Official Paper

70th BPSC Exam Official Paper(Held on 13 December 2024) Test (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Test (150 questions)

1

Dalton's atomic theory successfully explained:

i. Law of conservation of mass

ii. Law of constant composition

iii. Law of radioactivity

iv. Law of multiple proportion

  1. ((a))

    i, ii, and iii

  2. ((b))

    ii and iii

  3. ((c))

    i, ii, and iv

  4. ((d))

    ii, iii, and iv

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

i, ii, and iv

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Law of conservation of mass: Dalton's theory states that atoms are indivisible and cannot be created or destroyed in chemical reactions, supporting the conservation of mass.
  • Law of constant composition: According to Dalton, a given compound always contains the same types of atoms in fixed ratios, explaining this law.
  • Law of multiple proportions: Dalton's theory explains that when two elements form multiple compounds, the ratios of the masses of one element to the fixed mass of the other are small whole numbers.
  • However, Dalton's atomic theory does not address radioactivity, as it was discovered later. Hence, option 3 is correct.
2

Which of the following is a technopolis?

  1. ((a))

    Silicon Valley

  2. ((b))

    London

  3. ((c))

    Paris

  4. ((d))

    Moscow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Silicon Valley

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • A technopolis is a specialized urban area or region designed to promote and house high-tech industries, innovation, and research.
  • It typically integrates cutting-edge infrastructure, technology hubs, research institutions, and a business-friendly environment to attract technology-driven companies, startups, and professionals.
  • Key Features of a Technopolis:
  • High-Tech Industries: Focus on sectors like IT, biotechnology, electronics, aerospace, and robotics.
  • R&D Facilities: Includes universities, laboratories, and research centers for innovation.
  • Modern Infrastructure: Equipped with advanced communication systems, transportation, and utilities.
  • Collaborative Environment: Encourages partnerships between academia, industries, and governments.
  • Economic Growth Hub: Often serves as a catalyst for regional economic development.
  • Examples:
  • Silicon Valley, USA
  • Tsukuba Science City, Japan
  • Sophia Antipolis, France
  • Bangalore, India (referred to as India's Silicon Valley). Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • A technopolis fosters technological advancements and contributes significantly to the knowledge-based economy.
3

Which of the following acids is secreted in the stomach?

  1. ((a))

    Sulphuric acid

  2. ((b))

    Nitric acid

  3. ((c))

    Phosphoric acid

  4. ((d))

    Hydrochloric acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hydrochloric acid

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The acid secreted in the stomach is hydrochloric acid (HCl). Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is produced by the parietal cells (also known as oxyntic cells) in the stomach lining.
  • It plays a crucial role in digestion by:
  • Breaking down food.
  • Activating the enzyme pepsin from its inactive form, pepsinogen.
  • Killing harmful microbes ingested with food.
4

Which of the following rulers ruled Assam in the time of Harsha?

  1. ((a))

    Aswad Jahan

  2. ((b))

    Bhaskar Varman

  3. ((c))

    King Dahir

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bhaskar Varman

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • During the time of Harsha (606–647 CE), Assam was ruled by the Varman dynasty, specifically Bhaskara varman, who was a contemporary of Harsha. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Bhaskaravarman was the most prominent ruler of the Varman dynasty of Assam.
  • He ruled over the kingdom of Kamarupa (modern-day Assam).
  • Bhaskaravarman is known for his alliance with Harsha and played a significant role in the Kannauj Assembly hosted by Harsha.
  • The historical records of Bhaskaravarman are mentioned in Bana Bhatta’s Harshacharita and the Chinese traveler Xuanzang's accounts.
  • Thus, Bhaskaravarman was the ruler of Assam during Harsha’s reign.
5

When was the undersea cable-based Chennai-Andaman and Nicobar (CANI) Project inaugurated and dedicated to the nation by PM Narendra Modi?

  1. ((a))

    August 15, 2022

  2. ((b))

    August 10, 2019

  3. ((c))

    January 26, 2023

  4. ((d))

    August 10, 2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

August 10, 2020

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The Chennai-Andaman and Nicobar Islands (CANI) undersea cable project was inaugurated and dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 10, 2020. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Chennai-Andaman and Nicobar Islands (CANI):
  • The project connects Chennai to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands via a 2,312 km-long submarine optical fiber cable.
  • It enhances digital connectivity in the islands, enabling high-speed internet and improved telecommunications.
  • The project supports the development of e-governance, tourism, and local businesses, boosting overall socio-economic growth in the region.
6

The meter that is used to measure the distance moved by the vehicle is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Ammeter

  2. ((b))

    Speedometer

  3. ((c))

    Chronometer

  4. ((d))

    Odometer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Odometer

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The meter used to measure the distance moved by a vehicle is known as an odometer. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • The odometer is a device in vehicles that records the total distance traveled.
  • It is usually displayed on the dashboard and is calibrated in units such as kilometers or miles.
  • Modern vehicles often combine the odometer with other features like trip meters, which can be reset to measure specific distances for a journey.
  • Ammeter:
  • Function: Measures electric current in a circuit.
  • Unit: Amperes (A).
  • Use: Commonly used in electrical and electronic circuits to monitor current flow.
  • Speedometer:
  • Function: Measures the speed of a moving vehicle.
  • Unit: Kilometers per hour (km/h) or miles per hour (mph).
  • Use: Found in vehicles to inform the driver of their current speed.
  • Chronometer:
  • Function: A highly precise instrument used to measure time.
  • Use: Originally used in navigation to determine longitude at sea; modern chronometers are used in scientific and timekeeping applications.
7

Which Amendment to the Constitution abolished the two seats that were reserved for the Anglo-Indian community?

  1. ((a))

    108th

  2. ((b))

    100th

  3. ((c))

    102nd

  4. ((d))

    104th

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

104th

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 abolished the two seats that were reserved for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • This amendment ended the provision for nomination of Anglo-Indians under Article 331 (for Lok Sabha) and Article 333 (for State Assemblies).
  • The reservation for Anglo-Indians was originally intended as a temporary measure after independence and was extended several times.
  • The 104th Amendment came into effect on January 25, 2020, marking the end of this special representation.
8

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence: 

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    36

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22

The Correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points First We need to Understand through logic 

In  Figure : 

⇒ Difference between upper Two digits is equal to difference between below Two Digits 

⇒ 21 - 16 = 5 , 15 - 10 = 5 (Both Equal)

⇒ 10 - 7 = 3 , 13 - 10 = 3 

⇒ Hence 21 - 14 = 7 , Means Difference between upper digit in last figure also be same 

⇒ ? - 15 = 7 ⇒ ? = 22 

Hence Option 1 is correct.

9

Which of the following ports is an artificial port?

  1. ((a))

    Marmugao

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Kochi

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Chennai

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The artificial port in India is Chennai Port. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Chennai Port is an artificial harbor constructed by modifying the natural coastline. It is one of the oldest and largest ports in India, located on the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu.
  • It contrasts with natural ports like Mumbai Port or Kochi Port, which are naturally deep and sheltered harbors.
  • Artificial ports are built using engineering structures like breakwaters to create safe harbors for ships.

![Solved] Identify the Seaports and name them](https://cdn.testbook.com/images/production/quesImages/qImage665d798044725be6e4bc2bfc.png)

10

In April 2024, how many members of the UN Security Council either rejected or abstained from voting for the proposal to allow Palestine to become a full member of the UN?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • In April 2024, the United Nations Security Council voted on a proposal to grant Palestine full UN membership.
  • The resolution received 12 votes in favor, with the United States casting a veto, and two members—Switzerland and the United Kingdom—abstaining.
  • Therefore, a total of three members either rejected or abstained from voting on the proposal:
  • United States: Vetoed the resolution.
  • Switzerland: Abstained from voting.
  • United Kingdom: Abstained from voting. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • For a resolution to pass in the Security Council, it requires at least nine votes in favor and no vetoes from any of the five permanent members. In this case, the U.S. veto prevented the adoption of the resolution, blocking Palestine's bid for full UN membership.
11

In the Union Budget speech for 2024-25, which oilseeds were noted as not being covered under the goal of "Atmanirbharta" (self-reliance) for oil?

  1. ((a))

    Sesame

  2. ((b))

    Coconut

  3. ((c))

    Soybean

  4. ((d))

    Groundnut

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Coconut

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • In the Union Budget speech for 2024-25, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman emphasized the government's focus on achieving self-reliance in oilseeds production as part of the "Atmanirbhar Bharat" initiative.
  • The plan primarily targeted mustard, groundnut, sesame, soybean, and sunflower, with the aim of boosting domestic production of edible oils and reducing India's dependence on imports. Hence, option 2 is correct answer.
  • Objective:
  • Reduce the import burden on edible oils, which account for a significant share of India's import bill.
  • Enhance domestic production and processing capacities for selected oilseeds.
  • Specific Focus:
  • Mustard, soybean, and sunflower were identified as priority crops for expanding cultivation under various schemes.
  • These crops form the bulk of edible oil production in India and are critical to achieving self-reliance.
  • Not Covered:
  • Certain other oilseeds like palm oil were not included in the self-reliance strategy, as India imports a large portion of its palm oil requirements. Instead, palm oil is addressed through separate schemes like the National Edible Oil Mission - Oil Palm (NEOM-OP).
  • Measures Announced:
  • Incentives for Farmers: Subsidies and support for seeds, fertilizers, and mechanization to encourage oilseed cultivation.
  • R&D in Oilseeds: Investments in research and development to improve yields and pest resistance.
  • Processing Units: Establishment of processing plants closer to production hubs to add value to raw oilseeds.
12

Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah al-Ahmad al-Sabah was appointed as the new Prime Minister of which country in April 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Palestine

  2. ((b))

    Yemen

  3. ((c))

    Lebanon

  4. ((d))

    Kuwait

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kuwait

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah al-Ahmad al-Sabah was appointed as the new Prime Minister of Kuwait in April 2024. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Appointment Date: April 15, 2024
  • Predecessor: Sheikh Mohammed Sabah al-Salem al-Sabah, who resigned earlier in April 2024.
  • Background: Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah al-Ahmad al-Sabah, born in 1952, is a senior member of Kuwait's ruling family with extensive experience in finance and government. He has previously held positions such as Minister of Finance, Minister of Communications, and Minister of Oil.
  • Kuwait:
  • Location:
  • Situated in the Middle East, at the northern edge of the Arabian Gulf.
  • Bordered by Iraq to the north and west, Saudi Arabia to the south, and the Persian Gulf to the east.
  • Capital: Kuwait City
  • Official language: Arabic

Kuwait | Map, History, & Facts | Britannica

13

Match the following in the context of Asht Pradhan system of Maratha rulers:

OfficialDepartment
a. SachivaPrime Minister
b. PeshwaIncharge of Correspondence
c. SamantFinance Minister
d. AmatyaForeign Minister
  1. ((a))

    a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

  2. ((b))

    a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

  3. ((c))

    a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • In the Maratha Empire, these terms had specific roles and responsibilities within the administrative and governance structure. Here's how they were defined:
  • Peshwa:
  • Role: Prime Minister and chief executive of the Maratha Empire.
  • Responsibilities:
  • Head of the administration, directly assisting the Chhatrapati (king).
  • Military commander and strategist, leading expeditions and wars.
  • Managed state affairs, taxation, diplomacy, and internal governance.
  • Sachiva:
  • Role: Secretary or Chief Administrator.
  • Responsibilities:
  • Assisted in state documentation and correspondence.
  • Acted as a record-keeper and legal advisor.
  • Often responsible for maintaining state archives and ensuring smooth communication within the empire.
  • The Sachiva was one of the Ashta Pradhan (Council of Eight Ministers) under Shivaji’s administrative system.
  • Samant:
  • Role: Foreign Minister.
  • Responsibilities:
  • Managed and controlled specific territories under the Maratha Empire.
  • Provided military support, including troops, during campaigns or wars.
  • Paid tribute to the central authority and ensured law and order in their regions.
  • Significance: Played a vital role in expanding and stabilizing the Maratha Empire, especially in decentralized areas.
  • Amatya:
  • Role: Finance Minister or Revenue Administrator.
  • Responsibilities:
  • Supervised revenue collection, tax management, and fiscal policies.
  • Ensured proper accounting and budgeting for the empire.
  • Worked closely with the Peshwa to manage the financial resources of the empire.
  • Also a key member of the Ashta Pradhan, which was established by Shivaji. Hence, option 1 is correct.
14

According to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, which indices experienced significant growth in Financial Year 2023?

  1. ((a))

    Consumer goods and infrastructure/construction goods

  2. ((b))

    Consumer goods and capital goods

  3. ((c))

    Manufacturing and consumer goods

  4. ((d))

    Capital goods and infrastructure/construction goods

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Capital goods and infrastructure/construction goods

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

The Capital Goods and Infrastructure/Construction Goods indices experienced significant growth in the financial year 2023, according to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

  • Capital Goods: This sector, which includes machinery and equipment used in industrial production, showed significant growth in 2023, reflecting positive trends in industrial investment and production capacity expansion.
  • Infrastructure/Construction Goods: This category, encompassing materials and products essential for infrastructure and construction activities, also saw strong growth in 2023, highlighting ongoing development and construction projects across the country. Hence, option 4 is correct.
15

Heat transfer that does not require a medium is called:

  1. ((a))

    Radiation

  2. ((b))

    Reflection

  3. ((c))

    Conduction

  4. ((d))

    Convection

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Radiation

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • Heat transfer that does not require a medium is called radiation. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, such as infrared waves, and it does not require any medium (solid, liquid, or gas) for transmission.
  • Example: The heat from the Sun reaches Earth through the vacuum of space via radiation.
  • In contrast:
  • Conduction requires a solid medium for heat transfer through direct molecular contact.
  • Convection requires a fluid medium (liquid or gas) for heat transfer through bulk movement of particles.
16

Which type of rock is formed from cooling and solidification of lava?

  1. ((a))

    Igneous

  2. ((b))

    Sedimentary

  3. ((c))

    Crystal

  4. ((d))

    Metamorphic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Igneous

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The type of rock formed from the cooling and solidification of lava is called an igneous rock. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Formation: When lava cools and solidifies on or near the Earth's surface, it forms extrusive igneous rocks (also known as volcanic rocks).
  • Examples:
  • Basalt: A common extrusive igneous rock, often formed from rapidly cooling lava.
  • Pumice: A lightweight rock with a porous structure, formed from frothy lava.
  • Obsidian: A glassy, smooth rock formed from rapidly cooling lava with minimal crystallization.
  • Types of Igneous Rocks:
  • Extrusive Igneous Rocks:
  • Formed from lava cooling on the Earth's surface.
  • Cool quickly, resulting in fine-grained or glassy textures.
  • Intrusive Igneous Rocks:
  • Formed from magma cooling slowly beneath the Earth's surface.
  • Have coarse-grained textures (e.g., granite).
17

After elections to the 18th Lok Sabha, who was appointed as the Union Minister of Textiles in the Modi government?

  1. ((a))

    Giriraj Singh (Begusarai)

  2. ((b))

    Bhupendra Yadav (Alwar)

  3. ((c))

    Rajiv Ranjan Singh alias Lalan Singh (Munger)

  4. ((d))

    Gajendra Singh Shekhawat (Jodhpur)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Giriraj Singh (Begusarai)

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • After the elections to the 18th Lok Sabha, Giriraj Singh was appointed as the Union Minister of Textiles in Prime Minister Narendra Modi's government. He officially assumed charge of the Ministry on June 11, 2024, succeeding Piyush Goyal. Hence, option1 is correct.
  • Giriraj Singh, born on September 8, 1952, in Barahiya, Bihar, is a seasoned politician affiliated with the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
  • He has previously held several ministerial positions, including Minister of Rural Development and Minister of Animal Husbandry, Dairying, and Fisheries. He represents the Begusarai constituency in the Lok Sabha.
18

Which of the following human races inhabits China, Mongolia, and Japan?

  1. ((a))

    Australoid

  2. ((b))

    Negro

  3. ((c))

    Mongoloid

  4. ((d))

    Nordic

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mongoloid

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The human race that predominantly inhabits China, Mongolia, and Japan is the Mongoloid race. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • The Mongoloid race is characterized by specific physical features such as a flatter facial profile, epicanthic eye folds, straight black hair, and lighter skin tones (depending on geographic location).
  • These features are commonly observed among the populations of East Asia, including Han Chinese, Mongolians, and Japanese people.
  • The term "Mongoloid" is an anthropological classification historically used to describe people from East Asia, Southeast Asia, the Arctic, and the Americas.
19

"Chach Nama" was translated to Persian by:

  1. ((a))

    Nuruddin Muhammad Aufi

  2. ((b))

    Shams-i-Siraj

  3. ((c))

    Muhammad Ali Bin Abu Bakr Kufi

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Muhammad Ali Bin Abu Bakr Kufi

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The "Chach Nama", originally written in Arabic, was translated into Persian by Muhammad Ali Bin Abu Bakr Kufi in the 13th century. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • The Chachnama (also known as the Fatehnama-i-Sindh) was originally written in Arabic by an unknown author.
  • It is a historical account of the Arab conquest of Sindh, particularly focusing on the campaigns of Muhammad bin Qasim and the preceding rule of Raja Chach.
  • It describes the governance, military campaigns, and cultural exchanges during the early Islamic expansion into South Asia.
  • Translator: Muhammad Ali Bin Abu Bakr Kufi translated the Arabic text into Persian during his time in Uch, in modern-day Pakistan.
  • Significance: The Chach Nama is one of the oldest historical chronicles of Sindh and provides valuable insights into the socio-political and cultural dynamics of the region during the early Islamic period.
20

Which of the following represents the suitable condition for the liquefaction of gases?

  1. ((a))

    Low temperature, high pressure

  2. ((b))

    Low temperature, low pressure

  3. ((c))

    High temperature, high pressure

  4. ((d))

    High temperature, low pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low temperature, high pressure

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The suitable conditions for the liquefaction of gases are:
  • Low Temperature:
  • Cooling the gas reduces the kinetic energy of its molecules, making it easier for intermolecular forces to bring the molecules together and condense them into a liquid state.
  • High Pressure:
  • Increasing the pressure forces the gas molecules closer together, promoting interactions between them and aiding in the transition to a liquid state.

 Additional Information

  • Critical Temperature (Tc):
  • Each gas has a critical temperature, above which it cannot be liquefied, regardless of the pressure applied. Liquefaction is only possible below this temperature.
  • Critical Pressure (Pc):
  • The minimum pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature.
  • Example:
  • Liquefaction of carbon dioxide:
  • Critical temperature: 31.1°C.
  • Critical pressure: 73.8 atm.
  • To liquefy CO₂, the temperature must be below 31.1°C and the pressure increased beyond 73.8 atm.
  • Techniques:
  • Joule-Thomson Effect: Cooling a gas by allowing it to expand without doing external work.
  • Linde Process: Using repeated compression and expansion cycles to cool the gas below its condensation point.
  • These principles are widely applied in industrial processes, such as the liquefaction of natural gas (LNG) and in cryogenics.
21

Name the constituency from where the new Chief Minister of Odisha, Mohan Charan Majhi, was elected in the recent State Assembly elections.

  1. ((a))

    Laikera

  2. ((b))

    Keonjhar

  3. ((c))

    Telkoi

  4. ((d))

    Hinjili

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Keonjhar

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Mohan Charan Majhi, the newly appointed Chief Minister of Odisha, was elected from the Keonjhar (ST) constituency in the recent State Assembly elections. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Constituency: Keonjhar (ST)
  • Election Result: In the 2024 Odisha Legislative Assembly election, Mohan Charan Majhi, representing the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), secured 87,815 votes, accounting for 47.05% of the total votes. He defeated Meena Majhi of the Biju Janata Dal (BJD), who received 76,238 votes (40.84%), by a margin of 11,577 votes.
  • Political Career: Mohan Charan Majhi has been a prominent figure in Odisha politics, representing the Keonjhar constituency multiple times since 2000. His consistent electoral success reflects his strong support base in the region.
22

To highlight the hardships faced by the peasants, Sahajanand Saraswati published which newspaper?

  1. ((a))

    Lok Sangraha

  2. ((b))

    The Broken Wing

  3. ((c))

    Indian Nation

  4. ((d))

    Nirbal Sevak

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lok Sangraha

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The newspaper "Lok Sangraha" was indeed published by Sahajanand Saraswati to highlight the hardships faced by peasants. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Lok Sangraha served as a platform to voice the concerns of peasants and mobilize them against exploitation by landlords and colonial authorities.
  • It was an integral part of the Kisan Sabha movement, which sought agrarian reforms and justice for farmers.
  • Sahajanand Saraswati, as a leader of the peasant movement, used this publication to unify rural India in the fight for their rights.
23

How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?

  1. ((a))

    23

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22

The Correct answer is Option 4. 

Key PointsHands coincide in 12 hours

⇒ The hands of a clock (hour hand and minute hand) coincide once every 1 hour and 5 minutes (or 1 hour + 5/11 of an hour).

⇒ In 12 hours, the hands coincide 11 times, because the first coincidence occurs at 12:00, and the next at approximately 1:05, 2:10, and so on.

Hands coincide in 24 hours

⇒  Since there are two 12-hour cycles in a day (one for AM and one for PM), the total number of coincidences is: 11(coincidences in 12 hours)×2=22.

The hands of a clock coincide 22 times in a day.

Hence Correct answer is Option 4.

24

Which of the following is an iron ore?

  1. ((a))

    Cinnabar

  2. ((b))

    Bauxite

  3. ((c))

    Limonite

  4. ((d))

    Pyrite

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Limonite

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • Iron is extracted from various ores found in nature. The main ores of iron are:
  • Hematite (Fe₂O₃):
  • Composition: Iron (70%), oxygen.
  • Appearance: Reddish-brown in color.
  • Significance: The most important ore of iron, accounting for the bulk of iron production worldwide.
  • Examples: Found in regions like Odisha and Jharkhand in India.
  • Magnetite (Fe₃O₄):
  • Composition: Iron (72%), oxygen.
  • Appearance: Black or dark gray with magnetic properties.
  • Significance: Contains the highest iron content among all iron ores and is highly sought after for steel production.
  • Examples: Found in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh in India.
  • Limonite (Fe₂O₃·nH₂O):
  • Composition: Hydrated iron oxide.
  • Appearance: Yellowish-brown.
  • Significance: Considered an important secondary ore of iron.
  • Examples: Found in Goa and other tropical regions. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Siderite (FeCO₃):
  • Composition: Iron carbonate.
  • Appearance: Yellowish-brown or greenish.
  • Significance: Contains less iron compared to other ores and is less commonly used due to its lower iron content.
  • Examples: Found in regions with sedimentary deposits.
25

Who was the founder of the Farazi Movement?

  1. ((a))

    Haji Shariatullah

  2. ((b))

    Sayyid Ahmad

  3. ((c))

    Dudhu Mian

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haji Shariatullah

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The Farazi Movement was founded by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in Bengal. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Objective: To reform Muslim society and revive Islamic practices, emphasizing strict adherence to the Sharia (Islamic law).
  • Name Origin: Derived from the word "Faraiz", meaning religious duties obligatory for Muslims.
  • Focus:
  • Opposed practices seen as un-Islamic or influenced by Hindu traditions.
  • Advocated for social justice and opposed exploitation by landlords and colonial authorities.
  • Legacy:
  • After Haji Shariatullah's death, his son Dudu Miyan took over the movement and further expanded its influence among the peasants, especially in rural Bengal. The Farazi Movement became a significant socio-religious and agrarian uprising in colonial India.
26

Where was the top leader of Hamas, Ismail Haniyeh, assassinated on 31st July 2024, allegedly in an Israeli airstrike?

  1. ((a))

    Lebanon

  2. ((b))

    Palestine

  3. ((c))

    Iran

  4. ((d))

    Jordan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Iran

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • On July 31, 2024, Ismail Haniyeh, the political leader of Hamas, was assassinated in Tehran, Iran. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • He was killed in his accommodation at a military-run guesthouse after attending the inauguration ceremony for Iranian President Masoud Pezeshkian.
  • Reports on the method of the assassination vary. Some sources indicate that Haniyeh was killed by a missile strike, possibly fired from outside Iran.
  • Other accounts suggest that a remotely detonated explosive device, previously hidden in his room, was used.
  • While Israel has not officially claimed responsibility for the attack, it is widely believed to have been an Israeli operation. The assassination has prompted vows of revenge from Iran and has raised concerns about escalating regional tensions.
27

According to a CRISIL Rating report, how much is the corporate bond market expected to grow by Financial Year 2030 in India?

  1. ((a))

    ₹ 100-120 lakh crore

  2. ((b))

    ₹ 50-70 lakh crore

  3. ((c))

    ₹ 120-150 lakh crore

  4. ((d))

    ₹ 70-90 lakh crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹ 100-120 lakh crore

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • According to a CRISIL Ratings report, India's corporate bond market is projected to more than double by the fiscal year 2030, expanding from approximately ₹43 lakh crore in FY2023 to between ₹100-120 lakh crore. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Key Drivers of Growth:
  • Increased Capital Expenditure (Capex): Significant investments in infrastructure and corporate sectors are anticipated, driven by high capacity utilization, robust corporate balance sheets, and a favorable economic outlook. CRISIL estimates capex of around ₹110 lakh crore between FY2023 and FY2027, approximately 1.7 times higher than the previous five fiscal years.
  • Attractiveness of Infrastructure Bonds: Structural improvements and policy measures are expected to make infrastructure bond issuances more appealing to long-term investors, such as insurers and pension funds. Currently, infrastructure accounts for about 15% of annual corporate bond issuance by volume.
  • Retail Credit Growth: Strong retail credit growth, supported by private consumption and the formalization of last-mile credit flow, is expected to boost bond supply. The bond market, being a key funding source for larger non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), will play a pivotal role in financing retail credit flow.
  • Financialization of Household Savings: There is a rising trend of household savings shifting from physical assets to financial instruments, leading to increased investments in managed funds. CRISIL estimates assets in the managed investment segment to double to around ₹315 lakh crore by fiscal 2027, with the trend expected to continue beyond that period.
28

Following are the mountain ranges of India:

  1. Garo Hills
  2. Nandadevi
  3. Kamet
  4. K

Which of the following is their correct sequence from east to west?

  1. ((a))

    3 4 2 1

  2. ((b))

    4 3 1 2

  3. ((c))

    2 1 4 3

  4. ((d))

    1 2 3 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1 2 3 4

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • To arrange the given mountain ranges and peaks from east to west:
  • Garo Hills: Located in Meghalaya, in the northeastern part of India.
  • Nanda Devi: Situated in the Garhwal Himalayas, in Uttarakhand.
  • Kamet: Also in the Garhwal Himalayas, west of Nanda Devi, in Uttarakhand.
  • K₂: Located in the Karakoram Range, in Ladakh (disputed region, part of the Union Territory of Ladakh).
  • Correct Sequence (East to West):
    1. Garo Hills → 2. Nanda Devi → 3. Kamet → 4. K₂
  • Hence, option 4 is correct.
29

Match List I with List II:

List - IList - II
a. Vaishali1. Silk Textile
b. Bhagalpur2. Gold
c. Jamui3. Electric locomotive manufacturing plant
d. Madhepura4. Flori culture
  1. ((a))

    a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

  2. ((b))

    a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

  3. ((c))

    a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

  4. ((d))

    a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

List - IList - II
VaishaliFlori culture
BhagalpurSilk Textile
JamuiGold
MadhepuraElectric locomotive manufacturing plant
  • Hence, the correct Answer: a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
30

After remaining neutral for almost 200 years, which one of the following countries officially joined NATO in March 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Sweden

  2. ((b))

    North Macedonia

  3. ((c))

    Iceland

  4. ((d))

    Finland

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sweden

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • After maintaining neutrality for approximately 200 years, Sweden officially joined the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) on March 7, 2024, becoming its 32nd member. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • The other country that recently joined NATO is Finland. It became the 31st member of NATO on April 4, 2023.

Key Details About NATO:

  • The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a political and military alliance established in 1949 to ensure collective defense and security for its member countries. It is based on the principle of mutual defense, where an attack on one member is considered an attack on all.
  • Founding Members:
  • NATO was founded by 12 countries: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
  • Purpose:
  • Collective Defense: The core principle is Article 5 of the NATO Treaty, which states that an attack on one member is considered an attack on all members.
  • Crisis Management: NATO helps manage crises through diplomatic and military means.
  • Cooperative Security: Works with non-member countries to enhance global security.
  • Current Membership:
  • NATO has 32 members (as of 2024), including the newest members Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024).
  • Key Institutions:
  • NATO Headquarters: Located in Brussels, Belgium.
  • Military Command: Includes the Supreme Headquarters Allied Powers Europe (SHAPE) in Mons, Belgium.
31

Which component of fertilizer is used for stimulating early growth purpose?

  1. ((a))

    Potassium

  2. ((b))

    Nitrogen

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen

  4. ((d))

    Phosphorus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Phosphorus

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • Phosphorus is also vital for early growth, particularly in root development and energy transfer within the plant. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Role of Phosphorus in Early Growth:
  • Stimulates Root Development: Phosphorus promotes strong root systems, which are critical during the early stages of plant growth.
  • Energy Transfer: Phosphorus is a component of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the energy currency of cells, supporting various metabolic processes.
  • Seedling Growth: Essential for early establishment, as it enhances the strength of young plants.
  • Sources of Phosphorus in Fertilizers:
  • Single Superphosphate (SSP).
  • Diammonium Phosphate (DAP).
  • Bone Meal (organic source).
  • Complementary Roles:
  • Nitrogen stimulates vegetative growth (leaves and stems).
  • Phosphorus primarily boosts early growth by focusing on root and overall plant energy needs.
  • Thus, phosphorus is indeed a key component for stimulating early-stage growth, particularly through strong root development and energy facilitation.
32

Malik Kafur, also known as "Hazar Dinari," was bought by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Alauddin Khilji

  2. ((b))

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

  3. ((c))

    Nusrat Khan

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Nusrat Khan

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • Malik Kafur was originally a slave and was purchased by Nusrat Khan. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Nusrat Khan recognized Kafur's abilities and later presented him to Alauddin Khilji, who made him a prominent commander.
  • Malik Kafur played a key role in the Delhi Sultanate and was involved in significant military campaigns under Alauddin Khilji.
33

In which of the following years was the Bihar State Hydroelectric Power Corporation established?

  1. ((a))

    1992

  2. ((b))

    1982

  3. ((c))

    1998

  4. ((d))

    1990

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1982

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The Bihar State Hydroelectric Power Corporation was established in 1982. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Purpose: To promote and manage the development of hydroelectric power projects in the state of Bihar.
  • Role:
  • Harnesses hydroelectric potential for generating clean and sustainable energy.
  • Plays a key role in meeting the power demands of the state.
  • Significance: Contributes to Bihar's energy infrastructure and rural electrification efforts
34

Who wrote "New Lamps For The Old"?

  1. ((a))

    Surendranath

  2. ((b))

    Aurobindo Ghosh

  3. ((c))

    Motilal Ghosh

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Aurobindo Ghosh

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • "New Lamps for Old" was written by Sri Aurobindo. Hence, option 2 is correct. 
  • Content: Aurobindo critiqued the moderate approach of the Indian National Congress and emphasized the need for a more assertive and radical stance in the struggle against British colonial rule.

Additional Information

Other Writings of Aurobindo Ghosh:

  • Political Writings:
  • Bande Mataram (1906–1908):
  • A series of articles in the nationalist newspaper advocating Indian independence and criticizing British rule.
  • Karmayogin (1909):
  • A weekly journal that discussed nationalism and spiritual philosophy.
  • The Doctrine of Passive Resistance:
  • A political treatise outlining strategies for resisting British rule without violence.
  • Philosophical and Spiritual Works:
  • The Life Divine (1939–1940):
  • Explores the nature of existence and integrates Vedantic philosophy with modern ideas.
  • Essays on the Gita:
  • A philosophical interpretation of the Bhagavad Gita, relating its teachings to contemporary life and spirituality.
  • The Synthesis of Yoga:
  • Discusses various paths of yoga, synthesizing them into an integrated spiritual discipline.
35

What was the theme of the International Olympic Day 2024, celebrated every year on 23rd June?

  1. ((a))

    Together, For a Peaceful World

  2. ((b))

    Let’s Move

  3. ((c))

    Move, learn, discover—Together for a better world

  4. ((d))

    Let’s Move and Celebrate

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Let’s Move and Celebrate

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The theme for International Olympic Day 2024, celebrated annually on June 23rd, was "Let’s Move and Celebrate."  Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • This theme aimed to inspire individuals worldwide to embrace physical activity and find joy in movement, aligning with the Olympic spirit of promoting health, unity, and participation in sports.
  • In collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO), the International Olympic Committee (IOC) encouraged people to incorporate at least 30 minutes of daily activity into their routines, emphasizing the importance of an active lifestyle for overall well-being.
  • The 2024 celebration held special significance as it preceded the Paris 2024 Summer Olympics, further motivating global communities to engage in sports and celebrate the upcoming Games.
36

Who was the President of the Indian National Congress at the Patna Session held in 1912?

  1. ((a))

    Saiyed Mohammad Bahadur

  2. ((b))

    Sir S. P. Sinha

  3. ((c))

    Saiyed Hassan Imam

  4. ((d))

    R. N. Madhulkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

R. N. Madhulkar

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The President of the Indian National Congress at the Patna Session in 1912 was Rao Bahadur Raghunath Narasinha Mudholkar. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Session: The 27th session of the Indian National Congress.
  • Place: Held in Patna, Bihar.
  • Significance:
  • Mudholkar emphasized the importance of self-governance and constitutional methods for attaining India's political goals.
  • Discussions were held regarding social and political reforms and increasing participation in governance.
  • Background of Mudholkar:
  • A prominent lawyer and moderate leader.
  • Advocated for cooperation with British authorities while pushing for greater political autonomy for Indians.
37

What is the 14th term of the sequence 14, 10, 6, 2...?

  1. ((a))

    -42

  2. ((b))

    -34

  3. ((c))

    -46

  4. ((d))

    -38

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

-38

The Correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points⇒ The sequence decreases by  −4 each time.

⇒ The formula for the  n-th term of an AP is: an = a1 + (n-1) .d 

⇒ Here, a1 = 14 , d = -4 , n = 14 

⇒  a14 =14 + (14−1)(−4) = 14 − 52 = −38.

Hence Option 4 is correct.

38

What were the shares of the Agriculture, Industry, and Services sectors in overall GVA at current prices in Financial Year 2024 according to the Economic Survey 2023-24?

  1. ((a))

    17.7%, 27.6%, and 54.7%

  2. ((b))

    18.7%, 28.6%, and 52.7%

  3. ((c))

    17.7%, 28.6%, and 53.7%

  4. ((d))

    16.7%, 26.6%, and 56.7%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17.7%, 27.6%, and 54.7%

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • According to the Economic Survey 2023-24, the shares of the three major sectors in India's Gross Value Added (GVA) at current prices for Financial Year 2024 (FY24) are as follows:
  • Agriculture: 17.7%
  • Industry: 27.6%
  • Services: 54.7%. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • These figures highlight the dominant contribution of the services sector to India's economy, followed by industry and agriculture.
  • Within the industrial sector, manufacturing GVA experienced a significant rebound, growing by 9.9% in FY24, recovering from a downturn in the previous fiscal year.
  • On the demand side, private final consumption expenditure (PFCE), a key driver of GDP growth, increased by 4.0% in real terms during FY24, indicating stable consumption demand.
  • These sectoral contributions and growth rates reflect the structural composition of India's economy and the dynamics influencing its growth trajectory during FY24.
39

In which city of Bihar is the recently inaugurated National Dolphin Research Centre located?

  1. ((a))

    Darbhanga

  2. ((b))

    Patna

  3. ((c))

    Munger

  4. ((d))

    Gaya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Patna

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

National Dolphin Research Centre:

  • The National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC), India's first dedicated facility for the conservation and research of the endangered Gangetic river dolphin, was inaugurated in Patna, Bihar, on March 4, 2024, by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Strategically located near the Ganga River on the Patna University campus, the NDRC aims to serve as a hub for scientists and researchers focusing on various aspects of dolphin behavior, ecology, and conservation.
  • The establishment of this center marks a significant step forward in efforts to protect India's national aquatic animal and enhance understanding of river ecosystems.

Additional InformationGangetic River Dolphins:

  • Scientific Name: Platanista gangetica.
  • Habitat: Found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems.
  • Features:
  • Blind and rely on echolocation to navigate and hunt.
  • Serve as an indicator species, reflecting the health of freshwater ecosystems.
  • Protected Areas:
  • Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary in Bihar is a key protected area.
40

Which of the following are the constituents of a soda acid fire extinguisher?

  1. ((a))

    Conc. sulphuric acid and aluminium sulphate

  2. ((b))

    Dil. sulphuric acid and sodium carbonate

  3. ((c))

    Dil. sulphuric acid and sodium bicarbonate solution

  4. ((d))

    Conc. sulphuric acid and sodium carbonate solution

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Dil. sulphuric acid and sodium bicarbonate solution

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The constituents of a soda acid fire extinguisher are:
  • Sodium Bicarbonate (Baking Soda):
  • Chemical Formula: NaHCO₃.
  • Acts as a source of carbon dioxide when it reacts with acid.
  • Sulfuric Acid:
  • Chemical Formula: H₂SO₄.
  • Provides the acidic medium to react with sodium bicarbonate. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Reaction:
  • When the fire extinguisher is activated, sulfuric acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas (CO₂), which helps in extinguishing the fire by displacing oxygen.
  • The reaction is:
  • 2NaHCO₃+H₂SO₄→Na₂SO₄+H₂O+2CO₂ (gas)
  • Working Principle:
  • Carbon dioxide is heavier than air and forms a blanket over the fire, cutting off the oxygen supply needed for combustion.
  • The water formed in the reaction also helps in cooling the fire.
  • This type of fire extinguisher is effective against Class B fires (flammable liquids) and Class C fires (electrical fires).
41

Which of the following bacterial diseases is called as splenic fever?

  1. ((a))

    Typhoid

  2. ((b))

    Anthrax

  3. ((c))

    Cholera

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Anthrax

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The bacterial disease known as splenic fever is Anthrax. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Cause: Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis.
  • Why it's called Splenic Fever:
  • The name arises from the characteristic swelling and darkening of the spleen observed in infected animals.
  • Transmission:
  • It primarily affects livestock but can also infect humans through contact with contaminated animals, products, or inhalation of spores.
  • Forms of Anthrax:
  • Cutaneous Anthrax: Affects the skin.
  • Inhalation Anthrax: Affects the respiratory system.
  • Gastrointestinal Anthrax: Affects the digestive tract.
  • Symptoms in Humans:
  • Fever, fatigue, skin lesions, difficulty breathing (inhalation anthrax), and severe abdominal pain (gastrointestinal anthrax).
  • Anthrax is considered a significant zoonotic disease and requires careful handling and treatment.
42

Where was the Japan-India bilateral Maritime Exercise (JIMEX-24) held this year?

  1. ((a))

    Yokosuka, Japan

  2. ((b))

    Bay of Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Western Pacific Ocean

  4. ((d))

    Vishakhapatnam, India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yokosuka, Japan

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The Japan-India Maritime Exercise (JIMEX-24) was held in Yokosuka, Japan, commencing on June 11, 2024. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • This eighth edition of the exercise featured the Indian Navy's indigenous stealth frigate INS Shivalik and the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force's (JMSDF) guided missile destroyer JS Yugiri.
  • The exercise included both harbor and sea phases, focusing on enhancing interoperability and cooperation between the two navies.
  • In addition to JIMEX, India and Japan engage in several other joint military exercises to strengthen their defense collaboration:
  • Dharma Guardian: An annual joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Japan Ground Self-Defense Force. The fifth edition took place from February 25 to March 9, 2024, at the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan, India.
  • Veer Guardian: A bilateral air exercise involving the Indian Air Force and the Japan Air Self-Defense Force. The inaugural edition, Veer Guardian 2023, was conducted in January 2023 at Hyakuri Air Base in Japan, marking a significant milestone in air defense cooperation between the two nations.
43

Ramkrishna Mission was founded by

  1. ((a))

    Vidyasagar in 1899

  2. ((b))

    Swami Vivekanand in 1899

  3. ((c))

    Swami Vivekanand in 1897

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swami Vivekanand in 1897

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Purpose:
  • To propagate the teachings of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, who emphasized universal brotherhood, selfless service, and spiritual enlightenment.
  • To combine spirituality with practical social work, including education, healthcare, and disaster relief.
  • Headquarters:
  • The Ramakrishna Math and Mission are headquartered at Belur Math, near Kolkata, West Bengal.
  • Significance:
  • The mission promotes interfaith harmony, humanitarian work, and the Vedantic philosophy.
  • It has played a significant role in India's spiritual and social transformation.
  • The motto of the Ramakrishna Mission is: “For one's own salvation and for the welfare of the world.”
44

In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code language?

  1. ((a))

    MFEDJOFM

  2. ((b))

    MFBDPQOF

  3. ((c))

    EOJDJEFM

  4. ((d))

    EOJDEJEM

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

EOJDJEFM

The Correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

45

Which of the following radiation is used to get relief from body aches?

  1. ((a))

    Infra-red radiation

  2. ((b))

    UV radiation

  3. ((c))

    Visible radiation

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Infra-red radiation

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The type of radiation used to get relief from body aches is infrared radiation (IR). Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Infrared Radiation:
  • Infrared therapy is commonly used in physiotherapy and medical treatments to relieve body aches and muscle pain.
  • Infrared radiation penetrates the skin and generates heat, improving blood circulation, relaxing muscles, and reducing stiffness.
  • Applications:
  • Infrared lamps and heating pads are widely used for pain relief in conditions like arthritis, muscle sprains, and joint discomfort.
  • It is also beneficial for reducing inflammation and accelerating the healing process.
  • This non-invasive treatment is effective for localized pain and muscle relaxation.
46

Which of the following was the capital of the Chera dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Kuravur/Karur

  2. ((b))

    Kanchipuram

  3. ((c))

    Madurai

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kuravur/Karur

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The capital of the Chera dynasty was Vanchi (also known as Vanchi Muthur or Karur). Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Vanchi: Believed to be located near present-day Karur in Tamil Nadu or Kodungallur in Kerala.
  • Chera Dynasty:
  • One of the prominent Tamil dynasties of the Sangam period, alongside the Chola and Pandya dynasties.
  • Ruled over parts of present-day Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • Known for their extensive trade with the Roman Empire and their role in the spice trade.
  • The exact location of Vanchi has been debated, but it is historically associated with the Chera dynasty's cultural and political prominence.
47

The book critical of the British Policies Gharib Hindustan, which was banned in Bihar in 1930 by the British, was written by?

  1. ((a))

    Ali Mohd. Shad

  2. ((b))

    Mohd. Wali Hassan

  3. ((c))

    Badru Hassan

  4. ((d))

    Shaikh Mian Jaan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mohd. Wali Hassan

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The book "Gharib Hindustan", critical of British policies and banned in Bihar in 1930, was authored by Mohammad Wali Hasan Purainvi. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Author: Mohammad Wali Hasan Purainvi was an Urdu writer known for his works addressing socio-political issues during British colonial rule.
  • Content: "Gharib Hindustan" delves into the hardships faced by Indians under British administration, highlighting economic exploitation and social injustices.
  • Publication: The book was published in 1930 and subsequently banned by British authorities in Bihar due to its critical perspective on colonial policies.
  • This work is significant in the context of Indian literature as it reflects the sentiments of resistance and the quest for independence prevalent during that era.
48

What was the contribution of agriculture in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of Bihar in the financial year 2021-22?

  1. ((a))

    0.19

  2. ((b))

    0.17

  3. ((c))

    0.33

  4. ((d))

    0.26

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

0.26

According to the Economic Survey of Bihar 2022-23, the contribution of the agriculture and allied sectors to the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar at current prices for the year 2021-22 was 26%.

Key Points

  • The contribution of the agriculture and allied sectors to the GSDP of Bihar was 26% in 2021-22.
49

By how much did the Female Labour Force Participation Rate increase from 2017-18 to 2022-23, according to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)?

  1. ((a))

    From 25.3% to 35%

  2. ((b))

    From 23.3% to 37%

  3. ((c))

    From 23.3% to 33%

  4. ((d))

    From 23.3% to 30.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

From 23.3% to 37%

The Correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), India's Female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for individuals aged 15 years and above increased from 23.3% in 2017-18 to 37.0% in 2022-23, marking a rise of 13.7 percentage points over this period. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • This upward trend reflects a significant enhancement in women's engagement in the labor market across both rural and urban regions.
  • In rural areas, the female LFPR rose from 24.6% in 2017-18 to 41.5% in 2022-23, indicating a growth of 16.9 percentage points.
  • Urban areas experienced an increase from 20.4% to 25.4% during the same period, showing a rise of 5 percentage points.
50

Which country took over the chairmanship of BRICS on January 1, 2024?

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    Russia

  3. ((c))

    South Africa

  4. ((d))

    Brazil

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Russia

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • On January 1, 2024, Russia assumed the chairmanship of BRICS, succeeding South Africa. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • A significant event during Russia's chairmanship was the 16th BRICS Summit, held from October 22 to 24, 2024, in Kazan.
  • This summit was notable for the participation of new members, including Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates, following their accession to BRICS.

Additional Information

BRICS:

  • Formation:
  • Initially referred to as BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China), the group was conceptualized in 2001 by economist Jim O'Neill to represent emerging market economies.
  • Formally established in 2009.
  • South Africa joined in 2010, making it BRICS.
  • BRICS collectively accounts for:
  • 40% of the global population.
  • 25% of global GDP.
51

Which one of the following is an example of melamine used for making floor tiles?

  1. ((a))

    Polyethene

  2. ((b))

    Thermoplastics

  3. ((c))

    PVC

  4. ((d))

    Thermo-setting plastic

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Thermo-setting plastic

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • Thermosetting plastics, such as melamine-formaldehyde resin, are used in making floor tiles. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • These materials harden irreversibly when heated, making them durable, heat-resistant, and scratch-proof, which are ideal properties for floor tiles.
  • Melamine, combined with formaldehyde, forms a strong and rigid plastic, extensively used in construction and decorative applications.
52

How many triangles are there in the following figure PQRS?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12

The Correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • Triangles 1–4: Formed by the diagonals  PR and QS.
  • Triangles 5–8: Smaller triangles created by vertical and horizontal lines intersecting at O.
  • Triangles 9–12: Additional triangles near the edges of the rectangle.
  • Total Count = 12 triangles.
  • Hence Correct answer is Option 4.
53

Which of the following is a cause of rural to urban migration in India?

  1. ((a))

    High labour demand in cities

  2. ((b))

    Unbalanced rural-urban development

  3. ((c))

    Few jobs in rural areas

  4. ((d))

    All the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All the above

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • Cause of rural to urban migration in India:
  • High labour demand in cities
  • Unbalanced rural-urban development
  • Few jobs in rural areas. Hence, option 4 is correct.
54

According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), what is the forecast for headline inflation in Financial Year 2025?

  1. ((a))

    5.0%

  2. ((b))

    4.1%

  3. ((c))

    5.5%

  4. ((d))

    4.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4.5%

BPSC deleted this question.

Key Points

  • RBI revises the data every quarter. On 6th December 2024, The revised estimated data was 4.8, which is not mentined in the options. The exam was

held on 13-12-2024

55

The hundred years of Indian National Congress in Bihar was edited by

  1. ((a))

    K. K. Dutta

  2. ((b))

    P. N. Ojha

  3. ((c))

    A. R. Desai

  4. ((d))

    B. B. Mishra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

P. N. Ojha

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The book "The Hundred Years of Indian National Congress in Bihar" was edited by P. N. Ojha. Hence, option 2 is correct.
56

In which organisms does spore formation occur as a mode of reproduction?

  1. ((a))

    Fungi

  2. ((b))

    Algae

  3. ((c))

    Yeast

  4. ((d))

    Fern

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fungi

BPSC deleted this question.

Key Points

  • The spores formation takes place in-algae during asexual reproduction, Fungi during sexual reproduction and in Fern during reproduction.
  • Thus more than one option is correct.
57

When did the Britishers shift the capital to Delhi?

  1. ((a))

    1912

  2. ((b))

    1913

  3. ((c))

    1911

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1912

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The Britishers decided to shift the capital of British India from Kolkata (Calcutta) to Delhi in 1912. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • The announcement was made during the Delhi Durbar held in December 1911.
  • The shift was part of a strategy to have the capital more centrally located in India.
  • The construction of New Delhi as the capital took several years, and the formal inauguration of New Delhi as the capital occurred in 1931.
  • Kolkata had served as the capital since 1772 before the capital was moved to Delhi.
58

Zoji-la Tunnel will connect which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Manali and Jammu

  2. ((b))

    Manali and Lahaul Spiti valley

  3. ((c))

    Srinagar and Leh

  4. ((d))

    Srinagar and Jammu

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Srinagar and Leh

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The Zoji-la Tunnel will connect Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Leh in Ladakh. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Significance:
  • The tunnel is being constructed to provide all-weather connectivity between the Kashmir Valley and Ladakh, which are often cut off during winter due to heavy snowfall at the Zoji La Pass.
  • It will enhance the movement of goods, military personnel, and civilians in the region.
  • Length:
  • The Zoji-la Tunnel is approximately 13.2 kilometers long, making it one of the longest tunnels in Asia.

Zojila tunnel: Kashmir to Ladakh, all year round | Explained News - The  Indian Express

59

Who is the author of the autobiography "I Have the Streets: A Kutti Cricket Story"?

  1. ((a))

    S. Sreesanth

  2. ((b))

    Suresh Raina

  3. ((c))

    Rahul Dravid

  4. ((d))

    R. Ashwin and S. Monga

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

R. Ashwin and S. Monga

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The autobiography "I Have the Streets: A Kutti Cricket Story" is authored by Ravichandran Ashwin, co-written with Sidharth Monga. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • This book delves into Ashwin's journey from playing cricket on the streets of Chennai to becoming an international cricket star.
  • It provides insights into his early life, challenges, and the experiences that shaped his cricketing career.
  • The autobiography was released on June 10, 2024.

 

I Have the Streets: A Kutty Cricket Story: A Kutti Cricket Story : Ashwin,  R, Monga, Mr Sidharth: Amazon.in: Books

60

Where was the 13th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization (WTO) held in February 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Argentina

  2. ((b))

    Abu Dhabi

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    Switzerland

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Abu Dhabi

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) of the World Trade Organization (WTO) was held from February 26 to 29, 2024, in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates (UAE). Hence, option 2 is correct.

World Trade Organization (WTO): 

  • The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international organization that regulates and facilitates global trade among nations.
  • Established in 1995, it succeeded the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which was created in 1948.
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
  • Membership:
  • As of 2024, the WTO has 164 member countries, covering over 98% of global trade.
  • India has been a member since 1 January 1995.
61

Which one of the following rivers is different from the others?

  1. ((a))

    Tungabhadra

  2. ((b))

    Narmada

  3. ((c))

    Penganga

  4. ((d))

    Mahanadi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Narmada

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Narmada is west-flowing, while Penganga, Tungabhadra, and Mahanadi are east-flowing rivers. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Narmada: West-flowing.
  • Originates from the Amarkantak Plateau, Madhya Pradesh, and drains into the Arabian Sea.
  • East-Flowing Rivers: These rivers flow towards the Bay of Bengal.
  • They form extensive deltas at their mouths due to heavy silt deposition.
  • Penganga: East-flowing.
  • Tributary of the Godavari River, which flows into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Tungabhadra: East-flowing.
  • Tributary of the Krishna River, which flows into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Mahanadi: East-flowing.
  • Originates in Chhattisgarh and drains into the Bay of Bengal, forming a large delta.

River System Of India – subratachak

62

If ÷ means +, − means ÷, × means −, and + means ×, then the value of:(36×4)8×44+8×2+16÷1\frac{(36 \times 4) - 8 \times 4}{4 + 8 \times 2 + 16 ÷ 1} is

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0

The Correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

Substitution Rules:

÷ means +

− means  ÷

× means  − 

  • means  ×

Given : (36×4)−8×44+8×2+16+1(36×4)−8×44+8×2+16+1(36×4)−8×44+8×2+16+1(36×4)−8×44+8×2+16+1(36×4)−8×44+8×2+16+1(36×4)−8×44+8×2+16+1(36×4)−8×44+8×2+16+1

Code
     

Replace by Above Indication : (36×4)8×44+8×2+16÷1\frac{(36 \times 4) - 8 \times 4}{4 + 8 \times 2 + 16 ÷ 1}

Simplify numerator and denominator:

Numerator: After Changing Symbol 

(36 - 4 ) ÷  8 - 4  ⇒ 32 ÷ 8 ⇒ 4 - 4 = 0 

Thus, the numerator = 0 

Denominator : After Changing Symbol 

4  × 8 - 2  × 16 + 1 = 32 - 2  × 16 + 1 ⇒ 30 × 16 + 1 ⇒ 480 + 1 = 481 

When We divided 0 by any Number then We get Zero 

Hence Correct answer is Option 2.

63

Which of the following is the first artificially prepared element?

  1. ((a))

    Te

  2. ((b))

    Tc

  3. ((c))

    Th

  4. ((d))

    Tl

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tc

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The first artificially prepared element is Technetium (Tc).
  • Discovered in: 1937.
  • By: Carlo Perrier and Emilio Segrè.
  • How it was made: Technetium was artificially produced by bombarding molybdenum atoms with deuterons (nuclei of heavy hydrogen) in a cyclotron.
  • Significance: It was the first element to be created artificially, as it does not naturally occur on Earth in significant amounts.

Other Elements in the List:

  • Tellurium (Te):
  • A naturally occurring element, not artificially prepared.
  • Thorium (Th):
  • Naturally occurring radioactive element, discovered before artificial synthesis techniques.
  • Thallium (Tl):
  • Naturally occurring element, not the result of artificial synthesis.
  • Thus, Technetium (Tc) holds the distinction of being the first artificially prepared element. Hence, option 2 is correct.
64

What is the full form of CGTMSE?

  1. ((a))

    Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Macro and Small Enterprises

  2. ((b))

    Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Medium and Small Enterprises

  3. ((c))

    Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Medium Enterprises

  4. ((d))

    Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

The Correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The full form of CGTMSE is Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Established: In 2000 by the Government of India and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
  • Purpose:
  • To provide credit guarantees to financial institutions for loans extended to micro and small enterprises (MSEs).
  • To encourage collateral-free lending to promote entrepreneurship among small businesses.
  • Coverage:
  • Loans up to ₹2 crore (or as per the latest scheme updates) for eligible businesses are covered under the scheme.
  • Benefits:
  • Reduces risk for lenders.
  • Encourages banks and financial institutions to lend to MSEs without the requirement of collateral.
65

Who gave the slogan "DO OR DIE" and when?

  1. ((a))

    Subhash Chandra Bose during Quit India Movement

  2. ((b))

    Jawahar Lal Nehru during Non-cooperation Movement

  3. ((c))

    Gandhiji during Quit India Movement

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gandhiji during Quit India Movement

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The slogan "Do or Die" was given by Mahatma Gandhi on 8th August 1942 during the Quit India Movement. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Context:
  • The slogan was a part of Gandhi's speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan (August Kranti Maidan) in Bombay (now Mumbai).
  • It marked the launch of the Quit India Movement, demanding an immediate end to British rule in India.
66

Which of the following is the fluid part of the blood?

  1. ((a))

    WBC

  2. ((b))

    Plasma

  3. ((c))

    Blood platelets

  4. ((d))

    RBC

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Plasma

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points8

  • The fluid part of the blood is called plasma. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Plasma:
  • Makes up about 55% of the total blood volume.
  • It is a yellowish liquid that serves as the medium for transporting nutrients, hormones, waste products, and other substances throughout the body.
  • Composition of Plasma:
  • Water (~90-92%): Acts as the solvent.
  • Proteins (~7%):
  • Albumin: Maintains osmotic pressure.
  • Globulins: Play roles in immunity.
  • Fibrinogen: Essential for blood clotting.
  • Electrolytes: Sodium, potassium, calcium, etc., which maintain pH and osmotic balance.
  • Nutrients: Glucose, amino acids, and lipids.
  • Waste Products: Urea and carbon dioxide.
  • Hormones and Enzymes.
  • Other Components of Blood (Non-Fluid Parts):
  • Red Blood Cells (RBCs): Carry oxygen.
  • White Blood Cells (WBCs): Fight infections.
  • Platelets: Help in blood clotting.
67

Consider the following about Ajivika sect:

a. Makhali Gosala was its most important leader.

b. Central idea of the philosophy was "NIYATI" that is fate.

c. The discrimination on the basis of caste and class.

d. The Ajivikas had regular sabhas for meetings.

  1. ((a))

    b, c, and d are correct

  2. ((b))

    a, b, and d are correct

  3. ((c))

    a and d are correct

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a, b, and d are correct

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Makhali Gosala was the founder and a significant figure in the Ajivika sect. Hence, statement a is correct.
  • The Ajivikas believed in the doctrine of Niyati, which emphasized determinism and the lack of free will. Hence, statement b is correct.
  • The Ajivikas opposed caste-based discrimination and emphasized equality, much like other heterodox sects. Hence, statement c is incorrect.
  • Historical accounts suggest that the Ajivikas organized regular sabhas (assemblies) to discuss their doctrines and maintain organizational cohesion. Hence, statement d is correct.

Additional Information

The Ajivika Sect: 

  • The Ajivika sect was one of the significant heterodox sects in ancient India, alongside Buddhism and Jainism. It flourished during the 6th century BCE and was founded by Makkhali Gosala, a contemporary of Mahavira and Gautama Buddha.

Key Features of the Ajivika Sect:

  • Founder:
  • Makkhali Gosala, who initially followed Jainism under Mahavira but later separated to establish the Ajivika sect.
  • Core Philosophy:
  • Niyati (Fate):
  • The Ajivikas believed in absolute determinism, meaning everything in life is preordained and governed by fate (Niyati).
  • There is no scope for human effort or free will to change the course of events.
  • Eternal Cycle of Time:
  • Time was seen as cyclical, with the world undergoing endless cycles of creation and destruction.
  • Denial of Karma's Influence:
  • While other sects emphasized karma, the Ajivikas believed that karma had no impact on one's current life or fate.
  • Beliefs and Practices:
  • The sect did not believe in a creator god but held a deterministic worldview.
  • The Ajivikas practiced asceticism, with rigorous discipline and severe self-restraint.
  • They emphasized renunciation and lived as wandering mendicants.
  • Social Views:
  • Opposed caste discrimination and promoted equality.
  • Attracted followers from various social backgrounds, including the marginalized.
  • Meetings and Assemblies:
  • The Ajivikas organized regular sabhas (meetings) to discuss their doctrines and maintain unity within the community.
  • Rise and Decline:
  • Rise:
  • The Ajivikas initially gained significant influence in Magadha and Southern India.
  • Supported by rulers such as Bindusara, the Mauryan emperor, who was a follower of the sect.
  • Decline:
  • Over time, the Ajivika sect declined due to the rising prominence of Buddhism and Jainism.
  • By the medieval period, the sect had disappeared.
68

Which of the following minerals occurs in the Minas Gerais province of Brazil?

  1. ((a))

    Bauxite

  2. ((b))

    Iron ore

  3. ((c))

    Mica

  4. ((d))

    Coal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Iron ore

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The Minas Gerais province of Brazil is indeed renowned for its iron ore deposits. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Iron Ore in Minas Gerais:
  • The province is one of the world's largest producers of high-grade iron ore.
  • The Iron Quadrangle (Quadrilátero Ferrífero) in Minas Gerais is particularly rich in iron ore deposits and has been a significant mining region since the 18th century.
  • Global Significance:
  • Brazil is the second-largest exporter of iron ore in the world, with Minas Gerais being the epicenter of its production.
  • Companies like Vale S.A., one of the largest mining corporations globally, operate extensively in this region.
69

The first Hindi daily newspaper to be published in Bihar was

  1. ((a))

    Kshatriya Samachar

  2. ((b))

    Udyoga

  3. ((c))

    Sarwa Hitaishi

  4. ((d))

    Chaitanya Chandrika

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sarwa Hitaishi

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The first Hindi daily newspaper to be published in Bihar was "Sarwa Hitaishi". Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Founded by: Bhargava Press.
  • Year of Publication: 1874.
  • Significance:
  • "Sarwa Hitaishi" played a pivotal role in disseminating news and promoting Hindi as a language in journalism.
  • It focused on social, cultural, and political issues, aiming to address the concerns of the common people.
  • While "Bihar Bandhu" was the first Hindi newspaper in Bihar (published in 1872), "Sarwa Hitaishi" holds the distinction of being the first daily Hindi newspaper in the region.
70

Which of the following has highly elongated elliptical orbit?

  1. ((a))

    Asteroid

  2. ((b))

    Comet

  3. ((c))

    Meteorite

  4. ((d))

    Meteor

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Comet

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Comet:
  • Comets have highly elongated elliptical orbits. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • They originate from the Oort Cloud or Kuiper Belt and travel around the Sun.
  • Their orbit brings them close to the Sun (perihelion) and then far away (aphelion).
  • Example: Halley's Comet.
  • Asteroid:
  • Asteroids generally have more circular orbits and are mostly found in the Asteroid Belt between Mars and Jupiter.
  • Meteorite:
  • A meteorite is a fragment of a meteoroid that survives its passage through Earth's atmosphere and lands on the surface.
  • It does not have its own orbit.
  • Meteor:
  • A meteor is the streak of light produced when a meteoroid enters the Earth’s atmosphere and burns up.
  • It is transient and does not have a defined orbit.
71

If February 1, 1996, is Wednesday, what day is March 3, 1996?

  1. ((a))

    Friday

  2. ((b))

    Sunday

  3. ((c))

    Saturday

  4. ((d))

    Monday

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Saturday

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key PointsFebruary 1996 is a leap year

⇒ Since 1996 is divisible by 4, it is a leap year. This means February has 29 days.

Count the days from February 1 to March 3

⇒ Days remaining in February:

⇒ February has 29 days.

⇒ From February 1 (Wednesday) to February 29:

⇒ Total days = 28 days after February 1.

⇒ Divide by 7 (week cycle):  28÷7=4 weeks.

⇒ Hence, February 29 is also Wednesday.

Count days in March up to March 3:

⇒ March 1: Thursday (1 day after Wednesday),

⇒ March 2: Friday,

⇒ March 3: Saturday.

⇒ March 3, 1996, is Saturday.

Hence Correct answer is Option 3.

72

Name the place where Donald Trump was speaking at an election rally when an alleged shooter, Thomas Matthew Crooks, shot and injured him.

  1. ((a))

    Pennsylvania

  2. ((b))

    Milwaukee

  3. ((c))

    Texas

  4. ((d))

    Arizona

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pennsylvania

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • On July 13, 2024, during an election rally near Butler, Pennsylvania, former President Donald Trump was shot and injured by Thomas Matthew Crooks. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • The assailant fired eight rounds from an AR-15–style rifle, grazing Trump's right ear and tragically killing an attendee named Corey Comperatore. Crooks was subsequently shot and killed by the U.S. Secret Service's counter-sniper team.
  • The incident prompted a comprehensive investigation into security protocols at political events, leading to a congressional task force report that identified several procedural and communication lapses within the Secret Service.
  • The report emphasized the need for better resource management and clear communication to prevent future security breaches.
73

What is the position of India in manufacturing of mobile phones in 2023?

  1. ((a))

    10th

  2. ((b))

    2nd

  3. ((c))

    5th

  4. ((d))

    4th

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2nd

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • As of 2023, India has become the world's second-largest mobile phone manufacturer, following China. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Key Highlights:
  • Production Growth: India's mobile phone manufacturing has experienced a significant increase, with the value rising from approximately ₹18,900 crore in 2014-15 to an estimated ₹4.1 lakh crore in FY24.
  • Export Milestone: In the first nine months of FY24, India's mobile device exports reached $10.5 billion, surpassing projections for the entire year.
  • Government Initiatives: Programs like the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme have been instrumental in attracting global players to boost local production, contributing to India's rise in the global manufacturing landscape.
74

Which of the following cities is located along the side of river Seine?

  1. ((a))

    Paris

  2. ((b))

    Belgrade

  3. ((c))

    Lisbon

  4. ((d))

    Budapest

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Paris

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The city located along the side of the River Seine is Paris. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Location: The Seine flows through the heart of Paris, France.
  • Significance:
  • The river is iconic and plays a central role in the city’s geography and cultural identity.
  • Many famous landmarks, including the Eiffel Tower, Notre-Dame Cathedral, and the Louvre Museum, are located along its banks.
  • UNESCO Heritage: The banks of the Seine in Paris are a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to their historical and cultural significance.
75

According to the Reserve Bank of India, what is one of the eligibility criteria for a Small Finance Bank (SFB) to transition into a Universal Bank?

  1. ((a))

    Minimum net worth of ₹1,500 crore

  2. ((b))

    Minimum net worth of ₹500 crore

  3. ((c))

    Minimum net worth of ₹2,000 crore

  4. ((d))

    Minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore

The Correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) specifies that for a Small Finance Bank (SFB) to transition into a Universal Bank, it must meet certain criteria, including the minimum paid-up capital requirement:
  • Key Eligibility Criteria for Transition:
  • Minimum Paid-Up Capital:
  • The SFB must have a minimum paid-up voting equity capital of ₹1,000 crore to transition into a Universal Bank. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Operational Period:
  • The SFB must have completed five years of successful operations as a Small Finance Bank.
  • Other Requirements:
  • Demonstrated financial stability, adherence to regulatory norms, and a strong track record of governance and risk management.
76

Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer:

**List - I (**Organisation)**List - II (**Headquarters)
I. Swadeshi Sevak Homea. Vancouver
II. United India Houseb. Seattle
III. Yugantar Ashramc. San Francisco
IV. INA or Azad Hind Faujd. Rangoon
  1. ((a))

    I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d

  2. ((b))

    I – c, II – b, III – a, IV – d

  3. ((c))

    I – a, II – c, III – b, IV – d

  4. ((d))

    I – d, II – c, III – a, IV – b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Swadeshi Sevak Home: Founded in Vancouver, this organization supported Indian immigrants in Canada.
  • United India House: Established in Seattle to foster unity among Indians and promote nationalist ideas.
  • Yugantar Ashram: Located in San Francisco, it was a key hub for the Ghadar Party's activities.
  • INA (Azad Hind Fauj): Headquartered in Rangoon (modern-day Yangon) during World War II under the leadership of Subhas Chandra Bose. Hence, option 1 is correct.
77

When did Muslim League observe "Direct Action Day"?

  1. ((a))

    14 August 1946

  2. ((b))

    15 August 1947

  3. ((c))

    16 August 1946

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16 August 1946

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The Muslim League observed "Direct Action Day" on 16th August 1946. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Reason for Observance:
  • The Muslim League, under the leadership of Muhammad Ali Jinnah, called for Direct Action Day to demand the creation of a separate nation for Muslims, which later became Pakistan.
  • It was a protest against the Congress Party's stance in the Constituent Assembly and the Cabinet Mission Plan's perceived failure to address Muslim interests.
  • Events:
  • The day was marked by widespread communal riots, particularly in Calcutta (now Kolkata), known as the Great Calcutta Killings.
  • The violence resulted in thousands of deaths and injuries, exacerbating Hindu-Muslim tensions.
  • Impact:
  • The communal unrest intensified demands for partition, ultimately leading to the division of India and the creation of Pakistan in 1947.
78

In June 2024, which city was named India’s "First UNESCO City of Literature"?

  1. ((a))

    Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Kozhikode

  3. ((c))

    Varanasi

  4. ((d))

    Hyderabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kozhikode

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • ​In June 2024, Kozhikode in Kerala was officially declared India's first UNESCO "City of Literature". Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Key Highlights:
  • UNESCO Recognition: Kozhikode earned its place in the 'Literature' category of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) in October 2023.
  • Cultural Significance: Known for its rich cultural heritage, Kozhikode has been home to literary greats like S.K. Pottekkatt and Vaikom Muhammad Basheer. The city boasts over 500 libraries and has been a hub for literary activities for several decades.
  • Annual Celebration: The state government announced that starting from 2024, June 23 will be celebrated annually as 'City of Literature' Day in Kozhikode. On this day, special awards will be presented in six categories to honor literary contributions.
79

What is the structural and functional unit of life?

  1. ((a))

    Cell

  2. ((b))

    Organ

  3. ((c))

    Tissue

  4. ((d))

    Organism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cell

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The structural and functional unit of life is the cell. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Key Details:
  • Structural Unit:
  • All living organisms are made up of cells.
  • Cells provide the basic structure for the body of an organism.
  • The organization of cells forms tissues, which build organs and ultimately the entire organism.
  • Functional Unit:
  • Cells perform essential life processes such as metabolism, respiration, growth, and reproduction.
  • They contain organelles like the nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes, etc., that perform specific functions to sustain life.
  • Types of Cells:
  • Prokaryotic Cells: Simple cells without a nucleus (e.g., bacteria).
  • Eukaryotic Cells: Complex cells with a nucleus (e.g., plant and animal cells).
  • Discovery:
  • The cell was first observed by Robert Hooke in 1665 using a microscope.
80

Gaurav walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?

  1. ((a))

    40 metres

  2. ((b))

    20 metres

  3. ((c))

    60 metres

  4. ((d))

    30 metres

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

60 metres

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

 

The path starts at the origin (0, 0).

Gaurav moves 20m North, 40m West, 20m South, and 20m West.

His final position is 60m West of the starting point.

Thus, the total displacement is 60 metres.

Hence Correct answer is Option 3.

81

Which one is not included in the Budget Priorities in pursuit of 'Vikasit Bharat' in Union Budget 2024-25?

  1. ((a))

    Energy Security

  2. ((b))

    Productivity and Resilience in Agriculture

  3. ((c))

    Sustainable Development

  4. ((d))

    Employment and Skilling

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sustainable Development

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • In the Union Budget 2024-25, the government outlined nine key priorities to achieve 'Viksit Bharat' (Developed India). Among the options provided, Sustainable Development is not explicitly listed as one of these nine priorities.
  • The Nine Priorities are:
  • Productivity and Resilience in Agriculture
  • Employment and Skilling
  • Inclusive Human Resource Development and Social Justice
  • Manufacturing and Services
  • Urban Development
  • Energy Security
  • Infrastructure
  • Innovation, Research & Development
  • Next Generation Reforms
  • While Sustainable Development is a crucial aspect of national policy, it is integrated across various sectors rather than being a standalone priority in this budget. Hence, option 3 is correct.
82

Which of the following drainage systems drains the lands of Bihar?

  1. ((a))

    Ghagra

  2. ((b))

    Mahanadi

  3. ((c))

    Yamuna

  4. ((d))

    Narmada

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ghagra

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The Ghagra River is part of the drainage system that drains the lands of Bihar.
  • Ghagra:
  • A tributary of the Ganga River, it flows through Uttar Pradesh and enters Bihar.
  • It contributes to the Ganga's extensive drainage system in Bihar. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Mahanadi:
  • Drains parts of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and flows into the Bay of Bengal.
  • It does not influence Bihar's drainage.
  • Yamuna:
  • A tributary of the Ganga River, it flows through Uttarakhand, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh but does not reach Bihar.
  • Narmada:
  • Flows westward through Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat into the Arabian Sea.
  • It does not drain Bihar.
83

Consider the types of land according to The Amarkosha:

a. Urvara - fertile

b. Maru - desert

c. Shadvala - grassy

d. Devamritaka - watered by rain.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. ((a))

    a and b both

  2. ((b))

    c and d both

  3. ((c))

    b, c, and d

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

More than one of the above

The Correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The types of land according to The Amarkosha, an ancient Sanskrit lexicon, are correctly matched as follows:
  • Urvara: Fertile land (Correct)
  • Maru: Desert (Correct)
  • Shadvala: Grassy land (Correct)
  • Devamritaka: Land watered by rain (Correct)
  • Explanation:
  • The Amarkosha, compiled by Amarasimha, categorizes land based on its physical and agricultural characteristics.
  • These classifications were crucial for understanding land use and agriculture in ancient times.
  • All of the above (a, b, c, and d) is correct answer.
84

Under Article "243J" which of the following can make provisions to the maintenance of accounts by Panchayats?

  1. ((a))

    Parliament

  2. ((b))

    State Legislature

  3. ((c))

    District Collector

  4. ((d))

    State Finance Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

State Legislature

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Under Article 243J of the Indian Constitution, the State Legislature is empowered to make provisions regarding the maintenance of accounts by Panchayats. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Key Details:
  • Article 243J falls under Part IX of the Constitution, which deals with the Panchayati Raj System.
  • It specifically allows the State Legislature to:
  • Prescribe the manner in which Panchayats maintain their accounts.
  • Ensure transparency and accountability in the financial management of Panchayats.
85

Which of the following is a non-contact force?

  1. ((a))

    Magnetic force

  2. ((b))

    Frictional force

  3. ((c))

    Impact force

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Magnetic force

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • Magnetic Force:
  • It is a non-contact force because it acts over a distance without physical contact between objects. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Example: A magnet attracting a piece of iron from a distance.
  • Frictional Force:
  • A contact force as it arises due to the interaction between surfaces in contact.
  • Impact Force:
  • A contact force generated during a collision between two objects.
86

Motorcycle is related to battery in the same way as Life is related to:

  1. ((a))

    Moon

  2. ((b))

    Earth

  3. ((c))

    Star

  4. ((d))

    Sun

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sun

The Correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • A motorcycle requires a battery to function as a crucial component that powers it.
  • Similarly, life requires the sun for energy and sustenance.
  • Thus, the correct answer is:4
87

Consider the following about the King "Praversena":

a. He was the real founder of Vakataka dynasty.

b. His empire extended from Bundelkhand in the north to Hyderabad in the south.

c. He succeeded his father king Vindhyashakti.

d. He is mentioned in Puranas.

Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. ((a))

    a and b both

  2. ((b))

    a and c both

  3. ((c))

    b, c, and d

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

More than one of the above

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

King Pravarasena:

  • King Pravarasena I was considered the real consolidator and significant ruler of the Vakataka dynasty, though the dynasty was initially established by his father, Vindhyashakti. Hence, statement a is correct.
  • Under Pravarasena I, the Vakataka empire expanded significantly, encompassing a vast territory from Bundelkhand in present-day Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh to Hyderabad in southern India. Hence, statement b is correct.
  • Pravarasena I was the son and successor of Vindhyashakti, who was the founder of the dynasty. Hence, statement c is correct.
  • The Puranas, such as the Vishnu Purana and Vayu Purana, mention Pravarasena and his contributions to the dynasty. Hence, statement d is correct.
  • All the statements a, b, c, and d are correct.
88

Match the following and choose the correct answer:

NewspaperEditor
I. Free Hindustana. Mahatma Gandhi
II. Indian Opinionb. Dadabhai Naoroji
III. Voice of Indiac. Surendranath Banerjee
IV. Bengaleed. Taraknath Das
  1. ((a))

    I – c, II – d, III – a, IV – b

  2. ((b))

    I – d, II – a, III – b, IV – c

  3. ((c))

    I – c, II – a, III – d, IV – b

  4. ((d))

    I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

I – d, II – a, III – b, IV – c

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Free Hindustan:
  • Edited by Taraknath Das, it was published in the United States to highlight the Indian freedom struggle.
  • Indian Opinion:
  • Started and edited by Mahatma Gandhi, it was published in South Africa to address the concerns of Indian immigrants.
  • Voice of India:
  • Edited by Dadabhai Naoroji, it focused on issues related to Indian independence and economic exploitation under British rule.
  • Bengalee:
  • Edited by Surendranath Banerjee, this newspaper voiced nationalist concerns and the plight of Indians under colonial rule.
  • Hence, option 2 is correct.
89

In which one of the following Freestyle weight categories, Aman Sehrawat became the first Indian male wrestler to qualify for the 2024 Paris Olympics at the World Wrestling Olympic Qualifiers, Turkiye in May 2024?

  1. ((a))

    86 kg

  2. ((b))

    65 kg

  3. ((c))

    74 kg

  4. ((d))

    57 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

57 kg

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • In May 2024, at the World Wrestling Olympic Qualifiers in Istanbul, Turkey, Aman Sehrawat became the first Indian male wrestler to qualify for the 2024 Paris Olympics by securing a quota in the men's freestyle 57 kg weight category. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Sehrawat, an Asian champion and U23 world champion, earned the Olympic berth by defeating Chongsong Han of the Democratic People's Republic of Korea with a 12-2 victory in the semifinals.
  • At the Paris 2024 Olympics, Aman Sehrawat continued his impressive performance by winning a bronze medal in the men's freestyle 57 kg event, becoming India's youngest Olympic medalist in wrestling at the age of 21 years and 24 days.
90

Which of the following districts of Bihar has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population in 2011 census?

  1. ((a))

    Katihar

  2. ((b))

    Jamui

  3. ((c))

    Purnia

  4. ((d))

    Banka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Katihar

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • District-wise distribution of the ST population shows that Katihar district has the highest proportion of STs (5.9%) followed by Jamui (4.8%), Banka (4.7%), and Purnia (4.4%). Hence, option 1 is correct.
91

Which sector received the highest allocation in the Bihar Budget 2024-25?

  1. ((a))

    Agriculture

  2. ((b))

    Health

  3. ((c))

    Infrastructure

  4. ((d))

    Education

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Education

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • In the Bihar Budget for the fiscal year 2024-25, the Education Department received the highest allocation, amounting to ₹52,639 crore. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Key Allocations:
  • Education: ₹52,639 crore, reflecting the state's emphasis on improving educational infrastructure and quality.
  • Home Department: ₹16,323.83 crore, allocated for maintaining law and order and enhancing public safety.
  • Road Construction: ₹15,235.12 crore, aimed at developing and maintaining the state's road network.
  • Health: ₹14,932 crore, dedicated to improving healthcare services and facilities.
  • Rural Development: ₹14,296 crore, focused on uplifting rural areas through various development programs.
  • These five departments collectively account for approximately 40.7% of the total budget outlay, underscoring the state's commitment to sectors crucial for socio-economic development.
92

Choose the group of letters which is different from others.

  1. ((a))

    ORUX

  2. ((b))

    PSVX

  3. ((c))

    CFIL

  4. ((d))

    JMPS

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

PSVX

The Correct answer is Option 2. 

Key PointsLet's analyze the groups of letters:

ORUX

  • The first letter O is 15th in the alphabet.
  • The second letter R is 18th.
  • The third letter U is 21st.
  • The fourth letter X is 24th.
  • The difference between consecutive letters: 3, 3, 3.

PSVX

  • The first letter P is 16th.
  • The second letter S is 19th.
  • The third letter V is 22nd.
  • The fourth letter X is 24th.
  • The difference between consecutive letters: 3, 3, 2.

CFIL

  • The first letter C is 3rd.
  • The second letter F is 6th.
  • The third letter I is 9th.
  • The fourth letter L is 12th.
  • The difference between consecutive letters: 3, 3, 3.

JMPS

  • The first letter J is 10th.
  • The second letter M is 13th.
  • The third letter P is 16th.
  • The fourth letter S is 19th.
  • The difference between consecutive letters: 3, 3, 3.

PSVX is different from all others in logic, Hence Correct answer is Option 2.

93

Which of the following corundum and cryolite are important ores?

  1. ((a))

    Aluminium

  2. ((b))

    Silver

  3. ((c))

    Tin

  4. ((d))

    Iron

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Aluminium

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

Corundum and cryolite are important ores for the following:

  • Corundum:
  • Ore of: Aluminum (Al₂O₃).
  • Details:
  • It is a naturally occurring mineral of aluminum oxide.
  • Known for its hardness, second only to diamond on the Mohs scale.
  • Varieties of corundum include precious gemstones like ruby (red due to chromium impurities) and sapphire (various colors due to other impurities).
  • Industrially, corundum is used as an abrasive.
  • Cryolite:
  • Ore of: Aluminum (Na₃AlF₆).
  • Details:
  • Cryolite is primarily used in the electrolytic reduction of aluminum in the Hall-Héroult process.
  • It acts as a flux to lower the melting point of aluminum ore during electrolysis.
  • Though it is no longer mined extensively (synthetic cryolite is often used), it was historically significant. Hence, option 1 is correct.
94

What is the eligibility age, after the changes made in March 2024, for senior citizens to vote by postal ballot?

  1. ((a))

    85 years

  2. ((b))

    80 years

  3. ((c))

    82 years

  4. ((d))

    90 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

85 years

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • In March 2024, the Indian government, in consultation with the Election Commission, amended the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, to raise the minimum age for senior citizens eligible to vote by postal ballot from 80 years to 85 years. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Key Details:
  • Previous Eligibility: Senior citizens aged 80 years and above were eligible to vote by postal ballot.
  • Revised Eligibility: As of March 2024, only those aged 85 years and above qualify for the postal ballot facility.
  • Reason for Change: A review indicated that 97-98% of senior citizens aged above 80 preferred to vote in person rather than using the postal ballot facility. Consequently, the eligibility age was increased to optimize resources and accommodate those more likely to benefit from postal voting.
95

In which of the following states of India has major reserves of coal?

  1. ((a))

    Jharkhand

  2. ((b))

    Chhattisgarh

  3. ((c))

    Odisha

  4. ((d))

    All the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All the above

The Correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Jharkhand:
  • Jharkhand has some of the largest coal reserves in India.
  • Major coalfields: Jharia, Bokaro, North Karanpura, and Daltonganj.
  • Jharia is renowned for high-grade coking coal.
  • Chhattisgarh:
  • Chhattisgarh is a leading coal-producing state.
  • Major coalfields: Korba, Hasdeo-Arand, and Mand-Raigarh.
  • The state contributes significantly to India's thermal power generation.
  • Odisha:
  • Odisha has vast coal reserves and is a significant producer.
  • Major coalfields: Talcher and IB Valley.
  • Talcher is one of the largest coal-producing regions in the country.
  • Summary:
  • All three states—Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha—have major reserves of coal, making option 4) All the above the correct choice.
96

Which two words have been incorporated in the Preamble by 42nd Amendment?

  1. ((a))

    Democratic and socialist

  2. ((b))

    Republic and secular

  3. ((c))

    Socialist and sovereign

  4. ((d))

    Secular and socialist

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Secular and socialist

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • The two words incorporated in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 are:
  • Socialist
  • Secular
  • 42nd Amendment:
  • Enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
  • Made significant changes to the Constitution, including amendments to the Preamble.
  • Revised Preamble:
  • Before the amendment: "Sovereign Democratic Republic."
  • After the amendment: "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic."
  • Significance:
  • Socialist:
  • Reflects the commitment to reduce economic inequality and promote a welfare state.
  • Ensures equitable distribution of wealth and resources.
  • Secular:
  • Indicates that the state has no official religion.
  • Guarantees freedom of religion to all citizens and maintains equality among all religions.
97

In which Lok Sabha seat, one of India’s Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Shompen tribe, for the first time exercised their democratic right to vote in April 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Tripura East

  2. ((b))

    Vizianagaram, Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Tura

  4. ((d))

    Andaman and Nicobar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Andaman and Nicobar

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • In April 2024, members of the Shompen tribe, one of India's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), exercised their democratic right to vote for the first time in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • They cast their votes in the Andaman and Nicobar Lok Sabha constituency, which is the sole parliamentary seat for the Union Territory. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Tribe: Shompen
  • Location: Great Nicobar Island, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  • Event: First-time voting in the 2024 General Elections
  • Constituency: Andaman and Nicobar Lok Sabha seat
98

What was the Per Capita Net State Domestic Product at Current Prices for Bihar for the fiscal year 2022-23, based on the base year 2011-12?

  1. ((a))

    ₹ 54,111

  2. ((b))

    ₹ 42,083

  3. ((c))

    ₹ 61,434

  4. ((d))

    ₹ 47,498

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹ 54,111

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The Per Capita Net State Domestic Product (NSDP) at current prices for Bihar in the fiscal year 2022-23, based on the 2011-12 base year, is estimated to be ₹54,111. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • This represents an increase from ₹47,498 in 2021-22, indicating a growth of approximately 13.9% over the previous year.
  • Despite this growth, Bihar's per capita NSDP remains significantly below the national average. In 2022-23, the national per capita income at current prices was ₹1,72,276, making Bihar's per capita income about 31.4% of the national average.
99

Which of the following centres in Bihar is proposed to develop under Vishnupad Yojana for promotion of tourism in Union Budget 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Nalanda

  2. ((b))

    Rajgir

  3. ((c))

    Vaishali

  4. ((d))

    Gaya

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gaya

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • In the Union Budget 2024, the government announced plans to develop the Vishnupad Temple Corridor in Gaya and the Mahabodhi Temple Corridor in Bodh Gaya, Bihar, aiming to transform them into world-class pilgrim and tourist destinations. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Key Details:
  • Vishnupad Temple: Located on the banks of the Phalgu River in Gaya, this ancient Hindu shrine is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
  • Mahabodhi Temple: Situated in Bodh Gaya, this UNESCO World Heritage Site is believed to be the place where Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment under the Bodhi Tree.
100

Match the following and choose the correct answer: 

Political OrganisationFounder
I. Khaksarsa. Subhash Chandra Bose
II. Socialist Partyb. Inayatullah Mashriqui
III. Independent Labour Partyc. Jayaprakash Narayan
IV. Forward Blocd. B. R. Ambedkar
  1. ((a))

    I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

  2. ((b))

    I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

  3. ((c))

    I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a

  4. ((d))

    I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Khaksars:
  • Founded by Inayatullah Mashriqui in 1931.
  • It was a military-style organization focused on the independence movement and social reform.
  • Socialist Party:
  • Founded by Jayaprakash Narayan and others in 1934.
  • It was a left-wing political party focused on social justice and equality.
  • Independent Labour Party:
  • Founded by B. R. Ambedkar in 1936.
  • It focused on the rights of labor and social justice, particularly for Dalits.
  • Forward Bloc:
  • Founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in 1939 after he left the Indian National Congress.
  • It was formed to unite anti-imperialist forces and to fight for complete independence.
  • Correct Answer: I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
101

Before his appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in July 2024, Justice N. Kotiswar Singh was the Chief Justice of which High Court?

  1. ((a))

    Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court

  2. ((b))

    Madras High Court

  3. ((c))

    Bombay High Court

  4. ((d))

    Gauhati High Court

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • Before his appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in July 2024, Justice Nongmeikapam Kotiswar Singh served as the Chief Justice of the Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh High Court from February 15, 2023, to July 17, 2024. Hence, option 1 is correct.
102

The Sikh pilgrimage site "Takhat Sri Harimandir Ji Patna Sahib," which is considered as the second holiest Takhat, is located at

  1. ((a))

    Bhagalpur

  2. ((b))

    Gaya

  3. ((c))

    Patna

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Patna

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The Sikh pilgrimage site "Takhat Sri Harimandir Ji Patna Sahib", considered the second holiest Takhat (seat of authority), is located in Patna, the capital city of Bihar. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Key Details:
  • Takhat Sri Harimandir Ji Patna Sahib is a significant religious site for Sikhs.
  • It is the birthplace of the 10th Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
  • The Gurdwara is an important center for Sikhs, and it is one of the Five Takhts of Sikhism, which hold special religious significance.
  • Patna Sahib is considered the second holiest after Akal Takht in Amritsar.
  • This Gurdwara is a place of pilgrimage, attracting devotees from all over the world, especially during Guru Gobind Singh's birth anniversary.
103

Bhihula Festival is celebrated especially in which one of the following districts in Bihar usually in the month of August each year?

  1. ((a))

    Bhagalpur

  2. ((b))

    Patna

  3. ((c))

    Sitamarhi

  4. ((d))

    Darbhanga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhagalpur

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • Bhihula Festival is celebrated especially in Bhagalpur, Bihar usually in the month of August each year. Hence, option 1 is correct.
104

Which of the following is the resistance of the wire?

  1. ((a))

    R=IV

  2. ((b))

    R=I/2V

  3. ((c))

    R=V/I

  4. ((d))

    R=I/V​

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

R=V/I

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The correct formula for resistance (R) is: R = V/I. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • According to Ohm's Law, resistance (R) is defined as the ratio of voltage (V) across a conductor to the current (I) flowing through it:
  • 𝑅 = 𝑉/𝐼
  • Where:R is the resistance (in ohms, Ω),
  • V is the voltage (in volts, V),
  • I is the current (in amperes, A).
  • This is the fundamental relationship for calculating resistance.
105

Which Article of the Constitution restricts a Member of Parliament to hold the office of profit?

  1. ((a))

    Article 102 (1)(c)

  2. ((b))

    Article 102 (1)(b)

  3. ((c))

    Article 102 (1)(d)

  4. ((d))

    Article 102 (1)(a)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 102 (1)(a)

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • Article 102(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the disqualification of a Member of Parliament (MP) due to holding an office of profit. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Key Details:
  • Article 102(1)(a) states that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by law.
  • "Office of Profit" refers to a position where the holder is entitled to a salary or other benefits, potentially influencing their loyalty or actions as an elected representative.
  • This provision is meant to prevent MPs from exploiting their position for personal gain by holding influential or remunerative government positions at the same time as holding a seat in Parliament.
  • Exceptions:
  • The President or Parliament may provide exemptions to certain offices of profit by enacting laws.
  • This ensures that lawmakers do not have conflicting interests that could undermine their role and responsibility in the legislature.
106

Which of the following great ruler founded the “Haryak Vansh” in ancient Bihar?

  1. ((a))

    Bimbisara

  2. ((b))

    Brihadrath

  3. ((c))

    Ajatshatru

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bimbisara

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The Haryak Vansh (Haryanka dynasty) in ancient Bihar was founded by Bimbisara. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Bimbisara was the first ruler of the Haryanka dynasty and is considered one of the most significant ancient rulers of Bihar.
  • He established his capital at Rajgir (also known as Rajagriha in ancient texts).
  • Bimbisara played a crucial role in expanding the Magadh region and was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha.
  • He was known for his strategic alliances, including marrying into the Licchavi family, which helped him secure his rule over the Magadh kingdom.
  • Thus, Bimbisara founded the Haryak Vansh in ancient Bihar.
107

Which of the following is about Ruchira Kamboj, who was the first woman to become the Indian Ambassador to the United Nations who retired recently, is true?

  1. ((a))

    She was a member of the NITI Aayog

  2. ((b))

    She was a member of Indian Council of World Affairs

  3. ((c))

    She held the position of Permanent Representative of India to UNESCO-Paris

  4. ((d))

    She was the first woman Indian Ambassador to the USA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

She held the position of Permanent Representative of India to UNESCO-Paris

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The correct statement about Ruchira Kamboj is: She held the position of Permanent Representative of India to UNESCO-Paris. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Ruchira Kamboj made history by becoming the first woman to serve as the Indian Ambassador to the United Nations in 2022.
  • She was also the Permanent Representative of India to UNESCO in Paris before her tenure at the United Nations.
  • Kamboj is known for her diplomatic contributions and held key positions in India's foreign service.
  • She was not a member of NITI Aayog or the Indian Council of World Affairs, and she was also not the first woman Indian Ambassador to the USA.
108

Which of the following are exothermic processes?

i. Evaporation of water.

ii. Dilution of an acid (H2​SO4​).

iii. Reaction of water with quick lime.

iv. Sublimation of camphor (crystals).

  1. ((a))

    iii and iv

  2. ((b))

    ii and iii

  3. ((c))

    i and iv

  4. ((d))

    i and ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ii and iii

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • The exothermic processes are those that release energy (usually in the form of heat) to the surroundings. Let's analyze each of the given processes:
  • Evaporation of water:
  • Endothermic: Evaporation absorbs heat from the surroundings to change liquid water into vapor, so it is not an exothermic process.
  • Dilution of an acid (H₂SO₄):
  • Exothermic: The dilution of concentrated sulfuric acid with water releases a significant amount of heat, making it an exothermic process.
  • Reaction of water with quick lime:
  • Exothermic: When water reacts with quick lime (CaO), it produces slaked lime (Ca(OH)₂) and releases a large amount of heat, making this an exothermic process.
  • Sublimation of camphor (crystals):
  • Endothermic: Sublimation, where camphor changes directly from a solid to a gas, absorbs heat, so it is not an exothermic process.
  • Correct Answer:
  • The exothermic processes are: ii. Dilution of an acid (H₂SO₄) and iii. Reaction of water with quick lime.
109

What is the object of "cut motion" in Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the budget proposals

  2. ((b))

    To restrict day-to-day financial expenditure of the government

  3. ((c))

    To restrict grants from consolidated fund of India

  4. ((d))

    To restrict the grants of the Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the budget proposals

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The object of a "cut motion" in the Indian Parliament is to reduce the amount of a demand (usually related to budget allocations) in the Budget presented by the Government. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • It allows members of Parliament to propose a reduction in the budgetary provisions for specific items of expenditure, thereby highlighting concerns or objections regarding government spending on certain sectors.
  • Purpose:
  • To express discontent or concern over certain expenditures or allocations proposed by the government.
  • The motion aims to bring attention to issues like wasteful spending, misallocation of funds, or areas requiring re-prioritization in the budget.
  • Types of Cut Motions:
  • Disapproval Cut Motion: Proposes the complete reduction (by a specific amount, often Re 1) of the expenditure on a particular demand, indicating the House's disapproval.
  • Token Cut Motion: Proposes a nominal reduction, usually Re 1, in the demand for expenditure to express dissatisfaction or raise a point of discussion.
  • Economy Cut Motion: Proposes a reduction to reflect concerns about overspending or inefficiency in the allocation.
  • Procedure:
  • Cut motions are debated and voted upon in the Parliament.
  • If the motion is accepted, the government has to revise the expenditure proposals accordingly.
  • Conclusion:
  • The cut motion is a tool in Parliament used to control government expenditure by scrutinizing and reducing proposed allocations in the budget.
110

Who presented the Bihar Budget 2024-25 in the State Assembly?

  1. ((a))

    Shri Vijay Sinha

  2. ((b))

    Shri Nitish Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Shri Vijay Kumar Choudhary

  4. ((d))

    Shri Samrat Choudhary

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Shri Samrat Choudhary

The Correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • The Finance Minister of Bihar, Mr Samrat Chaudhary, presented the Budget for the state for the financial year 2024-25 on February 13, 2024.
111

When did the new province Bihar come into force during British rule?

  1. ((a))

    April 1912

  2. ((b))

    April 1911

  3. ((c))

    March 1912

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

April 1912

The Correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

  • The new province of Bihar came into force in April 1912. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • It was created after the partition of Bengal and became a separate province from the Bengal Presidency under British rule.
  • The province of Bihar was separated from Bengal and became an independent province in April 1912.
  • The Bihar and Orissa Province was formed after this partition.
  • This change was part of the British administrative reorganization during that time.
112

Who headed the Royal Commission on Indian currency appointed in 1913?

  1. ((a))

    James Wilson

  2. ((b))

    J. M. Keynes

  3. ((c))

    Sir Austin Chamberlain

  4. ((d))

    Sir W. R. Mansfield

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sir Austin Chamberlain

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The Royal Commission on Indian Currency appointed in 1913 was indeed headed by Sir Austin Chamberlain. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Sir Austin Chamberlain, a British statesman and economist, was the Chairman of the Royal Commission on Indian Currency.
  • The commission was tasked with investigating India's currency system and the potential move to the gold standard.
  • Its recommendations shaped the currency policy of British India.
113

Which of the following is the value of solar constant?

  1. ((a))

    1.6 kW/m²

  2. ((b))

    1.4 kW/m²

  3. ((c))

    1.2 kW/m²

  4. ((d))

    1.8 kW/m²

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1.4 kW/m²

The Correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Solar constant is often approximated as 1.4 kW/m² (kilowatts per square meter). This value is equivalent to 1,400 W/m² and is commonly used as a rounded figure for simplicity in calculations and discussions. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Key Takeaway:
  • Precise value: ~1,366 W/m²
  • Approximation: 1.4 kW/m²
  • This is the amount of solar energy received per unit area at the top of Earth's atmosphere under ideal conditions.
114

Which of the following was not one of the features of the Government of India Act, 1935?

  1. ((a))

    Reconstruction of the Governor-General’s Executive Council

  2. ((b))

    Provincial Autonomy

  3. ((c))

    Appraisal of the Act of 1935

  4. ((d))

    Proposal for Federation of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Appraisal of the Act of 1935

The Correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • Key Features of the Government of India Act, 1935:
  • Reconstruction of the Governor-General’s Executive Council: The Governor-General's council was restructured to include representatives of British India and princely states.
  • Provincial Autonomy: Provinces were granted autonomy, allowing them more freedom to legislate and govern in specified areas.
  • Proposal for Federation of India: The Act proposed a federation consisting of British India and princely states, though this was never fully implemented.
  • Why "Appraisal of the Act" is incorrect:
  • "Appraisal of the Act of 1935" implies a review or evaluation, which was not part of its provisions. The Act was intended as a constitutional framework, not a mechanism for self-assessment. Hence, option 3 is correct.
115

Which of the following the chlorophyll in photosynthesis is used for?

  1. ((a))

    Reduction of CO₂

  2. ((b))

    Breaking down water molecules

  3. ((c))

    No function

  4. ((d))

    Absorbing light

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Absorbing light

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • Chlorophyll in photosynthesis is used for absorbing light energy.
  • Explanation:
  • Chlorophyll, the green pigment in plants, plays a crucial role in the process of photosynthesis by:
  • Absorbing Light: Chlorophyll absorbs light primarily in the blue and red wavelengths of the visible spectrum, which is essential for driving the photosynthetic process.
  • Converting Light Energy: The absorbed light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
  • Facilitating Electron Transfer: Chlorophyll molecules participate in the transfer of electrons, which is a key step in the production of energy-rich compounds.
  • Without chlorophyll, plants cannot efficiently harness light energy for photosynthesis. Hence, option 4 is correct.
116

The political strategy Struggle-Truce-Struggle or S-T-S came into prominence with a call for [BPSC has deleted this question].

  1. ((a))

    Swadeshi Movement

  2. ((b))

    Quit India

  3. ((c))

    Boycott of Simon Commission

  4. ((d))

    Khilafat issue

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Khilafat issue

BPSC deleted this question.

Key Points

  • Reason cited by BPSC:
  • The debate regarding the STS struggle came up during the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  • None of the options is correct.
117

During the Quit India Movement, parallel ‘National Government’ was established at many places. Which is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Rajyati Sarkar – Kheda (Gujarat)

  2. ((b))

    Prati Sarkar – Satara (Maharashtra)

  3. ((c))

    Praja Mandal – Talchar (Orissa)

  4. ((d))

    Jatiya Sarkar – Tamluk (Bengal)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajyati Sarkar – Kheda (Gujarat)

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Raiyati Sarkar – Kheda (Gujarat):
  • Incorrect. The Raiyati Sarkar was not established in Kheda. It was actually set up in Bardoli, Gujarat, during the Quit India Movement. The Raiyati Sarkar was a parallel government that was established as a response to the oppressive revenue policies in Gujarat. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Prati Sarkar – Satara (Maharashtra):
  • Correct. The Prati Sarkar was indeed established in Satara, Maharashtra, during the Quit India Movement.
  • Praja Mandal – Talcher (Orissa):
  • Correct. The Praja Mandal was active in Talcher, Orissa, and was a significant part of the resistance movement during this time.
  • Jatiya Sarkar – Tamluk (Bengal):
  • Correct. The Jatiy Sarkar was established in Tamluk, Bengal, and was an important part of the Quit India Movement.
118

Which of the following is equivalent to tesla?

  1. ((a))

    Ampere per Newton

  2. ((b))

    Newton per Coulomb

  3. ((c))

    Newton per ampere-second

  4. ((d))

    Newton per ampere meter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Newton per ampere meter

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The Tesla (T) is the SI unit of magnetic flux density (magnetic field strength).
  • It is equivalent to:
  • 1 Tesla = 1 Newton per Ampere per meter (N/A·m).
119

Which dynasty ruled Magadh (Bihar) after Shishunag dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Maurya Vansh

  2. ((b))

    Sunga Vansh

  3. ((c))

    Nanda Vansh

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Nanda Vansh

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The Nanda Dynasty ruled Magadh (present-day Bihar) after the Shishunaga Dynasty. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Timeline:
  • Shishunaga Dynasty (413–345 BCE):
  • The Shishunaga Dynasty came to power after the Haryanka Dynasty.
  • The last ruler of the Shishunaga Dynasty was Mahanandin, who was overthrown by Mahapadma Nanda.
  • Nanda Dynasty (345–321 BCE):
  • Founded by Mahapadma Nanda, who is often described as the "first historical emperor" of India.
  • The Nandas expanded their territory and built a strong and centralized state.
  • The Nanda rule ended when Chandragupta Maurya, with the help of Chanakya, overthrew Dhana Nanda (the last Nanda king) and established the Maurya Dynasty.
120

Among the following, who has been Speaker of Lok Sabha prior to his Election as President of India?

  1. ((a))

    Giani Zail Singh

  2. ((b))

    V. V. Giri

  3. ((c))

    Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

  4. ((d))

    A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Neelam Sanjiva Reddy is the only person who served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha prior to his election as the President of India. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Speaker of Lok Sabha:
  • Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha twice:
  • 1967–1969 (Fourth Lok Sabha)
  • 26 March 1977 – 13 July 1977 (Sixth Lok Sabha).
  • President of India:
  • He was elected as the 6th President of India and served from 25th July 1977 to 24th July 1982.
  • Unique Distinction:
  • He is the only person to have held the offices of:
  • Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and
  • President of India.
  • Other Roles:
  • Before becoming President, he also served as the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh and held various cabinet positions.
121

When did Bihar State introduce the Green Budget for the first time?

  1. ((a))

    Financial Year 2020-21

  2. ((b))

    Financial Year 2018-19

  3. ((c))

    Financial Year 2021-22

  4. ((d))

    Financial Year 2019-20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Financial Year 2020-21

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Bihar introduced its first Green Budget in the fiscal year 2020-21, presenting it to the legislative assembly on March 15, 2020. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Key Highlights:
  • Pioneering Initiative: Bihar was the first state in India to table a separate and comprehensive Green Budget, aiming to integrate environmental considerations into its fiscal planning.
  • Objective: The Green Budget focuses on allocating funds for environmental conservation measures, restoration of degraded ecological systems, and promotion of sustainable development within the state.
  • Subsequent Budgets: Since its inception, Bihar has continued to present Green Budgets annually, with the latest being for the fiscal year 2024-25.
  • This initiative underscores Bihar's commitment to addressing environmental challenges and promoting sustainable development through dedicated fiscal measures.
122

Manvi Madhu Kashyap recently became Bihar's first transgender

  1. ((a))

    Havildar in Bihar Regiment

  2. ((b))

    Bus Driver in state transport

  3. ((c))

    Traffic Police Inspector

  4. ((d))

    Sub-Inspector of Police

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sub-Inspector of Police

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • In July 2024, Manvi Madhu Kashyap made history by becoming Bihar's first transgender Sub-Inspector of Police. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Background:
  • Hometown: Manvi hails from a small village in Banka district, Bihar.
  • Challenges: She faced significant societal discrimination due to her transgender identity, including rejection from multiple coaching centers in Patna, which denied her admission on the grounds that her presence would "disturb the atmosphere."
123

Which of the following is a zaid crop?

  1. ((a))

    Gram

  2. ((b))

    Fodder

  3. ((c))

    Mustard

  4. ((d))

    Cotton

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fodder

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Zaid crops are short-season crops grown in the summer months between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, typically from March to June.
  • Key Features of Zaid Crops:
  • Season:
  • Grown during the hot and dry summer season when irrigation facilities are available.
  • Duration:
  • These crops have a short growing period of 60-90 days.
  • Examples of Zaid Crops:
  • Watermelon
  • Muskmelon
  • Cucumber
  • Bitter gourd
  • Pumpkin
  • Fodder crops
  • Sugarcane (grown as a perennial but sometimes considered in the Zaid period). Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Kharif Crops:
  • Season: Sown at the beginning of the monsoon (June-July) and harvested in September-October.
  • Water Dependency: Depend heavily on monsoon rains for irrigation.
  • Examples:
  • Cereals: Rice, maize, millet (bajra, jowar)
  • Pulses: Moong, urad, arhar (pigeon pea)
  • Oilseeds: Groundnut, soybean, sunflower
  • Commercial Crops: Cotton, sugarcane, jute
  • Regions: Widely grown in rain-fed areas of India.
  • Rabi Crops:
  • Season: Sown at the beginning of winter (October-November) and harvested in March-April.
  • Water Dependency: Require irrigation due to minimal rainfall in winter.
  • Examples:
  • Cereals: Wheat, barley, oats
  • Pulses: Gram, lentils (masoor)
  • Oilseeds: Mustard, linseed
  • Vegetables: Peas, potato
  • Regions: Grown in areas with irrigation facilities or residual moisture from the monsoon.
FeatureKharif CropsRabi Crops
Sowing SeasonMonsoon onset (June-July)Winter onset (October-November)
Harvesting SeasonSeptember-OctoberMarch-April
Water SourceRainfall (monsoon dependent)Irrigation or residual soil moisture
Major CropsRice, maize, cotton, milletWheat, gram, mustard, barley
124

Shreyasi Singh, Member of the Legislative Assembly, represented India in shooting in Paris Olympics 2024. Elected from which constituency in Bihar?

  1. ((a))

    Sugauli

  2. ((b))

    Gidhaur

  3. ((c))

    Jamui

  4. ((d))

    Kesaria

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jamui

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Shreyasi Singh, a distinguished Indian shooter and politician, represents the Jamui constituency in the Bihar Legislative Assembly. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • In the 2020 Bihar Assembly Elections, she contested as a candidate from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and secured a significant victory, defeating her opponent by over 41,000 votes.
  • In addition to her political career, Shreyasi Singh has an impressive record in shooting sports.
  • She won a gold medal in the women's double trap event at the 2018 Commonwealth Games in Gold Coast, Australia, and a silver medal at the 2014 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow, Scotland.
  • Her dual roles as a legislator and an athlete exemplify her dedication to public service and sportsmanship.
125

What was the chief economic foundation of the triangular commerce between India, China, and England?

  1. ((a))

    Silk

  2. ((b))

    Opium

  3. ((c))

    Black pepper

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Opium

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • The chief economic foundation of the triangular commerce between India, China, and England during the colonial period was the opium trade. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Explanation:
  • India:
  • Under British colonial rule, opium was cultivated in India, particularly in regions like Bengal and Bihar, under strict supervision of the British East India Company.
  • The opium was exported to China in exchange for tea, silk, and other goods.
  • China:
  • The British sold Indian opium in China to balance their trade deficit. The opium trade caused widespread addiction in China and significant economic disruption, leading to resentment and ultimately the Opium Wars.
  • England:
  • England used the tea, silk, and other goods imported from China to meet the growing demand in Europe. The profits from this trade helped finance British colonial administration and expansion.
126

Which of the following is the full form of PCRA?

  1. ((a))

    Partial Counting of Remaining Amendment

  2. ((b))

    Public Conservations Research Association

  3. ((c))

    Petroleum Conservation Research Association

  4. ((d))

    Public Council of Research Association

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Petroleum Conservation Research Association

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The full form of PCRA is the Petroleum Conservation Research Association. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • PCRA:
  • It is a government organization under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India.
  • Established in 1978.
  • Objective:
  • To promote energy efficiency and conservation in various sectors like transportation, industry, agriculture, and domestic use.
  • It aims to reduce dependence on oil imports and conserve petroleum resources.
  • Activities:
  • Conducting awareness campaigns.
  • Offering technical support for energy audits.
  • Promoting research and innovation for energy-saving solutions.
127

In October 1943, Subhash Chandra Bose set up a provisional government of free India which was recognized by how many countries including Japan?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • In October 1943, Subhash Chandra Bose set up the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind Government) in Singapore, and it was recognized by nine countries, including Japan. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Provisional Government Formation:
  • It was established on 21st October 1943 under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose.
  • Countries that Recognized Azad Hind Government:
  • Japan
  • Germany
  • Italy
  • Burma (Myanmar)
  • Thailand
  • Philippines
  • Manchukuo (Japanese puppet state in China)
  • Croatia (a Nazi-allied state)
  • Wang Jingwei regime (Japanese-backed government in China)
  • Significance:
  • The Azad Hind Government was a symbolic yet powerful attempt to declare India’s independence from British rule.
  • Bose’s leadership inspired the Indian National Army (INA) to fight alongside Axis powers during World War II.
128

What is the title of the film by Payal Kapadia for which she became the first Indian filmmaker to win the Grand Prix Award at the Cannes Film Festival in May 2024?

  1. ((a))

    All We Imagine as Light

  2. ((b))

    The Shameless

  3. ((c))

    The Man Who Could Not Remain Silent

  4. ((d))

    Sunflowers Were the First Ones to Know

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All We Imagine as Light

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The title of the film by Payal Kapadia, for which she became the first Indian filmmaker to win the Grand Prix Award at the Cannes Film Festival in May 2024, is "All We Imagine as Light". Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • This film marked a significant milestone as the first Indian entry in the main competition at Cannes in 30 years.
  • "All We Imagine as Light" is a drama that delves into the lives of three women in Mumbai, exploring themes of sisterhood and resilience.
  • The film was an international co-production involving companies from France, India, the Netherlands, Luxembourg, and Italy, and was shot in Malayalam, Hindi, and Marathi languages.
  • The cast includes Kani Kusruti, Divya Prabha, Chhaya Kadam, and Hridhu Haroon.
  • The Grand Prix is the second-most prestigious prize at the Cannes Film Festival, following the Palme d'Or.
  • Kapadia's achievement has been hailed as a monumental moment for Indian cinema, demonstrating that Indian stories have universal appeal.
129

Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?

  1. ((a))

    Stomach

  2. ((b))

    Oesophagus

  3. ((c))

    Small intestine

  4. ((d))

    Large intestine

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Small intestine

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine, receives bile from the liver. Hence, option 3 is correct.

How it Happens:

  • Bile Production:
  • Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
  • Release of Bile:
  • When food (especially fats) enters the duodenum, bile is released from the gallbladder through the common bile duct.
  • Role of Bile:
  • Bile contains bile salts, which help in the emulsification of fats, breaking them into smaller droplets for easier digestion by lipase enzymes.
130

Indian National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on which date?

  1. ((a))

    26 November 1950

  2. ((b))

    24 January 1950

  3. ((c))

    26 January 1950

  4. ((d))

    22 July 1947

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22 July 1947

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The Indian National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July 1947. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Historical Context:
  • The decision to adopt the flag came just a few weeks before India attained independence on 15th August 1947.
  • Design:
  • The flag was designed by Pingali Venkayya and consisted of three horizontal stripes:
  • Saffron at the top (representing courage and sacrifice).
  • White in the middle with the Ashoka Chakra (representing peace and truth).
  • Green at the bottom (representing growth and fertility).
  • The Ashoka Chakra, a 24-spoke wheel in navy blue, symbolizes progress and righteousness.
131

Size of Council of Ministers has been restricted to 15 percent of membership of Lok Sabha by which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. ((a))

    92nd Amendment

  2. ((b))

    95th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    91st Amendment

  4. ((d))

    93rd Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

91st Amendment

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total membership of the Lok Sabha (or State Legislative Assemblies in states). Hence, option 3 is correct.

Key Provisions of the 91st Amendment Act:

  • Restriction on Council of Ministers:
  • Article 75(1A) was added to limit the size of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
  • In states, the size of the Council of Ministers is similarly limited to 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly under Article 164(1A).
  • Disqualification of Defectors:
  • The Amendment also strengthened the anti-defection law by disqualifying defectors from ministerial positions.
  • Purpose:
  • To curb the practice of excessively large Councils of Ministers, which burdened the exchequer and compromised governance efficiency.
132

Who is the winner of the prestigious Goldman Environmental Prize 2024 from the region of Asia?

  1. ((a))

    Thai Van Nguyen, Vietnam

  2. ((b))

    Alok Shukla, India

  3. ((c))

    Chibeeze Ezekiel, Ghana

  4. ((d))

    Delima Silalahi, Indonesia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Alok Shukla, India

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • The Goldman Environmental Prize for the Asia region in 2024 was awarded to Alok Shukla, a forest and tribal rights activist from India. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • He led a successful community campaign that saved 445,000 acres of biodiversity-rich forests in the Hasdeo Aranya region of Chhattisgarh from 21 planned coal mines.
  • In July 2022, the government canceled these proposed coal mines, preserving the ecological integrity of the area.
  • The Hasdeo Aranya forests are known as the "lungs of Chhattisgarh," harboring rich biodiversity, including endangered species, and supporting the livelihoods of Indigenous communities.

The Goldman Environmental Prize:

  • The Goldman Environmental Prize, often referred to as the "Green Nobel," honors grassroots environmental heroes from the world's six inhabited continental regions.
  • Established in 1989 by Richard and Rhoda Goldman, the prize recognizes individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment, often at great personal risk.
  • Alok Shukla's achievement underscores the impact of community-led environmental activism in safeguarding natural resources and Indigenous rights.
133

Under the Royal Titles Act, Queen Victoria became the Empress of India in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1875

  2. ((b))

    1874

  3. ((c))

    1877

  4. ((d))

    1876

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1877

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Queen Victoria officially became the Empress of India in 1877 under the Royal Titles Act of 1876. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Purpose of the Act:
  • The Royal Titles Act was passed to reflect the British Crown's authority over India after the British government took direct control of India following the 1857 Revolt.
  • It was introduced by Prime Minister Benjamin Disraeli to consolidate British imperial dominance.
  • Proclamation:
  • The formal proclamation of Queen Victoria as "Empress of India" took place during the Delhi Durbar on January 1, 1877.
  • Title:
  • The title "Empress of India" was meant to emphasize Britain's supremacy over the Indian subcontinent.
  • In Latin, the title was "Imperatrix Indiae".
  • Impact:
  • This move strengthened Queen Victoria's symbolic control over India and marked the formalization of India as part of the British Empire.
134

Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?

  1. ((a))

    AgNO3 solution and copper metal

  2. ((b))

    NaCl solution and copper metal

  3. ((c))

    FeSO4 solution and silver metal

  4. ((d))

    MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AgNO3 solution and copper metal

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

Displacement Reaction:

  • In this reaction, copper (Cu) displaces silver (Ag) from the silver nitrate solution. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • A more reactive metal (Copper) displaces a less reactive metal (Silver) from its compound.
  • When copper metal is placed in an aqueous solution of silver nitrate (AgNO₃), the following reaction occurs:

           Cu (s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq)+2Ag (s)

  • Copper metal turns bluish as copper nitrate (Cu(NO₃)₂) forms in the solution.
  • Silver metal appears as shiny crystals deposited on the surface of the copper.
135

The Andes extends along which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    West Coast of India

  2. ((b))

    West Coast of North America

  3. ((c))

    East Coast of Australia

  4. ((d))

    West Coast of South America

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

West Coast of South America

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The Andes extend along the western coast of South America, spanning seven countries. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • The Andes stretch through seven countries in South America:
  • Venezuela
  • Colombia
  • Ecuador
  • Peru
  • Bolivia
  • Chile
  • Argentina
  • Orientation:
  • The Andes run north to south along the western edge of the continent, parallel to the Pacific Ocean.
  • Length:
  • The Andes is the longest mountain range in the world, spanning approximately 7,000 kilometers (4,300 miles).
  • Highest Peak:
  • The highest peak in the Andes is Mount Aconcagua (6,961 meters) in Argentina.
  • Significance:
  • The Andes are known for their diverse ecosystems, including mountains, high plateaus, volcanoes, and rainforests.
  • They influence the climate and geography of the region and are home to the Altiplano Plateau, the Amazon basin, and ancient Incan heritage sites like Machu Picchu.

South America Map Showing Andes Mountain Range

136

By which time Governor has to return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislature for reconsideration?

  1. ((a))

    Three months

  2. ((b))

    One month

  3. ((c))

    No time limit

  4. ((d))

    Two months

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

No time limit

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India does not specify any time limit within which a Governor must return an ordinary bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Governor’s Role in Bill Assent (Article 200):
  • When a State Legislature passes an ordinary bill, the Governor has the following options:
  • a) Give assent to the bill.
  • b) Withhold assent to the bill.
  • c) Return the bill for reconsideration to the State Legislature (except for Money Bills).
  • d) Reserve the bill for the President’s consideration.
  • No Time Frame:
  • The Constitution does not prescribe any specific time frame for the Governor to act on the bill.
  • This often leads to delays, as the Governor may sit on the bill indefinitely, causing controversies regarding the misuse of power.
  • Returning for Reconsideration:
  • If the Governor returns the bill for reconsideration, the State Legislature can:
  • Repass the bill with or without amendments.
  • If the bill is sent back to the Governor again, the Governor is bound to give assent to the bill.
137

What is the current profession of the young U.P. woman, Arti, conferred the Amal Clooney Women’s Empowerment Award by King Charles III in May 2024?

  1. ((a))

    ASHA worker

  2. ((b))

    Farm labourer

  3. ((c))

    Chikan-kari artisan

  4. ((d))

    E rickshaw driver

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

E rickshaw driver

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Arti, an 18-year-old from Bahraich district in Uttar Pradesh, is currently a pink e-rickshaw driver. She provides safe transportation for women in her community, challenging traditional gender roles and inspiring other young girls to pursue their dreams. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Her dedication and impact were recognized in May 2024 when she received the Amal Clooney Women’s Empowerment Award from King Charles III at Buckingham Palace.
  • Arti's journey began with her participation in Project Lehar, an initiative by the Aga Khan Foundation in partnership with Prince’s Trust International. This program offers vocational training, entrepreneurship, and life skills courses for girls and young women from low-income backgrounds in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
  • Through Project Lehar, Arti was introduced to the Pink E-Rickshaw scheme, a government initiative aimed at empowering women by providing them with e-rickshaws to enhance their mobility and economic independence. She became one of the first female e-rickshaw drivers in her district, breaking societal barriers and setting an example for others.
  • Her story is a testament to the transformative power of determination and the positive impact of initiatives focused on women's empowerment.
138

The process of breaking down organic matter by microorganisms is called?

  1. ((a))

    Respiration

  2. ((b))

    Photosynthesis

  3. ((c))

    Decomposition

  4. ((d))

    Fermentation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Decomposition

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Decomposition is the natural process where microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and other decomposers break down organic matter (dead plants, animals, and waste) into simpler substances. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Stages of Decomposition:
  • Fragmentation: Breakdown of organic material into smaller pieces.
  • Leaching: Water-soluble nutrients are released.
  • Catabolism: Microbes break complex organic matter into simpler compounds using enzymes.
  • Humification: Formation of humus (a dark organic substance).
  • Mineralization: Release of inorganic nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and carbon dioxide.
  • Microorganisms Involved:
  • Bacteria: Primary decomposers in the early stages.
  • Fungi: Important in breaking down complex organic matter like cellulose and lignin.
  • Actinomycetes: Break down tough, woody materials.
139

Who among the following Indian capitalists was not the architect of the "Bombay Plan"?

  1. ((a))

    Dhirubhai Ambani

  2. ((b))

    J.R.D. Tata

  3. ((c))

    Sri Ram

  4. ((d))

    G.D. Birla

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dhirubhai Ambani

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The "Bombay Plan" (1944) was formulated by a group of prominent Indian industrialists and capitalists who played a key role in envisioning India's post-independence economic development.
  • The plan emphasized the importance of state intervention and investment in infrastructure to boost economic growth.
  • The key architects of the Bombay Plan were:
  • J.R.D. Tata (Tata Group)
  • G.D. Birla (Birla Group)
  • Sir Ardeshir Dalal (Administrator and Industrialist)
  • Lala Shri Ram (DCM Group)
  • Kasturbhai Lalbhai (Textile Industrialist)
  • Purshottamdas Thakurdas (Businessman and Banker)
  • A.D. Shroff (Economist and Industrialist)
  • John Mathai (Economist, later India’s Finance Minister). Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Key Features of the Bombay Plan:
  • State-led Industrialization: Focus on large-scale public investment in industries and infrastructure.
  • Mixed Economy: A combination of state and private sector participation.
  • Focus on Basic Industries: Investment in steel, power, and transport to lay the foundation for economic growth.
  • Social Welfare: Emphasis on poverty alleviation and equitable distribution of resources.
  • Planned Economic Development: Proposed a systematic 15-year plan to accelerate growth.
140

Which country became the first to bring soil from the dark side of the moon in June 2024?

  1. ((a))

    USA

  2. ((b))

    China

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

China

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • In June 2024, China became the first country to successfully return soil samples from the far side of the Moon. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • The Chang'e 6 mission collected approximately 2 kilograms of lunar material from the Moon's far side and safely brought it back to Earth.
  • Key Highlights of the Chang'e 6 Mission:
  • Landing Site: The Chang'e 6 lander touched down in the southern part of the Apollo crater, located within the South Pole-Aitken Basin on the Moon's far side.
  • Sample Collection: Utilizing a robotic scoop and drill, the mission gathered lunar soil and rock samples, aiming to enhance our understanding of the Moon's composition and geological history.
  • Return to Earth: The collected samples were safely returned to Earth, landing in China's Inner Mongolia region on June 25, 2024.
141

What is the name of the one-month-long cattle fair organized at the confluence of Ganga and Gandak rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Katihar Mela

  2. ((b))

    Sonepur Mela

  3. ((c))

    Purnia Mela

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sonepur Mela

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key PointsSonepur Mela:

  • Location: Sonepur, Bihar (at the confluence of the Ganga and Gandak rivers). Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Duration: It is held annually during the month of Kartik (November-December) and lasts for nearly a month.
  • Significance:
  • It is one of the largest cattle fairs in Asia.
  • The fair features the sale of animals like elephants, horses, cattle, and birds.
  • Cultural Importance:
  • The fair also includes religious rituals, trade, cultural programs, and entertainment activities.
  • It has historical roots dating back to the Mauryan Empire and has religious connections to Harihar Nath Temple in Sonepur.
142

Who decides the disqualification of members of the State Legislative Assembly for matters other than those in the tenth schedule of the Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Governor

  2. ((b))

    Speaker Legislative Assembly

  3. ((c))

    State Election Commission

  4. ((d))

    High Court

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Governor

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Authority of the Governor:
  • Under Article 192 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor decides on the disqualification of a member of the State Legislative Assembly when the matter is not related to defection (Tenth Schedule). Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Procedure:
  • If a question arises regarding the disqualification of a member, the matter is referred to the Governor.
  • The Governor takes the decision after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission of India. The Governor is bound by the advice provided by the Election Commission.
  • Grounds for Disqualification (Article 191):
  • Holding an office of profit.
  • Being of unsound mind or undischarged insolvent.
  • Not being a citizen of India.
  • Violation of other provisions related to qualifications for membership.
  • Tenth Schedule Exception:
  • Matters related to defection (anti-defection law) under the Tenth Schedule are decided by the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly.
143

Which of the following is a major cause of air pollution?

  1. ((a))

    Disposal of plastics

  2. ((b))

    Burning of fossil fuels

  3. ((c))

    Deforestation

  4. ((d))

    Excessive use of pesticides

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Burning of fossil fuels

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

Human-Made Causes:

  • Burning of Fossil Fuels:
  • Power generation, heating, and cooking using coal, oil, and gas release greenhouse gases and particulate matter.
  • Example: Thermal power plants, households using biomass.
  • Industrial Emissions:
  • Industries release pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen oxides (NOx), particulate matter (PM), and volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
  • Example: Factories, power plants.
  • Vehicle Emissions:
  • Exhaust from vehicles contributes to pollutants like carbon monoxide (CO), NOx, hydrocarbons, and PM2.5.
  • Example: Motor vehicles running on petrol and diesel.
  • Construction and Demolition Activities:
  • Dust and particulate matter generated during construction add to air pollution.
  • Crop Burning and Biomass Burning:
  • Agricultural residue burning releases PM2.5, carbon dioxide (CO₂), and methane (CH₄).
  • Example: Stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana.
  • Waste Burning:
  • Open burning of solid waste emits harmful chemicals like dioxins, furans, and black carbon.
  • Deforestation:
  • Reduces the natural ability of forests to absorb CO₂, leading to increased air pollution.
  • Household Sources:
  • Use of wood, coal, or dung cakes for cooking generates indoor air pollution.
  • Mining Activities:
  • Mining releases dust and harmful gases into the atmosphere.

Natural Causes:

  • Wildfires:
  • Forest fires emit smoke, carbon monoxide, and particulate matter into the air.
  • Volcanic Eruptions:
  • Volcanic activities release sulfur dioxide, ash, and other pollutants.
  • Dust Storms:
  • Natural dust storms, especially in arid regions, increase particulate matter in the air.
  • Pollen and Microbial Decay:
  • Organic compounds like pollen and spores also contribute to air pollution.
144

Munger Hilly region is a part of which of the following physiographic regions?

  1. ((a))

    Southern Hilly Region

  2. ((b))

    North Bihar Plain

  3. ((c))

    Someshwar Hilly Range

  4. ((d))

    South Bihar Plain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Southern Hilly Region

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The Munger Hilly region is located in the southern part of Bihar. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • It is a part of the Southern Hilly Region, which forms a boundary between the Gangetic plains and the Chotanagpur Plateau.
  • The region is known for its hilly terrain and is distinct from the Chotanagpur Plateau.
145

Who was the first one to propose a model for the structure of an atom?

  1. ((a))

    E. Goldstein

  2. ((b))

    Rutherford

  3. ((c))

    Neils Bohr

  4. ((d))

    J. J. Thomson

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

J. J. Thomson

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

Developments in Atomic Models:

  • J.J. Thomson (1897):
  • Proposed the Plum Pudding Model, where electrons are embedded in a positively charged "pudding."
  • Ernest Rutherford (1911):
  • Proposed the Nuclear Model, where the atom has a small, dense, positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons.
  • Niels Bohr (1913):
  • Developed the Bohr Model, where electrons orbit the nucleus in discrete energy levels.
  • Modern Quantum Mechanical Model:
  • Based on principles by Schrödinger and Heisenberg, describing the atom with electron clouds rather than fixed orbits.
146

What is the position of representation of Anglo-Indian Community in Lok Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    Nomination of them has been done away with by 104th Constitutional Amendment

  2. ((b))

    Two Anglo-Indians are nominated by the President

  3. ((c))

    They are nominated as per their population

  4. ((d))

    One Anglo-Indian is nominated by the President

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nomination of them has been done away with by 104th Constitutional Amendment

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha was abolished through the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, which came into effect on January 25, 2020. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Earlier Provision:
  • Under Article 331 of the Indian Constitution, the President could nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if they were not adequately represented.
  • 104th Amendment Act (2019):
  • This amendment abolished the nomination of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
  • The provision was deemed unnecessary as the Anglo-Indian community's population had significantly reduced, and their representation was not considered inadequate.
  • Current Position:
  • As of now, there is no reserved or nominated representation for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha.
147

Which community was categorized as Scheduled Caste (SC) by a 2015 Bihar government notification which was quashed in July 2024 by the Supreme Court, ruling that states cannot make changes to the SC list published under Article 341 of the Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Lal Begi

  2. ((b))

    Tanti-Tantwa

  3. ((c))

    Pano

  4. ((d))

    Dabgar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tanti-Tantwa

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • In 2015, the Bihar government issued a notification reclassifying the Tanti-Tantwa community from the Extremely Backward Classes (EBC) to the Scheduled Castes (SC) list. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • However, in July 2024, the Supreme Court of India quashed this notification, ruling that state governments lack the authority to alter the SC list as defined under Article 341 of the Constitution.
  • The Court emphasized that any modifications to the SC list can only be enacted through legislation passed by Parliament, not through state-level decisions.
  • This judgment underscores the constitutional mandate that only Parliament holds the power to amend the SC list, ensuring uniformity and preventing unilateral state actions in such sensitive classifications.
148

Who won the Men Singles title at the French Open Tennis Tournament 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Novak Djokovic

  2. ((b))

    Alexander Zverev

  3. ((c))

    Daniil Medvedev

  4. ((d))

    Carlos Alcaraz

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Carlos Alcaraz

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

French Open 2024:

  • Men's Singles: Carlos Alcaraz defeated Alexander Zverev. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • This victory marked Alcaraz's first French Open title and his third Grand Slam overall.
  • Women's Singles: Iga Świątek secured her fourth French Open title by defeating Jasmine Paolini.
  • This win solidified Świątek's dominance on clay courts, as she became the youngest woman to win four French Open titles.

French Open:

  • Location: Paris, France
  • Surface: Clay courts
  • Inception: 1891
149

Who among the following achieved the distinction of being the first Indian mountaineer to scale Mount Everest and Mount Lhotse twice in one season?

  1. ((a))

    Satyadeep Gupta

  2. ((b))

    Sunil Rohilla

  3. ((c))

    Premlata Agarwal

  4. ((d))

    Kaamya Karthikeyan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Satyadeep Gupta

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Indian mountaineer Satyadeep Gupta achieved the distinction of being the first person to scale both Mount Everest and Mount Lhotse twice in a single season. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Additionally, he set a record as the first Indian to traverse between these two peaks in 11 hours and 15 minutes.
  • Gupta's remarkable achievement, known as the Double Dual Ascent, involved summiting Mount Everest and Mount Lhotse on two separate occasions within the same climbing season.
  • His rapid traverse between the peaks further underscores his exceptional mountaineering skills and endurance.
150

What is the sex ratio in Bihar as per the Census 2011 of India?

  1. ((a))

    918

  2. ((b))

    916

  3. ((c))

    933

  4. ((d))

    922

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

918

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • According to the 2011 Census of India, the sex ratio of Bihar was reported to be 918 females per 1000 males. Hence, option is correct.
  • The sex ratio is calculated by dividing the number of females by the number of males and multiplying the result by 1000.
  • A sex ratio below 1000 implies a higher proportion of males in the population.
  • The sex ratio is an important demographic indicator that provides insights into the gender composition of a region.
  • A lower sex ratio can be indicative of various factors such as gender-based discrimination, social norms, and cultural practices.
  • It is essential to monitor and address such imbalances to ensure gender equality and the well-being of the population.

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