Official Paper

UGC NET 2025 Previous Year Paper Shift 2

150 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

Paper I (Teaching & Research Aptitude) (50 questions)

1

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five different types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during two consecutive years 2021 and 2022. The total number of cars produced by the company was 4,50,000 in 2021 and 5,20,000 in 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (1-5):

Type of Car20212022
A15%18%
B25%22%
C20%15%
D10%15%
E30%30%

What was the total number of cars of type B and C produced in 2021?

  1. ((a))

    2,02,500

  2. ((b))

    1,80,000

  3. ((c))

    2,25,000

  4. ((d))

    1,92,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2,02,500

2

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five different types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during two consecutive years 2021 and 2022. The total number of cars produced by the company was 4,50,000 in 2021 and 5,20,000 in 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (1-5):

Type of Car20212022
A15%18%
B25%22%
C20%15%
D10%15%
E30%30%

If the total number of cars of type A and D produced in 2021 is x, and the total number of cars of type B and E produced in 2022 is y, then what is the value of y - x?

  1. ((a))

    1,57,900

  2. ((b))

    1,42,400

  3. ((c))

    1,65,500

  4. ((d))

    1,38,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1,57,900

3

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five different types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during two consecutive years 2021 and 2022. The total number of cars produced by the company was 4,50,000 in 2021 and 5,20,000 in 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (1-5):

Type of Car20212022
A15%18%
B25%22%
C20%15%
D10%15%
E30%30%

What is the ratio of the number of cars of type C produced in 2022 to the number of cars of type D produced in 2021?

  1. ((a))

    26 : 15

  2. ((b))

    24 : 17

  3. ((c))

    13 : 9

  4. ((d))

    11 : 8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26 : 15

4

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five different types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during two consecutive years 2021 and 2022. The total number of cars produced by the company was 4,50,000 in 2021 and 5,20,000 in 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (1-5):

Type of Car20212022
A15%18%
B25%22%
C20%15%
D10%15%
E30%30%

The number of cars of type E produced in 2021 is approximately what percentage more/less than the number of cars of type A produced in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    42.1% less

  2. ((b))

    44.2% more

  3. ((c))

    38.5% less

  4. ((d))

    40.4% more

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

44.2% more

5

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five different types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during two consecutive years 2021 and 2022. The total number of cars produced by the company was 4,50,000 in 2021 and 5,20,000 in 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (1-5):

Type of Car20212022
A15%18%
B25%22%
C20%15%
D10%15%
E30%30%

In which type of car was the percentage increase in production from 2021 to 2022 the highest?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D

6

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of teacher-centered teaching?

  1. ((a))

    Emphasis on rote learning

  2. ((b))

    Teacher as a facilitator of learning

  3. ((c))

    Students are passive recipients of information

  4. ((d))

    Assessment is primarily through exams and grades

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Teacher as a facilitator of learning

7

In the context of CBCS (Choice Based Credit System), what does 'Credit' represent?

  1. ((a))

    The grade obtained by the student

  2. ((b))

    The number of hours of instruction per week

  3. ((c))

    The fees paid for the course

  4. ((d))

    The difficulty level of the course

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The number of hours of instruction per week

8

Which of the following is a type of formative assessment?

  1. ((a))

    End-of-term examination

  2. ((b))

    Final project

  3. ((c))

    Weekly quiz

  4. ((d))

    Standardized test

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Weekly quiz

9

Which of the following levels of teaching involves the highest level of cognitive engagement?

  1. ((a))

    Memory level

  2. ((b))

    Understanding level

  3. ((c))

    Reflective level

  4. ((d))

    Autonomous development level

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reflective level

10

The 'Zone of Proximal Development' (ZPD) is a concept proposed by:

  1. ((a))

    Jean Piaget

  2. ((b))

    B.F. Skinner

  3. ((c))

    Lev Vygotsky

  4. ((d))

    Lawrence Kohlberg

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lev Vygotsky

11

A researcher wants to study the relationship between the socioeconomic status of parents and the academic achievement of their children. What type of research is this?

  1. ((a))

    Experimental research

  2. ((b))

    Correlational research

  3. ((c))

    Descriptive research

  4. ((d))

    Historical research

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Correlational research

12

In which of the following sampling methods, every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected?

  1. ((a))

    Purposive sampling

  2. ((b))

    Quota sampling

  3. ((c))

    Simple random sampling

  4. ((d))

    Snowball sampling

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Simple random sampling

13

A hypothesis that states there is no significant difference between two variables is called:

  1. ((a))

    Alternative hypothesis

  2. ((b))

    Null hypothesis

  3. ((c))

    Directional hypothesis

  4. ((d))

    Causal hypothesis

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Null hypothesis

14

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research tool?

  1. ((a))

    Validity

  2. ((b))

    Reliability

  3. ((c))

    Objectivity

  4. ((d))

    Subjectivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Subjectivity

15

The process of drawing general conclusions from specific observations is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Deductive reasoning

  2. ((b))

    Inductive reasoning

  3. ((c))

    Analogical reasoning

  4. ((d))

    Syllogistic reasoning

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Inductive reasoning

16

Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

  1. ((a))

    A written report

  2. ((b))

    A telephone conversation

  3. ((c))

    Facial expressions

  4. ((d))

    A public speech

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Facial expressions

17

In the communication process, the receiver's response to the message is called:

  1. ((a))

    Encoding

  2. ((b))

    Decoding

  3. ((c))

    Feedback

  4. ((d))

    Channel

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Feedback

18

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Individual difference is a natural phenomenon. Reason (R) : Individual difference can be negated with education. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. ((c))

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. ((d))

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

19

Which of the following is a type of mass communication?

  1. ((a))

    Group discussion

  2. ((b))

    Personal letter

  3. ((c))

    Television broadcasting

  4. ((d))

    Face-to-face interview

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Television broadcasting

20

The term 'Entropy' in communication is related to:

  1. ((a))

    Redundancy

  2. ((b))

    Predictability

  3. ((c))

    Noise

  4. ((d))

    Order

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Noise

21

In which of the following sampling techniques, the probability of selecting each unit of the population is known?

  1. ((a))

    Purposive sampling

  2. ((b))

    Snowball sampling

  3. ((c))

    Stratified sampling

  4. ((d))

    Quota sampling

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stratified sampling

22

A teacher uses a tool that allows students to create digital stories with images, text, and audio. Which of the following tools is most likely being used?

  1. ((a))

    Padlet

  2. ((b))

    Book Creator

  3. ((c))

    Kahoot

  4. ((d))

    Mentimeter

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Book Creator

23

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research hypothesis?

  1. ((a))

    It should be testable.

  2. ((b))

    It should be based on existing theories.

  3. ((c))

    It should be stated in general terms.

  4. ((d))

    It should be clear and precise.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

It should be stated in general terms.

24

Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the process of communication: (A) Encoding (B) Decoding (C) Transmission (D) Feedback (E) Reception Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (C), (E), (B), (D)

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  3. ((c))

    (C), (A), (E), (B), (D)

  4. ((d))

    (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (C), (E), (B), (D)

25

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The standard error of the mean decreases as the sample size increases. Statement II: The standard error of the mean is always greater than the standard deviation of the population. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

26

Which of the following is a type of 'malware' that encrypts a victim's files and demands payment for the decryption key?

  1. ((a))

    Spyware

  2. ((b))

    Ransomware

  3. ((c))

    Adware

  4. ((d))

    Trojan horse

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ransomware

27

What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number (11011)₂?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    29

  4. ((d))

    31

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

27

28

Match List I with List II

List I (Environmental Protocol)List II (Focus Area)
(A) Montreal Protocol(I) Greenhouse gas emissions reduction
(B) Kyoto Protocol(II) Ozone layer protection
(C) Paris Agreement(III) Access and Benefit Sharing of Genetic Resources
(D) Nagoya Protocol(IV) Climate change mitigation and adaptation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

29

Which of the following pollutants is primarily responsible for 'Blue Baby Syndrome'?

  1. ((a))

    Fluoride

  2. ((b))

    Nitrate

  3. ((c))

    Arsenic

  4. ((d))

    Mercury

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nitrate

30

The main objective of the 'National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem' is to:

  1. ((a))

    Promote tourism in the Himalayan region.

  2. ((b))

    Protect the biodiversity and glaciers of the Himalayas.

  3. ((c))

    Increase the production of medicinal plants.

  4. ((d))

    Build more dams for hydroelectric power.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Protect the biodiversity and glaciers of the Himalayas.

31

Which of the following is a synchronous communication tool?

  1. ((a))

    E-mail

  2. ((b))

    Discussion forum

  3. ((c))

    Video conferencing

  4. ((d))

    Blog

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Video conferencing

32

The 'Inverted Pyramid' style of writing is commonly used in:

  1. ((a))

    Academic research papers

  2. ((b))

    News reporting

  3. ((c))

    Creative writing

  4. ((d))

    Legal documents

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

News reporting

33

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A: In a formal classroom, communication should be structured and goal-oriented. Reason R: Structured communication helps in achieving the desired learning outcomes efficiently. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

34

The term 'HEI' in the context of Indian Higher Education stands for:

  1. ((a))

    Higher Education Institute

  2. ((b))

    Higher Education Initiative

  3. ((c))

    Higher Educational Institution

  4. ((d))

    High Efficiency Instruction

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Higher Educational Institution

35

Which of the following universities was established first in India?

  1. ((a))

    University of Calcutta

  2. ((b))

    University of Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Banaras Hindu University

  4. ((d))

    Aligarh Muslim University

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

University of Calcutta

36

If the word 'TEACHER' is coded as 'VGCEJGT', how will 'STUDENT' be coded?

  1. ((a))

    UVWFGPV

  2. ((b))

    UVWFGQV

  3. ((c))

    UVXFGPV

  4. ((d))

    UVXFGQV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UVWFGPV

37

What is the next number in the following series? 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

  1. ((a))

    119

  2. ((b))

    139

  3. ((c))

    159

  4. ((d))

    169

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

159

38

A person travels 10 km towards North, then turns right and travels 5 km, then turns right and travels 10 km. How far is he from the starting point?

  1. ((a))

    5 km

  2. ((b))

    10 km

  3. ((c))

    15 km

  4. ((d))

    20 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 km

39

Which of the following is a valid deductive argument?

  1. ((a))

    All men are mortal. Socrates is a man. Therefore, Socrates is mortal.

  2. ((b))

    Some men are mortal. Socrates is a man. Therefore, Socrates is mortal.

  3. ((c))

    All men are mortal. Socrates is mortal. Therefore, Socrates is a man.

  4. ((d))

    Some men are mortal. Socrates is mortal. Therefore, Socrates is a man.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All men are mortal. Socrates is a man. Therefore, Socrates is mortal.

40

In the context of classical Indian logic (Nyaya), 'Anumana' refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Perception

  2. ((b))

    Comparison

  3. ((c))

    Inference

  4. ((d))

    Verbal Testimony

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Inference

41

Two numbers are such that their sum is 34 and their difference is 8. The numbers are :

  1. ((a))

    19 and 15

  2. ((b))

    21 and 13

  3. ((c))

    23 and 11

  4. ((d))

    25 and 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21 and 13

42

If 'BOOK' is coded as '43' and 'PEN' is coded as '35', then 'COPY' will be coded as :

  1. ((a))

    58

  2. ((b))

    59

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    61

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

59

43

Which of the following numbers is prime?

  1. ((a))

    111

  2. ((b))

    117

  3. ((c))

    119

  4. ((d))

    127

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

127

44

Find the next term in the series : 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    39

  4. ((d))

    41

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

37

45

A person travels 10 km towards North, then 6 km towards South and then 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he now from his starting point?

  1. ((a))

    5 km South-East

  2. ((b))

    5 km North-East

  3. ((c))

    7 km North-West

  4. ((d))

    7 km South-West

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5 km North-East

46

Study the following table and answer the questions (46-50) :

The table shows the number of students who appeared and qualified in an entrance exam from five different states A, B, C, D and E in the year 2022.

StateAppearedQualified
A2500450
B3000600
C2000350
D4500850
E3500550

What is the average number of students who appeared for the exam from all the five states together?

  1. ((a))

    3000

  2. ((b))

    3100

  3. ((c))

    3200

  4. ((d))

    3300

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3100

47

Study the following table and answer the questions (46-50) :

The table shows the number of students who appeared and qualified in an entrance exam from five different states A, B, C, D and E in the year 2022.

StateAppearedQualified
A2500450
B3000600
C2000350
D4500850
E3500550

The number of students who qualified from State D is what percentage of the number of students who appeared from State D?

  1. ((a))

    18.22%

  2. ((b))

    18.44%

  3. ((c))

    18.66%

  4. ((d))

    18.88%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18.88%

48

Study the following table and answer the questions (46-50) :

The table shows the number of students who appeared and qualified in an entrance exam from five different states A, B, C, D and E in the year 2022.

StateAppearedQualified
A2500450
B3000600
C2000350
D4500850
E3500550

What is the ratio of the number of students who qualified from State B to the number of students who qualified from State C?

  1. ((a))

    12 : 7

  2. ((b))

    7 : 12

  3. ((c))

    5 : 6

  4. ((d))

    6 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 : 7

49

Study the following table and answer the questions (46-50) :

The table shows the number of students who appeared and qualified in an entrance exam from five different states A, B, C, D and E in the year 2022.

StateAppearedQualified
A2500450
B3000600
C2000350
D4500850
E3500550

The number of students who qualified from State A is approximately what percentage of the total number of students who qualified from all the five states together?

  1. ((a))

    16%

  2. ((b))

    18%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    22%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16%

50

Study the following table and answer the questions (46-50) :

The table shows the number of students who appeared and qualified in an entrance exam from five different states A, B, C, D and E in the year 2022.

StateAppearedQualified
A2500450
B3000600
C2000350
D4500850
E3500550

Which state has the highest percentage of students who qualified with respect to those who appeared?

  1. ((a))

    State A

  2. ((b))

    State B

  3. ((c))

    State D

  4. ((d))

    State E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

State B

Paper II (Subject) (100 questions)

51

Which of the following is a non-probabilistic sampling method?

  1. ((a))

    Simple Random Sampling

  2. ((b))

    Stratified Random Sampling

  3. ((c))

    Cluster Sampling

  4. ((d))

    Quota Sampling

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Quota Sampling

52

The main purpose of research in education is to :

  1. ((a))

    help in the personal growth of an individual

  2. ((b))

    help the candidate become an eminent educationist

  3. ((c))

    increase job prospects of an individual

  4. ((d))

    increase the social status of an individual

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

help in the personal growth of an individual

53

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good research?

  1. ((a))

    Objectivity

  2. ((b))

    Reliability

  3. ((c))

    Validity

  4. ((d))

    Subjectivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Subjectivity

54

A research which is directed towards finding a solution to an immediate problem is called :

  1. ((a))

    Fundamental Research

  2. ((b))

    Applied Research

  3. ((c))

    Action Research

  4. ((d))

    Descriptive Research

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Action Research

55

The process of gathering information from a sample of a population is called :

  1. ((a))

    Census

  2. ((b))

    Survey

  3. ((c))

    Experimentation

  4. ((d))

    Case Study

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Survey

56

A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called :

  1. ((a))

    Deductive Reasoning

  2. ((b))

    Inductive Reasoning

  3. ((c))

    Abnormal Reasoning

  4. ((d))

    Transcendental Reasoning

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Inductive Reasoning

57

Which of the following is not a type of communication?

  1. ((a))

    Verbal Communication

  2. ((b))

    Non-verbal Communication

  3. ((c))

    Written Communication

  4. ((d))

    Meditation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Meditation

58

In the context of communication, 'Feedback' means :

  1. ((a))

    A reaction of the receiver to the sender's message

  2. ((b))

    A verbal acknowledgement of the message

  3. ((c))

    A written acknowledgement of the message

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A reaction of the receiver to the sender's message

59

Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following? (A) Attitude survey (B) Performance records (C) Students' attendance (D) Selection of communication channel

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  3. ((c))

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B) and (D) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A), (B) and (C) only

60

Mass communication is also called :

  1. ((a))

    Mediated communication

  2. ((b))

    Direct communication

  3. ((c))

    Group communication

  4. ((d))

    Intrapersonal communication

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mediated communication

61

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has the power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III. Statement II : The power to issue directions or orders or writs under Article 32 is not confined to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights only, but can also be used for the enforcement of any other legal rights. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

62

Given below are two statements: Statement I : In 'A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras' (1950), the Supreme Court adopted a narrow interpretation of Article 21, focusing on the procedure established by law. Statement II : In 'Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India' (1978), the Supreme Court overruled the narrow view in Gopalan's case and held that the procedure established by law must be 'just, fair and reasonable'. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

63

Which of the following are the features of 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution as declared by the Supreme Court in various judgments? (A) Supremacy of the Constitution (B) Republican and Democratic form of Government (C) Secular character of the Constitution (D) Federal character of the Constitution (E) Parliamentary system of Government Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B), (D), (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

64

Match List I with List II

List I (Case)List II (Main Theme)
(A) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain(I) Rule of Law
(B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India(II) Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
(C) Waman Rao v. Union of India(III) Application of Doctrine of Basic Structure to the 9th Schedule
(D) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India(IV) Power of Judicial Review

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

65

Which of the following Fundamental Rights is/are available to both citizens and non-citizens (except enemy aliens)? (A) Equality before law (Article 14) (B) Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) (C) Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21) (D) Right to elementary education (Article 21A) (E) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (C), (D) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  4. ((d))

    (B), (C), (D) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

66

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that 'the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life'?

  1. ((a))

    Article 37

  2. ((b))

    Article 38

  3. ((c))

    Article 39

  4. ((d))

    Article 40

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 38

67

In which case the Supreme Court held that 'the Directive Principles of State Policy must conform to and run as subsidiary to the Fundamental Rights'?

  1. ((a))

    State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

  2. ((b))

    Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

68

Which of the following are included in the 'Fundamental Duties' of citizens under Article 51A of the Constitution of India? (A) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence (B) To protect and improve the natural environment (C) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform (D) To pay taxes regularly and on time (E) To vote in all elections Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  4. ((d))

    (B), (C), (D) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (B), (C) only

69

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on 'Prevention of Corruption' (1962) which recommended the establishment of Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?

  1. ((a))

    K. Santhanam

  2. ((b))

    L.M. Singhvi

  3. ((c))

    Ashok Mehta

  4. ((d))

    Balwant Rai Mehta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K. Santhanam

70

Given below are two statements: Statement I : The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States. Statement II : The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members, out of whom 50% shall be judicial members. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

71

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, added which Part and which Schedule to the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    Part IX and 11th Schedule

  2. ((b))

    Part IXA and 11th Schedule

  3. ((c))

    Part IX and 12th Schedule

  4. ((d))

    Part IXA and 12th Schedule

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Part IX and 11th Schedule

72

Under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which of the following is/are the types of Municipalities? (A) Nagar Panchayat (B) Municipal Council (C) Municipal Corporation (D) Town Area Committee (E) Notified Area Committee Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  4. ((d))

    (B), (C), (D) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (B), (C) only

73

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the 'Proclamation of Emergency' on the ground of war or external aggression or armed rebellion?

  1. ((a))

    Article 352

  2. ((b))

    Article 356

  3. ((c))

    Article 360

  4. ((d))

    Article 365

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 352

74

In which case the Supreme Court of India laid down exhaustive guidelines regarding the imposition of President's Rule in a State under Article 356?

  1. ((a))

    S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

  2. ((b))

    Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India

  3. ((c))

    Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu

  4. ((d))

    L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

75

Which of the following are the qualifications for a person to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India under Article 124(3)? (A) He must be a citizen of India. (B) He has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court. (C) He has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court. (D) He is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist. (E) He has completed the age of 35 years. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (C) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B), (D) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (B), (C), (D) only

76

Match List I with List II

List I (Jurisdiction of Supreme Court)List II (Relevant Article)
(A) Original Jurisdiction(I) Article 131
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction in constitutional matters(II) Article 132
(C) Special Leave to Appeal by the Supreme Court(III) Article 136
(D) Advisory Jurisdiction(IV) Article 143

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

77

Who among the following was the first Chief Justice of India?

  1. ((a))

    H.J. Kania

  2. ((b))

    M. Patanjali Sastri

  3. ((c))

    Mehr Chand Mahajan

  4. ((d))

    B.K. Mukherjea

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H.J. Kania

78

Given below are two statements: Statement I : The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. Statement II : The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

79

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the 'Election Commission of India'?

  1. ((a))

    Article 320

  2. ((b))

    Article 324

  3. ((c))

    Article 326

  4. ((d))

    Article 330

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 324

80

The 'Universal Declaration of Human Rights' (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on:

  1. ((a))

    10th December, 1948

  2. ((b))

    24th October, 1945

  3. ((c))

    26th January, 1950

  4. ((d))

    1st January, 1945

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10th December, 1948

81

In light of the changes in the world of work, which of the following are the characteristics of 'Protean Career'? (A) It is driven by the individual, not the organization. (B) It is based on a set of core values. (C) It is a career that is frequently changed. (D) It is a career that is managed by the organization. (E) It is a career that is based on the individual's need for growth and development. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (E) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B) and (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A), (B) and (E) only

82

Which of the following are the benefits of 'Flexible Benefit Plans'? (A) It allows employees to choose the benefits that best suit their needs. (B) It helps organizations to control benefit costs. (C) It increases employee satisfaction and motivation. (D) It simplifies the administration of benefit plans. (E) It helps organizations to attract and retain talented employees. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (E) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

  4. ((d))

    (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (B), (C) and (E) only

83

Match List I with List II:

List I (Methods of Training)List II (Description)
(A) Vestibule Training(I) Training provided to employees in a setting that mimics the actual work environment.
(B) Apprenticeship Training(II) Training provided to employees by moving them from one job to another.
(C) Internship Training(III) Training provided to students in an organization to gain practical experience.
(D) Job Rotation(IV) Training provided to employees under the guidance of a master worker.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

84

Given below are two statements: Statement I: 'Job Evaluation' is a systematic process of determining the relative worth of different jobs in an organization. Statement II: 'Job Ranking' is a method of job evaluation that involves ranking jobs from simplest to most difficult. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

85

Who was the founder of the Vakatakas of the Deccan ?

  1. ((a))

    Prithvisena I

  2. ((b))

    Pravarasena I

  3. ((c))

    Rudrasena I

  4. ((d))

    Vindhyashakti I

86

Given below are two statements: Statement I: 'Collective Bargaining' is a process of negotiation between employers and a group of employees aimed at agreements to regulate working salaries, working conditions, benefits, and other aspects of workers' compensation and rights. Statement II: 'Collective Bargaining' is a process that is only used in the public sector. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

87

Which of the following are the reasons for 'Industrial Disputes'? (A) Wage and allowance related issues (B) Working conditions and welfare related issues (C) Personnel related issues such as dismissal or suspension (D) Indiscipline and violence (E) Political interference Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. ((c))

    (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

88

Match List I with List II:

List I (Industrial Relations Approaches)List II (Main Focus)
(A) Unitary Approach(I) Focuses on the importance of social and psychological factors in the workplace.
(B) Pluralistic Approach(II) Views the organization as a collection of different groups with their own interests and goals.
(C) Marxist Approach(III) Views the organization as an integrated and harmonious whole.
(D) Human Relations Approach(IV) Views industrial relations as a product of the fundamental conflict between capital and labour.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

89

Given below are two statements: Statement I: 'Workers' Participation in Management' refers to the involvement of workers in the decision-making process of an organization. Statement II: 'Workers' Participation in Management' can be implemented at various levels, such as the shop floor level, the plant level, and the corporate level. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

90

The Urban Phase of the Indus Valley Civilization belongs to :

  1. ((a))

    4000 - 3000 BCE

  2. ((b))

    3000 - 2000 BCE

  3. ((c))

    2600 - 1900 BCE

  4. ((d))

    1900 - 1300 BCE

91

Given below are two statements: Statement I: 'International Human Resource Management' (IHRM) refers to the process of managing people in international organizations. Statement II: 'International Human Resource Management' (IHRM) is more complex than 'Domestic Human Resource Management' because of the need to manage people across different countries with different cultures, laws, and regulations. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

92

Which of the following are the strategies for 'International Recruitment'? (A) Ethnocentric Approach (B) Polycentric Approach (C) Regiocentric Approach (D) Geocentric Approach (E) Localcentric Approach Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. ((c))

    (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (B), (C) and (D) only

93

Match List I with List II:

List I (IHRM Approaches)List II (Description)
(A) Ethnocentric(I) Key positions in foreign subsidiaries are filled by host country nationals.
(B) Polycentric(II) Key positions in foreign subsidiaries are filled by parent country nationals.
(C) Regiocentric(III) The best people are chosen for key positions regardless of their nationality.
(D) Geocentric(IV) Key positions in foreign subsidiaries are filled by individuals from the same region.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

94

Given below are two statements: Statement I: 'Expatriates' are employees who are sent by their organization to work in a foreign country for a specific period of time. Statement II: 'Expatriate Failure' refers to the premature return of an expatriate to their home country before the completion of their assignment. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

95

Which of the following are the reasons for 'Expatriate Failure'? (A) Inability of the expatriate to adjust to the foreign culture (B) Inability of the expatriate's spouse or family to adjust to the foreign culture (C) Lack of technical competence (D) Lack of motivation (E) Personal or family problems Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (E) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

  3. ((c))

    (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

96

Match List I with List II:

List I (Types of Expatriate Training)List II (Focus)
(A) Cultural Training(I) Focuses on helping expatriates and their families adjust to the day-to-day life in the foreign country.
(B) Language Training(II) Focuses on helping expatriates understand the culture, values, and customs of the foreign country.
(C) Practical Training(III) Focuses on helping expatriates communicate effectively in the local language.
(D) Sensitivity Training(IV) Focuses on helping expatriates develop an awareness of their own biases and prejudices.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

97

Given below are two statements: Statement I: 'Repatriation' is the process of bringing an expatriate back to their home country after the completion of their foreign assignment. Statement II: 'Reverse Culture Shock' is a common problem faced by expatriates during the repatriation process. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

98

Which of the following are the benefits of 'Diversity and Inclusion' in the workplace? (A) Increased innovation and creativity (B) Improved problem-solving and decision-making (C) Enhanced employee engagement and motivation (D) Improved organizational reputation and brand image (E) Increased employee turnover Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. ((c))

    (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (B), (C) and (D) only

99

Given below are two statements: Statement I: 'Work-Life Balance' refers to the equilibrium between an individual's work and personal life. Statement II: Organizations can promote work-life balance by providing flexible work arrangements, such as telecommuting and flexible working hours. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

100

The study on Gender relations in early Indian History includes :

  1. ((a))

    Archaeological Data and Sources

  2. ((b))

    History of the Subcontinent

  3. ((c))

    Focus on Women and Hierarchies

  4. ((d))

    Study of Elite Groups

101

An entrepreneur who is not interested in much growth and is happy with the way things are is known as

  1. ((a))

    Growth entrepreneur

  2. ((b))

    Life-style entrepreneur

  3. ((c))

    Innovative entrepreneur

  4. ((d))

    Religious entrepreneur

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Life-style entrepreneur

102

Statement I : Innovation is the specific tool of entrepreneurs, the means by which they exploit change as an opportunity for a different business or a different service. Statement II : Innovation is the task of endowing resources with a new capacity to create wealth.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

103

Match List I with List II :

List I (Theories of Entrepreneurship)List II (Main Proponents)
(A) Economic Theory(I) Richard Cantillon
(B) Sociological Theory(II) Max Weber
(C) Psychological Theory(III) David McClelland
(D) Management Theory(IV) Peter Drucker

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

  3. ((c))

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

  4. ((d))

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

104

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a successful entrepreneur?

  1. ((a))

    Risk-taking

  2. ((b))

    Innovation

  3. ((c))

    High need for achievement

  4. ((d))

    Preference for routine tasks

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Preference for routine tasks

105

The process of creating something new with value by devoting the necessary time and effort, assuming the accompanying financial, psychic, and social risks, and receiving the resulting rewards of monetary and personal satisfaction and independence is called

  1. ((a))

    Management

  2. ((b))

    Entrepreneurship

  3. ((c))

    Leadership

  4. ((d))

    Marketing

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Entrepreneurship

106

Intrapreneurship is

  1. ((a))

    Starting a new business outside an existing organization

  2. ((b))

    Entrepreneurial activity within an existing organization

  3. ((c))

    Buying an existing business

  4. ((d))

    Selling a business to another company

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Entrepreneurial activity within an existing organization

107

A business plan is a

  1. ((a))

    Marketing document

  2. ((b))

    Financial document

  3. ((c))

    Roadmap for the business

  4. ((d))

    Legal document

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Roadmap for the business

108

The most common source of seed capital for new ventures is

  1. ((a))

    Venture capital

  2. ((b))

    Personal savings

  3. ((c))

    Bank loans

  4. ((d))

    Government grants

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Personal savings

109

Venture capital is usually provided in the form of

  1. ((a))

    Debt

  2. ((b))

    Equity

  3. ((c))

    Grants

  4. ((d))

    Subsidies

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Equity

110

An "Angel Investor" is :

  1. ((a))

    A wealthy individual who provides capital for a business start-up

  2. ((b))

    A government agency

  3. ((c))

    A bank

  4. ((d))

    A religious organization

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A wealthy individual who provides capital for a business start-up

111

"Sweat Equity" refers to

  1. ((a))

    Equity given for financial investment

  2. ((b))

    Equity given for hard work and effort

  3. ((c))

    Equity given by the government

  4. ((d))

    Equity given by banks

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Equity given for hard work and effort

112

The term "Unicorn" in the context of start-ups refers to a company with a valuation of over

  1. ((a))

    $100 million

  2. ((b))

    $500 million

  3. ((c))

    $1 billion

  4. ((d))

    $10 billion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

$1 billion

113

Which of the following is a type of crowdfunding?

  1. ((a))

    Reward-based

  2. ((b))

    Equity-based

  3. ((c))

    Donation-based

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All of the above

114

A "Pivot" in lean start-up methodology means

  1. ((a))

    Closing the business

  2. ((b))

    Changing the business direction based on feedback

  3. ((c))

    Increasing the workforce

  4. ((d))

    Reducing the price of the product

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Changing the business direction based on feedback

115

"Minimum Viable Product" (MVP) is

  1. ((a))

    The most expensive product

  2. ((b))

    A product with just enough features to satisfy early customers

  3. ((c))

    A finished product

  4. ((d))

    A defective product

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A product with just enough features to satisfy early customers

116

The "Valley of Death" in start-up finance refers to the period between

  1. ((a))

    Launch and break-even

  2. ((b))

    Seed funding and Series A

  3. ((c))

    Idea and prototype

  4. ((d))

    Prototype and market entry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Launch and break-even

117

"Scalability" in a business means

  1. ((a))

    The ability to grow without being hindered by its structure or available resources

  2. ((b))

    The ability to scale down the business

  3. ((c))

    The ability to measure the business

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The ability to grow without being hindered by its structure or available resources

118

A "Series A" round of funding is usually the

  1. ((a))

    First round of venture capital funding

  2. ((b))

    Second round of venture capital funding

  3. ((c))

    Third round of venture capital funding

  4. ((d))

    Final round of venture capital funding

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

First round of venture capital funding

119

"Bootstrapping" means

  1. ((a))

    Starting a company with little capital and relying on personal finances

  2. ((b))

    Getting a bank loan

  3. ((c))

    Getting venture capital

  4. ((d))

    Selling the company

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Starting a company with little capital and relying on personal finances

120

An "Exit Strategy" is a plan for

  1. ((a))

    Closing the business

  2. ((b))

    How the entrepreneur will sell their stake in the business

  3. ((c))

    Entering a new market

  4. ((d))

    Hiring new employees

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

How the entrepreneur will sell their stake in the business

121

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India hold that "the right to life and liberty is not a gift of the Constitution"?

  1. ((a))

    ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla

  2. ((b))

    Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

  3. ((c))

    Francis Coralie Mullin v. The Administrator, Union Territory of Delhi

  4. ((d))

    I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

122

Which of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1935?

  1. ((a))

    Provincial Autonomy

  2. ((b))

    Dyarchy at the Centre

  3. ((c))

    All India Federation

  4. ((d))

    Council of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Council of India

123

Who among the following described the Directive Principles of State Policy as "a cheque on a bank, payable only when the resources of the bank permit"?

  1. ((a))

    B.R. Ambedkar

  2. ((b))

    K.T. Shah

  3. ((c))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  4. ((d))

    B.N. Rau

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

K.T. Shah

124

The concept of "Basic Structure" of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in :

  1. ((a))

    Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Golaknath v. State of Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Minerva Mills v. Union of India

  4. ((d))

    Waman Rao v. Union of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

125

Which of the following is not a ground for the proclamation of Emergency under Article 352?

  1. ((a))

    War

  2. ((b))

    External aggression

  3. ((c))

    Internal disturbance

  4. ((d))

    Armed rebellion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Internal disturbance

126

Who among the following described the Indian Federation as a "bargaining federalism"?

  1. ((a))

    K.C. Wheare

  2. ((b))

    Morris Jones

  3. ((c))

    Granville Austin

  4. ((d))

    Appleby

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Morris Jones

127

Who of the following said that "Preamble is the key-note to the Constitution"?

  1. ((a))

    B.R. Ambedkar

  2. ((b))

    Ernest Barker

  3. ((c))

    K.M. Munshi

  4. ((d))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ernest Barker

128

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution ?

  1. ((a))

    Berubari Union case

  2. ((b))

    Kesavananda Bharati case

  3. ((c))

    Golaknath case

  4. ((d))

    Shankari Prasad case

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kesavananda Bharati case

129

Which of the following is not a feature of the Cabinet Mission Plan ?

  1. ((a))

    Rejection of the demand for Pakistan

  2. ((b))

    Grouping of Provincial Assemblies into three sections

  3. ((c))

    Formation of a Constituent Assembly

  4. ((d))

    Appointment of an Interim Government consisting of representatives from only Congress

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Appointment of an Interim Government consisting of representatives from only Congress

130

Who said, ‘element of interpretation enters into every fact of history’ ?

  1. ((a))

    Kitson Clark

  2. ((b))

    G. M. Trevelyan

  3. ((c))

    March Bloch

  4. ((d))

    E. H. Carr

131

Who among the following described the Indian Constitution as "quasi-federal" ?

  1. ((a))

    Granville Austin

  2. ((b))

    K.C. Wheare

  3. ((c))

    Ivor Jennings

  4. ((d))

    Morris Jones

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

K.C. Wheare

132

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Presidential system of Government ?

  1. ((a))

    Responsibility of the Executive to the Legislature

  2. ((b))

    Fixed tenure of the Executive

  3. ((c))

    Separation of Powers

  4. ((d))

    Single Executive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Responsibility of the Executive to the Legislature

133

Which of the following is not a feature of the Swiss Constitution ?

  1. ((a))

    Plural Executive

  2. ((b))

    Parliamentary Government

  3. ((c))

    Direct Democracy

  4. ((d))

    Federalism

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Parliamentary Government

134

Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of the USA ?

  1. ((a))

    Rigid Constitution

  2. ((b))

    Parliamentary Government

  3. ((c))

    Federalism

  4. ((d))

    Judicial Review

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Parliamentary Government

135

Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of the UK ?

  1. ((a))

    Sovereignty of Parliament

  2. ((b))

    Rule of Law

  3. ((c))

    Federalism

  4. ((d))

    Unitary State

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Federalism

136

Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of France ?

  1. ((a))

    Semi-Presidential System

  2. ((b))

    Unitary State

  3. ((c))

    Sovereignty of Parliament

  4. ((d))

    Council of State

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sovereignty of Parliament

137

Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of Japan ?

  1. ((a))

    Parliamentary Government

  2. ((b))

    Unitary State

  3. ((c))

    Sovereignty of the Emperor

  4. ((d))

    Fundamental Rights

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sovereignty of the Emperor

138

Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of Canada ?

  1. ((a))

    Federalism

  2. ((b))

    Parliamentary Government

  3. ((c))

    Sovereignty of Parliament

  4. ((d))

    Rule of Law

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sovereignty of Parliament

139

Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of Australia ?

  1. ((a))

    Federalism

  2. ((b))

    Parliamentary Government

  3. ((c))

    Sovereignty of Parliament

  4. ((d))

    Rule of Law

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sovereignty of Parliament

140

Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of South Africa ?

  1. ((a))

    Unitary State

  2. ((b))

    Parliamentary Government

  3. ((c))

    Fundamental Rights

  4. ((d))

    Judicial Review

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unitary State

141

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The weeks following India’s entry into the war were full of feverish activity. Lord Linlithgow had interviews with leaders of the various political parties in the country. On 18 October 1939 he issued a statement repeating the ‘clear and positive’ policy of his Majesty's Government that Dominion Status was the natural issue of India’s progress. He announced that at the end of the war consultations would be held with representatives of several communities, parties and interests in India, and with the Indian rulers, with a view to securing their aid and co-operation in the framing of such modifications in the details of the plan embodied in the Government of India Act of 1935 as might seem desirable. He also announced his intention to set up a consultative group, representative of all major political parties in British India and of the rulers, to bring about a closer association of India with the prosecution of the war. Nothing came of this declaration as both the Congress and Muslim League rejected the Viceroy’s offer. The Congress ministries in seven provinces had already resigned and the administration had been taken over by the Governors. In Assam, too, the Congress ministries resigned but an alternative ministry was formed.

Subsequent to resignation of the Assam Congress Ministries

  1. ((a))

    the Governor ruled till the end of the war

  2. ((b))

    no ministry was formed and the Governor was requested to rule for 10 years

  3. ((c))

    the Lt. Governor claimed to rule for 5 years

  4. ((d))

    an alternative ministry was formed.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

an alternative ministry was formed.

142

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The weeks following India’s entry into the war were full of feverish activity. Lord Linlithgow had interviews with leaders of the various political parties in the country. On 18 October 1939 he issued a statement repeating the ‘clear and positive’ policy of his Majesty's Government that Dominion Status was the natural issue of India’s progress. He announced that at the end of the war consultations would be held with representatives of several communities, parties and interests in India, and with the Indian rulers, with a view to securing their aid and co-operation in the framing of such modifications in the details of the plan embodied in the Government of India Act of 1935 as might seem desirable. He also announced his intention to set up a consultative group, representative of all major political parties in British India and of the rulers, to bring about a closer association of India with the prosecution of the war. Nothing came of this declaration as both the Congress and Muslim League rejected the Viceroy’s offer. The Congress ministries in seven provinces had already resigned and the administration had been taken over by the Governors. In Assam, too, the Congress ministries resigned but an alternative ministry was formed.

Why did the Viceroy Linlithgow set a Consultative Group ?

  1. ((a))

    to include them in Imperial Legislative Council

  2. ((b))

    to impeach the Governor

  3. ((c))

    to work out a closer association of India in the war

  4. ((d))

    to oppose the Muslim League

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

to work out a closer association of India in the war

143

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The weeks following India’s entry into the war were full of feverish activity. Lord Linlithgow had interviews with leaders of the various political parties in the country. On 18 October 1939 he issued a statement repeating the ‘clear and positive’ policy of his Majesty's Government that Dominion Status was the natural issue of India’s progress. He announced that at the end of the war consultations would be held with representatives of several communities, parties and interests in India, and with the Indian rulers, with a view to securing their aid and co-operation in the framing of such modifications in the details of the plan embodied in the Government of India Act of 1935 as might seem desirable. He also announced his intention to set up a consultative group, representative of all major political parties in British India and of the rulers, to bring about a closer association of India with the prosecution of the war. Nothing came of this declaration as both the Congress and Muslim League rejected the Viceroy’s offer. The Congress ministries in seven provinces had already resigned and the administration had been taken over by the Governors. In Assam, too, the Congress ministries resigned but an alternative ministry was formed.

In how many Provinces the Congress Ministries resigned ?

  1. ((a))

    Six

  2. ((b))

    Eight

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Seven

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Seven

144

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The weeks following India’s entry into the war were full of feverish activity. Lord Linlithgow had interviews with leaders of the various political parties in the country. On 18 October 1939 he issued a statement repeating the ‘clear and positive’ policy of his Majesty's Government that Dominion Status was the natural issue of India’s progress. He announced that at the end of the war consultations would be held with representatives of several communities, parties and interests in India, and with the Indian rulers, with a view to securing their aid and co-operation in the framing of such modifications in the details of the plan embodied in the Government of India Act of 1935 as might seem desirable. He also announced his intention to set up a consultative group, representative of all major political parties in British India and of the rulers, to bring about a closer association of India with the prosecution of the war. Nothing came of this declaration as both the Congress and Muslim League rejected the Viceroy’s offer. The Congress ministries in seven provinces had already resigned and the administration had been taken over by the Governors. In Assam, too, the Congress ministries resigned but an alternative ministry was formed.

When did Linlithgow issue ‘clear and positive’ policy Dominion Status ?

  1. ((a))

    1934

  2. ((b))

    1936

  3. ((c))

    1939

  4. ((d))

    1947

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1939

145

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The weeks following India’s entry into the war were full of feverish activity. Lord Linlithgow had interviews with leaders of the various political parties in the country. On 18 October 1939 he issued a statement repeating the ‘clear and positive’ policy of his Majesty's Government that Dominion Status was the natural issue of India’s progress. He announced that at the end of the war consultations would be held with representatives of several communities, parties and interests in India, and with the Indian rulers, with a view to securing their aid and co-operation in the framing of such modifications in the details of the plan embodied in the Government of India Act of 1935 as might seem desirable. He also announced his intention to set up a consultative group, representative of all major political parties in British India and of the rulers, to bring about a closer association of India with the prosecution of the war. Nothing came of this declaration as both the Congress and Muslim League rejected the Viceroy’s offer. The Congress ministries in seven provinces had already resigned and the administration had been taken over by the Governors. In Assam, too, the Congress ministries resigned but an alternative ministry was formed.

The Viceroy in his statement had intention to hold consultation with :

  1. ((a))

    Indian rulers

  2. ((b))

    Governors of various Presidencies

  3. ((c))

    Commanders of British Army

  4. ((d))

    Law Members of the Council

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indian rulers

146

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The very use of language commits the historian, like the scientist, to generalization. The Peloponnesian War and the Second World War were very different, and both were unique. But the historian calls them both wars, and only the pedant will protest. When Gibbon wrote of both the establishment of Christianity by Constantine and the rise of Islam as revolutions, he was generalizing two unique events. Modern historians do the same when they write of the English, French, Russian and Chinese revolutions. The historian is not really interested in the unique, but in what is general in the unique. In the 1920s discussions by historians of the causes of the war of 1914 usually proceeded on the assumption that it was due either to the mismanagement of diplomats, working in secret and uncontrolled by public opinion, or to the unfortunate division of the world into territorial sovereign states. In the 1930s discussions proceeded on the assumption that it was due to rivalries between imperialist powers driven by the stresses of capitalism in decline to partition the world between them. These discussions all involved generalization about the causes of war, or at any rate of war in twentieth-century conditions. The historian constantly uses generalization to test the evidence. If the evidence is not whether Richard murdered the princes in the Tower, the historian will ask himself - perhaps unconsciously rather than consciously - whether it was a habit of rulers of the period to liquidate potential rivals to their throne; and his judgement will, quite rightly, be influenced by this generalization.

Historian Gibbon discussed the decline of :

  1. ((a))

    Roman Empire

  2. ((b))

    Ottoman Empire

  3. ((c))

    Greek Empire

  4. ((d))

    Mauryan Empire

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Roman Empire

147

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The very use of language commits the historian, like the scientist, to generalization. The Peloponnesian War and the Second World War were very different, and both were unique. But the historian calls them both wars, and only the pedant will protest. When Gibbon wrote of both the establishment of Christianity by Constantine and the rise of Islam as revolutions, he was generalizing two unique events. Modern historians do the same when they write of the English, French, Russian and Chinese revolutions. The historian is not really interested in the unique, but in what is general in the unique. In the 1920s discussions by historians of the causes of the war of 1914 usually proceeded on the assumption that it was due either to the mismanagement of diplomats, working in secret and uncontrolled by public opinion, or to the unfortunate division of the world into territorial sovereign states. In the 1930s discussions proceeded on the assumption that it was due to rivalries between imperialist powers driven by the stresses of capitalism in decline to partition the world between them. These discussions all involved generalization about the causes of war, or at any rate of war in twentieth-century conditions. The historian constantly uses generalization to test the evidence. If the evidence is not whether Richard murdered the princes in the Tower, the historian will ask himself - perhaps unconsciously rather than consciously - whether it was a habit of rulers of the period to liquidate potential rivals to their throne; and his judgement will, quite rightly, be influenced by this generalization.

The historian is concerned with :

  1. ((a))

    Non-Strategic Facts

  2. ((b))

    Fiction and Myths

  3. ((c))

    Rumors and Reflections

  4. ((d))

    General in the Unique

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

General in the Unique

148

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The very use of language commits the historian, like the scientist, to generalization. The Peloponnesian War and the Second World War were very different, and both were unique. But the historian calls them both wars, and only the pedant will protest. When Gibbon wrote of both the establishment of Christianity by Constantine and the rise of Islam as revolutions, he was generalizing two unique events. Modern historians do the same when they write of the English, French, Russian and Chinese revolutions. The historian is not really interested in the unique, but in what is general in the unique. In the 1920s discussions by historians of the causes of the war of 1914 usually proceeded on the assumption that it was due either to the mismanagement of diplomats, working in secret and uncontrolled by public opinion, or to the unfortunate division of the world into territorial sovereign states. In the 1930s discussions proceeded on the assumption that it was due to rivalries between imperialist powers driven by the stresses of capitalism in decline to partition the world between them. These discussions all involved generalization about the causes of war, or at any rate of war in twentieth-century conditions. The historian constantly uses generalization to test the evidence. If the evidence is not whether Richard murdered the princes in the Tower, the historian will ask himself - perhaps unconsciously rather than consciously - whether it was a habit of rulers of the period to liquidate potential rivals to their throne; and his judgement will, quite rightly, be influenced by this generalization.

Which of the following are Communist revolution ?

  1. ((a))

    English and French

  2. ((b))

    French and Russian

  3. ((c))

    Russian and English

  4. ((d))

    Russian and Chinese

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Russian and Chinese

149

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The very use of language commits the historian, like the scientist, to generalization. The Peloponnesian War and the Second World War were very different, and both were unique. But the historian calls them both wars, and only the pedant will protest. When Gibbon wrote of both the establishment of Christianity by Constantine and the rise of Islam as revolutions, he was generalizing two unique events. Modern historians do the same when they write of the English, French, Russian and Chinese revolutions. The historian is not really interested in the unique, but in what is general in the unique. In the 1920s discussions by historians of the causes of the war of 1914 usually proceeded on the assumption that it was due either to the mismanagement of diplomats, working in secret and uncontrolled by public opinion, or to the unfortunate division of the world into territorial sovereign states. In the 1930s discussions proceeded on the assumption that it was due to rivalries between imperialist powers driven by the stresses of capitalism in decline to partition the world between them. These discussions all involved generalization about the causes of war, or at any rate of war in twentieth-century conditions. The historian constantly uses generalization to test the evidence. If the evidence is not whether Richard murdered the princes in the Tower, the historian will ask himself - perhaps unconsciously rather than consciously - whether it was a habit of rulers of the period to liquidate potential rivals to their throne; and his judgement will, quite rightly, be influenced by this generalization.

Which of the following is cause of 1914 war ?

  1. ((a))

    Mismanagement of diplomats

  2. ((b))

    Political equilibrium

  3. ((c))

    Peaceful public opinion

  4. ((d))

    Constructed public opinion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mismanagement of diplomats

150

Read the following passage and answer the questions :

‘The very use of language commits the historian, like the scientist, to generalization. The Peloponnesian War and the Second World War were very different, and both were unique. But the historian calls them both wars, and only the pedant will protest. When Gibbon wrote of both the establishment of Christianity by Constantine and the rise of Islam as revolutions, he was generalizing two unique events. Modern historians do the same when they write of the English, French, Russian and Chinese revolutions. The historian is not really interested in the unique, but in what is general in the unique. In the 1920s discussions by historians of the causes of the war of 1914 usually proceeded on the assumption that it was due either to the mismanagement of diplomats, working in secret and uncontrolled by public opinion, or to the unfortunate division of the world into territorial sovereign states. In the 1930s discussions proceeded on the assumption that it was due to rivalries between imperialist powers driven by the stresses of capitalism in decline to partition the world between them. These discussions all involved generalization about the causes of war, or at any rate of war in twentieth-century conditions. The historian constantly uses generalization to test the evidence. If the evidence is not whether Richard murdered the princes in the Tower, the historian will ask himself - perhaps unconsciously rather than consciously - whether it was a habit of rulers of the period to liquidate potential rivals to their throne; and his judgement will, quite rightly, be influenced by this generalization.

How historian test their evidence ?

  1. ((a))

    By negating the evidence

  2. ((b))

    By destroying the evidence

  3. ((c))

    By discarding the evidence

  4. ((d))

    By generalising the evidence

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

By generalising the evidence

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