UGC NET Paper 2: Home Science 04 December 2019 shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 2010 Kcal/day.

Key Points

• Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA):
• The RDA is a set of guidelines that provide the daily intake levels of essential nutrients required to meet the needs of the majority of healthy individuals in a particular age and gender group.
• These guidelines are established by health authorities such as the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) to ensure proper nutrition and health.
• Energy Requirements for 10-12 Year Old Girls:
• According to the ICMR (2010), the RDA for energy for 10-12 year old girls is 2010 Kcal/day.
• This value is determined based on the average energy expenditure of children in this age group, considering their growth needs and physical activity levels.

Additional Information

• Factors Influencing Energy Needs:
• Physical Activity: Children who are more physically active may require more energy than the average RDA.
• Growth Spurts: Periods of rapid growth may temporarily increase energy needs.
• Individual Variability: Each child's metabolism and lifestyle can affect their specific energy requirements.
• Nutrition and Health:
• Ensuring an adequate intake of energy and nutrients is crucial for the healthy growth and development of children.
• Balanced diet: A diet that includes a variety of foods from all food groups can help meet the RDA and support overall health.

The correct answer is 'BMR is increased in warm climate.'

Key Points

• BMR is directly related to surface area of body:
• Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) is the rate at which the body uses energy while at rest to maintain vital functions like breathing and keeping warm.
• Individuals with larger surface areas generally have higher BMR due to greater heat loss which needs to be compensated by metabolic activity.
• BMR is increased in warm climate:
• This statement is incorrect. BMR tends to decrease in warmer climates because the body does not need to expend as much energy to maintain body temperature.

Additional Information

• BMR is inversely proportional to age of person:
• As people age, their BMR tends to decrease. This is largely due to a reduction in muscle mass and other metabolic changes associated with aging.
• Males have higher BMR than age-matched females:
• Generally, males have a higher BMR compared to females of the same age and weight. This is often due to differences in body composition, with males typically having more muscle mass.
• Factors affecting BMR:
• Other factors that affect BMR include genetics, hormonal balance, and overall health status.
• Physical activity and diet can also have an impact, although they are not direct determinants of BMR

The correct answer is 'Cardiovascular diseases'.

Key Points

• Cardiovascular diseases:
• Cardiovascular diseases (CVDs) are a group of disorders of the heart and blood vessels, including coronary artery disease, heart attacks, and strokes.
• A diet high in saturated fats can lead to the buildup of cholesterol in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke.
• Reducing the intake of saturated fats and replacing them with unsaturated fats can help lower the risk of CVDs.

Additional Information

• Kidney failure:
• Kidney failure, also known as renal failure, occurs when the kidneys are no longer able to filter waste products from the blood effectively.
• While diet can affect kidney health, saturated fats are not directly linked to kidney failure.
• Bulimia:
• Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging to prevent weight gain.
• It is a psychological condition and is not directly caused by a diet high in saturated fats.
• Anorexia:
• Anorexia, or anorexia nervosa, is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to severe food restriction.
• Like bulimia, anorexia is a psychological condition and is not directly influenced by the intake of saturated fats.

The correct answer is 'Butter'.

Key Points

• Butter:
• Butter is rich in short and medium-chain fatty acids, which are easier to digest and can provide quick energy.
• These fatty acids include butyrate, caprylic acid, and lauric acid, which have various health benefits such as anti-inflammatory properties and supporting gut health.
• Butter is also a good source of fat-soluble vitamins like A, D, E, and K.

Additional Information

• Peanut oil:
• Peanut oil is primarily composed of long-chain fatty acids, making it different from butter in terms of fatty acid composition.
• It is rich in monounsaturated fats, which are heart-healthy but do not provide the same quick energy benefits as short and medium-chain fatty acids.
• Almond oil:
• Almond oil also contains mainly long-chain fatty acids and is high in monounsaturated fats.
• It is beneficial for skin health and has antioxidant properties but lacks the short and medium-chain fatty acids found in butter.
• Margarine:
• Margarine is typically made from vegetable oils and can contain trans fats, which are not as healthy as the fats found in butter.
• It is not a significant source of short and medium-chain fatty acids.

The correct answer is 'performance appraisal'.

Key Points

• Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS):
• BARS is a method used in performance appraisal that combines elements of traditional rating scales and critical incidents methods.
• It involves identifying specific behaviours that are indicative of varying levels of performance in a particular job.
• These behaviors are then used as anchors on a scale to rate an employee's performance.
• The approach helps in providing clear standards and reducing ambiguity in performance ratings.

Additional Information

• Checking quality of food:
• Tools for checking food quality include sensory analysis, microbial testing, and chemical analysis.
• Designing layout plan:
• Tools for layout design include CAD software and space planning tools.
• Feedback communication:
• While BARS can be used to provide structured feedback, it is primarily a tool for performance appraisal rather than a feedback communication.

The correct answer is '65%'.

Key Points

• Preservation of Jams and Jellies:
• Jams and jellies are preserved by adding sugar, which acts as a preservative.
• High concentrations of sugar inhibit the growth of microorganisms, thereby prolonging the shelf life of the product.
• For effective preservation, a sugar concentration of 0.65 (65%) is required.

The correct answer is 'A systemic analysis of all steps and regular monitoring of the control points'

Key Points

• HACCP System:
• HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.
• It is a systematic approach to food safety that identifies, evaluates, and controls hazards which are significant for food safety.
• The primary objective of HACCP is to ensure food safety by preventing contamination through a proactive approach.
• The system involves a detailed analysis of all steps in the food production process and regular monitoring of control points to prevent or reduce hazards.

The correct answer is 'Loft'

Key Points

• Loft:
• Loft refers to the ability of a fibre to maintain its thickness, volume, and resilience over time.
• This characteristic is especially important in applications such as insulation, bedding, and upholstery, where maintaining volume and providing cushioning is crucial.
• Fabrics with good loft are able to trap air, providing better insulation and comfort.

Additional Information

• Elasticity:
• Elasticity refers to the ability of a fibre to return to its original shape after being stretched or compressed.
• Wickability:
• Wickability is the ability of a fibre to draw moisture away from the body and disperse it across the surface for evaporation.
• Resilience:
• Resilience is the ability of a fibre to recover from deformation, such as bending, compressing, or stretching.

The correct answer is 'Filtering'

Key Points

• Filtering:
• Filtering the spinning solution is a crucial step in yarn preparation as it removes impurities and ensures a consistent quality of the fiber.
• If the solution is not properly filtered, air spaces can form within the fabric, leading to defects and reduced fabric strength.
• Proper filtering ensures that the fibers are uniform and compact, which is essential for high-quality textile production.

Additional Information

• Bleaching:
• Bleaching is a process used to remove the colour from fibers, yarns, or fabrics, making them white or preparing them for dyeing. It does not affect the air space in the fabric directly.
• Xanthating:
• Xanthating is a chemical process used in the production of viscose rayon fibers. It involves treating cellulose with carbon disulfide and caustic soda. This process is unrelated to the formation of air spaces in the fabric.
• Ripening:
• Ripening refers to the aging process of the spinning solution in the production of certain synthetic fibers. While important for fiber quality, it does not directly cause air spaces in the fabric.

The correct answer is 'Diagonal basting'

Key Points

• Diagonal basting:
• Diagonal basting is a temporary stitch used to hold multiple layers of fabric together. It is particularly useful for keeping quilt layers or other multi-layered projects aligned during construction.
• The stitches are made diagonally across the fabric, providing stability and preventing the layers from shifting.
• This method is preferred when working with large pieces of fabric where pinning might not provide adequate stability.

Additional Information

• Even basting:
• Even basting involves making evenly spaced, long-running stitches. It is primarily used for temporary seams and for gathering fabric.
• Slip basting:
• Slip basting is a technique used to join two pieces of fabric invisibly. It is often used in hand sewing for applications like hemming or attaching linings.
• Pin basting:
• Pin basting involves using pins to temporarily hold layers of fabric together. It is commonly used in quilting and other sewing projects.
• While effective for smaller projects, pin basting can be cumbersome and less stable for large, multi-layered fabrics.

The correct answer is 'Work itself'

Key Points

• Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory:
• Also known as the Two-Factor Theory, it distinguishes between factors that cause job satisfaction (motivators) and those that cause job dissatisfaction (hygiene factors).
• Motivators are factors that lead to job satisfaction and are related to the nature of the work itself. Examples include achievement, recognition, and the work itself.
• Hygiene factors are external to the job and can lead to job dissatisfaction if not adequately addressed. Examples include salary, working conditions, company policies, and relationships with supervisors.

Additional Information

• Working conditions:
• Considered a hygiene factor. Poor working conditions can lead to job dissatisfaction, but improving them does not necessarily increase job satisfaction.
• Salary:
• Another hygiene factor. Inadequate salary can cause dissatisfaction, but higher salary alone does not ensure job satisfaction.
• Relationship with supervisor:
• Also a hygiene factor. Poor relationships with supervisors can lead to dissatisfaction, whereas good relationships can prevent dissatisfaction but are not strong motivators for job satisfaction.
• Work itself:
• Considered a motivator. The nature of the work itself, including how challenging and interesting it is, can lead to job satisfaction.

The correct answer is 'Potential Resources'

Key Points

• Potential Resources:
• Potential resources are those that are found in a region but have not yet been utilized.
• These resources can be used in the future, once the required technology or economic feasibility is achieved.
• Examples include untapped solar energy in deserts or wind energy in coastal areas.

Additional Information

• Reserves:
• Reserves are a part of the actual resource that can be economically and legally extracted with the available technology.
• They are already identified and their quantity is known.
• Stock:
• Stock refers to materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these.
• For example, water is a stock resource when it is in the form of ice in glaciers.
• Developed Resources:
• Developed resources are resources that have been surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilization.
• These are being used in the present and have the necessary technological and economic feasibility.

The correct answer is 'Negative buying'

Key Points

• Negative buying:
• Negative buying refers to the practice of avoiding certain products or brands due to disapproval of their practices, such as environmental harm or unethical labor practices.
• This form of consumer behavior is often a part of broader ethical consumerism, where choices are made based on moral or ethical considerations.
• Examples include boycotting companies that pollute the environment or use child labor.

Additional Information

• Positive buying:
• Positive buying involves actively choosing products that are ethically produced or environmentally friendly.
• It is the opposite of negative buying, focusing on supporting good practices rather than avoiding bad ones.
• Forced buying:
• Forced buying occurs when consumers feel compelled to purchase a product due to lack of alternatives or other pressures, rather than a voluntary ethical choice.
• Impulsive buying:
• Impulsive buying is characterized by spontaneous, unplanned purchases driven by immediate desires, rather than ethical considerations.

The correct answer is 'Douglas McGregor'.

Key Points

• Douglas McGregor:
• Douglas McGregor was a renowned management thinker known for his Theory X and Theory Y.
• Theory X assumes that employees are inherently lazy, need constant supervision, and are motivated primarily by monetary rewards.
• Theory Y, on the other hand, posits that employees are self-motivated, seek responsibility, and are driven by intrinsic rewards.
• McGregor's theories have had a significant impact on management practices and organizational behavior.

Additional Information

• Abraham Maslow:
• Known for Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which is a motivational theory in psychology comprising a five-tier model of human needs, often depicted as hierarchical levels within a pyramid.
• Maslow's theory focuses on the stages of human growth and development.
• Fredrick Herzberg:
• Developed the Two-Factor Theory (also known as Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory), which identifies motivators and hygiene factors affecting job satisfaction and dissatisfaction.
• His theory emphasizes the importance of job enrichment and the intrinsic factors of motivation.
• Chester Barnard:
• Known for his work on the functions of the executive and the theory of formal organization.
• Barnard emphasized the importance of communication and the role of executives in fostering a cooperative organizational environment.

The correct answer is 'Retrofitting'.

Key Points

• Retrofitting:
• Retrofitting involves the process of adding new technology or features to older systems. In the context of buildings, it refers to making structural changes to enhance the building's resistance to seismic activities.
• By adding steel beams or girders, the building's framework is strengthened, thereby improving its ability to withstand earthquakes.
• This technique is critical in areas prone to seismic activities to ensure the safety and integrity of structures.

Additional Information

• Plastering:
• Plastering is the process of applying a smooth finish of plaster to walls and ceilings. It is primarily for aesthetic and protective purposes, not for structural reinforcement.
• Pointing:
• Pointing refers to the finishing of mortar joints in masonry construction. It is mainly for improving the appearance and weather resistance of the joints, not for structural enhancement.
• Bonding:
• Bonding involves the adhesion of materials together. While it is crucial in construction for ensuring that materials stick together properly, it does not specifically relate to making a building earthquake-resistant.

The correct answer is 'FAR'.

Key Points

• FAR (Floor Area Ratio):
• FAR is a crucial concept in urban planning and real estate development.
• It is the ratio of the total floor area of a building to the total area of the plot of land on which it is built.
• FAR = (Total covered area on all floors / Total area of the plot) x 100.
• This ratio helps in determining the density of construction and ensures sustainable development.
• Higher FAR values indicate more intensive use of the land, often leading to higher buildings and more built-up area.

Additional Information

• GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment):
• GRIHA is India's national rating system for green buildings, focusing on sustainable design and construction practices.
• NBC (National Building Code):
• The NBC provides guidelines for the construction, maintenance, and operation of buildings in India.
• While it includes regulations on FAR, it is a comprehensive document covering various aspects of building design and safety, not just FAR.
• IAQ (Indoor Air Quality):
• IAQ refers to the quality of air within and around buildings, focusing on the health and comfort of building occupants.

The correct answer is 'Structural design'

Key Points

• Structural design:
• Ancient pyramids are prime examples of structural design because their primary purpose was to serve as monumental structures, often as tombs for pharaohs and other significant figures in ancient civilizations.
• Their design demonstrates advanced engineering skills, including the ability to create stable, long-lasting structures using large stone blocks.
• Pyramids like those in Egypt were constructed with precise alignment and orientation, showcasing significant architectural planning and execution.

Additional Information

• Decorative design:
• While pyramids may have decorative elements, their primary purpose was not decoration but to serve as monumental structures and tombs.
• Decoration in pyramids is typically found in the form of hieroglyphics and murals inside the tombs, not in the overall structure itself.
• Textured design:
• Textured design refers to the surface texture and finish of a structure. While pyramids may have had smooth or textured surfaces, this is not their defining feature.
• The importance of pyramids lies in their structural integrity and monumental scale rather than their surface texture.
• Interesting design:
• Although pyramids are indeed interesting from a historical and architectural perspective, the term "interesting design" is too vague and does not accurately describe their primary function as structural marvels.
• The key aspect of pyramids is their role as monumental structures, which is better captured by the term "structural design."

The correct answer is 'Social learning theory'

Key Points

• Social learning theory:
• Social learning theory, developed by Albert Bandura, emphasizes the importance of observing, modelling, and imitating the behaviours, attitudes, and emotional reactions of others.
• It posits that people can learn new information and behaviours by watching other people, known as observational learning or modelling.
• The theory integrates a continuous interaction between behaviours, cognitions, and the environment, known as reciprocal determinism.
• Key processes in observational learning include attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation.

Additional Information

• Psychosocial theory:
• Developed by Erik Erikson, this theory emphasizes the impact of social experience across the whole lifespan. It outlines eight stages of development, each characterized by a specific conflict that must be resolved to move successfully to the next stage.
• Psychosexual theory:
• Proposed by Sigmund Freud, this theory suggests that personality development occurs through a series of childhood stages in which the pleasure-seeking energies of the id become focused on certain erogenous areas.
• It emphasizes the influence of the unconscious mind and childhood experiences on behavior.
• Socio-cultural theory:
• Lev Vygotsky's socio-cultural theory stresses the fundamental role of social interaction in the development of cognition.
• Vygotsky believed that community and culture play a central role in the process of "making meaning."

The correct answer is 'Babinski'.

Key Points

• Babinski Reflex:
• The Babinski reflex is a normal reflex in infants where the big toe moves upward or toward the top surface of the foot and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked from the heel to the toes.
• This reflex is a sign of neurological development and typically disappears by the age of 2 years as the nervous system matures.
• The presence of this reflex in older children or adults can be a sign of neurological issues, such as a lesion in the corticospinal tract.

Additional Information

• Palmar Grasp:
• The palmar grasp reflex is where an infant's fingers will close around an object placed in their hand.
• This reflex is important for the development of voluntary grasping and typically disappears around 5-6 months of age.
• Moro Reflex:
• The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, occurs when an infant feels as though they are falling. They will extend their arms and then bring them back in.
• This reflex is usually present at birth and disappears around 4-6 months of age.
• Rooting Reflex:
• The rooting reflex happens when the corner of the baby's mouth is stroked or touched, and the baby will turn their head and open their mouth to follow and "root" in the direction of the stroking.
• This reflex helps the baby find the breast or bottle to begin feeding and typically disappears around 4 months of age.

The correct answer is 'Over extension'

Key Points

• Over extension:
• Over extension is a common language error made by young children where they use a specific word to refer to a broader category of objects than it actually represents.
• In this case, Ananya uses the word "doggy" to describe any animal with four legs, which is a classic example of over extension.
• This error indicates that children are trying to apply their limited vocabulary to the world around them, often leading to broader generalizations.

Additional Information

• Under extension:
• Under extension is when a child uses a word in a more limited way than its actual meaning.
• For example, a child might use the word "doggy" only for their family pet and not for other dogs.
• Under regularization:
• This error involves applying regular grammatical rules to words that are exceptions.
• An example would be saying "goed" instead of "went."
• Preoperational stage:
• This is a stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development, typically occurring between ages 2 and 7.
• It is characterized by symbolic thinking and egocentrism but is not directly related to specific language errors like over extension.

The correct answer is 'Person with benchmark disability'.

Key Points

• Person with benchmark disability:
• Defined under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPwD Act).
• Refers to individuals with at least 40% of any specified disability, as certified by a recognized certifying authority.
• Entitled to various benefits, reservations, and schemes provided by the government for their empowerment and inclusion.

Additional Information

• Person with multiple handicaps:
• Refers to individuals who have more than one type of disability.
• Person with development disability:
• Generally pertains to individuals with developmental disorders, such as autism or Down syndrome.
• Person with serious impairment:
• Indicates a severe level of disability.

The correct answer is 'Ethnocentric'.

Key Points

• Ethnocentric:
• Ethnocentrism is the belief in the inherent superiority of one's own ethnic group or culture.
• This attitude often leads to viewing other cultures as inferior or less important.
• In the given context, if 'A' thinks that his culture is naturally superior to that of 'B's, 'A' is displaying an ethnocentric attitude.

Additional Information

• Anthrocentric:
• Anthrocentric refers to considering human beings as the central or most significant entities in the universe.
• Ethnographic:
• Ethnographic pertains to the systematic study and recording of human cultures.
• It involves observation and description of cultural practices.
• Entomological:
• Entomological relates to the scientific study of insects.
• This term is entirely unrelated to human cultural attitudes and superiority.

The correct answer is ‘Reading a newspaper’

Key Points

• Reading a newspaper:
• Individuals between the ages of 50 and 65 often experience presbyopia, a condition that affects near vision, making it difficult to read small print such as that found in newspapers.
• Presbyopia is a natural part of aging and generally starts around age 40, progressively worsening with age.
• Reading glasses or multifocal lenses are commonly prescribed to correct this issue.

Additional Information

• Reading a wall chart at the eye care doctor's office with a large font size:
• Wall charts at eye care offices typically use large fonts to test distance vision, which is usually less affected by presbyopia.
• Reading a street hoarding:
• Street hoardings generally have large, bold text designed to be read from a distance, making them easier to read for individuals with presbyopia.
• Watching a TV programme:
• Watching television usually does not require close-up vision, so it is less likely to be affected by presbyopia.

The correct answer is 'Diameter'

Key Points

• Diameter of yarn:
• The formula $\frac{1}{26 \sqrt{\text { counts }}}$  is used to calculate the diameter of yarn. It helps in determining the thickness of the yarn.
• The diameter of yarn is crucial for various textile processes and final fabric properties, including texture, strength, and appearance.
• This formula takes into account the count of the yarn, which is a measure of its fineness or coarseness, and converts it into a physical diameter value.

Additional Information

• Twist:
• Twist refers to the number of turns per unit length in a yarn. It affects the strength, elasticity, and appearance of the yarn.
• Count:
• The count is a measure of the fineness or thickness of the yarn, typically expressed in terms like Tex, Denier, or Cotton Count.
• Weight:
• Weight of yarn usually refers to the mass per unit length, such as grams per meter.

The correct answer is 'Take-up lever'

Key Points

• Take-up lever:
• The take-up lever is a crucial component in a sewing machine that feeds the thread in sufficient quantity and tightens the loop to form a stitch.
• It moves up and down with the needle, ensuring that the thread is correctly looped and tightened during the sewing process.
• This mechanism helps in maintaining the tension and preventing thread breakage.

Additional Information

• Top tension device:
• The top tension device controls the tension of the upper thread.
• It ensures that the thread flows smoothly and maintains proper tension during sewing.
• Thread guide:
• The thread guide directs the thread from the spool to the needle.
• It helps in preventing tangling and ensures smooth thread flow.
• Spool pins:
• Spool pins hold the thread spool in place.
• They ensure that the thread spool is stationary and unwinds smoothly.

The correct answer is 'Outline of the clothes noticed from distance'.

Key Points

• Silhouette:
• A silhouette refers to the outline or general shape of an object, in this case, clothing, which is noticed from a distance.
• In fashion, the silhouette is a critical aspect as it defines the overall form and structure of the garment, making it recognizable and distinct.
• The silhouette is often the first impression of a garment and can convey a lot about its style, era, and intended use.

Additional Information

• Arrangement of motifs to give vertical movement:
• This refers to the placement of design elements in a way that guides the eye vertically, which is more about the garment's design details rather than its overall shape.
• Outline of the clothes with details:
• This option is incorrect as it includes the details of the clothing, whereas a silhouette is just the basic outline or shape without any intricate details.
• Asymmetrically balanced dress:
• This refers to a design principle where elements on either side of a central line are not identical but are arranged in a balanced way, which does not define the term silhouette.

The correct answer is 'short and heavy neck'.

Key Points

• Short and heavy neck:
• V-necklines can elongate the neck, making it appear longer and slimmer. However, for individuals with a short and heavy neck, this effect might not be as flattering.
• Instead, opting for round or boat necklines can help balance the proportions and create a more harmonious look.

Additional Information

• Long and thin neck:
• V-necklines are generally suitable for individuals with a long and thin neck as they can complement the neck's length and add a sense of balance to the overall look.
• Short and thick neck:
• Similar to a short and heavy neck, individuals with a short and thick neck may also find that V-necklines do not offer the most flattering look.
• Round or square necklines can be more suitable as they do not emphasize the neck's thickness.
• Long and heavy neck:
• For individuals with a long and heavy neck, V-necklines can help break up the heaviness and create a more balanced appearance.

The correct answer is '(a) and (c)'.

Key Points

• Carded Yarn:
• Carded yarn is produced through a process where fibers are brushed and aligned to form a web, which is then drawn and twisted into yarn.
• This type of yarn is generally coarser compared to combed yarn, as it contains more short fibers and impurities.
• Because of the presence of short fibers and impurities, carded yarn tends to be less durable.

Additional Information

• More durable and Fine:
• Carded yarn is not considered fine; it is coarser compared to combed yarn.
• Smooth and More durable:
• This combination is incorrect because carded yarn is not smooth due to the presence of short fibers and impurities.

The correct answer is 'Smooth fibre and Moderate elongation'.

Key Points

• Physical Properties of Silk:
• Smooth Fibre: Silk is known for its smooth and soft texture, which gives it a luxurious feel. This property makes it highly desirable for clothing and textiles.
• Moderate Elongation: Silk fibres can stretch moderately without breaking, providing a balance of flexibility and strength. This makes silk durable and able to withstand some degree of tension.

Additional Information

• High Density:
• Silk does not have a high density. In fact, it is relatively lightweight, making it comfortable to wear and suitable for various applications.
• Low Moisture Regain:
• Silk has a high moisture regain, meaning it can absorb moisture well. This property contributes to its comfort in different climates.

The correct answer is '(a) and (c)'.

Key Points

• Gathering effect:
• The gathering effect refers to the way fabric bunches together when it is sewn with a gathering stitch. This effect is often used in garments to create ruffles, fullness, or texture.
• Different fabrics exhibit the gathering effect differently based on their weight, weave, and drape characteristics.
• Malmal:
• Malmal is a lightweight, soft, and fine cotton fabric. It gathers well due to its lightness and softness.
• Chiffon:
• Chiffon is a lightweight, sheer fabric made from silk, nylon, or polyester. It gathers beautifully and creates soft, flowing ruffles.

Additional Information

• Taffeta:
• Taffeta is a crisp, smooth fabric made from silk or synthetic fibers.
• Linen:
• Linen is a strong, durable fabric made from flax fibers.

The correct answer is '(a), (c)'.

Key Points

• Components of Compensation:
• Basic pay: This is the fundamental salary an employee receives before any additional benefits or bonuses. It forms the core of an employee's earnings and is usually determined by the job role, experience, and qualifications.
• Incentives: These are additional payments made to employees to motivate and reward them for exceeding performance targets. Incentives can include bonuses, commissions, profit-sharing, and other performance-related pay.

Additional Information

• Base compensation: This term is often used interchangeably with basic pay, but it is not a distinct component. It generally refers to the fixed salary or wage an employee receives before any variable pay like bonuses or incentives.
• Collective bargaining: This is a process where workers, through their unions, negotiate with their employers to determine their terms of employment. While it is related to compensation, it is not a direct component of compensation but rather a method to achieve it.

The correct answer is 'Universalization of Elementary Education'.

Key Points

• Universalization of Elementary Education:
• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is a flagship program launched by the Government of India in 2001.
• The primary goal of SSA is to achieve universalization of elementary education, which includes education for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• The program aims to provide free and compulsory education to all children within this age group, ensuring that every child has access to quality education.
• SSA focuses on bridging gender and social gaps in education, enhancing the quality of education, and promoting inclusive education.

Additional Information

• Universalization of High School Education in Urban areas:
• SSA primarily focuses on elementary education, not high school education.
• High school education typically refers to education for children aged 14 to 18 years, which is outside the scope of SSA.
• Universalization of Middle School Education in Rural areas:
• SSA targets elementary education across both urban and rural areas, not just middle school education in rural areas.
• Elementary education under SSA encompasses both primary and upper primary (middle) school levels.
• Universalization of non formal Education:
• SSA focuses on formal education within the school system rather than non-formal education.
• Non-formal education refers to educational activities outside the formal school system.

The correct answer is 'Shadow puppet'.

Key Points

• Shadow puppet:
• Shadow puppetry involves flat puppets that are operated behind a tightly stretched white cloth screen with a light source behind them.
• The puppets cast shadows on the screen, creating visual storytelling through their movements.
• This form of puppetry is popular in various cultures, including Indonesian, Chinese, and Turkish traditions.

Additional Information

• Glove puppet:
• Also known as hand puppets, these are controlled by inserting the hand into the puppet's head and arms.
• They are not used with a screen and light setup, making them different from shadow puppets.
• String puppet:
• These puppets, also called marionettes, are controlled by strings attached to various parts of the puppet's body.
• They offer a wide range of movement but are not used in shadow puppetry.
• Rod puppet:
• Rod puppets are operated by rods attached to the puppet's limbs or body.
• They are often used in performances where the puppeteer is visible or hidden behind a screen but not in shadow puppetry.

The correct answer is 'Directive leader'.

Key Points

• Directive leader:
• A directive leader is one who provides clear instructions, sets explicit goals, and defines the expectations for the group members.
• This leadership style is characterized by a high level of control and structure, ensuring that team members understand their tasks and responsibilities.
• Directive leaders are particularly effective in situations where tasks are complex, unclear, or require specific technical knowledge.

Additional Information

• Participative leader:
• A participative leader involves team members in decision-making processes, encouraging input and collaboration.
• This style is effective in fostering a sense of ownership and motivation among team members but may not be suitable for situations requiring quick, decisive action.
• Supportive leader:
• A supportive leader focuses on the well-being and needs of team members, providing encouragement and resources to help them succeed.
• This approach is beneficial in boosting morale and job satisfaction but may lack the clear direction provided by a directive leader.
• Achievement-oriented leader:
• An achievement-oriented leader sets high standards and goals for the team, pushing members to perform at their best.
• While this style can drive high performance, it may also lead to stress and burnout if not balanced with adequate support and resources.

The correct answer is 'Independent'.

Key Points

• Independent Events:
• Two events are independent if the occurrence of one event does not affect the probability of the other event occurring.
• Mathematically, events A and B are independent if P(A ∩ B) = P(A) * P(B).
• Example: Flipping a coin and rolling a die are independent events; the outcome of the coin flip does not affect the outcome of the die roll.

Additional Information

• Simultaneous Events:
• Simultaneous events occur at the same time but are not necessarily independent.
• Example: If you hear thunder and see lightning at the same time, these events are simultaneous but not independent.
• Exhaustive Events:
• Exhaustive events cover all possible outcomes of an experiment.
• Example: When rolling a die, the events {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} are exhaustive because they include all possible outcomes.
• Dependent Events:
• Dependent events are those where the occurrence of one event affects the probability of the other event occurring.
• Example: Drawing two cards from a deck without replacement; the outcome of the first draw affects the outcome of the second draw.

The correct answer is 'A research initiated to solve an immediate problem'.

Key Points

• Action Research:
• Action research is a type of research conducted with the primary aim of solving an immediate problem.
• It involves a cycle of planning, acting, observing, and reflecting to bring about change and improvement in a specific context.
• This method is often used in educational settings, healthcare, and organizational development to address real-world issues.
• Researchers collaborate with participants to identify problems, implement solutions, and evaluate the outcomes.

Additional Information

• Longitudinal Research:
• Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period to observe changes and developments.
• Applied Research:
• Applied research focuses on practical application and the development of technology or techniques to solve specific problems.
• Research with Socio-Economic Objective:
• This type of research aims to address broader socio-economic issues and contribute to social and economic development.

The correct answer is '(a), (b), (d)'.

Key Points

• Protein:
• In chronic renal failure, the kidneys' ability to filter waste products is compromised, which leads to an accumulation of waste in the blood.
• High protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and lead to further kidney damage.
• Therefore, dietary protein is often restricted to reduce the production of waste products and ease the burden on the kidneys.
• Sodium:
• Excess sodium can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure, both of which can worsen kidney function.
• Limiting sodium intake helps control blood pressure and reduces fluid buildup, which is crucial for patients with chronic renal failure.
• Water:
• Patients with chronic renal failure may have difficulty excreting excess fluids, leading to fluid overload.
• Restricting water intake helps manage fluid balance and prevents complications such as edema and hypertension.

Additional Information

• Carbohydrates:
• Carbohydrates are generally not restricted in chronic renal failure unless the patient has diabetes or another condition requiring carbohydrate monitoring.
• In fact, carbohydrates can be an important source of energy, especially when protein intake is restricted.
• Energy:
• Energy intake is usually not restricted; in fact, adequate energy intake is important to prevent muscle wasting and provide sufficient calories.
• Energy needs may be met through a combination of fats and carbohydrates, depending on the individual’s overall health and nutritional status.

The correct answer is '(a), (c), (d)'.

Key Points

• Oxalic acid:
• Oxalic acid is found in foods like spinach, beets, and nuts.
• It binds with calcium to form calcium oxalate, which is insoluble and thus reduces calcium absorption.
• Caffeine:
• Caffeine can interfere with calcium absorption and increase calcium excretion in urine.
• High caffeine intake has been linked to lower bone density.
• Phytic acid:
• Phytic acid is found in whole grains, seeds, legumes, and nuts.
• It can bind calcium and other minerals, forming insoluble complexes that are not absorbed by the body.

Additional Information

• Protein:
• While excessive protein intake can increase calcium excretion, moderate protein is essential for bone health.
• Lactose:
• Lactose, found in milk and dairy products, actually enhances calcium absorption.

The correct answer is '(b), (d), (e)'.

Key Points

• Comfort:
• Comfort is crucial for infants as their skin is very sensitive. Clothes should be soft, non-irritating, and allow free movement.
• Hygiene:
• Maintaining hygiene is essential to prevent infections and rashes. Clothes should be easy to wash and made from breathable materials.
• Warmth:
• Infants are unable to regulate their body temperature effectively, so clothing must provide adequate warmth to keep them comfortable and healthy.

Additional Information

• Variety:
• While variety in clothing can be appealing, it is not an essential factor for infants. The primary focus should be on comfort, hygiene, and warmth.
• Style:
• Style is not a priority for infants. Practicality and the baby's well-being take precedence over fashion considerations.

The correct answer is 'Equity theory'.

Key Points

• Equity theory:
• This theory, developed by John Stacey Adams, posits that individuals seek fairness in their relationships.
• According to this theory, we develop and maintain relationships where the ratio of our rewards and costs is equal to our partner's.
• People feel distressed when they perceive inequity in their relationships and strive to restore balance.
• Equity theory is widely applied in contexts like workplace relationships, romantic partnerships, and friendships.

Additional Information

• Social Exchange theory:
• This theory explains that individuals seek to maximize rewards and minimize costs in relationships.
• It focuses on the balance of benefits and drawbacks in maintaining relationships but does not emphasize equality of ratios as Equity theory does.
• Functional theory:
• This theory, often related to group communication, suggests that communication functions to achieve a group's goals.
• It does not specifically address the balance of rewards and costs in interpersonal relationships.
• Coordinated management of meaning theory:
• This theory focuses on how individuals create, coordinate, and manage meanings in their communication.
• It is more concerned with the processes of communication rather than the balance of rewards and costs.

The correct answer is '(a), (d), (e)'.

Key Points

• Growth and maintenance of tissues:
• Proteins play a crucial role in the growth and repair of tissues. They provide the necessary building blocks for the body's cells, muscles, and organs.
• Maintenance of appropriate pH:
• Proteins help maintain the pH balance in the body by acting as buffers. They can bind to small amounts of acids or bases, helping to maintain a stable pH in the body's fluids.
• Transportation of nutrients:
• Proteins are involved in the transport of various substances throughout the body, including oxygen, vitamins, and minerals. Hemoglobin, for example, is a protein that carries oxygen in the blood.

Additional Information

• Promoter growth of desirable bacteria:
• This is generally a function of prebiotics and dietary fibers rather than proteins. Proteins do not specifically promote the growth of beneficial bacteria in the gut.
• Acts as an insulator:
• Insulation in the human body is primarily provided by adipose tissue (fat), which helps to retain heat.

The correct answer is 'Aristotle'.

Key Points

• Aristotle's Contribution to Rhetoric:
• Aristotle, a Greek philosopher, is widely recognized for his work on 'Rhetoric', which is considered a foundational text in the study of communication and persuasion.
• His treatise 'Rhetoric' outlines the principles and techniques of persuasive communication, emphasizing the importance of ethos (credibility), pathos (emotional appeal), and logos (logical argument).
• Aristotle's work has had a profound influence on the development of rhetorical theory and is still studied and applied in various fields such as law, politics, and marketing.

Additional Information

• Derito:
• Derito is not a recognized figure in the history of communication or rhetoric.
• Ensminger:
• Ensminger is also not associated with the classical period of rhetoric or communication studies.
• Schramm:
• Wilbur Schramm is known as a pioneer in the field of communication studies, but his work is more contemporary, focusing on mass communication and media studies. .

The correct answer is 'Inferential statistic'.

Key Points

• Inferential statistic:
• Inferential statistics involves making inferences about populations based on samples of data drawn from those populations.
• Testing a hypothesis is a fundamental aspect of inferential statistics, as it allows researchers to make conclusions about a population parameter.
• Hypothesis testing involves formulating a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis, then using sample data to determine whether to reject the null hypothesis.

Additional Information

• Descriptive statistic:
• Descriptive statistics summarize and describe the features of a dataset without making inferences about a larger population.
• Examples include measures of central tendency like mean, median, and mode, and measures of variability like range and standard deviation.
• Data preparation:
• Data preparation involves cleaning, transforming, and organizing raw data into a usable format for analysis.
• Data analysis:
• Data analysis encompasses a broader range of techniques used to examine, transform, and model data to discover useful information.

The correct answer is '(a), (c), (d)'.

Key Points

• Enzymatic browning in cut fruits and vegetables:
• Enzymatic browning is a chemical process involving polyphenol oxidase, catechol oxidase, and other enzymes that create melanins and benzoquinone from natural phenols, resulting in brown pigments.
• This process is common in fruits like apples, bananas, and avocados, and vegetables like potatoes.
• Methods to prevent enzymatic browning:
• Balancing: Refers to blanching, a process that involves briefly boiling the fruits or vegetables and then plunging them into ice water. This inactivates the enzymes responsible for browning.
• Use of antioxidants: Antioxidants such as ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can prevent browning by reducing the oxidized compounds back to their original state.
• Dipping in water: Immersing the cut fruits or vegetables in water can limit their exposure to oxygen, thereby slowing down the enzymatic browning process.

Additional Information

• Increasing pH:
• This method involves using acidic substances like lemon juice or vinegar to lower the pH, which can inhibit the activity of polyphenol oxidase.
• However, this is not always practical as it can alter the taste of the food.
• Leaving exposed to air:
• This accelerates enzymatic browning as it increases the exposure to oxygen, which is necessary for the browning reaction to occur.

The correct answer is 'Do not reject a false null hypothesis'.

Key Points

• Type II Error:
• A Type II error, also known as a "false negative," occurs when a statistical test fails to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false.
• This means that the test concludes there is no effect or difference when, in reality, there is one.
• The probability of committing a Type II error is denoted by beta (β), and the power of a test (1-β) is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis.

The correct answer is 'Population'.

Key Points

• Population:
• The term 'Population' in statistics refers to the complete set of items or individuals that share at least one property of interest.
• It includes every member of the specified group, which can be people, objects, events, or measurements.
• For instance, if a study is conducted to understand the average height of students in a school, the population would be all the students in that school.

Additional Information

• Sample:
• A sample is a subset of the population that is used to represent the population in statistical analysis.
• It is often used because studying the entire population may be impractical or impossible.
• Group:
• While a group can refer to a collection of individuals or items, it is a more general term and does not specifically imply the totality of the population under study.
• Specimen:
• A specimen is a single example or sample used for analysis and study, often in scientific research, and does not represent the entire population.

The correct answer is 'The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed'.

Key Points

• Dependent Variable:
• In an experiment, the dependent variable is the one that is measured or observed.
• It is called 'dependent' because its value depends on changes to the independent variable.
• For instance, in a study on the effect of study hours (independent variable) on test scores (dependent variable), test scores are measured to see how they change with varying study hours.

Additional Information

• Independent Variable:
• The independent variable is the one that is manipulated or changed by the researcher to observe its effect on the dependent variable.
• In the example of studying hours and test scores, the number of study hours is the independent variable.

The correct answer is '(a), (b), (d)'.

Key Points

• Broiling as a cooking method:
• Broiling involves cooking food using direct, high heat from above, typically in an oven or grill.
• This method is ideal for foods that benefit from a quick, high-temperature cooking process.
• Papad:
• Papad can be broiled to achieve a crispy texture.
• Sweet potato:
• Sweet potatoes can be broiled to create a caramelized exterior while keeping the inside soft.
• Chappaties:
• Chappaties can be broiled to puff up and cook evenly.

Additional Information

• Flaky pastry:
• Flaky pastry is typically baked rather than broiled, as broiling would not allow for even cooking and the necessary rise.
• Apple pie:
• Apple pie is baked to ensure the crust cooks through and the apples soften, which would not be effectively achieved through broiling.

The correct answer is Declaring the child is legally free for adoption by CWC.

Key Points

• Declaring the child is legally free for adoption by CWC:
• The Child Welfare Committee (CWC) has the authority to declare a child legally free for adoption.
• This declaration is a crucial step in the legal adoption process under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (JJ Act).
• Once a child is declared legally free for adoption, it allows for the initiation of adoption proceedings to find a suitable family for the child.
• This step ensures that all legal and procedural requirements are met, safeguarding the child's best interests.

Additional Information

• Certifying that a child has severe disability:
• This certification is important for identifying special needs of the child but is not directly related to the process of legal adoption under the JJ Act.
• It may, however, influence the type of care and support the child receives.
• Contacting child line that the child has no caregiver:
• Informing child line is crucial for the immediate safety and care of a child but does not directly address the legal process of adoption.
• Child line services can provide interim care and protection until a more permanent solution is found.
• Newspaper notification that a child is missing:
• This step is part of efforts to locate missing children and reunite them with their families.
• It serves as a measure to safeguard children who are lost or separated from their families.

The correct answer is 'Andhra Pradesh'.

Key Points

• Anti-Liquor Movement in Andhra Pradesh:
• The Anti-Liquor Movement, also known as the Arrack Movement, was a significant social movement in Andhra Pradesh during the early 1990s.
• This movement was primarily led by women, who were significantly affected by the adverse impacts of alcohol consumption in their communities.
• The movement gained momentum in the Nellore district and eventually spread across the state, leading to a ban on the sale of arrack in Andhra Pradesh in 1993.
• Women’s groups, supported by various NGOs and social activists, played a crucial role in organizing protests, rallies, and campaigns against the sale and consumption of liquor.

Additional Information

• Other States:
• Manipur: While Manipur has had its share of social movements, the Anti-Liquor Movement led by women was not prominent in this state.
• Punjab: Punjab has faced issues related to drug and alcohol abuse, but the specific Anti-Liquor Movement led by women did not originate here.
• Rajasthan: Rajasthan has dealt with various social issues, but the well-known Anti-Liquor Movement led by women was not a significant feature of the state's history.
• Impact of the Movement:
• The movement led to a significant reduction in alcohol-related problems, including domestic violence and financial instability in many households.
• It empowered women and showcased their ability to bring about significant social change.

The correct answer is (a), (b), (d).

Key Points

• Systems Approach:
• The systems approach is a conceptual framework that views an organization as a complex, interrelated set of elements that function as a whole to achieve a common purpose.
• It emphasizes the importance of understanding the interrelationships, inter-dependence, and interactions among various components of an organization.
• This approach helps in identifying how changes in one part of the system can impact the whole system.
• Management cannot be viewed as an isolated activity:
• Management activities are interconnected with various other functions and cannot be seen in isolation.
• Effective management requires considering the broader organizational context and its environment.
• Individual components without losing sight of totality:
• This point highlights the need to focus on individual parts of the system while maintaining an awareness of the overall system.
• It ensures that while solving problems at the micro-level, the macro-level implications are also considered.
• Inter-relationships, inter-dependence, and interaction:
• The systems approach stresses the importance of understanding how different components of the system are related and dependent on each other.
• It focuses on the interactions among various elements to achieve synergy and effectiveness.

The correct answer is '(a), (c), (d)'.

Key Points

• 2-dimensional house plans:
• Floor Plan: A floor plan is a 2D diagram that shows the layout of rooms, spaces, and physical features at one level of a structure. It is used to understand the spatial relationships and dimensions of different areas within a building.
• Elevation Plan: An elevation plan is a 2D drawing that shows one side of the house, revealing the exterior features, materials, and overall look from a specific angle. It helps in visualizing the facade of the building.
• Section Plan: A section plan is a 2D drawing that represents a vertical cut through a building, showing the internal arrangement of spaces, walls, floors, and structural elements. It is essential for understanding the construction details and interior layout.

Additional Information

• Perspective Plan:
• A perspective plan is a 3D representation of a building, providing a realistic view of how the structure will appear once built. It shows depth and spatial relationships, making it different from 2D plans.
• Landscape Plan:
• A landscape plan is typically 2D but focuses on the arrangement of outdoor elements like plants, pathways, and other features around a building. It is not considered a house plan as it does not detail the building structure itself.

The correct answer is (a), (b), (c).

Key Points

• Graphic worksheets:
• Graphic worksheets are used to visualize and organize information during the pre-design phase.
• They help in brainstorming and outlining ideas, ensuring a structured approach to design development.
• Analysis cards:
• Analysis cards aid in breaking down complex information into manageable pieces.
• They help in identifying key elements and relationships within the design process.
• Variety of metrics:
• Metrics provide measurable data that can be used to assess different aspects of the design.
• They help in setting benchmarks and evaluating the effectiveness of design strategies.

Additional Information

• Bubble diagram:
• Bubble diagrams are used in the conceptual phase to explore relationships between spaces and elements.
• They provide a visual representation of spatial organization and flow but are more commonly used in the early stages of design rather than the pre-design phase.

The correct answer is '(a) and (d)'.

Key Points

• Traction refers to:
• Feeling of being pulled along by inertia inherent in the activity, which is the external momentum that helps keep one engaged in a task or process.
• Inner drive for completing the task in hand, which refers to the internal motivation that propels an individual to continue working towards a goal, overcoming obstacles and distractions.
• These aspects of traction emphasize both external influences and internal motivations in maintaining productivity and focus.

The correct answer is '(a) - (v), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iv)'

Key Points

• Benzoic acid:
• Commonly used in jams and jellies to inhibit the growth of mold, yeast, and some bacteria.
• Sulphur dioxide:
• Used in dehydrated vegetables to prevent discolouration and preserve the texture by inhibiting the enzymatic reactions that cause spoilage.
• Nisin:
• Employed in cheese making as it is effective against a variety of spoilage organisms and pathogens, ensuring the product's safety and extending shelf life.
• Acetic acid:
• Utilized in chutney production to lower pH levels, acting as an antimicrobial agent to prevent spoilage.
• Sodium nitrate:
• Added to processed meats to prevent the growth of Clostridium botulinum, a bacterium that causes botulism, and to maintain the meat's colour and flavour.

Additional Information

• Importance of Preservatives:
• Preservatives play a crucial role in extending the shelf life of food products, maintaining their safety, and ensuring they remain free from spoilage and harmful microorganisms.
• They also help in retaining the nutritional value and sensory qualities of food products.

The correct answer is '(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)'. 

Key Points

• (a) Corduroy - (iii) A cut, pile fabric with ribbed effect: Corduroy is known for its distinctive ribbed texture, which is created by cutting the pile yarns.
• (b) Muslin - (i) Fabric made from carded yarns of various thread counts up to 40s: Muslin is a lightweight, plain-weave fabric made from carded yarns, typically used for dressmaking and curtains.
• (c) Outing Flannel - (ii) Fabric made of plain or twill weave and single yarn finished with nap in one or both sides: Outing flannel is known for its soft texture, achieved by finishing with a nap on one or both sides.
• (d) Voile - (iv) Made of combed, medium to hard twisted single yarns: Voile is a lightweight, sheer fabric made from tightly twisted yarns, often used for summer clothing and curtains.

**Asthma attacks in children are usually provoked by physical and emotional stress, food allergies, and seasonal transitions**

**Key Points**

- **Physical and emotional stress:**
- Stress can trigger asthma symptoms or make them worse.
- Both physical activities, like exercise, and emotional stress can induce asthma attacks.
- **Food allergies:**
- Some children with asthma may also have food allergies.
- Common food allergens include peanuts, tree nuts, shellfish, and eggs, which can provoke asthma attacks.
- **Seasonal transitions:**
- Changes in seasons can bring about fluctuations in pollen levels, temperature, and humidity, which can trigger asthma symptoms.
- Spring and fall are particularly challenging for children with asthma due to high pollen counts.

**Additional Information**

- **Television viewing:**
- While sedentary activities like watching TV are not direct triggers for asthma, they can contribute to a sedentary lifestyle, which may affect overall health and exacerbate asthma symptoms over time.

The correct answer is (a), (b), (c).

Key Points

• Disappearance of Reflexes by 4 Months:
• Tonic neck reflex: This reflex, also known as the "fencing posture," should disappear by around 4 months of age. When the infant's head is turned to one side, the arm on that side stretches out, and the opposite arm bends up at the elbow.
• Palmar grasp reflex: This reflex should also disappear by around 4 months. When you place a finger or object in the infant's palm, they will grasp it tightly.
• Involuntary sucking reflex: This reflex, which is the automatic sucking when something touches the roof of the baby's mouth, usually fades by 4 months of age.

Additional Information

• Babinski reflex: This reflex, where the big toe bends back and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked, typically disappears by 2 years of age, not by 4 months.
• Eye blink reflex: This reflex, which involves blinking in response to a bright light or a sudden movement, does not disappear and continues throughout life as a protective mechanism.

The correct answer is '(a), (b), (c)'.

Key Points

• IVF (In Vitro Fertilization):
• A medical procedure where an egg is fertilized by sperm outside the body, and then the embryo is implanted in the uterus.
• It is a common solution for couples facing infertility issues.
• IVF can be a viable option for Radha and Pradeep to have a biological child.
• Altruistic surrogacy:
• Involves a surrogate mother who carries a baby for another person or couple without receiving financial compensation beyond medical and other reasonable expenses.
• This method can help couples who are unable to carry a pregnancy to term.
• Altruistic surrogacy is a legal and ethical option that Radha and Pradeep can consider.
• Adoption:
• Adoption involves legally taking another person's child into one's family and raising them as one's own.
• It is a way to provide a family for children who need one and can be a fulfilling option for childless couples.
• Adoption is a viable and compassionate option for Radha and Pradeep.

Additional Information

• Cloning:
• Cloning involves creating a genetically identical copy of an organism.
• It is not a commonly accepted or legal method for human reproduction due to ethical, legal, and social concerns.

The correct answer is '(b), (c), (d)'.

Key Points

• Criteria for defining intellectual disabilities:
• Significantly below average intellectual functioning: This refers to an IQ score that is significantly below the average, typically an IQ of 70 or below.
• Impairment in adaptive functioning: This includes limitations in skills necessary for daily living, such as communication, self-care, and social skills.
• Deficit should be manifested before the age of 18 years: Intellectual disabilities must be identified during the developmental period, meaning before the individual reaches adulthood.

Additional Information

• Inability to converse fluently in English and Hindi:
• This is not a criterion for intellectual disabilities. Language proficiency is not directly related to intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior.
• Other considerations:
• Intellectual disabilities are typically identified through a combination of IQ testing and assessments of adaptive behavior.
• Early identification and intervention can significantly improve outcomes for individuals with intellectual disabilities.

The correct answer is '(a), (b), (c), (e)'.

Key Points

• Role of Public Relations in Marketing:
• Build Corporate Image: Public relations (PR) is crucial in shaping and maintaining the corporate image of a company. It involves creating a positive perception among the public and stakeholders about the company's values, goals, and achievements.
• Handle Media: PR professionals manage interactions with the media to ensure that the company's message is accurately conveyed. This includes writing press releases, organizing press conferences, and responding to media inquiries.
• Maintain Customer Relations: PR helps in building and sustaining relationships with customers by addressing their concerns, providing information, and engaging with them through various communication channels.
• Manage People's Perceptions: :involves influencing and managing how the public perceives the company. This can include crisis management, reputation management, and strategic communication to align public perception with the company's desired image.

Additional Information

• Do Personal Selling:
• Personal selling involves direct interaction between a salesperson and a potential customer to make a sale. While important, it is more closely related to sales than public relations.
• Understanding the Distinction:
• It is important to distinguish between PR and other marketing functions like advertising and sales. PR focuses on creating and maintaining a positive image and managing communication, whereas advertising is paid promotion, and sales involve direct selling efforts.

The correct answer is '(a), (b), (c)'.

Key Points

• Importance of play:
• Play is crucial for the overall development of children, aiding in their physical, emotional, and social skills.
• It allows children to explore their environment, develop creativity, and learn problem-solving skills.
• Consistent discipline:
• Consistent discipline helps children understand boundaries and develop self-control.
• It is important for parents to be consistent in their disciplinary methods to provide a stable and predictable environment for children.
• Balanced diet:
• A balanced diet is essential for the physical growth and cognitive development of children.
• It ensures that children receive the necessary nutrients required for their overall well-being.

Additional Information

• At least 2 hrs of screen time:
• Excessive screen time can lead to various health issues such as eye strain, poor posture, and decreased physical activity.
• Experts recommend limiting screen time for young children to ensure their healthy development.
• Conversation with children:
• Engaging in conversations with children helps in building their language skills and emotional intelligence.
• While important, it is not one of the primary areas highlighted in workshops focused on best practices of childcare.

The correct answer is '(b), (c), (d)'.

Key Points

• Community Organisation:
• Community organisation is a process where community members come together to take collective action and generate solutions to common problems.
• It involves building and maintaining community interest to ensure sustained engagement and participation.
• One key technique in community organisation is obtaining consensus among members to foster unity and collaborative decision-making.
• It is generally considered a long-term approach, focusing on sustainable development and lasting impacts within the community.

The correct answer is (a), (b), (c).

Key Points

• Bloom's Taxonomy of Learning Objectives:
• Developed by Benjamin Bloom in 1956, Bloom's Taxonomy is a framework for categorizing educational goals and objectives.
• The taxonomy is divided into three domains: Cognitive (knowledge-based), Affective (emotion-based), and Psychomotor (action-based), with the Cognitive domain being the most widely used.
• Key Concepts in the Cognitive Domain:
• Analysis: This involves breaking down information into components to understand its structure. It includes activities such as comparing, contrasting, and categorizing.
• Synthesis: This involves combining elements to form a coherent whole. It includes activities such as designing, constructing, and planning.
• Comprehension: This involves understanding and interpreting information. It includes activities such as summarizing, explaining, and predicting.

Additional Information

• Additional Notes:
• The Cognitive domain of Bloom's Taxonomy was revised in 2001 by Anderson and Krathwohl, which updated the categories to Remember, Understand, Apply, Analyze, Evaluate, and Create.
• The original taxonomy is still widely used and respected in educational settings for its simplicity and effectiveness in categorizing learning objectives.

The correct answer is '(a), (c), (d)'.

Key Points

• Ethical guidelines for conducting research with humans:
• Getting informed consent of the participants: Researchers must obtain voluntary, informed consent from participants. This ensures that participants are fully aware of the nature of the study, the procedures involved, potential risks, and their rights as participants.
• Keeping participants identity anonymous: Protecting the anonymity of participants is crucial to ensure their personal information is not disclosed without their consent. This helps maintain confidentiality and trust between the researcher and participants.
• Telling participants that they are free to withdraw at any time: Participants should be informed that their participation is voluntary and that they have the right to withdraw from the study at any point without any consequences. This respects the autonomy and freedom of the participants.

Additional Information

• Telling participants that they must continue until the study has been completed:
• This is unethical as it disregards the participants' autonomy and right to withdraw from the study at any time.
• Revealing the identity of participants:
• Revealing participants' identities without their consent is a breach of confidentiality and can cause harm or distress to the participants.

The correct answer is (a), (b), (c).

Key Points

• 2-D Aids in Extension Education:
• 2-D aids are visual tools used to communicate information effectively in educational activities.
• They include materials that are two-dimensional, such as flash cards, flip charts, and posters.
• Flash Cards:
• Flash cards are small cards bearing information, used as a learning aid to reinforce concepts through repetition and engagement.
• Flip Charts:
• Flip charts are a series of large sheets of paper that can be flipped over to reveal information, often used in presentations and teaching.
• Posters:
• Posters are large printed sheets used to display information prominently, often utilized to grab attention and convey messages quickly.

Additional Information

• Campaigns:
• Campaigns involve organized efforts to achieve a specific goal, typically requiring multiple strategies and mediums, not limited to 2-D aids.
• Radio:
• Radio is an audio medium used for broadcasting information, making it a non-visual aid and not classified under 2-D aids.

The correct answer is (a), (c), (d).

Key Points

• F-distribution has 2 sets of degrees of freedom:
• The F-distribution is characterized by two sets of degrees of freedom: one for the numerator and one for the denominator. This is because it is derived from the ratio of two chi-squared distributions, each of which has its own degrees of freedom.
• F-distribution is used to test the null-hypothesis that the population variances are equal:
• One of the primary uses of the F-distribution is in the analysis of variance (ANOVA) and other statistical tests to compare the variances of two populations. It helps in testing the hypothesis that the variances of two populations are equal.
• F-distribution is an all positive distribution:
• The F-distribution is always positive because it is derived from the ratio of two chi-squared distributions, which are themselves always positive. This means that the F-distribution cannot take on negative values.

Additional Information

• F-distribution has 1 set of degree of freedom:
• This statement is incorrect because the F-distribution requires two sets of degrees of freedom, one for the numerator and one for the denominator.
• F-distribution is both positive and negative distribution:
• This is incorrect as the F-distribution is always positive. It cannot take negative values.

The correct answer is '(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (v), (d) - (i)'

Key Points

• ATP III Classification:
• The Adult Treatment Panel III (ATP III) guidelines provide a framework for the assessment and management of cholesterol levels to prevent cardiovascular diseases.
• These guidelines categorize serum lipids into different groups with specific cut-off levels for normal and abnormal ranges.
• Serum Lipids and Their Normal Cut-off Levels:
• Total Cholesterol: The normal cut-off level is less than 200 mg/dl.
• LDL Cholesterol: The normal cut-off level is less than 100 mg/dl.
• HDL Cholesterol: The normal range is 40-60 mg/dl.
• Serum Triglycerides: The normal cut-off level is less than 150 mg/dl.

The correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iv)

Key Points

• Proteins - Dyspigmentation of Hair:
• Protein deficiency can lead to changes in hair colour and texture, known as dyspigmentation.
• This symptom is often seen in conditions such as kwashiorkor.
• Vitamin A - Follicular Hyperkeratosis:
• Vitamin A deficiency can cause skin issues like follicular hyperkeratosis, where hair follicles become plugged with keratin.
• This condition can lead to rough and bumpy skin.
• Thiamin (Vitamin B1) - Tachycardia:
• Thiamin deficiency can lead to cardiovascular issues such as tachycardia, which is an abnormally fast heart rate.
• This condition is commonly associated with beriberi.
• Niacin (Vitamin B3) - Glossitis:
• Niacin deficiency can result in glossitis, an inflammation of the tongue.
• This symptom is part of a condition known as pellagra.
• Calcium - Rachitic Rosary:
• Calcium deficiency can lead to bone deformities such as rachitic rosary, which are bead-like prominences at the costochondral junctions.
• This condition is often seen in rickets.

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (v), (d) - (ii)

Key Points

• Personal resources:
• These are resources that an individual possesses, such as creativity and knowledge, which are crucial for personal growth and development.
• Compeer resources:
• These refer to resources gained through social connections, such as social ties and friendships, which can provide emotional and practical support.
• Community resources:
• These include institutions and services available within a community, such as banks and schools, that support the collective well-being of the community members.
• Family resources:
• These are resources shared within a family unit, like a house and equipment, that support the family’s daily functioning and stability.

The correct answer is '(a) - (v), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)'.

Key Points

• Experimental Research Design:
• This design involves the researcher deliberately influencing events and investigating the effect of the intervention.
• It is often used to establish cause-and-effect relationships.
• Example: A clinical trial where a new drug is administered to one group and a placebo to another to observe the effects.
• Longitudinal Research Design:
• This design involves the researcher investigating changes over a period of time.
• It allows for the observation of developments and long-term effects.
• Example: A study tracking the health outcomes of a cohort of individuals over several decades.
• Cross Sectional Research Design:
• This design involves the researcher observing individuals only once.
• It is often used to assess the prevalence of outcomes or characteristics at a single point in time.
• Example: A survey conducted to determine the current rate of smoking among teenagers.
• Retrospective Research Design:
• This design involves the researcher collecting data referring to past events.
• It is often used in studies where historical data is analyzed to find correlations or patterns.
• Example: A study examining medical records to investigate the factors leading to the development of a disease.

The correct answer is '(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)'

Key Points

• Bricks:
• Bricks are made by molding clay into rectangular shapes, drying them, and then baking them in kilns.
• This process gives bricks their characteristic hardness and durability, making them a staple in construction.
• Wood:
• Wood is a natural building material sourced from trees such as Teak, Deodar, Mahogany, and Oak.
• Wood is valued for its strength, versatility, and aesthetic appeal in construction projects.
• Coir:
• Coir is a fibrous material extracted from the outer coat of coconuts.
• It is often used in products like ropes, mats, and brushes, and has applications in building materials as well.
• Particle Board:
• Particle board is made by compressing waste wood fibers under heat and moisture using adhesive.
• This material is commonly used in furniture and cabinetry due to its cost-effectiveness and ease of use.

The correct answer is '(a) - (v), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)'.

Key Points

• SOS Children's Villages:
• Founded by Herman Gmeiner in 1949.
• Focuses on providing family-based care for children who have lost their parents or can no longer live with them.
• Operates in various countries, aiming to ensure that every child grows up in a loving family environment.
• SEWA (Self-Employed Women's Association):
• Founded by Ela Bhatt in 1972.
• A trade union for poor, self-employed women workers in India.
• Aims to promote their rights and provide them with social security and other benefits.
• RTI (Right to Information):
• Aruna Roy is a key figure in the RTI movement in India.
• The RTI Act was passed in 2005, and it empowers citizens to seek information from government bodies, promoting transparency and accountability.
• Narmada Bachao Andolan:
• Medha Patkar is a prominent leader of this movement.
• Focuses on the rights of people affected by the construction of large dams on the Narmada River.
• Aims to ensure proper rehabilitation and environmental considerations.

The correct answer is '(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (v)'

Key Points

• Matrilocal (a) - (ii):
• Matrilocal refers to a family system in which the husband lives near or with the wife's parents.
• This type of residence pattern is common in societies where matrilineal descent is practiced.
• Patrilineal (b) - (i):
• Patrilineal descent involves tracing ancestry and inheritance through the male line.
• This system is prevalent in many cultures and often influences family structure and inheritance laws.
• Incest (c) - (iii):
• Incest refers to sexual activity between close family members, which is typically prohibited by law and social norms.
• Such relationships are often forbidden due to genetic, social, and moral reasons.
• Monotheism (d) - (v):
• Monotheism is the belief in a single, all-powerful God.
• Major monotheistic religions include Christianity, Islam, and Judaism.

The correct answer is '(a) - (v), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)'.

Key Points

• Networking:
• Networking primarily focuses on the sharing of information among individuals or groups.
• It helps in building relationships and exchanging knowledge to achieve common goals or enhance mutual understanding.
• Coalitions:
• Coalitions are groups that act together for a specific activity or purpose.
• These are typically temporary alliances formed to achieve a particular objective.
• Alliances:
• Alliances are more permanent arrangements among groups or organizations.
• They are formed to pursue long-term goals and often involve formal agreements.
• Lobbying:
• Lobbying involves persuading stakeholders, including policymakers, to support a specific cause or policy.
• It is a strategic approach to influence decision-making processes in favor of a particular interest.

The correct answer is (c), (d), (a), (e), (b).

Key Points

• Progression of Eye Changes in Vitamin A Deficiency:
• Vitamin A deficiency leads to a series of ocular changes, progressing from functional to structural damage.
• Nightblindness (c): The earliest symptom, caused by impaired production of rhodopsin in the retina, leading to difficulty seeing in low light conditions.
• Bitot's spots (d): Foamy, white accumulations on the conjunctiva, indicative of prolonged deficiency.
• Photophobia (a): Sensitivity to light, often accompanying Bitot's spots.
• Xeropthalmia (e): Dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea due to decreased tear production and keratinization of the epithelium.
• Keratomalacia (b): The most severe form, where the cornea becomes soft and may lead to blindness.

The correct answer is '(e), (b), (a), (f), (d), (c)'.

Key Points

• Steps to set the needle in a sewing machine:
• (e) Raise needle bar to highest by turning fly wheel: This initial step ensures that the needle bar is in the highest position, making it easier to insert the needle.
• (b) Loosen thumb screw on needle bar: Loosening the thumb screw allows for the needle to be inserted into the needle bar.
• (a) Hold needle in the left hand: Holding the needle properly is essential for accurate insertion.
• (f) Keep flat side of needle towards groove: Ensuring the flat side of the needle faces the groove ensures correct alignment and functionality.
• (d) Insert needle through needle clamp: Inserting the needle through the clamp secures it in place.
• (c) Tighten clamp: Tightening the clamp ensures the needle is securely fastened and ready for use.

The correct answer is (e), (f), (c), (a), (b), (d).

Key Points

• Sorting:
• This is the initial step where cocoons are sorted based on their quality, size, and texture to ensure uniformity in the later stages of processing.
• Reeling:
• In this step, the silk filaments are unwound from the cocoons and reeled onto a spool. This process requires precision to maintain the continuity of the filament.
• Throwing:
• Throwing involves twisting the silk filaments together to form a stronger yarn. This process helps in creating a uniform and durable silk thread.
• Spinning:
• After throwing, the silk is spun to further enhance its strength and prepare it for weaving or knitting. This step ensures the yarn is even and ready for textile production.
• Degumming:
• This step involves removing the sericin, a gummy substance that surrounds the silk fibers. Degumming is essential for achieving the desired softness and sheen of the silk.
• Weighting:
• Weighting is the final step where the silk yarn is treated with certain substances to increase its weight and improve its drape and feel. This process can also enhance the dye uptake of the silk.

The correct answer is (b), (a), (e), (c), (d).

Key Points

• Preparation of a Time Plan:
• Preparation of a time plan involves organizing and scheduling various activities to ensure efficient time management.
• It is essential for achieving goals within a specified timeframe, thereby optimizing productivity and resource utilization.
• Steps in Sequence:
• List all flexible and inflexible activities: Identifying all activities and categorizing them as flexible or inflexible provides a clear understanding of the tasks at hand.
• Estimate time requirement for each activity: Estimating the time needed for each activity helps in understanding the total time required.
• Balance total estimated time with time available: Comparing the total estimated time with the available time ensures that the plan is realistic and achievable.
• Determine time sequence: Arranging activities in a logical sequence ensures that they are performed in the correct order, enhancing efficiency.
• Finalise the time schedule: Creating a final schedule consolidates all steps into a coherent plan, ready for implementation.

The correct answer is 'Nigeria'.

Explanation:-

According to the passage, "Talking about the children who are stunted, India tops the list (45.6 million) followed by Nigeria (13.9 million) and Pakistan (10.7 million)." This indicates that Nigeria is ranked second in having stunted children, with 13.9 million cases. This highlights the significant global issue of child stunting, particularly in countries like Nigeria and India, which face major malnutrition crises.

The correct answer is (a), (b) and (d).

Explanation:- 

According to the passage, "The National Family Health Survey 4 (NFHS4) also pointed out that India has a very high burden of micronutrient deficiencies caused by Vitamin A, Iodine, Iron and Folic acid leading to Night Blindness, goitre, Anaemia and various birth defects." This indicates that the correct option is (a), (b), and (d), which include goitre, night blindness, and anaemia. These deficiencies reflect significant health issues in India, caused by insufficient intake of essential vitamins and minerals, impacting both children and adults.

The correct answer is (a) and (d).

Explanation:- 

According to the passage, "The National Family Health Survey 4 (NFHS4) also pointed out that India has a very high burden of micronutrient deficiencies caused by Vitamin A, Iodine, Iron and Folic acid leading to Night Blindness, goitre, Anaemia and various birth defects." This indicates that the correct option is (a) and (d), which include Vitamin A and Iron. These deficiencies highlight critical nutritional gaps in India's population, leading to serious health issues such as night blindness and anaemia, and emphasizing the need for improved nutritional interventions.

The correct answer is 'Stunting'.

Explanation:- Stunting refers to impaired growth and development in children due to poor nutrition and repeated infection during early childhood. The report highlights that India has the highest number of stunted children, with 45.6 million cases, followed by Nigeria and Pakistan. This indicates a severe malnutrition crisis in the country, which significantly impacts the health and productivity of its population.

The correct answer is 58.4%.

Explanation:- 

"The National Family Health Survey 4 (NFHS4) also pointed out that India has a very high burden of micronutrient deficiencies caused by Vitamin A, Iodine, Iron and Folic acid leading to Night Blindness, goitre, Anaemia and various birth defects. The survey further observed that 58.4% of children under 5 in India are anaemic." This data emphasizes the severe malnutrition issues in India, particularly among young children, highlighting the critical need for improved nutrition and health interventions to address these deficiencies.

The correct answer is Finance Ministry, Government of India.

Explanation:- 

According to the passage, "Ministry of Finance, GOI, has established 'Nirbhaya Fund' for women safety." This indicates that the correct answer is the Finance Ministry, Government of India. The Nirbhaya Fund was established to support initiatives aimed at enhancing the safety and security of women in India, addressing various forms of gender-based violence, and ensuring a coordinated response through measures such as the establishment of one-stop crisis centers and integrated support services.

The correct answer is 1 centre per state/UT.

Explanation:-

According to the passage, "Under the scheme, it has been envisaged that one stop centres would be set up across the country in phased manner. In the first phase, one centre was sanctioned per State/UT." This indicates that in the first phase, one "One Stop Centre" was sanctioned per state/UT. This approach aimed to ensure that each state and union territory had at least one center to provide integrated services for women affected by violence.

The correct answer is 'Domestic violence'.

Explanation:-

According to the passage, "The article 1 of UN Declaration on the Elimination of violence 1993 provides a definition of gender-based abuse, calling it 'any act of gender-based violence that results in, or is likely to result in, physical, sexual or psychological harm or suffering to women, including threats of such acts, coercion or arbitrary deprivation of liberty, whether occurring in public or in private life'." This definition includes physical harm to women as a form of gender-based violence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Domestic violence.

The correct answer is (a) and (d).

Explanation:-

According to the passage, "In India, gender based violence, has many manifestations; from the more universally prevalent forms of domestic and sexual violence including rape, to harmful practices such as dowry, honour killings, acid attacks, child sexual abuse, etc. Other than these, India is also grappling with violence due to inequalities in social life, displacement and communal incidents."