Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Poltical Science 5th Dec 2019 (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Test (100 questions)

1

Among the following, who is related to the Traditional Perspective of Political Theory?

  1. ((a))

    David Easton

  2. ((b))

    Robert Dahl

  3. ((c))

    George H Sabine

  4. ((d))

    Gabrial Almond

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

George H Sabine

The correct answer is George H Sabine.

Key Points

  • George H Sabine was Pioneer in  Traditional Perspective of Political Theory
  • He is best known for his authoritative work "A History of Political Theory", which traces the growth of political thought from the times of Plato to modern fascism and nazism.
  • Traditional approach involves the prescription and justification of political ideals or values, the historical description of governmental institutions and laws and observations of actions and activities
  • The adherents of this approach believe that the study of political science should not be based on facts alone since facts and values are closely related to each other.

Thus Traditional Perspective of Political theory given by George H. Sabine.

2

Which of the following is not related to Kabir?

  1. ((a))

    Begampura

  2. ((b))

    Bhakti

  3. ((c))

    Panchvani

  4. ((d))

    Gender equality

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gender equality

Kabir was a 15th-century Indian mystic poet and saint who played a significant role in the Bhakti Movement. His teachings often revolved around criticising caste discrimination and religious dogma, and promoting unity and equality among all.

  • Begampura: This is a term used by Kabir in his verses to describe a utopian city where there is no suffering or fear, and all are equal. So, it is related to Kabir.
  • Bhakti: Kabir was a significant figure in the Bhakti Movement, which was a devotional movement in Medieval India that sought to achieve spiritual enlightenment through personal devotion to a deity. So, Bhakti is also related to Kabir.
  • Panchvani: Panchvani is a traditional form of singing in India, specifically in Maharashtra, and it was popularised by saint poets like Kabir and others. Hence, it is related to Kabir.
  • Gender inequality: Kabir's teachings and writings often stressed the equality of all human beings, irrespective of caste, creed, or gender. However, Kabir is not specifically known for advocating for gender equality as a distinct social cause. While his principles implicitly support equality, including gender equality, he is less directly associated with this term than with the others.

Based on this information, "Gender inequality" is the least directly related to Kabir among the options given.

3

In which year, Government of India decided to observe the birthday of Swami Vivekananda as the National Youth Day?

  1. ((a))

    1984

  2. ((b))

    1985

  3. ((c))

    1986

  4. ((d))

    1987

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1984

The correct answer is 1984.

Key Points

  • Every year on January 12 to honour Swami Vivekananda's birth anniversary, National Youth Day is observed.
  • He is regarded as one of history's greatest philosophers and spiritual figures.
  • Government of India decided to observe the birthday of Swami Vivekananda as the National Youth Day in 1984.
  • The youth of our nation have been inspired by Swami Vivekananda's beliefs, and he will always be remembered for his significant contributions to putting the nation and society on a forward-looking course.
  • He had a strong belief in the strength and potential of young people because he was a devoted devotee of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.

Additional Information

  • His birthday is observed as National Youth Day in India because of his tremendous contributions and ability to motivate young people.
  • On this occasion, we'll discuss the relevance of this day's history, subject, and significance

Hence, the correct option is 1.

4

Which of the following is not correct?

  1. ((a))

    Nation is psychological concept

  2. ((b))

    State is legal concept

  3. ((c))

    Nationalism is attribute of Nation

  4. ((d))

    Nation and state are co-terminus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nation and state are co-terminus

The correct answer is Nation and state are co-terminus.

Key Points

 About State:

  • State is an autonomous, sovereign government that exercises power over a certain geographically defined and bounded territory, typically with well-defined borders that are accepted by other governments on a global scale.
  • State is legal concept.

About Nation:

  • A group of individuals who identify as a cohesive and coherent whole based on common cultural or historical values constitute a nation.
  • Nations are socially manufactured, not naturally occurring, groupings.
  • Nationalism is attribute of Nation
  • Nation is psychological concept
  • Depending on the situation, their existence, meaning, and membership might drastically vary.

Hence, from the above we can conclude, Nation and state are co-terminus.

5

According to G.A. Almond comparatively "Homogenous culture" is found in

  1. ((a))

    Developed countries

  2. ((b))

    Underdeveloped countries

  3. ((c))

    Developing countries

  4. ((d))

    Least developed countries

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Developed countries

The correct answer is Developed Countries.

Key Points

  • Political culture, according to Gabriel A. Almond and Sidney Verba in 1963, is particularly the political orientations and attitudes toward the political system and its numerous components, as well as the attitudes regarding one's own place in the system.
  • The Civic Culture by Almond and Verba (1963) is based on research done in the United States, Great Britain, West Germany, Italy, and Mexico between 1959 and 1960.
  • Three distinct types of political culture have been found by this study, which established the study of political culture as a separate field. These are listed below:
  1. Parochial Political Culture found in under-developed countries or monarchical regimes.
  2. Subject Political Culture found in developing countries.
  3. Participant Political Culture found in Developed countries.
  • The participant political culture is the type of political culture that is congruent with a democratic political structure and the same has been called by them as ‘Civic Culture'.​
  • For Almond, is homogenous culture is found in developed countries as the countries are better in terms of economic, social and cultural aspects than other developing and under-developed countries.

 

Hence, the correct option is 1.

6

In which year did Rabindranath Tagore surrender the knighthood as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

  1. ((a))

    1919

  2. ((b))

    1924

  3. ((c))

    1935

  4. ((d))

    1937

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1919

The correct answer is 1919.

Key Points

  • The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred when British soldiers opened fire on a sizable gathering of unarmed Indians in Amritsar, killing several hundred and injuring many more.
  • Thousands of people assembled in Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on April 13, 1919.
  • General Dyer arrived with armed soldiers and gave the command to open fire mercilessly on the uneducated mob.
  • Rabindranath Tagore disapproved of the act of brutality and renounced his knighthood in protest in 1919.
  • In opposition to the mass murder in Jalianwalla Bagh, Tagore surrendered his knighthood.
  • Rabindranath Tagore's letter to Lord Chelmsford, the British viceroy, renouncing his knighthood in opposition to the mass murder at Jalianwalla Bagh.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

7

Which incident made Periyar an Atheist?

  1. ((a))

    Self Respect Movement

  2. ((b))

    Kashi Pilgrimage Incident

  3. ((c))

    Dravida National Movement

  4. ((d))

    Discrimination in society

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kashi Pilgrimage Incident

The correct answer is Kashi Pilgrimage Incident.

Key Points

  • Periyar E. V. Ramasamy was a Tamil politician and social activist who lived from September 1879 to December 1973.
  • E.V. Ramasamy made a pilgrimage to Kasi to visit the famed Kasi Vishwanath Siva temple.
  • Shiva temple refused to let him enter, and he was also asked not to serve food because he was not a brahmin.
  • Despite the fact that it is one of Hinduism's holiest shrines, he saw immoral behavior, beggars, and floating corpses.
  • His annoyances with functional Hinduism as a whole extended to what he perceived as Brahmanic exploitation.
  • He was so deeply horrified by this that he lost all respect for Hinduism.
  • His religious beliefs were altered by the trek to Kashi in his life, and he eventually became an atheist.

Additional Information 

  • Periyar was the creator of the Dravidar Kazhagam movement and the Self-respect Movement (1925).
  • He supported women's rights and equal rights for populations from lower castes.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

8

The book "Political Order in Changing Societies" is written by:

  1. ((a))

    Lucian Pye

  2. ((b))

    G.A. Almond

  3. ((c))

    Ernest Barker

  4. ((d))

    S.P. Huntigton

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

S.P. Huntigton

The correct answer is S. Huntington.

Key Points

  • American political scientist and Harvard professor Samuel P. Huntington is regarded as one of the "Founding Fathers" of neo-institutionalism, or historical institutionalism, thanks to the publication of his well-known book "Political Order in Changing Societies" in 1968.
  • The subject of the book is how political institutions influence the evolution of political systems.
  • The most significant political distinction between nations, according to Huntington, is not their type of government but rather their degree of it.
  • "The power to build political institutions is the capacity to develop public interests," according to Huntington.
  • Huntington rejects modernization theory, claiming that its claim that economic progress and change were the primary causes of the emergence of stable, democratic political institutions was faulty.

Additional Information 

  • American Politics: The Promise of Disharmony (1981)
  • The Third Wave: Democratization in the Late Twentieth Century (1991)
  • The Clash of Civilizations and the Remaking of World Order (1996)

Hence. the correct option is 4.

9

The book "Aspects of Political Development" is written by

  1. ((a))

    Lucian Pye

  2. ((b))

    G.A. Almond

  3. ((c))

    G.H. Sabine

  4. ((d))

    Maurice Duverger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lucian Pye

The correct answer is Lucian Pye.

Key Points

  • The book "Aspects of Political Development" is written by Lucian Pye.
  • In his book "Aspects of Political Development," Lucian Pye carefully explains the numerous definitions of political development that have been offered by different political scientists.
  • He identified three aspects of political development which are as follows-
  1. Equality
  2. Capacity
  3. Differentiation
  • In the 1950s and 1960s, Pye emerged as a pioneer in the creation of theories on the political advancement and modernization of Third World countries.

Additional Information

Important works of Pye are:

  • 1956. Guerrilla Communism In Malaya, Its Social And Political Meaning.
    1. "The Non-Western Political Process".
  • 1962. Politics, Personality, And Nation-Building: Burma'S Search For Identity.
  • 1965. Political Culture And Political Development
  • 1968. The Spirit Of Chinese Politics: A Psychocultural Study Of The Authority Crisis In Political Development.
  • 1971. Warlord Politics: Conflict And Coalition In The Modernization Of Republican China.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

10

When was Jaiprakash Narayan awarded Bharat Ratna?

  1. ((a))

    1999

  2. ((b))

    1998

  3. ((c))

    1997

  4. ((d))

    1996

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1999

The correct answer is 1999.

Key Points

  • In 1999, in honour of his contributions to society, he received the Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian honour in India.
  • Narayan is the third recipient of the honour this year after beginning a "Sampoorna Kranti" (complete revolution) in 1974 against corruption in public life.
  • He was awarded for his "invaluable contribution to the freedom struggle and upliftment of the poor and downtrodden".
  • The Magsaysay award for Public Service from 1965 is among the other honours.
  • In the middle of the 1970s, he led the opposition against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, whose overthrow he had called for a "complete revolution," and for this, he is remembered.
  • Rambriksh Benipuri, a nationalist and author of Hindi literature, wrote his biography, Jayaprakash.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

11

Who is the author of the book “Escape form Freedom”?

  1. ((a))

    Herbert Marcuse

  2. ((b))

    Erich Fromm

  3. ((c))

    Jurgen Habermas

  4. ((d))

    Thomas Friedman

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Erich Fromm

The correct answer is Erich Fromm.

Key Points

  • Humanity will likely adopt authoritarianism if it is unable to cope with the risks and obligations that come with freedom.
  • Above given is the main thesis of Escape from Freedom, a seminal book written by one of the greatest philosophers Erich Fromm , was first released in 1941.
  • Few publications have shed as much light on the factors influencing contemporary culture or delved as deeply into the root reasons of authoritarian regimes.
  • Fromm's work examines the disease of contemporary culture as evidenced by its readiness to succumb to authoritarian control by using the insights of psychoanalysis as probing agents.
  • Beginning with the understanding that freedom itself can occasionally be the source of fear and worry, driving us to search ways to "escape from freedom," Erich Fromm's theory of the human condition begins.
  • According to Fromm, there are three ways that humans attempt to deal with the freedom that we fear. They are authoritarianism, destructiveness, and automaton compliance.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

12

The author of the book "Nation and Nationalism" is

  1. ((a))

    Ernest Gellner

  2. ((b))

    Hans J. Morganthau

  3. ((c))

    J.S. Coleman

  4. ((d))

    Rajni Kothari

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ernest Gellner

The correct answer is Ernest Gellner.

Key Points

  • Nations and Nationalism, which was first published in 1983, is still one of the most significant analyses of the rise of nationalism.
  • This revised edition of Ernest Gellner's now-canonical work includes a new introduction by John Breuilly that traces the field's development over the previous 20 years as well as a bibliography of significant nationalism-related works published since 1983.
  • Gellner contends that nationalism seeks to establish a single culture or ethnic group under one government, or "state."
  • This is according to Gellner the most crucial tenet of successful states.
  • The worst scenario, according to him, is when a state's head of state is not a member of the ethnic majority that resides within the state's borders.

Additional Information

  • Saints of the Atlas (1969)
  • Contemporary Thought and Politics (1974)
  • The Devil in Modern Philosophy (1974)
  • Legitimation of Belief (1974)
  • Spectacles and Predicaments (1979)
  • Soviet and Western Anthropology (1980) (editor)
  • Muslim Society (1981)

Hence, the correct option is 1.

13

Which one of the following is not a function of political parties?

  1. ((a))

    Socialisation and Recruitment

  2. ((b))

    Interest articulation

  3. ((c))

    Interest aggregation 

  4. ((d))

    Rule adjudication

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rule adjudication

The correct answer is Rule adjudication.

Key Points

  • A political party is a group of individuals, often having some measure of ideological agreement, who organise to win elections, operate government, and determine public policy. It is a body of persons united for promoting national interests on some particular principles on which they all agree
  • Political Parties as defined by Edmund Burke (1729-1797), an Irish statesman, is "a body of men united, for promoting by their joint endeavours the national interest, upon some particular principle in which they are all agreed.”
  • Their functions include:
  1. Interest articulation
  2. Interest aggregation
  3. Socialisation and Recruitment
  4. Making policies
  5. Running of government
  6. Representation, etc.
  • The rule adjudication is the function of judiciary and not of political party.

Hence, from the above discussion we can say option is correct.

14

Which one of the following is incorrect statement?

  1. ((a))

    Globalisation means internationalization of economy

  2. ((b))

    Globalisation gives emphasis on market economy

  3. ((c))

    Globalization gives rise to international institutions to supervise economy

  4. ((d))

    Globalisation tends to perpetuate parochial culture

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Globalisation tends to perpetuate parochial culture

The correct answer is Globalisation tends to perpetuate parochial culture.

Key Points

  • A new era of cosmopolitanism has begun as a result of globalization, one that includes the emergence of many allegiances and the growth of numerous transnational ways of living.
  • Globalization means internationalization of economy
  • Globalization emerged as a neoliberal package which facilitated the proliferation of world forces through the promotion of the free flow of goods, investment/capital, trade/economy, currency, information/knowledge, ideas, culture, authority and even movements of people.
  • Globalization is seen as ambitious in nature and totalising in character.
  • Globalization gives rise to international institutions to supervise economy.
  • It perpetuates modernization and progressive thinking.

Hence option 4 is correct.

15

Who had formed the "Society for right to die with dignity"?

  1. ((a))

    Jai Prakash Narayan

  2. ((b))

    Minoo Masani

  3. ((c))

    Krishna Ayyar

  4. ((d))

    Medha Patkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Minoo Masani

The correct answer is Minoo Masani.

Key Points

  • Minocher Rustom “Minoo” Masani, a freedom fighter, three-time Member of Parliament, editor, and social activist.
  • Through his speeches and articles, Masani became the voice of the individual in 20th-century India — a fierce defender of free choice in a society governed by conservative social mores and statist economics.
  • Astute legislator and liberal thinker Minoo Masani established "The Society for the Right to Die with Dignity" in Mumbai in May 1981,
  • The society politely express the need for voluntary euthanasia at a period when the subject was not particularly popular.
  • By developing a liberal resistance to the statist politics of the day and overcoming the socialism, nationalism, regionalism, and caste politics that have subsequently molded it, Minoo Masani's career represented an important turning point in Indian history.

Hence, the correct option is 3.

16

Who had differentiated between natural and conventional inequality?

  1. ((a))

    Hobbes

  2. ((b))

    Locke

  3. ((c))

    Rousseau

  4. ((d))

    Bentham

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rousseau

The correct answer is Rousseau.

Key Points

  • Many of the standards used to assess a group's worth and defend social injustices are believed to be rooted in nature-biological variations.
  • According to one theory, biological disparities lead to biological inequalities, which in turn cause social disparities.
  • Political theorist Jean Rousseau distinguishes between two sorts of inequality:
  1. Natural
  2. Conventional

Thus according to Rousseau,

  • The first type of inequality is natural and therefore is given.
  • While the second type is socially created and therefore will benefit a few over the majority.

Additional Information

 Important works of Rousseau:

  • Social Contract
  • Emile
  • Confessions
  • Discourses on Equality

Hence, the correct option is 2.

17

Kyoto Protocol was enforced in:

  1. ((a))

    1997

  2. ((b))

    2000

  3. ((c))

    2005

  4. ((d))

    2006

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2005

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

  • The Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty that expanded the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change and committed state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
  • It was based on the scientific consensus that global warming is happening and that human-caused CO2 emissions are the cause of it.
  • The Kyoto Protocol was ratified on 16 February 2005 after being adopted on 11 December 1997 in Kyoto, Japan. In 2020, there were 192 parties to the Protocol (Canada withdrew from it with effect from December 2012).
  • By reducing greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere, this international agreement aims to carry out the goals of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Additional Information

The major greenhouse gases that are addressed are :

  • Carbon dioxide (CO2)
  • Methane (CH4)
  • Nitrous oxide (N2O)
  • Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
  • Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
  • Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)

The correct option is 3.

18

When did International Labour Organization become a specialized agency of the United Nations Organization ? 

  1. ((a))

    1945

  2. ((b))

    1946

  3. ((c))

    1947

  4. ((d))

    1948

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1946

The correct answer is 1946.

Key Points

  • The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a United Nations organization that deals with issues relating to the labour force, notably with regard to global labour standards, social protection, and equal access to the workforce.
  • As a League of Nations subsidiary organization, it was created in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles.
  • Become the United Nations' first associated special agency in 1946.
  • Base of operations: Geneva, Switzerland
  • The founding mission is that social justice is necessary for world peace that lasts a lifetime.
  • It encourages the use of organized labor and human rights worldwide.
  • In 1969, it received the Nobel Peace Prize.

Additional Information

  • ​The tripartite principle, according to which talks within the organization are held between the representatives of governments, trade unions, and employers from member states, is the foundation of the ILO.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

19

From legal point of view which of the following is called a "soft law"?

  1. ((a))

    Right to Environment

  2. ((b))

    Right to Development

  3. ((c))

    Right to Health

  4. ((d))

    Right to Privacy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Right to Development

The correct answer is Right to Development

Key Points

  • The Right to Development is recognized as a human right that emphasizes the right of individuals and peoples to participate in, contribute to, and enjoy economic, social, cultural, and political development.
  • This right is aimed at ensuring the full realization of all human rights and fundamental freedoms.
  • Key Instruments and Developments:
  • Declaration on the Right to Development (1986):Adopted by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 41/128 on December 4, 1986.
  • The Declaration proclaims that the right to development is an inalienable human right by which every human person and all peoples are entitled to participate in, contribute to, and enjoy economic, social, cultural, and political development.
  • This declaration, however, is not legally binding, which classifies it as a form of soft law. It establishes principles and guidelines but lacks the compulsory enforcement mechanisms typical of hard law instruments.
  • Non-Binding Nature:
  • The Right to Development, as articulated in the 1986 Declaration, does not create legally enforceable obligations for states.
  • Instead, it sets forth aspirations and goals for international cooperation and national development policies.
  • This soft law nature means that while states may agree in principle and take actions to realize this right, they are not legally bound by international law to fulfill specific legal obligations regarding the Right to Development.
  • Influence on International Law and Policy:
  • Despite its non-binding status, the Right to Development has considerable moral and political influence.
  • It has shaped international discourse on development and human rights and has been referenced in various UN documents and conferences.
  • The concept encourages states to consider human rights in their development policies and international cooperation efforts.Examples of Soft Law:
  • Other examples of soft law in international relations include:
  • Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948): While not legally binding, it has inspired binding human rights treaties and has significant normative force.
  • Rio Declaration on Environment and Development (1992): A set of principles aimed at guiding sustainable development, which is influential but not legally enforceable.
20

In which year UNESCO was set up?

  1. ((a))

    1945

  2. ((b))

    1946

  3. ((c))

    1947

  4. ((d))

    1948

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1945

The correct option is 1945.

Key Points

  • ​United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
  • UNESCO was founded in 1945 as the successor to the League of Nations’ International Committee on Intellectual Cooperation.
  • Through worldwide collaboration in education, science, and culture, it aims to promote peace.
  • Additionally, it is a part of the UNSDG, a coalition of UN agencies and organisations working to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
  • The head office of UNESCO is in Paris, and there are more than 50 field offices spread out across the globe.
  • It has 193 Members and 11 Associate Members (As of April 2020) and is governed by the General Conference and the Executive Board.

Additional Information

  • India is a founding member of UNESCO, having approved its Constitution on November 4, 1946, while it was still a colony.
  • India just gained re-election to the executive board of the UN organization for culture and education for the years 2021–25.
  • Additionally, India has taken the lead in promoting the implementation of UNESCO's priorities in its various agendas pertaining to education, science, and culture.
  • Since 1946, India has always been re-elected to the UNESCO Executive Board.

Hence. the correct option is 1.

21

On which of the following date, India joined as a member of the United Nations Human Rights Council?

  1. ((a))

    1 August 2019

  2. ((b))

    ​1 June 2019

  3. ((c))

    1 January 2019

  4. ((d))

    1 July 2019

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1 January 2019

The correct option is 1 January 2019.

Key Points

  • A UN organization that promotes and defends human rights around the globe is the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC).
  • The **Geneva, Switzerland-**based organization, which was founded on March 15th, 2006, has 47 members who are regionally elected to serve terms of three years.
  • The members were chosen by the UN General Assembly (UNGA).
  • The UNGA takes into account the candidate States' voluntary pledges and obligations in this area, as well as their contribution to the advancement and defense of human rights.
  • India was chosen to serve on the Council for three years, starting on January 1, 2019.

Additional Information

  • India was re-elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) for the 2022-24 term on Oct 14, 2021 and vowed to continue to work to promote and protect human rights through “Samman, Samvad and Sahyog".
  • On April 8, 2022, the United Nations removed Russia from the Human Rights Council due to its "chronic violations" in Ukraine.

Hence, the correct option 3.

22

The term "Sanskritisation" was coined by

  1. ((a))

    M.N. Srinivas

  2. ((b))

    M.S. Golwalkar

  3. ((c))

    S.P. Mukherjee

  4. ((d))

    Andre Beteille

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M.N. Srinivas

The correct answer is M.N. Shrinivas.

Key Points Sanskritisation:

  • Sanskritization is the process through which a lower caste, tribe, or any other group transforms its traditions, beliefs, and way of life in order to more closely resemble a higher caste, which is frequently a twice-born caste.
  • Sanskritization's positive effects **include an increase in social prestige, economic position, and religiosity.**​
  • It is coined by the eminent sociologist M.N. Shrinivas.
23

Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides power to the President to promulgate ordinances?

  1. ((a))

    Article 123

  2. ((b))

    Article 221

  3. ((c))

    Article 222

  4. ((d))

    Article 223

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 123

The correct answer is Article 123.

Key Points Ordinance Making Powers of the President:

  • According to Article 123, the President can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
  • The President may withdraw it at any time.
  • An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
  • It shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament within 6 weeks of reassembly, otherwise, it will lapse.
  • Similarly, Article 213 of the Constitution of India grants the Governor of India the power to issue ordinances **when the state legislature is not in session.**​

Additional InformationImportant Articles Related to the President:

Article 52The President of India
Article 53The executive power of the Union
Article 54Election of President
Article 55Manner of election of President
Article 56Term of office of President
Article 57Eligibility for re-election
Article 58Qualifications for election as President
Article 59Conditions of the President’s office
Article 60Oath or affirmation by the President
Article 61Procedure for impeachment of the President
Article 123Ordinance-making power of the President.
24

Which of the following statements about the powers of the President is correct?

  1. ((a))

    He presides over the meetings of the Zonal Councils

  2. ((b))

    He is the head of the Inter-State Council

  3. ((c))

    He can disqualify a member of Parliament under Art. 102 on the recommendation of the Election Commission

  4. ((d))

    He can declare national emergency at his discretion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

He can disqualify a member of Parliament under Art. 102 on the recommendation of the Election Commission

The correct answer is He can disqualify a member of Parliament under Article 102 on the recommendation of the Election Commission.

Key Points Powers of the President:

Legislative Powers- Can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. - Can also summon a joint sitting of both Houses. - Can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. - Can send messages to the Houses of Parliament regarding a pending bill or otherwise. - Lays the reports of CAG, UPSC, FC, and others, before the Parliament. - Can disqualify a member of Parliament under Article 102 on the recommendation of the Election Commission. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Executive Powers- All executive actions are formally taken in his name and can make rules manner in which orders are made and executed in his name. - Appoints Prime Ministers and other ministers (both hold office during his pleasure). - Appoints attorney general of India and determines his remuneration. He holds office at the pleasure of the President. - Appoints CAG, the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners, the chairman and members of UPSC, the governors
of states, the chairman and members of the finance commission.
Financial Powers- Prior recommendation for the introduction of money bills in Parliament. - No demand for a grant can be made except on his recommendation.
Judicial Powers- Appoints the Chief Justice & judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. - Can seek advice from the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact. - Can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, and remission of punishment, or suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense
Military Powers- The supreme commander of the defense forces appoints the chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. - Can declare war or conclude peace, subject to the approval of Parliament.
Diplomatic Powers- International treaties and agreements are negotiated and concluded on behalf of
the President subject to the approval of Parliament. - Represents India in international forums and affairs. - Sends and receives diplomats like ambassadors, high commissioners, and so on.
25

Who defined Public Administration as "the art and science of management applied to the affairs of the state"?

  1. ((a))

    L.D. White

  2. ((b))

    H. Simon

  3. ((c))

    D. Waldo

  4. ((d))

    Pfiffner and Presthus

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D. Waldo

The correct answer is D. Waldo.

Key Points Public Administration:

  • It includes the responsibilities for determining the policies and programs of governments.
  • Specifically, it is the planning, organizing, directing, coordinating, and controlling of government operations.
  • D. Waldo defined Public Administration as "the art and science of management applied to the affairs of the state".

Additional Information

D. Waldo- He is an American Political Scientist. - Waldo's thesis on 'the administrative state challenged the orthodox principles of that time. - He emphasized the fusion of politics and administration as both are interlinked and focused upon democratic values.
H. Simon- He is an American Social Scientist. - Rejected the principles of administration as myths and proverbs.
L.D. White- He is an American Political Scientist and Historian. - According to him, public administration consists of all those operations having to fulfill or enforce the public policy for their purpose.
26

The sequencing of the communication process in an organization is:

  1. ((a))

    Sender, message, receiver, encoding

  2. ((b))

    Message, channel, feedback, encoding

  3. ((c))

    Sender, encoding, receiver,decoding,

  4. ((d))

    Sender, encoding, message, channel

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sender, encoding, message, channel

The correct answer is Sender, encoding, message, channel

Key PointsCommunication Process:

  • Sender: A manager wants to inform their team about a new company policy.
  • Encoding: The manager encodes the message by writing a memo to the team.
  • Message: The message is the new company policy.
  • Channel: The manager sends the memo to the team via email.
  • Receiver: The team members receive the email from the manager.
  • Decoding: The team members read the memo and try to understand the new company policy.
  • Feedback: The team members may provide feedback to the manager by asking questions or by responding to the email.
27

Under which constitutional provision, elections to Panchayati Raj Bodies are conducted in India?

  1. ((a))

    Article 243 J

  2. ((b))

    Article 243 K

  3. ((c))

    Article 243 L

  4. ((d))

    Article 243 M

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 243 K

the correct answer is Article 243K.

Key PointsState Election Commission:

  • The superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections of the panchayats and municipalities shall be vested in the State Election Commission (SEC).
  • The state legislature may make provisions with respect to matters related to the elections of the panchayats and municipalities.

Additional Information

Important Articles Related to the Local Governments:

Article 243Definition of panchayats
Article 243AGram sabha
Article 243BConstitution of panchayats
Article 243CComposition of panchayats
Article 243DReservation of seats in panchayats
Article 243FDisqualification of the member of panchayats
Article 243GPowers, authorities, and responsibilities of panchayats.
Article 243EDuration of panchayats.
Article 243IConstitution of State Finance Commission
Article 243KConstitution of State Election Commission
28

Who defined leadership as "the ability of a manager to induce subordinates to work with zeal and confidence"?

  1. ((a))

    Koontz and O'Donnell

  2. ((b))

    Chester Bernard

  3. ((c))

    M.P. Follet

  4. ((d))

    Peter Drucker

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Koontz and O'Donnell

The correct answer is Koontz and O'Donnell.

Key Points Leadership:

  • Leadership is a set of processes that creates organizations in the first place or adapts them to significantly changing circumstances.
  • According to Koontz and O'Donnell, leadership is the ability of a manager to induce subordinates to work with zeal and confidence.
  • According to Allford and Beaty, leadership is the ability to secure desirable actions from a group of followers voluntarily, without the use of coercion.
29

Name the editor of the book, "Towards a New Public Administration-Minnowbrook":

  1. ((a))

    James Charlesworth

  2. ((b))

    Frank Marini

  3. ((c))

    W.F. Willoughby

  4. ((d))

    Frank J. Goodnow

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Frank Marini

The correct answer is Frank Marini.

Key Points

  • "Towards a New Public Administration- Minnowbrook” was edited by Frank Marini.
  • It was first published in 1971.
  • It is a compilation of papers by different academicians on new public administration.
30

Which constitutional provision provides for formation of a Gram Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    Article 243 A

  2. ((b))

    Article 243 B

  3. ((c))

    Article 243 C

  4. ((d))

    Article 243 D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 243 A

The correct answer is Article 243A.

Key PointsGram Sabha:

  • According to Article 243A, the Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by a Panchayat. This could be only one village or a few villages.
  • It is the only example of direct democracy in India.
  • Functions:
  • It keeps control of the Gram Panchayat. It makes the Gram Panchayat assume its part and be capable.
  • It keeps an eye on the elected representatives and in making them responsible to the persons who elected them.
  • To aid in the Panchayat's development plans and program's implementation.
  • To identify beneficiaries for different programs and schemes.
  • To encourage harmony and cooperation among all facets of the village's society.
31

Which of the following types of policy evaluation lays emphasis on determining the success level in achieving its basic objectives?

  1. ((a))

    Programme Strategy Evaluation

  2. ((b))

    Programme Impact Evaluation

  3. ((c))

    Project Monitoring

  4. ((d))

    Cost-benefit analysis

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Programme Impact Evaluation

The correct answer is Programme Impact Evaluation.

Key Points

Policy Evaluation:

  • The policy is a law or regulation or procedure or govt action. Policy evaluation means evaluating the content, implementation, or impact of a policy.
  • Evaluation of policy implementation can provide important information about the barriers and a comparison between different components of implementation.
  • Programme Strategy Evaluation: Strategy has a proportional relationship with the success of the programme.
  • Programme Impact Evaluation: The outcome is evaluated to determine the success of a policy.​ Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
  • Project Monitoring: It is the evaluation of the implementation process.
  • Cost-benefit Analysis: It is the systematic analysis of social costs and associated benefits and the measurement of economic efficiency.
32

Which of the following are the arguments for women's equality?

(a) Inferiority of women to men is socially constructed and has no legal justification

(b) Non-application of the principles of liberty and equality to the conditions of women is paradoxical

(c) Women are naturally inferior to men

(d) Women's inequality survived because it was justifiable

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    (c) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a) and (b)

Feminism is a collection of sociopolitical movements and beliefs. 

Key Points

  • Gender equality is the condition in which all people have equal access to resources and opportunities.
  • In Delusions of Gender, Cordelia Fine challenges scientific data that claims there is an underlying biological difference between men's and women's minds.
  • He further argued that rather, discrepancies between people that are typically interpreted as sex differences are the result of cultural and societal ideas.
  • The first group included suffrage campaigns for women from the late 19th and early 20th centuries that supported their right to vote.
  • Second-wave feminism focuses mostly on concerns of equality outside of suffrage.
  • It is ironic that the ideas of liberty and equality are not applied to the conditions of women.

So, (a) and (b)  are the arguments for women's equality.

33

Which of the following two are correct regarding the adoption of inductive method?

(a) Plato

(b) Machiavelli

(c) Thomas Aquinas

(d) Thomas Hobbes

Choose the correct options:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (b) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(b) and (d)

​The inductive approach is commonly referred to as inductive reasoning. 

Key Points

  • It begins with observations, and theories are presented as a result of those findings toward the end of the research process.
  • It involves the search for patterns from observation and the development of explanations - theories - for those patterns.
  • Inductive approach related to Political realism.
  • These methods may begin with specific historical facts or are the outcome of an experiment, a comparison, or an observation.
  • Then, some political phenomenon-related conclusions are reached.
  • According to Brown et al. (2002) “(it) is … Machiavelli, who along with Hobbes, helped to generate the tradition of political realism.

Thus, (b) and (d) is correct regarding the adoption of the inductive method.

34

Which statements are true about an Election Commissioner?

(a) He is appointed by President

(b) He can be removed from office on same grounds as a Judge of Supreme Court

(c) He can be removed by the President only on recommendations of Chief Election Commissioner

(d) His term of office is six years or upto the age of 65 whichever is earlier

Choose the correct answer:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b), (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (c)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (c), (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a), (c), (d)

The Election Commission of India was established under Article 324 in Part 15.  

Key Points

  • It is a permanent, autonomous, quasi-judicial, and constitutional authority.
  • The commission is made up of two presidentially appointed election commissioners and one chief election commissioner.
  • Tenure of the election commission is six years, or until they reach age 65, whichever comes first.
  • The periods of electoral commission members are not outlined in the Constitution.
  • Only on the Chief Election Commissioner's recommendation to the president for election commissioners or regional commissioners to be removed from their positions.
  • The chief election commissioner and the other two election commissioners share the same authority and are paid the same salary, allowances, and other benefits as a supreme court judge.

Thus, (a), (c), (d) is true about an Election Commissioner.

35

Which of the following two are correct?

(a) According to August Comte, the principal methods are observation, experiment and comparison

(b) According to Bluntshli, the true methods are philosophical and historical

(c) Very few thinkers are pragmatic and inductive methods in contemporary times

(d) John Rawls had used deductive and dogmatic methods

Choose the correct options:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (b)

Auguste Comte was one of the founders of sociology. 

Key Points

  • Auguste Comte was the first philosopher of science.
  • Comte was the first to openly separate natural philosophy from science.
  • According to Comte, The law is this: each of our leading conceptions each branch of our knowledge passes successively through three different theoretical conditions:
  • The Theological, or fictitious
  • The Metaphysical, or abstract
  • The Scientific, or positive
  • Furthermore, he thinks that Individuals are aware that there are laws and that they may be used to rationally explain the universe using science, laws, and observation.
  • According to Bluntschli, there are only two methodologies that should be employed for research and drawing accurate conclusions: philosophical and historical.
  • Bluntschli said that the true methods of political investigation are philosophical and historical methods.

Therefore, (a) and (b)  are the correct options.

36

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

(a) John Rawls - Egalitarian

(b) Plato - Idealist

(c) Mary Wollstonecraft - Communist

(d) Gramsci - Feminist

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (c) and (a)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (b)

A person or group of people can be said to have an ideology if they hold a certain set of ideas or philosophies. 

Key Points

  • Egalitarianism is a school of political theory that prioritises social equality for all individuals and expands on the idea of equality.
  • The core tenet of egalitarian ideologies is that all people are morally or in terms of worth equally.
  • John Rawls view of justice as fairness envisions a community of free individuals with an egalitarian economic structure, each possessing equal fundamental rights.
  • Idealism is no exterior reality made up of matter and energy.
  • The metaphysical perspective is known as idealism links reality to mental concepts rather than physical things.
  • Plato is best known for his idealism.

Therefore, John Rawls - an Egalitarian and Plato - Idealist the correct answer from the options.

37

Agganna Sutta deals with:

(a) Origin of life

(b) Origin of social order and castes

(c) Origin of secularism

(d) Origin of six fold policy

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

  1. ((a))

     (a) only

  2. ((b))

    (b) only

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a) and (b)

Aggaa Sutta is the 27th sutta in the Digha Nikaya. 

Key Points

  • The sutta recounts a teaching that the Lord Buddha gave to two brahmins named Bharadvaja and Vasettha.
  • Due to the two brahmans' desire to join the Sangha, their own caste ridiculed and denigrated them.
  • Buddha argues that since anyone from any of the four varnas can become a monk and attain the state of Arahant,
  • Varnas and lineage cannot be equated to the attainment of morality practise and the Dhamma.
  • He further discusses the origins of life on Earth and the Origin of social order and castes.

Thus, Agganna Sutta deals with the Origin of life and the Origin of social order and castes.

38

Which of the following statements about the definition of Welfare State are correct?

(a) It is a state that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services

(b) It is a compromise between communism on the one side and unbridled individualism on the other

(c) Welfare state sets a pattern for any humane and progressive society

(d) Welfare state guarantees a minimum standard of subsistence without removing incentives to private sector

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (b), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a), (b), (c) and (d)

Since 1870, state assistance programmes developed by German sozialpolitiker ("social politicians"). 

Key Points

  • A welfare state is a system of government in which the state protects and promotes the economic and social well-being of its citizens.
  • According to the principles of equal opportunity, equitable wealth distribution, and public responsibility for citizens who are unable to access the bare necessities for a good life.
  • The welfare state guarantees a minimum standard of subsistence without removing incentives to the private sector.
  • Public pensions and social insurance were early welfare state components that emerged in industrializing Western nations starting in the 1880s.
  • It is a compromise between communism on the one side and unbridled individualism on the other.

Thus, (a), (b), (c) and (d) are statements about the definition of the Welfare State that are correct.

39

Which of the following two are correct?

(a) Plato laid more emphasis on duties than rights

(b) His ideal state was merely an idea not reality

(c) He was not a feminist

(d) He did speak about class state

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (b)

Plato was an Athens-born philosopher. 

Key Points

  • In philosophy, Plato invented dialogue and dialectic forms.
  • ​In the Republic, Plato constructs the ideal state in three successive:
  • Healthy state
  • Luxurious state
  • Just State
  • In the Republic, the state is headed by philosophers.
  • The following are the fundamental features of Plato's theory of Justice: 
  • Justice is another aspect of righteousness
  • It is more about carrying out obligations than exercising rights.
  • It is a person's contribution to society in line with his or her skills, potential, and capabilities.
  • It is a social code of conduct; a man's duty.

Thus, (a) and (b) are the correct option regarding Plato.

40

Ram Manohar Lohia was opposed to:

(a) Capitalism

(b) Communism

(c) Socialism

(d) Decentralisation of powers

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    (b), (c) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (b)

Ram Manohar Lohia lived from 23 March 1910 to 12 October 1967 was a socialist. 

Key Points

  • Lohia served as editor of Congress Socialist.
  • Lohia had begun to form his own political stance by critically analysing the views of the Gandhian Congress leadership and the Communists.
  • ​Rammonohar Lohia described his strategy in terms of what he called "seven revolutions,".
  • He said that "Communism has a strange identity of interest against socialism."
  • Furthermore, he added Communism prefers the continuance of a conservative government.
  • For Him, Capitalism and Communism are both the same depending on high Capitalization and centralized economics.
  • So, he was critical of both Capitalism and Communism.

Thus, (a) and (b) are the correct answers from the options.

41

Which of the following writers are associated with the Italian intellectual tradition ?

(i) Vilfredo Pareto

(ii) Gaetano Mosca

(iii) Robert Michels

(iv) C. Wright Mills

Codes:

  1. ((a))

    (i) and (ii)

  2. ((b))

    (i), (ii) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    (i) and (iv)

  4. ((d))

    (iii) and (iv)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct option is (i), (ii) and (iii)

Key Points

Here is the detailed information about each author's origin:

  1. Vilfredo Pareto was an Italian engineer, sociologist, economist, political scientist, and philosopher.
  • He made several important contributions to economics, sociology, and mathematics, particularly in the study of income distribution and the analysis of individuals' choices.
  1. Gaetano Mosca was also an Italian political scientist, journalist and civil servant known for his theory of elite rule, which argued that a minority group will always be the one ruling, regardless of the formalities of government organization.
  2. Robert Michels was a German-born sociologist who became famous for his theories on political behavior of intellectual elites. He later moved to Italy and taught there, considering himself Italian. His work, "Political Parties: A Sociological Study of the Oligarchical Tendencies of Modern Democracy," presents the "Iron Law of Oligarchy" where organizational democracy inevitably results in the rule of an elite.
  3. Wright Mills, in contrast to the other three, was an American sociologist. From 1946 until his death in 1962, he was a professor of sociology at Columbia University. His works primarily focus on American society, particularly its social structure and hierarchies.
  4. Considering the information above, although Robert Michels was initially from Germany, he lived and worked in Italy for many years and identified as Italian.

Therefore, the correct answer is (i), (ii) and (iii), as Vilfredo Pareto, Gaetano Mosca, and Robert Michels were either from Italy or considered themselves Italian. Wright Mills, being American, doesn't fall into this category.

42

Which of the following two statements regarding World Trade Organization are correct? 

(a) It is the only international organization dealing with global trade rules between nations

(b) It was established in 1996

(c) Its Headquarters is in Geneva

(d) It employs some 680 staff

Choose the correct options:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a) and (c)

World Trade Organization is an intergovernmental body that controls and promotes global trade. 

Key Points

  • Governments use the United Nations System to create, amend, and enforce the laws that regulate international trade with effective cooperation.
  • According to the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, it began operating formally on January 1st, 1995, taking the place of the 1948-established General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
  • It was established on 11 January 1995 which is located in Geneva, Switzerland
  • The WTO is the biggest international economic organisation in the world, with 164 members representing more than 98% of trade and GDP worldwide.
  • On 31 December 2019, the number of WTO staff on a regular budget is 338 women and 285 men.

Thus, (a) and (c) are two statements regarding World Trade Organization are correct.

43

Which of the following two are correct regarding Right to Development?

(a) The Declaration on the Right to Development was adopted by General Assembly in 1986

(b) This is an inalienable human right

(c) It found no place in the 1993 Vienna Declaration and Programme of action

(d) In 1990 the Commission on Human Rights established a working group to monitor its progress

Choose the correct options :

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (b)

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a landmark declaration that affirms the intrinsic rights that every person. 

Key Points

  • Every human right to continuous well-being enhancement is recognised by the human right to development.
  • The human person is the primary focus of development, according to the Declaration on the Right to Development.
  • In 1986, the United Nations declared the right to development in the "Declaration on the Right to Development," which was approved by the UN General Assembly.
  • According to Article 10 of the 1993 Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action, The "right to development," as stated in the Declaration on the Right to Development.
  • It asserts that a universal and inalienable right and as a crucial component of fundamental human rights.

Thus, (a) and (b) are correct regarding Right to Development.

44

Which of the following two statements are true regarding Indo-Pak relations on Kashmir?

(a) The Security Council first discussed the issue of Jammu and Kashmir in 1948

(b) A summit meeting took place in 2004 in Islamabad between A.B. Vajpayee and Pervez Muzharraf

(c) A bus service across the ceasefire line was inaugurated in 2006

(d) Terrorist attack on Samjhauta Express was made in 2007

Choose the correct options :

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (c) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a) and (d)

India-Pakistan relation is complicated and generally antagonistic relationship. 

Key Points

  • The relationship between India and Pakistan has frequently been at odds.
  • On January 1st, 1948, India requested that the UN Security Council (UNSC) address the problem.
  • On April 21, 1948, the UN Security Council adopted Resolution 47, creating the UN Commission for India and Pakistan (UNCIP).
  • Between July 14 and July 16, 2001, India and Pakistan had the first-ever summit meeting in Agra.
  • Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the prime minister of India at the time, boarded the bus for the first time on February 19, 1999.
  • He was travelling to Lahore for a summit and was met at Wagah by Nawaz Sharif, the prime minister of Pakistan.
  • A terrorist attack on the Samjhauta Express, a twice-weekly train service linking Delhi, India, and Lahore, Pakistan, took place on February 18, 2007.

Thus, (a) and (d) are two statements that are true regarding Indo-Pak relations on Kashmir.

45

Which of the following two statements are correct regarding Chinese policy of "Theory of Palm and five fingers"?

(a) It includes Bhutan and Nepal

(b) It includes Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Laddakh

(c) It includes Mizoram and Manipur

(d) It includes Tripura and Nagaland

Choose the correct options :

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a) and (b)

Chinese Communist Party's victory in the Chinese Civil War in 1949 their relations have become less cordial with India. 

Key Points

  • Mao Zeadong had the Five Fingers Strategy in mind while he was planning its foreign policy.
  • He thought that Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Bhutan, Nepal, and Ladakh were the "five fingers" of China's periphery.
  • Tibet was the country's right hand, and that it was China's responsibility to "liberate" these regions.
  • Mao Zedong referred to Nepal and Bhutan as tributaries of China during the Chinese Civil War.
  • He continued to make public remarks about the "five fingers" being a part of greater China during the 1940s.

Thus, (a) and (b) are correct statements are correct regarding Chinese policy of "Theory of Palm and five fingers"

46

Which of the following statements are true regarding the composition of Rajya Sabha?

(a) Not more than 238 members represent States and Union territories in Rajya Sabha

(b) Representatives of Puducherry in the Rajya Sabha are elected

(c) Third Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to States

(d) Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to states

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a), (b) and (d)

​The Rajya Sabha, or Council of States is the upper chamber of India's bicameral Parliament. 

Key Points

  • The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber, in contrast to the Lok Sabha.
  • Members are elected to staggered six-year terms; in even-numbered years, nearly a third of the 238 designates are up for election.
  • The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum of 250 members in which 238 are (indirectly) elected state and union territory legislators.
  • Whereas,12 are president-nominated individuals who excel in the arts, sciences, literature, and social services.
  • Rajya Sabha only has representation for three of the eight union territories (Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu and Kashmir).
  • The Rajya Sabha seat distribution is covered under the fourth schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Thus, (a), (b) and (d) statements are true regarding the composition of Rajya Sabha.

47

On which of the following grounds Writ of Certiorari can be issued by the Judiciary?

(a) Lack of jurisdiction

(b) Locus Standi

(c) Excess of jurisdiction

(d) Error of law

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    (a) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a) and (c)

Writs are written orders issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court directing Indian citizens to pursue constitutional remedies. 

Key Points

  • The name "certiorari" is derived from an English prerogative writ that was used by a superior court to order that the lower court's record be brought to it for review.
  • It is Latin words "Certiorari volumus," which mean "to be made certain" ("We wish to be made certain...").
  • It is given by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to either transfer or reverse the latter's decision in a case that is currently pending there.
  • It is issued as a result of an overreaching jurisdiction, a deficiency in jurisdiction, or a legal mistake.
  • As a result, certiorari is both preventive and curative as opposed to prohibition, which simply serves as a preventative measure.

Thus, On grounds Writ of Certiorari can be issued by the Judiciary Lack of jurisdiction and Excess of jurisdiction.

48

Which of the following two statements are correct regarding Preamble of Indian Constitution ?

(a) Justice-social, economic and political

(b) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship

(c) Equality of status, character and of opportunity

(d) Fraternity assuring the dignity and respect of the individual

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a) and (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a) and (b)

The Preamble is a proclamation that outlines the goals and principles of the constitution.

Key Points

  • The goals of the Preamble are to maintain the unity and integrity of the country as well as to ensure justice, liberty, and equality for all people.
  • Keywords & Philosophy Enshrined In The Preamble are mentioned below:
  • We the people of India
  • Sovereignty, Secularism, Democratic, Republic
  • Justice: social, economic and political
  • Liberty: liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
  • Equality: equality of status and opportunity for all Indian citizens
  • Fraternity:  human dignity and national unity and integrity.

Thus, Two statements that are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution are (a) and (b).

49

The positive impact of Liberalisation are:

(a) Foreign investment

(b) Increased production

(c) Increased unemployment

(d) Technological advancement

Choose the right answer:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (d)

  2. ((b))

    (b), (c)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (c)

  4. ((d))

    (b), (c), (a)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (b) and (d)

The process of liberalisation is the removal of state regulation of economic activity.

Key Points

  • It removes government involvement and gives corporate firms more autonomy in decision-making.
  • It Impact can be Positive and Negative. The positive Impact of Liberalisation are mentioned below: 
  • Liberalization has improved the flow of capital
  • Companies to access funding from investors and embark on successful projects.
  • Companies' Production can't be regularized, which increased production
  • Fast development in technology
  • From grain production to distribution, the government's limitations and interference are evident.

Thus, the right answer is (a), (b) and (d).

50

Rigg's Fused model is based on:

(a) dependence on agriculture

(b) attainment value in society

(c) domination of royal family

(d) economic system based on barter system

Choose the right option:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (c), (d)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (c), (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b), (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (c), (d)

F W Riggs developed a model that could be used to analyse public administration in developing nations from an ecological and comparative standpoint. 

Key Points

  • He developed the "Fused-Prismatic-Diffracted models" to comprehend organisational behaviour and administrative systems
  • Riggs offered the idea and traits of fused societies based on the knowledge of imperial China and pre-revolutionary Siamese Thailand.
  • Rigg's Fused model is based on :
  • These societies lack industry and modernisation and are heavily dependent on agriculture.
  • The law of exchange and the barter system form the basis of the economic system.
  • All administrative, economic, and other tasks are carried out solely by the King, members of the royal family, and officials are chosen by the King.
  • The administrative structures are built on the family structure and work to safeguard the unique interests of the family and a few sects.
  • Society is dominated by ascriptive principles, and people tend to act in very traditional ways.
  • People are able to coexist and maintain control over their conduct thanks to long-standing customs, beliefs, and traditional ways of life.

Therefore, the right option is (a), (c), (d).

51

Which are the themes of New Public Management?

(a) Adoption of private sector practices

(b) Improved reporting and monitoring mechanism

(c) Performance targets

(d) Adoption of public sector practices

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b), (c)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (c), (d)

  4. ((d))

    (c), (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a), (b), (c)

The term was first used by academics in the UK and Australia. 

Key Points

  • New Public Management (NPM) is an approach to running public service organizations.
  • This approach focuses on ​The "centrality of citizens who were the recipients of the services or clients to the public sector".
  • The major theme of New Public Management are mentioned below: 
  • Financial control
  • Value for money
  • Boosting efficiency
  • Establishing and setting performance goals
  • Performance Evaluated
  • Performance targets
  • Passing over authority to senior management executives
  • Private sector businesses offer services that were previously provided by the government.

Thus,  The correct option is (a), (b), (c).

52

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can undertake evaluation studies on the basis of which of the following?

(a) On its own initiative

(b) The request of financial committees

(c) Directive in legislation

(d) The request of the Organization and Methods division of a Ministry

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a), (b) and (c)

In accordance with Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an independent body.

Key Points

  • According to Article 149 of the Constitution, the Parliament may specify the responsibilities and jurisdiction of the CAG with regard to the accounts of the Union, the States, and any other authority or entity.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can undertake evaluation studies on the basis:
  • Constitution (Articles 148 to 151)
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
  • Instructions of Government of India
  • Regulations on Audit & Accounts-2007
  • Important Judgments

Therefore, The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can undertake evaluation studies on the basis of its own initiative, the request of financial committees, and directives in legislation.

Additional Information

  • The CAG is in office for six years, or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes first.
  • The CAG takes an oath or affirmation before the President before beginning their duties.
  • A warrant bearing the President of India's signature and seal appoints the CAG.
53

73rd Amendment of the Constitution seeks to provide which of the following to the Panchayati Raj Institutions?

(a) Constitutional status

(b) Financial autonomy

(c) Empowerment of marginalized sections of the rural population

(d) Decentralised planning

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (b) and (c)

The term "Panchayati Raj" refers to a system of rural local self-government and development.

Key Points

  • India fostered grassroots democracy in the constitution through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
  • The significance of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is: 
  • The Panchayati Raj institutions now have constitutional stature, and the justiciable section of the Constitution now has jurisdiction over them.
  • Voluntary provisions may be included at the state government's discretion which panchayat for financial autonomy.
  • According to their population percentage, it states that reservations must be made for SC and ST in all three categories.

Thus, The correct option is (a), (b) and (c).

54

Which of the following statements about the significance of public policy is correct?

(a) Public policies help in achieving socio-economic development

(b) Public policies help maintain national unity and integrity

(c) It's basic purpose is to serve individual interest and solve public problems

(d) Public policy aims at shaping the society for its betterment

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  2. ((b))

    (b), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (b) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a), (b) and (d)

In the 1950s "public policy" began to take shape. 

Key Points

  • The significance of public policy: 
  • According to Parsons, "The wider purposes of public policy involve enlightenment, the fuller development of individuals in society, and the development of consent, consensus, social awareness and legitimacy".
  • Its objectives are to serve socio-economic development, equality, liberty, and self-reliance.
  • Public policies help maintain national unity and integrity.
  • For example, A public policy may be wide, such as women's emancipation, or it may be narrow, such as child abuse prevention.

Therefore, The correct options are (a), (b) and (d).

55

Which of the following statements about National Health Policy, 2017 are correct?

(a) It aims to ensure availability of 2 beds per 1000 population

(b) It proposes free drugs, free diagnostics and free emergency health care services in all public hospitals

(c) Reduction of total fertility rate to 2.1 at national and sub-national level by 2025

(d) Reduce mortality rate of children under 5 years of age to 23 (per 1000) by 2020

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a) and (b)

  4. ((d))

    (c) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (b) and (c)

The National Health Policy, 2017 aims to attain the highest possible level of health and well-being for all people of all ages. 

Key Points

  • Some of the primary Goals of The National Health Policy, 2017 are
  • It encourages investing a significant amount (two-thirds or more) of resources in primary care.
  • It seeks to ensure that there are two beds per 1,000 people allocated so as to allow access during the "golden hour".
  • It proposes free drugs, free diagnostics, and emergency health care services in all public hospitals.
  • By 2025, raise the birth life expectancy from 67.5 to 70.
  • By 2025, lower the fertility rate to 2.1.
  • By 2019, the infant mortality rate should drop to 28.
  • By 2025, lower under-five mortality to 23.
  • Reach the worldwide HIV objective for 2020. (also termed 90:90:90 global target).
  • To achieve a 25% reduction in early mortality from chronic respiratory diseases, cancer, diabetes, and cardiovascular diseases by 2025.

Thus, the correct options are (a) and (b) and (c).

56

Match List I with List II:

List - IList -II
(a)Marx's theory of Alienation(i)Herbert Marcuse
(b)Alienation and objectification(ii)Erich Fromm
(c)Contemporary theory of Alienation(iii)George Lukacs
(d)One-dimensionalisation : studies in the ideology of advanced industrial society(iv)Economic and Philosophic Manuscripts of 1844
<br>

Choose the correct answer:-

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a)- (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d ) - (ii)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii),  (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Marxism is a social, economic, and political ideology that examines the effects of the privileged elite on the working class, which results in unequal income and privilege distribution in society.

Key Points

List - IList -II
(a)Marx's theory of Alienation(i)- According to Karl Marx's thesis of alienation, as a result of the division of labour and living in a society with stratified social classes, people become estranged from certain components of their human nature, or their "species-essence," - Karl Marx presented the Marx's theory of Alienationin the Economic and Philosophic Manuscripts of 1844 (1932).
(b)Alienation and objectification(ii)- Many consider Georg Lukács, a literary theorist and philosopher who lived from 1885 to 1971, to be one of the founders of "Western Marxism." - Lukács argues that a formal, rule-based ethics leads into alienation from life. - Lukács claims that the objectification of human intentions in institutions enables us to understand the existence of objective values as products of social-historical developments without sliding into historical relativism.
(c)Contemporary theory of Alienation(iii)- Erich Fromm was a German social psychologist, psychotherapist, sociologist, humanistic philosopher, and democratic socialist. - The concepts in Escape from Freedom were continued and expanded upon in his second significant work, Man for Himself: An Inquiry into the Psychology of Ethics. - Escape from Freedom book deals with Contemporary theory of Alienation
(d)One-dimensionalisation : studies in the ideology of advanced industrial society(iv)- ​Herbert Marcuse, critical theorist, published One-Dimensional Man: Studies in the Ideology of Advanced Industrial Society in 1964. - In this book, Marcuse offers a broad critique of both modern capitalism and Soviet communism, tracing the parallel rise of new forms of social repression in both of these societies as well as the decline of revolutionary potential in the West.

Therefore, (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) is correct matching.

57

Match List I with List II:

List - I (Thinker)List -II (Work)
(a)Mary Wollstonecraft(i)The Wretched of the Earth
(b)Gramsci(ii)Political Liberalism
(c)Frantz Fanon(iii)Vindication of the Rights of Women
(d)John Rawls(iv)The Prison Notebook
<br>

Choose the correct option from given below:-

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (iii) (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a) - (iii) (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Key Points

List - I (Thinker)List -II (Work)
(a)Mary Wollstonecraft(i)- One of the first works of feminist philosophy was A Vindication of the Rights of Woman: with Strictures on Political and Moral Subjects (1792) is authored by  Mary Wollstonecraft. - In it, Wollstonecraft addresses the political and educational philosophers of the eighteenth century who opposed the idea that girls should pursue a logical education.
(b)Gramsci(ii)- The Prison Notebooks are a collection of articles authored by the Italian Marxist Antonio Gramsci. - The Italian Fascist government imprisoned Gramsci in 1926. - It deals with Cultural hegemony, distinction between political society, critique of philosophical materialism.
(c)Frantz Fanon(iii)- The philosopher Frantz Fanon wrote a book titled the Wretched of the Earth in 1961. - It deals with psychoanalysis of the dehumanising effects of colonisation on the individual and the nation. - It examine of the wider social, cultural, and political ramifications of starting a social movement for the decolonization of a person and a people.
(d)John Rawls(iv)- The American philosopher John Rawls published Political Liberalism in 1993. - He want to demonstrate that his theory of justice is not a "complete notion of the good" but rather is compatible with a liberal understanding of justice's function.

 

Therefore, (a) - (iii) (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) is correct options.

58

Match List I with List II:

(School of ModernizationList -II (Thinkers)
(a)Psychological School(i)Daniel Lerner
(b)Normative School(ii)Mahatma Gandhi
(c)structural School(iii)G.A. Almond
(d)Technological School(iv)David Apter
<br>

Choose the correct option from given below:-

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) and (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv) and (d) - (i)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i) and (d) - (iii)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) – (ii) and (d) - (iv)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) and (d) - (iv)

Key Points

List - I (School of Modernization)List -II (Thinkers)
(a)Psychological School(i)- According to Daniel Lerner, modernization is a process of change that is primarily tied to changes in the way people think and act, as well as increases in urbanisation, literacy, per capita income, and political engagement. - Daniel Lerner is comes under Psychological School of Modernization.
(b)Normative School(ii)- Gandhi advocated a kind of modernity based on introspection, or inquiry into oneself, as opposed to the trajectory of phenomenal observation. - In his conception modernity as value-laden. - Mahatma Gandhi belongs to Normative School of Modernization.
(c)structural School(iii)- Political science was introduced to structural functional theory by Gabriel Almond and James Coleman. - Almond and Powel have also identified two factors to identify the stage of ‘political Modernization’. - They are i) structural differentiation and ii) secularization of
(d)Technological School(iv)- David Apter comes under Technological School. - He identified some characteristics of modernization such as Changing patterns of stratification; Innovation, professionalism, and the formation of careers.

Therefore, (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) and (d) - (iv) is the correct answer.

59

Match List I with the List II regarding terrorism :

List - IList -II
(a)Convention on offences and certain other acts committed on Board Aircraft (Tokyo )(i)1999
(b)Convention for suppression of unlawful acts against the safety of Civil Aviation (Montreal)(ii)1997
(c)International Convention for suppression of Terrorist Bombing(iii)1971
(d)International Convention for Suppression of Financing of Terrorism(iv)1963
<br>

Choose the correct options:

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

The correct sequence for above treaties on terrorism will be as follows:

Key Points

List - IList -II
(a)Convention on offences and certain other acts committed on Board Aircraft (Tokyo)- The Convention on Offenses and Certain Other Acts Committed on Board Aircraft is also known as the Tokyo Convention. - It is a global agreement that was signed on September 14, 1963.
(b)Convention for the suppression of unlawful acts against the safety of Civil Aviation (Montreal)- A multilateral agreement between governments to forbid and penalise conduct that can jeopardise the safety of civil aviation is known as the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Civil Aviation. - It is also known as the Montreal Convention or the Sabotage Convention. - It was signed on 23 September 1971.
(c)International Convention for suppression of Terrorist Bombing- ​International Convention for the Suppression of Terrorist Bombings was signed in New York on 15 December 1997. - The International Convention for the Suppression of Terrorist Bombing's goal is to increase international collaboration between States.
(d)International Convention for Suppression of Financing of Terrorism- It is Adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations in resolution 54/109 of 9 December 1999. - The treaty aims to encourage police and judicial cooperation in order to stop, look into, and punish the funding of such crimes. - One of the most effective anti-terrorism accords in history in terms of universality, the pact has been approved by 188 states as of October 2018.

Therefore, (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) is correct matching.

60

Match List I with List II:

List-I ThinkerList-II Work
(a)Jai Prakash Narayan(i)Salt Taxation in India
(b)Ram Manohar Lohia(ii)The Reconstruction of religious thought in Islam
(c)Muhammad Iqbal(iii)Why socialism
(d)Barani(iv)Fatwo-I-Jahandari
<br>

Select the correct option from the given below:

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i). (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i). (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

Indian political philosophy is the school of thought in India that examines issues with regard to polity, statecraft, justice, the rule of law, and the propriety of various kinds of government.

Key Points

List-I ThinkerList-II Work
(a)Jai Prakash Narayan(iii)- ​In his book "why socialism," Jaya Prakash Narayan, a strong proponent of socialism, outlines his ideas on the subject. - He contends that economic inequality and private ownership of the means of production are the core causes of all issues and that if we give everyone access to these resources, the issue of economic inequality will be solved on its own.
(b)Ram Manohar Lohia(i)- Ram Manohar Lohia was intrigued by Mahatma Gandhi's socio-economic theory, and for his PhD dissertation at Humboldt University in Berlin, Germany, he wrote a paper on "Salt Taxation in India." - It is focused on Gandhi’s socioeconomic theory.
(c)Muhammad Iqbal(ii)- Muhammad Iqbal's collection of lectures on Islamic philosophy, The Reconstruction of Religious Thought in Islam. - Iqbal urged a reevaluation of the philosophical underpinnings of Islamic thought in Reconstruction.
(d)Barani(iv)- Ziauddin Barani was a Muslim political theorist who lived in the Delhi Sultanate. - The Fatwa-i-Jahandari is a book that outlines the political goals that a Muslim ruler should uphold in order to gain the respect of his subjects and religious merit.

Therefore, (a) - (iii), (b) - (i). (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) is correct matching.

61

Which of the following are the salient features of Draft National Water Policy 2012?

(a) Setting up of Water Regulatory Authority

(b) Incentivisation of recycle and re-use

(c) Community participation in managing the water resources projects

(d) Water users association should be given statutory powers

​Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a), (b), (c) and (d)

National Water Policy 2012 deals with various water issues related to India. 

Key Points

  • The salient features of Draft National Water Policy 2012 are the following: 
  • It emphasizes the need for a national water framework law.
  • It has been suggested that a water regulatory authority be established.
  • Recycle and reuse incentives have been suggested.
  • Statutory powers should be granted to Water Users Associations so they can manage the volumetric quantum of water allotted to them, collect and keep a share of water rates, and maintain the distribution network under their control.
  • Projects and services related to water resources should be administered with community involvement.
  • Enough funding should be provided to the States to help them keep up with changes in technology, design, planning, and management.
  • It laid down the adaptation strategies in view of climate change for designing and management of water resource structures.

Thus, the correct options are (a), (b), (c) and (d).

62

Match List I with List II:

List - I OrganizationList -II Number of member states
Economic Community of West African States(i)7
South African Development Community(ii)12
Economic Community of Central African States(iii)16
Eastern African Community(iv)15
<br>

Choose the correct option :

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i).

Key Points

  • The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is a continental association of nations founded in May 1975 as a result of the Lagos Treaty to advance economic cooperation, commerce, and independence.
  • Benin, Burkina Faso, Cabo Verde, Cote d'Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Liberia, Mali, Niger, Nigeria, Senegal, Sierra Leone, and Togo are among the 15 nations that make up the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS).
  • The Southern African Development Community (SADC) is a Regional Economic Community that consists of 16 Member States: Angola, Botswana, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Comoros, Eswatini, Lesotho, Madagascar, Malawi, Mauritius, Mozambique, Namibia, the Seychelles, South Africa, the United States of America, Tanzania, Zambia, and Zimbabwe.
  • The Southern African Development Community's (SADC) primary goals are to achieve economic development, peace and security, and growth; reduce poverty; raise the standard of living and quality of life for Southern Africans; and, through regional integration, assist the underprivileged.
  • The regional integration that the Economic Community of Central African States (ECCAS) is fostering among its twelve member countries is fostering economic progress, social well-being, and environmental preservation.
  • Angola, Burundi, Cameroon, Chad, Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Rwanda, Sao Tome and Principe, and Sao Tome and Principe are the 12 member states of ECCAS.
  • With its headquarters in Arusha, Tanzania, the East African Community (EAC) is a regional intergovernmental organisation made up of seven 7 partner States: Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Rwanda, South Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda.
  • The purpose of the Community is to broaden and deepen economic, political, social, and cultural integration in order to raise East Africans' standard of living through increasing trade, investments, and value-added products through enhanced competition.
63

Match the following:

AB
Absolute Veto(i)When a bill is returned for reconsideration
Qualified Veto(ii)President cannot withhold assent if Bill is adopted again by the Houses
Suspensive Veto(iii)President may either assent or refuse to give assent without any time limit
Pocket Veto(iv)Power to say "no" to a bill passed by both Houses
<br>

Select the right code:

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii).

Key Points

  • There are three different types of veto power available to the President: absolute, suspensive, and pocket. 
  • With one exception, bills proposing constitutional amendments are not subject to the President's veto power.
  • Absolute Veto: This term describes the President's ability to refuse to sign a law approved by the Parliament. The bill then expires without being passed into law.
  • Typically used:
  • when a Private Member's Bill was used to pass a law.
  • before the President could sign the bill into law, the cabinet resigns. The President can get advice from the incoming government not to sign the legislation approved by the previous cabinet.
  • Pocket Veto: When the President uses his pocket veto, the bill is kept pending for an unlimited amount of time.
  • He does not return the bill for further review or reject it.
  • The Indian President does not have to resend the bill within 10 days, in contrast to the American President.
  • Suspensive Veto: When the President sends the bill back to the Indian Parliament for reconsideration, he exercises a suspensive veto.
  • The President must adopt the law without exercising any of his veto powers if the Parliament resends it to him with or without amendments.
  • Except in the case of the money bill, the President is not permitted to use his suspensive veto.
  • Qualified VetoThe Indian President does not possess a qualified veto. The American President may use the qualified veto power.
  • Under this, if the President decides to withhold or refuse to offer his approval, the laws passed by Parliament must be returned to the Legislature within 10 days.
  • The legislature might then veto the same bill with a greater or special majority.
64

Match List I with List II:

List - I (Author)List -II (Book)
(a)Paul H Appleby(i)Principles of Public Administration
(b)John M Gaus, L.D. White and M.E. Dimock(ii)Ideas and Issues in Public Administration
(c)W.F. Willoughby(iii)Morality and  Administration in Democratic Government
(d)Dwight Waldo(iv)The Frontiers of Public Administration
<br>

Choose the correct option from given below:

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

The correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii).

Key Points

  • Paul H Appleby published Morality and  Administration in Democratic Government in the year 1952
  • ​According to Paul Appleby, "bureaucracy is a tool of the people in a democracy."
  • He is one of the most significant contributors to the intellectual growth of the academic discipline of public administration in the United States.
  • For Appleby, politics was an essential component of administration, particularly when it came to formulating policies as opposed to political scheming.
  • The fact that Appleby referred to administration as the "eighth political phase" is still remembered today. Appleby is one of the pioneers of the modern subfield of bureaucratic politics, along with E. Pendleton Herring and Norton Long.
  • A common topic that runs through his writing and serves to bind his five books together is the idea that public administration and democracy must be made compatible, if not synergistic.
  • Three of these in particular—Big Democracy, Morality and Administration in Democratic Government, and Citizens as Sovereigns—concentrate on preserving and advancing democratic citizenship in the bureaucratized, extensive administrative state.
  • The Frontiers of Public Administration was a work by John M Gaus, L.D. White and M.E. Dimock. It was first published in 1936
  • ​All the actions taken to achieve the stated goal are included in public administration. In other words, managerial, technical, clerical, and manual tasks are all included in public administration.
  • Thus, from top to bottom, all people's activities make up administration in this perspective. Dimock and L.D. White shared this opinion. According to this perspective, administration varies from one domain to another and depends on the agency in question's focus.
  • Principles of Public Administration by W.F. Willoughby was published in 1927.
  • Willoughby heralded the stage of Principles in the evolution of Public Administration. He asserted that, "In administration there are certain fundamental principles of general application analogous to those characterizing any science."
  • Ideas and Issues in Public Administration by Dwight Waldo was published in 1970
  • ​The notion that public administration is value-neutral and carried out in a detached, almost mechanical manner was contested in Waldo's 1948 book.
  • He stated that in order to maintain due process and open access to the government, public workers should develop into politically astute, aware, and engaged change agents. However, in 1968, with both society and governmental systems in disarray, the discussion seemed particularly pertinent, leading to Waldo's meeting.
  • The Minnowbrook Conference Center at Syracuse University would serve as the venue for a gathering of the brightest young public administration brains, where up-and-coming academics would strive to balance PA's duties with a society in disarray.
  • These concepts were collectively marketed as the "New Public Administration," and they were shared through workshops, retreats, essays, books, and subsequent conferences in addition to the published Minnowbrook proceedings.
  • Waldo reinvented public administration as an independent field that combined academics and practice during his 11-year tenure as editor-in-chief of the Public Administration Review, where his influence was profound.
65

Match the following:

AB
Two Factor Theory(i)McClelland
Hierarchy of needs theory(ii)McGregor
Theory of needs(iii)Maslow
Theory X and Y(iv)Herzberg
<br>

Choose the correct answer :

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii),  (d) - (i)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii),  (c) - (i),  (d) - (ii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii),  (c) - (i),  (d) - (ii)

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii),  (c) - (i),  (d) - (ii).

Key Points

  • The Two-Factor theory contends that job happiness and discontent exist on two distinct continuums, each with its own set of elements. It is sometimes referred to as Herzberg's motivation-hygiene hypothesis.
  • This contradicts the conventional understanding of job satisfaction, which holds that discontent and job satisfaction are related.
  • In their original study, Herzberg and his colleagues looked into fourteen variables that were related to job satisfaction and categorised them as either motivating or sanitary variables. While the existence of hygiene elements reduces job discontent, motivation factors boost it.
  • The dual-factor theory, often known as Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory or the two-factor theory, contends that there are two distinct sets of workplace variables that can either lead to job satisfaction or job unhappiness.
  • These elements that promote job happiness typically have to do with self-actualization and growth. Herzberg believed that motivational elements guaranteed job happiness whereas a dearth of hygienic aspects led to it.
  • The theory of motivation was initially presented by Abraham Maslow in 1943 for his paper of the same name. It is based on a hierarchy of requirements that starts with the most fundamental wants and progresses to higher levels.
  • The major objective of this need hierarchy theory is to fulfil the last and highest need, which is the need for self actualization.
  • The hierarchy levels in Maslow's theory of needs are arranged in a pyramidal structure, with the most fundamental need i.e. physiological needs, at the base and the highest level of hierarchy at the top.
  • According to Maslow, a person may only advance to the next level after satisfying the requirements of the previous level. The most fundamental demands are located at the base of the pyramid, and the most complex needs are located at the top.
  • According to Maslow, motivation results from an individual's efforts to meet five basic needs: physiology, safety, sociability, esteem, and self-actualization. Maslow contends that these needs can lead to internal pressures that have an impact on behaviour.
  • The theory of needs was proposed by David McClelland. In 1961, David McClelland published "The Achieving Society," a book that expanded on Maslow's ideas.
  • He listed the following three needs as universal motivators:
  • the need for success,
  • the need for connection,
  • and the desire for power.
  • Depending on the prevailing motivator, each person will have a different set of traits.
  • McClelland claims that these motivators can be learnt (which is why this theory is sometimes called the Learned Needs Theory).
  • Regardless of our gender, culture, or age, McClelland asserts that we all possess three motivational factors, one of which will ultimately become our main motivator. This main motivator is heavily influenced by our society and experiences in life.
  • Theory X and Y is attributed to Douglas McGregor. In 1960, Douglas McGregor developed Theory X and Theory Y, which proposed two characteristics of human behaviour at work, or, to put it another way, two opposing viewpoints of people (employees):
  • the former is negative and is known as Theory X,
  • and the latter is positive and is known as Theory Y.
  • McGregor asserts that a number of presumptions underlie managers' perceptions of people's motivations. 
  • Premises of Theory X
  • The typical employee dislikes work organically and looks for ways to avoid it whenever possible.
  • In order to accomplish organisational goals, the employee must be persuaded, compelled, or warned with penalty because he does not want to work.
  • Managers must closely supervise their employees.
  • The managers take on a more autocratic attitude.
  • Many workers place a high priority on job security and have little to no aspirations or ambitions.
  • Responsibility is typically unpopular with employees.
  • Workers resist change.
  • The typical employee requires explicit guidance.​
  • Premises of Theory Y
  • Workers may consider their work to be enjoyable and typical. They naturally exercise both their physical and cerebral abilities while working.
  • Employees may not only need threats, external control, and compulsion to work; instead, if they are committed and sincere about achieving corporate goals, they may be able to use self-direction and self-control.
  • Employee engagement and loyalty to the company will increase if the job is enjoyable and rewarding.
  • A typical employee can learn to acknowledge and accept the responsibilities. He even has the ability to learn how to take responsibility.
  • The staff members are capable and skilled. They should use all of their logical talents.
  • In an organisation, Theory Y promotes decentralised decision-making, collaboration, and teamwork. Theory Y explores and identifies the opportunities for an individual to significantly contribute to an organisation. It aligns and balances corporate needs and aspirations with the needs and aspirations of the workforce.
  • The employment of strict control and oversight is encouraged by Theory X. Employee resistance to organisational changes is implied by this. As a result, it does not promote innovation.
66

Match the following:

AB
Common High Court for two or more states(i)Art. 229
Transfer of certain cases to High Court(ii)Art. 233
Administrative of District Judges(iii)Art. 231
Appointment expenses of High Courts(iv)Art. 228
<br>

Choose the correct answer :

  1. ((a))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

The correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i).

Key Points

  • Officers, staff, and high court expenses are covered by Article 229.
  • Without any influence from the executive branch, the Chief Justice of the High Court is free to choose the court's officers and staff. Their terms of service may be established by the Chief Justice.
  • Article 233 lays down the procedure for District Judge Nomination
  • The Governor of the State, in collaboration with the High Court with jurisdiction over that State, shall appoint individuals to be district judges and shall post and promote district judges in any State.
  • Only someone who has been an advocate or a pleader for at least seven years and is nominated for appointment by the High Court is eligible to be appointed a district judge if they are not currently employed by the Union or the State.
  • The Constitution of India Article 231 mandates the creation of a joint high court for two or more states.
  • For two or more States, or for two or more States plus a Union territory, Parliament may establish a common high court by statute.
  • According to certain conditions, cases may be transferred from a lower court to the High Court under Article 228 of the Indian Constitution. Additionally, it discusses the protocols that must be followed while transferring or disposing of the case.
  • Article 228 of the Indian Constitution only contains one clause that specifies when the High Court has jurisdiction.
  • The High Court has the jurisdiction to transfer cases from lower courts to itself when it feels that the correct interpretation of the Constitution will determine how an important legal problem is resolved.
67

Arrange these in a chronological order :

(a) Benn and RS Peters'- Social Principles and Democratic State

(b) John Rawls'- A Theory of Justice

(c) Susan Mollerokin's- Justice Gender and Family

(d) Rousseau's- Social Contract

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (d), (a), (b), (c)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (d), (b) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (a), (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (c), (b), (d) and (a)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(d), (a), (b), (c)

The correct answer is (d), (a), (b), (c).

Key Points

  • Benn and RS Peters' 1959 book Social Principles and Democratic State makes explicit the social principles that regulate the procedures and political practices of the contemporary democratic state.
  • The writers hold the position that there are issues with the nature of law, with ideas like rights, justice, equality, property, punishment, accountability, and liberty, which current philosophical methodologies can clarify, in the contemporary welfare state.
  • John Rawls, an American philosopher, made an effort to establish a non-utilitarian defence of a democratic political system that upholds justice, equality, and individual rights in his book A Theory of Justice (1971).
  • In Justice, Gender, and the Family (1989), Susan Okin advanced the radical concept that gender inequity in politics, the workforce, and actual families are a result of the ideal of the gender-structured family.
  • However, the book has generally been seen as making a far more specific claim: that justice theorists should apply their theory to the family, guaranteeing that the family's distribution of labour is fair.
  • Women experience injustice not only as a result of prejudice in the public sphere but also as a result of the division of labour and income within the family unit.
  • The cruellest discrimination against women happens in families. The family life patterns restrict their opportunities in a variety of ways, including by making them perform low-salary, unpaid work; by denying them access to outside employment and education; and by requiring them to perform the majority of the housework and child care even though they are also being paid.
  • The ways in which women may be harmed by the selflessness of marriage itself are particularly disturbing. However, philosophical theories of justice have rarely taken into account how families function or seen them as an institution to which fundamental truths about justice and injustice must be applied.
  • The purpose of Okin's book is to make this issue public and attempt to fix it. One of Okin's most significant contributions is her critique of John Rawls' theory of justice.​
  • Man is born free, but he is imprisoned everywhere, according to the famous opening line of The Social Contract (1762), which claimed that people could only truly experience freedom if they lived in a civic society that protected their rights and well-being.
  • For two reasons, according to Rousseau's Discourse description of civil society, it was created: to protect everyone's right to peace and their ability to own property.
  • Rousseau believed in the possibility of a true social compact, in which individuals would obtain a higher form of freedom—true political, or republican—in exchange for their independence.
  • According to The Social Contract, this freedom can be found in submission to what Rousseau referred to as the "general will"—a shared desire that promotes the common good or the common interest.
  • The exchange of independence, or natural liberty, for political liberty resulted in the subordination of all personal freedoms, including property rights.
  • According to Rousseau, the state is a moral being whose purpose is the liberty and equality of its people. The state's life is based on the union of its members.
  • Therefore, the social compact is broken when any authority usurps the people's power; as a result, citizens are no longer required to obey and have an obligation to rebel.

Additional Information

  • John Rawls, an American philosopher, made an effort to establish a non-utilitarian defence of a democratic political system that upholds justice, equality, and individual rights in his book A Theory of Justice (1971).
  • He revived the idea of a social contract, which had lain dormant since the 18th century, by imagining a hypothetical scenario in which a group of rational people are asked to determine what fundamental principles should govern the political institutions that they will be operating under while being kept in the dark about all social and economic facts about themselves, including facts about their race, sex, religion, education, intelligence, talents, or skills.
  • Behind this "veil of ignorance," Rawls contends, such a group would universally reject utilitarian tenets, such as "political institutions should aim to maximise the pleasure of the greatest number," because no member of the group would be able to discern whether he belonged to a minority whose rights and interests may be overlooked under institutions justified on utilitarian grounds.
  • Instead, the group would adopt ideas like the following out of self-interest and reason:
  • (1) Everyone should enjoy the greatest possible degree of freedom, including all the freedoms traditionally associated with democracies;
  • (2) everyone should have an equal opportunity to run for offices and positions that offer greater rewards in terms of wealth, power, status, or other social goods; and everyone should have the right to vote; and
  • (3) the distribution of wealth in society ought to be such that the poorest members of society are better off than they would be under any other arrangement, whether it be equal or unequal.
  • Rawls contends that in order to reach better levels of production, some inequality in the distribution of income may be required, given certain assumptions about human motivation.
  • Therefore, it is conceivable to envision unequal wealth distributions in which people who are least wealthy are in a better position than they would be in an equal distribution.
  • These ideas represent democratic liberalism that is egalitarian in nature. As a result, Rawls is considered the most influential philosopher in favour of the contemporary democratic capitalist welfare state.
68

Arrange the following of the UN system in chronological order:

(i) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

(ii) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

(iii) International Finance Corporation

(iv) International Development Association

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

  2. ((b))

    (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

  3. ((c))

    (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

  4. ((d))

    (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

The correct answer is (i), (iii), (iv), (ii).

Key Points

  • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development were established in 1945 as a result of the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference, often known as the Bretton Woods Conference, which took place in 1944. (IBRD in 1944).
  • The reconstruction of nations devastated by the Second World War through loans was the IBRD's initial area of attention. Construction gradually gave way to development, with a focus on infrastructure, electricity grids, roads and transportation, dams, etc.
  • All five institutions (IBRD, IDA, IFC, MIGA, and ICSID) came to be known as the World Bank Group when more institutions like the IDA, IFC, and others were developed over time.
  • The organisation currently uses its institutions and funding for a variety of initiatives.
  • International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): The IBRD describes itself as a worldwide development cooperative and was founded in 1944. 189 nations are members of it. It is the biggest development bank in the world.
  • To middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries, it offers loans, guarantees, advice services, and risk management products.
  • The IBRD's portfolio is made up of more than 60% of middle-income nations. At every step of a project, IBRD provides technical help and experience in addition to financing investments across all industries.
  • Only sovereign governments and not private parties are dealt with by the IBRD.
  • It also helps governments build institutions and policies, eliminate service delivery bottlenecks, and improve the investment climate of their nations. The majority of IBRD's funding comes from international financial markets.
  • Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency(MIGA): Established in 1988, MIGA's main objective is to increase cross-border investment in developing nations by providing lenders and investors with assurances (political risk insurance and credit improvement).
  • Investments are protected against non-commercial hazards by the agency's assurances. Fragile and conflict-affected states are highlighted.
  • Products for political risk insurance:
  • protection from damage caused by terrorism, war, and civil unrest.
  • coverage against governmental expropriation
  • protection against contract infringement.
  • protection from financial damages caused by an illegal conversion of local money into hard currency.
  • Credit enhancement is a form of insurance against the failure of governments to pay their debts.
  • In 1994, India signed up to join the MIGA.​
  • International Finance Corporation(IFC): The IFC was founded in 1956 and is a subsidiary of the World Bank (IDA + IBRD). It is the biggest international development organisation with a focus on the developing world's private sector.
  • It serves as the WBG's division for the business sector.
  • By funding for-profit and commercial programmes aimed at eradicating poverty and advancing development, it promotes economic growth.
  • It also makes use of outside resources to complete projects.
  • The IFC collaborates with the private sector to promote entrepreneurship and build long-lasting companies.
  • The IFC offers asset management, advisory, and investment services.
  • It offers loans to companies and private sector initiatives.
  • International Development Association(IDA): The primary goal of the IDA, which was founded in 1960, is to give grants and low-interest loans to the world's poorest nations.
  • The World Bank Group's International Development Association (IDA) provides assistance to the world's poorest nations.
  • It provides loans to developing nations with the lowest per capita income, unstable credit standing, and gross national income (GNI).
  • The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development's work is supplemented by the IDA.
  • The World Bank is the name given to IBRD and IDA taken as a whole.
  • They number 173 nations as members.
  • A total of 75 nations get loans from IDA, 39 of which are in Africa.
  • Every three years, IDA refills its resources.
69

Arrange the following Institutions / Organizations in chronological order:

(i) BRICS Development Bank 

(ii) IBSA

(iii) G-7

(iv) G-20

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

  2. ((b))

    (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

  3. ((c))

    (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

  4. ((d))

    (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

The correct answer is (iii), (iv), (ii), (i).

Key Points

  • BRICS Development Bank: At the 4th BRICS Summit in New Delhi in 2012, India proposed the proposal for the NDB, and the formation treaty was signed in 2014 at the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil.
  • The mission of New Development Bank is to support infrastructure and sustainable development initiatives in the BRICS nations as well as other developing nations and emerging markets.
  • Instead of posing a threat to western-dominated international financial institutions like the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund, the NDB is envisioned as a developmental financial agency that may work in tandem with them. BRICS Development Bank was its last name.
  • IBSAIndia, Brazil, and South Africa joined forces to establish the IBSA Fund in March 2004 to combat poverty and hunger. IBSA is a special forum that brings together South Africa, Brazil, and India, three sizable democracies and economies from three separate continents that are dealing with comparable issues.
  • On June 2, 2003, in Evian, on the sidelines of the G-8 Summit, the then-Prime Minister of India and the Presidents of Brazil and South Africa explored the notion of founding the IBSA.
  • When the foreign ministers of the three nations gathered in Brasilia on June 6, 2003, and released the Brasilia Declaration, the grouping was formally established and given the name IBSA Dialogue Forum.
  • IBSA lacks a dedicated executive secretariat and a main office. It relies on the Summits of Heads of State and Government at the highest level.
  • But starting 2011, BRICS, the larger organisation made up of the IBSA countries, China, and Russia, began to eclipse IBSA.​
  • G-7The Group of Seven (G-7) is an informal grouping of industrialised democracies that includes France, Germany, Italy, the United Kingdom, Japan, the United States, and Canada.
  • The G-7 meets once a year to discuss topics of mutual interest, such as international security, energy policy, and global economic governance.
  • The Group of Five, which consists of the finance ministers of France, West Germany, the United States, Great Britain, and Japan (the G-5) after the 1973 oil crisis, is where the G-7 had its start.
  • In order to continue negotiations about the world oil crisis, the French President summoned the leaders of West Germany, the United States, Great Britain, Japan, and Italy to Rambouillet (France) in 1975.
  • The Group of Six was established in 1975 by France, West Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States to offer a forum for industrialised democracies to discuss urgent economic issues.
  • Canada was also invited to join the group in 1976, and the United States sponsored the inaugural G-7 summit, which took place in Puerto Rico in 1976.
  • Since 1981, the European Union has actively engaged in the G-7 as a "non enumerated" member.
  • G-20: The G20 is a loose coalition of 19 nations, the EU, and officials from the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.
  • The largest advanced and rising economies in the world make up the G20 membership, which collectively accounts for more than 80% of global GDP, 75% of global commerce, and 60% of global population.
  • It was a ministerial-level meeting that evolved during the 1997–1999 Asian Financial Crisis when the G7 invited both developed and developing economies. Meetings between central bank governors and finance ministers first started in 1999.
  • The globe recognised the need for new consensus building at the highest political level during the 2008 Financial Crisis.
  • The G20 leaders will henceforth meet once a year, it was determined.
  • The G20 finance ministers and central bank governors continue to meet separately twice a year to help prepare for these summits. They get together at the same time as the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.
  • Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, Greece, Italy, Japan, Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union are the other members of the G20. Spain participates in leader summits as a permanent, non-member invitee.
70

Arrange the formation of following states in chronological order :

(a) Sikkim

(b) Goa

(c) Gujarat

(d) Telangana

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  2. ((b))

    (d), (b), (c) and (a)

  3. ((c))

    (c), (b), (a) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (c), (a), (b) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(c), (a), (b) and (d)

The correct chronological order of the formation of the given states is:

  • Gujarat (1960)
  • Sikkim (1975)
  • Goa (1987)
  • Telangana (2014)

So, the correct option is (c), (a), (b) and (d).

Key Points

Here is a brief description of the formation of each state:

  • Gujarat was formed on May 1, 1960, by the merger of the former princely states of Saurashtra and Gujarat, as well as the Bombay State's Saurashtra and Kutch regions.
  • Goa was formed on December 19, 1987, by the separation of the former Portuguese territory of Goa from the Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu.
  • Sikkim was formed on May 16, 1975, by the merger of the former princely state of Sikkim with the Indian Union.
  • Telangana was formed on June 2, 2014, by the separation of the Telangana region from the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
71

Arrange the following in ascending chronological order:

(a) Right to Education Act

(b) Consumer Protection (Amendment) Act

(c) Food Security Act

(d) Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (c), (d) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b), (a), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (c), (a), (d) and (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (c), (d) and (b)

Correct answer is (a), (c), (d), (b)

Key Points

Right to Education Act- On August 4, 2009, the Indian Parliament passed the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act - In accordance with Article 21A of the Indian Constitution, children in India between the ages of 6 and 14 have the right to free and compulsory education.
Consumer Protection (Amendment) Act- On July 20, 2020, the new Consumer Protection Act, 2019 went into effect. - Its many stated rules and requirements. - it will give consumers more authority and assist them in preserving their rights.
Food Security Act- The National Food Security Act of 2013 is an Indian Act of Parliament. - The National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA 2013) establishes legal entitlements for the Government of India's ongoing food security programmes.
Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act- The Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018, was passed to tighten the law's anti-corruption measures and increase government accountability and transparency. - It was passed in order to strengthen the anti-corruption provisions of the law and increase government accountability and openness.

Thus, Right to Education Act⇒ Food Security Act⇒ Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act⇒ Consumer Protection (Amendment) Act.

72

Arrange the following books as per the year of their publication in chronological order:

(a) Modern Democracies

(b) Constitutional Government and Democracy

(c) Public Opinion and Popular Government

(d) The American Commonwealth

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  2. ((b))

    (d), (c), (a) and (b)

  3. ((c))

    (d), (a), (b) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (c), (d) and (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(d), (c), (a) and (b)

The correct answer is (d), (c), (a) and (b).

Key Points

  • Viscount James Bryce or Lord Bryce authored the books Modern Democracies(1921) and The American Commonwealth(1888)
  • ​According to him, the term "democracy" refers to any type of governance in which the people have the final say in political decisions through their ability to vote. According to him, Russia is not a democracy, whereas Australia is.
  • The three sections of Lord Bryce's Modern Democracies(1921) are:
  • First, there are fifteen chapters devoted to a number of issues that, in the author's opinion, apply to all forms of popular governance.
  • The analysis of democratic institutions in six representative nations follows. Two of them, France and Switzerland, are European states. The United States and Canada are American commonwealths. Australia and New Zealand are Southern Hemisphere colonial democracies.
  • The heart and soul of the book are these analyses of the current governments. Because "no citizen of Britain, and particularly no citizen who has personally engaged in politics... can hope to be credited with impartiality, however genuinely he may attempt to be neutral,"
  • England, the mother democracy of them all, has been purposefully left out. Finally, the author presents his reflections on the present and future of democracy in the later half of the second volume with astonishing clarity.
  • Abbott Lawrence Lowell wrote the book Public Opinion and Popular Government, published in the year 1913. A. Lawrence Lowell, full name Abbott Lawrence Lowell, was an American lawyer and educator born on December 13, 1856.
  • From 1909 to 1933, he served as president of Harvard University, guiding the institution through tremendous academic expansion. He was regarded as a leading authority on political philosophy and global politics.
  • The majority of Lowell's time was spent thinking about the interests of the public, and his sense of civic duty compelled him to participate in numerous public debates, such as his support for the United States' membership in the League of Nations following World War I and an official review of the contentious Sacco and Vanzetti trial. The Papers of Abbott Lawrence Lowell mostly reflect his commitment in civic engagement, social change, and philanthropy.
  • **Carl J. Friedrich'**s book Constitutional Government and Democracy: Theory and Practice in Europe and America was first released in 1941.
  • Constitutionalism, according to Carl J. Friedrich (1901-1984), is anything that goes beyond the confines of the prevailing behavioralist paradigm of contemporary political science and the standard academic emphasis on the law and courts.
  • Friedrich, a pioneering but now underappreciated post-WWII constitutional expert, proposed that constitutionalism should be viewed as an institutionally-based, participatory framework for determining the meaning and legal application of a democratic community's norms.
  • His strategy is very similar to the current "historical institutionalist" appeal for placing the law and the judiciary within a more expansive, normative, and interactive notion of constitutionalism.
73

Make a sequence of Decision-making approach:

(a) Search for information

(b) Problem recognition

(c) Selection of alternative

(d) Definition of alternative

Select the right option:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (c), (d), (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b), (d), (a), (c)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (a), (c), (d)

  4. ((d))

    (b), (a), (d), (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(b), (a), (d), (c)

The correct answer is - (b), (a), (d), (c)

Key Points

  • Decision-making Process: The decision-making process typically follows a structured approach involving several sequential steps.
  • Problem Recognition: (b) The first step is identifying and acknowledging that a problem or opportunity exists that requires a decision.
  • Search for Information: (a) Once the problem is recognized, the next step is to gather relevant information to better understand the situation and possible solutions.
  • Definition of Alternative: (d) With the information collected, the decision-maker defines potential alternatives or courses of action to address the problem.
  • Selection of Alternative: (c) Finally, the decision-maker evaluates the defined alternatives and selects the most suitable one based on the gathered information and analysis.

Additional Information

  • Evaluation and Feedback: Sometimes, after selecting an alternative, a further step involves implementing the decision and assessing its outcomes, providing feedback for future decisions.
  • Iterative Process: The decision-making process can be iterative, meaning that feedback from the implementation of one decision can lead to a new cycle of decision-making activities.
74

Arrange the following four reports of Second Administrative Reforms Commission in their sequential order:

(a) Right to Information

(b) Unlocking Human capital

(c) Crisis Management

(d) Ethics in Governance

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

  2. ((b))

    (d), (c), (b), (a)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (d), (b), (c)

  4. ((d))

    (c), (a), (d), (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (b), (c), (d)

The Second ARC was established by the Government of India on August 31, 2005. 

Key Points

Right to Information- Right to Information - Master Key to Good Governance (09.06.2006)
Unlocking Human capital- Unlocking Human Capital - Entitlements and Governance-a Case Study (31.07.2006)
Crisis Management- Crisis management - From Despair to Hope (31.10.2006)
Ethics in Governance- Ethics in Governance (12.02.2007)

Thus, Right to Information ⇒Unlocking Human capital ⇒Crisis Management ⇒Ethics in Governance.

75

Arrange the following Ashrams/Institutions founded by Gandhi in chronological order :

(a) Phoenix Settlement

(b) Kochrab Ashram

(c)Sevagram Ashram

(d)Tolstoy Farm

Select the correct answer from the options as given below:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (d), (b), (c)

  3. ((c))

    (d), (c), (b), (a)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (c), (d), (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(a), (d), (b), (c)

The correct answer is (a), (d), (b), (c).

Key Points

  • Phoenix Settlement: Gandhiji bought the 100 acres that made up The Phoenix Settlement in 1904.
  • Gandhiji began his transformation from a prominent lawyer to a straightforward peasant with a desire for freedom, nonviolence, and spirituality on this settlement.
  • He started his experiments with communal living, non-possession, interfaith harmony, simplicity, environmental preservation, manual labour, social and economic fairness, nonviolent action, educational ideas, and truth here on this land.
  • In Durban, South Africa, in 1903, Gandhiji launched his first newspaper. A year later, in 1904, he relocated the entire press to Phoenix Settlement.
  • Phoenix Settlement's early history mentions three crucial roles:
  • Community living and food gardens-based self-sufficiency;
  • working in the media to print the daily Indian Opinion;
  • providing housing, meals, and educational opportunities for the families of individuals taking part in the Satyagraha campaigns.
  • Kochrab Ashram: Gandhiji founded the first ashram in Kochrab in 1915 after returning from South Africa, and he later moved it in 1917 to a vacant plot of land along the Sabarmati River to conduct experiments in farming, animal husbandry, cow breeding, and other related activities.
  • The 120-acre ashram, which was formerly known as Harijan Ashram, was eventually divided into six trusts. The Gandhi Ashram region, which is managed by SAPMT, includes the homes of Gandhi and Kasturba (HridayKunj, Vinoba-Mira Kutir, and Nandini), as well as Magan Nivas, where Gandhi's nephew Maganlal Gandhi dwelt and oversaw the ashram.
  • Sevagram Ashram: Small settlement Sevagram is close to Wardha town (8 km). On April 30, 1936, in the early hours of the day, Mahatma Gandhiji arrived in the area. He stayed for roughly five to six days.
  • In 1936, Mahatma Gandhiji moved his ashram from the Sabarmati ashram to Sevagram, a small village in the Maharashtrian town of Wardha.
  • From here, Gandhiji led the nation's independence campaign. As a result, Sevagram will always be remembered in national history.
  • Tolstoy Farm: Mahatma Gandhi founded his first ashram in South Africa under the name Tolstoy Farm.
  • The ashram, which was established in 1910, functioned as the focal point of the satyagraha movement against prejudice against Indians in the Transvaal, where it was situated.
  • Daily hard labour and education were integrated at the Tolstoy settlement, much as they were at the Phoenix community, but Gandhi took this idea a step further by integrating vocational training to provide "all-round development to the boys and girls."
  • Gandhi supplemented each child's education with vocational training, enabling them to become self-sufficient.
76

Arrange the following in their chronological order :

(a) Jalianwala Bagh Massacre

(b) Report Submission by Hunter Committee

(c) Chauri-Chaura incident

(d) Establishment of Swaraj Party

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

  2. ((b))

    (d), (c), (b), (a)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (b), (d), (c)

  4. ((d))

    (d), (b), (a), (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (b), (c), (d)

Correct option is (a), (b), (c), (d)

Key Points

Jalianwala Bagh Massacre- On April 13, 1919, when acting Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered British Indian Army soldiers to fire their weapons into a crowd of unarmed Indian citizens at Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab. - At least 400 persons, including men and women, were killed in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
Report Submission by Hunter Committee- Six volumes of testimony made up the Hunter Committee's report submission. - It was made public on March 8, 1920 and in which Dyer's actions were universally denounced.
Chauri-Chaura incident- On February 4, 1922, a huge gathering of demonstrators engaged in the Non-Cooperation movement battled with police, who then opened fire. - This incident is known as the Chauri Chaura incident and occurred in the Gorakhpur area of the United Province (modern Uttar Pradesh) in British India.
Establishment of Swaraj Party- The Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party was the original name of the party. - In India, it was a political party that was founded in January 1923.

Thus, Jalianwala Bagh⇒ Massacre Report Submission by Hunter Committee⇒ Chauri-Chaura incident⇒ Establishment of Swaraj Party

Read the passage and answer the questions :

The term "globalisation" primarily refers to economic activities like trade, movement of capital, goods, labour and communication system across boundaries facilitating higher levels of interconnectedness in the world. These economic activities have a greater impact on socio-political sectors nationally and internationally. The increasingly strong presence of non-state actors like MNCs, the NGOs and IGOs has questioned the supremacy of state sovereignty. The rich states are benefited due to their superior control over the flow of capital, technology and communication system. A profit oriented global market can never think of benefit of all people of the world. The North-South divide has not been obliterated.

77

Globalisation has benefited the countries of:

  1. ((a))

    Europe and America

  2. ((b))

    Asia

  3. ((c))

    Africa

  4. ((d))

    Latin America

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Europe and America

The correct answer is option 1 

Key Points

  • Globalization has indeed brought significant benefits to both Europe and America. Here are some of the key advantages experienced by these regions:
  • Economic Growth:
  • Globalization has fostered increased trade and investment, allowing European and American countries to expand their markets beyond their borders.
  • This has led to significant economic growth, improved productivity, and higher living standards.
  • Employment Opportunities:
  • Globalization has created new job opportunities, particularly in industries such as technology, finance, and services.
  • The interconnectedness of economies has facilitated the movement of capital, goods, and services, resulting in increased employment prospects for citizens of Europe and America.
  • Innovation and Technological Advancements:
  • Globalization has facilitated the exchange of ideas, knowledge, and technologies across borders.
  • European and American companies have benefited from international collaborations, leading to innovation, the development of new products and services, and advancements in various sectors.
78

Globalisation has induced greater:

  1. ((a))

    Urbanisation

  2. ((b))

    Tradition

  3. ((c))

    Rural societies

  4. ((d))

    Parochial culture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Urbanisation

The correct answer is option 1. 

Key Points

  • Globalization has an impact on the size and scope of urban regions' economic development.
  • This temporal evolution was linked to various urban contexts from the small city-states of the mercantilism era to the industrial city to the megalopolis of the early 21st century.
  • Because globalization was dependent on various technological and economic drivers throughout time.

Thus, Globalisation has induced greater Urbanisation.

79

Which one of the following has not limited state sovereignty?

  1. ((a))

    Multinational Corporations

  2. ((b))

    Inter Governmental Organization

  3. ((c))

    Non-Governmental organization

  4. ((d))

    Anomic Pressure Groups

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Anomic Pressure Groups

The correct answer is option 4. 

Key Points

  • State sovereignty is the legal right and obligation of an independent state to run and control its political affairs free from outside interference.
  • Over their territory, sovereign states enjoy absolute power.
  • According to the passage, "the increasingly strong presence of non-state actors like MNCs, NGOs and IGOs has questioned the supremacy of state sovereignty."

Thus, Anomic Pressure Groups have not limited state sovereignty.

80

The globalisation has increased the demand for

  1. ((a))

    Laissez Faire state

  2. ((b))

    Welfare state

  3. ((c))

    Totalitarian state

  4. ((d))

    Socialistic state

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Laissez Faire state

The correct answer is option 1. 

Key Points

  • The term globalization first appeared in the early 20th century.
  • It primarily refers to economic activities like trade, movement of capital, goods, labour and communication system across boundaries facilitating higher levels of interconnectedness in the world.
  • Laissez-faire, a French proverb, means "let to do."
  • It refers to a political philosophy that disapproves of the practice of government economic involvement.

Thus, Globalisation has increased the demand for Laissez Faire state.

81

Which one of the following is not incorrect?

The state has become weak in shaping the

  1. ((a))

    Flow of capital

  2. ((b))

    International trade and labour

  3. ((c))

    Finance

  4. ((d))

    Collection of revenues

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Collection of revenues

The correct answer is 3: Collection of revenues

Key Points

  • According to the passage' "The term "globalisation" primarily refers to economic activities like trade, movement of capital, goods, labour and communication system across boundaries are facilitating higher levels of interconnectedness in the world."
  • So, Globalisation decreased state power in controlling the flow of capital, International trade and labour and Finance.
  • However, Globalisation does not weak state in the Collection of revenues.

Thus, the Collection of revenues is incorrect.

82

Given below are the two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A), and the other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A): According to Plato, the human soul consists of three elements - Reason, spirit, and appetite

Reason (R): The state is the individual writ large

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. ((d))

    (A) is false but (R) is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

According to Plato's view of the soul was influenced by Socrates' teachings. 

Key PointsAssertion (A) : According to Plato, human soul consists of three elements - Reason, spirit and appetite.

  • According to Plato, was the incorporeal, eternal inhabitant of a person's being.
  • According to Plato, the soul continues to exist and has mental capacity after death.
  • He divided the soul into three parts:  the logistikon (reason), the thymoeides (spirit), and the epithymetikon (appetite).

Thus, Assertion (A) is correct. 

Reason (R) : The state is the individual writ large

  • According to Plato, justice is written in greater characters in the state and smaller ones in the person, but it is the same thing in both cases.
  • It is easier to see in the State than in an individual.
  • Individual minds and state minds are the same; the state's life is the life of the persons who make up the state.
  • This statement is related to the theory of justice.

Thus, Reason (R) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

So, Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

83

Two statements are given below. One is Assertion (A) and other is Reason (R) :

<br>

Assertion (A) : Herbert Simon rejected Principles of Administration

Reason (R) : For Simon, these are merely proverbs

Choose the correct options:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. ((d))

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

​Stage III - The Challenger Era (1938 – 1947)

Key Points

Assertion (A): Herbert Simon rejected Principles of Administration

  • It was stated that because of its political essence and function, administration cannot be isolated from politics.
  • He argued for the behavioural approach to public administration in order to turn it into a more academic field of study.
  • He emphasised decision-making as a substitute for the principles-based approach.

Thus, Assertion (A) is true.

Reason (R) : For Simon, these are merely proverbs

  • The administrative ideas were also questioned and condemned for lacking general applicability and scientific validity.
  • Therefore, Simon referred to them as "proverbs" and "naturalistic fallacies".
  • Simon intended to replace the very simplified classical approach to economic modelling, which was centred on the idea of a single, profit-maximizing entrepreneur.

Hence, Reason (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

84

Vandana Shiva is known as

  1. ((a))

    Post Modernist

  2. ((b))

    Marxist

  3. ((c))

    Eco-feminist

  4. ((d))

    Conservatist

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Eco-feminist

​A subset of feminism and political ecology is called ecofeminism. 

Key Points

  • The analysis of the connections between people and the natural environment is done by ecofeminist philosophers using the gender notion.
  • According to ecofeminist theory, green politics are viewed from a feminist perspective and demand for an inclusive society with no dominating group.
  • Liberal ecofeminism, spiritual/cultural ecofeminism, social/socialist ecofeminism, and other varieties of ecofeminism exist today with different approaches and analyses.
  • Vandana Shiva is an Indian scholar, environmental activist, proponent of food sovereignty, ecofeminist, and author who opposes globalization.
  • Her work is related to the anti-GMO movement, she is frequently referred to as the "Gandhi of grains."

Therefore, Vandana Shiva is known as Eco-feminist.

85

Who is not a supporter of Libertarianism?

  1. ((a))

    Robert Nozick

  2. ((b))

    Milton Friedman

  3. ((c))

    Robert Dahl

  4. ((d))

    F.A. Hayek

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Robert Dahl

Libertarianism is a political theory that promotes liberty as a fundamental principle. 

Key Points

  • It emphasises the rule of law, pluralism, cosmopolitanism, cooperation, civil and political rights, and bodily autonomy.
  • libertarians frequently view authority, state power, war, militarism, and nationalism with scepticism.  or
  • Some libertarians have different views on the extent of their opposition to current economic and political systems.
  • Academics divide libertarian theories of capital and property along left-right or socialist-capitalist axes.
  • Thinkers of Libertarianism are  Ludwig von Mises, Friedrich Hayek, James Buchanan, and Milton Friedman, Robert Nozick.

Therefore, Robert Dahl is not a supporter of Libertarianism.

86

Who said, “Every state is known by the rights that it maintains“?

  1. ((a))

    Laski

  2. ((b))

    Green

  3. ((c))

    Hegel

  4. ((d))

    Barker

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Laski

Rights referred to as social claims, rights assist people in becoming their best selves and in the development of their identities. 

Key Points

  • Harold J. Laski believed that since the modern concept of rights is universal and egalitarian, a state must grant equal rights to all people without discrimination.
  • He also believed that a state is known by the rights it upholds.
  • ​The main criterion for measuring its character is how much it adds to the foundation of human happiness.
  • Harold J. Laski said, "The rights know every state that it maintains".
  • Therefore, the State is not just a sovereign entity with the ability to enforce its will, at least not in terms of political philosophy.

Thus, Laski says, “Every state is known by the rights that it maintains".

87

Arthashastra is known as

  1. ((a))

    Shruti

  2. ((b))

    Smriti

  3. ((c))

    Samhita

  4. ((d))

    Nitishastra

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nitishastra

An atypical text is the Arthashastra.

Key Points

  • The author of the work is given as Kautilya who is thought to have planned the downfall of the Nanda ruler in the Gangetic belt.
  • The Arthashastra might be found in other historical works, but the complete text was not available until R. Shamasastry, a librarian, found it written on leaves during the first decade of the 20th century.
  • Professor R.P. Kangle translated it after Professor Shamasastry a few years later.
  • The Arthashastra is influenced by both Hinduism and the Charvaka philosophical school's practicality.
  • It is known as Nitishastra.
  • It rejected the supernatural tenets of religion in favour of a wholly materialistic understanding of the cosmos and human existence.

Thus, Arthashastra is known as Nitishastra.

88

Which of the following freedoms was not mentioned by Roosevelt?

  1. ((a))

    Freedom of speech

  2. ((b))

    Freedom of worship

  3. ((c))

    ​Freedom from fear

  4. ((d))

    Freedom against exploitation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Freedom against exploitation

​Freedom is defined as either having the capacity to act or change without restriction or having the strength and resources to pursue one's goals without interference.

Key Points

  • Freedom is frequently equated with liberty and autonomy in the sense of "making one's own laws," as well as with having rights and the civil liberties to exercise those rights without the government interfering excessively.
  • Freedom of assembly, freedom of association, freedom of choice, and freedom of speech are examples of political freedom that are frequently discussed.
  • American President Franklin D. Roosevelt outlined the Four Freedoms.
  • He suggested four fundamental freedoms that people "anywhere in the globe" should be able to enjoy in a speech known as the "Four Freedoms speech" 
  • Freedom of speech
  • Freedom of worship
  • Freedom from want
  • Freedom from fear

Therefore, Freedom against exploitation was not mentioned by Roosevelt

89

The best propounder of Pluralist Theory of Citizenship was

  1. ((a))

    T.H. Marshal

  2. ((b))

    Anthony Giddens

  3. ((c))

    B.S. Turner

  4. ((d))

    David Held

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B.S. Turner

​A citizen is a person who belongs to a political society and has the privileges and obligations that come with it. 

Key Points

  • Citizenship is largely defined by the universalist or unitary model as a legal status that accords all members of the polity with the same set of civil, political, and social rights.
  • At the end of the 1980s, the universalist paradigm came under intense attack as contemporary free countries' moral and cultural plurality attracted more and more theoretical attention.
  • An alternative idea of citizenship based on the recognition of the political relevance of difference has been put out by critics of this (failed) universalism (cultural, gender, class, race, etc.).
  • B S Turner examines the evolving character of citizenship in a globalizing society.
  • The propounded of the Pluralist Theory of Citizenship was B.S. Turner.

Therefore, The best propounder of the Pluralist Theory of Citizenship was B.S. Turner.

90

"Distributive Justice is mainly concerned with distribution of honours or wealth". Who said it?

  1. ((a))

    Plato

  2. ((b))

    Aristotle

  3. ((c))

    Marx

  4. ((d))

    Gramsci

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Aristotle

Justice is an abstract concept and Greek political thought revolves around the concept of justice. 

Key Points

  • According to Aristotle, there are two sorts of justice: universal justice and particular justice.
  • The first refers to following the law and being moral.
  • In respect of particular justice, there are two different kinds: distributive justice and remedial or corrective justice.
  • According to the concept of distributive justice, the state should allocate resources to its people fairly.
  • In this context, Aristotle's said "Distributive Justice is mainly concerned with the distribution of honours or wealth".
  • Aristotle believed that this type of justice upholds the proper and proportionate distribution of offices, honours, goods, and services in accordance with each individual citizen's needs.

Therefore,  Aristotle's said, "Distributive Justice is mainly concerned with the distribution of honours or wealth".

91

Who had condemned utilitarianism in his Theory of justice?

  1. ((a))

    Plato

  2. ((b))

    Hayek

  3. ((c))

    Rawls

  4. ((d))

    Milton

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rawls

Utilitarianism favours activities that increase happiness or pleasure and disapproves of those that increase sadness or harm. 

Key Points

  • A utilitarian would seek to improve society as a whole when used to guide social, economic, or political decisions.
  • John Rawls wrote the renowned book "A Theory of Justice" in which he discussed the idea of justice.
  • John Rawls was a staunch opponent of utilitarianism, which held that morally righteous or fair actions are those that benefit the most people.
  • He criticised utilitarianism because it allows governments to operate in ways that satisfy the needs and rights of the majority while ignoring those of the minority.

Therefore, Rawls condemned utilitarianism in his Theory of justice.

92

Two statements are given below. One is a Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) :  United Nations Organisation was established on 24 October 1945

Reason (R) : Its main object is to establish world peace and security

Choose the correct options:

  1. ((a))

    (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

  4. ((d))

    (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

The League of Nations was replaced by the UN in order to avert future world wars after World War II. 

Key PointsAssertion (A) :  United Nations Organisation was established on 24 October 1945.

  • After the World War II conference held in San Francisco on April 25, 1945, representatives from 50 nations began drafting the UN Charter.
  • The United States, the United Kingdom, France, the Soviet Union, and the Republic of China, make up the Security Council's five permanent members.
  • It ratified the UN Charter on October 24, 1945.

So, Assertion (A) is correct. 

Reason (R): Its main object is to establish world peace and security.

  • The organization's goals are listed in the Charter.
  • The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental body whose declared goals are to uphold world peace and security, foster goodwill among nations, promote global collaboration
  • It includes preserving world peace and security, defending human rights, providing humanitarian help, fostering sustainable development, and upholding international law.

Hence**,** Reason (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Therefore, (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

93

Which among the following is the full title of the book written by Mary Wollstonecraft?

  1. ((a))

    A Vindication of the Rights of Women

  2. ((b))

    A Vindication of the Rights of Women with strictures on political and moral subjects

  3. ((c))

    Reflections on the French Revolution

  4. ((d))

    A Vindication of the Rights of Human Beings

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A Vindication of the Rights of Women with strictures on political and moral subjects

Mary Wollstonecraft was a British author, philosopher, and supporter of women's rights who lived from 27 April 1759 to 10 September 1797. 

Key Points

  • She wrote novels, treatises, travel accounts, histories of the French Revolution, conduct manuals, and children's books within the limited span of her career.
  • The most famous work by Wollstonecraft is A Vindication of the Rights of Woman (1792).
  • In this, she argues that women are not inherently inferior to men but only seem to be due to their lack of knowledge.
  • She imagines a societal structure based on reason and contends that both men and women should be treated as rational individuals.

Therefore, A Vindication of the Rights of Women is the full title of the book written by Mary Wollstonecraft.

Additional Information

  • Some of the other writing of Mary Wollstonecraft
  • A Vindication of the Rights of Woman was written in 1791 and published in 1792,
  • Maria: Or, The Wrongs of Woman Illustrated (1798)
  • A vindication of the rights of Men (1790)
  • Mary: A Fiction (1788)

Read the passage and answer the questions :

Post modernist thinkers hold the view that there cannot be objective knowledge of social issues. For the Post-Modernist, knowledge is not simply a cognitive factor; knowledge is also normative and political. Power and knowledge are mutually supportive and they directly imply one another. The Post Modernist are critical of classical liberals as well as contemporary positivist who believed in objectivity and superiority of science. Through deconstruction, the post modernist want to look at every accepted or settled idea with new lenses.

94

Which of the following is Post Modernist thinker?

  1. ((a))

    Jacques Derrida

  2. ((b))

    Immanuel Kant

  3. ((c))

    H.J. Laski

  4. ((d))

    Karl Deutsch

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jacques Derrida

The correct answer is option 1. 

Key Points

  • Post-modernism is an intellectual movement against Modernism.
  • It is distinguished by scepticism against modernism's big narratives, antagonism to epistemic certainty or stability of meaning, and reliance on ideology as a tool for preserving political power.
  • Post Modernners challenged the notion that knowledge is eternal, linked to power, and non-impartial.
  • Some of the Postmodernist thinkers are Jacques Derrida, Michel Foucault, Michel Foucault, Jean-François Lyotard, Richard Rorty, Jean Baudrillard, Fredric Jameson and Douglas Kellner.

Thus, Jacques Derrida is a Post-Modernist thinker.

95

Who among the following is not a Post modernist thinker?

  1. ((a))

    Richard Ashly

  2. ((b))

    Jenny Adkins

  3. ((c))

    Michel Foucault

  4. ((d))

    J. Burton

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

J. Burton

The correct answer is option 4. 

Key Points

  • Postmodernism, first emerged as a form of literary criticism in the middle of the twentieth century as a critique of modernism.
  • It is characterized by a general suspicion of reason, broad scepticism, subjectivism or relativism.
  • Claims to the objective fact are rejected as naive realism.
  • Some of the Postmodernist thinkers are Jacques Derrida, Michel Foucault, Michel Foucault, Jean-François Lyotard, Richard Rorty, Jean Baudrillard, Fredric Jameson and Douglas Kellner.

Therefore, J. Burton is not a Postmodernist thinker.

96

According to Post-Modernist thinker, which attribute of knowledge does not exist?

  1. ((a))

    Normative

  2. ((b))

    Cognitive

  3. ((c))

    Political

  4. ((d))

    Objectivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Objectivity

The correct answer is option 4. 

Key Points

  • Postmodernism, first emerged as a form of literary criticism in the middle of the twentieth century as a critique of modernism.
  • It is characterized by a general suspicion of reason, broad scepticism, subjectivism or relativism.
  • Claims to the objective fact are rejected as naive realism.
  • The conditional nature of knowledge claims within some historical, political, and cultural discourses is underlined.

Thus, According to Post-Modernist thinkers, the Objectivity attribute of knowledge does not exist.

97

Which of following term is not preferred by Post Modernist thinkers?

  1. ((a))

    Post structuralism

  2. ((b))

    Deconstruction

  3. ((c))

    Modernism

  4. ((d))

    Subjectivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Modernism

The correct Answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • ​Postmodernism, first emerged as a form of literary criticism in the middle of the twentieth century as a critique of modernism.
  • Deconstruction and post-structuralism are fields that are related to postmodernism.
  • It is characterized by a general suspicion of reason, broad scepticism, subjectivism or relativism.
  • However, Postmodernism has been condemned by a number of authors for encouraging obscurantism, foregoing scientific rigour.

Thus, Modernism is not preferred by Post Modernist thinkers.

98

Which one of the following statement is incorrect according to Post Modernist thinkers?

  1. ((a))

    Post Modernners challenged the notion that knowledge is eternal

  2. ((b))

    Knowledge is linked to power

  3. ((c))

    Knowledge leads to progress of world

  4. ((d))

    No knowledge is impartial

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Knowledge leads to progress of world

The correct answer is option 3. 

Key Points

  • Post-modernism is an intellectual movement against Modernism.
  • It is distinguished by scepticism against modernism's big narratives, antagonism to epistemic certainty or stability of meaning, and reliance on ideology as a tool for preserving political power.
  • Post Modernners challenged the notion that knowledge is eternal, linked to power, and non-impartial.
  • According to the Liberalism view, "Knowledge leads to progress of the world".

Thus, "Knowledge leads to progress of world " is incorrect according to Post Modernist thinkers.

99

Two statements are given below. One is Assertion (A) and other is Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Shimla Pact was signed by India and Pakistan in 1972

Reason ​(R) : It provides that the two countries will solve their disputes through mediation of other countries

Choose the correct options:

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

  4. ((d))

    (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) is correct but (R) is wrong

President of Pakistan Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto and Prime Minister of India Indira Gandhi signed the agreement in Simla, also spelled "Shimla," in India.

Key Points Assertion (A) : Shimla Pact was signed by India and Pakistan in 1972

  • Shimla Agreement was signed on July 2, 1972, in Shimla.
  • It came after the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971.
  • It was started when India entered East Pakistan as a partner of Bengali insurgents engaged in the Bangladesh Liberation War against Pakistani state troops.

So, Assertion (A)  is correct. 

Reason ​(R): It provides that the two countries will solve their disputes through mediation of other countries. 

  • The following are some of the main effects of the Simla Agreement:
  • Both nations will "resolve their disagreements through bilateral dialogue using peaceful means."
  • India has repeatedly insisted that the Kashmir conflict is a bilateral matter that must be resolved through bilateral negotiations.
  • The Line of Control (LOC) between India and Pakistan was established by the agreement, which also stipulated that "neither party shall seek to alter it unilaterally, irrespective of mutual disputes and legal interpretations."

So,  Reason ​(R) is wrong. 

Therefore, (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

100

Theory of form and allegory of caves is related with

  1. ((a))

    Plato

  2. ((b))

    Aristotle

  3. ((c))

    Machiavelli

  4. ((d))

    Hobbes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plato

Plato (429-347 B.C.E.) is one of the most brilliant thinkers in the West. 

Key Points

  • The allegory relates to Plato's theory of Forms, which holds that the deepest and most fundamental sort of reality is held by the "Forms" (or "Ideas").
  • The material world that we may perceive through feeling. Real knowledge, or what Socrates refers to as "the Good," is knowledge of the Forms.
  • Glaucon is informed by Socrates that the highest of all studies, which is to behold the Good, must be followed by the most perfect persons.
  • The ones who have reached this ultimate level, however, must return to the cave and live there among the inmates, sharing in their work and privileges.

Thus, the Theory of form and allegory of caves is related to Plato.

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