in Bihar?

  1. AOption (a)

    2812 Square kilometres

  2. BOption (b)

    3612 Square kilometres

  3. COption (c)

    2461 Square kilometres

  4. DOption (d)

    2612 Square kilometres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2612 Square kilometres

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2612 Square meters.

Key Points

  • Forest Report of Bihar:
  • In undivided Bihar, about 17% of the total geographical area was forest amounting to 29.48 lakh hectare.
  • After its division in 2000,  the forest cover in Bihar remained only 6.87% amounting to 6.16 lakh hectare of its total geographical area.
  • By this division, 79% of the total forest went to Jharkhand and only 21% remained in Bihar.
  • According to the ISFR Reports, 2017 and 2019 total forest cover in Bihar is increased from 7299 Sq. Km to 7306 Sq. Km between 2017 and 2019.

Additional Information

  • The Total Forest and Tree cover is 24.56% of the geographical area of the country.

  • The Total Forest cover is 7,12,249 sq km which is 21.67% of the geographical area of the country.

  • The Tree cover is 2.89% of the geographical area of the country.

  • Forest cover in the hill districts is 40.30% of the total geographical area of these districts.

  • An increase of 544 sq km (0.19%) in 140 hill districts of the country.

  • The total forest cover in the tribal districts is 37.54% of the geographical area of these districts.

  • Total forest cover in the North-Eastern region is 65.05% of its geographical area.

  • The current assessment shows a decrease of forest cover to the extent of 765 sq km (0.45%) in the region.

  • Except for Assam and Tripura, all the States in the region show a decrease in forest cover.

  • Though the question was asked in 56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) Question Paper- 2015, but the data in the options are wrong and the answer here is according to the official answer key.

  • In the later stage, the question was abandoned by the Commission.

  • The solution provided here is in accordance with the recent data and reports of the Government. Hence go through the solution for the understanding and knowledge of the topic.

  • Source:- https://fsi.nic.in/isfr-2015/isfr-2015-forest-cover.pdf

Question 67

The two States of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar and West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar and Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

Key Points

  • The two states of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.
  • Orissa:-
  • More than 26% of iron-ore reserves are located within Orissa, contributing nearly 18% of annual Indian iron-ore production.
  • Major mines are located within three districts of Keonjhar, Sundargarh, and Mayurbhanj.
  • Major mines of Keonjhar districts are Kurband, Thakurani, Kodekola, Philora, and Toda.
  • The combined output of the Keonjhar district is remarkable.
  • Madhya Pradesh:-
  • ​Nearly 26% of India’s proven iron- ore reserve and 19% of the total production are from Madhya Pradesh.
  • 75% of Madhya Pradesh’s iron-ore production comes from Jabalpur(mainly), Bijori, Kanwara, Sumra, Dharampur,

Gwalior, Sagar,Tikamgarh, Dewas, Betul.

Additional Information

  • Major mines in Bastar district are Raoghat, Aridongri, and the famous Bailadila hilly range.
  • Dhanjadongri and Kondpal mines are other minor deposits of the district.
  • Bihar:
  • Once Bihar was known as the iron-ore capital of India.
  • Though presently it has lost its pre-eminence due to the emergence of other states as an iron-ore producer but considering total reserve, quality, and strategic location.
  • Bihar still holds key to India’s iron-ore production.
  • In the last couple of decades, Bihar supplied on an average 15% of Indian iron-ore demand.
  • West Bengal:
  • Durgapur Steel Plant
  • It was set up in the Burdwan district with the help of the U.K.
  • Influenced by the availability or ready market and proximity to Hooghly engineering works.

Question 68

What is chiefly found at Jharia in Jharkhand?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thorium

  2. BOption (b)

    Silk

  3. COption (c)

    Gold

  4. DOption (d)

    Coal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Coal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Coal.

Key Points

  • Jharia Coal Mines:
  • Jharia is estimated to have nearly 80 underground fires in the years since 1916.
  • The Government has decided to shift all major public utility assets from areas around the coalfield.
  • Jharia coalfields are in Jharkhand’s Dhanbad district and span over 160 square kilometers.
  • Unsafe and illegal mining has led to fires in coal deposits under the surface of these coalfields.
  • They now pose a risk to the population living on the surface like cave-ins and gas spills and are a threat to rail transport.
  • Most of the affected mines date back before Independence and nationalization.

Question 69

Which of the following towns is located easternmost of Bihar?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhagalpur

  2. BOption (b)

    Patna

  3. COption (c)

    Kishanganj

  4. DOption (d)

    Purnia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kishanganj

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kishanganj.

Key Points

  • Among the following districts, Kishanganj is the easternmost district.
  • Bihar:
  • Bihar, state of eastern India.
  • It is bounded by Nepal to the north and by the Indian states of West Bengal to the northeast and Uttar Pradesh to the west.
  • In November 2000 the new state of Jharkhand was created from Bihar’s southern provinces and now forms the state’s southern and southeastern borders.
  • The capital of Bihar is Patna.
  • Bihar occupied an important position in the early history of India.
  • For centuries it was the principal seat of imperial powers and the main focus of Indian culture and civilization.
  • The derivation of the name Bihar from the Sanskrit vihara (Buddhist monastery) reflects the prominence of such communities in the region in ancient times.

Additional Information

  • Outermost region-wise districts of Bihar:
  • Westernmost District - Kaimur
  • Northernmost District - West Champaran
  • Southernmost District - Gaya
  • Easternmost District - Kishanganj

Question 70

Which of the following lakes is situated in Bihar?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anupam Lake

  2. BOption (b)

    Sambhar Lake

  3. COption (c)

    Sukhna Lake

  4. DOption (d)

    Kama Lake

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Anupam Lake

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anupam Lake.

Key Points

  • Anupam Lake:
  • It is situated in the Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Kaimur district of Bihar, near the town of Bhabhua.
  • It is the largest sanctuary in the state and covers an area of about 1,342 km2 (518 sq mi).
  • The government of Bihar has planned to construct it into Tiger Reserve.
  • There are three well-defined seasons: the hot-weather season, lasting from March to mid-June; the season of southwest monsoon rains, from mid-June to October; and the cold-weather season, from November to February.

Additional Information

  • Other Lakes and their locations:
  • Sambhar Lake - Jaipur, Rajasthan
  • Sukhna Lake - Chandigarh
  • Kama Lake - Russia

Question 71

The Decentralization System was recommended by?

  1. AOption (a)

    J.B.Rajagopalchari B. J.

  2. BOption (b)

    Kripalani

  3. COption (c)

    Balwant Rai Mehta

  4. DOption (d)

    Ashok Mehta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Balwant Rai Mehta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Balwant Rai Mehta.

Key Points

  • The Decentralization System was recommended by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
  • Recommendations by the Committee:
  • Three-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
  • Directly elected representatives to constitute the gram panchayat and indirectly elected representatives to constitute the Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad.
  • Planning and development are the primary objectives of the Panchayati Raj system.
  • Panchayat Samiti should be the executive body and Zila Parishad will act as the advisory and supervisory body.
  • District Collector to be made the chairman of the Zila Parishad.

Additional Information

  • Ashok Mehta Committee:
  • The key recommendations are:
  • The three-tier system should be replaced with a two-tier system: Zila Parishad (district level) and the Mandal Panchayat (a group of villages).
  • District level as the first level of supervision after the state level.
  • Zila Parishad should be the executive body and responsible for planning at the district level.
  • The institutions (Zila Parishad and the Mandal Panchayat) have compulsory taxation powers to mobilize their own financial resources.

Question 72

Mahalanobis Plan Model adopted in India in the Mid-fifties aimed at?

  1. AOption (a)

    Building a strong defence industry base

  2. BOption (b)

    Setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive

  3. COption (c)

    Curbing inflation in the economy

  4. DOption (d)

    Removing unemployment within a short period

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive.

Key Points

  • Mahalanobis Plan Model adopted in India in the Mid-fifties aimed at Setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive.
  • Mahalanobis Plan Model:-
  • In the 1950s, an Old Russian Model was Indianized by P.C. Mahalanobis.
  • This model is known to have set the statistical foundations for state-directed investments and created the intellectual underpinnings of the license-raj through an elaborate input-output model.
  • This Model suggested that there should be an emphasis on the heavy industries, which can lead the Indian Economy to a long-term higher growth path.
  • India’s second five-year plan and Industrial policy Resolution 1956, which paved the way for the development of the Public Sector and license raj.
  • He was the founder of the Indian Statistical Institute and a close aide of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru.

Question 73

Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Column-AColumn-B
a. 19551. Export-Import Bank of India
b. 19642. Industrial Development Bank
c. 19823. Industrial Credit and Investment
d. 19874. Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
  1. AOption (a)

    a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

  2. BOption (b)

    a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

  3. COption (c)

    a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

  4. DOption (d)

    a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4.

Key Points

Column-AColumn-B
a. 1955Industrial Credit and Investment
b. 1964Industrial Development Bank
c. 1982Export-Import Bank of India
d. 1987Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction

 

Additional Information

  • Export-Import Bank of India:
  • Export-Import Bank of India is a wholly-owned Govt. of India entity established in 1982.
  • Its main aim is financing, facilitating and promoting foreign trade in India.
  • The EXIM Bank extends Line of Credit (LoC) to overseas financial institutions, regional development banks, sovereign governments and other entities abroad.
  • It is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
  • Industrial Development Bank:
  • In 1964, Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was set up as an apex body of all development finance institutions.
  • According to an UNCTAD study (December 2016), development banks loans which formed 2.2% of the gross capital formation in the early 1970s reached 15.5% by the early 1990s.
  • Industrial Credit and Investment:
  • It played a facilitating role in consolidation in various sectors of the Indian industry, by funding mergers and acquisitions.
  • The ICICI group’s financing and banking operations, both wholesale and retail have been integrated into a single company effective from May 2002.
  • Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction:
  • The BIFR consists of a chairperson, as well as two to fourteen other representatives.
  • The prerequisite for all members to be elected as judges of the High Court because otherwise, they should have essential professional experience of at least 15 years.
  • The Board organises and oversees only large or medium-sized sick industrial enterprises where vast amounts have been destroyed.

Question 74

Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Column-AColumn-B
a. Open general license1. Employment
b. TRYSEM2. External trade
c. Wholesale price index3. Credit control
d. Cash-reserve ratio4. Inflation
  1. AOption (a)

    a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

  2. BOption (b)

    a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

  3. COption (c)

    a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

  4. DOption (d)

    a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3.

Key Points

Column-AColumn-B
a. Open general licenseExternal trade
b. TRYSEMEmployment
c. Wholesale price indexInflation
d. Cash-reserve ratioCredit control

 

Additional Information

  • Open general license:
  • The OGEL is a one-time export license to be granted to a company for a specific period which is two years initially.
  • The application for the grant of OGEL will be considered by the Department of Defence Production (DPP) on a case-to-case basis.
  • For acquiring the licenses, the applicant is mandatory to have an Import-Export certificate.
  • ​**TRYSEM:**​
  • Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment (TRYSEM), scheme was started in 1979 with the objective to help unemployed rural youth between the age of 18 and 35 years to acquire skills for self-employment.
  • Priority was given to SC/ST Youth and Women.
  • ​Wholesale price index:
  • The Wholesale Price Index represents the price of a basket of wholesale goods.
  • WPI focuses on the price of goods that are traded between corporations.
  • It does not concentrate on goods purchased by the consumers.
  • The main objective of WPI is monitoring price drifts that reflect demand and supply in manufacturing, construction and industry.
  • WPI helps in assessing the macroeconomic as well as microeconomic conditions of an economy.
  • Cash-reserve ratio:
  • CRR is an important tool of the Monetary Policy.
  • Monetary Policy is the process of regulating the supply of money in an economy by the monetary authority of the country.
  • A specific CRR is provided to each commercial bank in India by the RBI.
  • The Reserve Bank of India is authorized to make monetary policy under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and can set the cash reserve ratio between 3% and 15%.

Question 75

The controlling authority of government expenditure is ?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Reserve Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    The Planning Commission

  3. COption (c)

    The Finance Ministry

  4. DOption (d)

    The Finance Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Finance Ministry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Finance Ministry.

Key Points

  • The controlling authority of government expenditure is the Finance Ministry.
  • The Ministry comprises of the five Departments namely:
  • Department of Economic Affairs
  • Department of Expenditure
  • Department of Revenue
  • Department of Investment and Public Asset Management
  • Department of Financial Services

Additional Information

  • The Reserve Bank of India:
  • The Reserve Bank's affairs are governed by a central board of directors.
  • The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act.
  • The directors are appointed/nominated for a period of four years.
  • It implements and monitors the monetary policy and ensures price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
  • The Planning Commission:
  • Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) defines economic planning as the utilisation of a country’s resources for developmental activities in accordance with national priorities.
  • It is a consciously and judiciously carried out process for optimum utilisation of existing resources in order to fulfil some well-defined objectives.
  • After independence in 1950, the Planning Commission was set up under the chairmanship of Pt Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • It was to formulate plans for the economic development of the country on the basis of the available physical, capital and human resources.
  • The Planning Commission is essentially a non-political and non-constitutional advisory body, which makes recommendations to the government.
  • It was set up through an executive order of the Union Government on 15th March 1950.
  • The Finance Commission:
  • The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements.
  • Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is required to constitute a Finance Commission at an interval of five years or earlier.
  • The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2017, under the chairmanship of NK Singh.
  • Its recommendations will cover a period of five years from the year 2021-22 to 2025-26.

Question 76

Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of

  1. AOption (a)

    2010-11

  2. BOption (b)

    2011-12

  3. COption (c)

    2009-10

  4. DOption (d)

    2012-13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2011-12

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2011-12.

Key Points

  • Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of 2011-12*.*
  • Effective Revenue Deficit:-
  • Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the creation of capital assets.
  • The concept of effective revenue deficit has been suggested by the Rengarajan Committee on Public Expenditure.
  • It is aimed to deduct the money used out of borrowing to finance capital expenditure.
  • The concept has been introduced to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for the expenditure of capital nature.
  • Focusing on this will help in reducing the consumptive component of the revenue deficit and create space for increased capital spending.

Question 77

Interest payment is an item of

  1. AOption (a)

    Revenue expenditure

  2. BOption (b)

    Capital expenditure

  3. COption (c)

    Plan expenditure

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Revenue expenditure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Revenue expenditure.

  • The interest payment is an item of Revenue expenditure.

Key Points

  • Revenue Expenditure:
  • Revenue expenditure is a cost that is charged to expense as soon as the cost is incurred.
  • By doing so, a business is using the matching principle to link the expense incurred to revenues generated in the same reporting period.
  • This yields the most accurate income statement results.
  • There are two types of revenue expenditure:
  • Maintaining a revenue-generating asset.
  • This includes repair and maintenance expenses, because they are incurred to support current operations, and do not extend the life of an asset or improve it.
  • Generating revenue.
  • These are all day-to-day expenses needed to operate a business, such as sales salaries, rent, office supplies, and utilities.

Additional Information

  • Capital expenditure:
  • Capital expenditure is used to create assets or to reduce liabilities.
  • It consists of:
  • The long-term investments by the government on creating assets such as roads and hospitals, and
  • The money was given by the government in the form of loans to states or repayment of its borrowings.
  • Plan expenditure:
  • All expenditures done in the name of planning (i.e. Five Year Plans) were called plan expenditures.
  • For example expenditure on electricity generation, irrigation, and rural developments, construction of roads, bridges, canals, etc.

Question 78

The HDI rank of India as per the HDR-2014 is

  1. AOption (a)

    137

  2. BOption (b)

    128

  3. COption (c)

    135

  4. DOption (d)

    147

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

135

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 135.

Key Points

  • The HDI rank of India as per the HDR-2014 is 135.
  • Latest Human Development Index Rankings wise of Various Countries and their HDI values:-
  • Norway - 0.957
  • Ireland - 0.955
  • Switzerland - 0.955
  • Hong Kong - 0.949
  • Iceland - 0.949
  • Germany - 0.947
  • India - 0.645

Additional Information

  • The Human Development Report(HRD) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme.
  • HDR was launched in 1990.
  • The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education (mean years of schooling completed and expected years of schooling upon entering the education system), and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development.

Question 79

Consider the following consume price indices.

I. Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers
II. Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers
III. Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers
IV. Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees

 

Which of the above indices is/are compiled by Central Statistical Organization (CSO)?

  1. AOption (a)

    III and IV Only

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and III Only

  3. COption (c)

    IV Only

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II, III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

IV Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IV Only.

Key Points

  • Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees is compiled by the Central Statistical Organization (CSO). Hence, only statement 4 is correct.
  • Central Statistical Organization (CSO):
  • The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) merged with the Central Statistical Office (CSO) to form the National Statistical Office (NSO).
  • On 23rd May 2019, the Government of India has approved the merger of NSSO and CSO.
  • The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), formerly called the National Sample Survey Organisation was the largest organization in India conducting periodic socio-economic surveys.
  • The National Sample Survey Office used to work under the Ministry of Statistics of the Indian government until May 2019.
  • On 23rd May 2019, the Indian government passed the order to merge the NSSO with the Central Statistics Office (CSO) to form the National Statistical Office (NSO).
  • The Government stated that the NSO will be headed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI).

Additional Information

  • Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers:
  • All-India Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (2016=100) for March, 2021 increased to 119.6 points compared to 119.0 points for February, 2021.
  • The increase in index is mainly due to items like Cooking Gas, Petrol, Poultry Chicken, Edible Oils, Apple, Tea Leaf, Served & Processed Packaged Food, etc. which experienced an increase in prices.
  • Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers:
  • The All-India Consumer Price Index Numbers for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers (Base: 1986-87=100) for the month of February 2021 decreased by 1 point each to stand at 1037 (One thousand and thirty-seven) and 1044 (One thousand and forty-four) points respectively.
  • Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers:
  • The Ministry of Labour and Employment on Friday released the All-India Consumer Price Index (CPI) numbers for agricultural labourers (AL) and rural labourers (RL) for the month of November 2020.
  • Point to point rate of inflation based on the CPI-AL and CPI-RL decreased to 6 per cent and 5.86 per cent in November 2020 from 6.59 per cent and 6.45 per cent respectively in October 2020.
  • Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees:
  • The all-India Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees CPI (UNME) with base 1984-85=100 for the month of March 2001 has been released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation; together with the indices for 59 selected urban centres in India.​

Question 80

What is the total production of oilseeds in India in 2013-14?

  1. AOption (a)

    34.32 million tonnes

  2. BOption (b)

    43.34 million tonnes

  3. COption (c)

    20.89 million tonnes

  4. DOption (d)

    30.72 million tonnes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30.72 million tonnes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 30.72 million tonnes.

Key Points

  • Oilseeds Production:
  • The country needs 25 million tonnes of edible oils to meet its requirement at the current consumption level of 19 kg per person per year.
  • Out of the total requirement, 10.50 million tonnes are produced domestically from primary (Soybean, Rapeseed & Mustard, Groundnut, Sunflower, Safflower & Niger) and secondary sources (Oil palm, Coconut, Rice Bran, Cotton seeds & Tree Borne Oilseeds) and remaining 60%, is met through import.
  • The oilseed production of the country has been growing impressively.
  • Despite this, there exists a gap between the demand and supply of oilseeds, which has necessitated sizeable quantities of imports.
  • India is the second-largest producer of groundnut after China and the third-largest producer of Rapeseed after China and Canada.

Question 81

India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron

  2. BOption (b)

    Tea

  3. COption (c)

    Textile

  4. DOption (d)

    Rubber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Textile

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Textile.

Key Points

  • Foreign Exchange:
  • According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data, the country’s foreign exchange (forex) reserves touched a lifetime high of USD 555.12 billion after it surged by USD 3.615 billion in the week ended 16th October 2020.
  • The rise in total reserves was due to a sharp rise in Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs), a major component of the overall reserves.
  • FCA jumped by USD 3.539 billion to USD 512.322 billion.
  • Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies, which can include bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
  • It needs to be noted that most foreign exchange reserves are held in U.S. dollars.

Additional Information

  • Iron export:
  • The value of iron ore exported from India amounted to nearly 186 billion rupees in the fiscal year 2020.
  • This export value was significantly higher than the previous financial year's value of about 92 billion rupees.
  • Tea:
  • Indian tea exports value FY 2020, by the destination country.
  • India exported tea worth 13.98 billion Indian rupees to Iran in the financial year 2020.
  • Even though Iran imported the highest worth of Indian tea, Russia imported the highest volume of Indian tea that same year.
  • Rubber:
  • Natural rubber (NR) exports from India registered a quantum leap during the last fiscal, with 20,030 tonnes leaving the country.
  • By contrast, in 2015-16, exports were just 865 tonnes.
  • NR exports stood at 30,594 tonnes in 2012-13.
  • But thereafter, owing to the relatively low price of NR in the international market, exports showed a declining trend.

Question 82

The currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hot currency

  2. BOption (b)

    Gold currency

  3. COption (c)

    Soft currency

  4. DOption (d)

    Hard currency

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hot currency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hot currency.

  • The currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called Hot currency.

Key Points

  • Hot currency:
  • It is the term for the Forex market and is the temporary name for any Hard currency.
  • If any Hard currency is exiting any economy at a fast pace for the time, the Hard currency is said to be Hot currency.

Additional Information

  • Soft Currency:
  • It is the currency that is easily available in any economy in its Forex market.
  • For example, Indian Rupee is the Soft currency in the Indian Forex market.
  • Hard currency refers to money that is issued by a nation that is seen as politically and economically stable.
  • In macroeconomics, hard currency, safe-haven currency, or strong currency is any globally traded currency that serves as a reliable and stable store of value.​

Question 83

Which one of the following is not included in the National Food Security Missions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Oilseeds

  2. BOption (b)

    Wheat

  3. COption (c)

    Rice

  4. DOption (d)

    Pulses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Oilseeds

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oilseeds.

Key Points

  • National Food Security Mission:
  • It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in 2007.
  • It aims to increase the production of rice, wheat, pulses, coarse cereals, and commercial crops, through area expansion and productivity enhancement.
  • It works toward restoring soil fertility and productivity at the individual farm level and enhancing the farm-level economy.
  • It further aims to augment the availability of vegetable oils and to reduce the import of edible oils.
  • The National Development Council (NDC) in its 53rd meeting held on 29th May 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat, and pulses to increase the annual production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes, and pulses by 2 million tonnes by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12).

Question 84

Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on

  1. AOption (a)

    1st April, 1992

  2. BOption (b)

    1st April, 1994

  3. COption (c)

    31st March, 1996

  4. DOption (d)

    31st March, 1997

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

31st March, 1997

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 31st March 1997.

Key Points

  • Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on 31st March 1997.
  • Ad hoc Treasury Bill System:
  • All treasury bills, ad hoc or ordinary, are sold by the RBI on behalf of the central government.
  • Until July 12, 1965, they used to be sold by lenders at weekly auctions.
  • From that date, they are made available ‘on tap’ throughout the week at a rate of discount fixed by the RBI.
  • This change was made to make the ready supply of bills available to all investors at all times for investment of their temporary surpluses and also to mop up larger amounts of such surpluses for the government.
  • The latter, of course, has been eager to borrow all the funds offered to it.

Question 85

R.N. Malhotra Committee is associated with?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sick industries

  2. BOption (b)

    Tax reforms

  3. COption (c)

    Insurance sector

  4. DOption (d)

    Banking Sector

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Insurance sector

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Insurance sector.

Key Points

  • R.N. Malhotra Committee is Associated with the Insurance sector.
  • R.N. Malhotra Committee:-
  • A  was set up in 1993 under the chairmanship of R.N. Malhotra, former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, to make recommendations for reforms in the insurance sector.
  • The Malhotra Committee recommended the introduction of a concept of professionalization in the insurance sector to make out a strong case for paving the way for foreign capital.
  • In its report submitted in 1994, the committee recommended, among other things, that:
  • Private players are included in the insurance sector.
  • Foreign companies are allowed to enter the insurance sector, preferably through joint ventures with Indian partners.
  • The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) be constituted as an autonomous body to regulate and develop the insurance sector.
  • The key objectives of the IRDA would include promotion of competition so as to enhance customer satisfaction through increased consumer choice and lower premiums while ensuring the financial security of the insurance market.
  • Brokers representing the customer be brought in as another marketing and distribution channel, a practice prevalent in most developed markets.
  • Raise the level of professional standards in risk management and underwriting and speed up settlement of claims.
  • Following the recommendations of the committee, the IRDA was constituted as an autonomous body in 1999 and incorporated as a statutory body in April 2000.

Additional Information

  • Sick industries:
  • The Sick Industrial Companies Act of 1985 (SICA) was an Indian law enacted to detect unviable ("sick") companies that could pose a systematic financial risk.
  • SICA was repealed and replaced in 2003 by the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Repeal Act of 2003, which watered down some aspects of the original Act and fixed some problematic factors.
  • SICA was then fully repealed in 2016, in part because some of its provisions overlapped with the provisions of a separate Act, the Companies Act of 2013.
  • Tax reforms:
  • The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has carried out several major tax reforms indirect taxes in recent years.
  • The focus of the tax reforms has been on reduction in tax rates and on simplification of direct tax laws.
  • Corporate Tax rates were reduced from 30% to 22% in 2019.
  • For new manufacturing units, the corporate tax rates were reduced to 15%.
  • The dividend Distribution Tax was also abolished in 2019.
  • Banking Sector:
  • Mega-merger plan focuses on creating banks of scale that would enable India to meet its aspirations of a $5 trillion GDP economy.
  • To keep pace with the growing economy, there is a need for big banks that can lend to big industries & entrepreneurs that require large amounts of credit.
  • According to banks’ prudential norms, banks take risks only for those entities that are appropriate as per banks’ size.
  • Banks generally avoid investing in a single entity or business.
  • Hence to invest in large projects, banks with huge lending capacity were needed.$

Question 86

Service tax in India was introduced in the year

  1. AOption (a)

    1994-95

  2. BOption (b)

    1996-97

  3. COption (c)

    1998-99

  4. DOption (d)

    1991-92

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1994-95

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1994-95.

Key Points

  • Service tax in India was introduced in the year 1994-95.
  • Service tax:
  • The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
  • The GST is paid by consumers, but it is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.
  • Applicable on the supply side:
  • GST is applicable to ‘supply of goods or services as against the old concept on the manufacture of goods or on sale of goods or on the provision of services.
  • Destination-based Taxation:
  • GST is based on the principle of destination-based consumption taxation as against the present principle of origin-based taxation.
  • Dual GST:-
  • It is a dual GST with the Centre and the States simultaneously levying tax on a common base.
  • GST to be levied by the Centre is called Central GST (CGST) and that to be levied by the States is called State GST (SGST).
  • Import of goods or services would be treated as inter-state supplies and would be subject to Integrated Goods & Services Tax (IGST) in addition to the applicable customs duties.

Question 87

Convertibility of the rupee implies

  1. AOption (a)

    Being able to convert rupee notes into gold

  2. BOption (b)

    Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa

  3. COption (c)

    Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces

  4. DOption (d)

    Developing an international market for currencies in India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Freely permitting the conversion of the rupee to other major currencies and vice versa.

Key Points

  • Convertibility of the rupee implies Freely permitting the conversion of the rupee to other major currencies and vice versa.
  • Indian Rupee:
  • The Indian rupee is the official currency of the Republic of India.
  • The first rupee in India was introduced by Sher Shah Suri and the Bank of Hindustan issued the first paper note.
  • The Reserve Bank of India issues and regulates currency-related provisions.
  • The symbol of the Indian Rupee characterizes India’s worldwide identity for currency transactions and economic clout.

Question 88

Consider the following important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government :

I. Corporation tax

II. Taxes on income other than corporation tax

III. Customs

IV. Union excise duties

Which one of the following is the correct descending order in terms of gross tax revenue?

  1. AOption (a)

    I-II-IV-III

  2. BOption (b)

    I-II-III-IV

  3. COption (c)

    III-I-II-IV

  4. DOption (d)

    II-III-I-IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I-II-IV-III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I-II-IV-III.

Key Points

  • The correct descending order in terms of gross tax revenue is:
  • Corporation tax
  • Taxes on income other than corporation tax
  • Union excise duties
  • Customs

   

Additional Information

  • Corporation tax:
  • Also known as Corporation Tax, corporate tax is the tax imposed by the Government of India on the net income or profit that corporate enterprises make from their businesses.
  • It is a tax imposed on the net income of the company.
  • Corporate Income Tax is a Direct Tax.
  • The tax is imposed at a specific rate as per the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
  • In most nations, the Corporate Tax is levied at a national level and can also be levied at a State or local level.
  • Union excise duties:
  • This is a duty on manufactured goods, which is levied at the time of manufacture.
  • A part of indirect tax, excise duty is a levy on particular goods and is collected at the point of manufacture, but ultimately, the burden is passed on to the consumer.
  • The importance of excise duty is also clear from how it impacts the consumer.
  • Customs tax:
  • Customs Duty refers to the tax that is imposed on the transportation of goods across international borders.
  • It is a kind of indirect tax that is levied by the government on the imports and exports of goods.
  • Companies that are into the export-import business need to abide by these regulations and pay the customs duty as required.
  • Put differently, the customs duty is a kind of fee that is collected by the customs authorities for the movement of goods and services to and from that country.
  • The tax that is levied for the import of products is referred to as import duty, while the tax levied on the goods that are exported to some other country is known as export duty.

Question 89

Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act. 2006?

  1. AOption (a)

    More than Rs 10 lakhs and less than Rs 2 crores

  2. BOption (b)

    More than Rs 2 crores and less than Rs 5 crores

  3. COption (c)

    More than Rs 5 crores and less than Rs 10 crores

  4. DOption (d)

    More than Rs 10 crores

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

More than Rs 5 crores and less than Rs 10 crores

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is More than Rs 5 crores and less than Rs 10 crores.

Key Points

  • Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises:
  • Worldwide, MSMEs have been accepted as the engine of economic growth and for promoting equitable development.
  • They constitute over 90% of total enterprises in most of the economies and are credited with generating the highest rates of employment growth.
  • With low investment requirements, operational flexibility, and the capacity to develop appropriate indigenous technology.
  • MSMEs have the power to propel India to new heights.
  • Hence, it seems like there is a silent revolution happening in India powered by MSMEs.
  • As per the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006 (MSMED Act, 2006)
  • Micro enterprise, - investment in Plant and Machinery does not exceed Rs.25 lakhs.
  • Small enterprise - investment in Plant and Machinery is more than Rs.25 lakhs but does not exceed Rs.5 crore.
  • Medium enterprise - investment in Plant and Machinery is more than Rs.5 crore but does not exceed Rs.10 crores. Hence option 4 is correct.

Important Points

  • Revised Classification applicable w.e.f 1st July 2020​ 
  • ​Micro:- 
  • Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment: Not more than Rs.1 crore.
  • Annual Turnover; not more than Rs. 5 crores.
  • Small:-
  • Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment: Not more than Rs.10 crore.
  • Annual Turnover; not more than Rs. 50 crore.
  • Medium:-
  • ​Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment: Not more than Rs.50 crore.
  • Annual Turnover; not more than Rs. 250 crore.

Question 90

What does infant mortality rate refer to?

  1. AOption (a)

    The ratio of the number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births.

  2. BOption (b)

    The ratio of the number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births.

  3. COption (c)

    The ratio of the number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births.

  4. DOption (d)

    The ratio of the number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The ratio of the number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The ratio of the number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births.

Key Points

  • The infant mortality rate is defined as the ratio of the number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births.
  • The infant mortality rate of various Indian States(Per Thousand):
  • Andhra Pradesh - 46
  • Bihar - 48
  • Chhattisgarh - 51
  • Delhi - 30
  • Rajasthan - 55

Additional Information

  • Census of India 2011:
  • Population:
  • India’s total population stands at 1.21 billion, which is 17.7 percent more than the last decade, and the growth of females was higher than that of males.
  • There was an increase of 90.97 million males and an increase of 90.99 million females.
  • The growth rate of females was 18.3 percent which is higher than males — 17.1 percent. India’s population grew by 17.7 percent during 2001-11, against 21.5 percent in the previous decade.
  • Literacy:
  • The literacy rate in India in 2011 has increased by 8 percent to 73 percent in comparison to 64.8 percent in 2001.
  • While the male literacy rate stands at 80.9 percent – which is 5.6 percent more than the previous census, the female literacy rate stands at 64.6 percent — an increase of 10.9 percent in 2001.
  • Density:
  • The density of population in the country has also increased from 325 in 2001 to 382 in 2011 per sq km.
  • Among the major states, Bihar occupies the first position with a density of 1106, surpassing West Bengal which occupied the first position during 2001.
  • Delhi (11,320) turns out to be the most densely inhabited followed by Chandigarh (9,258), among all states and UT’s, both in the 2001 and 2011 Census.
  • The minimum population density works out in Arunachal Pradesh (17) for both the 2001 and 2011 Census.

Question 91

In which of the following years was the trade balance favourable to India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1970-71 and 1974-75

  2. BOption (b)

    1972-73 and 1976-77

  3. COption (c)

    1972-73 and 1975-76

  4. DOption (d)

    1971-72 and 1976-77

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1972-73 and 1976-77

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1972-73 and 1976-77.

  • Trade Balance:
  • Balance of Payment of a country can be defined as a systematic statement of all economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world during a specific period usually one year.
  • It indicates whether the country has a surplus or a deficit in trade.
  • When exports exceed imports, there is a trade surplus and when imports exceed exports there is a trade deficit.
  • For preparing BoP accounts, economic transactions between a country and the rest of the world are grouped under - Current account, Capital account, and Errors and Omissions.
  • It also shows changes in Foreign Exchange Reserves.

Question 92

Consider the following agreements :

I. ISLFTA (India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement)

II. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area)

III. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperations Agreement betweenIndia and Singapore)

IV. SAPTA (South Asian Preferential Trade Arrangement)

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above agreements?

  1. AOption (a)

    I-III-II-IV

  2. BOption (b)

    IV-I-II-III

  3. COption (c)

    II-I-IV-III

  4. DOption (d)

    I-II-III-IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

IV-I-II-III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IV-I-II-III.

Key Points

  • The correct chronological order of the above agreements:
  • 1. SAPTA (South Asian Preferential Trade Arrangement) - 1995
  • 2. ISLFTA (India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement) - 1998
  • 3. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area) - 2004
  • 4. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperations Agreement between India and Singapore) - 2005

Additional Information

  • ISLFTA:
  • The Indo-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA), which was signed on 28th December 1998 and entered into force with effect from 1st March 2000, provides duty-free concessions to a wide range of products traded between the two countries.
  • Sri Lanka’s final tariff liberalization commitment under ISFTA came into effect in November 2008 and with this completion of the commitment, the ISFTA which came into effect from March 2000 has been fully implemented.
  • However, Sri Lanka has already got full duty free access to the vast Indian market under the ISFTA since the end of March 2003.
  • SAFTA:
  • The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) is the free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC).
  • The agreement came into force in 2006, succeeding the 1993 SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement. SAFTA signatory countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
  • CECA:
  • The India–Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement, also known as the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement or simply CECA.
  • It is a free trade agreement between Singapore and India to strengthen bilateral trade.
  • It was signed on 29 June 2005.
  • SAPTA:
  • The SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA) reflected the desire of the Member States to promote and sustain mutual trade and economic cooperation within the SAARC region through the exchange of tariff concessions.
  • The idea of liberalizing trade among SAARC countries was first mooted by Sri Lanka at the sixth Summit of the South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) held in Colombo in December 1991.
  • Four rounds of negotiations were held under SAPTA.
  • SAPTA was envisaged primarily as the first step towards the transition to a South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) leading subsequently towards a Customs Union.

Question 93

During which year was the annual average growth rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative?

  1. AOption (a)

    2002-03

  2. BOption (b)

    2003-04

  3. COption (c)

    2005-06

  4. DOption (d)

    2006-07

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2002-03

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2002-03.

Key Points

  • Agriculture and Allied Sectors:
  • The history of Agriculture in India dates back to Indus Valley Civilization and in some parts of Southern India.
  • It was found to be happening even before the Harappans.
  • Today, India ranks second worldwide in farm output.
  • The economic contribution of agriculture to India’s GDP is steadily declining with the country’s broad-based economic growth, yet, having nearly 50% of the population dependent on it for livelihood.
  • Agriculture, along with fisheries and forestry, is one of the largest contributors to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
  • As per the estimates by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), the share of agriculture and allied sectors (including agriculture, livestock, forestry, and fishery) is expected to be 17.3 percent of the Gross Value Added (GVA) during 2016-17 at 2011-12 prices.

Question 94

Consider the following Statements: 

I. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AICIL).

II. The scheme was introduced during the 2007 south-west monsoon period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I only.

Key Points

  • Agriculture Insurance Company of India Ltd. (AICIL) introduced Rainfall Insurance Scheme known as “Varsha Bima”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It was started during the 2004 southwest monsoon period. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Varsha Bima is a mechanism for providing effective risk management aid to those individuals and institutions likely to be impacted by adverse rainfall incidence.
  • Varsha Bima is a Rainfall based crop insurance scheme and compensation is paid when the actual rainfall recorded during the season falls short of a specified percentage of normal rainfall of the area.
  • All cultivators – irrespective of Loanee or Non-Loanee; Small / Marginal or Other; Owners or Tenants / Sharecroppers can buy Varsha Bima.

Additional Information

  • Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AIC) a government-owned insurance company and development finance institution under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India that offers yield-based and weather-based crop insurance programs in almost 500 districts of India.
  • Founded:- 2002
  • Headquarter - New Delhi
  • Chairman & Managing Director - Malay Kumar Poddar

Question 95

Consider the following Statements: 

I. Bank rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their short-term borrowing.

II. Repo rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their long-term borrowing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

  • Bank Rate:
  • The bank rate is the rate of interest that is charged by a central bank while lending loans to a commercial bank.
  • In the event of a fund deficiency, a bank can borrow money from the central bank of a country.
  • In India’s case that would be the Reserve Bank of India.
  • The borrowing is done as per the basis of the monetary policy of that country.
  • Repo Rate:
  • Repo rate refers to the rate at which commercial banks borrow money by selling their securities to the Central bank of our country i.e Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to maintain liquidity.
  • In case of shortage of funds or due to some statutory measures.
  • It is one of the main tools of RBI to keep inflation under control.

Question 96

Financial sector reforms in India consist of?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lowering down of CRR and SLR

  2. BOption (b)

    Entry of private firms in Insurance sector

  3. COption (c)

    Deregulation of rate of interest

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

  • Financial sector reforms:
  • The Narasimham committee was established in August 1991 to give comprehensive recommendations on the financial sector of India including the capital market and banking sector.
  • The major recommendations made by the committee are:
  • To reduce the cash reserve ratio CRR and the statutory liquidity ratio SLR.
  • The committee recommended reducing CRR to 10% and SLR to 25% over the period of time.
  • Recommendations on priority sector lending- the committee recommended including marginal farmers, small businesses cottage industries, etc in the definition of priority sector.
  • The committee recommended fixing at least 10% of the credit for priority sector lending.
  • Deregulation of interest rates- the committee recommended deregulating the interest rates charged by the banks.
  • This was necessary to provide independence to the banks for setting the interest rates themselves for the customers.

Question 97

Which of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rural housing

  2. BOption (b)

    Rural electrification

  3. COption (c)

    Agro-based industries

  4. DOption (d)

    Rural Telephony

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Agro-based industries

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Agro-based industries.

Key Points

  • Bharat Nirman:
  • This scheme aims at developing rural infrastructure.
  • This scheme is governed by the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • The duration of implementing this scheme has been determined for four years with the expected expenditure of 174000 crores.
  • The major six sectors & their targets for the next four years are:
  • Irrigation
  • Roads
  • Housing
  • Water Supply
  • Electrification
  • Rural Communication
  • The main objectives of this programme are:
  • Facilities for safe drinking water in every household by 2012.
  • Targeted housing facility for no less than 60 lakhs houses by 2009. As the target was not reached, the project was extended further up to 2014 with a target of 1.2 crores, double the existing target to reach needier. Overseen under the guidance of the Ministry of Rural Development, providing housing facilities is taken up. Low-cost living is achieved through this project. The State shares 25% of the project cost while the balance 75% is underwritten by the Central Government.
  • The next project is to provide telecommunication facilities and broadband to more than 40% of Indian Villages by 2014.
  • Providing electricity and employment are other projects taken up under this programme. These two projects ensure that people are always self-dependent and their pressure to turn to lenders for money reduces substantially. This ensures that the exploitation of the uneducated is eradicated so that rural India depends on organized sectors for financial assistance.
  • Another major project under this programme is to provide connectivity across the length and breadth of India by taking up infrastructure road projects that withstand all seasonal changes. The project is carved out to connect urban-rural roads that are poorly maintained thus enhancing the quality of transportation. This also ensures that the distance between cities and villages are shrunk to give verbatim meaning to the phrase “global village”.
  • This programme aimed to create more opportunities in agriculture by providing irrigational land to the extent of one crore hectares.

Question 98

According to the Planning Commission of India, which of the following are correct for the poverty line?

I. Rs 42 per capita per day in urban area

II. Rs 26 per capita per day in rural area

III. Rs 32 per capita per day in urban area

IV. Rs 32 per capita per day in rural area

Choose the correct option from the following.

  1. AOption (a)

    I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III

  3. COption (c)

    II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

II and III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is II and III.

Key Points

  • Poverty line:
  • Planning Commission quantifies Calorific/Nutritional needs for a basic minimum living by taking an ideal ‘poverty line basket’.
  • This ideal basket includes food and nonfood items which are recommended by expert groups (among other things) which are constituted from time to time.
  • So we’ll have a monetary figure (Rs16/25/32 etc.) which that expert panel considers benchmark poverty line.
  • Then this poverty line is adopted by Planning Commission.
  • For the determination of this figure, reliance is obviously placed on data provided by NSSO.
  • The poverty line is a cutoff point on the line of distribution, which usually divides the population of the country as poor & non-poor.
  • People having income below the poverty line are called poor.

Question 99

Consider the following schemes:

I. EAS

II. TRYSEM

III. JRY

IV. RLEGP

The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these schemes is

  1. AOption (a)

    II-IV-I-III

  2. BOption (b)

    IV-II-III-I

  3. COption (c)

    IV-III-I-II

  4. DOption (d)

    II-IV-III-I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

II-IV-III-I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is II-IV-III-I.

Key Points

  • Correct Chronological Order:
  • TRYSEM - 15 August 1979
  • RLEGP - 15 August 1983
  • JRY - 1 April 1989
  • EAS - 20 October 1993

Additional Information

  • TRYSEM:
  • It stands for Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment (TRYSEM).
  • This scheme was started in 1979 with the objective to help unemployed rural youth between the age of 18 and 35 years to acquire skills for self-employment.
  • Priority was given to SC/ST Youth and Women.
  • RLEGP: Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
  • RLEGP was introduced on August 15, 1983, with the objective of:
  • (a) improving and expanding employment opportunities for the rural landless with a view to providing a guarantee of employment to at least one member of every landless household up to 100 days in a year and,
  • (b) creating durable assets for strengthening the infrastructure so as to meet the growing requirements of the rural economy.
  • JRY:
  • Jawahar Rozgar Yojna was launched on April 1, 1989, by merging National Rural Employment Program (NREP) and Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP).
  • So this was a consolidation of the previous employment programs and it was the largest National Employment Program of India at that time with a general objective of providing 90-100 Days Employment per person particularly in backward districts.
  • People below Poverty Line were the main targets.
  • EAS:
  • Employment Assurance Scheme was launched on 2nd October 1993 for implementation in 1778 identified backward blocks of different States.
  • The block selected were in the drought-prone areas, desert areas, tribal areas and hilly areas.
  • Later, the scheme was extended to the remaining blocks of the country in a phased manner.
  • At present, the scheme is being implemented in all the rural blocks of the country.
  • The programme has been restructured from 1.4.99.

Question 100

Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below 

 

Column-AColumn-B
a) National Agricultural Policy1. 2004
b) Marine Fishing Policy2. 1978
c) New Foreign Trade Policy3. 2000
d) Seventh Finance Commission4. 2014
  1. AOption (a)

    a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

  2. BOption (b)

    a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

  3. COption (c)

    a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

  4. DOption (d)

    a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2.

Key Points

  • Government's different policies and their starting date:
Column-AColumn-B
a) National Agricultural Policy2000
b) Marine Fishing Policy2004
c) New Foreign Trade Policy2014
d) Seventh Finance Commission1978

 

Additional Information

  • National Agricultural Policy:
  • The following are the objectives of the New Agricultural Policy (NAP), 2000:
  • Over 4 per cent annual growth rate aimed over next twenty years.
  • Participation of the private sector by encouraging contract farming.
  • Price protection for farmers along with the launch of the National agricultural insurance scheme to protect farmers in case crops are destroyed.
  • Removing restrictions on the movement of agricultural commodities throughout the country.
  • Rational utilization of country’s water resources for optimum use of irrigation potential.
  • High priority to the development of animal husbandry, poultry, dairy and aquaculture.
  • Marine Fishing Policy:
  • Marine Fishing Policy plans to provide the fishermen community, mainly small-scale and artisanal fishers, and financial assistance and introduce norms to improve labour conditions in the sector.
  • The draft on the National Policy on Marine Fisheries lays emphasis on bringing in Blue Revolution by sustainable utilisation of the fisheries wealth from the marine and other aquatic resources.
  • Some of the flaws of the 2004 Policy are:
  • Non-identification of a legal instrument
  • No stress gender equality, the role of women and their participation in the fisheries sector Importance has not been given to the category of “traditional fishers”.
  • A precise time frame hasn’t been defined.
  • Non-linking of technology to the different sectors of fisheries activities.
  • Absence of Conflict resolution.
  • New Foreign Trade Policy:
  • The New foreign trade policy 2015-20 was unveiled on 1st April 2015 at Vigyan Bhawan, Delhi.
  • It provides a roadmap for the trade engagement of India in future.
  • The new trade policy focuses on supporting both the manufacturing sector and the service sector.
  • It puts emphasis on the improvement of India's ease of doing business.
  • The new policy provides a five-year roadmap for employment generation, and value addition to the Indian economy.
  • Seventh Finance Commission:
  • Recommendations An Evaluation N J Jhaveri The Seventh Finance Commission has avoided taking a strong position on the question of Centre-state financial relations.
  • It has taken the view that the framework of Centre-state financial relations embodied in the Constitution has stood the test of time and has worked fairly and smoothly.

Question 101

Who founded the Pagal Panth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bulleh Shah

  2. BOption (b)

    Karam Shah

  3. COption (c)

    Yaduvendra Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Swami Sahajananda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Karam Shah

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karam Shah.

Key Points

  • The Pagal Panth was a religious order founded by Karim Shah in the Mymensingh and Sherpur districts of Bengal.
  • The philosophy of this Panth was to follow religious harmony and non-violence incorporating tenets of Sufism, Hinduism, and animism.
  • Under Karim Shah’s son Tipu Shah, the order revolted against the British government by organizing peasant rebellions. They were against the oppressive tax regime of the British.
  • Tipu Shah captured Sherpur in 1825 and ruled over the Sherpur and Mymensingh areas till the 1850s.

Additional Information

  • Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was a brilliant intellectual and a striking master of debate. He was a versatile genius performing several roles during his entire working career, such as linguist, polymath, sociologist, historian, philosopher, writer, grammarian, ascetic, revolutionary, Marxist, and politician.
  • Swami Sahajanand formed a smaller Kisan Sabha in the Patna district in association with a formal organizational structure.
  • Later in 1929, he established the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS).
  • Bulleh Shah was a Punjabi Muslim Sufi poet, a humanist, and philosopher.
  • His real name was Abdullah Shah.
  • His poetry highlights his mystical spiritual voyage through the four stages of Sufism: Shariat (Path), Tariqat (Observance), Haqiqat (Truth), and Marfat (Union).

Question 102

Who were the Faraizis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Followers of Haji Shariatullah

  2. BOption (b)

    Followers of Dadu

  3. COption (c)

    Followers of the Arya Samaj

  4. DOption (d)

    Followers of the Muslim League

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Followers of Haji Shariatullah

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Followers of Haji Shariatullah.

Key Points

  • Faraizi Movement was the religious reform movement launched by Haji Shariatullah.
  • It was a religious reform movement in the 19th century for Bengali Muslims.
  • The followers of the Haji Shariatullah are known as Faraizis.
  • The movement was to revive Islam and improve the condition of Muslim peasants who were opposed by Hindu and British landlords.
  • The Faraizi movement spread with extraordinary rapidity in the districts of Dhaka, Faridpur, Bakerganj, Mymensingh, Tippera (Comilla), Chittagong, and Noakhali as well as to the province of Assam.
  • The movement, however, gained the greatest momentum in those places where the Muslim peasantries were depressed under the oppressive domination of Hindu zamindars and European indigo planters.

Additional Information

  • The Arya Samaj was founded in 1875 by Swami Dayananda Saraswati (1824-83). Swami Dayananda Saraswati was a Sanskrit scholar.
  • Arya Samaj prevents child marriages and fixed the minimum marriageable age for boys and girls. The minimum marriageable age for boys and girls are 25 years and 16 years respectively.
  • Under the samaj, Inter-caste marriage and widow remarriage were encouraged.
  • Even today, Arya Samaj Mandirs (temples) perform such acts with sincerity and promptness.
  • Equal status for women (both in letter and spirit) was the demand of the samaj.
  • On 30 December 1906, the All-India Muslim League (AIML) was founded in Dhaka, British India (now in Bangladesh).
  • It was popularly known as the Muslim League.
  • AIML was the first Muslim political party in India.
  • The founders of the Muslim League were: Khwaja Salimullah, Vikar-ul-Mulk, Syed Amir Ali, Syed Nabiullah, Khan Bahadur Ghulam, and Mustafa Chowdhury.
  • The first Honorary President of the League was Sir Sultan Muhammad Shah (Aga Khan III).
  • The followers of the 16th-century saint Dadu Dayal called Dadu Panth.
  • Followers of Dadu Dayal can be classified into 5 groups:- Khalsa, Virakta, Sthandhari, Uttaradev, and Khaki.
  • Dadu Dayal stressed faith in God and Guru, knowledge of self, love, morality, the futility of casteism, truth, and simple life.
  • Naraina is the principal seat of Dadu Panthis where clothes & pothis of Dadu Ji are kept.
  • His teachings have been consolidated by his disciples Dadudayal Ki Vani & Dadudayal-Ra-Duha.

Question 103

The correct geographical location for the Ramosi Uprising?

  1. AOption (a)

    Western India

  2. BOption (b)

    Eastern Ghats

  3. COption (c)

    Eastern India

  4. DOption (d)

    Western Ghats

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Western Ghats

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Western Ghats.

Key Points

  • The Ramosis were the hilly tribes of the Western Ghats.
  • The Ramosis served in the lower ranks of the Maratha army and police, revolted in Satara in 1822, under the leadership of Chittur Singh in protest against the heavy assessment of land revenue and the harsh methods of its collection.
  • They resented British rule and the new pattern of administration.
  • In 1822, the Ramos has plundered the regions around Satara and attacked the forts.
  • In 1825-26, they again rose up in rebellion under the banner of Umaji on account of acute famine and scarcity in Pune, and the area remained disturbed till 1829 over the deposition and banishment of Raja Pratap Singh of Satara in September 1839.

Additional Information

  • Western India region consists of the predominantly arid to semi-arid region of Saurashtra and Kutch in the North.
  • The region South of Cambay and Southern Gujarat makes the northern semi-arid region and the southern humid region submerge.
  • The rivers in this region are the Mahi, Narmada, Tapi, Godavari, Zuari, Mandovi, Krishna, Ghaggar, Chambal, and many other smaller tributaries of other rivers.
  • The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern coast.
  • The Eastern Ghats pass through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing some parts of Karnataka as well as Telangana.
  • Eastern India is a mostly rural region stretching from Sikkim in the southern Himalayas to the coast of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 104

The Waghera Uprising happened in

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat

  2. BOption (b)

    Poona

  3. COption (c)

    Calicut

  4. DOption (d)

    Baroda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Baroda

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Baroda.

Key Points

  • The Waghera Uprising happened in Baroda.
  • Besides the resentment against the foreign rule, the exactions of Gaekwad of Baroda supported by the British Government compelled the Waghera chief to take up arms.
  • The Wagheras carried on inroads into British territory during 1818-1819.
  • The uprising ended with a peace treaty that was concluded in November 1820.

Additional Information

  • In 1875, Deccan Riots began at Supa village in the district of Poona. Farmers attacked a marketplace where many moneylenders lived.
  • The farmers’ main motive was to destroy the account books of the moneylenders and they resorted to violence only when these books were not handed over to them.
  • The movement continued for 2 months and spread to over 30 villages.
  • The movement also got support from the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha co-founded by M G Ranade.
  • In 1878, the Deccan Riots Commission was set up which presented a report to the British Parliament.
  • In 1879, the Agriculturists Relief Act was passed which ensured that the farmers could not be arrested and imprisoned if they were unable to pay their debts.
  • Surat is one of the important cities under British rule in the Bombay Presidency.
  • In Surat, the revolt against the salt tax in 1844 takes place.
  • It was one of the first resistances that the British faced in the state.
  • In August 1844, the British government raised excise and import duties on salt from 50 paise to 1 rupee within territories of Bombay state.
  • The sudden and bizarre increase revolted against the British from August 21 to 31 before the British administration was forced to revoke it.

Question 105

In order to control the media in India, 'Acts' were passed in?

  1. AOption (a)

    1835, 1867, 1878, 1908

  2. BOption (b)

    1854, 1864, 1872, 1910

  3. COption (c)

    1854, 1872, 1908, 1910

  4. DOption (d)

    1867, 1908, 1910, 1919

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1835, 1867, 1878, 1908

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1835, 1867, 1878, 1908.

Key Points

  • James Augustus Hickey in 1780 started The Bengal Gazette or Calcutta General Advertiser, the first newspaper in India.
  • Other newspapers such as The India Gazette, The Calcutta Gazette, The Madras Courier (1785), and The Bombay Herald (1789) soon followed.
  • Press Act, 1835 was enacted by Lord Metcalfe.
  • Lord Metcalfe is also known as the Liberator of the Indian Press as he ceased the earlier restrictions which were imposed by the Licensing Regulations Act,1823.
  • Registration Act, 1867 replaced Metcalfe’s Act of 1835 (Press Act, 1835) and was of a regulatory, not restrictive, nature.
  • As per the Act, Registration Act, 1867:-
  • ​Every book/newspaper was required to print the name of the printer and the publisher and the place of the publication.
  • A copy was to be submitted to the local government within one month of the publication of a book.
  • Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was designed to ‘better control’ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing.
  • Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was enacted to control the vernacular press and to punish the critical writings of the newspapers.
  • Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act,1908 was passed by Lord Curzon to repress the activities of the Extremist nationalist.
  • This Act gave the power to the District Magistrate to confiscate the press property if it publishes any objectionable material against the policies of the government.
  • Appeal against the confiscation of the property can be done in High Court within 15 days.

Important Points

  • The Bombay Samachar, founded in 1822 and printed in Gujarati is the oldest newspaper in Asia still in print.
  • On 30 May 1826 Udant Martand, the first Hindi-language newspaper published in India, started from Calcutta (now Kolkata), published every Tuesday by Pt. Jugal Kishore Shukla.

Question 106

The process of split in the Congress in the early years of the twentieth century began over?

  1. AOption (a)

    Strategies of the Congress Movement

  2. BOption (b)

    Objectives of the Congress Movement

  3. COption (c)

    Participation of the people in the Congress Movement

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

  • The process of the split in the Congress in the early years of the twentieth century began over the Strategies of the Congress Movement.
  • Objectives of the Congress and Participation of the people in the Congress Movement.
  • Surat Split is mainly known for the separation of Congress party men into moderates and extremists at the Surat Session of Congress on 26th December 1907.
  • The extremists were led by Lokmanya Tilak, Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal.
  • The moderates were led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Feroze Shah Mehta, and Surendranath Bannerjee.
  • The divided Congress reunited in the crucial Lucknow session of Congress in 1916, with Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Question 107

'New Lamps for Old' was a series of articles (1893-94) that criticized the Congress for being out of touch with the 'proletariat'. Who was the author of these articles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aurobindo Ghose

  2. BOption (b)

    A.O.Hume

  3. COption (c)

    G.K.Gokhale

  4. DOption (d)

    B.G.Tilak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Aurobindo Ghose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Aurobindo Ghose.

Key Points

  • "New Lamps for Old" was written by Shri Aurobindo Ghose and published in 1893.
  • He was a philosopher, yogi, guru, poet, and nationalist of India.
  • He criticized Moderate politics through a series of articles.
  • From 1902 to 1910 Aurobindo took part in the struggle to free India from the British Raj (rule).
  • As a result of his political activities, he was imprisoned in 1908.
  • In Pondichéry he founded a community of spiritual seekers, which took shape as the Sri Aurobindo Ashram in 1926.
  • The evolutionary philosophy underlying Aurobindo’s integral yoga is explored in his main prose work, The Life Divine (1939).
  • His major works include Essays on the Gita (1922), Collected Poems and Plays (1942), The Synthesis of Yoga (1948), The Human Cycle (1949), The Ideal of Human Unity (1949), Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol (1950), and On the Veda (1956).

Additional Information

  • A.O. Hume was a political figure and administrator.
  • He was also an enthusiastic bird watcher and one of the pioneers of birding in India.
  • He was an ornithologist and wrote many volumes about his experiences in List of Birds in India.
  • He also authored Agricultural Reform in India, among his many works, apart from writing poetry.
  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an Indian social reformer, educator, politician, president of the Indian National Congress, and Mahatma Gandhi's political guru.
  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale was one of the wisest moderate leaders of the Indian National Congress.
  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale propagated the idea of self-rule in India and became the voice of Indians who wanted freedom from British rule.
  • In 1905, he was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress.
  • He established the 'Servants of India Society" in 1905 with the aim of providing training to the people to devote themselves to the service of India as national missionaries.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an Indian scholar, mathematician, philosopher, and ardent nationalist.
  • He worked to lay the foundation for India’s independence by building his own defiance of British rule into a national movement.
  • He founded the Indian Home Rule League in 1914 and served as president of it.
  • In 1916 he concluded the Lucknow Pact with Mohammed Ali Jinnah, which provided for Hindu-Muslim unity in the nationalist struggle.

Question 108

Fill in the blanks :

The Nehru Report was drafted by a committee headed by_______ and the subject was_______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Motilal Nehru and Jawaharlal Nehru; India's relationship with the British Empire

  2. BOption (b)

    Jawaharlal Nehru; Local Self-Government in India

  3. COption (c)

    Motilal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India

  4. DOption (d)

    Jawaharlal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Motilal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Motilal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India.

Key Points

  • When the Simon Commission came to India in 1928, it was vehemently opposed by Indians especially by the Congress Party for the lack of a single Indian in the Commission then the Secretary of State for India, Lord Birkenhead challenged the Indian leaders to draft a constitution for India, implicitly implying that Indians were not capable of finding a common path and drafting a constitution.
  • The Motilal Nehru Committee appointed by the All-Parties' conference to consider and determine the principles of the Constitution for India and to frame a Constitution providing for the establishment of a Full Responsible Government, considered also the aspects of fundamental rights and language use in India.
  • Other members of the committee were Ali Imam, Tej Bahadur Sapru, Mangal Singh, M S Aney, Subhas Chandra Bose, Shuaib Qureshi, and G R Pradhan.
  • The draft constitution prepared by the committee was called the Nehru Committee Report or Nehru Report.
  • The report was submitted at the Lucknow session of the all-party conference on 28 August 1928.
  • This was the first major attempt by Indians to draft a constitution for them.
  • Under the draft, the language of the country would be Indian, written either in Devanagari (Sanskrit/Hindi), Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Bengali, Marathi, or Gujarati in character, and usage of English to be permitted were demanded.

Question 109

What was the common relationship between Katherine Mayo, Aldous Huxley, Charles Andrews and William Digby?

  1. AOption (a)

    They wrote commentaries on the condition of India during British rule.

  2. BOption (b)

    They were supporters of the Indian National Movement.

  3. COption (c)

    They were opponents of the Indian National Movement.

  4. DOption (d)

    They were friends of Mahatma Gandhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They wrote commentaries on the condition of India during British rule.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They wrote commentaries on the condition of India during British rule.

Key Points

  • The common relationship between Katherine Mayo, Aldous Huxley, William Digby, and Charles Andrews is that they wrote commentaries on the condition of India during British rule.

Important Points

  • Katherine Mayo was an American researcher and historian known for her polemical book Mother India (1927).
  • Mother India: a polemical attack against Indian self-rule written by U.S. historian Katherine Mayo, was met with a storm of controversy when it was published in 1927.
  • Aldous Huxley was an English writer and philosopher.
  • He was an English novelist and critic gifted with an acute and far-ranging intelligence whose works are notable for their wit and pessimistic satire.
  • He remains best known for one novel, Brave New World (1932), a model for much dystopian science fiction.
  • Charles Andrews was a social reformer in India.
  • He was also one of the best friends of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • Gandhi Ji called him named him Deenabandhu, or "Friend of the Poor".
  • Charles Freer Andrew's experiences in India led him to advocate for Indian independence and for the rights of Indian laborers around the world.
  • William Digby was a British author and journalist.
  • William Digby was based in India during the British raj and witnessed several famines that devastated India, including a disastrous famine in Madras in the mid-1870s.
  • He blamed British policies for fueling and exacerbating the famines, agitating for humanitarian aid from Europe to India.

Question 110

Who pennned the following lines "Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab ahamare dil me hai/dekhna hai zor kitna baju-e-qatil me hai"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bismil

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajguru

  3. COption (c)

    Bhagat Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Azad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bismil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bismil.

Key Points

  • Bismil Azimabadi was an Urdu poet from Patna, Bihar.
  • In 1921 he wrote the patriotic poem 'Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna'.
  • The poem was immortalized by Ram Prasad Bismil, an Indian freedom fighter, as a war cry during the British Raj period in India.
  • The poem was written as an ode to young freedom fighters of the Indian independence movement.
  • It has also been associated with the younger generation of inter-war freedom fighters such as Ashfaqullah Khan, Shaheed Bhagat Singh, and Chandrashekhar Azad.

Additional Information

  • Bhagat Singh uses a powerful slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' which became the slogan of India's armed struggle.
  • 'Inquilab Zindabad' meaning “Long Live Revolution”, was coined by Moulana Hasrat Mohani in the year 1921.
  • Some of the famous quotes of Bhagat Singh are:-
  • They may kill me, but they cannot kill my ideas. They can crush my body, but they will not be able to crush my spirit.
  • Revolution is an inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is an imperishable birthright of all
  • The slogan “Ab bhi jiska khoon nahi khaula khoon nahi vo paani hai, jo desh ke kaam na aaye vo bekaar jawani hai” gave by the Chandra Shekhar Azad.
  • Chandra Shekhar Azad popularly known by his self-taken name Azad pledged to liberate the country from the grasp of the British.
  • He was associated with the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) under its new name of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
  • Shivaram Rajguru popularly known as Rajguru was a great Indian freedom fighter who played a major role in India’s struggle for Independence.
  • He was the close associate of Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Azad.
  • On March 23, 1931, the three brave revolutionaries Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were hanged, on the charge of murder of Deputy Superintendent of Police, J.P. Saunders of Lahore.
  • The protest against the Simon Commission in October 1928 saw the British police lathi-charge the protestors, severely injuring veteran leader Lala Lajpat Rai.
  • Owing to the excessive beating, Lala succumbed to his injuries, which thus instilled revenge in the hearts of the revolutionaries.
  • On December 18, 1928, in Ferozepur, Lahore, a planned retaliation was enforced that led to the assassination of Deputy Superintendent of Police, J.P. Saunders.

Question 111

Who raised the demand of 'Complete Independence' for the first time in 1921?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maulana Muhammad Ali

  2. BOption (b)

    Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. COption (c)

    Mahatama Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Maulana Hasrat Mohani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maulana Hasrat Mohani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maulana Hasrat Mohani.

Key Points

  • Maulana Hasrat Mohani was the first congress activist to demand complete independence (Poorna Swaraj) from the British in the Ahmedabad session of congress in 1921.
  • Mohani was a noted poet of the Urdu language.
  • Famous works of Mohani are Kulliyat-e-Hasrat Mohani, Nukaat-e-Sukhan, Mushahidaat-e-Zindaan, etc.
  • The Purna Swaraj declaration was promulgated by the Indian National Congress on 19 December 1929 in its Lahore session under the presidentship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • The declaration was passed due to the breakdown of negotiations between leaders of the freedom movement and the British over the question of dominion status for India.
  • In the Calcutta Session of Congress in 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji had placed Swaraj as a national demand.
  • It was the first time that the demand for self-government or swaraj, like that of the UK and other colonies, was raised from the platform of the Congress.

Additional Information

  • Muhammad Ali Jauhar is also known as Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar.
  • He was an Indian Muslim activist, journalist, and poet.
  • He was among the leading figures of the Khilafat Movement.
  • He was an Alumni of the Aligarh Movement.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the first prime minister of independent India (1947–64), who established parliamentary government and became noted for his neutralist (nonaligned) policies in foreign affairs.
  • He was also one of the principal leaders of India’s independence movement.

Question 112

Identify the years those are closest to the founding of the Communist Party of India and The RSS respectively?

  1. AOption (a)

    1915, 1914

  2. BOption (b)

    1925, 1925

  3. COption (c)

    1928, 1925

  4. DOption (d)

    1925, 1929

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1925, 1925

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1925, 1925.

Key Points

  • Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) is also called Rashtriya Seva Sangh.
  • RSS is an organization founded in 1925 by Keshav Baliram Hedgewar (1889–1940).
  • Hedgewar formed the RSS as a disciplined cadre consisting mostly of upper-caste Brahmins who were dedicated to independence and the protection of Hindu political, cultural, and religious interests.
  • The RSS has historically played a major role in the Hindu nationalist movement.
  • On several occasions, it has been banned by the Indian government, led by the Congress Party, for its alleged role in communal violence.
  • Some of the major political leaders of India’s Bharatiya Janata Party were or still are members of the RSS.
  • Communist Party of India (CPI) is a national political party in India whose headquarters are in New Delhi.
  • According to the CPI’s official history, the party was founded in late 1925 in Kanpur (now in Uttar Pradesh state).
  • Manabendra Nath Roy Popularly Known as M. N. Roy (who would become the party’s first leader), Abani Mukherji, and Roy’s wife Evelyn was the founder of a communist party in India.
  • The CPI’s initial objectives combined militant anti-imperialist patriotism with internationalism to create a movement parallel to the non-violent civil disobedience (satyagraha) campaigns led by Mohandas K. Gandhi and the Indian National Congress (Congress Party).
  • At that time, however, the British colonial administration had imposed a general ban on communist activities and took a number of measures against the party, including imprisoning its leaders in 1929.
  • The CPI thus remained organizationally weak and constrained to operate clandestinely until the party was legalized in 1942.
  • In the late 1970s, the CPI started aligning itself with the CPI(M) and other leftist parties to create the Left Front coalition, which formed governments in the states of West Bengal, Tripura, and, intermittently, Kerala.

Important Points

  • Keshav Baliram Hedgewar was a physician living in the Maharashtra region of India, as part of the movement against British rule and as a response to rioting between Hindus and Muslims.
  • Hedgewar was heavily influenced by the writings of the Hindu nationalist ideologue Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and adopted much of his rhetoric concerning the need for the creation of a “Hindu nation”.

Question 113

Swami Sahajananda Saraswati formed the All India United Kisan Sabha with the demand for the 'nationalization of land and waterways'

  1. AOption (a)

    Just before his death

  2. BOption (b)

    At a very Young age

  3. COption (c)

    In the 1930s

  4. DOption (d)

    In the 1920s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

In the 1930s

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is In the 1930s.

Key Points

  • A peasants organization All India United Kisan Sabha (AIUKS) was founded around the late 1930s by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
  • Sahajanand Saraswati formed a smaller Kisan Sabha in the Patna district in association with a formal organizational structure.
  • Later in 1929, he established the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS).
  • With this Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha, he emerged as the foremost Kisan leader in India.
  • AIUKS demanded comprehensive agrarian reform, redistribution of lands to poor peasants, and the nationalization of waterways, lands, and 'all sources of energy and wealth'.

Additional Information

  • The All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) was formed with some Congress Socialists at the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress on 11 April 1936.
  • Sahajanand was elected as its first President. With the formation of the All India Kisan Sabha, the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha became one of its provincial units.
  • The Sabha demanded the abolition of the zamindari system and the cancellation of rural debts. Thereafter, in October 1937, it adopted the red flag as its banner.
  • Sahajanand organized the Anti-Compromise Conference with Subhas Chandra Bose against the British and Congress.
  • He even worked with the Communist Party of India during World War II.
  • Bihar Kishan Sabha was formed in 1933.
  • The Bihar Kishan Sabha was mainly responsible for the rural base of congress in Bihar.
1922- For the first time, Kishan Sabha was organized by Mohammad Zubair and Sri Krishna Singh in Munger.
1929- Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) was formed by Swami Shahjanand Saraswati at Sonepur.
1936- All India Kisan Sabha was formed at Lucknow. - NG Ranga was secretary of All India Kisan Sabha - Swami Shahjanand Saraswati was appointed as its President. - Under Rajendra Prasad, a committee was set up to study the conditions of farmers.

Question 114

Fill in the blank:

In ________, the rights of the tenants on land in Bengal and Bihar were given by the Bengal Tenancy Act.

  1. AOption (a)

    1885

  2. BOption (b)

    1886

  3. COption (c)

    1889

  4. DOption (d)

    1900

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1885

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1885.

Key Points

  • 1885, the rights of the tenants on land in Bengal and Bihar were given by the Bengal Tenancy Act.
  • The Bengal Tenancy Act, 1885 was an enactment of the Bengal government that defined the rights of zamindars and their tenants in response to a widespread peasant revolt.
  • In 1822, Lord Hastings passed the Bengal Tenancy Act.
  • Lord Hastings or Lord Moira {Earl of Moira} served as Governor-General of India from 1813 to 1823, a long ten years term.
  • The Model Tenancy Act aims to bridge the trust deficit between tenants and landlords by clearly delineating the obligations of tenants and landlords.
  • To ensure speedy redressal of disputes, it proposes to establish Rent Courts and Rent Tribunals to hear appeals for matters connected to rental housing.

Question 115

Which Round Table Conference held in 1932?

  1. AOption (a)

    First

  2. BOption (b)

    Second

  3. COption (c)

    Third 

  4. DOption (d)

    Fourth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Third 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Third.

Key Points

  • The third Round Table Conference took place between 17 November 1932 and 24 December 1932.
  • The Round Table Conferences were a series of three conferences conducted by the Labour Party-led British government to deliberate upon and bring about constitutional reforms in British India during 1930-32. There were three such conferences.

Additional Information

  • The First Round Table Conference started on 12 November 1930 and lasted till 19 January 1931.
  • The conferences were based on the recommendation of Muhammad Ali Jinnah to Lord Irwin, the then Viceroy of India, and James Ramsay MacDonald, the then British Prime Minister, and the Simon Commission report.
  • The majority of the leaders from the Indian National Congress could not participate in this conference due to Gandhi’s Civil Disobedience movement.
  • It was for the first time that the Indians and the British were meeting as ‘equals’.
  • The British government understood the importance and the need for the Congress Party to make any decision on India’s political future.
  • The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931 with the participation of Gandhi Ji and the Indian National Congress.
  • The major difference between the first and the second conference was that the INC was participating in the second one.
  • This was one of the results of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
  • In this conference, Gandhi Ji and Ambedkar differed on the issue of separate electorates for the untouchables.
  • Gandhi Ji was against treating untouchables as separate from the Hindu community.
  • This issue was resolved through the Poona Pact 1932.
  • The Third Round Table held between 17 November 1932 and 24 December 1932.
  • Indian princely states were represented by princes and divans.
  • British Indians were represented by the Aga Khan.
  • Both Indian National Congress and the Labour Party decided not to attend the conference.
  • The main outcome of the Third Round Table conference was the “White Paper” issued by the Government.
  • On the basis of this paper, the Government of India Act 1935 was to be passed.

Question 116

One of the popular beliefs in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920-22 was that victory would come to them because Gandhi?

  1. AOption (a)

    Was the epitome of Dharma

  2. BOption (b)

    Was an accomplished politician

  3. COption (c)

    Knew the ways to defeat the English

  4. DOption (d)

    Knew English

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Knew the ways to defeat the English

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Knew the ways to defeat the English.

Key Points

  • "Knew the ways to defeat the English" was one of the popular beliefs in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920-22.
  • The non-cooperation movement was started by M.K. Gandhi in the backdrop of the Jalliawalan Bag Massacre, Khilafat Movement, and the Rowlatt Act.
  • In August 1920, the Bihar Congress meets under the presidentship of Dr. Rajendra Prasad and passed the Non-Cooperation resolution which was introduced by Dharnidhar Prasad and Shah Mohammad Zubair.

Important Points

  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad constituted the committee on the movement with Shah Mohammad Zubair and Mazhar-ul-Haq.
  • M.K. Gandhi inaugurated ‘Bihar National College’ and its building ‘Bihar Vidhyapeeth’ in February 1922.
  • Mazhar-ul-Haq started the newspaper i.e. Motherland in September 1921 to disseminate the Hindu-Muslim Unity and Gandhian Ideology.

Question 117

Who among the following was/were peasant leaders(s) from Bihar?

I. Swami Vivekananda

II. Swami Sahajananda

III. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

Choose the correct option from the following.

  1. AOption (a)

    I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    II and III

  3. COption (c)

    I and III

  4. DOption (d)

    II only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

II only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is II only.

Key Points

  • Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was a peasant leader from Bihar.
  • He was a versatile genius performing several roles during his entire working career, such as linguist, polymath, sociologist, historian, philosopher, writer, grammarian, ascetic, revolutionary, Marxist, and politician.
  • Swami Sahajanand formed a smaller Kisan Sabha in the Patna district in association with a formal organizational structure.
  • Later in 1929, he established the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS).
  • All India Kisan Sabha was formed at Lucknow. Swami Shahjanand Saraswati was appointed as its President.

Additional Information

  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was born in Nadiad District Kheda and raised in the countryside of the state of Gujarat.
  • He was the Indian barrister, politician, and one of the leading figures of the country during the Indian freedom movement.
  • During the first three years of Indian independence after 1947, he served as Deputy Prime Minister, Home Minister, Minister of Information, and Minister of State.
  • He led the Congress Party in the 1937 elections and was a major contender for the post of Congress President for 1937 but due to Gandhi's pressure, Patel withdrew his nomination and Jawaharlal Nehru was elected as the Congress President.
  • Swami Vivekananda was a spiritual leader and reformer in India and was born into an upper-middle-class family of the Kayastha (scribes) caste in Bengal.
  • He joined the Brahmo Samaj (Society of Brahma), dedicated to eliminating child marriage and illiteracy and determined to spread education among women and the lower castes.
  • He later became the most notable disciple of Ramakrishna, who demonstrated the essential unity of all religions.
  • Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission at the monastery of Belur Math on the Ganges (Ganga) River near Calcutta (now Kolkata).
  • He adapted and made relevant to the 20th century the very highest ideals of the Vedantic religion.

Question 118

In which area was Rahul Sankrityayan active in the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chhapra

  2. BOption (b)

    Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Lucknow

  4. DOption (d)

    Patna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chhapra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chhapra.

Key Points

  • Rahul Sankrityayan was active in the Chhapra district of Bihar in the Non-cooperation Movement of 1920.
  • His original name was Kedar Nath Pandey.
  • Local leaders like Rahul Sankrityayan and Nagnarayan spread the message of Non-cooperation in Chhapra, Bihar.
  • Mahapandit Rahul Sankrityayan who is also called the Father of Hindi Travel literature was one of the most widely traveled scholars of India.
  • He spent forty-five years of his life on travels away from his home.
  • He became a Buddhist monk and eventually took up Marxist Socialism.
  • He was also an Indian Nationalist, having been arrested and jailed for six months for creating Anti-British writings and speeches.

Additional Information

  • In 1920–22, the Non-cooperation movement organized by Mahatma Gandhi, induce the British government of India to grant self-government, or swaraj, to India.
  • It was one of Gandhi Ji's first organized acts of large-scale civil disobedience (satyagraha).
  • The movement arose from the widespread outcry in India over the massacre at Amritsar in April 1919, when the British-led troops killed several hundred Indians.
  • Gandhi strengthened the movement by supporting (on nonviolent terms) the contemporaneous Muslim campaign against the dismemberment of the Ottoman Empire after World War I.

Question 119

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon, and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men and Money.

  2. BOption (b)

    In, 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon, and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men but not with Money.

  3. COption (c)

    In, 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon, and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with money but not with men.

  4. DOption (d)

    In, 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon, and Hatwa and their fellow landlords opposed the English.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon, and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men and Money.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon, and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men and Money.

Key Points

  • The revolt at Danapur Cantt marked the widespread beginning of the revolt in Bihar on 25 July 1857 but the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumrao, and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the British with man-power and money in crushing the revolt.
  • Maharaja of Darbhanga: Provided significant support to the British by contributing both men and financial resources, reinforcing British authority in the region during the 1857 revolt.
  • Maharaja of Dumraon: Assisted the British with troops and monetary aid, playing a crucial role in maintaining British control and stability.
  • Maharaja of Hatwa: Supported the British by supplying men and money, helping to suppress the rebellion in their area.
  • Collective Effort: The Maharajas and landlords collectively used their influence and resources to aid the British, ensuring the suppression of the 1857 uprising and reinforcing British dominance in their regions.

Additional Information

  • The Patna uprising of Pir Ali was the first major incident in Bihar during the revolt of 1857.
  • Pir Ali was a bookseller at Patna.
  • On 3 July 1857, Pir Ali and his associates killed Dr. Lyell, the Opium agent of Britishers at Patna.
  • Pir Ali was hanged on 7 July 1857 on the charge of the murder of Dr. Lyell.
  • After the Patna uprising on 25 July, 1857 soldiers at the Danapur cantonment mutinied.
  • Three regiments of Danapur soldiers met Kunwar Singh on 26 July and organized widespread revolt in Bihar under his leadership.
  • The revolt by Kunwar Singh:-
  • He was a local zamindar of Jagdishpur in Arrah, Bihar.
  • At the age of 80, he led a select band of Armed soldiers against the troops under the command of the British East India Company.
  • He was the chief organizer of the fight against the British in Bihar.
  • He is popularly known as Babu Veer Kunwar Singh.
  • He used the Gorilla warfare technique.
  • In his last battle, fought on 23 April 1858 near Jagdishpur the troops under the control of the East India Company were completely routed.
  • On 22 and 23 April, being injured he fought Bravely against the British Army, and with the help of his army drove away from the British Army.
  • Brought down the union jack from Jagdishpur fort and hoisted his Flag. He returned to his palace on 23 April 1858 and soon died on 26 April 1858.

Important Points

  • Causes of Revolt of 1857:
  • Heavy taxation
  • The ruin of the Indian Industry
  • Policies like Subsidiary Alliance and the Doctrine of Laps
  • Enfield Rifle containing Grease cartridge made of pig and cow fat which heart the religious sentiments of both Hindus and Muslims soldiers of British.
  • Lord Canning was Governor-General during the Revolt of 1857.
  • Centers of Revolt and Their leaders:
PlaceLeader
DelhiBahadur Shah and General Bakht Khan
KanpurNana Sahi, Tantya Tope and Azimullah Khan
JhansiRani Lakshmi Bai
LucknowBegum Hazrat Mahal
FaizabadMaulvi Ahmadullah
BareillyKhan Bahadur Khan
BarrackporeMangal Pandey
ArrahKunwar Singh

Question 120

Who highlighted the Plight of the peasants of Champaran by Writing under pseudonyms like 'Dukhi', 'Dukhi Atma', 'Dukhi Hridaya'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Peer Muhammad Moonis

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajendra Prasad

  3. COption (c)

    Sahajananda Saraswati

  4. DOption (d)

    S.N. Sinha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Peer Muhammad Moonis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Peer Muhammad Moonis.

Key Points

  • Peer Mohammad Munis was one of the founders of the Bihar Hindi Sahitya Sammelan which was founded in Sonepur in 1919.
  • He highlighted the plinth of the peasants of Champaran by writing under pseudonyms like ‘Dukhi’, ‘Dukhi Atma’, and ‘Dukhi Hridya’.
  • The Champaran Satyagraha was the combination of elements of extra-constitutional struggle as well as the employment of moral force against an adversary, an exemplar of the rule of law; and the use of compromise as a gambit.
  • It is marked as India’s First Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in the Champaran district of Bihar.

Question 121

Let f :R→ R be defined by f(x) = x2 - 3x + 2. Then the value of f(f(5)) is

  1. AOption (a)

    90

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    110

  4. DOption (d)

    80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

110

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Let f :R→ R be defined by f(x) = x2 - 3x + 2.

Calculation:

f(f(5)) = f(x2 - 3x + 2)

⇒ (52 - 3 × 5 + 2)2 - 3(52 - 3 × 5 + 2) + 2

⇒ 144 - 36 + 2

⇒ 110

∴ The value of f(f(5)) is 110.

Question 122

If 2nC3 : nC2 = 12 : 1, then the value of n is ?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

If 2nC3 : nC2 = 12 : 1

Formula used :

nCr = n!/r!(n - r)!

Calculation:

If 2nC3 : nC2 = 12 : 1      ----(1)

Using the formula

2nC2 = {2n!/3! (2n - 3)!}

⇒ 2n(2n - 1)(2n - 2)(2n - 3)!/(2n - 3)! × 3 × 2

⇒ n(2n - 1)2(n - 1)/3      ----(2)

nC2 = {n!/2! (n - 2)!

⇒ n(n - 1)(n - 2)!/(n - 2)! × 2

⇒ n(n - 1)/2      ----(3)

Putting equation 2 and 3 in equation 1

⇒ {n(2n - 1)2(n - 1)/3}/{n(n - 1)/2} = 12/1

⇒ 2n - 1 = 9

⇒ 2n = 10 

⇒ n = 5

∴ The value of n is 5.

Question 123

The variance of 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 is

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The variance of 7, 7, 7, 7, 7

Formula used:

Variance = summation (x - x̅ )2/number of observation

Calculation: 

According to the question,

Mean = (7 + 7 + 7 + 7 + 7)/2

⇒ x̅  = 35/5 = 7

All observation are same then summation (x - x̅ )2  = 0

Variance = 0/5

⇒ 0

∴ The variance of 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 is 0.

Question 124

Given, log 2 = 0.30103. Then log 5 is

  1. AOption (a)

    0.2301

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5302

  3. COption (c)

    0.720

  4. DOption (d)

    0.6987

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.6987

Why this answer is correct

Given:

log 2 = 0.30103.

Formula used: 

log(a/b) = log (a) - log (b)

Calculation:

log 2 = 0.30103.

According to the question,

⇒ log 5 = log(10/2)

⇒ log (10/2) = log 10 - log 2

⇒ 1 - 0.30103 

⇒ 0.6987

∴ The value of log 5 is 0.6987.

Question 125

The solution of the equation 2x + 10 ≥ 0 is given by

  1. AOption (a)

    x ≥ - 8

  2. BOption (b)

    x ≥ - 5

  3. COption (c)

    x ≥ - 9

  4. DOption (d)

    x ≥ - 10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

x ≥ - 5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The solution of the equation 2x + 10 ≥ 0

Calculation:

According to the question,

2x + 10 ≥ 0

⇒ 2x ≥ - 10

⇒ x ≥ - 5

∴ The solution of the equation 2x + 10 ≥ 0 is x ≥ - 5.

Question 126

The series 12+56+76...\frac{1}{2} + \frac{5}{6} + \frac{7}{6} ... is

  1. AOption (a)

    Arithmetic series

  2. BOption (b)

    Geometric series

  3. COption (c)

    Harmonic series

  4. DOption (d)

    Exponential series

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Arithmetic series

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The series 12+56+76...\frac{1}{2} + \frac{5}{6} + \frac{7}{6} ... 

Calculation:

According to the question,

Second term - first term 

⇒ 5/6 - 1/2 = (5 - 3)/6 = 2/6

⇒ 1/3

Third term - second term

⇒ 7/6 - 5/6 = 2/6 

⇒ 1/3

In this series common difference is same

Then this series is Arithmetic series.

Question 127

A triangle has vertices (1, 6), (3, 0) and (-3, -7). Its area in square units is ?

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A triangle has vertices (1, 6), (3, 0) and (-3, -7).

Formula used:

Area of triangle = (1/2) | (x1(y2 - y3) + x2(y3 - y1) + x3(y1 - y2)) |

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ (1/2) | (1(0 - (- 7)) + 3(- 7 - 6) + (- 3)(6 - 0)) |

⇒ (1/2) |(7 - 39 - 18) |

⇒ (1/2)× |- 50|

⇒ 25

∴ Its area in square units is 25.

Question 128

The angle between two lines 3x + y - 7 = 0 and x + 2y + 9 = 0 will be

  1. AOption (a)

    60° 

  2. BOption (b)

    45° 

  3. COption (c)

    30°

  4. DOption (d)

    90°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

45° 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The angle between two lines 3x + y - 7 = 0 and x + 2y + 9 = 0 

Formula used:

Tanθ = (m2 - m1)/(1 + m1m2)

y1 = m1x + c  &  y2 = m2x + c

Calculation:

According to the question,

3x + y - 7 = 0

⇒ y = - 3x + 7

⇒ m1 = -3

x + 2y + 9 = 0

⇒ y = -x/2 - 9/2

⇒ m2 = - 1/2

Tanθ = (m2 - m1)/(1 + m1m2)

⇒ (-1/2 - (-3))/(1 + (-3)(-1/2))

⇒  (5/2) / (5/2) = 1

⇒ Tanθ = 1

⇒ θ = 45o

∴ The angle between two lines 3x + y - 7 = 0 and x + 2y + 9 = 0 will be 45o.

Question 129

If tan 60o = √3, then the value of sec 60o is

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

If tan 60o = √3

Concept used:

Calculation:

tan 60o = √3

According to the chart 

sec 60o = 2 

∴ The value of sec 60o is 2.

Question 130

A circle has area 154 square units. Its diameters have equations 2x - 3y + 12 = 0 and x + 4y - 5 = 0. Then the radius of the circle is?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 units

  2. BOption (b)

    7 units

  3. COption (c)

    6 units

  4. DOption (d)

    5 units

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7 units

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A circle has area 154 square units.

Formula used:

Area of circle = π × r × r

Radius = r

Calculation:

According to the question,

Area of circle = π × r × r

⇒ (22/7)× r2 = 154

⇒ r = √49

⇒ r = 7 unit

∴ The radius of the circle is 7 units. 

Its diameters have equations 2x - 3y + 12 = 0 and x + 4y - 5 = 0.

Question 131

Cloves are obtained from which of the following parts of the plant?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dried leaves

  2. BOption (b)

    Dried stems

  3. COption (c)

    Dried seeds

  4. DOption (d)

    Dried flower buds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dried flower buds

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dried flower buds.

Key Points 

  • Cloves are obtained from Dried flower buds.
  • Cloves:
  • Cloves are aromatic dried flower buds of a tree.
  • Cloves are native to Indonesia and used as a spice in cuisines all over the world.
  • Cloves are now harvested primarily in Indonesia, Madagascar, Zanzibar, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
  • They are also grown in India under the name Lavang.
  • The aroma and antioxidant property of Clove is due to the presence of eugenol.
  • Medicinal Property of Clove is as follows:-
  • Clove can act as an antimicrobial agent, killing parasites and bacteria in the digestive tract.
  • Clove has analgesic properties.
  • It can help to relieve excessive gas bloating.

Additional Information

  • Dried leaves:
  • They also make a good addition to your compost pile.
  • Leaves are difficult to compost alone and will require extra nitrogen in the form of commercial fertilizer (any good manure can be added to the leaves), or materials high in nitrogen such as grass clippings.
  • Leaves prone to diseases like those of the apple scab, anthracnose, or those infected with leaf spots should be removed or destroyed to prevent over-wintering of the disease organisms in the debris and possible re-infection of new leaves.
  • Dried stems:
  • The underground dried stems lack green color because of their geophilous nature.
  • They can be identified as stems because of the presence of nodes, internodes, scale leaves, buds, and branches.
  • Dried seeds:
  • Dried seeds are just fresh seeds with the water removed.
  • Dehydration causes some nutrients to become more concentrated.
  • Dry seeds are a good source of various nutrients and contain a lot of medical properties.

Question 132

Oncogenes are associated with?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tuberculosis

  2. BOption (b)

    Hepatitis

  3. COption (c)

    Cancer

  4. DOption (d)

    Typhoid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cancer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cancer.

Key Points

  • Oncogenes are associated with Cancer.
  • Oncogenes are the genes causing cancer.
  • Carcinogens are the chemical causing cancer.
  • Oncogenic viruses are the viruses that cause cancer.
  • Human papillomavirus, Epstein-Barr virus, and hepatitis B virus are a few oncogenic viruses.
  • Such viruses have the ability to induce tumours in the animals they infect.
  • When these viruses infect cultured cells, they cause transformation.

Additional Information

  • Tuberculosis:
  • India is committed to eliminating tuberculosis from the country by 2025, five years ahead of the global target by the World Health Organisation (WHO) i.e. 2030.
  • To align with the ambitious goal, the programme has been renamed from the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP) to National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP).
  • Hepatitis:
  • It is caused by a virus.
  • The word hepatitis refers to any inflammation of the liver — the irritation or swelling of the liver cells from any cause.
  • It can be acute (inflammation of the liver that presents with sickness — jaundice, fever, vomiting) or chronic.
  • Typhoid:
  • Typhoid is an infectious bacterial disease that mainly spreads through contaminated food or water.
  • It is a serious disease spread through contaminated food and water causing high fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
  • It can also spread due to poor hygienic conditions.
  • The major symptoms of this disease are characterized by high fever, loss of appetite and diarrhoea.
  • Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi bacteria.
  • In the Typhoid Widal test, a type of blood test is done to Identifies antibodies against Salmonella antigens.

Question 133

Which is the most reactive metal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium

  3. COption (c)

    Iron

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Potassium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potassium.

  • Metals in decreasing order of their reactivity are - Potassium, Sodium, Lithium, Barium, Strontium, and Calcium.

Key Points

  • Reactivity Series:
  • The reactivity series of metals, also known as the activity series, refers to the arrangement of metals in the descending order of their reactivities.
  • The metals at the top of the reactivity series are powerful reducing agents since they are easily oxidized.
  • These metals tarnish/corrode very easily.
  • The reducing ability of the metals grows weaker while traversing down the series.
  • The electro positivity of the elements also reduces while moving down the reactivity series of metals.
  • All metals that are found above hydrogen in the activity series liberate H2 gas upon reacting with dilute HCl or dilute H2SO4.

Additional Information

  • Sodium:
  • Sodium is a chemical element with the symbol "Na" and the atomic number is 11.
  • It is a soft, silvery-white, highly reactive metal.
  • Sodium is an alkali metal, being in group 1 of the periodic table.
  • Calcium:
  • Calcium is a mineral that is necessary for life.
  • The symbol of Calcium is "Ca" and its atomic number is 20
  • In addition to building bones and keeping them healthy, calcium enables our blood to clot, our muscles to contract, and our heart to beat.
  • About 99% of the calcium in our bodies is in our bones and teeth.
  • Every day, we lose calcium through our skin, nails, hair, sweat, urine, and feces.
  • Our bodies cannot produce their own calcium.
  • Iron:
  • Iron is a chemical element with the symbol "Fe" and atomic number 26.
  • It is a metal that belongs to the first transition series and group 8 of the periodic table.
  • It is, by mass, the most common element on Earth, right in front of oxygen (32.1% and 30.1%, respectively), forming much of Earth's outer and inner core.
  • It is the fourth most common element in the Earth's crust.
  • Potassium:
  • Potassium is a mineral and an electrolyte.
  • It helps your muscles work, including the muscles that control your heartbeat and breathing.
  • Potassium comes from the food you eat.
  • Your body uses the potassium it needs.
  • The extra potassium that your body does not need is removed from your blood by your kidneys.
  • It has an atomic number 19.

Question 134

Who synthesized the DNA in Vitro?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arthur Kornberg

  2. BOption (b)

    Robert Hooke

  3. COption (c)

    Edward Jenner

  4. DOption (d)

    Joseph Lister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Arthur Kornberg

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arthur Kornberg.

Key Points

  • Arthur Kornberg synthesized the DNA in Vitro.
  • The first DNA polymerase is isolated by Arthur Kornberg, in 1959 and he was the first person who synthesized the first DNA molecule in vitro.
  • Arthur Kornberg had won the Nobel Prize in Medicine 1959 for his discovery of "the mechanisms in the biological synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid" together with Dr Severo Ochoa of New York University.

Additional Information

  • DNA:
  • DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the inherited material found in every single living creature.
  • The deoxyribonucleic acid in an individual’s chromosomes controls a variety of visible characteristics and invisible characteristics.
  • Visible characteristics include race, colouring, and sex.
  • An invisible characteristic includes blood groups and susceptibility to inherited diseases.
  • Deoxyribonucleic acid is made up of molecules called nucleotides.
  • Each nucleotide contains a sugar group, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
  • The four types of nitrogen bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). Adenine and thymine are paired by two H bonds, whereas cytosine and guanine are paired by three H bonds.
  • Deoxyribonucleic acid is the same in all of the cells in the body of an individual.

Important Points

  • Discoverers and their discoveries:
  • Robert Hooke - Universal Joint, Balance Wheel, and Diaphragm.
  • Edward Jenner - Smallpox Vaccine.
  • Joseph Lister - Carbolic Acid.

Question 135

What was the fissionable material used in the bombs dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium

  3. COption (c)

    Plutonium

  4. DOption (d)

    Uranium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Plutonium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Plutonium.

Key Points

  • Plutonium was the fissionable material used in the bombs dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945.
  • Plutonium:
  • Plutonium is the second transuranic element with an atomic number of 94 and part of the actinide group of the periodic table.
  • Plutonium is named after planet Pluto similar to its predecessor neptunium named after the planet Neptune.
  • It is an actinide metal with a silvery-grey appearance but when oxidized it forms a dull coating.
  • This element comprises four oxidation states and six allotropes.
  • It reacts with hydrogen and nitrogen.
  • The metal tends to get warm during alpha decay, to such an extent that it is possible to boil water when the element is present in large amounts.

Additional Information

  • Sodium:
  • Sodium (Na), chemical element of the alkali metal group (Group 1 [Ia]) of the periodic table.
  • Sodium is a very soft silvery-white metal.
  • Sodium is the most common alkali metal and the sixth most abundant element on Earth, comprising 2.8% of Earth’s crust.
  • It occurs abundantly in nature in compounds, especially common salt—sodium chloride (NaCl)—which forms the mineral halite and constitutes about 80% of the dissolved constituents of seawater.
  • Potassium:
  • Potassium (K), a chemical element of Group 1 (Ia) of the periodic table, the alkali metal group, indispensable for both plant and animal life.
  • Potassium was the first metal to be isolated by electrolysis, by the English chemist Sir Humphry Davy, when he obtained the element (1807) by decomposing molten potassium hydroxide (KOH) with a voltaic battery.
  • Uranium:
  • Uranium (U), radioactive chemical element of the actinoid series of the periodic table, atomic number 92.
  • It is an important nuclear fuel.
  • Uranium constitutes about two parts per million of Earth’s crust.
  • Some important uranium minerals are pitchblende (impure U3O8), uraninite (UO2), carnotite (a potassium uranium vanadate), autunite (a calcium uranium phosphate), and torbernite (a copper uranium phosphate).
  • These and other recoverable uranium ores, as sources of nuclear fuels, contain many times more energy than all the known recoverable deposits of fossil fuels.
  • One pound of uranium yields as much energy as 1.4 million kilograms (3 million pounds) of coal.

Question 136

The scientist who first discovered that the earth revolves round the sun was?

  1. AOption (a)

    Newton

  2. BOption (b)

    Dalton

  3. COption (c)

    Copernicus

  4. DOption (d)

    Einstein

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Copernicus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Copernicus.

Key Points

  • The scientist who first discovered that the earth revolves around the sun was Copernicus.
  • Earth's Rotational Theory:
  • Rotation can be defined as the spin of Earth on its own axis from west to east direction.
  • This is the reason that the missile launches are done from the eastern coast of the countries so that in case the launch fails, it does not fall into their own country.
  • For example, in India, we have the Sriharikota launch center on the eastern coast of the country.
  • It must also be noted that the speed of rotation of the earth is not constant throughout latitudes.
  • It differs at different latitudes.
  • For instance, at the equator, the rotational velocity is high whereas it keeps on reducing while going towards the poles.

Additional Information

  • Newton:
  • Isaac Newton, in full Sir Isaac Newton, an English physicist, and mathematician, was the culminating figure of the Scientific Revolution of the 17th century.
  • In optics, his discovery of the composition of white light integrated the phenomena of colors into the science of light and laid the foundation for modern physical optics.
  • In mechanics, his three laws of motion, the basic principles of modern physics, resulted in the formulation of the law of universal gravitation. In mathematics.
  • He was the original discoverer of infinitesimal calculus.
  • Newton’s Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica (Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy, 1687) was one of the most important single works in the history of modern science.
  • Dalton:
  • John Dalton, an English meteorologist, and chemist, a pioneer in the development of modern atomic theory.
  • By far Dalton’s most influential work in chemistry was his atomic theory.
  • He based his theory of partial pressures on the idea that only atoms in a mixture of gases repel one another, whereas unlike atoms appear to react indifferently toward each other.
  • This conceptualization explained why each gas in a mixture behaved independently.
  • Einstein:
  • Albert Einstein, a German-born physicist who developed the special and general theories of relativity and won the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1921 for his explanation of the photoelectric effect.
  • Einstein is generally considered the most influential physicist of the 20th century.
  • In November 1915 Einstein finally completed the general theory of relativity.

Question 137

Cosmic rays

  1. AOption (a)

    are charged particles

  2. BOption (b)

    are uncharged particles

  3. COption (c)

    can be charged as well as uncharged

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

are charged particles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is are charged particles.

Key Points

  • Cosmic rays:
  • Cosmic rays are atom fragments that rain down on the Earth from outside of the solar system.
  • Most cosmic rays are atomic nuclei: most are hydrogen nuclei, some are helium nuclei, and the rest are heavier elements.
  • Though cosmic rays were discovered in 1912 but still the origins of the highest energy cosmic rays remains unknown and a topic of much research.
  • Most scientists suspect their origins are related to supernovas (star explosions).
  • Cosmic rays travel at the speed of light and have been blamed for electronics problems in satellites and other machinery.

Additional Information

  • Cosmic ray particles are not directly observed on the surface of Earth.
  • This is because cosmic ray “primaries”—that is, the particles that arrive at the outer edge of Earth’s atmosphere—collide with atmospheric nuclei and give rise to “secondaries.”
  • Some secondaries are fragments of the colliding nuclei, including neutrons, and others are short-lived particles created from the energy of the collisions.
  • Secondary nuclei soon have their own collisions.
  • It is the secondaries (neutrons and short-lived particles such as muons) that are observed at sea level.
  • Primaries must be studied by using either high-altitude balloons or spacecraft.
  • Among the GCRs, the relative abundances of the different nuclei and electrons vary with energy.
  • Above about 1 GeV per nucleon (gigaelectron volts, or one billion electron volts, per nucleon), the proportions are about 85 per cent protons (nuclei of hydrogen atoms), with approximately 13 per cent consisting of alpha particles (helium nuclei).

Question 138

Which of the following elements is found in all organic compounds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxygen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Carbon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbon.

Key Points

  • Carbon is found in all organic compounds.
  • Carbon:
  • The atomic number of carbon is 6 and the atomic mass is 12.01gmol-1.
  • Represented by the symbol C and present in the 14th group of elements in the Periodic Table.
  • According to the data, it is the seventeenth most abundant element found on earth.
  • It is found in both free and in the combined state.

Additional Information

  • Calcium:
  • Calcium with atomic number 20 is represented in the periodic table with the symbol Ca.
  • Calcium (Ca) is a vital element that aids our bones stay tough and capable of supporting our load.
  • Calcium is also used by our nervous system to help transmit impulses through our body.
  • Nitrogen:
  • The seventh element of the periodic table between carbon and oxygen is Nitrogen.
  • It’s an important part of amino acids.
  • Around eighty percent of the Earth’s atmosphere comprises nitrogen gas.
  • It has no color, mostly diatomic non-metal gas along with odorless and colorless in nature.
  • Atomic number- 7
  • Oxygen:
  • Oxygen is regarded as the vital element on Earth.
  • It is the most common element of the human body.
  • Oxygen constitutes about 65% of the mass of the human body and most of this is in the form of water.
  • Oxygen also makes up about 30% of the Earth and 20% of the atmosphere.
  • Atomic number - 8

Question 139

Which of the following can cause cancer as well as cure it depending upon its intensity and use?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tobacco

  2. BOption (b)

    Alcohol

  3. COption (c)

    Ionized radiation

  4. DOption (d)

    Ultraviolet rays

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ionized radiation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ionized radiation.

Key Points

  • Ionizing radiation can cause cancer as well as cure it depending upon its intensity and use.
  • Ionized radiation:-
  • Ionizing radiation is typical energy that is released by atoms that would travel in the form of electromagnetic waves like X- rays and gamma ones or alpha, neutrons, or beta particles.
  • As radioactivity is nothing other than the spontaneous splitting of atoms, ionizing radiation would be the energy excess emitted in its due course.
  • From this activity, radionuclides are formed which are the unstable elements that would split and spread the ionizing radiation.
  • Most radionuclides are easily identified by the radiation type they emit, the energy of radiation, and also the half-life of it.

Additional Information

  • Tobacco:
  • Tobacco is the common name of the plant Nicotiana tabacum and, to a limited extent, Aztec tobacco (N. Rustica) and the cured leaf that is used, usually after aging and processing in various ways, for smoking, chewing, snuffing, and extraction of nicotine.
  • Various other species in the genus Nicotiana are grown as ornamentals, known collectively as flowering tobaccos.
  • This article deals with the farming of commercial tobacco from cultivation to curing and grading.
  • Alcohol:
  • Alcohol is any of a class of organic compounds characterized by one or more hydroxyl (-OH) groups attached to a carbon atom of an alkyl group (hydrocarbon chain).
  • Alcohols may be considered as organic derivatives of water (H2O) in which one of the hydrogen atoms has been replaced by an alkyl group, typically represented by R in organic structures.
  • For example, in ethanol (or ethyl alcohol) the alkyl group is the ethyl group, ―CH2CH3.
  • Ultraviolet rays:
  • Ultraviolet radiation is produced by high-temperature surfaces, such as the Sun, in a continuous spectrum and by atomic excitation in a gaseous discharge tube as a discrete spectrum of wavelengths.
  • Most of the ultraviolet radiation in sunlight is absorbed by oxygen in Earth’s atmosphere, which forms the ozone layer of the lower stratosphere.
  • Of the ultraviolet that does reach Earth’s surface, almost 99 is UVA radiation.

Question 140

The total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is?

  1. AOption (a)

    5-6 liters

  2. BOption (b)

    3-4 liters

  3. COption (c)

    8-10 liters

  4. DOption (d)

    10-12 liters

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5-6 liters

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5-6 litres.

Key Points

  • The total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is 5-6 litres.
  • Blood:
  • Blood is one of the most important components of life.
  • Almost any animal that possesses a circulatory system has blood.
  • From an evolutionary perspective, blood was speculated to have risen from a type of cell that was responsible for phagocytosis and nutrition.
  • Billions of years later, blood and the circulatory system have drastically helped the evolution of more complex lifeforms.
  • There are many cellular structures in the composition of blood.
  • When a sample of blood is spun in a centrifuge machine, they separate into the following constituents: Plasma, buffy coat, and erythrocytes.

Additional Information

  • Blood is a fluid that transports oxygen and nutrients to the cells and carries away carbon dioxide and other waste products.
  • Technically, blood is a transport liquid pumped by the heart (or an equivalent structure) to all parts of the body, after which it is returned to the heart to repeat the process.
  • Blood is both a tissue and a fluid.
  • It is a tissue because it is a collection of similarly specialized cells that serve particular functions.
  • These cells are suspended in a liquid matrix (plasma), which makes the blood fluid.
  • If blood flow ceases, death will occur within minutes because of the effects of an unfavourable environment on highly susceptible cells.

Question 141

Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of

  1. AOption (a)

    Infectious diseases

  2. BOption (b)

    Airborne diseases

  3. COption (c)

    Waterborne diseases

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Waterborne diseases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Waterborne diseases.

Key Points

  • Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of Waterborne diseases.
  • Waterborne diseases:
  • Waterborne diseases are conditions caused by pathogenic microorganisms that are transmitted in water.
  • These diseases can be spread while bathing, washing, drinking water, or eating food exposed to contaminated water.
  • A report by the United Nations says that more than three million people in the world die of water-related diseases due to contaminated water each year, including 1.2 million children.
  • In India, over one lakh people die of water-borne diseases annually.
  • It is reported that groundwater in one-third of India’s 600 districts is not fit for drinking as the concentration of fluoride, iron, salinity, and arsenic exceeds the tolerance levels.

Important Points

  • Typhoid:
  • Typhoid is an infectious bacterial disease that mainly spreads through contaminated food or water.
  • It is a serious disease spread through contaminated food and water causing high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea.
  • It can also spread due to poor hygienic conditions.
  • The major symptoms of this disease are characterized by high fever, loss of appetite, and diarrhoea.
  • Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi bacteria.
  • In the Typhoid Widal test, a type of blood test is done to Identifies antibodies against Salmonella antigens.

Additional Information

  • Infectious diseases:
  • Infectious disease, in medicine, a process caused by an agent, often a type of microorganism, that impairs a person’s health.
  • In many cases, an infectious disease can be spread from person to person, either directly (e.g., via skin contact) or indirectly (e.g., via contaminated food or water).
  • An infectious disease can differ from simple infection, which is the invasion of and replication in the body by any of various agents—including bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, and worms—as well as the reaction of tissues to their presence or to the toxins that they produce.
  • When health is not altered, the process is called subclinical infection.
  • Thus, a person may be infected but not have an infectious disease.
  • Airborne diseases:
  • The airborne disease can spread when people with certain infections cough, sneeze, or talk, spewing nasal and throat secretions into the air.
  • Some viruses or bacteria take flight and hang in the air or land on other people or surfaces.
  • When you breathe in airborne pathogenic organisms, they take up residence inside you.
  • You can also pick up germs when you touch a surface that harbours them, and then touch your own eyes, nose, or mouth.
  • Because these diseases travel in the air, they’re hard to control.

Question 142

Energy is stored in liver and muscles in the form of

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbohydrate

  2. BOption (b)

    Fat

  3. COption (c)

    Protein

  4. DOption (d)

    Glycogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Glycogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Glycogen.

Key Points

  • Energy is stored in the liver and muscles in the form of Glycogen.
  • Glycogen:
  • Glycogen is a polysaccharide of glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in fungi and animals.
  • The polysaccharide structure of glucose shows the primary storage form of glucose in the body.
  • Glycogen is made and stored in the cells of the liver and muscles that are hydrated with the four parts of water.
  • It acts as the secondary long-term energy storage.
  • Muscle glycogen is quickly converted into glucose by muscle cells and liver glycogen that converts into glucose for use throughout the body which includes the central nervous system.

Additional Information

  • Carbohydrate:
  • Carbohydrate is a class of naturally occurring compounds and derivatives formed from them.
  • In the early part of the 19th century, substances such as wood, starch, and linen were found to be composed mainly of molecules containing atoms of carbon (C), hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O) and to have the general formula C6H12O6.
  • Other organic molecules with similar formulas were found to have a similar ratio of hydrogen to oxygen.
  • The general formula Cx(H2O)y is commonly used to represent many carbohydrates, which means “watered carbon.”
  • Fat:
  • Fat, any substance of plant or animal origin that is nonvolatile, insoluble in water, and oily or greasy to the touch.
  • Fats are usually solid at ordinary temperatures, such as 25 °C (77 °F), but they begin to liquefy at somewhat higher temperatures.
  • Chemically, fats are identical to animal and vegetable oils, consisting primarily of glycerides, which are esters formed by the reaction of three molecules of fatty acids with one molecule of glycerol.
  • Protein:
  • Protein is a highly complex substance that is present in all living organisms.
  • Proteins are of great nutritional value and are directly involved in the chemical processes essential for life.
  • The importance of proteins was recognized by chemists in the early 19th century, including Swedish chemist Jöns Jacob Berzelius, who in 1838 coined the term protein, a word derived from the Greek prōteios, meaning “holding first place.”
  • Proteins are species-specific; that is, the proteins of one species differ from those of another species.
  • They are also organ-specific; for instance, within a single organism, muscle proteins differ from those of the brain and liver.

Question 143

Who discovered bacteria?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fleming

  2. BOption (b)

    Lamble

  3. COption (c)

    Temin

  4. DOption (d)

    Leeuwenhoek

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Leeuwenhoek

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leeuwenhoek.

Key Points

DiscovererDiscovery
FlemingPenicillin
Hans and Zacharias JanssenMicroscope
TeminReverse transcriptase
LeeuwenhoekBacteria

Additional Information

  • Penicillin:
  • Penicillin is one of the first and still one of the most widely used antibiotic agents, derived from the Penicillium mold.
  • In 1928 Scottish bacteriologist Alexander Fleming first observed that colonies of the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus failed to grow in those areas of a culture that had been accidentally contaminated by the green mold Penicillium notatum.
  • He isolated the mold, grew it in a fluid medium, and found that it produced a substance capable of killing many of the common bacteria that infect humans.
  • Australian pathologist Howard Florey and British biochemist Ernst Boris Chain isolated and purified penicillin in the late 1930s, and by 1941 an injectable form of the drug was available for therapeutic use.
  • Microscope:
  • Microscope is an instrument that produces enlarged images of small objects, allowing the observer an exceedingly close view of minute structures at a scale convenient for examination and analysis.
  • Although optical microscopes are the subject of this article, an image may also be enlarged by many other waveforms, including acoustic, X-ray, or electron beam, and be received by direct or digital imaging or by a combination of these methods.
  • The microscope may provide a dynamic image (as with conventional optical instruments) or one that is static (as with conventional scanning electron microscopes).
  • Reverse transcriptase:
  • Reverse transcriptase also called RNA-directed DNA polymerase, an enzyme encoded from the genetic material of retroviruses that catalyzes the transcription of retrovirus RNA (ribonucleic acid) into DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid).
  • This catalyzed transcription is the reverse process of normal cellular transcription of DNA into RNA, hence the names reverse transcriptase and retrovirus.
  • Reverse transcriptase is central to the infectious nature of retroviruses, several of which cause disease in humans, including human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), and human T-cell lymphotropic virus I (HTLV-I), which causes leukemia.
  • Bacteria:
  • Bacteria, singular bacterium, any of a group of microscopic single-celled organisms that live in enormous numbers in almost every environment on Earth, from deep-sea vents to deep below Earth’s surface to the digestive tracts of humans.
  • Bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other internal structures and are therefore ranked among the unicellular life-forms called prokaryotes.
  • Prokaryotes are the dominant living creatures on Earth, having been present for perhaps three-quarters of Earth history and having adapted to almost all available ecological habitats.
  • As a group, they display exceedingly diverse metabolic capabilities and can use almost any organic compound, and some inorganic compounds, as a food source.

Question 144

The reason of large-scale diversity among the organisms is

  1. AOption (a)

    Adaptation

  2. BOption (b)

    Cooperation

  3. COption (c)

    Mutation

  4. DOption (d)

    Polyploidy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Adaptation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Adaptation.

Key Points

  • The reason for large-scale diversity among the organisms is Adaptation.
  • Adaptation:
  • The meaning of adaptation implies how a species changes its body and behavior to better suit its natural environment.
  • There are an estimated 8.7 million species currently living on earth.
  • They are found across a wide and diverse natural environment, ranging from frozen and desolate Arctic to the sweltering sands of the Sahara.
  • The natural environment is an ever-changing feature of planet earth.
  • The process of adaptation ensures that the species which adapts the most, survive.

Additional Information

  • Polyploidy:
  • It is a condition in which the cells of an organism have more than two paired sets of chromosomes.
  • Polyploidy, the condition in which a normally diploid cell or organism acquires one or more additional sets of chromosomes.
  • In other words, the polyploid cell or organism has three or more times the haploid chromosome number. Polyploidy arises as to the result of the total nondisjunction of chromosomes during mitosis or meiosis.
  • Mutation:
  • Any change in a gene that is heritable is known as Mutation.
  • Mutation, an alteration in the genetic material (the genome) of a cell of a living organism or of a virus that is more or less permanent and that can be transmitted to the cell’s or the virus’s descendants.
  • Mutation in the DNA of a body cell of a multicellular organism (somatic mutation) may be transmitted to descendant cells by DNA replication and hence result in a sector or patch of cells having an abnormal function, an example being cancer.
  • Mutations in egg or sperm cells (germinal mutations) may result in an individual offspring all of whose cells carry the mutation, which often confers some serious malfunction, as in the case of human genetic diseases such as cystic fibrosis.
  • Cooperation:
  • It is the process of groups of organisms working or acting together for common, mutual, or some underlying benefit, as opposed to working in competition for selfish benefit.
  • Many animal and plant species cooperate both with other members of their own species and with members of other species.

Question 145

What is vermiculture?

  1. AOption (a)

    The science of raising worms

  2. BOption (b)

    The science of studying animals

  3. COption (c)

    The science of studying fishes

  4. DOption (d)

    The science of killing worms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The science of raising worms

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The science of raising worms.

Key Points

  • Vermiculture is the scientific process of cultivating worms or artificial rearing of worms to decompose organic food wastes into a nutrient-rich material.
  • It is a process of utilization of some species of earthworms to create some kind of vermicompost.

 

BranchStudy
VermicultureThe science of raising worms
ZoologyThe science of studying animals
IchthyologyThe science of studying fishes
HerpetologyThe science of studying snakes

Additional Information

  • Zoology:
  • Zoology is a branch of biology that studies the members of the animal kingdom and animal life in general. It includes both the inquiry into individual animals and their constituent parts, even to the molecular level, and the inquiry into animal populations, entire faunas, and the relationships of animals to each other, to plants, and to the nonliving environment.
  • Through this wide range of studies results in some isolation of specialities within zoology, the conceptual integration in the contemporary study of living things that have occurred in recent years emphasizes the structural and functional unity of life rather than its diversity.
  • Ichthyology:
  • Ichthyology is the scientific study of fishes, including, as is usual with a science that is concerned with a large group of organisms, a number of specialized subdisciplines: e.g., taxonomy, anatomy (or morphology), behavioural science (ethology), ecology, and physiology.
  • Because of the great importance of fishes as human food, economic ichthyology is a significant segment of the field.
  • Herpetology:
  • Herpetology is the scientific study of amphibians and reptiles.
  • Like most other fields of vertebrate biology (e.g., ichthyology, mammalogy), herpetology is composed of a number of cross-disciplines: behaviour, ecology, physiology, anatomy, palaeontology, taxonomy, and others.
  • Most students of recent forms are narrow in their interests, working on only one order or suborder (e.g., frogs, salamanders, snakes, lizards).
  • A palaeontologist is more likely to work with both amphibians and reptiles or with intermediate forms.
  • Herpetology as a unified science apparently stems from the ancient tendency to lump together all creeping (Greek herpes) animals.
  • Modern herpetology is truly popular science, in which amateurs have made many valuable contributions in such areas as distribution, behaviour, and even taxonomy.
  • The major part of the more technical research is carried out at universities and museums, as well as in the field.

Question 146

The smallest organism, capable of autonomous growth and reproduction, is

  1. AOption (a)

    Virus

  2. BOption (b)

    Bacteria

  3. COption (c)

    Mycoplasma

  4. DOption (d)

    Bacteriophage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mycoplasma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mycoplasma.

Key Points

  • The smallest organism, capable of autonomous growth and reproduction, is Mycoplasma.
  • Mycoplasma:
  • Mycoplasmas are spherical to filamentous cells with no cell walls.
  • There is an attachment organelle at the tip of filamentous M pneumonia and several other pathogenic mycoplasmas.
  • Fried-egg-shaped colonies are seen on agar.
  • The mycoplasmas presumably evolved by degenerative evolution from Gram-positive bacteria and are phylogenetically most closely related to some clostridia.
  • Mycoplasmas are the smallest self-replicating organisms with the smallest genomes.
  • They are low in guanine and cytosine.

Additional Information

  • Virus:
  • The virus is an infectious agent of small size and simple composition that can multiply only in living cells of animals, plants, or bacteria.
  • The name is from a Latin word meaning “slimy liquid” or “poison.”
  • The earliest indications of the biological nature of viruses came from studies in 1892 by the Russian scientist Dmitry I. Ivanovsky and in 1898 by the Dutch scientist Martinus W. Beijerinck.
  • Beijerinck first surmised that the virus under study was a new kind of infectious agent, which he designated contagium vivum fluidum, meaning that it was an alive, reproducing organism that differed from other organisms.
  • Bacteria:
  • Bacteria, singular bacterium, any of a group of microscopic single-celled organisms that live in enormous numbers in almost every environment on Earth, from deep-sea vents to deep below Earth’s surface to the digestive tracts of humans.
  • Bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other internal structures and are therefore ranked among the unicellular life-forms called prokaryotes.
  • Prokaryotes are the dominant living creatures on Earth, having been present for perhaps three-quarters of Earth history and having adapted to almost all available ecological habitats.
  • As a group, they display exceedingly diverse metabolic capabilities and can use almost any organic compound, and some inorganic compounds, as a food source.
  • Some bacteria can cause diseases in humans, animals, or plants, but most are harmless and are beneficial ecological agents whose metabolic activities sustain higher life-forms.
  • Bacteriophage:
  • Bacteriophage is also called phage or bacterial virus, any of a group of viruses that infect bacteria.
  • Bacteriophages were discovered independently by Frederick W. Twort in Great Britain (1915) and Félix d’Hérelle in France (1917).
  • D’Hérelle coined the term bacteriophage, meaning “bacteria eater,” to describe the agent’s bacteriocidal ability. Bacteriophages also infect the single-celled prokaryotic organisms known as archaea.

Question 147

The first human heart transplant was performed in __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    America

  2. BOption (b)

    England

  3. COption (c)

    South Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South Africa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

  • The first human heart transplant was performed in South Africa.
  • First human heart transplant:
  • The first human heart transplant was performed on December 3, 1967.
  • The operation was led by a surgeon named Christiaan Barnard, in Groote Schuur Hospital, Cape Town, South Africa.
  • At the time, it was one of the most widely publicized events in the world.
  • Louis Washkansky was the recipient of the heart.
  • The donor was Denise Darvall, a 25-year-old woman who had been fatally injured in a car accident.

Additional Information

  • This first heart transplant and subsequent ongoing research in cardiac transplantation at the University of Cape Town and in a few other dedicated centres over the subsequent 15 years laid the foundation for heart transplantation to become a well-established form of therapy for end-stage cardiac disease.
  • During this period from 1968 to 1983, Chris Barnard and his team continued to make major contributions to organ transplantation, notably the development of the heterotopic heart transplants; advancing the concept of brain death, organ donation and other related ethical issues; better preservation and protection of the donor's heart (including hypothermic perfusion storage of the heart; studies on the haemodynamic and metabolic effects of brain death; and even early attempts at xenotransplantation.

Question 148

The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is

  1. AOption (a)

    1000 cc

  2. BOption (b)

    1200 cc

  3. COption (c)

    200 cc

  4. DOption (d)

    500 cc

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1200 cc

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1200 cc.

Key Points

  • The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is 1200 cc.
  • Blood:
  • Blood is composed of:
  • Plasma  – the fluid part of the blood and is composed of  90% of water.
  • Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets constitute the solid part of blood.
  • Blood is the body’s fluid connective tissue, and it forms a vital part of the human circulatory system.
  • Its main function is to circulate nutrients, hormones, minerals, and other essential components to different parts of the body.
  • Blood flows through a specified set of pathways called blood vessels.
  • The organ which is involved in pumping blood to different body parts is the heart.
  • Blood cells, blood plasma, proteins, and other mineral components (such as sodium, potassium, and calcium) constitute human blood.

Additional Information

  • Kidneys:
  • The kidney is an organ that maintains water balance and expels metabolic wastes.
  • Primitive and embryonic kidneys consist of two series of specialized tubules that empty into two collecting ducts, the Wolffian ducts (see Wolffian duct).
  • The more advanced kidney (metanephros) of adult reptiles, birds, and mammals is a paired compact organ whose functional units, called nephrons, filter initial urine from the blood, reabsorb water and nutrients, and secrete wastes, producing the final urine, which is expelled.
  • Reptilian and avian kidneys are made up of many tiny lobules that, in birds, are combined into three or more lobes.
  • Collecting tubules from each lobule empty into a separate branch of the ureter.
  • Reptiles have relatively few nephrons (from 3,000 to 30,000 in lizards), while birds have a great number (around 200,000 in a fowl, twice as many as in a mammal of comparable size).

Question 149

A plant bud is

  1. AOption (a)

    An embryonic shoot

  2. BOption (b)

    An embryonic leaf

  3. COption (c)

    An endosperm

  4. DOption (d)

    A seed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

An embryonic shoot

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is An embryonic shoot.

Key Points

  • A plant bud is an embryonic shoot.
  • Plant Bud:
  • Plant Buds are small outgrowth present terminally on the stem or in the axil of leaves.
  • They are derived from meristematic tissues and develop into leaf, shoot, or flower.
  • A complete flower is one that consists of sepals, petals, stamens, and pistil.
  • On the contrary, an incomplete flower is one that lacks one or more of these structures.
  • A complete flower consists of two different parts:
  • Vegetative Part
  • Reproductive Part

Additional Information

  • Embryonic leaf:
  • Dry seeds contained three embryonic leaf primordia at different developmental stages (plastochron 1–3 primordia). The oldest (P3) leaf primordium possessed several procambial centers whereas P2 displayed only ground meristem.
  • At the tip of P3 primordia at stage S4, C4 leaf anatomy typical of the malate dehydrogenase-dependent nicotinamide dinucleotide phosphate (NADP-ME) subtype was evident in that vascular bundles lacked a mestome layer and were surrounded by a single layer of bundle sheath cells that contained large, centrifugally located chloroplasts.
  • Two to three mesophyll cells separated adjacent vascular bundles and one mesophyll cell layer on each of the abaxial and adaxial sides delimited vascular bundles from the epidermis.
  • Endosperm:
  • The endosperm is the tissue that surrounds and nourishes the embryo in the seeds of angiosperms (flowering plants).
  • In some seeds, the endosperm is completely absorbed in maturity (e.g., pea and bean), and the fleshy food-storing cotyledons nourish the embryo as it germinates.
  • In others, some of the endosperms are present until germination (e.g., wheat, castor bean), and the cotyledons are typically thin and membranous and serve to absorb the stored food from the endosperm upon germination.
  • In the coconut, the liquid endosperm contains important growth substances.
  • Endosperm accounts for the economic importance of cereal grains and oilseeds.
  • Seed:
  • Seed is the characteristic reproductive body of both angiosperms (flowering plants) and gymnosperms (e.g., conifers, cycads, and ginkgos).
  • Essentially, a seed consists of a miniature undeveloped plant (the embryo), which, alone or in the company of stored food for its early development after germination, is surrounded by a protective coat (the testa).
  • Frequently small in size and making negligible demands upon their environment, seeds are eminently suited to perform a wide variety of functions the relationships of which are not always obvious: multiplication, perennation (surviving seasons of stress such as winter), dormancy (a state of arrested development), and dispersal.
  • Pollination and the “seed habit” are considered the most important factors responsible for the overwhelming evolutionary success of the flowering plants, which number more than 300,000 species.

Question 150

Which of the following gases is used in cigarette lighters?

  1. AOption (a)

    Butane

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane

  3. COption (c)

    Propane

  4. DOption (d)

    Radon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Butane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Butane.

Key Points

  • Butane gas is used in lighting Cigarettes.
  • Butane:
  • Butane is primarily consumed as a gasoline mixture, either alone or in a propane mixture, and as a feedstock for ethylene and butadiene production.
  • Butane like propane originates from natural gas or petroleum refineries and the two gases are usually found together.
  • Butane is kept under pressure as a liquid.
  • When the curler is switched on, butane is released and changes to a gas.

Additional Information

  • Methane:
  • It is an unconventional form of natural gas found in coal deposits or coal seams.
  • It is used in the cement industry, power generation.
  • Propane:
  • Propane is also called n-Propane or Propyl hydride.
  • It is a gas molecular entity and acts as a food propellant.
  • Propane was discovered in the year 1857 by Marcellin Berthelot who was a French chemist.
  • Radon:
  • Radon (Rn) is colourless, tasteless, odourless gas at standard pressure and temperature and it is the densest noble gas.
  • At a temperature below its freezing point, it possesses a brilliant yellow phosphorescence.
  • It is highly radioactive and chemically unreactive.
  • Radon is used to track air masses to a limited level.

150 questions in the full paper