UPSSSC PET Official Paper (Held On: 06 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Bronze Age.

Key Points

• The Harappan Civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, flourished during the Bronze Age, approximately between 3300 BCE and 1300 BCE.
• This civilization is characterized by its use of bronze to craft tools, weapons, and other artifacts, signifying advanced metallurgy skills.
• The Harappans extensively utilized copper and tin to create bronze, which was a major technological advancement of the era.
• Artifacts like bronze statues, tools, and seals were discovered at Harappan sites, showcasing their sophistication in metalworking.
• Major urban centers of the Harappan Civilization, such as Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, and Dholavira, demonstrate their advancements in architecture, urban planning, and trade during the Bronze Age.

Additional Information

• Iron Age
• The Iron Age succeeded the Bronze Age and began around 1200 BCE in some regions.
• This era was marked by the widespread use of iron for tools and weapons, replacing bronze due to its greater abundance and durability.
• The Iron Age saw the development of more advanced agricultural tools and military equipment, significantly impacting societal structures.
• However, the Harappan Civilization predates the Iron Age and thus does not belong to this period.
• Stone Age
• The Stone Age refers to the prehistoric period when humans primarily used stone tools.
• It is divided into three phases: Paleolithic (Old Stone Age), Mesolithic (Middle Stone Age), and Neolithic (New Stone Age).
• The Harappan Civilization cannot be classified under the Stone Age, as it demonstrates advanced technologies like metallurgy and urban planning.
• Paleolithic Age
• The Paleolithic Age is the earliest phase of the Stone Age, marked by the use of rudimentary stone tools by early humans.
• This period is characterized by a hunter-gatherer lifestyle and the absence of settled communities.
• The Harappan Civilization, being a highly developed and urbanized society, is far removed from the characteristics of the Paleolithic Age.

The correct answer is Empowering Entrepreneurs Transforming Livestock Economics.

Key Points

• The theme of the Entrepreneurship Development Conclave 2025 held in Pune was Empowering Entrepreneurs Transforming Livestock Economics.
• This theme focused on creating sustainable entrepreneurship models in the livestock sector, emphasizing economic growth and self-reliance through innovative practices.
• The conclave aimed to address challenges faced by entrepreneurs in the livestock sector and equip them with strategies to enhance productivity and profitability.
• It emphasized the importance of integrating modern technology and research into livestock management practices to transform the sector into a robust economic driver.
• The event brought together policymakers, industry experts, and budding entrepreneurs to share insights and collaborate on innovative solutions for livestock economics.

Additional Information

• Importance of Livestock Economics
• Livestock economics deals with the financial and managerial aspects of livestock production and trade.
• It plays a critical role in rural development, food security, and sustainable agricultural practices.
• The 2025 conclave highlighted the need to empower entrepreneurs to innovate and transform this sector for long-term economic growth.

The correct answer is March 15.

Key Points

• World Consumer Rights Day is celebrated globally on March 15 every year.
• The day was inspired by former US President John F. Kennedy's declaration of consumer rights on March 15, 1962.
• It aims to raise global awareness about consumer rights and protection and to promote fair practices in the marketplace.
• The day provides an opportunity for consumers to demand respect and protection for their rights and to protest against market abuses and social injustices.
• The theme for World Consumer Rights Day varies annually, focusing on pressing global issues affecting consumer welfare.

Additional Information

• Sat Mar 21 2026
• March 21 is associated with International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination, not World Consumer Rights Day.
• This day commemorates the tragic events of the Sharpeville Massacre in South Africa in 1960.
• Sun Oct 11 2026
• October 11 is recognized as International Day of the Girl Child.
• This observance aims to highlight and address the needs and challenges faced by girls while promoting their empowerment and human rights.
• It is unrelated to consumer rights.
• Consumer Rights
• Consumer rights include the right to safety, the right to be informed, the right to choose, and the right to be heard.
• Globally, consumer protection laws and organizations work to ensure fair treatment, prevent exploitation, and promote ethical business practices.
• World Consumer Rights Day is a significant event for advancing these goals on an international scale.

The correct answer is Starred.

Key Points

• A Starred Question is a type of parliamentary question that requires an oral answer in the house.
• It is distinguished by an asterisk (*) mark placed next to the question.
• Members can ask supplementary questions based on the minister's response to the starred question.
• Starred questions are considered critical as they enable members to seek clarifications directly from the concerned minister.
• Only a limited number of starred questions are selected for oral responses during each session of the parliament.

Additional Information

• Short Notice Question:
• A Short Notice Question is asked with a shorter notice period compared to regular questions, typically less than 10 days.
• It requires prior approval from the Speaker or Chairman of the house.
• These questions address urgent matters of public importance.
• Unstarred Question:
• An Unstarred Question does not require an oral answer; instead, the response is provided in written form.
• Members cannot ask supplementary questions based on the written replies to unstarred questions.
• Unstarred questions are useful for obtaining detailed and factual information on various matters.
• Long Notice Question:
• Long Notice Questions are questions that require a longer notice period, generally more than 10 days, for submission.
• These questions are less urgent and are included in the agenda for regular discussions during parliamentary sessions.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Kangto is the highest peak in Arunachal Pradesh, with an elevation of approximately 7,060 meters (23,160 feet).
• It is located along the Eastern Himalayan Range, near the border of India and Tibet (China).
• The mountain is part of the Nyegi Kangsang sub-range of the Himalayas, known for its rugged terrain and pristine natural beauty.
• Kangto is a remote and challenging peak, making it a favored destination for experienced mountaineers and trekkers.
• The area around Kangto is sparsely populated and is home to diverse flora and fauna, including some endemic species found in Arunachal Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Himachal Pradesh
• Himachal Pradesh is part of the western Himalayas and is home to peaks like Reo Purgyil, which is the highest peak in the state (6,816 meters).
• The state is known for its hill stations, valleys, and adventure tourism, including trekking and skiing.
• Nagaland
• Nagaland is located in the northeastern region of India and is primarily known for its rich tribal culture and biodiversity.
• The highest peak in Nagaland is Mount Saramati, which stands at an elevation of 3,826 meters (12,553 feet).
• Manipur
• Manipur is also located in northeastern India and is renowned for its scenic beauty and cultural heritage.
• The highest peak in Manipur is Mount Iso (also called Mount Tenipu), with an altitude of 2,994 meters (9,823 feet).

The correct answer is Pavapuri.

Key Points

• Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, attained moksha (liberation) at Pavapuri, a sacred site located in present-day Bihar, India.
• His nirvana (final liberation) occurred in 527 BCE at Pavapuri, where he left the cycle of birth and death and became a Siddha (a liberated soul).
• Pavapuri is known for its historical and religious significance, and the site is home to the famous Jal Mandir, a temple built in the middle of a water tank commemorating Mahavira's nirvana.
• According to Jain scriptures, Mahavira delivered his final teachings at Pavapuri before attaining liberation.
• The site is revered by Jains worldwide and remains a major pilgrimage destination for followers of Jainism.

Additional Information

• Rajagriha:
• Rajagriha (modern-day Rajgir in Bihar) was an important site for both Jainism and Buddhism.
• It was the capital of Magadha during Mahavira's lifetime and a center of spiritual learning.
• Mahavira spent significant time here spreading his teachings, but he did not attain moksha at Rajagriha.
• Rajagriha is also associated with Gautama Buddha and the First Buddhist Council.
• Kapilavastu:
• Kapilavastu, located in present-day Nepal or Uttar Pradesh (exact location debated), was the birthplace of Siddhartha Gautama (Buddha).
• It is primarily significant in Buddhism and does not hold direct relevance to Mahavira’s attainment of moksha.
• Purushapura:
• Purushapura, modern-day Peshawar in Pakistan, was a historical city in ancient India.
• It holds significance in Gandharan art and culture and is associated with Buddhism.

The correct answer is 4 years.

Key Points

• The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, are held every 4 years, similar to the Olympics.
• The Asian Games are organized by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) under the supervision of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The inaugural Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, in 1951, and have since become the largest multi-sport event in Asia.
• The event brings together athletes from across the Asian continent, representing over 45 nations, to compete in a variety of sports disciplines.
• The Asian Games serve to foster unity, cultural exchange, and sportsmanship among Asian nations.

Additional Information

• Asian Games
• The Asian Games is the second-largest multi-sport event in the world after the Olympics.
• It includes a wide range of sports, from traditional ones like athletics and swimming to sports unique to Asia, such as Sepak Takraw and Wushu.
• The Asian Games are a platform for recognizing the sporting talent of Asian athletes and promote international camaraderie and peace.

सही उत्तर- भलाई

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से कहा गया है कि आनन्द की श्रेणी में ऐसा कोई शुद्ध मनोविकार नहीं है जो पात्र की हानि की उत्तेजना करे।
• परन्तु दुःख की श्रेणी में ऐसा मनोविकार है जो पात्र की भलाई की उत्तेजना करता है।
• अतः रिक्त स्थान में ‘भलाई’ शब्द ही उपयुक्त है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• भावना: यह शब्द गद्यांश के सन्दर्भ में उपयुक्त नहीं है।
• सच्चाई: गद्यांश में इस संदर्भ में प्रयोग नहीं हुआ है।
• बुराई: यह गद्यांश के आशय के विपरीत है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर ‘भलाई’ है।

सही उत्तर- क्रोध

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट कहा गया है — “दुःख की श्रेणी में प्रवृत्ति के विचार से करुणा का उल्टा क्रोध है।”
• अतः करुणा का विपरीत मनोविकार ‘क्रोध’ बताया गया है।
• इसलिए सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• श्रद्धा: गद्यांश में करुणा का विपरीत नहीं बताया गया है।
• भाव: यह सामान्य शब्द है, करुणा का उल्टा नहीं।
• दुःख: करुणा दुःख की श्रेणी में ही रखी गई है, उसका उल्टा नहीं।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर ‘क्रोध’ है।

सही उत्तर- दुःख और आनन्द दोनों की

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि किसी पर प्रसन्न होकर भी लोग उसकी भलाई करते हैं।
• इस प्रकार पात्र की भलाई की उत्तेजना दुःख और आनन्द दोनों की श्रेणियों में रखी गई है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• क्रोध और करुणा दोनों की: गद्यांश में ऐसा उल्लेख नहीं है।
• श्रद्धा और भक्ति दोनों की: यह संदर्भ गद्यांश में नहीं दिया गया है।
• प्रेम और द्वेष दोनों की: यह भी गद्यांश के अनुसार सही नहीं है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।

सही उत्तर- उसकी भलाई का उद्योग किया जाता है।

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट कहा गया है — “करुणा जिसके प्रति उत्पन्न होती है उसकी भलाई का उद्योग किया जाता है।”
• अतः करुणा का भाव होने पर व्यक्ति उसके हित के लिए प्रयास करता है।
• इसलिए सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• उसकी हानि की चेष्टा की जाती है: यह क्रोध से संबंधित है, करुणा से नहीं।
• चंचल हो जाते हैं: गद्यांश में ऐसा उल्लेख नहीं है।
• क्रोध उसके प्रति उत्पन्न हो जाता है: यह करुणा का विपरीत है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

सही उत्तर- करुणा

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश के अंत में स्पष्ट कहा गया है — “करुणा की प्राप्ति के लिए पात्र में दुःख के अतिरिक्त और किसी विशेषता की अपेक्षा नहीं।”
• अर्थात् केवल दुःख का होना ही करुणा उत्पन्न करने के लिए पर्याप्त है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 ‘करुणा’ है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• उत्साह: गद्यांश में इसका उल्लेख इस संदर्भ में नहीं है।
• क्रोध: यह करुणा का उल्टा बताया गया है।
• उत्तेजना: यह सामान्य शब्द है, यहाँ विशिष्ट भाव ‘करुणा’ है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर ‘करुणा’ है।

सही उत्तर- सब पुराने अच्छे ही नहीं होते, सब नये खराब ही नहीं होते ।

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश के अंत में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख है कि कालिदास ने कहा था — “सब पुराने अच्छे ही नहीं होते, सब नये खराब ही नहीं होते।”
• अर्थात् न तो हर पुरानी वस्तु श्रेष्ठ होती है और न ही हर नई वस्तु निकृष्ट होती है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• उलझनों की मात्रा बहुत बढ़ गई है: यह कथन गद्यांश में है, परन्तु यह कालिदास का कथन नहीं है।
• हमारी परंपरा महिमामयी, उत्तराधिकार विपुल और संस्कार उज्ज्वल है: यह लेखक का विचार है, कालिदास का नहीं।
• पुराने का मोह सब समय वाञ्छनीय ही नहीं होता: यह भी लेखक का कथन है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।

सही उत्तर- सहजात वृत्ति अनजानी स्मृतियों का ही नाम है ।

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• लेखक ने स्पष्ट रूप से लिखा है — “मुझे प्राणि-विज्ञानी की बात फिर याद आती है — सहजात वृत्ति अनजानी स्मृतियों का ही नाम है।”
• अर्थात् मनुष्य की जन्मजात प्रवृत्तियाँ उसकी अनजानी स्मृतियों का परिणाम होती हैं।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• नाखून बढ़ना उनमें से एक हो सकता है: गद्यांश में ऐसा उल्लेख नहीं है।
• हम कोई नौसिखुए नहीं है: यह लेखक का कथन है, प्राणि-विज्ञानियों का नहीं।
• नाना भावों और नाना पहलुओं से विचारा गया है: यह भी गद्यांश का सामान्य कथन है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 है।

सही उत्तर- स्व

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है — “उसने अपनी आजादी के जितने भी नामकरण किये — स्वतन्त्रता, स्वराज्य, स्वाधीनता — उन सब में 'स्व' का बन्धन अवश्य रखा।”
• अर्थात् प्रत्येक शब्द में ‘स्व’ (अपनेपन) का भाव जुड़ा हुआ है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• पर: गद्यांश में इसका उल्लेख नहीं है।
• श्वर: यह संदर्भानुसार उपयुक्त नहीं है।
• ओर: यह भी वाक्य के अनुरूप नहीं है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर ‘स्व’ है।

सही उत्तर- बँदरिया

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है — “मरे बच्चे को गोद में दबाये रहनेवाली ‘बँदरिया’ मनुष्य का आदर्श नहीं बन सकती।”
• यह उदाहरण पुराने मोह को त्यागने की आवश्यकता स्पष्ट करने के लिए दिया गया है।
• अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• भेड़िया: गद्यांश में इसका उल्लेख नहीं है।
• बाघिन: यह विकल्प संदर्भ से संबंधित नहीं है।
• सुअर: गद्यांश में ऐसा कोई उल्लेख नहीं है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर ‘बँदरिया’ है।

सही उत्तर- अंग्रेजों की अनुवर्तिता करने के बाद भी भारतवर्ष 'इण्डिपेण्डेन्स' को अनधीनता क्यों नहीं कह सका ?

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार-

• गद्यांश की शुरुआत में लेखक कहते हैं — “मैं कभी-कभी सोचता हूँ कि इतने दिनों तक अंग्रेजों की अनुवर्तिता करने के बाद भी भारतवर्ष 'इण्डिपेण्डेन्स' को अनधीनता क्यों नहीं कह सका?”
• अतः यही वह विचार है जो लेखक को कभी-कभी सोचने पर विवश करता है।
• इसलिए सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।

अन्य विकल्प:

• पशुता या मनुष्यता की ओर: यह लेखक का प्रत्यक्ष कथन नहीं है।
• ये हमारी पशुता की निशानी है: ऐसा कथन गद्यांश में नहीं है।
• यह हमारी पशुता के अवशेष है: यह भी गद्यांश के अनुसार नहीं है।
• उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं: क्योंकि सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।

सही उत्तर है - परिमाणवाचक। 

Key Points

• परिमाणवाचक विशेषण वे शब्द हैं जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की मात्रा, नाप या तौल का बोध कराते हैं-
• जैसे - थोड़ा पानी, एक लीटर दूध, बहुत काम।
• ये दो प्रकार के होते हैं:
• निश्चित परिमाणवाचक: जो विशेषण संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के निश्चित परिमाण का ज्ञान कराए, वे निश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण कहलाते हैं।
• उदाहरण :
• 5 मीटर कपड़ा,  एक तोला सोना।
• अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक: जो विशेषण संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के निश्चित परिमाण का नहीं, अपितु अनिश्चित परिमाण का ज्ञान कराए, वे अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण कहलाते हैं।
• उदाहरण :
• बहुत चीनी**,कुछ** फल ।

अन्य विकल्प :

• **गुणवाचक विशेषण :**वे शब्द हैं जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के गुण, दोष, रंग, आकार, स्थान, या दशा का बोध कराते हैं।
• **उदाहरण :**ईमानदार व्यक्ति,लंबा पेड़।
• संख्यावाचक विशेषण: वे शब्द हैं जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की निश्चित या अनिश्चित संख्या, क्रम या गणना का बोध कराते हैं।
• उदाहरण :  दस आम, चार किताबें।
• सार्वनामिक विशेषण वे सर्वनाम शब्द हैं जो संज्ञा से पहले आकर उसकी विशेषता या संकेत बताते हैं।
• **उदाहरण :**कोई आदमी।

Additional Information विशेषण के मुख्यतः चार भेद होते हैं:

गुणवाचक: गुण, दोष, रंग, आकार।

संख्यावाचक: निश्चित/अनिश्चित गिनती।

परिमाणवाचक: नाप-तौल या मात्रा ।

सार्वनामिक: संज्ञा से पहले लगने वाले सर्वनाम।

सही उत्तर है- चैत्र 

Key Points

• तत्सम शब्द वे शब्द हैं जो संस्कृत भाषा से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के हिंदी में ज्यों के त्यों प्रयुक्त होते हैं।
• तत्सम' का अर्थ है, तत् + सम = उसके समान ( संस्कृतके समान) ।
• अन्य विकल्प :

 Additional Informationउत्पत्ति या स्रोत के आधार पर 4 भेद होते हैं। 

तत्सम, तद्भव,देशज ,विदेशज। 

तत्सम ,तद्भव के अन्य उदाहरण: 

 

सही उत्तर - प्रदान 

Key Points

• आदान' का विलोम शब्द प्रदान
• विलोम शब्द का अर्थ है, विपरीत या उल्टा अर्थ देने वाले शब्द।
• जैसे :
• अपमान - सम्मान
• अमर - नश्वर
• उत्तम -अधम

अन्य विकल्प : 

Additional Informationअन्य विलोम शब्द :

सही उत्तर - समय।

Key Points

• 'समय की पहचान' सियारामशरण गुप्त जी की कविता है, जिसमें वे समय के महत्व के बारे में बताते हैं
• सियारामशरण गुप्त जी हिन्दी के साहित्यकार थे। ये प्रसिद्ध हिन्दी कवि मैथिलीशरण गुप्त के अनुज थे।
• इनका जन्म सेठ रामचरण कनकने के परिवार में चिरगाँव, झांसी में हुआ था।
• गुप्त जी स्वयं शिक्षित कवि थे। मैथिलीशरण गुप्त की काव्यकला और उनका युगबोध सियारामशरण ने यथावत्‌ अपनाया था।

Additional Information

• सियारामशरण गुप्त प्रमुख रचनाएँ
• खण्ड काव्य- मौर्य विजय(1914), अनाथ(1917), आर्द्रा(1927), विषाद(1925), दूर्वा दल(1924), आत्मोत्सर्ग(1931), पाथेय(1933), मृण्मयी(1936), बापू(1937), उन्मुक्त(1940), दैनिकी(1942), नकुल(1946), सुनन्दा और गोपिका।
• नाटक- पुण्य पर्व
• अनुवाद- गीता सम्वाद
• नाट्य- उन्मुक्त गीत
• कविता संग्रह- अनुरुपा तथा अमृत पुत्र
• काव्यग्रन्थ- दैनिकी नकुल, नोआखली में, जय हिन्द, पाथेय, मृण्मयी तथा आत्मोसर्ग।
• उपन्यास- अन्तिम आकांक्षा तथा नारी और गोद।
• निबन्ध संग्रह- झूठ-सच।

सही उत्तर - गुस्से में देखना।

Key Points

• आँखें दिखाना' मुहावरे का सही अर्थ - गुस्से में देखना।
• मुहावरे ऐसे वाक्यांश हैं जो अपने साधारण (शाब्दिक) अर्थ को छोड़कर एक विशेष, लाक्षणिक या सांकेतिक अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं।
• ये भाषा को रोचक, संक्षिप्त और प्रभावशाली बनाने के लिए प्रयुक्त होते हैं।
• अन्य विकल्प :

Additional Informationअन्य मुहावरे और उनके अर्थ :

The correct answer is 80 years.

Key Points

• Gautama Buddha, the founder of Buddhism, attained Parinibbana (final liberation) at the age of 80 years.
• He passed away in the town of Kushinagar, located in present-day Uttar Pradesh, India.
• Buddha's Parinibbana marks the end of his mortal life and the attainment of Nirvana, the ultimate spiritual liberation.
• The event is commemorated by Buddhists worldwide as Maha Parinibbana, which signifies freedom from the cycle of birth and death.
• Buddha delivered his last teachings, known as the Maha-parinibbana Sutta, shortly before his passing, emphasizing the impermanence of life and the importance of self-reliance.

Additional Information

• Parinibbana
• Parinibbana refers to the final release from the cycle of samsara (birth, death, and rebirth) in Buddhist philosophy.
• It is distinct from Nirvana, which can be experienced during one's lifetime; Parinibbana occurs upon the physical death of an enlightened being.
• Buddha's Parinibbana is a central event in Buddhism, symbolizing ultimate liberation and the culmination of spiritual practice.

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

• Indonesia officially became the 10^th full member of the BRICS group in January 2025 during the BRICS Summit held that year.
• BRICS, an economic bloc initially comprising Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, expanded its membership to include new countries to enhance global cooperation and representation.
• Indonesia's inclusion in BRICS highlights its growing influence in international diplomacy and its strategic role in global economic discussions.
• Indonesia is one of Southeast Asia's largest economies, with a robust GDP, making it a significant addition to the BRICS alliance.
• Indonesia's membership aims to strengthen economic ties among developing nations and promote collaboration in trade, investment, and sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Saudi Arabia
• Saudi Arabia is an influential Middle Eastern nation, known for its vast oil reserves and significant role in OPEC.
• Though Saudi Arabia has expressed interest in collaborating with BRICS, it was not officially inducted as a full member in January 2025.
• Saudi Arabia's Vision 2030 program aims to diversify its economy beyond oil, focusing on sectors such as tourism and technology.
• Turkey
• Turkey is strategically located at the crossroads of Europe and Asia and has a diverse economy with strong industrial and agricultural sectors.
• While Turkey has participated in various international forums, it was not included in the BRICS group in 2025.
• Turkey's geopolitical stance and NATO membership may influence its collaboration with BRICS nations.
• Egypt
• Egypt is a key player in Africa and the Arab world, with its economy primarily driven by tourism, agriculture, and natural gas exports.
• Egypt joined BRICS as a non-member or observer in earlier discussions but was not inducted as a full member in January 2025.
• Egypt's inclusion in various international forums highlights its importance in regional and global affairs.

The correct answer is Poverty.

Key Points

• Poverty refers to the condition where individuals or groups lack the financial resources to meet their basic needs, including food, clothing, and shelter.
• It is characterized by a low standard of living, poor access to healthcare, education, and other essential services.
• According to the World Bank, extreme poverty is defined as living on less than $1.90 per day.
• Poverty can be categorized into absolute poverty (lack of basic resources) and relative poverty (income below the average standard in society).
• Factors contributing to poverty include unemployment, lack of education, social inequality, and economic disparity.

Additional Information

• Unemployment:
• Unemployment occurs when individuals who are capable of working and actively seeking employment are unable to find work.
• It is measured by the unemployment rate, which is the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed.
• Types of unemployment include structural, frictional, cyclical, and seasonal unemployment.
• It is a major contributing factor to poverty as it reduces household income and economic stability.
• Illiteracy:
• Illiteracy refers to the inability to read, write, and comprehend information effectively.
• It limits access to education, employment opportunities, and social participation.
• Illiteracy is a critical barrier to societal development and economic progress.
• Efforts to combat illiteracy include government programs promoting education and literacy campaigns.
• Inequality:
• Inequality refers to unequal distribution of resources, wealth, opportunities, and rights among individuals or groups within a society.
• It can exist in various forms, such as economic inequality, gender inequality, and social inequality.
• Inequality exacerbates poverty and limits access to essential services and opportunities for marginalized sections of society.
• Addressing inequality requires policy measures, social reforms, and equitable access to resources.

The correct answer is Article 53.

Key Points

• Article 53 of the Indian Constitution states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President, and he/she shall exercise it either directly or through officers subordinate to him/her in accordance with the Constitution.
• The President of India is the constitutional head of the Union government, and all executive actions are taken in his/her name.
• This article ensures that the President acts as the supreme authority for the execution of laws passed by the Parliament.
• The President exercises executive powers with the assistance of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, as per Article 74.
• Article 53 reflects the parliamentary system of governance in India, where the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Additional Information

• Article 46:
• Article 46 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and other weaker sections.
• The State must also protect these groups from social injustice and exploitation.
• This article falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are non-justiciable but serve as guidelines for governance.
• Article 21:
• Article 21 provides for the protection of life and personal liberty and states that no person shall be deprived of these rights except according to the procedure established by law.
• It is one of the most important fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution and has been expansively interpreted by the judiciary to include rights such as the right to privacy, health, shelter, and education.
• Article 57:
• Article 57 of the Indian Constitution states that a person who holds or has held the office of President is eligible for re-election to that office.
• This article ensures that the President can serve multiple terms if duly elected by the Electoral College.

The correct answer is Industrial Policy Resolution 1956.

Key Points

• The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was a landmark policy that outlined the role of the public sector in India’s economy.
• It categorized industries into three schedules: exclusively managed by the State, progressively State-controlled, and privately operated.
• The resolution gave the public sector a strategic role in key industries such as defense, railways, atomic energy, and heavy industries.
• The policy aimed to achieve a socialist pattern of society, emphasizing equitable distribution of wealth and resources.
• It also encouraged the private sector while ensuring that the government had control over industries critical to national interest.
• The resolution laid the foundation for industrial growth and development in India post-independence.

Additional Information

• Industrial Policy Resolution 1948
• This was the first industrial policy announced by the Government of India after independence.
• It outlined the broad framework for industrial development, giving the government control over critical industries such as arms and ammunition, railways, and atomic energy.
• The policy emphasized mixed economy principles, allowing both public and private sectors to coexist.
• It also encouraged foreign investment, but with strict regulations to maintain national interests.
• Industrial Policy Resolution 1950
• While no distinct Industrial Policy Resolution was formally introduced in 1950, this year marked significant discussions and initiatives to refine the 1948 policy.
• Efforts were made to set up institutions like the Planning Commission (established in 1950), which later influenced the 1956 resolution.
• The focus was on addressing economic disparities and ensuring balanced regional development.
• Industrial Policy Resolution 1952
• This resolution is less notable compared to the 1948 and 1956 policies.
• It involved minor adjustments to the existing industrial framework, emphasizing the role of small-scale industries in economic growth.
• It paved the way for further expansion of the public sector, culminating in the comprehensive 1956 resolution.

The correct answer is Dec 29 2024.

Key Points

• Former U.S. President Jimmy Carter was born on October 1, 1924, and served as the 39th President of the United States from 1977 to 1981.
• Jimmy Carter was known for his commitment to human rights and diplomacy, notably brokering the Camp David Accords between Egypt and Israel in 1978.
• He is also recognized for his post-presidency humanitarian work, including his involvement with Habitat for Humanity and the Carter Center, which focuses on global health and peace initiatives.
• On December 29, 2024, Jimmy Carter passed away at the age of 100, leaving behind a legacy of public service and global contributions.
• Jimmy Carter was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2002 for his efforts to promote peace and democracy worldwide.

Additional Information

• George Washington (1st President): Established precedents for the presidency, led the nation through its infancy, and fostered unity.
• Thomas Jefferson (3rd President): Louisiana Purchase, expanding the nation, Jeffersonian democracy.
• Andrew Jackson (7th President): Championed the common man, dismantled the national bank, but oversaw the Trail of Tears.
• Abraham Lincoln (16th President): Led the country through the Civil War, preserved the Union, and issued the Emancipation Proclamation.
• Theodore Roosevelt (26th President): Trust-busting, conservation, expanded presidential power, "Square Deal" policies.
• Franklin D. Roosevelt (32nd President): Guided America through the Great Depression (New Deal) and World War II, served four terms.
• Barack Obama (44th President): First African American president, inspiring millions and leading through economic recovery.

The correct answer is Rig Veda.

Key Points

• The Purusha Sukta is a hymn found in the 10th Mandala of the Rig Veda, one of the oldest known texts of humanity.
• The hymn describes the creation of the universe and society through the cosmic being, Purusha, whose sacrifice leads to the origin of the four varnas (Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra).
• According to the hymn, the Brahmins were created from the mouth of Purusha, Kshatriyas from his arms, Vaishyas from his thighs, and Shudras from his feet, symbolizing their roles in society.
• The Purusha Sukta is significant as it provides one of the earliest references to the social stratification of ancient Indian society.
• It also reflects the Vedic worldview on the interconnectedness of cosmic order (Rta) and human society.

Additional Information

• Yajur Veda
• The Yajur Veda is primarily a compilation of sacrificial formulas and mantras used in Vedic rituals.
• It is divided into two parts: Krishna Yajur Veda (Black Yajur Veda) and Shukla Yajur Veda (White Yajur Veda).
• It focuses on the procedural aspects of rituals and ceremonies rather than philosophical or cosmological themes.
• Sama Veda
• The Sama Veda is primarily a collection of hymns derived from the Rig Veda, set to musical notation.
• It is considered the Veda of melodies and chants and is closely associated with the performance of sacred rituals.
• The Sama Veda is significant for its contribution to Indian classical music.
• Atharva Veda
• The Atharva Veda consists of hymns, spells, and incantations related to everyday life, including health, longevity, and protection against evils.
• It is often referred to as the Veda of Knowledge of Everyday Life.
• Unlike the Rig Veda, it focuses on practical concerns rather than cosmic or societal themes.

Given:

2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172

Formula used:

If numerator and denominator are divided by same number, quotient remains same

Calculation:

⇒ 29.94 = 2994 ÷ 100

⇒ 1.45 = 14.5 ÷ 10

⇒ 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = (2994 ÷ 100) ÷ (14.5 ÷ 10)

⇒ 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = (2994 ÷ 14.5) × (10 ÷ 100)

⇒ 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = 172 × 1/10

⇒ 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = 17.2

∴ The required value is 17.2

Given Data:

Company A → Total = 2000, Male = 1200, Female = 800

Finance = 1400, Male : Female = 4 : 3

Company B → Total = 2400, Male = 1800, Female = 600

Finance = 1200, Male : Female = 3 : 1

Company C → Total = 1800, Male = 900, Female = 900

Finance = 1080, Male : Female = 5 : 4

Company D → Total = 2800, Male = 2100, Female = 700

Finance = 1400, Male : Female = 9 : 5

Calculation:

Male in Finance (D) = (9/14) × 1400 = 900

Female in Finance (D) = (5/14) × 1400 = 500

Marketing male = 2100 − 900 = 1200

Marketing female = 700 − 500 = 200

Required ratio = 1200 : 200

Answer: 6 : 1

Calculation:

Total males = 1200 + 1800 + 900 + 2100

= 6000

Average = 6000 ÷ 4

Answer: 1500

Calculation:

Female in Finance:

A = 600

B = 300

C = 480

D = 500

Total = 600 + 300 + 480 + 500

= 1880

Average = 1880 ÷ 4

Answer: 470

Calculation:

Marketing males:

A = 400

B = 900

C = 300

D = 1200

Total males = 2800

Marketing females:

A = 200

B = 300

C = 420

D = 200

Total females = 1120

Difference = 2800 − 1120

Answer: 1680

Calculation:

Male Finance (C) = 600

Total Marketing (D) = 1400

Percentage = (600 ÷ 1400) × 100

= 42.85%

Answer: 43%

The correct answer is Financial institutions.

Key Points

• Financial institutions play a critical role in mobilizing and transferring the economy's surplus to its ultimate users, such as businesses, governments, and individuals.
• These institutions act as intermediaries by collecting savings from individuals or entities and directing them toward productive investments or loans.
• Examples of financial institutions include banks, insurance companies, investment firms, mutual funds, and pension funds.
• They enhance the efficiency of capital allocation, ensuring that funds are directed to areas where they are most needed and can yield the highest return.
• Financial institutions are crucial for economic growth as they facilitate credit creation, risk management, and liquidity in the market.

Additional Information

• Government Policy
• Government policies are frameworks and strategies designed to guide economic, social, and political initiatives.
• While they are essential for creating an environment conducive to economic growth and regulation, they do not directly mobilize or transfer the economy's surplus to users.
• Examples include fiscal policies (taxation, public spending) and monetary policies (interest rates, money supply).
• Manpower
• Manpower refers to the human workforce involved in the production of goods and services.
• Though manpower is an essential resource for executing economic activities, it does not perform the function of financial intermediation or transferring surplus funds.
• Commercial Centers
• Commercial centers are hubs for trade and commerce, facilitating the buying and selling of goods and services.
• While they support economic activity and growth, they do not act as intermediaries in mobilizing or allocating economic surplus.

The correct answer is Tarun Das.

Key Points

• Tarun Das, an eminent Indian industrialist, was honored with the prestigious Honorary Citizen Award of Singapore on January 15, 2025.
• This award was conferred by Singapore's President Tharman Shanmugaratnam in a ceremony held in New Delhi, India.
• The Honorary Citizen Award is Singapore's highest form of recognition for foreigners who have made exceptional contributions to the country.
• Tarun Das was recognized for his significant role in enhancing economic and trade relations between India and Singapore.
• He played a pivotal role in fostering bilateral ties through his contributions to organizations such as the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).

Additional Information

• N. Chandrasekaran
• He is the Chairman of Tata Sons, the holding company of the Tata Group, one of India’s largest conglomerates.
• N. Chandrasekaran has played a key role in the global expansion of Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) during his tenure as CEO and MD.
• Under his leadership, Tata Group has focused on digital transformation, sustainability, and innovation.
• Ratan Tata
• Ratan Tata is a globally renowned Indian industrialist and philanthropist who served as the Chairman of Tata Sons from 1991 to 2012.
• He was instrumental in the acquisition of global brands such as Jaguar Land Rover and Tetley Tea by the Tata Group.
• Ratan Tata has been honored with several awards, including the Padma Vibhushan and Padma Bhushan, for his contributions to business and society.
• Uday Kotak
• Uday Kotak is the founder and CEO of Kotak Mahindra Bank, one of India’s leading private sector banks.
• He is recognized for his role in building a robust financial institution and driving innovation in the banking sector.
• Kotak Mahindra Bank was the first non-banking finance company in India to receive a banking license from the Reserve Bank of India.

The correct answer is Adinatha.

Key Points

• The Adi Purana is a Jain text composed by Jinasena, a Digambara monk, around the 9th century CE.
• It is primarily a hagiography that describes the life of Adinatha (Rishabhanatha), the first Tirthankara of Jainism.
• Adinatha is regarded as the founder of Jainism and is believed to have introduced the concepts of agriculture, trade, and social order.
• The text narrates the spiritual journey of Adinatha and his teachings, emphasizing the importance of nonviolence (Ahimsa), self-discipline, and renunciation.
• The Adi Purana also highlights the ethical and moral values propagated by Jain philosophy, serving as a guide for followers of Jainism.

Additional Information

• Parshvanatha:
• Parshvanatha was the 23rd Tirthankara in Jainism, preceding Mahavira.
• He is believed to have lived around the 8th century BCE and is associated with the fourfold ethical teachings: Ahimsa (nonviolence), Satya (truth), Asteya (non-stealing), and Aparigraha (non-possessiveness).
• Parshvanatha's followers formed a significant part of Jainism, which later merged with Mahavira's teachings.
• Neminatha:
• Neminatha is considered the 22nd Tirthankara of Jainism and is believed to have lived during the time of Krishna in Hindu mythology.
• He is revered for his renunciation and spiritual teachings that inspired many followers.
• Neminatha's life is documented in various Jain texts, highlighting his compassion and adherence to nonviolence.
• Mahavira:
• Mahavira is the 24th and last Tirthankara of Jainism, born in 599 BCE in Kundagrama, Bihar.
• He is considered the reformer of Jainism and propagated the five ethical principles: Ahimsa, Satya, Asteya, Brahmacharya (celibacy), and Aparigraha.
• Mahavira's teachings form the foundation of Jain philosophy and continue to influence its followers.

The correct answer is Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

Key Points

• The Future Minerals Forum (FMF) 2025 was held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, a significant hub for global mining and minerals initiatives.
• The FMF is an annual event aimed at promoting collaboration in the mining and minerals sector and addressing challenges like sustainability and advanced mining technologies.
• Saudi Arabia plays a key role in the global mining sector, with its Vision 2030 program emphasizing mineral exploration and economic diversification.
• The forum serves as a platform for fostering innovation, partnerships, and investment opportunities in the mining industry across regions including the Middle East, Africa, and Central Asia.
• FMF 2025 focused on topics such as sustainable mining practices, resource efficiency, and the transition to green energy.

Additional Information

• Doha, Qatar:
• Doha is the capital city of Qatar and a global center for finance, energy, and trade.
• Although it does not host the Future Minerals Forum, Qatar is actively involved in energy sector diversification and renewable energy initiatives.
• The country is better known for hosting global events like the FIFA World Cup 2022.
• Abu Dhabi, UAE:
• Abu Dhabi, the capital of the United Arab Emirates, is a prominent hub for oil and gas industries.
• It is known for initiatives like the Abu Dhabi Sustainability Week (ADSW), which focuses on renewable energy and sustainability.
• Muscat, Oman:
• Muscat, the capital city of Oman, is known for its mineral resources and oil reserves.
• Oman has been making efforts to diversify its economy by promoting non-oil sectors like mining and logistics.

Given:

Largest 3 digit number = 999

Smallest 2 digit number = 10

Formula used:

Difference = Larger number − Smaller number

Calculation:

⇒ Difference = 999 − 10

⇒ Difference = 989

∴ The required difference is 989

Given:

Compare √49 and √49 − 1

Formula used:

If a > 0, then a > a − 1

Calculation:

⇒ √49 = 7

⇒ √49 − 1 = 7 − 1 = 6

⇒ 7 > 6

∴ √49 is greater

The correct answer is National Rural Employment Programme.

Key Points

• The Food for Work Programme, initiated to address rural unemployment and poverty, was restructured and renamed as the National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) in October 1980.
• The main goal of NREP was to provide guaranteed wage employment to the rural poor, ensuring food security and fostering rural development.
• It focused on creating durable community assets like roads, irrigation canals, and school buildings to enhance rural infrastructure.
• Funds for the programme were shared between the central and state governments in a 50:50 ratio, demonstrating a collaborative approach to rural development.
• NREP was eventually merged into the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) in 1989, which consolidated various employment schemes for better implementation and impact.

Additional Information

• Rural Employment Guarantee Programme
• This term is often associated with the later Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), enacted in 2005.
• MGNREGA aims to enhance livelihood security by guaranteeing 100 days of wage employment per financial year to rural households willing to do unskilled manual work.
• It focuses on creating durable assets such as water conservation structures, roads, and afforestation projects.
• Unlike NREP, which was limited in scope, MGNREGA is a legally binding programme under an act of Parliament.
• Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
• Launched in 1978 and implemented nationwide in 1980, IRDP aimed at providing employment and raising the income levels of rural poor families.
• It encompassed various sectors like agriculture, animal husbandry, fisheries, and small-scale industries.
• IRDP provided asset subsidies and skill development to families living below the poverty line, ensuring their participation in productive activities.
• It was later merged into the Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) in 1999.
• Employment Generated Programme
• While the term is generic and does not refer to a specific scheme, it emphasizes initiatives that create employment opportunities across sectors.
• Such programmes often focus on skill development, infrastructure building, and fostering entrepreneurship among rural and urban populations.
• Examples include the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) and other flagship schemes aimed at boosting employment.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Dekhni is a traditional dance form that originated in the western Indian state of Goa.
• It is a semi-classical dance form that combines elements of folk traditions with classical movements.
• The dance is performed during festive occasions and is closely associated with the Goan Catholic community.
• Dekhni is typically performed by women dressed in colorful traditional attire, often accompanied by folk music and songs in Konkani.
• The themes of Dekhni dances often revolve around mythological stories, folklore, and local traditions.

Additional Information

• Kerala:
• Kerala is known for its classical dance forms such as Mohiniyattam, Kathakali, and Thiruvathirakali.
• Kathakali is a highly stylized classical dance-drama known for its elaborate costumes, intricate facial expressions, and colorful makeup.
• Mohiniyattam, meaning "dance of the enchantress," is a graceful dance form performed by women.
• Madhya Pradesh:
• Madhya Pradesh is famous for tribal and folk dance forms such as Gaur dance, Grida dance, and Phulpati dance.
• Gaur dance is performed by the Gond community, symbolizing hunting traditions.
• Grida dance is performed during harvesting seasons and signifies community harmony.
• Odisha:
• Odisha is renowned for its classical dance form Odissi, one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
• Odissi is characterized by its lyrical movements, intricate footwork, and sculpturesque poses inspired by temple carvings.
• Other folk dances of Odisha include Dalkhai, Chhau, and Sambalpuri dance.

The correct answer is 20 April, 1843.

Key Points

• The Bengal British India Society was established on April 20, 1843, in Kolkata.
• The society was founded to promote public discussions on topics of interest to Indians and foster a sense of national consciousness.
• It was one of the earliest organizations formed for the purpose of social reform and political awareness in British-ruled India.
• Its activities included discussions on Indian grievances and the demand for reforms in the British administration.
• The Bengal British India Society later merged with the British Indian Association in 1851, forming a consolidated body to advocate for Indian interests.

Additional Information

• The Bengal British India Society was a precursor to several organizations advocating for Indian rights and reforms under British rule.
• It played an important role in shaping early nationalist sentiments and the demand for social and political changes.
• The merger with the British Indian Association strengthened the movement for Indian self-governance and reforms in administration.

Calculation:

Total crops by Theja = 750 + 660 + 250 + 560 + 650

= 2870

Average = 2870 ÷ 5

= 574

Answer: 574

Calculation:

Total crops by each farmer:

Roshan = 3100

Prabhakar = 2280

Theja = 2870

Bhargav = 3190

Krishna = 2690

Arranged in ascending order:

2280, 2690, 2870, 3100, 3190

Third lowest = 2870

Answer: Theja

Calculation:

Total Mustard = 920 + 580 + 660 + 1050 + 760

= 3970

Total Wheat = 300 + 440 + 650 + 820 + 630

= 2840

Required ratio = 3970 : 2840

Divide by 10

= 397 : 284

Answer: 397 : 284

Calculation:

Roshan = 3100

Bhargav = 3190

Percentage = (3100 ÷ 3190) × 100

= 97.18%

≈ 97%

Answer: 97%

Calculation:

Total Rye = 640 + 480 + 750 + 200 + 260

= 2330

Average Rye = 2330 ÷ 5 = 466

Total Oats = 340 + 180 + 250 + 280 + 320

= 1370

Average Oats = 1370 ÷ 5 = 274

Difference = 466 − 274

= 192

Answer: 192

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji founded the East India Association in London in 1867.
• The main aim of the association was to represent the grievances of the Indian people to the British government and promote Indian welfare.
• The association became a platform for raising awareness about the exploitation of India under colonial rule, especially regarding economic issues.
• Dadabhai Naoroji, also known as the Grand Old Man of India, is famous for his work on the economic drain theory, which highlighted the systematic transfer of wealth from India to Britain.
• The East India Association played a crucial role in paving the way for future nationalist movements in India.

Additional Information

• Gopala Krishna Gokhale:
• Gokhale was a moderate nationalist and a social reformer, and he founded the Servants of India Society in 1905.
• He emphasized constitutional methods, dialogue, and reform to achieve political and social goals.
• He was a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi and played a significant role in shaping his political philosophy.
• Madan Mohan Malaviya:
• He was an educationist, freedom fighter, and founder of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916.
• Malaviya was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress and supported Hindu-Muslim unity.
• He also contributed to the promotion of education and social reform in India.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Tilak was a key leader in the Indian independence movement and was known as the "Father of Indian Unrest."
• He was a proponent of extremist nationalist ideas and used the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it."
• Tilak founded the Kesari newspaper and played an instrumental role in building public support for the independence movement.

The correct answer is Tripoli.

Key Points

• Tripoli is the capital city of Libya, located in the northwest part of the country along the Mediterranean Sea.
• The city is Libya’s largest and most populous urban area and serves as the country's primary economic, administrative, and cultural hub.
• Tripoli is known for its rich history, which dates back to its founding by the Phoenicians in the 7th century BCE as Oea.
• The city features historical landmarks such as the Red Castle (Assaraya al-Hamra), Tripoli Medina, and ancient mosques, showcasing its architectural heritage.
• Tripoli plays a significant role in Libya’s economy, with its port facilitating trade and oil exports, while industries such as manufacturing and services contribute to the city's growth.

Additional Information

• Port Louis
• Port Louis is the capital city of Mauritius, located on the Indian Ocean island nation.
• It is an important port city known for its role in trade and shipping, contributing significantly to Mauritius's economy.
• The city has historical landmarks, including the Aapravasi Ghat, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and the Champ de Mars Racecourse, the oldest racecourse in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Port Louis is a cultural and economic center of Mauritius, attracting tourists for its vibrant markets and colonial-era architecture.
• Luxembourg
• Luxembourg is the capital city of the Grand Duchy of Luxembourg, a small European country bordered by Belgium, Germany, and France.
• The city is known for its medieval old town situated on fortified cliffs, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Luxembourg serves as a major financial center in Europe, hosting several European Union institutions and international banks.
• Its strategic location and cultural diversity contribute to its importance in European politics and economics.
• Amsterdam
• Amsterdam is the capital city of the Netherlands, famous for its network of canals, cycling culture, and historical buildings.
• The city is a major cultural and economic hub, with attractions like the Anne Frank House, Van Gogh Museum, and Rijksmuseum.
• Amsterdam is also known for its liberal policies and vibrant nightlife, attracting millions of tourists annually.
• Its economy thrives on industries like trade, tourism, and finance, making it one of Europe’s most dynamic cities.

The correct answer is Chittorgarh.

Key Points

• Vijay Stambh, also known as the Victory Tower, is a historical monument located in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan.
• It was constructed by Maharana Kumbha of Mewar in the 15th century (1448) to commemorate his victory over Mahmud Khilji of Malwa in a battle.
• The tower stands at a height of approximately 37.19 meters (122 feet) and is built over a base of 10 square meters.
• This nine-story tower is adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures depicting Hindu deities and epics such as the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• It is an architectural marvel and serves as a symbol of triumph, valor, and heritage of the Rajput rulers of Mewar.

Additional Information

• Udaipur:
• Udaipur, also known as the "City of Lakes," is a major city in Rajasthan famous for its lakes, palaces, and vibrant culture.
• It is home to attractions like the City Palace, Lake Pichola, Fateh Sagar Lake, and Sajjangarh (Monsoon Palace).
• Udaipur is not associated with Vijay Stambh but is renowned for its historical significance and architectural grandeur.
• Jaipur:
• Jaipur, the capital city of Rajasthan, is widely known as the "Pink City" due to the distinct color of its buildings.
• Key attractions in Jaipur include the Hawa Mahal, Amber Fort, Jantar Mantar, and the City Palace.
• Although Jaipur is historically significant, it is not the location of Vijay Stambh.
• Jodhpur:
• Jodhpur is often referred to as the "Blue City" because of the blue-painted houses around the Mehrangarh Fort.
• It is famous for the majestic Mehrangarh Fort, Umaid Bhawan Palace, and Jaswant Thada.
• Jodhpur does not host the Vijay Stambh monument.

The correct answer is Mon Apr 01 2024 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

• The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023 aims to simplify processes, reduce compliance burdens for researchers, and promote sustainable use of biological resources.
• The Act officially comes into force on April 1, 2024, marking the start of its implementation across India.
• The amendment addresses key concerns related to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity while ensuring benefits to local communities.
• It introduces streamlined procedures for access and benefit-sharing mechanisms, enhancing the ease of doing business in biotechnology and biological resource sectors.
• The Act aligns with India’s commitments under international frameworks like the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the Nagoya Protocol.

Additional Information

• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Protects wild animals, birds, and plants.
• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974: Regulates water pollution and establishes boards for its control.
• Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980: Regulates deforestation and forest use.
• Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981: Aims to control and reduce air pollution.
• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986: An umbrella law empowering the government to protect and improve the environment, control pollution, and manage hazardous substances.

Given:

x and y are co-primes

Formula used:

LCM × HCF = x × y

Calculation:

⇒ For co-primes, HCF = 1

⇒ LCM × 1 = x × y

⇒ LCM = x × y

∴ LCM of x and y = xy

The correct answer is Countries in which per capita real income is low.

Key Points

• An underdeveloped economy is characterized by low per capita real income, indicating limited economic resources and poor living standards.
• Such economies typically exhibit high levels of unemployment and underemployment, with a large portion of the labor force engaged in subsistence agriculture or informal sectors.
• A significant proportion of the population in underdeveloped economies lives below the poverty line, showcasing widespread poverty and inequality.
• Underdeveloped economies often face challenges such as low industrialization, inadequate infrastructure, and weak financial systems that hinder economic growth.
• These countries generally have low savings and investment rates, which further restrict capital formation and development.

Additional Information

• Balanced per capita real income refers to economies where income distribution is relatively equitable, and the economic growth supports a decent standard of living for the majority of the population.
• High per capita real income is a hallmark of developed economies, where individuals enjoy high standards of living, robust infrastructure, and advanced technology.
• Mass poverty is a defining feature of underdeveloped economies, where a majority of the population struggles to meet basic needs such as food, shelter, and healthcare.

The correct answer is Geneva.

Key Points

• The International Labour Organization (ILO) has its headquarters located in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The ILO is a specialized agency of the United Nations established in 1919 as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I.
• Its primary mission is to promote social justice and internationally recognized human and labor rights.
• The ILO brings together governments, employers, and workers from 187 member states to set labor standards, develop policies, and devise programs promoting decent work.
• It received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for its efforts to improve peace among classes and pursue decent working conditions globally.

Additional Information

• New York
• New York is home to the headquarters of the United Nations (UN), established in 1945.
• The UN headquarters is the center of international diplomacy and hosts agencies such as the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and UNICEF.
• Paris
• Paris is the headquarters of organizations like UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).
• UNESCO focuses on fostering international collaboration through educational, scientific, and cultural reforms.
• The Hague
• The Hague in the Netherlands is known as the international city of peace and justice.
• It hosts institutions such as the International Court of Justice (ICJ) and the International Criminal Court (ICC).

The correct answer is 'do you usually have'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence asks about a habitual action, and the present simple tense is used to describe habits or repeated actions.
• The correct structure for questions in the present simple tense is "do/does + subject + base verb."
• Option 1 ("are you usually having") is incorrect because the present continuous tense ("are having") is not used for habitual actions.
• Option 3 ("have you usually") and Option 4 ("do usually you have") are grammatically incorrect due to word order issues.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "What do you usually have for breakfast?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "are you usually having" is incorrect because it uses the present continuous tense, which is not appropriate for habitual actions.
• Option 3: "have you usually" is incorrect because the word order is not suitable for forming a question in English.
• Option 4: "do usually you have" is incorrect because the adverb "usually" is misplaced; it should come after the subject.
• Option 5: "None of the above" is incorrect because Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is: Crew.

Key Points

• The word "Crew" refers to a group of people who work together, particularly on a ship or an aircraft. (जहाज़ या विमान पर काम करने वाले लोगों का समूह)
• Example: The ship's crew worked tirelessly to navigate through the storm.
• Explanation: The correct word here is "Crew," which specifically denotes the team of individuals responsible for operating a ship or aircraft. (समूह जो जहाज या विमान चलाने का कार्य करता है)
• Example: The airline crew ensured that all passengers were comfortable during the flight.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitution for "A group of persons working on a ship or aircraft" is "Crew."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Crew.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Scar (दाग): A mark left on the skin or a surface after a wound or damage.
• Example: The scar on his hand was a reminder of the accident he had years ago.
• Concert (संगीत समारोह): A musical performance given in public.
• Example: We attended a live concert by our favorite band last weekend.
• Staff (कर्मचारी): The group of people who work for an organization.
• Example: The school staff organized a farewell party for the graduating students.
• None of the above: This option is incorrect as the correct answer is "Crew."

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. Rama may be in the garden.

Key Points

• The sentence must follow a logical sequence and grammatical rules to form a meaningful statement.
• The correct structure is: Rama may be in the garden.
• This option (Option 4) correctly places the subject "Rama" at the beginning, followed by the verb "may be" and the object "in the garden."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4).

Additional Information

• Option 1: "In the garden may be Rama" does not follow the correct grammatical structure for English sentences.
• Option 2: "May be Rama in the garden" lacks proper subject-verb-object alignment, making it incorrect.
• Option 3: "In the garden Rama may be" is grammatically awkward and less natural.
• Option 5: "None of the above" is not the correct choice since Option 4 is a valid sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Improving time management:
• The passage suggests that developing time management skills involves simple habits like creating to-do lists, setting goals, and avoiding distractions.
• These strategies help individuals become more efficient and manage their time better each day.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, the passage does not mention motivational videos as a primary method.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as working faster without rest is not advised.
• Option 4: Incorrect, comparing to others is not mentioned as a solution.
• Option 5: Incorrect, as Option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Main purpose of the passage:
• The passage emphasizes how important time management is for productivity, well-being, and reducing stress.
• It outlines benefits, consequences of poor management, and provides tips for improvement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect, as explaining causes of stress is not the main focus.
• Option 3: Incorrect, different professions are mentioned only as examples.
• Option 4: Incorrect, the passage does not promote digital planners specifically.
• Option 5: Incorrect, as Option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is -6 D.

Key Points

• The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length in meters: P = 1/f (in meters).
• When two lenses are placed in contact with each other, their resultant power is the algebraic sum of their individual powers: P(resultant) = P1 + P2.
• Here, the power of the convex lens (P1) is +4 D, and the power of the concave lens (P2) is -10 D.
• Resultant power = +4 D + (-10 D) = -6 D.
• A negative power indicates that the combined system behaves as a concave lens, which is diverging in nature.

Additional Information

• Convex Lens (+4 D):
• A convex lens is a converging lens that brings parallel rays of light to a focus.
• Its power is positive, indicating that it produces a real and inverted image if the object is placed beyond the focal point.
• In this case, the convex lens has a power of +4 D, which corresponds to a focal length of 0.25 m (f = 1/P).
• Concave Lens (-10 D):
• A concave lens is a diverging lens that causes parallel rays of light to spread out as if they were emanating from a virtual focal point.
• Its power is negative, indicating that it produces a virtual and upright image.
• In this case, the concave lens has a power of -10 D, which corresponds to a focal length of -0.1 m (f = 1/P).
• Resultant Lens Behavior:
• The resultant power of the lens system is -6 D, meaning the system behaves like a concave lens with a focal length of -0.1667 m.
• This combined lens system would diverge light rays, as indicated by the negative resultant power.

Given: 1st January, 2001 was Monday.

Now,

2001 is an ordinary year as it is not divisible by 4.

In an ordinary year, there are 365 days.

The number of days between 1st January, 2001 to 31st December, 2001 is calculated by excluding the starting day:

= 30 (January) + 28 (February) + 31 (March) + 30 (April) + 31 (May) + 30 (June) + 31 (July) + 31 (August) + 30 (September) + 31 (October) + 30 (November) + 31 (December) = 364 days.

= 364 days → 364/7 = 52 weeks and 0 odd days.

So, 31st December, 2001 will be Monday + 0 = Monday.

(Note: In an ordinary year, the first day and the last day of the year are always the same.)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is 1893.

Key Points

• The Parliament of Religions was held in Chicago, USA, in 1893 as part of the World’s Columbian Exposition.
• Swami Vivekananda, a Hindu monk from India, delivered his famous speech on 11th September 1893, addressing the audience as “Sisters and Brothers of America,” which earned a standing ovation.
• Swami Vivekananda represented India and Hinduism at the Parliament and presented the ideas of religious tolerance and universal acceptance.
• This event marked the first formal gathering of representatives from different religions globally, fostering interfaith dialogue and understanding.
• The Parliament became a significant milestone in introducing Indian philosophy and spirituality to the Western world.

Additional Information

• Key Contributions & Teachings of Vivekananda:
• Introduction to the West: Introduced Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga, bridging cultures and elevating Hinduism's global standing.
• Chicago Speech (1893): Began with "Sisters and Brothers of America," promoting religious tolerance and the divinity within all beings.
• Neo-Vedanta: A modern interpretation of Hinduism, focusing on practical spirituality and the oneness of existence.
• Service to Humanity: Believed serving people (Jiva is Shiva) was the highest form of worship.
• Nationalism & Youth Empowerment: Called for national pride, education, industrialization, and youth to serve India and fight oppression.
• Ramakrishna Mission: Founded to provide education, social welfare, and moral guidance.

The correct answer is Goa Shipyard Limited.

Key Points

• Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), established in 1957, is a premier shipbuilding and defense undertaking under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.
• On January 5, 2025, GSL launched two indigenously designed and constructed Fast Patrol Vessels (FPVs), Amulya and Akshay, for the Indian Coast Guard.
• Fast Patrol Vessels are high-speed ships designed for patrolling, surveillance, search and rescue, anti-smuggling, and anti-poaching operations.
• These vessels are equipped with advanced technology and are built to enhance coastal security and protect India’s maritime interests.
• Goa Shipyard Limited specializes in the construction of advanced vessels, including Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs), Fast Interceptor Boats (FIBs), and Survey Vessels.
• The launch of FPVs demonstrates GSL’s commitment to strengthening India’s defense infrastructure through indigenous shipbuilding capabilities.

Additional Information

• Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)
• Located in Kolkata, GRSE is one of India’s leading shipyards under the Ministry of Defence.
• GRSE specializes in constructing warships and auxiliary vessels for the Indian Navy and Coast Guard.
• It delivered India's first indigenously built warship, INS Ajay, in 1961.
• GRSE’s contributions include frigates, corvettes, and landing craft utility vessels.
• Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
• Based in Mumbai, MDL is a major shipyard owned by the Government of India.
• MDL is renowned for constructing submarines and warships for the Indian Navy.
• It is the manufacturer of the Scorpene-class submarines under Project 75.
• MDL has also delivered stealth frigates under the Shivalik and Talwar classes.
• Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
• Situated in Kochi, CSL is the largest shipbuilding and maintenance facility in India.
• CSL is responsible for constructing India’s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-1), INS Vikrant.
• It provides ship repair services and builds tankers, passenger vessels, and offshore support vessels.
• CSL plays a significant role in India’s maritime and defense infrastructure.

The correct answer is Stage 2.

Key Points

• Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model (DTM) is characterized by rapid population growth.
• This stage occurs due to a significant decline in death rates while birth rates remain high.
• Improved healthcare, sanitation, and advancements in medicine contribute to lower mortality rates, especially in infants and children.
• The gap between high birth rates and declining death rates leads to the fastest population growth.
• Countries in Stage 2 often experience urbanization and economic development, which further enhances living conditions.

Additional Information

• The Demographic Transition Model (DTM) explains changes in population growth as societies progress through stages of development.
• Each stage reflects shifts in birth rates, death rates, and overall population trends influenced by economic, social, and technological factors.
• The model is widely used in population studies to understand demographic patterns globally.

Decoding symbols for Family Tree:

Step-by-step Relationship Analysis:

Breakdown the statement made by the woman: "His (the man's) mother is the only daughter of my father."

• "The only daughter of my father" – Since the speaker is a woman, the only daughter of her father must be "herself".

Consolidated Family Structure:

The woman is the mother of the man. Therefore, the man is the woman's son.

Thus, the man is the Son of the woman.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Article 48A.

Key Points

• Article 48A of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• It mandates that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
• Article 48A was added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• It reflects the environmental consciousness of the Constitution and emphasizes sustainable development for future generations.
• The article complements Article 51A(g), which imposes a duty on citizens to protect and improve the natural environment.

Additional Information

• Article 44A
• No such article exists in the Indian Constitution. It is likely a typographical error or a distractor in the options provided.
• Article 43A
• Article 43A was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• It directs the State to take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
• This article emphasizes the concept of industrial democracy and promotes harmonious relations between labor and management.
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
• DPSPs are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, from Articles 36 to 51.
• They are guidelines for the State to establish a just society and are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they are not enforceable by the courts.
• They aim to achieve socio-economic justice, reduce inequality, and ensure the welfare of citizens.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added Articles 39A, 43A, and 48A to strengthen the DPSPs.

The correct answer is Viktor Axelsen.

Key Points

• Viktor Axelsen is a Danish badminton player and one of the most successful men's singles players in the sport.
• He has won multiple international titles, including the prestigious Olympic gold medal in 2021 (Tokyo Olympics).
• In 2025, Viktor Axelsen won the Men's Singles title at the India Open Badminton held in New Delhi, showcasing his dominance on the court.
• Axelsen's playing style is characterized by his exceptional agility, powerful smashes, and tactical brilliance, making him a formidable opponent in international tournaments.
• He has consistently maintained a top ranking in the Badminton World Federation (BWF) rankings over the years, solidifying his position as one of the best players in the world.

Additional Information

• Lee Cheuk Yiu
• Lee Cheuk Yiu is a professional badminton player from Hong Kong known for his consistent performances in international tournaments.
• He won the 2019 Hong Kong Open, which was his first major BWF World Tour title.
• While he is a strong competitor, he has not yet won the India Open Badminton Men's Singles title.
• Lakshya Sen
• Lakshya Sen is an Indian badminton player who has rapidly risen in the international rankings.
• He won the 2022 Commonwealth Games gold medal in Men's Singles and has been a key player for India in recent years.
• Although he is a promising talent, he did not win the Men's Singles title at the India Open Badminton 2025.
• Kento Momota
• Kento Momota is a Japanese badminton player and a former world number one in the BWF rankings.
• He has won multiple titles, including two BWF World Championships (2018 and 2019), and is known for his defensive skills and on-court intelligence.
• However, Kento Momota has not claimed the Men's Singles title at the India Open Badminton 2025.
• India Open Badminton Tournament
• The India Open is an annual badminton tournament organized by the Badminton Association of India (BAI) and is part of the BWF World Tour.
• It attracts top players from around the world and has become one of the most prestigious events in the badminton calendar.
• Held in New Delhi, it provides a platform for players to showcase their talent and earn valuable ranking points.

The correct answer is Calcutta.

Key Points

• The Anushilan Samiti was a prominent revolutionary organization in India during the early 20th century, actively involved in the Indian freedom struggle.
• Its headquarters were located in Calcutta (now Kolkata), which was the epicenter of many nationalist movements at the time.
• Founded in 1902, the Samiti primarily operated in Bengal and was instrumental in promoting the idea of armed struggle against British colonial rule.
• Anushilan Samiti was deeply influenced by the teachings of leaders like Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and Swami Vivekananda, focusing on nationalism and self-reliance.
• Its members included prominent revolutionaries like Aurobindo Ghosh, Barindra Kumar Ghosh, and others who played a vital role in the Indian independence movement.

Additional Information

• Bombay (now Mumbai):
• Bombay was another significant center for the Indian independence movement but was not associated with the headquarters of Anushilan Samiti.
• It was the base for organizations like the Indian National Congress and movements led by leaders such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• Madras (now Chennai):
• Madras played an important role in the spread of nationalism in southern India.
• The Justice Party and the Dravidian movement originated here, focusing on regional and social issues.
• Poona (now Pune):
• Poona was a stronghold of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who was a prominent freedom fighter and the founder of the Home Rule Movement.
• The city was also home to revolutionary activities.

Given:

Fraction = 2/5

Formula used:

Percentage = Fraction × 100

Calculation:

⇒ 2/5 × 100

⇒ 40%

∴ 2/5 in percent form is 40%

The correct answer is 2023.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-3 was launched on July 14, 2023, by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The mission was carried out using the LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3), which is ISRO’s most powerful launch vehicle.
• Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-up mission to Chandrayaan-2 and aims to demonstrate India's capability of soft landing on the lunar surface and rover mobility.
• The mission consists of a lander module (Vikram) and a rover module (Pragyan), both equipped with scientific instruments to study the moon’s surface and environment.
• The landing site selected for Chandrayaan-3 is near the moon’s south pole, an area of significant interest due to the possibility of water ice deposits.

Additional Information

• Chandrayaan Missions
• Chandrayaan-1 (2008): India’s first lunar mission, which confirmed the presence of water molecules on the moon.
• Chandrayaan-2 (2019): A more complex mission aimed at soft landing, but the lander failed during descent; however, the orbiter continues to provide valuable scientific data.
• Chandrayaan-3 (2023): Focuses exclusively on demonstrating soft landing capability and lunar exploration using the lander and rover modules.

The correct answer is Arabian Sea.

Key Points

• The Arabian Sea lies to the west of India, forming a crucial part of the Indian Ocean.
• It is bound by the Indian subcontinent on the east, the Arabian Peninsula on the west, and the Horn of Africa on the southwest.
• The Arabian Sea is a major sea route connecting India to the Middle East, Africa, and Europe, playing a significant role in trade and commerce.
• Important Indian coastal states such as Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala are bordered by the Arabian Sea.
• It is home to several key ports in India, including Mumbai, Kochi, and Mangalore, which contribute significantly to India’s maritime economy.

Additional Information

• Bay of Bengal
• The Bay of Bengal lies to the east of India and is the largest bay in the world.
• It is bordered by India and Sri Lanka to the west, Bangladesh to the north, and Myanmar and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands to the east.
• Major rivers like the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Mahanadi drain into the Bay of Bengal.
• It is known for frequent cyclones and is a critical area for maritime biodiversity.
• Red Sea
• The Red Sea is located between northeastern Africa and the Arabian Peninsula, connecting to the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal.
• It is known for its high salinity and rich marine biodiversity.
• The Red Sea is not geographically related to India and has no direct connection to its borders.
• South China Sea
• The South China Sea is located in Southeast Asia and is bordered by several countries, including China, Vietnam, the Philippines, and Malaysia.
• It is a critical maritime region for global shipping and trade but is geographically far from India.
• The region is frequently in the news due to territorial disputes between neighboring countries.

The correct answer is India Exposition Mart Ltd., Greater Noida.

Key Points

• The 8^th edition of Indusfood, Asia's premier Food and Beverage (F&B) Trade Show 2025, was held at India Exposition Mart Ltd., Greater Noida.
• India Exposition Mart Ltd. is one of the largest integrated exhibitions and convention centers in India, with state-of-the-art facilities for hosting large-scale events.
• Indusfood is organized annually by the Trade Promotion Council of India (TPCI), with support from the Department of Commerce, Government of India, to promote Indian food products globally.
• The event features participation from numerous international buyers and exhibitors, showcasing India's growing stature in the global food and beverage industry.
• The platform facilitates business-to-business (B2B) interactions and trade opportunities for Indian exporters with buyers from across the globe.

Additional Information

• India Habitat Centre, New Delhi:
• The India Habitat Centre (IHC) is a multipurpose venue located in New Delhi, known for hosting conferences, exhibitions, and cultural events.
• It serves as a hub for professionals and organizations working in the field of urban development, design, and sustainability.
• While it offers excellent facilities, it is not typically used for large-scale trade shows like Indusfood.
• Pragati Maidan, New Delhi:
• Pragati Maidan is a renowned exhibition and convention center in New Delhi, managed by the India Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO).
• It is a popular venue for hosting national and international exhibitions, fairs, and conferences.
• Although Pragati Maidan has hosted several food-related expos in the past, the 8^th edition of Indusfood was not organized here.
• Mahatma Mandir, Gandhinagar:
• Mahatma Mandir is a modern convention and exhibition center located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
• It is one of the largest convention centers in India, often hosting significant state and national-level events, including Vibrant Gujarat Summits.
• However, it was not the venue for the 8^th edition of Indusfood in 2025.
• Indusfood:
• Indusfood is a flagship trade event designed to promote Indian food and beverage products globally.
• The event serves as a platform for Indian manufacturers and exporters to connect with international buyers and expand trade opportunities.
• It covers various segments, including processed foods, dairy products, organic foods, beverages, and spices.
• Indusfood aims to showcase India's agricultural and food processing potential while strengthening its position in the global market.

The correct answer is Glass and ceramics.

Key Points

• Acids are highly reactive and corrosive substances that can react with many materials, including metals and plastics, making them unsuitable for long-term storage.
• Glass and ceramics are non-reactive, inert, and chemically resistant materials that do not react with most acids, making them ideal for storing acidic substances.
• Glass containers, particularly borosilicate glass, are commonly used in laboratories and industries to store strong acids like sulfuric acid, hydrochloric acid, and nitric acid.
• Ceramic containers are also resistant to chemical corrosion, ensuring the safe storage of acids over extended periods without degradation.
• Both glass and ceramics are impermeable, meaning they do not allow the passage of gases or liquids, thus preventing contamination or leakage.

Additional Information

• Wood and paper:
• Wood and paper are organic materials that can easily be degraded or destroyed by acids due to their reactive nature.
• Acids can penetrate and weaken the structure of these materials, making them unsuitable for storage purposes.
• Metals and plastic:
• Many metals react with acids, producing hydrogen gas and leading to the corrosion of the metal container. For example, acids like hydrochloric acid (HCl) can corrode metals like iron and aluminum.
• Some plastics, while resistant to mild acids, may degrade or react with strong acids, especially at higher temperatures.
• Certain specialized plastics, such as Teflon (PTFE), are used for acid storage but are not as commonly used as glass or ceramics.
• Rubber and cardboard:
• Rubber and cardboard are not ideal for storing acids as they are prone to chemical degradation, swelling, or leakage when exposed to strong acids.
• Rubber can degrade over time in contact with acids, while cardboard lacks the impermeability required for safe storage.

The correct answer is Motilal Nehru.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India was first drafted by the Nehru Committee, chaired by Motilal Nehru, in 1928.
• The Nehru Report of 1928 was prepared as a response to the British government's challenge to Indian leaders to draft a constitution acceptable to all sections of society.
• This report proposed dominion status for India within the British Commonwealth and laid out a framework for fundamental rights and responsibilities.
• The Nehru Report was the first attempt by Indians to draft their own constitutional framework, though it was not implemented by the British.
• The recommendations of the Nehru Report heavily influenced the drafting of the Constitution of India post-independence.

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi:
• Although Mahatma Gandhi was a key leader in the Indian independence movement, he was not directly involved in drafting constitutional documents like the Nehru Report.
• Gandhi emphasized the values of non-violence, truth, and self-reliance, which influenced India's post-independence governance.
• His vision of village self-governance and decentralized power inspired provisions related to Panchayati Raj in the Constitution.
• V. V. Giri:
• V. V. Giri was the fourth President of India and served from 1969 to 1974.
• Giri is best known for his work as a trade union leader and his contributions to labor rights in India.
• Rajendra Prasad:
• Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India and also a key leader during the freedom struggle.
• He played a significant role in the drafting of the Constitution as the President of the Constituent Assembly (1946–1950).

The correct answer is Lord Mountbatten.

Key Points

• Lord Mountbatten was the last Viceroy of India and the first Governor-General of independent India.
• He formally announced the British Government's acceptance of the partition of India on June 3, 1947, which is referred to as the Mountbatten Plan.
• The partition plan was proposed as a way to resolve the ongoing communal tensions and demands for a separate state by the All-India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
• The Mountbatten Plan led to the creation of two independent nations, India and Pakistan, on August 15, 1947.
• Lord Mountbatten worked closely with Indian leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel, and Muhammad Ali Jinnah to ensure the transition of power.

Additional Information

• Linlithgow
• Lord Linlithgow served as the Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1943, making him the longest-serving Viceroy in Indian history.
• He was in office during critical events like the outbreak of World War II and the Quit India Movement of 1942.
• Under his tenure, the August Offer (1940) was introduced, which proposed limited self-government but was rejected by Indian leaders.
• Rajagopalachari
• C. Rajagopalachari, also known as Rajaji, was an Indian statesman, independence activist, and the last Governor-General of India after independence.
• He was a leader of the Indian National Congress and opposed partition but later supported the idea of a separate Pakistan to prevent further communal violence.
• Rajaji was not involved in announcing the partition but played a significant role in post-independence India.
• Hardinge
• Lord Hardinge served as the Viceroy of India from 1910 to 1916.
• He oversaw the transfer of India's capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911 during the Delhi Durbar.

The correct answer is Mercury.

Key Points

• Mercury is the odd one out as it is the only element in the list that is a liquid metal at room temperature (approximately 20°C to 25°C).
• It is a chemical element with the symbol Hg and atomic number 80, commonly known as quicksilver.
• Mercury is unique among metals due to its liquid state at room temperature, while Iron, Silver, and Gold are all solid metals under normal conditions.
• Mercury is a heavy metal and is toxic to humans and the environment, often requiring careful handling and disposal.
• It is primarily used in thermometers, barometers, fluorescent lighting, and certain electrical devices, although its usage has declined due to health and safety concerns.

Additional Information

• Iron (Fe):
• Iron is a chemical element with the symbol Fe and atomic number 26.
• It is a solid metal at room temperature and is known for its strength, malleability, and ductility.
• Iron is one of the most abundant elements on Earth and is commonly used in construction (steel production), machinery, and tools.
• It is an essential element for life, playing a critical role in oxygen transport in the blood (hemoglobin).
• Silver (Ag):
• Silver is a chemical element with the symbol Ag and atomic number 47.
• It is a solid metal at room temperature, known for its exceptional thermal and electrical conductivity.
• Silver is widely used in jewelry, tableware, electronics, and photography.
• It is also valued for its antimicrobial properties and is used in medical applications.
• Gold (Au):
• Gold is a chemical element with the symbol Au and atomic number 79.
• It is a solid metal at room temperature, notable for its malleability, ductility, and resistance to corrosion.
• Gold is widely used in jewelry, electronics, and as a monetary standard (investment and reserves).
• It is also a symbol of wealth and has cultural significance in many societies.

The correct answer is Indus Waters Treaty.

Key Points

• The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed between India and Pakistan in the year 1960, under the aegis of the World Bank.
• The treaty divides the rivers of the Indus system into two categories: Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) allocated to Pakistan, and Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) allocated to India.
• The treaty provides India the right to use the Eastern Rivers for irrigation, power generation, and other consumptive uses, while Pakistan has control over the Western Rivers.
• This treaty is considered one of the most successful water-sharing agreements in the world and has survived multiple conflicts and wars between the two nations.
• It establishes a mechanism for cooperation and information exchange regarding river water flows and usage, ensuring that both countries adhere to the terms agreed upon.

Additional Information

• Yamuna Waters Treaty:
• No treaty named "Yamuna Waters Treaty" exists. However, the Yamuna River is part of the Ganga River system and is primarily shared between Indian states like Uttarakhand, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Delhi.
• Water-sharing arrangements for the Yamuna are part of inter-state agreements, such as the 1994 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between Haryana and Delhi for allocating Yamuna water.
• Ganga Waters Treaty:
• The Ganga Waters Treaty was signed in 1996 between India and Bangladesh.
• This treaty focuses on the sharing of Ganga river waters during the dry season (January to May) at Farakka Barrage.
• It ensures equitable distribution of water and promotes cooperation between the two nations.
• It is a critical agreement for sustaining river-based livelihoods and agriculture in Bangladesh while maintaining ecological balance in the region.
• Brahmaputra Waters Treaty:
• No treaty named "Brahmaputra Waters Treaty" exists between India and any other country.
• The Brahmaputra River flows through India, China, and Bangladesh, and is a subject of regional discussions on water sharing and management.
• India and China have signed agreements for sharing hydrological data during monsoon seasons to manage flood risks.

Calculation:-

Ratio of wheel chairs in May to office chairs in January

January Total Chairs: 27% of 5,000 = 1,350 chairs.

January Office Chairs: Using the ratio 2:1 (Wheel : Office), Office chairs = (1 / 3) × 1,350 = 450 chairs.

May Total Chairs: 25% of 5,000 = 1,250 chairs.

May Wheel Chairs: Using the ratio 3:2 (Wheel : Office), Wheel chairs = (3 / 5) × 1,250 = 750 chairs.

Ratio: 750 : 450 simplifies to 5 : 3.

Calculation:-

Number of wheel chairs sold in January

Total January Chairs: 1,350 chairs.

Unsold January Chairs: 20% of 1,350 = 270 chairs.

Unsold Wheel Chairs: Ratio of office to wheel chairs unsold is 5:4. Wheel chairs unsold = (4 / 9) × 270 = 120 chairs.

Total Wheel Chairs Manufactured (Jan): (2 / 3) × 1,350 = 900 chairs.

Wheel Chairs Sold: 900 (Total) - 120 (Unsold) = 780 chairs.

Correct Option: Option 4 (780).

Calculation:-

Office chairs in April as a percentage of the difference (Feb and April)

April Total Chairs: 10% of 5,000 = 500 chairs.

April Office Chairs: Ratio 1:1, so Office chairs = (1 / 2) × 500 = 250 chairs.

February Total Chairs: 20% of 5,000 = 1,000 chairs.

Difference (Feb and April): 1,000 - 500 = 500 chairs.

Percentage: (250 / 500) × 100 = 50%.

Calculation:-

Total number of chairs manufactured in June

March Total Chairs: 18% of 5,000 = 900 chairs.

March Wheel Chairs: Ratio 4:5, so Wheel chairs = (4 / 9) × 900 = 400 chairs.

June Wheel Chairs: 5/8 of 400 = (5 / 8) × 400 = 250 chairs.

March Office Chairs: (5 / 9) × 900 = 500 chairs.

June Office Chairs: Ratio of March to June office chairs is 5:3. Since March is 500, June = (3 / 5) × 500 = 300 chairs.

Total June Chairs: 250 (Wheel) + 300 (Office) = 550 chairs.

Correct Option: Option 1 (550).

Calculation:

Difference between wheel chairs in February and April

February Wheel Chairs: Total is 1,000. Ratio is 7:3. Wheel chairs = (7 / 10) × 1,000 = 700 chairs.

April Wheel Chairs: Total is 500. Ratio is 1:1. Wheel chairs = (1 / 2) × 500 = 250 chairs.

Difference: 700 - 250 = 450 chairs.

Correct Option: Option 3 (450).

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide (CO₂).

Key Points

• Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is an acidic gas present in the atmosphere.
• When CO₂ dissolves in rainwater, it reacts with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).
• This process occurs naturally and contributes to the slightly acidic nature of rainwater, with a typical pH of around 5.6.
• Carbonic acid is a weak acid and does not cause significant environmental damage under normal conditions.
• The reaction is represented as: CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃.

Additional Information

• Nitrogen (N₂)
• Nitrogen makes up about 78% of Earth's atmosphere but is inert under normal conditions.
• It does not dissolve in rainwater to form any acid under normal circumstances.
• Nitrogen oxides (NO and NO₂) can dissolve in rainwater to form nitric acid (HNO₃), contributing to acid rain, but these are not directly produced by nitrogen gas (N₂).
• Oxygen (O₂)
• Oxygen constitutes approximately 21% of the Earth's atmosphere and is essential for life.
• It does not form acids when dissolved in rainwater.
• Oxygen is involved in oxidation processes but does not contribute directly to the acidity of rainwater.
• Sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
• Sulfur dioxide is a major contributor to acid rain, as it reacts with water to form sulfurous acid (H₂SO₃) and further oxidizes to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄).
• It is primarily released into the atmosphere through industrial activities, burning fossil fuels, and volcanic eruptions.
• Sulfur dioxide's role is significant in environmental pollution and acid rain formation.

The correct answer is Nile.

Key Points

• The Nile is the longest river in the world, stretching approximately 6,650 kilometers (4,130 miles).
• It flows through 11 countries in northeastern Africa, including Egypt, Sudan, and Ethiopia, and has two major tributaries: the White Nile and the Blue Nile.
• The White Nile, originating from Lake Victoria in Uganda, is considered the primary stream of the Nile.
• The Blue Nile starts from Lake Tana in Ethiopia and contributes the majority of the water and silt to the Nile River.
• The Nile has been crucial to human civilization for thousands of years, especially in Egypt, where it provided fertile land for agriculture through its annual flooding cycles.
• The river supports millions of people in the region and serves as a significant source for irrigation, drinking water, and hydropower.

Additional Information

• Amazon River
• The Amazon River in South America is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world and spans approximately 6,400 kilometers (3,976 miles).
• It flows mainly through Brazil and Peru, with its basin covering parts of multiple countries in South America.
• The Amazon rainforest surrounding the river is considered the world's largest tropical rainforest and is home to rich biodiversity.
• While the Nile is longer, there is some debate among scientists about whether the Amazon could be considered the longest river due to variations in measuring techniques.
• Yangtze River
• The Yangtze River is the longest river in Asia and the third-longest in the world, spanning about 6,300 kilometers (3,917 miles).
• It flows entirely within China, originating from the Tibetan Plateau and emptying into the East China Sea.
• The river is a vital waterway for transportation, agriculture, and industry in China, and it is home to the Three Gorges Dam, the world's largest hydropower project.
• Mississippi River
• The Mississippi River, located in the United States, is one of the longest rivers in North America, stretching approximately 3,766 kilometers (2,340 miles).
• It flows from its source at Lake Itasca in Minnesota and empties into the Gulf of Mexico.
• Combined with its major tributary, the Missouri River, the Mississippi-Missouri system is one of the largest river systems in the world.
• The river is vital for commerce, agriculture, and recreation in the United States.

Given: Five people Mukesh, Suresh, Rakesh, Harish, and Amar are comparing their heights.

1. Mukesh is taller than Suresh but shorter than Rakesh.

Rakesh > Mukesh > Suresh

2. Rakesh is taller than Harish but shorter than Amar.

Amar > Rakesh > Harish

Now, combining both statements, we get the following relative positions:

Amar > Rakesh > Mukesh > Suresh

Amar > Rakesh > Harish

3. Comparing Suresh and Harish:

We know that both Suresh and Harish are shorter than Rakesh. However, there is no information provided to compare the heights of Suresh and Harish directly.

The sequence could be:

• Amar > Rakesh > Mukesh > Suresh > Harish
• Amar > Rakesh > Mukesh > Harish > Suresh
• Amar > Rakesh > Harish > Mukesh > Suresh

Since the exact relationship between Suresh and Harish is unknown, we cannot determine who is the shortest among them.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Refractive index.

Key Points

• The refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in that medium.
• It is a dimensionless quantity and symbolized by "n". The mathematical formula for refractive index is n = c/v, where "c" is the speed of light in a vacuum, and "v" is the speed of light in the medium.
• The refractive index determines how much the path of light is bent or refracted when it enters a different medium.
• A higher refractive index indicates that light travels slower in the medium compared to a vacuum.
• The refractive index is a critical parameter in optics, influencing lenses, prisms, and optical instruments.

Additional Information

• Frequency
• Frequency refers to the number of wave cycles that pass a given point per second. It is measured in hertz (Hz).
• It is a fundamental property of waves, including light waves, but it does not define the speed of light in a medium.
• The frequency of light remains constant when it enters a different medium, even though its speed and wavelength may change.
• Wavelength
• Wavelength is the distance between two successive crests or troughs of a wave.
• It is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave and directly influenced by the speed of the wave in a medium.
• When light enters a medium, its wavelength changes, but the refractive index is determined by the speed, not the wavelength.
• Amplitude
• Amplitude refers to the maximum displacement of a wave from its equilibrium position.
• It is associated with the intensity or brightness of light but does not influence the refractive index of a medium.
• The refractive index depends solely on the speed of light in the medium and not on its amplitude.

The correct answer is National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog.

Key Points

• The report titled "S.A.F.E. (Secure, Affordable, Flexible, and Efficient) Accommodation: Worker Housing for Manufacturing Growth" was released by NITI Aayog in December 2024.
• The report focuses on addressing the need for better worker housing to support India's manufacturing sector.
• It emphasizes ensuring safe, affordable, and efficient accommodations for workers, especially in urban and industrial areas.
• NITI Aayog acts as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, advocating for sustainable development and economic growth.
• The report aims to align with India's vision of becoming a global manufacturing hub under initiatives like ‘Make in India’ and fostering equitable development.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Labour and Employment
• The Ministry of Labour and Employment is responsible for safeguarding the interests of workers and promoting harmonious industrial relations.
• It oversees key labor laws, social security, and welfare programs for workers.
• It does not release specific reports like "S.A.F.E. Accommodation" but formulates policies to address labor issues in India.
• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
• This ministry oversees urban development, including housing and sanitation policies in India.
• It implements major schemes like Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) for providing affordable housing to urban poor.
• Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
• CII is a non-government, not-for-profit organization that works to create a conducive environment for the growth of Indian industry.
• It provides a platform for networking, advocacy, and policy dialogue with the government.

The correct answer is Igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Key Points

• Igneous and metamorphic rocks are characterized by low porosity and permeability, which results in low groundwater storage.
• These rocks are formed through intense heat and pressure, leading to compact and dense structures that restrict water movement.
• Groundwater is usually present in fractures or cracks in these rocks, but the storage is significantly limited compared to other rock types.
• Due to their impermeable nature, igneous and metamorphic rocks often require external factors like weathering or fracturing to enable groundwater flow.
• Regions dominated by these rock types usually have challenges in accessing large-scale groundwater reserves, necessitating alternative water management strategies.

Additional Information

• Sedimentary Rocks:
• Sedimentary rocks have high porosity and permeability, making them highly suitable for groundwater storage.
• These rocks are formed by the deposition of materials like sand, clay, and silt, which create spaces for water infiltration.
• Examples include sandstone and conglomerates, which serve as excellent aquifers due to their ability to store and transmit water effectively.
• Sedimentary formations often host large-scale groundwater reservoirs that support agriculture and human consumption.
• Alluvial Deposits:
• Alluvial deposits are composed of unconsolidated materials like sand, gravel, and silt, deposited by rivers and streams.
• These formations exhibit high porosity and permeability, making them ideal for groundwater storage and movement.
• Alluvial aquifers are widely used for irrigation and drinking water purposes due to their ease of access and abundant reserves.
• Regions with extensive alluvial deposits, such as river basins, are considered prime areas for groundwater extraction.
• Limestone Formations:
• Limestone is a sedimentary rock that can store groundwater through karst processes, where water dissolves the rock to create cavities and channels.
• These formations can host significant groundwater reserves, but the storage depends on the degree of karstification.
• Limestone aquifers are often associated with high-quality groundwater due to natural filtration processes.
• Regions with limestone formations may experience uneven distribution of groundwater due to localized dissolution features.

From the graph (Marked Prices):

Cell Phone = ₹8,000

Computer = ₹15,000

Smart Watch = ₹6,000

Dining Table = ₹10,000

Book Rack = ₹7,000

Average marked price of Dining Table and Book Rack

Average = (10,000 + 7,000) ÷ 2

= 17,000 ÷ 2

= ₹8,500

Calculation:

Profit % on Computer

Marked Price (MP) = 15,000

MP is 20% more than CP

⇒ CP = 15000 × 100 / 120

⇒ CP = ₹12,500

Discount = 15% of MP

⇒ Discount = 15% of 15,000 = ₹2,250

Selling Price (SP) = 15,000 − 2,250 = ₹12,750

Profit = 12,750 − 12,500 = ₹250

Profit % = (250 ÷ 12,500) × 100

= 2%

Calculation:

Cost price of Dining Table

MP = ₹10,000

SP : MP = 4 : 5

⇒ SP = (4/5) × 10,000

⇒ SP = ₹8,000

Profit = 25%

⇒ CP = SP × 100 / 125

⇒ CP = 8000 × 100 / 125

⇒ CP = ₹6,400

Calculation:

​Discount on Cell Phone

MP = ₹8,000

CP : MP = 3 : 4

⇒ CP = (3/4) × 8000

⇒ CP = ₹6,000

Profit = ₹1,200

⇒ SP = 6,000 + 1,200 = ₹7,200

Discount = MP − SP

= 8,000 − 7,200

= ₹800

Calculation:

Discount on Book Rack

MP (Smart Watch) = ₹6,000

CP (Smart Watch) = ₹4,800

Profit = 10% of MP

⇒ Profit = 10% of 6,000 = ₹600

SP (Smart Watch) = 4,800 + 600 = ₹5,400

SP ratio (Smart Watch : Book Rack) = 4 : 5

⇒ SP of Book Rack = (5/4) × 5,400

⇒ SP = ₹6,750

MP of Book Rack = ₹7,000

Discount = 7,000 − 6,750

= ₹250

The correct answer is Article 359.

Key Points

• Article 359 of the Indian Constitution allows the President of India to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a national emergency.
• It is applicable during both external emergency (war or external aggression) and internal emergency (armed rebellion).
• This provision empowers the President to issue an order specifying which rights under Part III of the Constitution will remain suspended.
• However, rights under Articles 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offenses) and 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended under Article 359.
• The suspension of the right to move the court ceases to operate as soon as the emergency is revoked.

Additional Information

• Article 358
• Article 358 deals with the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a national emergency.
• It is applicable only in the case of an external emergency (war or external aggression) and not during an internal emergency.
• Once an emergency is declared, laws inconsistent with Article 19 can be made, and the government can take actions that may restrict freedoms under Article 19.
• However, these restrictions are limited to the duration of the emergency and must cease immediately when the emergency ends.
• Article 348
• Article 348 specifies the language to be used in the Supreme Court, High Courts, and for Acts passed by the Parliament and State Legislatures in India.
• The English language is to be used for all proceedings in these courts unless the Parliament provides otherwise.
• It also mandates that authoritative texts of laws passed by the Parliament or State Legislatures in English must be provided.
• Article 338
• Article 338 deals with the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).
• The NCSC is tasked with investigating and monitoring issues related to the safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes under the Constitution.
• It also inquires into specific complaints and advises the government on measures to promote their welfare and socioeconomic development.

Given:

Total number of students in the class (T) = 45.

Ayush's rank from the top (R_Top) = 15.

The formula for finding the rank from the bottom is:

Rank from Bottom = Total students - (Rank from Top) + 1

Ayush's rank from the bottom = 45 - 15 + 1

= 30 + 1

= 31

Thus, the rank of Ayush from the bottom is 31.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Vice-President.

Key Points

• The Vice-President of India is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• As per Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President acts as the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha and presides over its sessions.
• The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament, following the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• The main role of the Vice-President as Chairperson is to ensure the smooth functioning of the Rajya Sabha by maintaining order during debates and discussions.
• In case of a tie in voting in the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President, acting as the Chairperson, has a casting vote to resolve the deadlock.

Additional Information

• President of India:
• The President is the head of state and the executive authority in India, as per Article 52 of the Constitution.
• The President is not the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha but instead summons and prorogues Parliament sessions and gives assent to bills passed by both Houses.
• The President also has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
• Prime Minister of India:
• The Prime Minister is the head of the government and the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
• The Prime Minister advises the President in various matters, including the appointment of ministers, and is responsible for the governance of the country.
• Governor:
• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India, appointed by the President of India.
• The Governor’s primary role is to oversee state-level governance and legislative procedures..

The correct answer is Hump.

Key Points

• The camel stores fat in its hump, which acts as an energy reserve during long journeys in arid regions.
• Unlike popular belief, the hump does not store water; instead, it stores fat that can be metabolized into energy and water when food is scarce.
• A camel’s hump can weigh up to 35 kilograms, depending on the camel’s health and fat reserve.
• When food is unavailable, the fat stored in the hump is broken down into water and energy, enabling camels to survive for days without eating.
• If a camel uses up the fat in its hump, the hump can shrink, becoming floppy and leaning to one side until it is replenished with fat.

Additional Information

• Stomach:
• Camels have a multi-chambered stomach that aids in digesting tough and dry vegetation found in deserts.
• They possess a three-chambered stomach, unlike the four-chambered stomach of ruminants like cows and sheep.
• The camel’s stomach does not store fat but is responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients from their food.
• Legs:
• Camels have long, strong legs adapted for walking long distances in deserts.
• Their legs are not involved in fat storage but are designed to support their body weight and provide stability on sandy terrain.
• The camel's legs also have thick pads of skin that help them withstand the intense heat of desert sand.
• Feet:
• Camels have wide, flat feet with two toes, which prevent them from sinking into the sand while walking.
• The feet are covered with tough, leathery skin to protect them from hot surfaces.

The correct answer is bisexual.

Key Points

• The flowers of the Hibiscus plant are classified as bisexual because they contain both male (stamens) and female (carpels) reproductive organs.
• Bisexual flowers are also referred to as hermaphroditic flowers as they can self-pollinate, although cross-pollination is often preferred for genetic diversity.
• The male reproductive part, called the stamens, consists of the filament and anther, which produces pollen.
• The female reproductive part, called the carpel, consists of the stigma, style, and ovary, which is responsible for the formation of seeds after fertilization.
• Hibiscus plants are known for their large, colorful flowers, which help in attracting pollinators such as bees and butterflies for successful pollination.

Additional Information

• Unisexual Flowers:
• Unisexual flowers have either male or female reproductive organs, not both.
• Examples of plants with unisexual flowers include papaya and cucumber.
• Neuter Flowers:
• Neuter flowers lack both male and female reproductive organs and do not participate in reproduction.
• These flowers typically serve an ornamental or supportive role, such as in the case of certain types of sunflower florets.
• Pollination and Fertilization in Bisexual Flowers:
• Bisexual flowers often use cross-pollination to ensure genetic diversity, even though self-pollination is possible.
• Pollination involves the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma, and fertilization occurs when pollen reaches the ovary, leading to seed formation.
• Hibiscus Plant Characteristics:
• The Hibiscus genus consists of over 300 species, found in tropical and subtropical regions.
• Hibiscus flowers are used for ornamental purposes, and their extracts are often used in herbal teas and cosmetics.