Official Paper

Chhattisgarh Teacher (SETE) Official Paper (Held On: 11 Aug, 2019) (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Child Development & Pedagogy (30 questions)

1

Learning is:

  1. ((a))

    A change in behaviour

  2. ((b))

    The result of experience and practice

  3. ((c))

    Relatively permanent change in behaviour

  4. ((d))

    All the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All the above

Learning is defined as a process of behavior modification through experiences, exercise, and efforts. Learning is a fundamental and life-long process. Attitudes, fears, gestures, motor skills, language skills, etc. are the products of learning.

Key Points There are the following characteristics of learning:

  • Learning may be defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as the result of prior experience.
  • Learning is a development that comes from exercise and effort. Through learning, children acquire competence in using their hereditary resources.
  • Learning leads to changes in behavior but this does not necessarily mean that these changes always bring about improvement or positive development.
  • Learning involves all those experiences and training of an individual (right from birth) which help her/him to produce changes in behavior.
  • Learning helps the individual to adjust herself/himself adequately and adapt to the changes that may be necessary to the new situations.

Hence, we can conclude that Learning involves the relative change in behavior as a result of experience and practice. Thus the correct answer is all of the above.

2

An effective school practice is:

  1. ((a))

    Continuous comparative evaluation

  2. ((b))

    Corporal punishment

  3. ((c))

    Competitive classroom

  4. ((d))

    Individualized learning

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Individualized learning

Individualized learning, also known as individualized instruction, is a teaching strategy in which the subject matter, teaching tools, and learning pace are determined by the aptitudes and interests of each student.

Key Points 

  • Individualized learning is a method of instruction that tailors the learning experience to the individual needs of each student.
  • It takes into account students' learning styles, interests, and abilities, and provides them with the support and resources they need to succeed.
  • It recognizes that all students learn differently and that no one size fits all.
  • Individualized learning helps Students to reach their full potential and become lifelong learners.

Hence we can conclude that individualized learning is the most effective school practice. 

Additional Information

  • Continuous comparative evaluation is a method of assessment that compares students' performance to that of their peers. This can be a demoralizing and stressful experience for students, and it does not provide them with the feedback they need to improve.
  • Corporal punishment is the use of physical force to punish students. It is a harmful and ineffective way to discipline students, and it can lead to long-term negative consequences.
  • Competitive classrooms are classrooms where students are encouraged to compete with each other for grades and recognition. This can create a hostile and stressful environment, and it can lead to students feeling anxious and insecure.
3

The best method to study growth and development of child is:

  1. ((a))

    Psychoanalytical method

  2. ((b))

    Comparative method

  3. ((c))

    Developmental method

  4. ((d))

    Statistical method

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Developmental method

The developmental method is the scientific study of how and why humans grow, change, and adapt across the course of their lives. Originally concerned with infants and children, the field has expanded to include adolescence, adult development, aging, and the entire lifespan.

Key Points 

  • The Developmental method involves studying children of different ages to see how they change over time.
  • Developmental Method aims to explain how thinking, feeling, and behaviors change throughout life.
  • Developmental Method of studying children use a variety of techniques to study children, including observation, interviews, and tests.

Hence, We can conclude that The best method to study the growth and development of a child is the developmental method.

Additional Information

  • Psychoanalytical method is a method of therapy that focuses on the unconscious mind. It is not a good method for studying growth and development because it does not focus on the observable changes that occur in children over time.
  • Comparative method is a method of research that compares different groups of people. It is not a good method for studying growth and development because it does not allow psychologists to see how children change over time.
  • Statistical method is a method of analyzing data. It is not a good method for studying growth and development because it does not allow psychologists to see how children change over time.
4

Which of the following is appropriate for the environment conducive to thinking and learning in children?

  1. ((a))

    Listening to teachers for long periods silently

  2. ((b))

    Increase in homeworks

  3. ((c))

    Learning by doing

  4. ((d))

    Allowing students to take some decisions about what to learn and how to learn

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Allowing students to take some decisions about what to learn and how to learn

Conducive learning and thinking environment refers to an environment that is free of distraction and disruption. It introduces a new dimension to educational experiences.

Key Points A conducive learning environment could be made more constant and enlivening by allowing students to take some decisions about what and how to learn as it will: 

  • Promote the child-centered approach to education.
  • Get students to focus on you now and then by not keeping slides up for too long.
  • Give primacy to children's experiences and needs.
  • Allow children to work at their own pace freely and willingly.
  • Provide them opportunities to foster their own strategy of learning.

Hence, it becomes clear that allowing students to make some decisions, is appropriate for a conducive environment.

5

"It is normally distributed in nature, it is a joint product of both heredity and environment; it grows with age and its vertical growth ceases at the age of 16 to 20". This passage is related to:

  1. ((a))

    Growth

  2. ((b))

    Development

  3. ((c))

    Intelligence

  4. ((d))

    Interaction

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Intelligence

Intelligence involves a number of abilities together. It is the ability to understand the incoming information and make sense of it. It is the ability to acquire new skills and use the existing knowledge to complete a task or deal with a situation. 

Key Points

  • Environment and heredity combine for developing intelligence. One cannot be seen as more significant than the other because both are crucial components of one's intellectual development.
  • The degree of intelligence varies from person to person, from age to age, and from situation to situation.
  • Intelligence increases with age, but only to a point. The age at which mental development stops differs from person to person.
  • Normally, intelligence reaches its maximum, somewhat at the age of 16 to 20 in the individual, when vertical growth ceases.

Hence we can conclude that the above passage is related to Intelligence.

6

Principle of Motivation:

  1. ((a))

    Stresses on encouraging students.

  2. ((b))

    Tell students to practice.

  3. ((c))

    Asks to recapitulate what is learned.

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stresses on encouraging students.

Motivation is the process that initiates, guides and maintains goal-oriented behavior. It is the process of stimulating people to action for accomplishing the goal.

Key Points

 

  • Motivation is an important element of self-understanding and learning.
  • Motivation energizes the individual to act or behave in a manner at a time for attaining some specific goal.
  • It is simply the reason for an action and that which gives purpose and direction to behavior.
  • There are two primary types of motivation namely, intrinsic motivation and extrinsic motivation.
  • The principle of motivation is to encourage students to learn and grow.
  • It helps to sustain attention in one’s efforts or tasks.

Hence, We can conclude that the Principle of motivation stresses on encouraging students.

7

What has been considered as a process of correcting behaviour by training?

  1. ((a))

    Teaching

  2. ((b))

    Learning

  3. ((c))

    Motivation

  4. ((d))

    Instructions

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Learning

Learning is a relatively permanent change in personality (including cognitive, affective, attitudinal, motivational, behavioral, and experiential) and reflects a change in performance usually brought about by practice although it may arise from insight or other factors, including memory.

Key Points

 Given below are some statements about learning for you to read and ponder:

  • Learning is the process of being modified, more or less permanently, by what happens in the world around us, by what we do, or by what we observe.
  • Learning is the process by which behavior is originated or changed through training procedures (whether in the natural environment or in the laboratory).
  • Learning is a process by which the individual acquires various habits, knowledge, and attitude that are necessary to meet the demands of life in general.
  • Learning is defined as a process of behavior modification through experiences, exercise, and efforts. Learning is a fundamental and life-long process.
  • Attitudes, fears, gestures, motor skills, language skills, etc. are the products of learning.

Hence, We can conclude that Learning has been considered as a process of correcting behavior through training.

8

School based assessment is primarily based on the principal that:

  1. ((a))

    Teachers know their learners capabilities better than the external examiner.

  2. ((b))

    Students should at all cost get higher grades.

  3. ((c))

    Schools are more efficient than external body of examination.

  4. ((d))

    Assessment should be very economical.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Teachers know their learners capabilities better than the external examiner.

Assessment is done to determine the outcomes (what students have learned), process (the way they learned), and their approach to the learning before, during, or after the program or course.

Key Points 

  • According to the National Curriculum Framework 2005 (NCF-2005),  the aim of education should be not to get good grades to pass the examination that only encourages rote memorization among students but to provide direct and first-hand experiences that will encourage the permanent learning of concepts.
  • The school-based assessment (SBA) is a systematic process held under the full control of school organizations and teachers to help the students in their individual learning.
  • SBA helps a teacher in diagnosing the learning problems of a child as well as his achievements that will help to decide the further action i.e., the child should be taken to the next level of learning or he needs to go through the remediation to remove the learning errors.
  • It provides information /reports on the progress of students in scholastic and co-scholastic areas and thus helps in predicting the future success of learners.
  • The external examiner will only come to examine the students on a specific day with a special purpose of evaluation. He will be unaware of the student's capabilities and weaknesses.
  • If an intelligent child could not prepare well (because of illness, or other issues) for the assessment and performed not so well in the examination. The external examiner who is unaware of the child's capabilities will judge him only for that and will give him average or below-average grades.
  • On the contrary, if he is being assessed by his own teacher who knows him well, his strengths and weaknesses, he will judge him for his behavior, and achievements on a daily basis and will be able to give a fair grade.

Hence, a school-based assessment is primarily based on the principle that teachers at the school know their learners' capabilities better than external examiners.

9

The socially deviant individuals deviate because :

  1. ((a))

    They are not properly socialized.

  2. ((b))

    They don't conform to social norms.

  3. ((c))

    They are not live in groups.

  4. ((d))

    They don't follow effective strategies.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

They don't conform to social norms.

Social deviance, broadly defined, applies to any behavior, belief, or appearance that violates prevailing social norms.

Key Points 

  • Norms are social standards concerning what members of a group expect and believe is acceptable conduct in a given situation.
  • The power of norms to govern individual behavior derives from the perception that others endorse and will enforce the normative standards.
  • When an individual's or a minority group's behavior, belief, or appearance deviates from normative standards, the individual or the group members risk becoming the target of social disapproval and other forms of punishment.
  • Socially deviant behavior is behavior that violates the normative rules, understandings, or expectations of social systems.

Hence, We can conclude that Socially deviant individuals deviate because they don't conform to social norms.

10

In an inclusive classroom children demonstrate which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Increased acceptance of diverse learners

  2. ((b))

    Better communication and social skills

  3. ((c))

    Greater development in moral and ethical principles

  4. ((d))

    All the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All the above

Inclusive education ensures that children with special needs are taught in regular schools with their age and grade peers with support services provided within the school system. Thus, it reflects the objective of providing quality education to all children by accommodating their needs and learning styles into the general curriculum.

Key Points

 There are the following characteristic features of the inclusive classroom:

  • Flexibility in learning.
  • It creates an environment in which the child can learn with diversity, not creating a special environment for learning.
  • In inclusive classrooms, students develop better moral and ethical principles.
  • Students in an inclusive classroom show increased acceptance of diverse learners.
  • An inclusive classroom meets the individual learning needs of children using a variety of media and allows equal opportunities to learn and grow by making the school a friendly place for all children and helping them to develop better communication and social skills.
  • Emphasis on their learning to read instead of emphasizing teaching.
  • Uses different teaching methods according to the needs of each student, so that every child can have access to the knowledge.

Hence, we can conclude that all the options are correct regarding Inclusive education.

11

Learners cannot learn unless:

  1. ((a))

    they are taught according to the needs of social aims of education.

  2. ((b))

    they know that the lesson being taught will be tested in the near future.

  3. ((c))

    they are prepared to learn.

  4. ((d))

    children are asked about their learning in school by their parents at home on a daily basis.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

they are prepared to learn.

Learning means a relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience with the environment. Learning is a process of acquiring knowledge and remembering information so that it may be applied to life situations.

Key Points 

  • Learning is fostered when the learner has opportunities to practice the new information, receive feedback, and apply the knowledge or skill in familiar and unfamiliar situations, with less and less assistance from others.
  • Psychological needs exist in the form of certain wants or desires that are unique to us.
  • They are important since they influence what we want to learn and how much time, energy, and effort we are willing to learn.
  • The dominant needs at any given point in time will determine what the individual is likely to learn and do.
  • Learners cannot learn unless he is not ready or prepared to learn or does not have any psychological need.
  • It is also very important to know the pattern of interests that individuals have, it is a rich source of knowing them and understanding the nature of their learning.
  • What we learn, why we learn, and, how well we learn are influenced by a number of factors. These include learner-centered factors like motivation, needs, self-concept, interests, etc.
  • Teacher and task-related factors such as teaching style, classroom ethos, transactional skills, methodology, etc., and environmental factors such as the physical and psychological structures in which learning occurs.

Hence, We can conclude that Learners can not learn unless they are prepared to learn.

12

The Individualized Education Program (IEP) must be based solely on:

  1. ((a))

    the student's needs.

  2. ((b))

    pre-existing programs.

  3. ((c))

    service available in the district.

  4. ((d))

    recommendations of the general educator.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the student's needs.

An Individualized Education Program is known as an IEP. This is a plan or program designed to ensure that a learner with a recognized disability who participates in an elementary or secondary educational institution receives specialized instruction and related assistance.

Key Points

  • An Individualized Education Program (IEP) is a written education plan designed to meet a child’s learning needs.
  • The Individualized Education Program (IEP) is a written plan/program developed by the school's special education team with input from the parents and specifies the student's academic goals and the method to obtain these goals.
  • Thus, the main purpose of the IEP is to provide appropriate education and training to every child with a disability, including those with mental retardation.
  • The IEP developed for the child will work best when the parents and the professionals come together as equal participants to identify the child's needs, how they will be met, and what the expected outcomes may be.
  • IEP uses cooperative learning strategies by including students, teachers, parents, and school administrators to ensure effective teaching-learning for all children with disabilities.
  • IEP doesn't separate children based on ability grouping, rather than it focuses on the student working together to improve educational results.

Hence, we can conclude that an Individualized Education Program (IEP) must be based solely on the student's needs.

13

Which statement is not related to mental development from the statements given below?

  1. ((a))

    Weight and height of the learner

  2. ((b))

    Logic and judgment

  3. ((c))

    Development of memory

  4. ((d))

    Conceptual capacity

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Weight and height of the learner

Mental development refers to the development that enables a child to explore and process information to learn and understand the things around him.

Key Points

  • Mental development is a complex process that is influenced by a variety of factors, including genetics, environment, and experiences.
  • Mental development involves the expansion of intelligence as well as linguistic skills, as well as capacities like attending, perceiving, observing, remembering, envisioning, and thinking.
  • Mental development involves the development of logic and judgment.  Logic is the ability to think logically and to follow a logical sequence of steps. Judgment is the ability to make decisions based on evidence and reason.
  • Mental development involves the development of memory. The development of memory is the process of increasing the capacity to store and retrieve information.
  • Mental development involves the development of the conceptual capacity of the individual.
  • Conceptual capacity is the ability to understand and use abstract concepts. Abstract concepts are ideas that cannot be seen or touched, such as love, justice, or freedom.
  • Weight and height of the learner are physical characteristics that are not directly related to mental development.

Hence we can conclude that the weight and height of the learner are not related to mental development.

14

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) students generally display cognitive delays and have difficulties in which of the following areas?

  1. ((a))

    Attention

  2. ((b))

    Mental retardation

  3. ((c))

    Impulse control

  4. ((d))

    (1) and (3) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(1) and (3) only

ADHD (Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder) leads to problems with poor attention, hyperactivity, and also have difficulty controlling behavior and these symptoms depend upon the person’s age.

Key Points 

Typical Behaviors Associated with ADHD are:

  • ​As the child with ADHD lacks attention and is hyperactive, the child loses interest in studies and may end up having learning disabilities like dyscalculia and/or dyslexia.
  • ADHD can develop in childhood and sometimes may continue in adulthood also.
  • Children have poorly sustained attention in all situations.
  • Diminished persistence in tasks not having immediate consequences.
  • Children face difficulties in controlling their Impulses.
  • More active or restless than normal children.
  • Difficulty in adhering to the rules and regulations.

Hence, We can conclude that Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) students generally display cognitive delays and have difficulties in both Attention and impulse control.

15

The term comprehensive evaluation implies for:

  1. ((a))

    Evaluation conducted at several points of time

  2. ((b))

    Evaluation by group of teachers

  3. ((c))

    Evaluation of scholastic and co-scholastic aspects of Pupil's growth

  4. ((d))

    Several tests for long hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Evaluation of scholastic and co-scholastic aspects of Pupil's growth

CCE refers to a school-based evaluation, which covers all aspects of school activities related to a child’s development. It emphasizes twofold objectives such as continuity of evaluation and assessment of learning outcomes in a comprehensive manner. It covers all the domains of learning i.e. cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains.

Key Points

  • The term ‘comprehensive’ implies that the evaluation of learners’ performance is carried out in both scholastic and co-scholastic areas.
  • First, CCE is comprehensive in nature as it takes care of the achievement of learners in various school subjects from science, mathematics, languages, social science, work education, and physical health activities as well as includes the assessment of co-scholastic abilities like attitude, values, life skills, interests, habits, etc.
  • Second, CCE is comprehensive in nature in terms of tools and techniques used for the evaluation of learners.
  • It includes various tools like observations, interviews, rating scales, checklists, document analyses, portfolios, anecdotal records, and techniques of assessment like assignments, projects, quizzes, debates, discussions, club activities, performances, experiments, etc.
  • Third, CCE is comprehensive in nature as it is used for assessing various learning outcomes like knowing, understanding, applying, analyzing, evaluating, and creating.
  • It is also used to evaluate learners’ progress in all three domains i.e. cognitive, affective, and psycho-motor, whereas the conventional evaluation system was limited to the cognitive domain only.

Hence, We can conclude that The term comprehensive evaluation implies for evaluation of scholastic and co-scholastic aspects of a Pupil's growth.

16

Which of the following factors supports learning in a classroom?

  1. ((a))

    Increasing the number of class tests

  2. ((b))

    Supporting the autonomy of children by the teachers

  3. ((c))

    Sticking to one particular method of teaching to maintain uniformity

  4. ((d))

    Increasing the time interval of periods from 40 minutes to 50 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Supporting the autonomy of children by the teachers

Learning is a complex process influenced by multiple factors, such as teacher-student relationships, instructional strategies, curriculum design, classroom environment, and individual student characteristics. Creating a supportive and engaging learning environment that addresses the diverse needs of students is key to promoting effective learning in a classroom.

Key Points

  • Supporting the autonomy of children by the teachers: Supporting autonomy means giving students the opportunity to take ownership of their learning, make decisions, and engage in self-directed activities. This approach promotes motivation, curiosity, and a sense of responsibility, which can enhance learning outcomes.
  • While assessments can be useful for evaluating students' understanding and progress, increasing the number of tests alone may not necessarily support learning. Excessive testing can create stress and pressure, focusing more on memorization and regurgitation rather than fostering a deeper understanding and critical thinking.
  • Restricting teaching to one method can limit the effectiveness of instruction. Students have diverse learning styles and preferences, and using a variety of teaching methods can cater to these individual differences. Flexibility in teaching methods allows for more engagement, active participation, and better comprehension among students.
  • While extending the time of each period may provide more opportunities for in-depth discussions or activities, it is not a standalone factor that guarantees improved learning outcomes. The effectiveness of longer periods depends on various factors, including the teaching strategies employed, student engagement, and classroom dynamics.

Hence, we can conclude that supporting the autonomy of children by the teacher's is the factor that supports learning in a classroom.

17

Which of the following is not a component of three dimensional theory of Guilford?

  1. ((a))

    Operations

  2. ((b))

    Abilities

  3. ((c))

    Products

  4. ((d))

    Contents

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Abilities

Intelligence refers to the capacity to acquire and apply knowledge. It is the ability to solve problems, learn from experiences, and apply knowledge to deal with new situations.

  • There are many theories related to intelligence. These theories are propounded by eminent psychologists to provide a framework to understand different aspects of human intelligence.

Key Points

Three-dimensional Model of Intelligence 

  • J. P. Guilford developed the Three-dimensional Model or Structure of Intellect Model as a way of organizing intellectual factors into a system.
  • The model is three-dimensional, and dimensions are Operation categories, Content Categories, and Product categories.
  • According to this theory, There are
  • 6 kinds of operations (cognition, memory recording, memory retention, divergent production, convergent production, evaluation),
  • 6 kinds of products (units, classes, relations, systems, transformations, and implications), and
  • 5 kinds of contents (visual, auditory, symbolic, semantic, behavioral).
  • Each of these dimensions is independent, there are theoretically 180 different components of intelligence.
  • Guilford researched and developed a wide variety of psychometric tests to measure the specific abilities predicted by SI theory.
  • These tests provide an operational definition of the many abilities proposed by the theory. Furthermore, factor analysis was used to determine which tests appeared to measure the same or different abilities.

Hence, it is clear that the abilities is not a component of three-dimensional theory of Guilford.

18

The normal 12 year old child is most likely to:

  1. ((a))

    Have difficulty with gross motor coordination.

  2. ((b))

    Have anxiety feelings about pleasing adults

  3. ((c))

    Confine his/her interests to the 'here and now'

  4. ((d))

    Be eager for peer approval

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Be eager for peer approval

At the age of 12, children typically develop a strong desire for peer approval. This means that they seek validation and acceptance from their peers, placing a high value on being liked and included by their friends and classmates. Peer relationships become increasingly important during this stage of development.

Key Points

  • There are several reasons why 12-year-olds are eager for peer approval. One significant factor is the desire to fit in and be accepted by their social group. They want to be seen as "cool" or "popular" and may be influenced by what their peers think and do.
  • During this stage, children may start conforming to group norms and adopting behaviors and interests that are popular among their peers. They may prioritize activities and hobbies that are well-regarded within their social circle.
  • It's important to note that while seeking peer approval is a common characteristic at this age, not all children will exhibit the same level of eagerness or conformist behavior. Individual differences, personality traits, and upbringing can influence the extent to which a child seeks peer approval.
  • Understanding the significance of peer approval at this stage can help parents, educators, and caregivers provide support and guidance to help children navigate social dynamics, build healthy relationships, and develop a strong sense of self-worth.

Hint

  • By the age of 12, most children have developed adequate gross motor coordination. They have gone through years of physical development and practice in activities such as running, jumping, and throwing. While individual differences exist, significant difficulties with gross motor coordination would be less common at this age.
  • 12-year-olds may experience some anxiety or pressure related to meeting adult expectations, it is not the most likely characteristic for this age group. At this stage, children are typically more focused on peer relationships and seeking approval from their friends rather than solely pleasing adults.
  • 12-year-olds may have a more concrete and immediate focus compared to older adolescents, it is not accurate to say that their interests are solely confined to the 'here and now.'

Hence, we can conclude that the normal 12-year-old child is most likely to be eager for peer approval.

19

A child always sympathizes with other child. This is which habit?

  1. ((a))

    Thinking habit

  2. ((b))

    Emotional habit

  3. ((c))

    Vascular habit

  4. ((d))

    Moral habit

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Emotional habit

A child always sympathizes with other children, is an emotional habit. Sympathy is an emotional response characterized by feelings of compassion, concern, or sorrow for someone else's situation or emotions. It involves understanding and sharing the emotions of others, which is a key aspect of empathy.

Key Points

  • Emotional habits refer to consistent patterns of emotional responses that individuals develop over time. These habits are shaped by a combination of innate tendencies, personal experiences, and social influences. They are deeply ingrained and can have a significant impact on how individuals perceive and interact with the world around them.
  • In the case of a child who consistently sympathizes with other children, this emotional habit indicates a natural inclination towards empathy and compassion. Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of others, while compassion involves a genuine concern for their well-being.
  • When a child consistently exhibits sympathy towards other children, it suggests that they are attuned to the emotions and experiences of their peers. They may feel deeply moved or affected by the struggles, pain, or sadness that other children may be experiencing. This emotional habit can manifest as a willingness to offer support, comfort, or assistance to those in need.
  • Children who possess a strong emotional habit of sympathy often demonstrate traits such as kindness, understanding, and a desire to help others.

In conclusion, a child who consistently sympathizes with other children demonstrates an emotional habit rooted in empathy and compassion. This habit reflects their ability to understand and share the emotions of others, and it plays a crucial role in their social and emotional development.

20

NCF 2005 emphasizes the most is:

  1. ((a))

    To solve hard questions

  2. ((b))

    To memorise the concepts

  3. ((c))

    On construction of knowledge

  4. ((d))

    To do mathematics speedily

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

On construction of knowledge

The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) 2005 is an education policy document in India that provides guidelines for school curriculum development. 

Key Points

  • The NCF 2005 emphasizes a constructivist approach to learning, which focuses on students actively constructing their knowledge and understanding through hands-on experiences, problem-solving, critical thinking, and inquiry-based learning.
  • The framework emphasizes the development of higher-order thinking skills, application of knowledge to real-life situations, and fostering a deep understanding of concepts rather than rote memorization.
  • It promotes a student-centered approach to education that encourages active engagement and the ability to think critically and creatively.

Hence, we can conclude that NCF 2005 emphasizes that most is on construction of knowledge.

21

Which of the following is cognitive process?

  1. ((a))

    Playing

  2. ((b))

    Retrograde actions

  3. ((c))

    Thinking

  4. ((d))

    Running

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Thinking

The cognitive process among the options you provided is "thinking." Thinking refers to the mental process of generating thoughts, ideas, and concepts through perception, reasoning, and memory. It involves various cognitive activities such as problem-solving, decision-making, imagination, and planning. Playing and running, on the other hand, are physical activities, while retrograde actions do not describe a specific cognitive process.

Key PointsCognitive process of thinking, it is a fundamental mental activity that involves various cognitive functions and processes. Here are some key aspects of thinking:

  • Perception: Thinking begins with perceiving information from our environment through our senses. It involves receiving and interpreting sensory input, such as seeing, hearing, smelling, tasting, and touching.
  • Reasoning: Once we have perceived information, we engage in reasoning, which involves making logical connections, drawing conclusions, and evaluating relationships between different ideas or pieces of information. Reasoning allows us to make sense of the world, solve problems, and make decisions based on available information.
  • Memory: Thinking is influenced by our memory, which allows us to retrieve and recall past experiences, knowledge, and information. Memory plays a crucial role in thinking as it provides a basis for making comparisons, connections, and associations between different elements.
  • Problem-solving: One important cognitive process within thinking is problem-solving. When faced with a challenge or obstacle, our thinking processes are engaged to analyze the problem, generate possible solutions, evaluate their feasibility, and select the most appropriate course of action.
  • Imagination and creativity: Thinking also involves the ability to imagine and create mental representations that go beyond immediate sensory input. Imagination allows us to generate new ideas, envision alternative possibilities, and engage in creative thinking.
  • Planning and decision-making: Thinking helps us plan and strategize actions by considering different options, weighing their pros and cons, and making decisions based on our goals, values, and priorities. It involves evaluating potential outcomes and predicting the consequences of different choices.

Hence, we can conclude that thinking is a cognitive process.

22

Which of the areas of individual differences is most important for organising educational programmes effectively?

  1. ((a))

    physical features along with mental characteristics

  2. ((b))

    social characteristics along with physical features

  3. ((c))

    socio-emotional characteristics

  4. ((d))

    socio-emotional and mental characteristics

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

socio-emotional and mental characteristics

The importance of individual differences in organizing educational programs effectively can vary depending on the specific context and goals of the program. However, socio-emotional and mental characteristics are often considered crucial in educational settings.

Key Points

  • Socio-emotional characteristics involve aspects such as self-regulation, motivation, social skills, and emotional intelligence. These factors play a significant role in a student's ability to engage with the learning process, manage their emotions, and develop positive relationships with peers and teachers.
  • Understanding and addressing socio-emotional characteristics can help create a supportive and inclusive learning environment that promotes student well-being and enhances their academic performance.
  • Mental characteristics, such as cognitive abilities, learning styles, and problem-solving skills, also significantly impact educational outcomes.
  • Recognizing and accommodating individual differences in mental characteristics can help educators tailor instructional strategies, provide appropriate learning materials, and create opportunities for students to succeed based on their unique strengths and preferences.

Hint

  • While physical features and social characteristics can also influence educational programs, socio-emotional and mental characteristics are often considered more directly relevant to teaching and learning processes. By addressing socio-emotional and mental characteristics, educators can better support students' overall development and maximize their educational experiences.

Hence, we can conclude that socio-emotional and mental characteristics areas of individual differences are most important for organizing educational programs effectively.

23

The type of evaluation used to monitor progress during instruction is called:

  1. ((a))

    Diagnostic evaluation

  2. ((b))

    Formative evaluation

  3. ((c))

    Placement evaluation

  4. ((d))

    Summative evaluation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Formative evaluation

Evaluation is integral to the teaching-learning process as it helps in facilitating student learning and improving instruction.

  • It is a systematic way of collecting information to make a judgment about student learning.

Key Points The different types of evaluation include -

  • Formative evaluation- It is conducted during the instructional process. It is conducted to know the mastery of content. The purpose of Formative Evaluation is to know the progress of students and teachers during the instructional process. It helps teachers and students monitor their progress in the teaching-learning process.
  • Summative evaluation - Summative evaluation is used for assigning grades or certifying students’ achievement at the end of the course or a unit. It is designed on the basis of pre-determined learning outcomes and used to check whether the students have achieved the instructional objectives or not.
  • Diagnostic evaluation- It is concerned with persistent learning difficulties. These difficulties can be in reading, writing, arithmetic, or in any other subjects.
  • Placement Evaluation - Before planning teaching-learning activities, a placement evaluation is undertaken to assess the learners' entering conduct or prior knowledge.

Hence, we conclude that tracking the learning process during the instruction period is which type of evaluation process called Formative evaluation.

24

A provision for education for the children with disabilities can be made:

  1. ((a))

    through integration

  2. ((b))

    by including in the main stream

  3. ((c))

    through inclusive education

  4. ((d))

    none of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

through inclusive education

Inclusive Education is a new approach towards educating children with disabilities and learning difficulties with normal ones within the same roof. 

Key Points 

  • It values the diversity, each child brings to the classroom and facilitates all with equal opportunities to learn and grow.
  • Inclusive education improves the quality and making provisions of education for all.
  • Inclusive education welcomes and celebrates diversity. It seeks to maximize the potential of all students.
  • It provides a provision to include disabled children along with normal children in a regular classroom environment.
  • It refers to an education system that accommodates all children regardless of their physical, intellectual, social, emotional, linguistic, or other conditions.

Hence, it could be concluded that a provision for education for children with disabilities can be made through inclusive education.

Additional Information 

Benefits of Inclusive Education include:

  • Developing moral and ethical principles.
  • Increasing communication and social skills.
  • Increasing acceptance and appreciation of diversity.
  • Fostering the potential of every child to grow and bloom.
  • Addressing the diverse learning needs of every student.
  • Valuing all learners equally and encouraging them to learn.
25

Inclusive Education is based on the principle of:

  1. ((a))

    Social equilibrium

  2. ((b))

    Equity and equal opportunities

  3. ((c))

    Social existence and globalization

  4. ((d))

    World brotherhood

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Equity and equal opportunities

Inclusive Education is founded on the principle of equity and equal opportunities for all students. It recognizes that every individual has the right to receive a quality education regardless of their background, abilities, disabilities, or differences.

  • The goal of Inclusive Education is to create an inclusive learning environment that values and embraces diversity, ensuring that all students feel welcomed, respected, and supported.

Key Points

  • Equity in education refers to ensuring fairness and justice in the distribution of educational resources, opportunities, and support. It means recognizing and addressing the diverse needs of students and providing them with the necessary accommodations, adaptations, and personalized support to enable their full participation in the learning process.
  • Inclusive Education seeks to eliminate barriers to learning and create an inclusive education system that meets the diverse needs of all learners.
  • Equal opportunities emphasize the importance of providing every student with an equal chance to access education and succeed academically, regardless of their individual characteristics or circumstances.
  • Inclusive Education recognizes that students have different learning styles, abilities, and strengths, and it aims to create a learning environment that accommodates and supports these differences. This principle ensures that students with disabilities, learning difficulties, or other special needs are not excluded or segregated but are fully included and integrated into mainstream classrooms.
  • Inclusive Education goes beyond the concept of integration, which simply involves placing students with disabilities into regular classrooms. It emphasizes collaboration among educators, parents, and the community to create a supportive and inclusive learning environment where all students can thrive.
  • By embracing the principle of equity and equal opportunities, Inclusive Education aims to foster a sense of belonging, promote positive social interactions, and provide optimal learning experiences for all students, regardless of their backgrounds or abilities.

Hence, we can conclude that Inclusive Education is based on the principle of equity and equal opportunities.

26

The son of a doctor becomes an expert doctor. It is an example of:

  1. ((a))

    Biological heredity

  2. ((b))

    Social Heredity

  3. ((c))

    Transfer of instinct

  4. ((d))

    All the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Social Heredity

Social Heredity, suggests that the son's expertise as a doctor can be attributed to the influence of the doctor-parent's social environment. 

Key Points

Social heredity refers to the transmission of cultural and social factors from one generation to the next. In this example, the son of a doctor benefits from growing up in an environment where medical knowledge, values, and practices are likely to be prevalent. Here's how social heredity plays a role:

  • Access to Resources: Being the child of a doctor, the son may have greater access to resources such as medical books, journals, and educational materials. These resources can provide early exposure to medical concepts, terminology, and research, setting a strong foundation for future expertise.
  • Educational Opportunities: The son may have received guidance and encouragement from the doctor-parent to pursue a career in medicine. This support can include recommendations for quality educational institutions, advice on relevant courses, and assistance with academic pursuits. Access to a robust education can greatly contribute to the son's development as an expert doctor.
  • Role Modeling: Growing up with a doctor-parent as a role model can inspire the son to follow in their footsteps. Observing the parent's dedication, work ethic, and passion for medicine can influence the son's career choice and motivate them to strive for excellence in their medical studies and practice.
  • Cultural Values and Expectations: In families with a medical background, there may be a strong emphasis on the importance of healthcare, patient well-being, and professionalism. These cultural values and expectations can shape the son's understanding of the medical field and instill a sense of responsibility and commitment to becoming an expert doctor.

Overall, the son's expertise as a doctor is not solely determined by biological heredity but is influenced significantly by social heredity, including the resources, educational opportunities, role modeling, and cultural values inherited from the doctor's parents' social environment.

27

How children learn? Which one of the following is not true with respect to this statement?

  1. ((a))

    Children learn in class only

  2. ((b))

    Children learn when they are cognitively ready

  3. ((c))

    Children learn in a number of ways

  4. ((d))

    Children learn as they are naturally motivated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Children learn in class only

Children's learning is not limited to the classroom alone. While formal education and classroom settings are crucial for acquiring knowledge and skills, children also learn outside of school through a variety of experiences and environments.

Key PointsHere are some points to elaborate on why children learn in ways beyond the classroom:

  • Learning at home: Children begin learning from the moment they are born, and their home environment plays a significant role in their early education. Interactions with parents, siblings, and other family members provide opportunities for language development, social skills, and acquiring basic knowledge. Daily routines, such as mealtimes and bedtime stories, can foster learning and cognitive growth.
  • Informal learning: Children are curious by nature, and they learn through exploration and play. Engaging in activities like building with blocks, solving puzzles, playing with toys, and experimenting with the surrounding environment allows them to develop problem-solving skills, creativity, and critical thinking abilities.
  • Interactions with others: Social interactions with peers, siblings, and adults contribute to children's learning. Through these interactions, they learn to communicate, negotiate, share, and cooperate. Collaborative activities, such as group projects and team sports, provide valuable opportunities for learning from and with others.
  • Personal interests and motivations: Children are naturally motivated to learn when they are interested and engaged in a subject or activity. When they have a genuine curiosity or passion for something, they become active learners, seeking out information, asking questions, and experimenting to deepen their understanding.

In summary, children's learning is not confined to the classroom. They learn in a variety of settings, including at home, through play and exploration, during social interactions, and by pursuing their own interests. Recognizing and supporting these diverse learning opportunities can foster well-rounded development and enhance their overall educational journey.

28

Summative evaluation implies:

  1. ((a))

    Judging the performance during teaching-learning interactions

  2. ((b))

    Finding out the level of achievement initially

  3. ((c))

    Judging the learning outcomes for motivational purpose

  4. ((d))

    Ascertaining the performance level after the academic session comes to an end

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ascertaining the performance level after the academic session comes to an end

Summative evaluation typically refers to the assessment conducted at the end of a teaching-learning period or academic session to determine the level of achievement or performance. 

Key PointsAscertaining the performance level after the academic session comes to an end:

  • Summative evaluation is typically conducted at the conclusion of an academic session, course, or specific instructional period. Its primary purpose is to assess and determine the performance level or achievement of students.
  • It involves evaluating the learning outcomes and measuring the extent to which students have acquired the knowledge, skills, and competencies outlined in the curriculum or learning objectives.
  • The focus of the summative evaluation is on making judgments about the overall effectiveness of the teaching and learning process.
  • It involves assigning grades, providing final feedback, and making decisions regarding student advancement, promotion, or graduation.
  • Summative evaluations often take the form of exams, tests, projects, presentations, or other assessments designed to measure the student's knowledge and skills in relation to the learning goals.
  • Summative evaluation plays a crucial role in providing a comprehensive overview of a student's performance at the end of a specific academic period.
  • It provides feedback to students, parents, and educators about the outcomes achieved, highlights areas of strength and areas that need improvement, and informs decision-making processes related to academic progression and program effectiveness.

Hence, we can conclude that summative evaluation implies ascertaining the performance level after the academic session comes to an end.

29

Which of the following is not a main characteristic of infancy?

  1. ((a))

    High speed of learning

  2. ((b))

    Curious nature

  3. ((c))

    Learning by imitation

  4. ((d))

    Process of reflection

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Process of reflection

Infancy is generally defined as the period of a child's life from birth to around two years of age, during which they undergo rapid development and acquisition of various skills. 

Key PointsLet's elaborate on the characteristics of infancy:

  • High speed of learning: Infancy is a time of remarkable learning and development. Infants possess a remarkable ability to absorb information from their surroundings and rapidly acquire new skills. During this stage, they rapidly develop cognitive, sensory, motor, and social abilities. Infants are highly receptive to their environment and can quickly learn and adapt to new stimuli.
  • Curious nature: Infants are naturally curious about the world around them. They have a strong desire to explore and interact with their surroundings. They are often seen observing, touching, tasting, and manipulating objects to understand their properties. This curiosity drives their learning and helps them gain knowledge about their environment.
  • Learning by imitation: Infants learn by observing and imitating the actions of others. They pay close attention to the behaviors and actions of their caregivers and try to replicate them. Through imitation, infants acquire new skills, such as grasping objects, making sounds, and later, even basic language skills. Imitation plays a crucial role in their social and cognitive development.

Hint

  • Reflection refers to the ability to think deeply and introspect about oneself and one's experiences. While infants do exhibit some level of self-awareness and may engage in simple reflective behaviors, such as recognizing their reflection in a mirror or responding to their own name, the process of reflection as typically understood in the context of conscious introspection and deep contemplation is not considered a primary characteristic of infancy.

Hence, we can conclude that the process of reflection is not a main characteristic of infancy.

30

A purposeful assessment should have the following characteristics:

  1. ((a))

    It enhances fear and stress among the students.

  2. ((b))

    It serves as a feedback for students and teachers.

  3. ((c))

    It should be done only at the end of the year.

  4. ((d))

    Comparative evaluations to differentiate between the students.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It serves as a feedback for students and teachers.

Assessment plays a significant role in the teaching-learning process. Assessment of learning helps a teacher to design his/her teaching in a better way and to know the attainment level of learners in the subject content. Assessment helps a learner to know his /her learning progress.

Key Points

 Thus, assessment occupies a very important position in the teaching-learning process. They help teachers, students, and others in the following ways:

  • it helps the teachers to re-design instructional objectives.
  • it helps the teachers to make better evaluative judgments.
  • it helps parents to know the progress of their children and the areas of difficulty and remediation needed.
  • it helps students to know their progress in learning, and learning difficulties in different subject areas.
  • it not only assigns students grades or marks but also develops their learning habits.
  • It serves as a feedback for students and teachers and helps in diagnosing the learning difficulties of students.
  • it helps in planning new learning experiences.
  • it assists students in their problem of adjustment.
  • it helps a teacher to prepare a student cumulative record card (CRC) or report card.
  • it helps teachers to decide whether to continue with their teaching methodology or change it.
  • it helps the curriculum developers to modify the curriculum
  • it helps the parents to provide proper guidance and timely assistance to their children.

Hence, We can conclude that A purposeful assessment serves as a feedback for students and teachers.

General Hindi (25 questions)

31

"पठन कौशल का विकास की दृष्टि से, कक्षा में विद्यार्थियों से किसी पाठ के अनुच्छेद का नियमित रूप से पठन कराया जाना आवश्यक है।" उपर्युक्त कथन:

  1. ((a))

    सही है

  2. ((b))

    गलत है

  3. ((c))

    आंशिक रूप से सही है

  4. ((d))

    इनमें से कोई नहीं

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

आंशिक रूप से सही है

उपर्युक्त कथन में कहा गया है कि पठन कौशल का विकास की दृष्टि से, कक्षा में विद्यार्थियों से किसी पाठ के अनुच्छेद का नियमित रूप से पठन कराया जाना आवश्यक है। इसका मतलब है कि विद्यार्थियों को नियमित रूप से अनुच्छेद पठन का अभ्यास कराना चाहिए ताकि उनके पठन कौशल में सुधार हो सके। यह उनके पठन कौशल को सुधारता है, जो उनके शिक्षात्मक और सामाजिक विकास के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है।

  • पठन कौशल के विकास के लिए अनुच्छेद का चयन विद्यार्थियों की पसंद के अनुरूप होना चाहिए।
  • अनुच्छेद बालको के स्तर के अनुसार चयन किया जाना चाहिए।
  • अनुच्छेद बालको के अनुभव प पूर्व ज्ञान से संबंधित होना चाहिए।
32

'उतर गई लोई तो क्या करेगा कोई' - लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    सब एक सा होना

  2. ((b))

    बुरे में और बुराई चढ़ जाना

  3. ((c))

    निर्लज्ज हो जाना

  4. ((d))

    अधिकार प्राप्ति के लिए गलत काम करना

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

निर्लज्ज हो जाना

सही उत्तर है - निर्लज्ज हो जाना। 

 Key Points

  • 'उतर गई लोई तो क्या करेगा कोई' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है- मान - सम्मान चले जाने के बाद किसी भी बात का भय नहीं रहता अर्थात निर्लज्ज हो जाना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग- जब लोगों ने उसे बिरादरी से ख़ारिज कर दिया है अब वह खुलेआम आवारागर्दी कर रहा है – ‘उतर गई लोई तो क्या करेगा कोई’।

 

Additional Informationलोकोक्ति:-

  • लोक + उक्ति' शब्दों से मिलकर बना है जिसका अर्थ है- लोक में प्रचलित उक्ति या कथन।
  • साधारणतया लोक में प्रचलित उक्तियों को लोकोक्ति कहा जाता है। ‘लोकोक्तियों’ को ‘कहावतों’ के नाम से भी जाना जाता है।
  • लोकोक्तियाँ अंतर्कथाओं से भी संबंध रखती हैं। लोकोक्तियाँ स्वतंत्र वाक्य होती हैं, जिनमें एक पूरा भाव छिपा रहता है।
33

नीचे दिये गये शब्दों में शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चयन कीजिए।

  1. ((a))

    अद्वितीय

  2. ((b))

    अद्वीतीय

  3. ((c))

    अद्वितिय

  4. ((d))

    अद्वतीय

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अद्वितीय

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर ‘अद्वितीय’ है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Key Points

  • उपरोक्त वाक्यों में शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है ‘अद्वितीय’ जिसका अर्थ होता है - जिसके जैसा दूसरा नहीं हो" होता है।

अन्य शब्द:

अशुद्ध शब्दशुद्ध शब्द
निवारननिवारण
प्रतीज्ञाप्रतिज्ञा
महात्ममहात्म्य

Additional Information

वर्तनीलिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं। ‘वर्तनी’ शब्द का अर्थ ‘पीछे चलना’ है। अर्थात उच्चारित होने वाले शब्द के लेखन में प्रयोग होने वाले लिपि चिह्नों के व्यवस्थित रूप को वर्तनी कहा जाता है।
34

' ' एवं " " विराम चिन्ह को क्रमशः क्या कहते हैं?

  1. ((a))

    अपूर्ण विराम एवं उद्धरण चिन्ह

  2. ((b))

    रेखिका एवं उद्धरण चिन्ह

  3. ((c))

    संक्षिप्तक एवं उद्धरण चिन्ह

  4. ((d))

    उद्धरण चिन्ह एवं उद्धरण चिन्ह

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

उद्धरण चिन्ह एवं उद्धरण चिन्ह

सही विकल्प है: उद्धहरण चिन्ह एवं उद्धहरण चिन्ह।

Key Points

अवतरण चिन्ह या उद्धरण चिन्ह (‘….’ “…” )किसी की कही हुई बात को उसी तरह प्रकट करने के लिए अवतरण चिन्ह ( ''... '' ) का प्रयोग होता है। पुस्तक, समाचारपत्र, लेखक का उपनाम, लेख का शीर्षक इत्यादि उद्धृत करते समय इकहरे उद्धरण चिन्ह ( ‘...’ ) का प्रयोग होता है।गांधी जी ने कहा था "अहिंसा परम धर्म है”।

Additional Information

विराम चिन्ह – भाषा के लिखित रूप में विशेष स्थानों पर रुकने का संकेत करने वाले चिन्हों को
विराम चिन्ह कहते हैं। विराम चिन्ह के भेद –
विराम चिन्ह का नामविराम - चिन्ह
पूर्ण विराम - जैसे - बाजार खुल गया।
अर्ध विराम चिन्ह - जैसे – मुख्य अतिथि आ गए हैं; वह शीघ्र चले जाएंगे।;
अल्प विराम चिह्न - जैसे – राकेश, मोहन, शीतल और पंकज ने यह चित्र
बनाया है।
,
प्रश्न सूचक चिन्ह – जैसे – तुम्हारी माताजी का नाम क्या है ??
विस्मय सूचक या आश्चर्य चिह्न – जैसे – वाह ! कितना सुंदर दृश्य है।!
संयोजक या योजक चिन्ह - जैसे – मैं दिन–रात यही सोचता रहा।-
निर्देशक चिन्ह – जैसे – श्री जितेंद्र जी ने कहा _ सत्य के मार्ग पर चलना
चाहिए।
_
परम धर्म है”‘….’ “…”
कोष्ठक चिन्ह – जैसे – दशहरे के दिन दशानन (रावण) का दहन किया जाता
है।
[ {()} ]
उप विराम (अपूर्ण विराम) - जैसे - विज्ञान: वरदान या अभिशाप:
विवरण चिन्ह - जैसे - निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का उत्तर दीजिये :-:-
पुनरुक्ति सूचक चिन्ह„ „
35

'इमला' से विद्यार्थी में किस कौशल का विकास होता है?

  1. ((a))

    किसी के द्वारा बोले गए शब्दों को शुद्ध वर्तनी में लिखने का कौशल विकास होता है।

  2. ((b))

    शब्दों को शुद्ध रूप में और क्रमवार लिखने का कौशल विकास होता है।

  3. ((c))

    शुद्ध वर्तनी के साथ तीव्र गति से लेखन कौशल का विकास होता है।

  4. ((d))

    उपरोक्त तीनों सही हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

उपरोक्त तीनों सही हैं।

इमला  - 

  • इमला का अर्थ है 'सुने हुए को लिखना' या 'सुनकर लिखना'।
  • इस विधि में एक व्यक्ति बोलता है तथा दूसरा सुन कर उसे लिखता है।
  • विद्यालयों में इमला का उपयोग वर्तनी सुधारने हेतु किया जाता है।

Important Points

  • यह मनोवैज्ञानिक विधि है।
  • बालकों में भाषा शुद्धता का विकास होता है।
  • बालक में श्रवण कौशल लेखन कौशल में वृद्धि होती हैl
  • शुद्ध लेखन क्षमता के विकास के लिए किया जाता है।
  • इमला से श्रवण और लेखन कौशल में वृद्धि होती है।
  • भाषा शुद्धता के विकास के लिए के लिए किया जाता है।
  • विद्यालयों में इमला का उपयोग वर्तनी सुधारने हेतु किया जाता है।
36

निम्नलिखित में से पदबन्ध की विशेषता नहीं है :

  1. ((a))

    एक से अधिक पद होते हैं।

  2. ((b))

    ये पद एक इकाई के रूप में सम्बद्ध होते हैं।

  3. ((c))

    इसमें क्रिया नहीं होती।

  4. ((d))

    इसके आरंभ में अधिकतर कि, जितना आदि होते हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

इसके आरंभ में अधिकतर कि, जितना आदि होते हैं।

सही उत्तर है - इसके आरंभ में अधिकतर कि, जितना आदि होते हैं।

 Key Points

  • पदबंध में आरम्भ में अधिकतर कि, जितना आदि नहीं होते हैं।
  • पदबंध क्या है ?
  • जब दो या अधिक (शब्द) पद नियत क्रम और निश्र्चित अर्थ में किसी पद का कार्य करते हैं तो उन्हें पदबंध कहते हैं। वाक्य के उस भाग को, जिसमें एक से अधिक पद परस्पर सम्बद्ध होकर अर्थ तो देते हैं, किन्तु पूरा अर्थ नहीं देते- पदबन्ध या वाक्यांश कहते हैं। जैसे-
  1. सबसे तेज दौड़ने वाला छात्र जीत गया।
  2. यह लड़की अत्यंत सुशील और परिश्रमी है।
  3. नदी बहती चली जा रही है
  4. नदी कल-कल करती हुई बह रही थी।
  • उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में काला छपे शब्द पदबंध है।

 Additional Information

  • मुख्य पद के आधार पर पदबंध के पाँच प्रकार होते हैं-
  • संज्ञा-पदबंध- वह पदबंध जो वाक्य में संज्ञा का कार्य करे, संज्ञा पदबंध कहलाता है।
  • जैसे- चार ताकतवर मजदूर इस भारी चीज को उठा पाए।
  • विशेषण पदबंध- वह पदबंध जो संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम की विशेषता बतलाता हुआ विशेषण का कार्य करे, विशेषण पदबंध कहलाता है।
  • जैसे- तेज चलने वाली गाड़ियाँ प्रायः देर से पहुँचती हैं।
  • सर्वनाम पदबंध- वह पदबंध जो वाक्य में सर्वनाम का कार्य करे, सर्वनाम पदबंध कहलाता है।
  • जैसे -शरारत करने वाले छात्रों में से कुछ पकड़े गए।
  • क्रिया पदबंध- वह पदबंध जो अनेक क्रिया-पदों से मिलकर बना हो, क्रिया पदबंध कहलाता है।
  • जैसे- वह बाजार की ओर आया होगा।
  • क्रियाविशेषण या अव्यय पदबंध- वह पदबंध जो वाक्य में अव्यय का कार्य करे, अव्यय पदबंध कहलाता है।
  • जैसे- सुबह से शाम तक वह बैठा रहा।
37

भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ बनाई जाती हैं:

  1. ((a))

    जातिवाचक संज्ञा से

  2. ((b))

    विशेषण से

  3. ((c))

    क्रिया से

  4. ((d))

    उपरोक्त सभी

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

उपरोक्त सभी

सही उत्तर है - उपरोक्त सभी। 

 

Key Points

  • भाववाचक संज्ञाएं अन्य प्रकार के शब्दों में प्रत्यय जोड़ने पर बनते हैं।
  • ये  निम्न प्रकार से बनायीं जा सकती हैं:-
  • जातिवाचक संज्ञा शब्दों से:-
  • मित्र + ता मित्रता
  • प्रभु + ता प्रभुता
  • बच्चा + पन बचपन
  • विशेषण शब्दों से:-
  • अच्छा + आई = अच्छाई
  • छोटा + पन = छुटपन
  • तीक्ष्ण + ता = तीक्ष्णता
  • नीच + ता = नीचता
  • क्रिया शब्दों से:-
  • घबरा (ना) + आहट = घबराहट
  • मिल (ना) + आवट = मिलावट
  • मिल (ना) + आप = मिलाप
  • सर्वनाम शब्दों से:-
  • निज + त्व = निजत्व
  • अपना + पन = अपनापन

Additional Information

  • भाव वाचक संज्ञा की परिभाषा:- किसी भाव, गुण, दशा या अवस्था का बोध करवाने वाले संज्ञा शब्दों को भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।
  • भाववाचक संज्ञा शब्द सदैव एक वचन में ही प्रयुक्त होते हैं।
  • भाववाचक संज्ञा शब्दों का बहुवचन बनाने पर वह जातिवाचक संज्ञा शब्द बन जाता है।
  • जैसे: दूरी से दूरियाँ, चोरी से चोरियाँ, प्रार्थना से प्रार्थनाएँ इत्यादि।
38

कर्तृवाचक कृदन्त-विशेषण बनाने के लिए धातु के अंत में लगाते हैं:

  1. ((a))

    औनी

  2. ((b))

    अन्त

  3. ((c))

    आन

  4. ((d))

    आक

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

आक

सही उत्तर है - आक।  

 Key Points

  • कर्तृवाचक कृदन्त-विशेषण बनाने के लिए धातु के अंत में आक लगाते है।
  • कतृवाचक कृदंत निम्न तरीके से बनाये जा सकते हैं:
  • धातु के बाद अक्कड़, आऊ, आक, आका, आड़ी, आलू, इयल, इया, ऊ, एरा, ऐत, ऐया, ओड़ा, कवैया इत्यादि प्रत्यय जोड़कर।
  • हिंदी के कृत्-प्रत्ययों से भाववाचक, करणवाचक, कर्तृवाचक संज्ञाएँ और विशेषण बनते हैं।

Additional Information

  • प्रत्यय:- प्रत्यय किसी भी सार्थक मूल शब्द के पश्चात् जोड़े जाने वाले वे अविकारी शब्दांश हैं, जो शब्द के अन्त में जुड़कर उसके अर्थ में या भाव में परिवर्तन कर देते हैं अर्थात् शब्द में नवीन विशेषता उत्पन्न कर देते हैं या अर्थ बदल देते हैं।
  • अच्छा + ई = अच्छाई
39

"मुहावरे वाक्यांश होते हैं।" इस कथन के संबंध में निम्नांकित में क्या सही है?

  1. ((a))

    कथन सही है

  2. ((b))

    कथन आंशिक सही है

  3. ((c))

    कथन गलत है

  4. ((d))

    कथन आंशिक गलत है

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

कथन सही है

सही उत्तर है - कथन सही है। 

 Key Points

  • मुहावरे वाक्यांश होते हैं, पूर्ण वाक्य नहीं; जैसे- अपना उल्लू सीधा करना, कलम तोड़ना आदि।
  • जब वाक्य में इनका प्रयोग होता तब ये संरचनागत पूर्णता प्राप्त करती है।
  • मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है।
  • मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है।
  • हिन्दी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर  विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

Additional Informationमुहावरे और लोकोक्ति में अंतर:-

  • मुहावरे की तरह लोकोक्ति का अर्थ भी लाक्षणिक होता है। मुहावरे लोकोक्ति में मुख्य अंतर यह है कि मुहावरा एक पदबंध, वाक्यांश होता है, जबकि लोकोक्ति एक स्वतंत्र वाक्य है।
  • मुहावरे और लोकोक्ति में अंतर यह भी है कि मुहावरा किसी वाक्य में समा जाता है तथा उक्त वाक्य में चमत्कार, विशादता ला देता है, जबकि लोकोक्ति किसी वाक्य के समर्थन या खण्डन के लिए प्रयुक्त की जाती है
40

'भाषाचन्द्रोदय' ग्रंथ में सर्वनाम के लिए निम्न में से कौन से शब्द का उपयोग किया गया है?

  1. ((a))

    संज्ञावाचक

  2. ((b))

    संज्ञाप्रतिनिधि

  3. ((c))

    संज्ञापर्याय

  4. ((d))

    संज्ञासमन्वयक

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

संज्ञाप्रतिनिधि

सही उत्तर है - संज्ञा प्रतिनिधि। 

Key Points

  • भाषचंद्रोदय ग्रन्थ में सर्वनाम के लिए संज्ञारतिनिधि शब्द का प्रयोग किया गया है।
41

बच्चा, वाचिक भाषा को पहले-पहल किस प्रकार सीखता है?

  1. ((a))

    पठन से

  2. ((b))

    श्रवण से

  3. ((c))

    लेखन से

  4. ((d))

    आंगिक संकेतों से

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

श्रवण से

भाषाई विकास का अर्थ भाषा प्रयोग की क्षमता से है। भाषाई विकास अवसरों की प्रधानता पर निर्भर करता है, जिसमें से समृद्ध भाषा-परिवेश एक है। मानव का भाषायी विकास जन्म से सुनने के द्वारा होता है।

Key Points

  • चारों भाषाई कौशलों में से सबसे पहले श्रवण कौशल का विकास करना चाहिए।
  • श्रवण भाषा कौशल, विकास का प्रथम और महत्वपूर्ण चरण है।
  • श्रवण कौशल बच्चे को किसी कथन को सुनकर उस पर चिंतन मनन करने योग्य बनाता है।
  • श्रवण कौशल बच्चे को कथन से संबंधित उचित और सहज प्रतिक्रिया देने या निर्णय लेने योग्य बनाता है।
  • श्रवण कौशल बच्चे द्वारा प्रतिक्रिया देने के दौरान उनकी तर्किक क्षमता तथा चिंतन कौशल को भी सही दिशा देता है।

Important Points

  • भाषाई विकास व्यक्तिगत या सामूहिक रूप से कार्य करने के अवसर व प्रोत्साहन पर निर्भर करता है।
  • भाषाई विकास के लिए बच्चों को अपनी भाषा में अपनी बात कहने, बातचीत करने की भरपूर आजादी व अवसर मिलने आवश्यक है।
  • कहानी, कविता को बोलकर सुनने के अवसर हो और उन पर बातचीत करने के अवसर हो।
42

'बूँद-बूँद करके तालाब भरता है' - इस वाक्य में धातु है:

  1. ((a))

    सकर्मक धातु

  2. ((b))

    उभयविध धातु

  3. ((c))

    अकर्मक धातु

  4. ((d))

    संयुक्त धातु

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

उभयविध धातु

सही उत्तर है- उभयविध धातु। 

Key Pointsउभयविध धातु:- जिन धातुओं का प्रयोग अकर्मक और सकर्मक दोनों रूपों में होता है उन्हें 'उभयविध धातु' कहते हैं।

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
क्रियाजिन शब्दों में किसी कार्य का करना या होना था, किसी घटना में घटित होने का संज्ञान होता है, उसे क्रिया कहते हैं। क्रिया के दो भेद माने गए हैं - अकर्मक और सकर्मक।मोर नाचता है = अकर्मक अनुराग ने फल खाए= सकर्मक
43

'उसको इसमें कुछ लाभ नहीं' - इस वाक्य में कौन-सा कारक है?

  1. ((a))

    करण कारक

  2. ((b))

    अपादान कारक

  3. ((c))

    सम्प्रदान कारक

  4. ((d))

    सम्बन्ध कारक

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

सम्प्रदान कारक

दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर संप्रदान कारक है। 

Mistake Points

'उसको इसमें कुछ लाभ नहीं' -

  • ‘को’ से तात्पर्य यहाँ के लिए से है-
  • जब किसी के लिए कुछ दिया जाए, प्रदान किया जाए, दान दिया जाए आदि सन्दर्भ में सम्प्रदान कारक का प्रयोग होता है.
  • अतः सही उत्तर सम्प्रदान कारक है।.

Key Points

  • 'भूखों को' यह रेखांकित शब्द संप्रदान कारक का है। 
  • “कर्ता कारक जिसके लिए या जिस उद्देश्य के लिए क्रिया का सम्पादन करता है, वह ‘सम्प्रदान कारक‘ होता है।”
  • जैसे–
  • मुख्य मंत्री नीतीश कुमार ने बाढ़–पीड़ितों के लिए अनाज और कपड़े बँटवाए।
  • इस वाक्य में ‘बाढ़–पीड़ित’ सम्प्रदान कारक है; क्योंकि अनाज और कपड़े बँटवाने का काम उनके लिए ही हुआ।
  • सम्प्रदान कारक का चिह्न ‘को’ भी है; लेकिन यह कर्म के ‘को’ की तरह नहीं ‘के लिए’ का बोध कराता है।

Additional Information

कारकपरिभाषा - संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से वाक्य के अन्य शब्दों के साथ उसके सम्बन्ध का बोध होता है, उसे कारक कहते हैं। हिन्दी में आठ कारक होते हैं-
नामचिह्नअर्थ
कर्तानेकाम करने वाला
कर्मकोजिस पर काम का प्रभाव पड़ रहा हो
करणसेजिसके द्वारा कर्ता काम करे
संप्रदानको, के लिएजिसके लिए क्रिया की जाए
अपादानसे (अलग होना)जिससे अलगाव हो
संबंधका, की, के, न, नी, ने, रा, री, रेअन्य पदों से संबंध
अधिकरणमें, परक्रिया का आधार
संबोधनहे, अरेकिसी को पुकारना, बुलाना आदि
44

"हर एक राष्ट्र अपनी संस्कृति के बल पर ही प्रगति करता है। सांस्कृतिक धरोहर के माध्यम से ही वह अपना जीवन सुखी, उपयोगी तथा आनंदमय बना सकता है। सभ्यता और संस्कृति में घनिष्ठ संबंध होते हुए भी अंतर है जीवन को श्रेष्ठ तथा उन्नत बनाने की साधनाओं का नाम संस्कृति है और उन साधनाओं से प्राप्त जीवन प्रणाली का नाम सभ्यता है।" उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक निम्नांकित में क्या होगा?

  1. ((a))

    राष्ट्र के विकास में संस्कृति का योगदान

  2. ((b))

    सभ्यता और संस्कृति

  3. ((c))

    सभ्यता और संस्कृति का अंतःसंबंध

  4. ((d))

    उपरोक्त सभी

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

उपरोक्त सभी

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक 'उपरोक्त सभी' है।

Key Points

  • उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के लिए दिए गए सभी विकल्प उपयुक्त हैं।
  • गद्यांश में संस्कृति और सभ्यता के अन्तः सम्बन्ध को स्थापित करते हुए राष्ट्र के विकास में उसके योगदान के विषय में बताया गया है।
  • अतः इसका मुख्य विषय सभ्यता, संस्कृति और उनके बीच का अन्तःसम्बन्ध ही है।

<br>

Additional Information

  • गद्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक चुनने के लिए निम्न बिंदुओं का ध्यान रखना चाहिए:-
  • शीर्षक मुख्य विषय की जानकारी देता हो।
  • शीर्षक छोटा व आकर्षक हो।
45

"अपठित गद्यांश का सारांश लिखने में सरल भाषा एवं छोटे-छोटे वाक्यों का प्रयोग करना चाहिए।" उपर्युक्त कथन के संदर्भ में सही विकल्प क्या होगा?

  1. ((a))

    कथन आंशिक सही है

  2. ((b))

    कथन पूर्णतः सही है

  3. ((c))

    कथन आंशिक गलत है

  4. ((d))

    कथन पूर्णतः गलत है

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

कथन पूर्णतः सही है

सही उत्तर है - कथन पूर्णतः सही है। 

Key Points

  • अपठित गद्यांश का सारांश एक-तिहाई ही होना चाहिए।
  • अपठित गद्यांश का सारांश लिखने में सरल भाषा एवं छोटे-छोटे वाक्यों का प्रयोग करना चाहि
  • गद्यांश का एक-तिहाई सारांश देना चाहिए।
  • संक्षेप में सभी मुख्य बातें आ जायें।
  • लिखते समय वर्तनी की शुद्धता पर भी ध्यान देना चाहिए।
  • शीर्षक सरल,संक्षिप्त और सारगर्भित होना चाहिए।
  • अर्थात दिए गए गद्यांश के एक तिहाई भाग में गद्यांश की संपूर्ण बातें सम्मिलित करके लिखनी चाहिए।

Additional Information

  • सारांश 
  • पुल्लिंग
  • सार भाग, निचोड़।
  • संक्षिप्त।
  • शुद्धता शब्द में "ता" प्रत्यय है।
  • शुद्धता :- शुद्ध + ता
  • शुद्ध
  • विशेषण
  • पवित्र।
  • निर्मल, साफ़।
46

"लोकोक्ति का क्षेत्र मुहावरे की तुलना में अधिक व्यापक है।" इस कथन के संदर्भ में निम्नांकित में क्या सही है?

  1. ((a))

    कथन सही है

  2. ((b))

    कथन आंशिक सही है

  3. ((c))

    कथन गलत है

  4. ((d))

    कथन आंशिक गलत है

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

कथन सही है

सही उत्तर है- कथन सही है। 

Key Points

  • मुहावरे वाक्यांश होते हैं, पूर्ण वाक्य नहीं; जैसे- अपना उल्लू सीधा करना, कलम तोड़ना आदि।
  • जब वाक्य में इनका प्रयोग होता तब ये संरचनागत पूर्णता प्राप्त करती है।
  • लोकोक्तियाँ पूर्ण वाक्य होती हैं। इनमें कुछ घटाया-बढ़ाया नहीं जा सकता।
  • मुहावरे का स्वतंत्र प्रयोग संभव नहीं है लोकोक्ति एक पूरे वाक्य के रूप में होती है इसलिए इसका स्वतंत्र प्रयोग संभव है।
  • इसीलिए लोकोक्ति का क्षेत्र मुहावरे कि तुलना में अधिक व्यापक है।

 Important Pointsमुहावरे और लोकोक्ति में अंतर:-

  • मुहावरे की तरह लोकोक्ति का अर्थ भी लाक्षणिक होता है। मुहावरे लोकोक्ति में मुख्य अंतर यह है कि मुहावरा एक पदबंध, वाक्यांश होता है, जबकि लोकोक्ति एक स्वतंत्र वाक्य है।
  • मुहावरे और लोकोक्ति में अंतर यह भी है कि मुहावरा किसी वाक्य में समा जाता है तथा उक्त वाक्य में चमत्कार, विशादता ला देता है, जबकि लोकोक्ति किसी वाक्य के समर्थन या खण्डन के लिए प्रयुक्त की जाती है।

 Additional Information

  • मुहावरे कि परिभाषा:- मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है। मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है। हिन्दी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर  विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।
  • लोकोक्ति कि परिभाषा:- किसी विशेष स्थान पर प्रसिद्ध हो जाने वाले कथन को 'लोकोक्ति' कहते हैं। दूसरे शब्दों में- जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है तो ;लोकोक्ति कहलाता है।
47

भरी सभा में द्रौपदी को अपमानित होते देख भीम ने क्रोधित होकर घोषणा की, "यदि मैंने कौरवों की _________ तो मेरा नाम भीम नहीं।'

उपर्युक्त वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान के लिए निम्नांकित में से कौन सा मुहावरा सही और सटीक है?

  1. ((a))

    दाँत खट्टे न किए

  2. ((b))

    मैदान नहीं मारा

  3. ((c))

    कमर नहीं तोड़ा

  4. ((d))

    ईंट से ईंट न बजाई

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ईंट से ईंट न बजाई

सही उत्तर है- ईंट से ईंट न बजाई। 

Key Points

  • ईंट से ईंट बजाना मुहावरा है।
  • इसका अर्थ है- युद्धात्मक विनाश लाना।
  • वाक्य में प्रयोग:- भरी सभा में द्रोपदी को अपमानित होते देख भीम ने क्रोधित होकर घोषणा की, "यदि मैंने कौरवों की ईंट से ईंट न बजाई तो मेरा नाम भीम नहीं।'

 Additional Informationअन्य विकल्प:

  • दांत खट्टे करना:- हराना।
  • मैदान मारना:- जीत जाना।
  • कमर टूटना:- हिम्मत टूट जाना,
48

प्रयत्न के आधार पर व्यंजनों के मुख्यतः कितने भेद हैं?

  1. ((a))

    आठ

  2. ((b))

    छः

  3. ((c))

    चार

  4. ((d))

    दो

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

आठ

प्रयत्न के आधार पर व्यंजनों के भेद स्पर्श, संघर्षी, स्पर्श-संघर्षी, नासिक्य, पार्श्विक, उत्क्षिप्त, प्रकंपित, संघर्षहीन सप्रवाह है।

Key Points

  • स्पर्श व्यंजन- जब व्यन्जनों का उच्चारण मुख के अवयवों का परस्पर पूर्ण स्पर्श करने पर होता है, तब उन्हें स्पर्श व्यन्जन कहते हैं। इनके उच्चारण में पहले हवा मुख में रूक जाती है, फिर धक्का देकर बाहर निकलती है।
  • हिन्दी में 'क', 'च', 'ट', 'त', 'प' (पाँचों वर्ग) के स्पर्श व्यन्जन हैं।​
  • संघर्षी व्यंजन- संघर्षी व्यन्जन नाम से स्पष्ट है जिन वर्णों के उच्चारण में जब कुछ संघर्ष करना पड़े। जब व्यन्जनों उच्चारण करते समय दो अवयव इतने निकट आ जाते हैं कि हवा दोनों के बीच से घर्षण करती हुई निकलती है।
  • जैसे- 'फ', 'ज', 'श', 'ख', 'ग'।
  • स्पर्श संघर्षी व्यंजन - इस प्रकार के व्यन्जनों के उच्चारण में पहले स्पर्श और बाद में घर्षण होता है। जैसे- 'च', 'छ', 'झ'।
  • नासिक्य व्यंजन - जिन व्यन्जनों के उच्चारण में हवा नाक से निकलती है, वे नासिक्य कहलाते हैं। व्यन्जनों में पाँचों वर्गों के पञ्चम वर्ण नासिक्य हैं। जैसे - 'ङ', 'ञ', 'ण', 'न', 'म' ।
  • पार्श्विक व्यंजन - जिस वर्ण के उच्चारण में मुख के मध्य भाग में दो अवयव मिलकर वायु अवरूद्ध कर देते हैं, किन्तु हवा दोनों पार्श्वों से होकर निकल जाती है। जैसे- 'ल' ।
  • उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन - इनके उच्चारण में जिह्वा नोक कठोर तालु को छूकर झटके से नीचे आकर वायु निकालती है उन्हें अत्क्षिप्त व्यन्जन कहते हैं। जैसे- 'ड', 'ढ' ।​

Additional Information

व्यंजन की परिभाषाउदाहरण
जिनका उच्चारण स्वर की सहायता से किया जाता है वे व्यंजन वर्ण कहलाते हैं।क, ख, ग, घ आदि
स्पर्श व्यंजनच, छ, ज, ट, ठ आदि।
ऊष्म व्यंजनश, ष, स, ह आदि।
अंतःस्थ व्यंजनय, र, ल, व आदि।
संयुक्त व्यंजनक्ष, त्र, ज्ञ आदि।
आगत व्यंजनज़, फ़ आदि
अनुनासिकङ, ञ, ण, न, म
श्वास की मात्रा के आधार पर दो भागों में बांटा गया है- अल्पप्राण और महाप्राण।क्रमशः- क, ब, प, म और ख, घ, छ, झ आदि
उच्चारण में ध्वनि गूंज के आधार पर भी इनके दो भेद किए गए हैं- घोष और अघोष व्यंजन।क्रमशः- ग, घ, ज, झ और क, ख, च, छ आदि।
49

'वह ऐसा क्यों कहता था कि वहाँ न जाएँगे' - वाक्य के अंत में किस विराम चिन्ह का प्रयोग होगा?

  1. ((a))

    पूर्ण विराम

  2. ((b))

    अर्द्ध विराम

  3. ((c))

    प्रश्न चिन्ह

  4. ((d))

    आश्चर्यबोधक चिन्ह

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

प्रश्न चिन्ह

सही उत्तर है - प्रश्न चिन्ह।  

Key Points

  • इस वाक्य में क्यों शब्द से पता चलता है कि यहाँ प्रश्न पूछा जा रहा है।
  • अतः प्रश्न चिन्ह का प्रयोग होगा।
  • प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?):-
  • बातचीत के दौरान जब किसी से कोई बात पूछी जाती है अथवा कोई प्रश्न पूछा जाता है, तब वाक्य के अंत में प्रश्नसूचक-चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  • जब वाक्य में क्या, क्यों, कैसे, कब, कहाँ, कौन, इत्यादि शब्द आते हैं तो प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह लगता है।
  • तुम कहाँ से आ रहे हो?

Additional Information 

  • विराम चिन्ह – भाषा के लिखित रूप में विशेष स्थानों पर रुकने का संकेत करने वाले चिन्हों को विराम चिन्ह कहते हैं।
विराम चिन्ह का नामपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पूर्ण विराम चिन्ह (।)जहाँ एक बात पूरी हो जाये या वाक्य समाप्त हो जाये वहाँ पूर्ण विराम ( । ) चिन्ह लगाया जाता है।बाजार खुल गया।
अर्द्ध विराम चिन्ह (;)जहाँ अल्प विराम से कुछ अधिक ठहरते हैं तथा पूर्ण विराम से कम ठहरते हैं, वहाँ अर्द्ध विराम का चिन्ह ( ; ) लगाया जाता है।मुख्य अतिथि आ गए हैं; वह शीघ्र चले जाएंगे।
अल्प विराम चिन्ह (,)वाक्य में जहाँ थोड़ा रुकना हो या अधिक वस्तुओं, व्यक्तियों आदि को अलग करना हो वहाँ अल्प विराम (,) चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।राकेश, मोहन, शीतल और पंकज ने यह चित्र बनाया है।
प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?)बातचीत के दौरान जब किसी से कोई बात पूछी जाती है अथवा कोई प्रश्न पूछा जाता है, तब वाक्य के अंत में प्रश्नसूचक-चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।तुम्हारी माताजी का नाम क्या है ?
विस्मयादिबोधक चिन्ह (!)इसका प्रयोग हर्ष, विवाद, विस्मय, घृणा, आश्रर्य, करुणा, भय, संबोधन इत्यादि का बोध कराने के लिए इस चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।वाह! कितना सुंदर दृश्य है।
लाघव चिन्ह (०)किसी बड़े तथा प्रसिद्ध शब्द को संक्षेप में लिखने के लिए उस शब्द का पहला अक्षर लिखकर उसके आगे शून्य (०) लगा देते हैं। यह शून्य ही लाघव-चिन्ह कहलाता है।डॉक्टर – डॉ०, प्रोफेसर – प्रो०
50

'हवा चल रही है' - इस वाक्य में क्रिया है:

  1. ((a))

    आरम्भ बोधक

  2. ((b))

    अनुमति बोधक

  3. ((c))

    आवश्यकता बोधक

  4. ((d))

    नित्यता बोधक

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

नित्यता बोधक

दिए गए विकल्पों के अनुसार ‘नित्यता बोधक’ सही उत्तर है। 

Key Points

  • इससे क्रिया के निरंतर प्रगति का बोध होता है नित्यता बोधक कहलाता हैै।

Additional Information

क्रिया का पक्ष - क्रिया के जिस रुप से क्रिया प्रक्रिया का बोध होता है उसे क्रिया का पक्ष कहते हैं।
पक्षपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पूर्णता दयोतक पक्षइस क्रिया पक्ष में क्रिया के पूरी तरह समाप्त होने का बोध होता है पूर्णता दयोतक पक्ष कहलाता हैं।जैसे- वह अब तक काफी खेल चुका है।
नित्यता बोधकइस पक्ष में क्रिया के नित्य अर्थात सदा बने रहने का बोध हो (न आदि ने अंत) नित्यता बोधक कहलाता हैं।जैसे- पृथ्वी गोल है !
​सातपय बोधक पक्षइससे क्रिया की प्रक्रिया के चालू रहने का बोध होता है सातपय बोधक पक्ष कहलाता हैं।जैसे- सीता कितना अच्छा गा रही है।
51

निम्न में व्यंग्यार्थ का पर्यायवाची क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    प्रतीयमानार्थं

  2. ((b))

    सूच्यर्थ

  3. ((c))

    आक्षेपार्थ

  4. ((d))

    उपरोक्त सभी

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

उपरोक्त सभी

उपरोक्त सभी सही विकल्प होगा।

  • व्यंग्यार्थ के अन्य पर्यायवाची - प्रतीयमानार्थं, सूच्यर्थ, आक्षेपार्थ आदि।

अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची -

  • लोकेश - लोक का ईश अर्थात राजा, नृप, नरेश, भूप, भूपति, भूपाल।
  • लक्ष्मीपति - लक्ष्मी जी का पति अर्थात नारायण, विष्णु, श्रीपति, लक्ष्मीकांत, जगदीश।
  • विनायक - गणेश, गणपति, लम्बोदर, एकदन्त।

विशेष:

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची/समानार्थी शब्दएक ही अर्थ में प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्द जो बनावट में भले ही अलग हों, पर्यायवाची या समानार्थी शब्द कहलाते हैं।आग-अनल, पावक, दहन। हवा-समीर, अनिल, वायु।
52

"मैं आया और वह गया" - किस वाक्य का उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    सरल वाक्य

  2. ((b))

    मिश्र वाक्य

  3. ((c))

    संयुक्त वाक्य

  4. ((d))

    उपरोक्त में कोई नहीं

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

संयुक्त वाक्य

'मैं आया और वह गया' एक संयुक्त वाक्य है। शेष विकल्प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • 'मैं आया और वह गया' एक संयुक्त वाक्य है क्योंकि इसमें दो उपवाक्यों को 'और' संयोजक द्वारा जोड़ा गया है।
  • संयुक्त वाक्य में दो समान स्तर के वाक्य योजक चिह्न द्वारा जोड़े जाते हैं।

Additional Information 

वाक्यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
सरलऐसे वाक्य जिनमें एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं। इसमें कर्ता एक से अधिक हो सकते हैं लेकिन मुख्य क्रिया एक ही होगी।राकेश पढ़ता है। कमला और विमला मंदिर जाती हैं।
संयुक्तजिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक उपवाक्य मिले हों, परन्तु सभी वाक्य प्रधान हो तो ऐसे वाक्य को संयुक्त वाक्य कहते है।वह सुबह आगरा गया और शाम को लौट आया।
मिश्रजिस वाक्य में एक से अधिक वाक्य मिले हों, किन्तु एक प्रधान उपवाक्य तथा शेष आश्रित उपवाक्य हों, मिश्रित वाक्य कहलाता है।वह औरत जो पार्क में बैठी हैं मेरी मौसी हैं।
53

'बिल' किस भाषा का उपसर्ग है?

  1. ((a))

    अंग्रेजी

  2. ((b))

    संस्कृत

  3. ((c))

    उर्दू

  4. ((d))

    पुर्तगाली

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

उर्दू

दिए गए विकल्पों में से 'बिल' उर्दू भाषा का उपसर्ग है। 

Key Points

  • दिए गए विकल्पों में से 'बिल' उर्दू भाषा का उपसर्ग है।
  • 'बिल' उपसर्ग से बने शब्द हैं - बिलआखिर, बिलकुल, बिलवजह।

अन्य विकल्प: 

  • संस्कृत उपसर्गों की संख्या में 22 हैं, जो अग्रलिखित हैं – प्र, परा, अप, सम्, अनु, अव, निस्, निर्, दुस्, दुर्, वि, आङ्, नि, अधि, अपि, अति, सु, उत्, अभि, प्रति, परि तथा उप।
  • उर्दू  के उपसर्ग हैं - अल, ऐन, कम, खुश, गैर, दर, ना, फ़िल्, ब, बद, बर, बा, बिल, बिला। उर्दू के सारे उपसर्ग अरबी-फारसी से लिए गये हैं। ये संख्या में लगभग 19 हैं।
  • अंग्रेजी ए उपसर्ग हैं - सब, डिप्टी, वाइस, जनरल, चीफ, हेड आदि। ​

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
प्रत्ययवे शब्दांश, जो यौगिक शब्द बनाते समय बाद में लगते हैं। प्रत्यय कहलाते हैं।पढ़+आई=पढ़ाई सुंदर+ता=सुंदरता
उपसर्गऐसे शब्दांश जो किसी शब्द के पूर्व जुड़ कर उसके अर्थ में परिवर्तन कर देते हैं या उसके अर्थ में विशेषता ला देते हैं।अ+सत्य= असत्य अप+यश=अपयश
54

'परात' किस भाषा का शब्द है?

  1. ((a))

    तुर्की

  2. ((b))

    देशज

  3. ((c))

    पुर्तगाली

  4. ((d))

    अरबी

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

देशज

'परात' शब्द देशज शब्द है। देशज उन शब्दों को कहते हैं, जिनकी उत्पत्ति का पता नहीं चलता है। 

Key Points

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
देशज शब्दऐसे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति के स्रोत का पता नहीं चलता और जो क्षेत्रीय बोलियों से हिंदी में आए हैं।जैसे - परात, लोटा, थैला, पगड़ी आदि।

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्पों :-

  • पुर्तगाली भाषा से आये हुए शब्द - अचार, चाभी, संतरा, साबुन, पपीता, ऑलपिन, बाल्टी, गमला, मेज, बटन आदि।
  • अरबी भाषा से आये हुए शब्द - असर, किस्मत, खयाल, दुकान, औरत, जहाज' आदि।
  • तुर्की भाषा से आये हुए शब्द - कैंची, कुली, तोप, बारूद आदि।
55

अपठित गद्यांश का संक्षेपण एक प्रकार का पुनः सृजन है क्योंकि संक्षिप्तिकृत रचना का निम्नांकित वैशिष्ट्य उसे पुनःसृजन की कोटि तक पहुँचाता है।

  1. ((a))

    मूल अंश को अपने शब्दों में प्रस्तुत करने के कारण

  2. ((b))

    पूर्णतः दोषरहित होने के कारण

  3. ((c))

    बोधगम्य होने के कारण

  4. ((d))

    सुग्राह्य होने के कारण

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

मूल अंश को अपने शब्दों में प्रस्तुत करने के कारण

सही उत्तर है- मूल अंश को अपने शब्दों में प्रस्तुत करने के कारण

Key Points

  • अपठित गद्यांश का संक्षेपण एक प्रकार का पुनः सृजन है क्योंकि संक्षिप्तिकृत रचना का निम्नांकित वैशिष्ट्य उसे पुनःसृजन की कोटि तक पहुँचाता है मूल अंश को अपने शब्दों में प्रस्तुत करने के कारण।

 Additional Information

  • संक्षेपण का अर्थ होता है - संक्षिप्त करना।
  • किसी अनुच्छेद, परिच्छेद, विस्तृत टिप्पणी अथवा प्रतिवेदन को संक्षिप्त कर देना। किसी बड़े पाठ (निबन्ध, लेख, शोध प्रबन्ध आदि) में मुख्य विचारों, तर्कों आदि को लघुतर आकार में प्रस्तुत करना 'संक्षेपण' कहलाता है।

General English (25 questions)

Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions 56 - 65:

Niccolo Machiavelli, an Italian states man and political philosopher of the early sixteenth century, is considered the father of modern political thinking. Machiavelli was a product of Renaissance Florence, a city state that was struggling for expansion and survival among a competing group of similar states. As a public servant and diplomat, Machiavelli came to understand power politics by observing the spectacle around him without any illusions. In 1512, he was briefly imprisoned and then forced to leave public life. He retired to his country estate, where he recorded his reflections on politics. Two of his books would become classics in political theory: Discourses on the first Ten Books of Livy, a set of essays on ancient and modern politics, and The Prince, a potent little book that would shock readers for centuries.

Machiavelli saw politics as an affair separate from religion and ethics, an activity to be practiced and studied for its own sake. Politics was simply the battle of men in search of power, and since all men are brutal, selfish, and cowardly, politics must follow certain rules. In his most famous work, The Prince (1532), Machiavelli described the means by which a leader may gain and maintain power. The ideal prince was the man who had studied his fellow men, both by reading history and by observing the present, and was willing to exploit their weaknesses. Machiavelli thought that his own time was too corrupt to permit any alternative to the Renaissance despots that he saw all around him.

Machiavelli's philosophy arose more from a deeply pessimistic view of human nature than from a lack of moral sense, which many readers criticized him. He was, and still is, misunderstood to have promoted atheism over religion and criminality over other means of governing. Despite the ruthless connotation of the term "Machiavellian", many of his works, such as the History of Florence (1532), express republican principles. Machiavelli's supporters saw him not as a cynic who glorified in evil but as a scientist of politics who saw the world more clearly than others and reported what he saw with lucidity and honesty.

The cultural impact of Machiavelli's philosophy was far-reaching, and negative interpretations have persisted. The dramatic literature of the late sixteenth century, notably the plays of Shakespeare, often featured a villainous but humorous character type known as the Machiavel. The Machiavel character loved evil for its own sake, and this delight in evil made all other motivation unnecessary. The Machiavel had a habit of using humorous monologues to comment on his own wickedness and contempt for goodness. Shakespeare's Principal Machiavel characters are the treacherous lago in Othello, the ruthlessly ambitious Edmund in King Lear, and the murderous title character in Richard III.

56

Machiavelli thought that his own time was too corrupt to permit any alternative to the Renaissance despots.

Which of the following best changes the above sentence using "so __________  that" instead of "too"?

  1. ((a))

    Machiavelli thought his own time corrupt so much that there is no alternative to the Renaissance despots.

  2. ((b))

    Corruption is so much that Machiavelli thought no alternative can be there to the Renaissance despots.

  3. ((c))

    Machiavelli thought that his own time was so corrupt that it cannot permit any alternative to the Renaissance despots.

  4. ((d))

    Machiavelli thought that the Renaissance despots are so corrupt that they have no alternative.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Machiavelli thought that his own time was so corrupt that it cannot permit any alternative to the Renaissance despots.

The correct answer is  ' Machiavelli thought that his own time was so corrupt that it cannot permit any alternative to the Renaissance despots.'

Key Points

  • The original sentence states that Machiavelli believed his own time was "too corrupt" to allow for any alternative to the Renaissance despots. To rephrase it using "so __________ that," we need to emphasize the level of corruption.
  • The statement in Option 3 "Machiavelli thought that his own time was so corrupt that it cannot permit any alternative to the Renaissance despots."  accurately reflects the original meaning by emphasizing the high level of corruption in Machiavelli's time, which prevents any alternative from emerging.

​Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Machiavelli thought his own time corrupt so much that there is no alternative to the Renaissance despots." This option doesn't convey the meaning accurately, as it suggests that there is no alternative due to the corruption alone, without emphasizing the level of corruption.
  • Option 2: "Corruption is so much that Machiavelli thought no alternative can be there to the Renaissance despots." This option shifts the focus to corruption itself and doesn't maintain the original context of Machiavelli's perspective on his own time.
  • Option 4: "Machiavelli thought that the Renaissance despots are so corrupt that they have no alternative." This option incorrectly attributes the corruption solely to the Renaissance despots and suggests they have no alternative, whereas the original sentence focuses on Machiavelli's view of his own time being corrupt.
57

Identify the part of speech of the phrase "a cynic" which occurs in paragraph 3.

  1. ((a))

    Adjective

  2. ((b))

    Noun

  3. ((c))

    Adverb

  4. ((d))

    Both adjective and noun

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Noun

The correct answer is 'Noun'. 

  

Key Points

  • A noun is a word that represents a person, place, thing, or idea. It is a part of speech that typically functions as the subject or object in a sentence.
  • ''Cynic" is a noun that refers to a person who believes that people are motivated purely by self-interest and is generally distrustful of human sincerity or integrity.
  • In the line from the passage, "Machiavelli's supporters saw him not as a cynic who glorified in evil," "cynic" is used as a noun to describe a specific type of person, someone who exhibits cynicism or skepticism.​

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

58

What is the subject of The Prince?

  1. ((a))

    The trial and imprisonment of Machiavelli

  2. ((b))

    The relationship between politics and religion

  3. ((c))

    The ways that a ruler gains and maintains power

  4. ((d))

    The history of the political leadership of Florence

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The ways that a ruler gains and maintains power

The correct answer is 'The ways that a ruler gains and maintains power'.

Key Points

  • In the given passage, it is stated that Machiavelli's most famous work is The Prince, which was published in 1532.
  • The passage mentions that in The Prince, Machiavelli describes the means by which a leader may gain and maintain power.
  • It further explains that Machiavelli believed that the ideal prince is someone who studies his fellow men, both through reading history and observing the present, and is willing to exploit their weaknesses.
  • The passage also highlights Machiavelli's view that his own time was too corrupt to allow for alternatives to the Renaissance despots he saw around him.
  • The subject of The Prince, therefore, is the exploration of the strategies, tactics, and principles that a ruler should employ to acquire and hold onto power.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

59

The Machiavel character in drama has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

  1. ((a))

    dislike for goodness

  2. ((b))

    humorous commentary

  3. ((c))

    enjoyment of evil

  4. ((d))

    complex motivation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

complex motivation

The correct answer is 'complex motivation'.

Key Points

  • According to the passage, the Machiavel character in drama is depicted as having several specific characteristics.
  • The passage states that the Machiavel character "loved evil for its own sake" and "delighted in evil," indicating a clear enjoyment of evil actions.
  • It also mentions that the Machiavel character had a habit of using "humorous monologues to comment on his own wickedness and contempt for goodness."
  • These quotes from the passage highlight the characteristics of the Machiavel character: enjoyment of evil and humorous commentary on their wickedness.
  • However, there is no mention in the passage of the Machiavel character having complex motivations.
  • The passage focuses on their delight in evil, humorous monologues, and contempt for goodness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

60

The word lucidity in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:

  1. ((a))

    distaste

  2. ((b))

    clarity

  3. ((c))

    respect

  4. ((d))

    concern

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

clarity

The correct answer is  'clarity'.

Key Points

  • The word "lucidity" refers to the quality of being easily comprehensible.
  • In the context of Machiavelli's philosophy and writings, "lucidity" implies that he presented his observations and ideas in a straightforward and honest manner.
  • The marked option clarity means 'quality or state of being clear, transparent, or easily understood'.
  • Example  - The instructions for assembling the furniture were written with clarity.
  • Based on the given points, it is clear that the words 'lucidity' is closest in meaning to the word  'clarity'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Distaste refers to a feeling of dislike or aversion towards something.
  • Respect refers to a feeling of admiration, esteem, or consideration towards someone or something.
  • Concern refers to a state of worry, interest, or care about something.
61

According to the passage, what was the main influence on Machiavelli's political philosophy?

  1. ((a))

    The power struggle within and among city-states

  2. ((b))

    The desire to express his anger for being imprisoned

  3. ((c))

    The rejection of ancient theories about politics

  4. ((d))

    The shock and disgust he felt toward political leaders

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The power struggle within and among city-states

The correct answer is 'The power struggle within and among city-states'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the following lines from the given passage -
  • ''Machiavelli was a product of Renaissance Florence, a city-state that was struggling for expansion and survival among a competing group of similar states.''
  • ''As a public servant and diplomat, Machiavelli came to understand power politics by observing the spectacle around him without any illusions.''
  • ''Machiavelli thought that his own time was too corrupt to permit any alternative to the Renaissance despots that he saw all around him.''
  • The above given points from the passage highlight that the power struggle within and among city-states heavily influenced Machiavelli's political philosophy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

62

Machiavelli's political philosophy included all of the following beliefs EXCEPT:

  1. ((a))

    Politics is the power struggle among men who are all brutal and selfish

  2. ((b))

    The ideal ruler understands and exploits the weaknesses of others

  3. ((c))

    People must organize to fight against evil and corruption in politics

  4. ((d))

    Politics should be studied and practiced separately from religion and ethics

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

People must organize to fight against evil and corruption in politics

The correct answer is 'People must organize to fight against evil and corruption in politics'.

Key Points

  • The passage states, "Machiavelli saw politics as an affair separate from religion and ethics, an activity to be practiced and studied for its own sake. Politics was simply the battle of men in search of power, and since all men are brutal, selfish, and cowardly, politics must follow certain rules." This quote affirms beliefs  in Option 1 and Option 4.

The passage also states, "In his most famous work, The Prince (1532), Machiavelli described the means by which a leader may gain and maintain power. The ideal prince was the man who had studied his fellow men, both by reading history and by observing the present, and was willing to exploit their weaknesses." This quote confirms belief in Option 2.

  • However, there is no mention in the passage about people organizing to fight against evil and corruption in politics.
  • Machiavelli's political philosophy, as described in the passage, seems to accept the brutal, selfish, and power-hungry nature of people involved in politics. It does not suggest that people should organize against this nature, which is perceived as evil and corrupt.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

63

Machiavelli's philosophy arose more from a deeply pessimistic view of human nature that form a lack of moral sense.

The underlined word 'Machiavelli's is an example of:

  1. ((a))

    The possessive case

  2. ((b))

    The nominative case

  3. ((c))

    The accusative case

  4. ((d))

    Objective case

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The possessive case

The correct answer is 'The possessive case'.

Key Points

  • In English grammar, the possessive case is used to show ownership or association.
  • The possessive form is created by adding an apostrophe and an "s" to the end of a noun, or just an apostrophe to plural nouns ending in "s."
  • In the phrase "Machiavelli's philosophy", 'Machiavelli's' is a possessive noun.
  • It's used to indicate that the philosophy belongs to or is associated with Machiavelli.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • The nominative case: This is used for the subject of a sentence, the one doing the action. For example, in "Machiavelli wrote The Prince," "Machiavelli" is in the nominative case because he is the one doing the action (writing).
  • The accusative case: This case is used for the direct object in a sentence, the entity that directly receives the action. In English, the accusative case often looks identical to the nominative. For instance, in "I read Machiavelli's books," "Machiavelli's books" is in the accusative case because it is the object being read.
  • The objective case: This case is used for a noun or pronoun that is the object of a verb or preposition. For instance, in "I was speaking to him," "him" is in the objective case because it is the object of the preposition "to."
64

The word their in paragraph 2 refers to:

  1. ((a))

    religion and ethics

  2. ((b))

    certain rules

  3. ((c))

    fellow men

  4. ((d))

    Renaissance despots

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

fellow men

The correct answer is 'fellow men'. 

Key Points

  • In the passage, it is mentioned that Machiavelli believed that politics was the battle of men in search of power.
  • Machiavelli studied his fellow men by reading history and observing the present in order to understand their weaknesses.
  • In the sentence from the passage  -"The ideal prince was the man who had studied his fellow men, both by reading history and by observing the present, and was willing to exploit their weaknesses" ,  "their" refers to the fellow men that the prince studies and interacts with.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

65

The word illusions in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:

  1. ((a))

    conclusions

  2. ((b))

    false beliefs

  3. ((c))

    limits

  4. ((d))

    good intentions

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

false beliefs

The correct answer is 'false beliefs'. 

Key Points

  • The word "illusion" refers to a deceptive or misleading perception.
  • In the passage, it is mentioned that Machiavelli came to understand power politics by observing the spectacle around him "without any illusions."
  • Thus, the word "illusions" in this context refers to false beliefs or misconceptions.
  • It implies that Machiavelli observed power politics without any false or idealistic notions about how things should be, but rather with a clear-eyed understanding of the realities.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Read the below poem and answer the questions 66 - 70:

Over the soughing of the sombre wind,

priests chant louder than ever:

the mouth of Indian opens.

Crocodiles move into deeper water.

Mornings of heated middens

Smoke under the sun

The good wife

lies in my bed

through the long afternoon

dreaming still, unexhausted

by the deep roar of funeral pyres

66

Crocodiles slide slowly into deeper water to:

  1. ((a))

    take rest

  2. ((b))

    take breath

  3. ((c))

    eat

  4. ((d))

    escape the heat

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

escape the heat

The correct answer is 'escape the heat'

Key Points

  • In the given poem, the line "Crocodiles move into deeper water" suggests that the crocodiles are seeking relief from the heat.
  • The phrase "move into deeper water" implies that the crocodiles are intentionally sliding into a cooler and more comfortable environment.
  • The mention of the "sombre wind" and "Mornings of heated middens" further implies a hot and uncomfortable atmosphere, indicating that the crocodiles are trying to escape the heat.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

67

'Middens' is closest in meaning to:

  1. ((a))

    women

  2. ((b))

    girls

  3. ((c))

    dung heaps

  4. ((d))

    gardens

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

dung heaps

The correct answer is 'dung heaps'. 

Key Points

  • Middens typically refer to refuse or waste heaps, often consisting of organic matter, such as food waste, animal dung, or other discarded materials.
  • In the context of the poem, the line "Mornings of heated middens" suggests the presence of smoking or smoldering heaps of waste material under the sun, indicating an unpleasant or unclean environment.
  • This aligns with the somber and atmospheric tone of the poem, where various contrasting elements are described, including the soughing wind, the chanting priests, and the presence of crocodiles seeking refuge in deeper water.

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

68

In this short poem, the poet describes:

  1. ((a))

    The Indian heat in the summer

  2. ((b))

    Indian summer morning

  3. ((c))

    Indian summer afternoon

  4. ((d))

    Indian summer evening

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Indian heat in the summer

The correct answer is 'The Indian heat in the summer'. 

Key Points

  • The imagery and descriptions in the poem suggest the portrayal of an Indian summer morning.
  • The mention of the sombre wind and the priests chanting louder than ever indicate the beginning of a new day.
  • The reference to crocodiles moving into deeper water implies their response to the increasing heat, which is characteristic of an Indian summer.
  • The phrase "Mornings of heated middens, Smoke under the sun" further emphasizes the presence of a hot environment during the morning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

69

Which of the following is not the meaning of Sombre?

  1. ((a))

    dark

  2. ((b))

    dull

  3. ((c))

    sad

  4. ((d))

    sober

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

sober

The correct answer is 'Sober'.

Key Points

  • In the given poem, the word "sombre" is used to describe the wind.
  • The word "sombre" typically means dark, dull, or gloomy.
  • In the context of the poem, "sombre" is used to convey a sense of darkness or gloominess associated with the wind.
  • The word "sober" refers to a state of seriousness , which is not directly related to the meaning of "sombre" as used in the poem.
  • While "sombre" can evoke a sense of sadness or seriousness, it primarily refers to darkness or gloominess rather than being solemn.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

70

What sense permeates the whole poem?

  1. ((a))

    a sense of delight

  2. ((b))

    a sense of inactivity and lethargy

  3. ((c))

    a sense of quiet and content

  4. ((d))

    a sense of indifference and anxiety

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a sense of inactivity and lethargy

The correct answer is 'a sense of inactivity and lethargy'.

Key Points

  • The poem conveys a somber and quiet atmosphere.
  • References to priests chanting, crocodiles moving slowly, and heated middens suggest a lack of activity.
  • The poem's imagery of funeral pyres and the unexhausted wife reinforces a stagnant and unchanging environment.
  • Thus, the repeated emphasis on quietness and lack of energy permeates the entire poem, creates a a sense of inactivity and lethargy.

The correct answer is Option 2.

71

Language skills include:

  1. ((a))

    only listening and speaking

  2. ((b))

    only listening, speaking, reading, writing

  3. ((c))

    only reading and writing

  4. ((d))

    only vocabulary and grammar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

only listening, speaking, reading, writing

Language skills are necessary for effective communication in any environment and to interact with others. It allows an individual to comprehend and produce language for proper and effective interpersonal communication.

Key Points

  • The four basic language skills and their natural order are listening-speaking-reading-writing. These foundational skills of language are divided into two categories which are receptive and productive skills.

Let's understand it briefly:

  • Productive skills: 
  • The productive skills of language are speaking and writing because these skills can measure learners' ability to produce language.
  • Both skills are concerned with language product or output through speech or written tests.
  • Receptive skills:
  • The receptive skills of language are listening and reading because these skills don't require the production of language.
  • These skills focus on an individual's ability of understanding and comprehend language and information.

Hence, from the above-mentioned points, it becomes clear that language skills include only listening, speaking, reading, and writing.

72

A speaking skill practice activity requires:

  1. ((a))

    a lot of teacher talk time.

  2. ((b))

    a lot of pupil talk time.

  3. ((c))

    a lot of dialogue writing time.

  4. ((d))

    a lot of reading time.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a lot of pupil talk time.

Language provides a bank of memories and symbols inherited from one's fellow speakers and created in one's own lifetime. It helps an individual to communicate with others effectively. 

  • Speaking is a crucial part of second language learning and teaching. It is not merely a repetition of drills or memorization of dialogues. Instead, it helps to improve one's communicative skills, because, only in that way, people can express themselves.

Key Points

  • A speaking skill practice activity is one where pupils are allowed to speak and talk more as it makes them able to relate language learning with real-life situations.
  • Providing talking time to pupils:
  • promotes learners to encounter real-life situations.
  • emphasizes the functional use of language in the real context.
  • prepares the learners for meaningful and authentic communicative activity.
  • lays emphasis on using language to communicate meaningfully in the target language.

Hence, it could be concluded that a speaking skill practice activity requires a lot of pupil talk time.

73

Practice in language function focuses on:

  1. ((a))

    grammatical structures of language

  2. ((b))

    use of appropriate language

  3. ((c))

    spelling

  4. ((d))

    handwriting

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

use of appropriate language

Language function refers to the use of language for specific purposes, such as expressing opinions, making requests, or giving instructions.

Key Points

  • When practicing language function, the main objective is to develop the ability to use language in real-life situations and communicate effectively.
  • This involves using appropriate language, considering factors such as the context, audience, and purpose of communication.
  • Language function practice goes beyond grammar and emphasizes the functional aspects of language, such as expressing opinions, making requests, giving instructions, negotiating, persuading, and engaging in social interactions.
  • By engaging in language function practice, learners not only enhance their grammatical accuracy but also develop fluency, confidence, and the ability to convey intended meanings in different contexts.
  • They learn to choose appropriate words, phrases, and expressions to suit the specific communicative purpose and audience.

Hence, it is clear that practice in language function focuses on use of appropriate language.

Hint

  • Grammatical structures are important for constructing accurate sentences, focusing solely on grammar may not enable learners to effectively use language in practical situations.
  • On the other hand, spelling and handwriting are important components of writing skills, but they are not directly related to the practice of language function.
  • Spelling refers to the correct arrangement of letters to form words, while handwriting pertains to the legibility and neatness of writing. While they contribute to overall communication skills, they are not the central focus when practicing language function.
74

Language acquisition requires only:

  1. ((a))

    acquaintance with grammatical structures of a language

  2. ((b))

    smart board for graded vocabulary practice

  3. ((c))

    language laboratory for pronunciation correction

  4. ((d))

    language rich environment for a subconscious learning process

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

language rich environment for a subconscious learning process

Language is a symbolic, rule-governed system, shared by a group of people to express their thoughts and feelings. In a child, language development takes place through language acquisition and language learning.

Key Points

  • Language acquisition requires a language-rich environment where learners can interact, listen, speak, read, and write in meaningful contexts.
  • A language-rich environment provides opportunities for authentic communication, exposure to diverse language inputs, and meaningful language use.
  • It facilitates the subconscious learning process by immersing learners in real-life language situations, enabling them to absorb vocabulary, grammar, pronunciation, and cultural nuances naturally and intuitively.
  • While tools like smart boards and language laboratories can support language learning, they alone are not sufficient for comprehensive language acquisition.

Hence, it is clear that language acquisition requires only language-rich environment for a subconscious learning process.

75

Remedial teaching is meant to:

  1. ((a))

    help students with less academic achievements

  2. ((b))

    teach students who are not yet ready to learn

  3. ((c))

    to help students remember what they have learnt

  4. ((d))

    to find out how much students have learnt

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

help students with less academic achievements

Remedial Teaching is an integral part of the teaching-learning program, also known as compensatory or corrective teaching.​ The objective of remedial teaching is to give additional help to learners who have fallen behind the rest of the class in any topic or subject.

Key Points

  • Remedial teaching is a specialized form of teaching that aims to provide additional support and assistance to students who are struggling academically or have lower levels of achievement compared to their peers.
  • It focuses on addressing specific learning gaps or difficulties that students may have in order to help them catch up with their peers and improve their academic performance.
  • Remedial teaching can involve various strategies and interventions tailored to the individual needs of students, such as additional practice, targeted instruction, differentiated learning materials, and personalized support.
  • The goal is to provide these students with the necessary resources and guidance to bridge the learning gaps and enhance their academic achievements.

Hence, it is clear that remedial teaching is meant to help students with less academic achievements.

76

Linguistic errors refer to:

  1. ((a))

    grammatical errors

  2. ((b))

    pronunciation errors

  3. ((c))

    spelling errors

  4. ((d))

    all the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

all the above

Linguistic errors refer to errors or mistakes made in various aspects of language, including grammar, pronunciation, and spelling. They encompass a wide range of language-related mistakes that can occur during speaking, writing, or even listening.

  • Linguistic errors are common during language learning and can be addressed through targeted instruction, practice, and feedback to improve language accuracy and proficiency.

Key PointsLinguistic errors include:

  • Grammatical errors: These involve mistakes in sentence structure, word order, verb tenses, agreement, and other grammatical rules. For example, using incorrect verb forms, subject-verb disagreement, or incorrect placement of modifiers.
  • Pronunciation errors: These errors occur when a person mispronounces words, sounds, or intonation patterns. It can include mispronouncing individual sounds, stressing the wrong syllables, or using incorrect intonation patterns.
  • Spelling errors: These errors occur when words are misspelled or spelled incorrectly. It can involve incorrect letter combinations, missing letters, or using the wrong letters to represent sounds.

Hence, it is clear that all of the above are types of linguistic errors.

77

When we evaluate speaking skills, we evaluate:

  1. ((a))

    pronunciation, pause, intonation, stress

  2. ((b))

    spelling, indenting, word choice, grammar

  3. ((c))

    eye span, making inferences, factual comprehension

  4. ((d))

    punctuation, handwriting, speed of reading

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pronunciation, pause, intonation, stress

Evaluation is the process of gathering and analyzing information to assess the effectiveness, quality, or value of something. It involves making judgments and providing feedback to make informed decisions and improvements.

Key PointsWhen evaluating speaking skills, the focus is primarily on the oral aspects of language production. Here's a breakdown of the components typically assessed:

  • Pronunciation: This refers to the ability to articulate sounds, stress, and intonation patterns accurately. It involves the correct production of individual sounds, word stress, sentence stress, and overall intonation to convey meaning effectively.
  • Pause: The appropriate use of pauses while speaking can enhance the clarity and coherence of speech. Pausing at the right moments allows for emphasis, coherence, and the organization of thoughts.
  • Intonation: Intonation refers to the rise and fall of pitch in spoken language. It helps convey meaning, express emotions, and distinguish between statements, questions, and other sentence types.
  • Stress: Stress refers to the emphasis placed on certain words or syllables within a sentence. It helps convey the intended meaning, highlight important information, and create rhythm and flow in speech.
  • By evaluating these aspects of speaking skills, assessors can assess the clarity, fluency, and effectiveness of communication. They can also provide feedback and guidance to learners to improve their oral proficiency.

Hence, it is clear that when we evaluate speaking skills, we evaluate pronunciation, pause, intonation, stress.

78

Teaching-learning materials are basically meant to:

  1. ((a))

    test

  2. ((b))

    teach and learn

  3. ((c))

    record progress

  4. ((d))

    check progress

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

teach and learn

Teaching-learning materials (TLMs), also known as instructional aids, facilitate a teacher in achieving the learning objectives formulated by her/him before teaching-learning activities start.

Key Points

  • Teaching-learning materials are primarily meant to facilitate the process of teaching and learning.
  • They provide resources, information, and activities that support instructional objectives and enhance students' understanding and acquisition of knowledge and skills.
  • While they may be used for assessment purposes, their main focus is on teaching and learning rather than testing or checking progress.

Hence, it is clear that teaching-learning materials are basically meant to teach and learn.

79

The place of grammar in practising communication skills can be described as:

  1. ((a))

    grammar in isolation

  2. ((b))

    comparative grammar

  3. ((c))

    grammar in context

  4. ((d))

    analysis of grammatical structures

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

grammar in context

Grammar is the backbone of any language. It is the womb that gives birth to sentences. These sentences are fertilized using grammar to form correct and appropriate speech.

Key Points

  • The place of grammar in practicing communication skills can be described as "grammar in context."
  • This means that grammar is integrated into meaningful and authentic language use situations.
  • Instead of focusing solely on isolated grammar rules, the emphasis is on using grammar in real-life contexts to facilitate effective communication.
  • By using grammar in context, learners can understand how grammar structures contribute to clear and accurate communication and apply them appropriately in various situations.

Hence, it is clear that the place of grammar in practicing communication skills can be described as grammar in context.

80

A good teacher uses a wide variety of teaching strategies because:

  1. ((a))

    different teaching objectives demand strategies different teaching

  2. ((b))

    different strategies appeal different learners

  3. ((c))

    it kills monotony and makes the classroom transaction interesting

  4. ((d))

    all the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

all the above

Teaching strategies are diverse methods and techniques used by educators to facilitate learning, engage students, and achieve instructional goals in the classroom.

Key PointsA good teacher uses a wide variety of teaching strategies because all the options mentioned are valid:

  • Different teaching objectives may require different strategies to effectively convey the desired knowledge or skills.
  • Additionally, learners have diverse learning styles and preferences, so using a range of strategies ensures that the needs of various learners are met.
  • Furthermore, incorporating different strategies helps prevent monotony in the classroom and keeps students engaged and interested in the learning process.
  • Therefore, a good teacher employs a variety of teaching strategies to cater to different objectives, learners, and maintain an engaging learning environment.

Hence, it is clear that all of the above are the correct answer.

Maths and Science (30 questions)

81

An object is held in front of a concave mirror between F and C. The image formed is:

  1. ((a))

    at F

  2. ((b))

    at C

  3. ((c))

    beyond C

  4. ((d))

    between C and F

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

beyond C

Explanation**:**

  • The image formation by concave mirrors follows certain rules depending on the location of the object.
  • If the object is placed between the focus (F) and the center of curvature (C), the image formed is virtual, erect, and magnified, and it is formed beyond the center of curvature.

So, if an object is held in front of a concave mirror between F and C, the image formed is beyond C (option 3).

mage formation by a concave mirror for different positions of the object are explained in the following chart:

Position of the objectPosition of the imageSize of the imageNature of the image
At infinityAt the focus FHighly diminished, point-sizedReal and inverted
Beyond CBetween F and CDiminishedReal and inverted
At CAt CSame sizeReal and inverted
Between C and FBeyond CEnlargedReal and inverted
At FAt infinityHighly enlargedReal and inverted
Between P and FBehind the mirrorEnlargedVirtual and erect

 

Key Points

  • Reflecting telescopes: The primary mirrors of many telescopes are concave mirrors that gather and focus light to create images of distant celestial objects.
  • Reflectors in headlights: Concave mirrors are used in headlights of vehicles to reflect and focus light, enhancing visibility.
  • Makeup and shaving mirrors: Small concave mirrors are often used in cosmetic and grooming mirrors to magnify the reflected image.
  • Dentist's mirrors: Concave mirrors with a slight magnification are used by dentists to help visualize and access hard-to-reach areas in the mouth.

Additional Information

  • This is one of the unique scenarios where a concave mirror forms a virtual image. In all other cases, with the object at or beyond F, the image formed by a concave mirror is real and inverted.
  • The image formed when the object is between F and C (or at F or beyond C) is always larger than the original object. When the object is between F and the mirror, the image becomes magnified.
  • The position of the image can be found using the mirror equation: 1/v + 1/u = 1/f, where v is the image distance, u is the object distance, and f is the focal length of the mirror. However, for a quick qualitative understanding, remembering the rules for image formation by a concave mirror is very useful.
  • The terms F and C refer to specific points relative to the mirror. F is the focal point, the point where parallel rays of light converge after reflecting off the mirror. C is the center of curvature, the center of the sphere of which the mirror forms a part. The distance from the mirror to F is the focal length, and the distance from the mirror to C is twice the focal length.
82

The resistance of the cell does not depend on:

  1. ((a))

    Current drawn from the cell

  2. ((b))

    Temperature of electrolyte

  3. ((c))

    Concentration of electrolyte

  4. ((d))

    The emf of the cell

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The emf of the cell

CONCEPT:

  • Internal resistance (r): The resistance offered by the electrolyte to the flow of ions is known as the internal resistance.
  • A cell is said to be ideal if it has zero internal resistance.

The dependency of internal resistance of a cell:

  • The internal resistance of a cell is directly proportional to the distance between electrodes.
  • The internal resistance of a cell is inversely proportional to the area of the electrodes.
  • The internal resistance of a cell is directly proportional to the concentration of the electrolyte.
  • The internal resistance of a cell is inversely proportional to the temperature of the electrolyte.

EXPLANATION:​

  • The internal resistance of a cell depends on the current drawn from the cell, distance between the electrode, concentration of electrolyte but independent of emf of the cell.
83

Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 1 ∶ 27. The ratio of their surface areas will be:

  1. ((a))

    9 ∶ 27

  2. ((b))

    1 ∶ 9

  3. ((c))

    1 ∶ 3

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 ∶ 9

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Volumes (V1 : V2) = 1 : 27

Ratio of Sides (a1 : a2) = √31 : √327 = 1 : 3

Ratio of Surface Areas (S1 : S2) = (a1)2 : (a2)2 = 12 : 32 = 1 : 9

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 9.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of volumes of two cubes = 1 : 27.

Formula Used:

Volume of a cube (V) = a3 (where a is the side)

Total Surface Area (S) = 6a2

Calculations:

⇒ Let the sides of the two cubes be a1 and a2.

⇒ V1 / V2 = a13 / a23 = 1 / 27

⇒ (a1 / a2) = √3(1 / 27) = 1 / 3

⇒ The ratio of their surface areas (S1 / S2) = (6 × a12) / (6 × a22)

⇒ S1 / S2 = (a1 / a2)2

⇒ S1 / S2 = (1 / 3)2 = 1 / 9

∴ The ratio of the surface areas is 1 : 9.

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 9.

Additional Information

Diagonal of a Cube

The length of the longest diagonal of a cube with side 'a' is given by a√3.

Lateral Surface Area (LSA)

The LSA of a cube includes only the 4 side faces, calculated as 4a2.

Volume and Surface Area Relationship

If the ratio of sides is x : y, then the ratio of surface areas is x2 : y2 and the ratio of volumes is x3 : y3.

84

A trader mixes three varieties of groundnuts costing Rs. 50, Rs. 20 and Rs. 30 per kg in the ratio 2 ∶ 4 ∶ 3 in terms of weight, and sells the mixture at Rs. 33 per kg. What percentage of profit does he make?

  1. ((a))

    8%

  2. ((b))

    9%

  3. ((c))

    10%

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10%

Concept use:

Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100

Calculation:

Let's assume that the trader takes 2 kg, 4 kg, and 3 kg of the groundnuts costing Rs. 50, Rs. 20, and Rs. 30 per kg, respectively.

The total weight of the mixture is 2 + 4 + 3 = 9 kg.

The total cost of the mixture is (2 × 50) + (4 ×  20) + (3 × 30) = 100 + 80 + 90 = Rs. 270.

Therefore, the cost price per kilogram of the mixture (CP) is 270 / 9 = Rs. 30.

The selling price per kilogram of the mixture (SP) is given as Rs. 33.

The profit per kilogram (P) is calculated as SP - CP = 33 - 30 = Rs. 3.

The profit percentage is given by the formula:

Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100

Profit Percentage = (3 / 30) ×  100 = 10%

Hence, the trader makes a profit of 10%.

85

Ravi got married 8 years ago. His present age is (\frac{6}{5}) times his age at the time of his marriage. Ravi's sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The present age of Ravi's sister is:

  1. ((a))

    32 years

  2. ((b))

    36 years

  3. ((c))

    38 years

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

38 years

Shortcut Trick

Age ratio (Present : Marriage) = 6 : 5

Difference in ratio units = 6 − 5 = 1 unit

Actual age difference = 8 years (Time since marriage)

∴ 1 unit = 8 years → Present age of Ravi = 6 × 8 = 48 years

Sister is 10 years younger than Ravi → Sister's age = 48 − 10 = 38 years

∴ The correct answer is 38 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Time since marriage = 8 years. Age ratio = 6/5. Age difference with sister = 10 years.

Let Ravi's age at the time of marriage be x.

⇒ Present age = x + 8

According to the question:

⇒ x + 8 = (6/5) × x

⇒ 5(x + 8) = 6x

⇒ 5x + 40 = 6x

⇒ x = 40 years (Age at marriage)

⇒ Ravi's present age = 40 + 8 = 48 years

⇒ Sister's present age = 48 − 10 = 38 years

∴ The correct answer is 38 years.

Additional Information

Age Difference Property

The age difference between two persons remains constant throughout their lives, regardless of the number of years passed.

Ratio Method for Ages

If the ratio of ages changes from a:b to c:d over 'k' years, the value of one unit is calculated by balancing the parts or using cross-multiplication.

86

If the process of transfer of heat is slow then it can be:

  1. ((a))

    conduction or convection

  2. ((b))

    conduction or radiation

  3. ((c))

    convection or radiation

  4. ((d))

    radiation only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

conduction or convection

Concept:

Heat can be transferred through three main modes: conduction, convection, and radiation. 

  • Conduction is the transfer of heat between substances that are in direct contact with each other. It is generally slower and occurs primarily in solids.
  • Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids or gases. This process is generally faster than conduction because it involves the bulk movement of molecules.
  • Radiation is the transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves and it doesn't require any medium to transfer heat.

Explanation:

  • In the context of the speed of heat transfer, radiation is generally the fastest method because it travels at the speed of light and doesn't need a medium.
  • Convection is typically faster than conduction because it involves the movement of fluids, which can transport heat away from a source quicker than conduction through a solid.
  • Therefore, if the process of transfer of heat is slow, it can be either conduction or convection

Additional Information

  • In conduction, the speed of heat transfer depends on the thermal conductivity of the material.
  • Metals, for instance, are good conductors of heat, while wood or plastic are poor conductors (insulators).
  • In convection, the speed of heat transfer can be influenced by several factors, including the temperature difference between the fluid and its surroundings, the size of the convection currents, and the properties of the fluid.
  • Radiation can occur in a vacuum (like space), while conduction and convection require a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to occur.
  • This is why the sun's heat can reach us through the vacuum of space.
  • The principles of conduction, convection, and radiation are fundamental in several areas of science and engineering, including climate science, building design, and even cooking.
87

For double convex lens R1 and R2 are:

  1. ((a))

    positive, negative

  2. ((b))

    negative, positive

  3. ((c))

    positive, positive

  4. ((d))

    negative, negative

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

positive, negative

Concept:

  • The sign convention for radii of curvature in optics is an essential concept here.
Lens TypeCenter of Curvature PositionThe radius of Curvature (R)
Double ConvexThe opposite side of lightPositive
Double ConcaveSame side as lightNegative
  • For lenses, the radius of curvature, R, is considered positive if the corresponding center of curvature is on the side of the lens from which the light emerges (opposite the side of the incoming light), and negative if it is on the same side as the incoming light.
  • A double convex lens is a lens that is curved outward on both sides.
  • The light enters one curved side, exits the other, and both centers of curvature are on the side opposite the incoming light.

Explanation:

  • Given the sign convention, when we look at a double convex lens, the radius of curvature for the first surface (R1) is positive because its center of curvature is on the side from which the light emerges.
  • Similarly, for the second surface (R2), the center of curvature is also on the side from which the light enters
  • Therefore, R2 is negative.
  • So, for a double convex lens, R1 is positive and R2 is negative.

Additional Information

  • The sign convention is a crucial part of working with lenses and mirrors in optics.
  • It helps in accurately predicting the characteristics of the image formed, such as whether the image is real or virtual, upright or inverted, and its position and size.
  • The radii of curvature, R1, and R2, along with the refractive index of the lens material, determine the focal length of the lens according to the lensmaker's formula.
  • Understanding the sign convention is essential for calculating the properties of lenses.
  • For a double concave lens, where both surfaces curve inward, the sign convention would result in both radii of curvature being negative.
88

Eggs, Cheese and milk are rich source of:

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin A and D

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin B and D

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin B and E

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin A and B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vitamin A and D

Explanation:

  • Dietary sources of vitamins vary widely, and different food items can be rich in different vitamins.
  • Eggs, cheese, and milk are all animal-derived foods known for their nutritional content, which includes several vitamins.
  • Eggs, cheese, and milk are all known to be good sources of vitamins A and D.
  • Vitamin A: Both the egg yolk and milk products like cheese and milk contain Vitamin A. It's a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for vision, growth, cell division, reproduction, and immunity.
  • Vitamin D: Again, egg yolks, cheese, and milk are good sources of Vitamin D, another fat-soluble vitamin. In particular, many dairy products are fortified with Vitamin D to help promote calcium absorption for healthy bones.
  • So, eggs, cheese, and milk are rich sources of vitamins A and D.
  • While they are rich in Vitamins A and D, eggs, cheese, and milk also contain some of the B vitamins, particularly B2 (riboflavin) and B12, but not all of them, so they are not generally considered a rich source of Vitamin B as a whole.
  • Vitamin D is unique because it can also be synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight.
  • However, dietary sources can still be important, particularly in regions with less sunlight or for individuals who do not spend much time outdoors.
  • It's also worth noting that while these foods are nutritious, they also contain saturated fats and cholesterol.
  • Vitamins are essential nutrients, meaning they must be obtained from the diet because the body cannot produce sufficient quantities on its own.
  • Different vitamins have different roles in the body, from supporting vision and the immune system to aiding in energy production and bone health.
89

If x = ya, y = zb, z = xc, then abc is:

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    -1

  3. ((c))

    0

  4. ((d))

    xyz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Given:

x = ya, y = zb, z = xc

Calculation:

z = xc

⇒ z = (ya)c

⇒ z = yac

Again,

y = zb

⇒ y = (yac)b

⇒ y = yabc

⇒ y1 = yabc

⇒ 1 = abc

∴ Required answer is 1.

90

The most common way of proving in Geometry is:

  1. ((a))

    Inductive Method

  2. ((b))

    Deductive Method

  3. ((c))

    Proof by contradiction

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Deductive Method

Geometry is the branch of mathematics that studies sizes, shapes, properties, and relations of points, lines, surfaces, and solids. It has been an important part of mathematics.

It should be taught in such a way that learners can understand and construct meaning.

Key Points

  • The deductive method is the best method to teach geometry. It starts with the learner giving rules, then examples, and practice.
  • In this method, the teacher uses the established formula, principle, or generalizations to solve the problem.
  • The students proceed from general to particular, from abstract to concrete.
  • The facts are deduced or analyzed by the application of the established formula.
  • It is helpful in solving geometrical proofs as it is based on reasoning.

Hence, we can conclude that the most common way of proving Geometry is the Deductive Method.

91

Following is given the sources of funds to be arranged by National Highways Authority of India for its Phase II project in crores of rupees:

<br>

The Percentage of central angle corresponding to Market Borrowing is:

  1. ((a))

    52%

  2. ((b))

    187.2%

  3. ((c))

    192.4%

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

52%

Calculations:

The sources of funds to be arranged by National Highways Authority of India for its Phase II project in crores of rupees for Market Borrowing is 29952.

Total is 57,600 crores

The Percentage of Central angle corresponding to Market Borrowing is (29952/ 57600) × 100 = 52%

Hence, The Correct Answer is option1.

92

Specific heat of a substance at the melting point becomes:

  1. ((a))

    low

  2. ((b))

    high

  3. ((c))

    remains unchanged

  4. ((d))

    infinite

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

infinite

Concept:

  • Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius.
  • During phase transitions, such as melting or boiling, additional heat energy is required to change the phase of the substance, but this energy does not contribute to a rise in temperature.
  • The term "latent heat" refers to the heat energy absorbed or released by a substance during a phase change, such as melting or boiling.
  • The word "latent" means hidden, reflecting the fact that this heat doesn't cause a temperature change.
  • The specific heat capacity of a substance can vary depending on its phase (solid, liquid, or gas).
  • For example, the specific heat capacity of water is different from that of ice or steam, even though all three are the same substance (H2O).
  • Once all of a substance has melted and it is entirely in the liquid phase, the temperature can again start to rise with the addition of heat, and the specific heat capacity returns to a finite value.
  • The same principle applies at the boiling point, with the heat during boiling going towards the latent heat of vaporization rather than a temperature increase.

Explanation:

  • When a substance is at its melting point, the heat energy added to the substance is used to overcome the forces of attraction between the particles to change the state of the substance from solid to liquid. This heat energy is known as the latent heat of fusion. During this process, the temperature of the substance remains constant until all the substance has melted.
  • In terms of specific heat capacity, this would mean that theoretically, an infinite amount of heat energy could be added to the substance without causing a change in temperature.
  • Therefore, the specific heat of a substance at its melting point becomes infinite.
93

Choke coil works on the principle of:

  1. ((a))

    Wattless current

  2. ((b))

    Self inductance

  3. ((c))

    Mutual inductance

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Self inductance

Concept:

  • A choke coil is an electrical component that is designed to block higher-frequency alternating current (AC) in an electrical circuit while allowing lower-frequency or direct current (DC) to pass.
  • This is achieved through a property of electrical circuits known as inductance.
  • Explanation:
  • A choke works on the principle of self-inductance.
  • Self-inductance is a property of a circuit where a change in the current flowing through the circuit induces an electromotive force (EMF) that opposes the change in current.
  • This is due to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, which states that a change in the magnetic field in a circuit induces an EMF.
  • When an AC signal passes through a choke coil, the constant change in current direction (which is characteristic of AC) causes a change in magnetic field.
  • The choke coil, due to its property of self-inductance, resists this change in a magnetic field by inducing an opposing EMF.
  • This induced EMF chokes off, or greatly reduces, the higher-frequency components of the AC signal, allowing only the lower-frequency or DC components to pass.
  • Therefore, a choke coil works on the principle of self-inductance.

Additional Information

  • Choke coils are commonly used in electronic devices and power supply circuits to filter and reduce noise, and to prevent damage to sensitive components from high-frequency signals or surges.
  • While choke coils are primarily based on self-inductance, the concept of mutual inductance is also important in many electrical components, such as transformers.
  • Mutual inductance occurs when a change in current in one circuit induces an EMF in a nearby circuit.
  • The terms "choke coil" or "choke" can also refer to an inductor used in radio frequency (RF) applications to block RF signals while passing DC.
  • These RF choke coils also work based on the principle of self-inductance.
  • Chokes can be made with varying properties to suit different applications, such as different inductance values, current capacities, and frequency ranges.
94

A parallelogram which has equal diagonals is a:

  1. ((a))

    Rhombus

  2. ((b))

    Rectangle

  3. ((c))

    Trapezium

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rectangle

The correct answer is Rectangle.

<br>

Explanation:

option 1)

 In a Rhombus, opposite sides are parallel, and all sides are equal in length. Additionally, the diagonals of a Rhombus bisect each other at right angles, 

Option (2)

Rectangle is correct because although a rectangle is a parallelogram. The diagonals of a rectangle are congruent, and  equal.

Option (3)

Trapezium is not correct because a Trapezium (also known as a trapezoid) is a quadrilateral with one pair of parallel sides. It does not have equal diagonals.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

95

Read the following question and its solution:

If (\frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d}) then to prove

d(a - 2ab) = b(c - 2ad)

Solution: ∴ (\frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d})

∴ (\frac{a}{b}) - 2a = (\frac{c}{d}) - 2a

∴ d(a - 2ab) = b(c - 2ad)

The method used above for solving the problem is called:

  1. ((a))

    Analytic Method

  2. ((b))

    Synthetic Method

  3. ((c))

    Inductive Method

  4. ((d))

    Heuristic Method

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Synthetic Method

Mathematics has always been the most important subject in the school curriculum. The teacher must have a specialized understanding of the foundations of mathematical thinking and learning. There are various teaching methods of Mathematics including analytic, synthetic, induction, and deduction, etc.

Key Points 

  • Synthesis refers to a combination of two or more entities that together form something new.
  • In this method, we move from known to unknown and from hypothesis to conclusion.
  • It is just the opposite of the analytic method.
  • It is an approach in which we collect and combine various facts to find out the unknown result.
  • It systematically presents the facts and can be applied to the majority of topics in the teaching of Mathematics.
  • If (\frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d}) then to prove, d(a - 2ab) = b(c - 2ad)
  • Solution: ∴ (\frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d})

∴ (\frac{a}{b}) - 2a = (\frac{c}{d}) - 2a

∴ d(a - 2ab) = b(c - 2ad)

  • This method of solution is the synthetic method.

Hence, We can conclude that The method used above for solving the problem is called Synthetic Method.

96

As per the NCF 2005, narrow aim of Mathematics teaching is:

  1. ((a))

    to teach number system and higher aim is to teach algebra.

  2. ((b))

    to teach calculation and higher aim is to teach mensuration.

  3. ((c))

    to develop numeracy related skill and higher aim is to develop problem solving skill.

  4. ((d))

    to teach arithmetic and higher aim is to teach algebra.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

to develop numeracy related skill and higher aim is to develop problem solving skill.

National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 provides a guideline with which teachers and schools can choose and plan experiences that they think children should have. It seeks to reform the curriculum and to bring learning experiences in and outside the classroom. According to the NCF 2005, “Developing children’s abilities for mathematization is the main goal of mathematics education.”

Key Points 

There are two kinds of aims in mathematics for school education such as broader and narrower aims.

Narrower aim-

  • To develop numeracy-related skills
  • To develop ‘useful’ capabilities
  • Particularly those relating to numeracy- numbers, number operations, measurements, decimals, and percentages

Broader/ Higher aim-

  • To develop Problem-solving skills.
  • Use of heuristics
  • Estimation and approximation
  • Optimization
  • Use of patterns
  • Visualization
  • Representation
  • Reasoning and proof
  • Making connections
  • Mathematical communication

Hence, We can conclude that As per the NCF 2005, the narrow aim of Mathematics teaching is to develop numeracy-related skills and the higher aim is to develop problem-solving skills.

97

Below is given the classification of 100 students based on marks in Physics and Chemistry obtained by them in an examination.

Marks out of 5040 and above30 and above20 and above10 and above0 and above
Subject
Physics9328092100
Chemistry4216681100
(Aggregate) Average7277387100

The percentage of the number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry over those getting at least 40% marks in aggregate, is approximately:

  1. ((a))

    29%

  2. ((b))

    31%

  3. ((c))

    34%

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29%

Calculation:

Total marks: 50 

The Number of Student getting Atleast 60% marks in Chemistry is 21 

The Number of Student getting Atleast 40% marks in Aggregate is 73 

Percentage = (21/73) × 100 = 28.76 Approx ~ 29%

98

A rectangular sheet of paper 22 cm long and 10 cm broad can be curved to form the lateral surface area of a right circular cylinder in two ways. The difference between the volumes of the two cylinders thus formed is:

  1. ((a))

    252 cm3

  2. ((b))

    200 cm3

  3. ((c))

    210 cm3

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

210 cm3

Given:

Length = 22 cm

Breadth = 10cm

Formula Used:

Circumference of circle = 2πR

Volume of Circular Cylinder = πR2h

Calculation:

Case 01 →

When the circumference of the base is 22 cm and the height is 10 cm

Circumference = 2πR1

⇒ R1 = 22/(2π) = 11/π

Volume = π × (11/π)2 × 10

⇒ Volume = (121 × 10)/π = 1210/π cm3

Case 02 →

When the circumference of the base is 10 cm and the height is 22 cm

Circumference = 2πR2

⇒ R2 = 10/(2π) = 5/π

Volume = π × (5/π)2 × 22 

⇒ Volume = (25 × 22)/π = 550/π cm3

Now the difference between the volumes

⇒ (1210/π) - (550/π) = 660 × (7/22) = 210 cm3

∴ The difference between the volumes of the two cylinders formed is 210 cm³.

Alternate Method

Calculations:

The rectangular sheet of paper is 22 cm long and 10 cm broad, we can see that the length of the paper will be the circumference of the base of the cylinder when curved. Similarly, the breadth of the paper will be the height of the cylinder.

Let's denote the radius of the first cylinder as r₁ and the height as h₁.

We know that the circumference of a cylinder's base is given by 2πr. So, we have:

2πr₁ = 22

Solving for r₁, we get:

r₁ = 22 / (2π) = 11 / π

The height of the first cylinder, h₁, is equal to the breadth of the paper, which is 10 cm.

Now, let's denote the radius of the second cylinder as r₂ and the height as h₂.

Since the rectangular sheet can be curved in two ways, the new cylinder will have the height 22, but the length (circumference of the base) will be equal to the breadth of the paper (10 cm).

So, we have:

2πr₂ = 10

Solving for r₂, we get:

r₂ = 10 / (2π) = 5 / π

The height of the second cylinder, h₂, is also 10 cm.

Now, let's calculate the volumes of the two cylinders:

Volume of the first cylinder = πr₁²h₁ = π(11/π)²(10) = 385 cm³

Volume of the second cylinder = πr₂²h₂ = π(5/π)²(22) = 175 cm³

The difference in volumes = Volume of the first cylinder - Volume of the second cylinder = 385 cm³ - 175 cm³ = 210 cm³

Therefore, the difference between the volumes of the two cylinders formed is 210 cm³.

99

Nitrogen gas cannot be obtained by heating following:

  1. ((a))

    Ammonium dichromate

  2. ((b))

    Ammonium nitrite

  3. ((c))

    Silver nitrate

  4. ((d))

    Barium azide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Silver nitrate

Explanation:

  • Different chemical compounds, when heated, decompose to form various products.
  • Some compounds contain nitrogen and can decompose to produce nitrogen gas, while others do not.

 1) Ammonium dichromate ((NH4)2Cr2O7):

Upon heating, it decomposes to produce nitrogen gas (N2), water vapor (H2O), and chromium(III) oxide (Cr2O3).

(NH4)2Cr2O7(s) → N2(g) + 4 H2O(g) + Cr2O3(s)

2) Ammonium nitrite (NH4NO2):

Upon heating, it decomposes to produce nitrogen gas (N2) and water vapor (H2O).

NH4NO2(s) → N2(g) + 2 H2O(g)

3) Barium azide (Ba(N3)2):

Upon heating, it decomposes to produce barium metal (Ba) and nitrogen gas (N2).

Ba(N3)2(s) → Ba(s) + 3 N2(g)

4) Silver nitrate (AgNO3):

Upon heating, it decomposes to produce silver metal (Ag), nitrogen dioxide gas (NO2), and oxygen gas (O2). Note that nitrogen gas (N2) is not formed in this reaction.

2 AgNO3(s) → 2 Ag(s) + 2 NO2(g) + O2(g)

These reactions represent the decomposition of each compound upon heating and the resulting products.

So, nitrogen gas cannot be obtained by heating Silver nitrate.

Additional Information

  • Nitrogen gas is a common product in the thermal decomposition of many nitrogen-containing compounds due to nitrogen's tendency to form a very stable N2 molecule with a strong triple bond.
  • While heating these compounds can produce nitrogen gas, this must be done in a controlled and safe manner, as some of these reactions can be explosive.
  • These types of reactions, where a compound breaks down into simpler substances when heated, are examples of thermal decomposition reactions.
  • While nitrogen gas is a common product in these reactions, the other products can vary widely and depend on the specific compounds involved.
  • For example, chromium(III) oxide from ammonium dichromate, water from ammonium nitrite, and barium metal from barium azide.
  • Nitrogen gas is a diatomic molecule (N2), not to be confused with nitrogen oxides like NO2 or N2O, which can be produced in other reactions.
100

In a right angled triangle the square of hypoteneous is twice the product of other sides. Then the triangle is:

  1. ((a))

    Equilateral

  2. ((b))

    Isosceles

  3. ((c))

    Of angles 30°, 60°, 90°

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Isosceles

Concept use:

Pythagoras theorem:

According to the theorem, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

Calculation:

Let's assume that the lengths of the sides of the right-angled triangle are a, b, and c, where c is the hypotenuse. The Pythagorean theorem can be written as:

c² = a² + b²

c² = 2 ×  (a ×  b) (given)

By (I) & (II)

⇒ a² + b² = 2 × (a ×  b)

⇒ a² - 2ab + b² = 0

⇒(a - b)² = 0

Since the square of a real number is always non-negative, the only way for the equation (a - b)² = 0 to be true is if (a - b) is equal to zero:

⇒ a - b = 0

This implies that a = b.

Hence, The Correct option is 2

101

Select the wrong statement regarding AIDS:

  1. ((a))

    AIDS is an immunodeficiency disease.

  2. ((b))

    HIV selectively infects and kills B-lymphocytes.

  3. ((c))

    Retrovirus have RNA genomes that replicate via DNA intermediate.

  4. ((d))

    Viral RNA  is converted into DNA copy by reverse transcryptase.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

HIV selectively infects and kills B-lymphocytes.

Explanation:

  • AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) is a disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
  • HIV is a retrovirus, a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material and replicates via a DNA intermediate.

Let's examine each statement:

  • AIDS is an immunodeficiency disease: This is correct. AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, and it results in a severe weakening of the immune system, making the body susceptible to opportunistic infections and diseases.
  • HIV selectively infects and kills B-lymphocytes: This is incorrect. HIV primarily infects and destroys T-lymphocytes (specifically CD4+ T cells), not B-lymphocytes.
  • The destruction of these cells impairs the immune system's ability to respond to infections.
  • Retroviruses have RNA genomes that replicate via a DNA intermediate: This is correct. Retroviruses, including HIV, carry their genetic material as RNA.
  • When they infect a cell, they use an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of their RNA. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, allowing the virus to replicate.
  • Viral RNA is converted into a DNA copy by reverse transcriptase: This is also correct. As mentioned above, reverse transcriptase is the enzyme that retroviruses use to create a DNA copy of their RNA genome.
  • So, the wrong statement regarding AIDS is "HIV selectively infects and kills B-lymphocytes.
102

What is immaterial for an fuse wire?

  1. ((a))

    Its specific resistance

  2. ((b))

    Its radius

  3. ((c))

    Its length

  4. ((d))

    Current flowing through it

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Its length

Concept:

  • A fuse wire is a thin wire made of low-melting point material, used as a safety device in electrical circuits.
  • Its purpose is to protect the circuit from excessive currents that could cause damage or hazards.
  • When a fault or overload occurs, the fuse wire heats up due to its resistance. As the current increases, the wire melts or breaks, creating an open circuit and stopping the flow of current.
  • The specific resistance, length, and thickness of the wire are carefully selected to match the circuit's requirements.
  • Overall, a fuse wire acts as a sacrificial element, sacrificing itself to protect the circuit and prevent further damage.
  • Replacing the fuse wire is necessary after it melts or breaks to restore the circuit's functionality and maintain safety.

Explanation:

  • Its specific resistance: A material with higher resistance will heat up more quickly, leading to faster melting of the fuse in case of overcurrent.
  • Its radius: A thinner wire (smaller radius) will heat up and melt faster than a thicker one for the same material and current, making the fuse more sensitive.
  • Its length: A longer wire has more resistance than a shorter one (for the same material and cross-sectional area), and therefore it will heat up more quickly.
  • Current flowing through it: The fuse is designed to melt (or "blow") when a certain current threshold is exceeded. This is the fundamental operating principle of a fuse.
  • However, if we had to choose the least important factor from the ones you listed, it would be the length of the fuse wire.
  • In practical applications, fuse wires are usually very short, so while the length does technically affect the resistance (and therefore the heating), its effect is likely to be much smaller compared to the other factors.
  • Still, this doesn't mean length is completely immaterial; it's just potentially less critical in most cases.

 

Additional Information

  • Specific resistance: The specific resistance of a fuse wire material is crucial for its proper functioning.
  • High specific resistance means the wire won't melt or break when it should, while low specific resistance may cause it to melt or break even with a safe current.
  • Radius: The radius or thickness of a fuse wire determines its maximum current-carrying capacity.
  • A thicker wire can handle more current without melting or breaking, while a thinner wire has a lower current limit.
  • Length: The length of a fuse wire affects its overall resistance.
  • Longer wires have higher resistance, which is necessary for controlled melting or breaking during electrical faults.
  • Current flowing through it: The current flowing through a fuse wire is vital.
  • Excessive current causes the wire to heat up and melt or break, protecting the circuit.
  • The wire should operate within its rated current limit.
103

The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legume plant is:

  1. ((a))

    Nodule differentiation

  2. ((b))

    Expression of nif gene

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen removal

  4. ((d))

    Inhibition of nitrogenase activity

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Oxygen removal

The correct option for the function of leghemoglobin in the root nodules of legume plants is 3) Oxygen removal.

Explanation:

  • Leghemoglobin is a protein found in the root nodules of leguminous plants, such as peas, beans, and clover.
  • It serves a crucial role in the process of nitrogen fixation, which occurs in the root nodules.
  • Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2) into a form that can be utilized by plants, such as ammonia (NH3) or ammonium (NH4+).
  • During nitrogen fixation, bacteria called Rhizobia reside within the root nodules of legume plants.
  • These bacteria have the ability to convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia through the enzyme nitrogenase.
  • However, nitrogenase is extremely sensitive to oxygen. If oxygen is present, it can inhibit the nitrogenase enzyme and impede the process of nitrogen fixation.
  • This is where leghemoglobin comes into play.
  • Leghemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen and serves as an oxygen scavenger within the root nodules.
  • It binds with oxygen and helps to maintain a low-oxygen environment around the nitrogenase enzyme.
  • By removing or reducing the oxygen concentration, leghemoglobin protects the nitrogenase enzyme from being inhibited and allows nitrogen fixation to proceed efficiently.
  • Therefore, the primary function of leghemoglobin in the root nodules of legume plants is the removal of oxygen, ensuring the optimal conditions for nitrogen fixation and facilitating the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms by the plant.
104

A man travelled from the village to railway station at the rate of 25 km/hour and walked back at the rate of 4 km/hour. If the whole journey took 5 hours 48 minutes, then the distance of Railway Station from the village will be:

  1. ((a))

    10 km

  2. ((b))

    25 km

  3. ((c))

    20 km

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20 km

Calculations:

Let's assume the distance from the village to the railway station is 'd' kilometers.

When the man traveled from the village to the railway station at a speed of 25 km/h, the time taken can be calculated as:

Time = Distance(d)/Speed, Time = d / 25

When the man walked back from the railway station to the village at a speed of 4 km/h, the time taken can be calculated as:

Time = Distance(d /Speed, Time = d / 4

the total journey took 5 hours and 48 minutes, which can be converted to hours as 5 + 48/60 = 5.8 hours.

The sum of the two times should equal the total journey time:

d / 25 + d / 4 = 5.8

4d + 25d = 5.8 × 100

29d = 580

d = 20

Hence, the distance of the railway station from the village is 20 kilometers.

105

In the examination of statistics, the average for the entire class was 80 marks. If 10% of the students scored 95 marks and 20% scored 90 marks, then the average marks of the remaining students of the class is:

  1. ((a))

    75

  2. ((b))

    85

  3. ((c))

    95

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75

Calculations:

Let's assume there are 'n' students in the class.

Let's denote the average marks of the remaining students as 'x'.

The total sum of marks for the entire class is 'n' multiplied by the average marks (80):

Total marks = n ×  80

The sum of marks contributed by the students who scored 95 is:

(10% of n) × 95 = 0.1n ×  95

The sum of marks contributed by the students who scored 90 is:

(20% of n) × 90 = 0.2n × 90

Now,

Remaining marks = Total marks - Sum of marks contributed by 95-score students - Sum of marks contributed by 90-score students

Remaining marks = n ×  80 - 0.1n × 95 - 0.2n ×  90

 The remaining students constitute (100% - 10% - 20%) = 70% of the class, 70% of 'n'.

The average marks of the remaining students (x) can be expressed as:

x = Remaining marks / (70% of n)

x = [n ×  80 - 0.1n ×  95 - 0.2n ×  90] / (0.7n)

x = (80n - 0.1n ×  95 - 0.2n × 90) / (0.7n)

x = (80n - 9.5n - 18n) / (0.7n)

x = (80 - 9.5 - 18) / 0.7

x ≈ 75

Hence, the average mark of the remaining students in the class is approximately 75.

106

Consider following statements: 

(a) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion.

(b) Green house effect is responsible for global warming.

(c) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from sun to reach the earth.

(d) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. 

Correct statements are:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. ((b))

    (b), (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (c) and (d)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(a), (b) and (d)

Explanation:

  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are indeed responsible for ozone layer depletion. CFCs are synthetic compounds that were commonly used in refrigerants, aerosol propellants, and other industrial applications. When released into the atmosphere, CFCs can reach the stratosphere where they can be broken down by ultraviolet (UV) radiation. This process releases chlorine atoms, which can react with ozone molecules, leading to the depletion of the ozone layer.
  • The greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming.
  • The greenhouse effect is a natural process in which certain gases, such as carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapor, trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere.
  • These gases allow sunlight to pass through, but they absorb and re-radiate the heat energy, preventing it from escaping back into space.
  • This phenomenon leads to a gradual increase in the Earth's temperature, known as global warming.
  • Statement (c) is incorrect. The ozone layer primarily absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.
  • However, it does not block or prevent infrared radiation (heat) from reaching the Earth's surface.
  • Infrared radiation is largely unaffected by the ozone layer and plays a role in the Earth's temperature regulation.
  • Acid rain is indeed mostly caused by oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and sulfur (SOx).
  • These gases are released into the atmosphere primarily from human activities such as burning fossil fuels, industrial processes, and vehicle emissions.
  • When these gases combine with atmospheric moisture, they form nitric acid and sulfuric acid, respectively.
  • These acids can then fall back to Earth as acid rain, which can have detrimental effects on ecosystems, water bodies, and infrastructure.

The correct statements are:

  • Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion.
  • The greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming.
  • Acid rain is mostly caused by oxides of nitrogen and sulfur.

The incorrect statement is:

  • Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the Earth.

So, here  (a), (b) and (d) is the correct answer.

107

Among the following which one is mismatched?

  1. ((a))

    Balmer Series - Visible Region

  2. ((b))

    Wave nature of electron - Diffraction experiment

  3. ((c))

    Uncertainty Principle - Lewis deBroglie

  4. ((d))

    Rutherford Nuclear Model - Helium Nuclei

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Uncertainty Principle - Lewis deBroglie

Explanation:

 Uncertainty Principle - Lewis deBroglie: 

  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The uncertainty principle is not associated with Lewis deBroglie.
  • It is a fundamental principle in quantum mechanics proposed by Werner Heisenberg.
  • The uncertainty principle states that there is a limit to how precisely certain pairs of physical properties, such as position and momentum, can be known simultaneously.
  • It is not directly linked to Lewis de Broglie.

Balmer Series - Visible Region:

  • This statement is correct.
  • The Balmer series refers to a series of spectral lines in the emission spectrum of hydrogen.
  • These lines correspond to electron transitions between higher energy levels (excited states) and the second energy level (n=2).
  • The transitions in the Balmer series result in the emission of photons in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum, making them observable as visible light.

Wave nature of electron - Diffraction experiment:

  • This statement is also correct.
  • The wave nature of electrons was experimentally demonstrated by the famous double-slit experiment, which exhibited interference and diffraction patterns similar to those observed with waves.
  • This experiment provided evidence for the wave-particle duality of matter, showing that electrons can exhibit wave-like behavior and undergo diffraction.

Rutherford Nuclear Model - Helium Nuclei:

  • This statement is correct as well.
  • The Rutherford nuclear model, proposed by Ernest Rutherford, describes the structure of the atom with a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at the center and electrons orbiting around it.
  • Although helium nuclei (alpha particles) were not specifically mentioned in the statement, the Rutherford model successfully explained the scattering of alpha particles and led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus.

Therefore, the correct option is 3) Uncertainty Principle - Lewis deBroglie, as it incorrectly associates the uncertainty principle with Lewis deBroglie instead of Werner Heisenberg.

108

The change in pressure and volume of air, when sound wave passes through air are:

  1. ((a))

    isothermal

  2. ((b))

    isobaric

  3. ((c))

    isochoric

  4. ((d))

    adiabatic

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

adiabatic

Concept:

  • Sound waves are mechanical waves, which means they propagate through a medium via the motion of the medium's particles.
  • In the case of sound waves traveling through the air, the medium is the air particles.
  • Sound waves consist of compressions and rarefactions.
  • Compressions are areas of high pressure where the air particles are close together, and rarefactions are areas of low pressure where the air particles are spread out.
  • As a sound wave passes through the air, it changes the pressure and volume of the air.
  • When a compression passes through, the pressure increases and the volume decreases.
  • Conversely, when a rarefaction passes through, the pressure decreases and the volume increases.

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Explanation:

  Isothermal process:

  • This is a process in which the temperature remains constant.
  • In the propagation of sound waves, the changes in pressure and volume occur too quickly for heat exchange with the surroundings.
  • Hence, the process is not isothermal.

  Isobaric process:

  • This is a process in which the pressure remains constant.
  • In the propagation of sound waves, there are changes in pressure (compressions and rarefactions), so the process is not isobaric.

  Isochoric process:

  • This is a process in which the volume remains constant.
  • In the propagation of sound waves, there are changes in volume (compressions and rarefactions), so the process is not isochoric.

 Adiabatic process:

  • This is a process in which there is no heat exchange with the surroundings.
  • The changes in pressure and volume in a sound wave occur too quickly for heat to be exchanged with the environment.
  • Therefore, the process is adiabatic.

So, when a sound wave passes through the air, the changes in pressure and volume are adiabatic.

 Additional Information The speed of sound in air can be derived from the adiabatic process, using the adiabatic relation and the ideal gas law.

  • The speed of sound is given by √(γP/ρ), where γ is the adiabatic index (ratio of specific heats), P is the pressure, and ρ is the density.

This is known as the Newton-Laplace equation.

  • The ideal gas law states: PV = nRT, where:

P is the pressure,V is the volume,n is the number of moles,R is the universal gas constant, and

T is the temperature.

  • For an adiabatic process (where there is no heat exchange with the surroundings), the equation is: PVγ = constant, where γ (gamma) is the ratio of specific heat capacities (Cp/Cv).
  • For diatomic gases such as nitrogen and oxygen, which make up the bulk of the air, γ is approximately 1.4.
109

A circular cylinder can hold 61.6 cc of water. If the height of the cylinder is 40 cm and the outer diameter is 16 mm, then the thickness of the material of the cylinder is:

  1. ((a))

    0.2 mm

  2. ((b))

    1 mm

  3. ((c))

    0.3 mm

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 mm

Concept use:

 The volume of the cylinder can be calculated using the formula:

Volume = π ×  r² ×  h, where r is the radius and h is the height of the cylinder.

Calculations:

To find the thickness of the material of the cylinder, we first need to calculate the inner radius of the cylinder.

Given that the outer diameter of the cylinder is 16 mm, we can calculate the outer radius (R) as half of the diameter:

R = 16 mm / 2 = 8 mm

Now, the volume of the cylinder can be calculated using the formula:

Volume = π ×  r² ×  h

where r is the inner radius and h is the height.

We know that the volume of water the cylinder can hold is 61.6 cc, so we can write the equation:

61.6 cc = π ×  r² ×  40 cm

Simplifying the equation, we have:

r² = (61.6 cc) / (40 cm ×  π)

r² ≈ 0.4882

Taking the square root of both sides, we find:

r ≈ √0.4882 ≈ 0.6986 cm

The thickness of the material can be calculated as the difference between the outer radius and the inner radius:

Thickness = R - r

Thickness = 8 mm - 6.986 mm

Thickness ≈ 1.014 mm

Therefore, the thickness of the material of the cylinder is approximately 1 mm.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 02.

110

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Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface. If a force of 7 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is :

  1. ((a))

    3 N

  2. ((b))

    4 N

  3. ((c))

    9 N

  4. ((d))

    1 N

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3 N

Concept:

  • The main concept involved in this problem is Newton's second law of motion, which states that the force acting on an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration (F=ma).
  • This law can be used to determine the acceleration of a system when a force is applied to it.
  • Additionally, the concept of the system of particles can also be applied here because the blocks are in contact and move together under the applied force.

 

Calculation:​

The total mass of the system (blocks A, B, and C) is:

mtotal = mA + mB + mC = 4 kg + 2 kg + 1 kg = 7 kg

The total force applied to the system is 7 N.

According to Newton's second law of motion, 

(F = m × a)

a = F / mtotal = 7 N / 7 kg

a = 1 m/s²

Let F' be the force applied on block A by block B i.e. the contact force

between A and B.

7 - F' = mA × a 

7 - F' = 4 × 1 = 4

F' = 7 - 4 = 3 N

∴ Required force is 3 N

Social Studies (20 questions)

111

Following is the 'Woman Wealth (Istri-Dhan)' according to Hindu religion 'Shastra'.

(a) Wealth from Mother

(b) Wealth from Brother

(c) Wealth from Father

(d) Wealth from the Husband

Correct answer is:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (c), (d)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

  3. ((c))

    (a), (b), (c)

  4. ((d))

    (a), (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (c), (d)

The correct answer is (a), (c), (d).

Key Points

  • Wealth from Mother:
  • In Hindu culture, mothers are regarded as nurturing figures who provide emotional and material support to their children.
  • While the concept of inheriting wealth directly from the mother may not be explicitly mentioned in scriptures, mothers often play a significant role in the financial well-being of their children, including their daughters.
  • Mothers may contribute to their daughters' financial stability through various means such as providing financial assistance, guidance, education, and imparting values related to wealth management.
  • Wealth from Father:
  • In Hindu society, the father is traditionally considered the head of the family and is responsible for the financial welfare of his children, including his daughters.
  • He is expected to provide for his daughter's needs, which may include education, healthcare, marriage expenses, and general well-being.
  • This responsibility is seen as an expression of the father's love and duty towards his daughter.
  • Wealth from the Husband:
  • In Hindu culture, after marriage, the husband becomes the primary provider for his wife.
  • He is expected to take care of her financial needs, ensure her well-being, and support her in various aspects of life.
  • This responsibility is considered an essential aspect of the marital relationship, where the husband assumes the role of a protector and provider for his wife.
  • Option 1 ie (a), (c), (d) includes wealth from the mother, wealth from the father, and wealth from the husband.
  • These options acknowledge the various sources from which a woman may receive financial support (Istri-Dhan) according to Hindu religion 'Shastra'.

Hence we conclude that the correct answer is (a), (c), (d).

112

How much minimum percentage of members are compulsory to be present for the legal proceedings of 'Rajya Sabha' of the Indian Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    20 percent

  2. ((b))

    33 percent

  3. ((c))

    50 percent

  4. ((d))

    10 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10 percent

The correct answer is 10 per cent.

Key Points

  • According to the rules of procedure for the Rajya Sabha, the quorum, or minimum percentage of members required to be present for its proceedings to be valid, is ten percent of the total membership.
  • The Rajya Sabha has a total strength of 245 members.
  • Therefore, the quorum required for the Rajya Sabha is 25 members.
  • It's important to note that quorum refers to the minimum number of members needed for the Rajya Sabha to conduct its business, and if there is no quorum, the proceedings may be adjourned.
  • However, parliamentary rules and procedures can be subject to change, so it's always a good idea to consult the latest official sources for the most up-to-date information.

Hence we conclude that the correct answer is 10 per cent.

113

Who among the following was the Chief Administrator of the Sarkar (District) in Mughal period?

  1. ((a))

    Foujdar

  2. ((b))

    Vazir-a-Sarkar

  3. ((c))

    Kotwal

  4. ((d))

    Sadra-a-Sadur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Foujdar

In the Mughal period, the chief administrator of the Sarkar (district) was known as the Foujdar.

Key Points

  • The Foujdar in Mughal period held significant administrative and military authority within their respective districts.
  • They were responsible for maintaining law and order, collecting revenue, and ensuring the smooth functioning of governance.
  • The Foujdar's primary duty was to maintain the security and defence of the district.
  • They were in charge of organizing and commanding the local military forces, known as the Foujdari troops or Foujdarsipahi.
  • These troops were responsible for protecting the district from external threats, maintaining peace, and suppressing any rebellions or uprisings.
  • Apart from their military responsibilities, the Foujdar also played a crucial role in revenue administration.
  • They oversaw the collection of taxes and revenue from the district, ensuring that the stipulated amounts were collected efficiently and fairly.
  • They had the authority to impose penalties and punishments on those who evaded or resisted tax payment.
  • In addition, the Foujdar had administrative powers within their district.
  • They acted as the chief representative of the Mughal government, maintaining communication and coordinating with higher-ranking officials.
  • They were also responsible for resolving disputes, settling local matters, and maintaining law and order.

 Therefore, the correct answer is 1) Foujdar.

114

Which river is not a tributary of river Godavari?

  1. ((a))

    Wainganga

  2. ((b))

    Koyna

  3. ((c))

    Wardha

  4. ((d))

    Pranahita

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Koyna

Koyna River is not a tributary of river Godavari.

Key Points

  • The Koyna River is a major tributary of the Krishna River, not the Godavari River.
  • It flows through the western state of Maharashtra in India.
  • Before joining the Krishna River, the river originates in the Western Ghats and passes through the Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary and the Koyna Dam.
  • The Koyna Dam, located on the river, is one of India's most significant hydroelectric projects.
  • The river and its surrounding areas are known for their natural beauty, with lush green landscapes, waterfalls, and forests.
  • The Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary is home to diverse flora and fauna, including several endangered species.
  • The Koyna River plays a significant role in the irrigation and power generation of the region.
  • The Koyna Dam not only provides hydroelectric power but also supplies water for irrigation purposes in the surrounding agricultural areas.

Hence we conclude that Koyna River is not a tributary of river Godavari.

115

Which British historian has said Muslim conspiracy to the revolt of 1857?

  1. ((a))

    Sir James Outram

  2. ((b))

    Benjamin Disraeli

  3. ((c))

    Russal

  4. ((d))

    Holmes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sir James Outram

The correct answer is Sir James Outram.

Key Points

  • The 1857 movement is much more than a military mutiny.
  • There has been much controversy over its nature and causes.
  • The British historian Sir James Outram thought it was a Muslim conspiracy, exploiting Hindu grievances.
  • It might have been an aristocratic plot, set off too soon by the Meerut outbreak.
  • But the only evidence for either of these was the circulation from village to village of chapatis, or cakes of unleavened bread, a practice that, though it also occurred on other occasions, was known to have taken place at any time of unrest.
  • The lack of planning after the outbreak rules out these two explanations, while the degree of popular support argues more than a purely military outbreak.

 Hence we conclude that the correct answer is Sir James Outram.

116

What was the opinion of Guru Nanak Devji regarding 'Soul'?

  1. ((a))

    Immortal

  2. ((b))

    Mortal

  3. ((c))

    There is no soul

  4. ((d))

    Soul is confusion

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Immortal

According to Sikh tradition and the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the founder of Sikhism, the soul is considered immortal.

Key Points

  • Guru Nanak Dev Ji believed in the eternal nature of the soul.
  • He taught that the soul is a divine entity and is inherently connected to the Supreme Being, also known as Waheguru or God.
  • Sikhism emphasizes the idea that the soul is distinct from the physical body and that it transcends death.
  • Guru Nanak Dev Ji's teachings emphasized the importance of recognizing the divine presence within oneself and others.
  • He taught that the ultimate purpose of human life is to realize one's true nature and merge with the divine.
  • This concept is often referred to as "Jivanmukta," which means being liberated while alive.
  • Sikhism teaches that through spiritual practice, individuals can experience a union with God and achieve liberation from the cycle of birth and death.

Thus we conclude that according to Sikh tradition and the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the founder of Sikhism, the soul is considered immortal.

117

Which leader of Madhya Pradesh was the minister in the Central Province Assembly of 1946?

  1. ((a))

    Pt. Sundarlal Sharma

  2. ((b))

    E. Raghvendra Rao

  3. ((c))

    Pt. Ravishankar Shukla

  4. ((d))

    Vaman Rao Lakhe

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pt. Ravishankar Shukla

The correct answer is Pt. Ravishankar Shukla.

Key Points

  • Pt. Ravishankar Shukla was a prominent leader and freedom fighter from the state of Madhya Pradesh in India.
  • He played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement and served as the Chief Minister of the Central Provinces and Berar from 1946 to 1956.
  • In 1946, during the period leading up to India's independence, the Central Province Assembly was established as a legislative body for the Central Provinces and Berar, which was a British administrative unit in British India.
  • Pt. Ravishankar Shukla, known for his strong leadership and dedication to public service, served as a minister in this assembly.
  • Pt. Shukla was a member of the Indian National Congress and worked closely with Mahatma Gandhi and other prominent leaders in the struggle for independence.
  • He actively participated in various civil disobedience movements and protests against British rule.
  • Pt. Shukla was known for his efforts in organizing peasants and advocating for their rights, and he played a significant role in mobilizing support for the Indian National Congress in the Central Provinces.
  • After India gained independence in 1947, Pt. Ravishankar Shukla became the first Chief Minister of the newly formed state of Madhya Pradesh, which was created by merging the Central Provinces and Berar with several other princely states.
  • He continued to serve as Chief Minister until 1956, implementing various development programs and initiatives for the welfare of the state.
  • Overall, Pt. Ravishankar Shukla's tenure as a minister in the Central Province Assembly of 1946 marked an important phase in his political career and his contribution to the freedom struggle and subsequent governance of Madhya Pradesh.

Hence we conclude that the correct answer is Pt. Ravishankar Shukla.

118

The source of elephant cave inscription to know the history of ancient India is related to which dynasty?

  1. ((a))

    Gupta dynasty

  2. ((b))

    Shung dynasty

  3. ((c))

    Kharvel dynasty

  4. ((d))

    Pal dynasty

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kharvel dynasty

The source of elephant cave inscription to know the history of ancient India is related to Kharvel dynasty.

Key Points

  • The Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela is found at Udayagiri, about 5 kilometres west of Bhubaneswar international airport.
  • The Udayagiri hills host many ancient rock-cut caves such as the Rani Gumpha.
  • Among these, to the west of Rani Gumpha, is a cavern called Hathigumpha on the southern face of Udayagiri hills.
  • The inscription is named after this cavern.
  • It is found partly in front and partly the ceiling of the cave.
  • Though dated to between 2nd-century BCE and 1st-century CE, the inscription was unknown to the scholars till they were rediscovered by A. Sterling and published in Asiatic Researches XV in 1825.
  • The Hatigumpha cave inscription is an important historical artifact that provides insights into the Kalinga (modern-day Odisha, India) ruler Kharavela and his dynasty.
  • The inscription is written in Brahmi script and Prakrit language.
  • It is carved on the walls of a natural cave, known as Hatigumpha, which means "Elephant Cave" in Odia.
  • The cave gets its name from the depiction of elephants on the walls near the inscription.

Hence we conclude that the source of elephant cave inscription to know the history of ancient India is related to Kharwel dynasty.

119

During the national movement, who of the following in this state was the following leader to stop cow slaughting movement?

  1. ((a))

    Mahant Naindas

  2. ((b))

    Bairistar Chhedilal

  3. ((c))

    Guru Agamdas

  4. ((d))

    Shyamlal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahant Naindas

Mahant Naindas was the leader to stop cow slaughting movement.

Key Points

  • The Satnami Mahasabha was formed in 1925.
  • Satnamis credit Naindas and Anjordas with taking the first steps toward creating the organisation.
  • They recounts that in early 1920s Naindas, a satnami mahant and, perhaps, a member of the district council of Raipur, enlisted the help of Anjordas, another mahant, to stop the killing of cows slaughter houses in the district of Raipur and Bilaspur.
  • The step formed a part of a Satnami initiative to check the government, officials, and other castes from continuing to refer to Satnamis as Chamars.

So we conclude that Mahant Naindas was the  leader to stop cow slaughting movement.

120

The number of active volcano in world is:

  1. ((a))

    Approximately 200

  2. ((b))

    Approximately 300

  3. ((c))

    Approximately 400

  4. ((d))

    Approximately 500

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Approximately 500

The correct answer is Approximately 500.

Key Points

  • The Smithsonian Institution's Global Volcanism Program (GVP) maintains a database of active volcanoes worldwide.
  • According to their records, there are around 500 currently active volcanoes.
  • It's important to note that volcanic activity is dynamic, and the status of volcanoes can change over time.
  • Some volcanoes may be dormant for long periods and then become active, while others may remain continuously active.
  • The number of active volcanoes can fluctuate due to new volcanic eruptions, volcanic activity ceasing, or discoveries of previously unknown volcanic activity.

​So we conclude that the correct answer is Approximately 500.

121

The picture 'Mahaparinirvana' of Buddha of Gupta period is found in which cave of Ajanta?

  1. ((a))

    16th

  2. ((b))

    26th

  3. ((c))

    8th

  4. ((d))

    18th

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

26th

The picture 'Mahaparinirvana' of Buddha of the Gupta period is found in the 26th cave of Ajanta.

Key Points

  • The Mahaparinirvana of Buddha is a painting found in the 26th cave of Ajanta.
  • It is one of the most famous paintings in the Ajanta caves and is considered to be a masterpiece of Buddhist art.
  • The painting depicts the Buddha lying on his deathbed, surrounded by his disciples.
  • The Buddha is depicted in a state of deep peace and tranquility.
  • The painting is full of symbolism and is a powerful reminder of the Buddha's teachings on death and rebirth.
  • The painting is thought to have been created during the Gupta period, which is considered to be a golden age of Indian art and culture.
  • The Gupta period was a time of great prosperity and peace, and this is reflected in the beauty and serenity of the painting.
  • The painting is a testament to the skill and artistry of the Gupta artists, and it is a reminder of the rich and vibrant culture of ancient India.

The Mahaparinirvana of Buddha is a highly revered painting and is a popular pilgrimage destination for Buddhists from all over the world.

  • The painting is a reminder of the Buddha's teachings on compassion, wisdom, and peace.

Hence we conclude that the picture 'Mahaparinirvana' of Buddha of Gupta period is found in 26th number cave of Ajanta.

122

Which of the following are not the emergency powers of the President of India?

(a) Declaration of President's rule in the states

(b) Amnesty to the criminals

(c) Announcement of emergency

(d) Announcement of war

Right answer is:

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

  2. ((b))

    (a), (c), (d)

  3. ((c))

    (b), (d)

  4. ((d))

    (c), (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(b), (d)

The correct answer is (b), (d).

Key Points

  • The emergency powers of the President of India are specified under Articles 352, 356, and 360 of the Indian Constitution. These powers include:
  • Declaration of President's Rule in the States (Article 356):
  • The President can impose President's rule in a state if the constitutional machinery has failed and the state government cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
  • Amnesty to the criminals:
  • The President does not possess the power to grant amnesty to criminals.
  • The power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment for offences rests with the President under Article 72, but this power is not specific to emergency situations.
  • Announcement of emergency (Article 352):
  • The President can announce three types of emergencies—national emergency (due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion), state emergency (due to failure of constitutional machinery in a state), and financial emergency (due to a threat to the financial stability or credit of India).
  • Announcement of war:
  • The power to declare war or make peace is vested in the Indian Parliament and not solely in the President.
  • The President, as the head of state, acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matters related to war and peace.

Therefore, the options that are not emergency powers of the President of India are (b) Amnesty to the criminals and (d) Announcement of war.

123

Where is diamond found?

  1. ((a))

    Pharsabahar

  2. ((b))

    Lotapani

  3. ((c))

    Behradih

  4. ((d))

    Aarasmeta

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Behradih

Diamond is found in Behradih.

Key Points

  • The Behradih kimberlite is a diamondiferous, diatreme facies kimberlite intrusion with surface dimension of ~300 m × 160 m and is the largest among six intrusions known in the end-Cretaceous Mainpur Kimberlite Field of the Bastar Craton in east-central India.
  • The majority of the Behradih diamonds are colourless, while a small population consists of light brown and pale yellow diamonds.
  • The microdiamonds have experienced significant resorption after crystallisation as evidenced by the development of dodecahedral faces in 50 % of the studied population.
  • Sixteen macro diamonds from the Behradih kimberlite were analysed for structurally bound nitrogen aggregation using infrared absorption spectroscopy.
  • Behradih diamonds are similar to those from major primary diamond deposits worldwide.

So we conclude that Diamonds are found in Behradih.

124

 when the word "socialist" was explicitly added to the Preamble?

  1. ((a))

    1950

  2. ((b))

    1956

  3. ((c))

    1962

  4. ((d))

    1976

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1976

In 1976 the concept of socialism was added in the Indian Constitution.

 Key Points

  • The word socialist was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd amendment act of 1976, during the Emergency.
  • It implies social and economic equality.
  • Social equality in this context means the absence of discrimination on the grounds only of caste, colour, creed, sex, religion, or language.
  • On January 3, 1977, the words ‘socialist and secular’ were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by making India a ‘sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic’ by the 42nd Amendment.
  • This Amendment was passed during the Emergency Period (1975 -1977), enacted by Indian Congress Party and headed by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Hence we conclude that In 1977 the concept of socialism was added in the Indian Constitution.

125

Which pass is situated in Sikkim state?

  1. ((a))

    Bara lachala

  2. ((b))

    Zojila

  3. ((c))

    Nathula

  4. ((d))

    Banihal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Nathula

Nathula Pass is situated in Sikkim state.

 Key Points

  • Nathula Pass is located in the eastern part of the Indian state of Sikkim.
  • It is situated on the Indo-China border and connects Sikkim with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
  • The pass is approximately 56 kilometres (35 miles) east of the state capital, Gangtok.
  • Nathula Pass holds significant historical and strategic importance.
  • It was a major trade route between India and Tibet until it was closed after the Sino-Indian War in 1962.
  • In 2006, the pass was reopened for limited trade and tourism purposes, allowing a limited number of Indian and Chinese citizens to cross the border on specific days.
  • Due to its high altitude and challenging terrain, Nathula Pass experiences harsh weather conditions, especially during the winter months when heavy snowfall and freezing temperatures are common.
  • The pass also serves as an important pilgrimage route for Buddhists, as it lies on the ancient Silk Route and is en route to the famous pilgrimage site of Mount Kailash in Tibet.

Hence we conclude that Nathula Pass is situated in Sikkim state.

126

Right to Free Education by the Indian Constitution is given up to how much age?

  1. ((a))

    6 - 14

  2. ((b))

    6 - 18

  3. ((c))

    6 - 12

  4. ((d))

    6 - 16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 - 14

Right to Free Education by the Indian Constitution is given up to 6 - 14  age.

 Key Points

  • The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine.
  • The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation envisaged under Article 21-A, means that every child has a right to full-time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.
  • Article 21-A and the RTE Act came into effect on 1 April 2010.
  • The title of the RTE Act incorporates the words ‘free and compulsory’.
  • ‘Free education’ means that no child, other than a child who has been admitted by his or her parents to a school which is not supported by the appropriate Government, shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education.
  • Compulsory education’ casts an obligation on the appropriate Government and local authorities to provide and ensure admission, attendance and completion of elementary education by all children in the 6-14 age group.
  • With this, India has moved forward to a rights-based framework that casts a legal obligation on the Central and State Governments to implement this fundamental child right as enshrined in the Article 21A of the Constitution, in accordance with the provisions of the RTE Act.

Hence we conclude that Right to Free Education by the Indian Constitution is given up to 6 - 14  age.

127

Who has given plate tectonics theory?

  1. ((a))

    Wegener

  2. ((b))

    Holmes

  3. ((c))

    Morgan

  4. ((d))

    Taylor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Morgan

Morgan has given plate tectonics theory.

 Key Points

  • Morgan continued to research the great faults along the ocean floor, his idea was that the crust consisted of a dozen rigid plates, which were moving relative to each other.
  • The use of plate rotation vectors and geometry along a spherical Earth allowed Morgan to calculate the motions of these tectonic plates.
  • Morgan began working on mantle convection given the assumption of a viscous mantle, and planned to present a paper on trenches at the April 1967 AGU meeting.
  • However, all this changed once he met with success in initially testing his idea of what would become known as plate tectonics.

So we conclude that Morgan has given plate tectonics theory.

128

In which Zamindari the ancient fort of Chaiturgarh of this state was situated?

  1. ((a))

    Matin

  2. ((b))

    Khairagarh

  3. ((c))

    Lafa

  4. ((d))

    Dongargarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lafa

In Lafa Zamindari the ancient fort of Chaiturgarh was situated.

 Key Points

  • The ancient fort of Chaiturgarh, situated in the Lafa Zamindari of Raigarh district in Chhattisgarh, India, holds historical significance and architectural charm.
  • Here are some details about Chaiturgarh:
  • Location:
  • Chaiturgarh is located atop a hill in the Lafa Zamindari region, approximately 30 kilometers southwest of Raigarh town in Chhattisgarh.
  • Historical Significance:
  • The fort of Chaiturgarh has a rich history that dates back several centuries.
  • It is believed to have been constructed by the Nagavanshi dynasty rulers, who were prominent during the 9th and 14th centuries.
  • Architectural Features:
  • The fort is known for its strategic location and robust fortifications.
  • It is situated at an elevation of around 2,000 feet, providing panoramic views of the surrounding landscape.
  • The fort walls, bastions, and gateways showcase the architectural style of the ancient era.
  • Temples and Structures:
  • Within the fort premises, there are several temples dedicated to Hindu deities.
  • The most prominent among them is the Chandi Mandir, dedicated to Goddess Chandi.
  • Other temples include those dedicated to Lord Rama, Lord Hanuman, and Lord Shiva.
  • The fort also houses reservoirs, granaries, and remnants of other structures that reflect its historical significance.

So we conclude that the correct answer is Lafa.

129

Match the following Column - I the festivals of the state with Column - II.

a.Bhojalii.Chaitra
b.Polaii.Bhado
c.Matariii.Savan
d.Mati Tihariv.Kartik
  1. ((a))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  3. ((c))

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  4. ((d))

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

The correct matching is (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i).

Key Points

  • Bhojali:
  • The Gonds of Satpura and Chhatisgarh regions perform Bhojali dance.
  • It is performed during the festival held to express gratitude to Bhojali Mata, who is identified with the goddess Annapoorna.
  • There is a tribal myth associated with the dance.
  • The stilt dancers begin their dance and practice from the full moon day of the lunar month of Asadh, corresponding to June/July.
  • The conclusion of the festival and the last performance of the stilt dance is held on the full moon night of the lunar month of Shravan, corresponding to July/August.
  • On that day visarjan ritual for the Bhojali Mata is also performed.
  • Pola:
  • Pola is a regional festival celebrated primarily in the state of Maharashtra, India.
  • It is a festival dedicated to the worship of bulls and is observed by farmers and cattle owners to express gratitude for the hard work done by the bulls in agriculture.
  • This happened during Bhado month.
  • Matar:
  • ​Matar is a term commonly associated with the festival of Matar Sankranti or Makar Sankranti.
  • Makar Sankranti is a major harvest festival celebrated in various parts of India, particularly in the states of Gujarat and Rajasthan during Kartik month.
  • Mati Tihar:
  • ​Celebrated in Chaitra Month to worship the soil and thank it for the good harvest.
  • On this day, tribals do not take any activities related to the soil like digging, ploughing, etc.
  • Tribals keep paddy seeds inside Palash leaf packet and worship it with Mati Dev (Soil God).
  • The Palash packet is safely kept till sowing.
  • People also play a mud holi on the occasion and abuse each other as part of the tradition.
  • This celebration starts the agricultural activities for the season and is also known as ‘Bij Putni’.

Hence we conclude that the correct matching is: 

a.Bhojalii.Savan
b.Polaii.Bhado
c.Matariii.Kartik
d.Mati Tihariv.Chaitra
130

Where is origin of Eb River?

  1. ((a))

    Khurja hill

  2. ((b))

    Ludeng hill

  3. ((c))

    Chhuri hill

  4. ((d))

    Sonhat plateau

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Khurja hill

The origin of Eb River is Khurja Hill.

 Key Points

  • The Eb River is a river in the Indian states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
  • It originates in the Khurja hills near Pandrapet in the Jashpur district of Chhattisgarh.
  • The river flows in a southerly direction through the Jashpur district and then enters the Odisha state.
  • It joins the Mahanadi River near Hirakud Dam.
  • The Eb River is a major tributary of the Mahanadi River.
  • It is a perennial river and its water is used for irrigation and drinking water supply.
  • The river is also a popular destination for fishing and boating.

Hence we conclude that the origin of Eb River is Khurja Hill.

Computer GK (10 questions)

131

What is the full form of SMS?

  1. ((a))

    Short Message Service

  2. ((b))

    Short Message Solution

  3. ((c))

    Short Message Server

  4. ((d))

    Short Message Sender

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Short Message Service

The correct answer is Short Message Service.

Key Points 

  • Short Message Service
  • It is a text messaging service component of most telephone, internet, and mobile device systems.
  • It uses standardized communication protocols that let mobile devices exchange short text messages.
  • SMS, as used on modern devices, originated from radio telegraphy in radio memo pagers that used standardized phone protocols.
  • The service allows users to send and receive messages of up to 160 characters.
  • SMS was the most widely used data application, with an estimated 3.5 billion active users, or about 80% of all mobile phone subscribers.​​
  • The SMS concept was first developed by Friedhelm Hillebrand in 1984 in Franco-German GSM cooperation
132

Which shortcut key is used to align the text to the centre?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + F

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + E

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + X

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + P 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl + E

The correct answer is Ctrl + E.

Key Points

  • Aligning text using keyboard shortcuts:

  • To use keyboard shortcuts to align text in a placeholder or text box, select the text and then press the following keys:

  • Ctrl + E to center text.

  • Ctrl + L to left align text.

  • Ctrl + R to right align text.

  • Ctrl + J to align, or distribute

133

What is the maximum size of a document allowed as an attachment in the Gmail?

  1. ((a))

    25 KB

  2. ((b))

    25 MB

  3. ((c))

    15 MB

  4. ((d))

    50 MB

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25 MB

Electronic mail, or email, is the transmission of text-based messages among networked computers. Email is one of the earliest and most basic messaging resources on the Internet and in many ways it still acts as the lowest common denominator for computer communications. 

Types of email services:

  • Free Web-based Email Services: These are the commonly used email accounts accessible through a web browser (such as Internet Explorer, Firefox, etc.). They generally use HTTP Protocol for accessing mail. Example: Yahoo Mail, Hotmail, and Gmail (whose attachment size limit is 25 MB) offer free web-based email services.
  • Priced Web-based Email Services: There are also priced web-based email service providers. Many of the free web-based email service providers such as Yahoo! And Hotmail do offer premium account on payment basis.
  • Private Email Services: Most of the institutions/organisations have their own dedicated mail server and offer mail account for free to their staff and other members of the institution. These accounts exist only till one is member of that institution. For example: [email protected]; [email protected] etc.

Hence, we conclude that email attachment size limit in Gmail is 25 MB.

134

Which of the following is the type of software that has self-replicating software that causes damage to files and system?

  1. ((a))

    Trojan horses

  2. ((b))

    Bots

  3. ((c))

    Worms

  4. ((d))

    Backdoors

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Worms

The correct answer is Worms.

  • A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers.
  • Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it.
  • Unlike a computer virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program.
  • Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network, even if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
135

Computer can be used in the field of:

  1. ((a))

    Communication

  2. ((b))

    Transportation

  3. ((c))

    Simulation

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All of the above

The correct answer is All of the Above.

Key Points Transportation:

  • Computers play a vital role in various aspects of transportation systems.
  • They are used for traffic management, route planning, scheduling, ticketing and reservations, fleet management, logistics optimization, and vehicle tracking.
  • In addition, computer-based systems are employed in aviation for flight control, navigation, weather forecasting, and air traffic management.

Communication:

  • Computers are at the core of modern communication systems.
  • They enable email, instant messaging, video conferencing, and voice over IP (VoIP) services.
  • Computers are also used in networking infrastructure, data transmission, wireless communication, and the internet. Moreover, they facilitate the development and maintenance of communication networks and systems.

Simulation:

  • Computers are extensively used for simulation purposes in various fields.
  • In transportation, computer simulations help in designing and optimizing traffic flow, analyzing road networks, and studying the impact of different variables on transportation systems.
  • Simulation software is also utilized in aviation and maritime industries for training pilots and ship crews, as well as in virtual environments for driver training and simulation-based assessments.
136

Web search engines stores information about many web pages by a __________.

  1. ((a))

    Web indexer

  2. ((b))

    Web router

  3. ((c))

    Web organizer

  4. ((d))

    Web Crawler

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Web Crawler

The correct answer is Web Crawler.

Key Points

  • Web search engines store information about many web pages through a process called web crawling or web indexing.
  • Web search engines employ automated software programs called web crawlers or spiders to systematically browse the internet and discover web pages.
  • These crawlers start with a set of seed URLs and follow links from one page to another, effectively traversing the interconnected web.
  • As the web crawlers visit web pages, they analyze the content and metadata of each page, including the text, images, URLs, and other relevant information.
137

What is the other name of a dot-matrix printer?

  1. ((a))

    Impact printer

  2. ((b))

    Page printer

  3. ((c))

    Non-impact printer

  4. ((d))

    Spray printer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Impact printer

The correct answer is Impact printer

Key Points

  • Dot-matrix printer  is a type of computer printing in which ink is applied to a surface and a low-resolution dot matrix is used for layout.
  • It is also called an Impact printer.
  • Dot-matrix printers employ a print head that goes back and forth or up and down on the page and prints by impact, striking an ink-soaked cloth ribbon on the paper, similar to a typewriter or line printer's print mechanism.
  • Not only can a dot matrix printer create any patterns, but it can also print specified characters.
  • Impact printer printers are noisy yet popular.
  • There is no direct contact between the ink ribbon and the paper with non-impact printers.
138

A CPU has 32 bit program counter. This means that the CPU can address:

  1. ((a))

    32 KB memory locations

  2. ((b))

    32 MB memory locations

  3. ((c))

    2GB memory locations

  4. ((d))

    4GB memory locations

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4GB memory locations

The correct answer is 4G memory locations.

Key Points 

  • CPU with a 32-bit program counter can address approximately 4 gigabytes (GB) of memory locations.
  • The number of memory locations that can be addressed by a CPU is determined by the width of the address bus. In this case, a CPU with a 32-bit program counter can address 2^32 (2 raised to the power of 32) memory locations.
  • Each memory location typically represents 1 byte of data. So, with a 32-bit program counter, the CPU can address a total of 4,294,967,296 (2^32) memory locations, which is equivalent to 4 gigabytes of addressable memory (assuming each memory location represents 1 byte).
  • It's important to note that the actual amount of memory that can be used by a system may be less than 4GB due to various factors, including system architecture, operating system limitations, and reserved memory for hardware or system purposes.
139

Which one of the following is not an open source operating system?

  1. ((a))

    Haiku

  2. ((b))

    Ghost

  3. ((c))

    Mac OS

  4. ((d))

    Open BSD

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mac OS

The correct answer is Mac OS.

Key Points

  • Open-source software refers to software whose source code is freely available, allowing users to view, modify, and distribute the code.
  • Open-source projects typically encourage collaboration and community involvement in the development process.
  • Examples of open-source operating systems include Linux distributions like Ubuntu, Fedora, and Debian. MacOS, on the other hand, is a proprietary operating system developed by Apple.
  • The source code for macOS is not freely available to the public, and Apple retains control over its development and distribution.
  • While Apple does provide some open-source components and frameworks within macOS, the operating system as a whole is not open source.
140

DVD was invented and developed in:

  1. ((a))

    1990

  2. ((b))

    1995

  3. ((c))

    1997

  4. ((d))

    1992

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1995

The correct answer is 1995.

Key Points

  • DVD (Digital Versatile Disc) was invented and developed in the 1995.
  • The development of the DVD format can be attributed to collaboration between several technology companies.
  • The initial work on the DVD format began in 1993, and it was officially announced in 1995.
  • The DVD format quickly gained popularity and became the standard for home entertainment, replacing VHS tapes as the primary medium for movies and other video content.

General Knowledge (10 questions)

141

Which of the following is the amount of guarantee deposited by the banks with the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. ((a))

    IPO (Initial Public Offer)

  2. ((b))

    SLR (Special Liquidity Ratio)

  3. ((c))

    CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio)

  4. ((d))

    RRR (Reverse Repo Rate)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio)

The correct answer is  CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio).

Key Points

  • Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
  • ​CRR is a rule enforced in virtually every country by the Central Bank of that nation and is a crucial tool for monetary policy to manage the amount of money in the economy.
  • Every commercial bank must uphold the CRR rate, which is the minimum percentage of cash deposits, in compliance with the Central Bank's or RBI's criteria (as stated by RBI).
  • IPO, 
  • Initial Public Offering refers to the process through which a company offers its shares to the public for the first time.
  • It is a way for privately-held companies to raise capital by selling a portion of their ownership to public investors.

Additional Information

  • ​​RRR (Reverse Repo Rate)
  • The Reverse Repo Rate (RRR) is a monetary policy tool used by central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), to control the liquidity in the banking system.
  • It is the interest rate at which the central bank borrows funds from commercial banks for a short-term period.
  • In the context of India, the RBI conducts monetary operations through repo transactions, where it provides funds to banks in exchange for government securities as collateral.
142

Who of the following personality of this state was the First Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Pt. Ravishankar Shukla

  2. ((b))

    Pt. Shyamacharan Shukla

  3. ((c))

    Pt. Vidyacharan Shukla

  4. ((d))

    Pt. Ishwaricharan Shukla

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pt. Ravishankar Shukla

The correct answer is Pt. Ravishankar Shukla.

Key Point

  • Pt. Ravishankar Shukla was one of the leaders of Cah state imprisoned at the time of the Raipur District Political Conference in March 1922.
  • Ravishankar Shukla (2 August 1877 — 31 December 1956 was a leader of the Indian National Congress, an Indian independence movement activist, the Premier of the Central Provinces, and Berar from 27 April 1946 to 25 January 1950.
  • He was the first Chief Minister of the reorganized Madhya Pradesh state from 1 November 1956 until his death on 31 December 1956.
  • he was elected from Saraipali, Madhya Pradesh now part of the state of Chhattisgarh.

143

Under the provisions of the constitution on which of the following ground the citizenship of India does not lose?

  1. ((a))

    Renunciation

  2. ((b))

    Termination

  3. ((c))

    Registration

  4. ((d))

    Deprivation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Registration

The Correct answer is Registration.

Key Points

  • Renunciation: A person can voluntarily renounce their Indian citizenship by making a declaration of renunciation.
  • Once the renunciation is accepted by the Indian government, the person ceases to be a citizen of India.
  • Termination: Termination of citizenship can occur if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country and notifies the Indian government of their intention to renounce Indian citizenship.
  • The Indian government has the authority to terminate citizenship in such cases.

Additional Information

  • Registration: Registration is a process by which a person who is not automatically eligible for Indian citizenship can acquire it through a specific provision of the law.
  • This does not lead to the loss of citizenship but rather grants citizenship to the individual.
  • Deprivation: Deprivation of citizenship can occur in certain circumstances if a person obtained Indian citizenship through fraud, false representation, or concealment of material facts.
  • However, this process involves legal proceedings and does not apply automatically.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3) Registration.

 Important Points

  • Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution.
  • The Constitution does not define the term ‘citizen’ but details of various categories of persons who are entitled to citizenship are given in Part 2 (Articles 5 to 11).
144

Which of the following form of democracy is envisaged in our constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Representative

  2. ((b))

    Referendum

  3. ((c))

    Oligarchic

  4. ((d))

    Power-centred

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Representative

The correct answer is Representative.

Key Points 

  • Representative democracy is a system where citizens elect representatives who make decisions on their behalf.
  • In India, citizens exercise their voting rights to elect representatives at various levels of government, including Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs).
  • These elected representatives represent the interests and concerns of the people and participate in the legislative process, policy-making, and governance.

Additional Information

  • Option 2) Referendum refers to a direct vote by citizens on a specific issue or policy.
  • While referendums have been used in specific cases in India, they are not the primary form of decision-making in the Indian democratic system.
  • Option 3) Oligarchic refers to a form of government where power is concentrated in the hands of a small group of individuals.
  • This is not the form of democracy envisaged in the Indian constitution.
  • Option 4) Power-centred is not a recognized term to describe a specific form of democracy.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) Representative democracy.
145

At which of the following place the steel industry was not established during the Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961)?

  1. ((a))

    Raurkela

  2. ((b))

    Bhilai

  3. ((c))

    Durgapur

  4. ((d))

    Bokaro

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bokaro

The correct answer is Bokaro. 

Key Points

  • During the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), the steel industry was not established at Bokaro.
  • Raurkela: The Raurkela Steel Plant was established during the Second Five-Year Plan in Odisha.
  • Bhilai: The Bhilai Steel Plant, located in Chhattisgarh, was also established during the Second Five-Year Plan.
  • Durgapur: The Durgapur Steel Plant, situated in West Bengal, was established during the Second Five Year Plan.
  • Bokaro: The Bokaro Steel Plant, located in Jharkhand, was not established during the Second Five-Year Plan.
  • It came into operation in the early 1970s during the Fourth Five-Year Plan.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4) Bokaro.

Additional Information

  • The concept of Five-Year Plans originated in the Soviet Union and was later adopted by several countries, including India.
  • In India, the Five-Year Plans are comprehensive economic development blueprints that outline the country's goals and strategies over a five-year period.
146

Which of the following is not the characteristic of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Written

  2. ((b))

    Theocratic

  3. ((c))

    Flexible

  4. ((d))

    Sovereign

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Theocratic

The correct answer is Theocratic.

Key Points

  • Written: The Indian Constitution is a written constitution.
  • It is a comprehensive document that consists of a set of laws, principles, and rules that govern the country.
  • It is written and codified in a formal document.
  • Theocratic: The Indian Constitution is not theocratic.
  • A theocratic system of government is one where religious leaders hold the ultimate authority and religious laws are given prominence in the governance of the state.
  • The Indian Constitution, on the other hand, establishes a secular democratic republic where the state is separate from any particular religion.

Additional Information

  • Flexible: The Indian Constitution is considered flexible.
  • It has provisions for amendments and can be modified or amended through the prescribed constitutional amendment process.
  • However, certain core principles and provisions, known as "basic structure," are considered rigid and cannot be amended.
  • Sovereign: The Indian Constitution declares India to be a sovereign nation.
  • Sovereignty means that India is an independent country with full authority over its internal and external affairs.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2) Theocratic.
147

By which of the following Constitutional Amendment the Right to Property has been deleted from the Fundamental Rights?

  1. ((a))

    42nd Amendment

  2. ((b))

    44th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    46th Amendment

  4. ((d))

    48th Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

44th Amendment

The correct answer is 44th Amendment. 

Key Points

  • It was the 44th amendment of the Constitution of India which declared that the Right to Property will no longer be a Fundamental Right.
  • Article 31 and Article 19(1)(f) was completely removed from Part III – Fundamental Rights of Constitution with the help of the 44th Amendment.
  • The Supreme Court reminded the State Government that the State had to follow the authority of law and due procedure of law before taking the private property of a person.
  • This needs to be done as per provisions mentioned in Article 300A.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Rights are a set of basic rights and freedoms guaranteed to all individuals under the Constitution of India.
  • These rights are considered fundamental because they are essential for the development, dignity, and well-being of individuals.
  • The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the Indian Constitution.
148

Which of the following dynasty ruled in this state Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for the longest time of span?

  1. ((a))

    Sharabhpuriya

  2. ((b))

    Vakataka

  3. ((c))

    Kalchuri

  4. ((d))

    Kakatiya

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kakatiya

The correct answer is Kakatiya.

Key Points

  • The Kakatiya dynasty was a medieval dynasty that ruled over the Telugu-speaking region of present-day Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in South India.
  • The dynasty was founded by King Prola II in the 12th century and reached its zenith under the rule of Rudrama Devi and her successor Prataparudra II.
  • The Kakatiya dynasty is known for its architectural and cultural achievements.
  • They constructed several impressive temples, forts, and irrigation tanks, including the famous Warangal Fort and Thousand Pillar Temple.
  • The dynasty also patronized literature, art, and music, contributing to the development of Telugu language and literature.

Additional Information

  • In the Anumakonda inscription, it is described that Rudradeva I was the first independent ruler of the Kakatiya kingdom of Warangal.
  • The most powerful ruler of this kingdom was Ganapatideva, and he ruled for almost 63 years.
  • The last ruler of this kingdom was Prataparudra.
  • All the other rulers given in the option are described in the table below with their kingdoms respectively.

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149

By which of the following Constitutional Amendment the Fundamental Duties have been incorporated in Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    42nd Amendment

  2. ((b))

    44th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    46th Amendment

  4. ((d))

    48th Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42nd Amendment

The correct answer is 42nd Amendment.

Key Points

  • The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, made several significant changes to the Indian Constitution.
  • One of the changes was the addition of Part IV-A, which contains the Fundamental Duties.
  • The Fundamental Duties are a set of moral and civic obligations that citizens are expected to fulfill towards the nation.
  • They were added to emphasize the importance of individual and collective responsibilities in building a just and harmonious society.

Additional Information List of Fundamental Duties of India

  1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
  2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
  3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India;
  4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
  5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
  6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
  7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;
  8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
  9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
  10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement;
  11. Who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of six to fourteen years.
150

Which of the following is the essential feature of the federal nature of the constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Federal Court

  2. ((b))

    Bicameral Legislature

  3. ((c))

    Separation of Power

  4. ((d))

    Dual Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dual Government

The correcta answer is Dual Government

Explanation:

Federalism is a system of government in which powers are divided between a central authority and constituent political units, such as states or provinces. This division is established by a constitution, which allocates certain powers to the national government while reserving the rest for the local governments. The federal structure aims to combine a strong central government for national unity and efficiency with local governments for regional autonomy and cultural diversity. One of the critical debates around federalism concerns identifying its most essential features. Among proposed candidates, one stands out as fundamental to the federal nature of a constitution.

 Key Points

  • Dual Government: The essence of federalism lies in its establishment of two levels of government, each with its own direct authority over its citizens and a specific area of legislative territory. This system allows for a division of responsibilities, where the central government typically handles national defense, foreign policy, and regulating interstate commerce, while the states or provinces manage education, local law enforcement, and other regional matters. The existence of dual government ensures that power is not centralized in one entity, providing checks and balances that protect individual freedoms and prevent tyranny.
  • Separation of Powers: While critical for maintaining a balanced and fair government, the separation of powers into three branches (legislative, executive, judicial) is not unique to federal systems. It is a governance principle that can be, and is, applied in unitary states as well. Therefore, though vital for the operation of a federal system, it is not its defining feature.
  • Bicameral Legislature: The presence of two legislative chambers often supports the federal structure by representing different interests — one usually representing the population at large and the other representing the states or provinces. However, bicameral legislatures exist in some unitary states as well, and not all federal states have bicameralism. Therefore, it is a common but not essential feature of federalism.
  • Federal Court: A federal court system helps interpret the constitution and resolve disputes between states and the federal government. While important for federalism, especially in interpreting the powers of different government levels, the presence of a federal court is not the fundamental feature that defines a federal system.

Additional Information

The concept of dual government is foundational to understanding federalism because it directly impacts how power and governance are organized within a country. This arrangement allows for a closer and more responsive government at the local level, while still maintaining a strong central government capable of unifying the nation on crucial matters. It also fosters a healthy balance of power, encourages political participation, and accommodates regional differences within the same country. Moreover, the federal system can enhance stability and provide a framework for resolving conflicts among diverse groups by ensuring their representation at multiple levels of governance.

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