UKPSC RO/ARO Previous Year Official Paper 1 (Held on 2016)

The Correct Answer is Antigen.

Key Points

• Any substance that causes your immune system to produce antibodies against it is known as an antigen.
• This indicates that your immune system has misidentified the substance and is attempting to combat it.
• Material from the environment, such as chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or pollen, may act as an antigen. Antigens can also develop within the body.
• Proteins, peptides (amino acid chains), and polysaccharides (chains of monosaccharides/simple sugars) are all antigens, but lipids and nucleic acids only become antigens when they are mixed with proteins and polysaccharides.
• Vaccines are immunogenic antigens that are administered to a recipient with the aim of inducing the adaptive immune system's memory mechanism of antigens of the pathogen invading the recipient.

Important Points

• Antibodies are large, Y-shaped proteins that the immune system uses to recognize and neutralize foreign objects like bacteria and viruses.
• Enzymes are biological catalysts that are proteins (biocatalysts).
• Hormones are signaling molecules that are transported to distant organs in multicellular organisms to control physiology and/or behavior.

The Correct Answer is Virus. 

Key Points

• The H1N1 virus, also known as swine flu, is a new type of influenza virus that causes symptoms similar to the common flu.
• It was first discovered in pigs, but it is now often spread from person to person.
• When swine flu was first detected in humans and became a pandemic in 2009, it made headlines.
• Pandemics are infectious diseases that spread across the globe or across many continents at the same time.

Important Points

• Bacteria are biological cell types. They make up a wide group of prokaryotic species.
• A fungus (fungi) is a type of eukaryotic organism that includes microorganisms like yeasts and molds, as well as the more well-known mushrooms. These species belong to a different kingdom from the other eukaryotic life kingdoms of plants and animals.
• Tapeworms are intestinal parasites with a tape measure shape.

The Correct Answer is Nitrogen.

Key Points

• Proteins are made up of molecules called amino acids and are found in all living organisms.
• Each amino acid contains four elements: hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon, as well as sulphur in some cases.
• Proteins are macromolecules or massive biomolecules made up of one or more long chains of amino acid residues.
• Proteins play a variety of roles in animals, including catalysing metabolic reactions, DNA replication, reacting to stimuli, giving cells and organisms structure, and transporting molecules from one place to another.
• A polypeptide is a linear sequence of amino acid residues.
• At least one long polypeptide can be found in a protein. Antoine Fourcroy and others identified proteins as a distinct class of biological molecules in the eighteenth century, based on their ability to coagulate or flocculate when exposed to heat or acid.

The Correct Answer is Energy​.

Key Points 

• Heat is a source of energy, according to the First Law of Thermodynamics, and thermodynamic processes are thus subject to the principle of energy conservation. Heat energy cannot be produced or lost in this way.
• It can, however, be moved from one place to another and transformed into and out of different types of energy.
• Thermodynamics is a branch of physics concerned with the interactions of heat and other sources of energy.
• According to the First Rule, a system's internal energy must be equal to the work that is being done on it, plus or minus the heat that flows in and out of it, and any other work that is being done on it.

Important Points

• Entropy is a physical property of a thermodynamic system, according to the second law of thermodynamics.
• Regarding the properties of closed systems in thermodynamic equilibrium**, the third law of thermodynamics** notes as follows: As a system's temperature gets closer to absolute zero, its entropy reaches a constant value.

The Correct Answer is Gammexane.

In view of environmental problems, the use of Gammexane has been reduced.

Key Points

• Gammaxene (Lindane, gamma-hexachlorocyclohexane (-HCH), is an organochlorine chemical and isomer of hexachlorocyclohexane that has been used as lice and scabies medicinal remedy.
• Lindane is a neurotoxin that interferes with GABA neurotransmitter activity by binding to the picrotoxin binding site on the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex.
• Lindane is a carcinogen that affects the nervous system, liver, and kidneys in humans.
• The World Health Organization classifies lindane as "moderately dangerous," and the Rotterdam Convention on Prior Informed Consent restricts and regulates its international trade.

Additional Information

• The organophosphate phorate is used as an insecticide and acaricide.
• Endosulfan is an off-patent organochlorine insecticide and acaricide that is currently being phased out around the world. Endo and Exo are the two isomers that are often referred to as I and II.
• Mancozeb is a non-systemic dithiocarbamate agricultural fungicide that has a multi-site, contact-protective action. It's made up of maneb and zineb, two other dithiocarbamates.

The Correct Answer is Carbon dioxide.

Key Points 

• CO₂ fire extinguishers contain pure carbon dioxide, which is a residue-free extinguisher.
• Recommended for use on live electrical equipment and suitable for Class B flammable liquid fires (petrol, tar, solvents).
• In 1924, the Walter Kidde Company invented the carbon dioxide (CO₂) extinguisher in response to Bell Telephone's request for an electrically non-conductive chemical for extinguishing previously difficult-to-extinguish fires in telephone switchboards.
• Carbon dioxide works to put out fires by displacing oxygen. It was once thought that it worked by cooling the fire, but this effect is insignificant in most cases.

Important Points

• Sand extinguishers are used to put out flammable metal fires (class D fires) by actually smothering them.
• Water fire extinguishers penetrate burning materials, providing a cooling effect and preventing reignition. They are ideal for use on class A solid combustible fires (wood, paper, fabrics, coal).

The Correct Answer is Ethylene.

Key Points

• Ethylene, also known as the "fruit-ripening hormone," is a gas. Throughout its lifecycle, every fruit produces a certain amount of ethylene.
• When fruit begins to ripen, however, ethylene levels rise dramatically.
• Fruits can be divided into two classes based on how they react to ethylene during maturation.
• The climacteric fruits are the first category, with ripening followed by an ethylene explosion.
• The non-climacteric fruits are those whose ethylene production does not increase as the fruit ripens.

Important Points 

• Auxins encourage stem elongation while inhibiting lateral bud development (maintains apical dominance). The stem, buds, and root tips all contain them.
• Kinetin is a type of cytokine. Cytokinins are substances that help plants grow. Kinetin is a substance that is used in the production of pharmaceuticals.

The correct answer is Oils.

Key Points

• The sunflower seed is the sunflower's fruit (Helianthus annuus).
• Sunflower seeds come in three varieties: linoleic (the most common), high oleic, and sunflower oil seeds.
• Monounsaturated, saturated, and polyunsaturated fats are all different in each type. The material in this article is all about linoleic acid.
• Protein (42 percent DV), dietary fiber (36 percent DV), many B vitamins (23–129 percent DV), and vitamin E are all abundant in the seeds (20 percent or higher of the Daily Value, DV) (234 percent DV).
• Dietary minerals such as magnesium, manganese, phosphorus, iron, and zinc (40–94 percent DV) are also abundant in these seeds.

The Correct Answer is Distance.

Key Points 

• The parsec is a unit of length used to measure vast distances between astronomical objects outside the Solar System.
• It is roughly equivalent to 3.26 light-years or 206,000 astronomical units, or 30.9 trillion kilometers (19.2 trillion miles).
• Proxima Centauri, the closest star, is around 1.3 parsecs (4.2 light-years) away from the Sun.
• The majority of stars visible in the night sky to the naked eye are within 500 parsecs of the Sun.
• The term parsec, derived from the parallax of one arcsecond, was invented by British astronomer Herbert Hall Turner in 1913 to make astronomical distance measurements easier for astronomers using only raw observational data.

Important Points

The correct answer is Analytical Engine. 

Key Points

• Analytical Engine generally considered the first computer, designed and partly built by the English inventor Charles Babbage in the 19th century (he worked on it until his death in 1871).
• While working on the Difference Engine, a simpler calculating machine commissioned by the British government, Babbage began to imagine ways to improve it.
• Chiefly he thought about generalizing its operation so that it could perform other kinds of calculations.
• By the time funding ran out for his Difference Engine in 1833, he had conceived of something far more revolutionary: a general-purpose computing machine called the Analytical Engine.
• The Analytical Engine was to be a general-purpose, fully program-controlled, automatic mechanical digital computer.
• It would be able to perform any calculation set before it.
• The machine was designed to consist of four components: the mill, the store, the reader, and the printer. These components are the essential components of every computer today.

Additional Information

• Abacus:
• Abacus, plural abaci or abacuses, calculating device, probably of Babylonian origin, that was long important in commerce.
• It is the ancestor of the modern calculating machine and computer.
• The earliest “abacus” likely was a board or slab on which a Babylonian spread sand so he could trace letters for general writing purposes.
• The word abacus is probably derived, through its Greek form abakos, from a Semitic word such as the Hebrew ibeq (“to wipe the dust”; noun abaq, “dust”).
• The abacus, generally in the form of a large calculating board, was in universal use in Europe in the Middle Ages, as well as in the Arab world and in Asia.
• It reached Japan in the 16th century. The introduction of the Hindu-Arabic notation, with its place value and zero, gradually replaced the abacus, though it was still widely used in Europe as late as the 17th century and survives today in the Middle East, China, and Japan; an expert practitioner can compete against many modern mechanical calculating machines.
• Calculator:
• Calculator, machine for automatically performing arithmetical operations and certain mathematical functions.
• Modern calculators are descendants of a digital arithmetic machine devised by Blaise Pascal in 1642.
• Later in the 17th century, Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz created a more advanced machine, and, especially in the late 19th century, inventors produced calculating machines that were smaller and smaller and less and less laborious to use.
• In the early decades of the 20th century, desktop adding machines and other calculating devices were developed. Some were key-driven, others required a rotating drum to enter sums punched into a keyboard, and later the drum was spun by an electric motor.
• A central processing unit (CPU):
• The central processing unit (CPU), the principal part of any digital computer system, generally composed of the main memory, control unit, and arithmetic-logic unit.
• It constitutes the physical heart of the entire computer system; to it is linked various peripheral equipment, including input/output devices and auxiliary storage units.
• In modern computers, the CPU is contained on an integrated circuit chip called a microprocessor.
• The control unit of the central processing unit regulates and integrates the operations of the computer.
• It selects and retrieves instructions from the main memory in proper sequence and interprets them so as to activate the other functional elements of the system at the appropriate moment to perform their respective operations.

The correct answer is ROM.

Key Points

• Each memory cell of a ROM chip has either a transistor for a 1 bit or none for a 0 bit.
• ROMs(Read-only memory) is used for programs that are essential parts of a computer’s operation, such as the bootstrap program that starts a computer and loads its operating system or the BIOS (basic input/output system) that addresses external devices in a personal computer (PC).
• EPROM (erasable programmable ROM), EAROM (electrically alterable ROM), and flash memory are types of nonvolatile memories that are rewritable, though the rewriting is far more time-consuming than reading.
• They are thus used as special-purpose memories where writing is seldom necessary—if used for the BIOS, for example, they may be changed to correct errors or update features.

Additional Information

• Cache memory:
• Cache memory, also called Cache, a supplementary memory system that temporarily stores frequently used instructions and data for quicker processing by the central processor of a computer.
• The cache augments and is an extension of, a computer’s main memory.
• Both main memory and cache are internal, random-access memories (RAMs) that use semiconductor-based transistor circuits.
• The cache holds a copy of only the most frequently used information or program codes stored in the main memory; the smaller capacity of the cache reduces the time required to locate data within it and provide it to the computer for processing.
• RAM:
• RAM, in full random-access memory, Computer main memory in which specific contents can be accessed (read or written) directly by the CPU in a very short time regardless of the sequence (and hence location) in which they were recorded.
• Two types of memory are possible with random-access circuits, static RAM (SRAM) and dynamic RAM (DRAM).
• A single memory chip is made up of several million memory cells.
• In an SRAM chip, each memory cell stores a binary digit (1 or 0) for as long as power is supplied.
• In a DRAM chip, the charge on individual memory cells must be refreshed periodically in order to retain data.
• Because it has fewer components, DRAM requires less chip area than SRAM; hence a DRAM chip can hold more memory, though its access time is slower.

The correct answer is Modem.

Key Points

• Modem, (from “modulator/demodulator”), any of a class of electronic devices that convert digital data signals into modulated analog signals suitable for transmission over analog telecommunications circuits.
• A modem also receives modulated signals and demodulates them, recovering the digital signal for use by the data equipment.
• Modems thus make it possible for established telecommunications media to support a wide variety of data communication, such as e-mail between personal computers, facsimile transmission between fax machines, or the downloading of audio-video files from a World Wide Web server to a home computer.
• Most modems are “voiceband”; i.e., they enable digital terminal equipment to communicate over telephone channels, which are designed around the narrow bandwidth requirements of the human voice.
• Cable modems, on the other hand, support the transmission of data over hybrid fiber-coaxial channels, which were originally designed to provide high-bandwidth television service.
• Both voiceband and cable modems are marketed as freestanding, book-sized modules that plug into a telephone or cable outlet and a port on a personal computer.

Additional Information

• Packet:
• A packet-switched network routes digital data in small pieces called packets, each of which proceeds independently through the network.
• In a process called store-and-forward, each packet is temporarily stored at each intermediate node, then forwarded when the next link becomes available.
• In a connection-oriented transmission scheme, each packet takes the same route through the network, and thus all packets usually arrive at the destination in the order in which they were sent.
• Conversely, each packet may take a different path through the network in a connectionless or datagram scheme.
• Since datagrams may not arrive at the destination in the order in which they were sent, they are numbered so that they can be properly reassembled.
• The latter is the method that is used for transmitting data through the Internet.
• Keyboard:
• Keyboards contain mechanical or electromechanical switches that change the flow of current through the keyboard when depressed.
• A microprocessor embedded in the keyboard interprets these changes and sends a signal to the computer.
• In **addition to letter and number keys, most keyboards also include “function” and “control” keys that modify input or send special commands to the computer.**​​

The correct answer is Super Computer.

Key Points

• Supercomputers were introduced in the 1960s as the world's most advanced computer.
• A supercomputer is a powerful computer that can process a large amount of data and computation very quickly.
• Supercomputers perform immense amounts of mathematical calculations.
• Super Computers are also known as Number Crunching.
• Supercomputers are used for areas related to:
• Science
• Engineering
• Education
• Defense
• Aerospace
• Supercomputers are useful for applications involving very large databases or that require a great amount of computation.
• Supercomputers are used for complex tasks, such as:
• Weather forecasting
• Climate research
• Scientific simulation
• Oil and gas exploration
• Quantum mechanics
• Cryptanalysis

​

Important Points

• The First Cray-1 supercomputer was installed at Los Alamos National Laboratory in 1972.
• Param Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously in India, was installed in IIT (BHU).
• Fugaku (Japan) Jointly developed by RIKEN and Fujitsu, is the fastest supercomputer in the world.
• PARAM-Siddhi AI is the fastest supercomputer in India.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is DBMS.

Key Points

• A Database is an organized collection of data so that it can be easily accessed and managed.
• DBMS stands for Database Management System.
• A Database Management System (DBMS) is software designed to store, retrieve, define, and manage data in a database.
• Database Management System removes redundancy and Integrity.
• Database Management System reduces Application Development Time.
• DBMS follows the concepts of **Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and Durability (**normally shortened as ACID).
• DBMS supports a multi-user environment and allows them to access and manipulate data in parallel.
• Types of DBMS Systems are:
• Hierarchical Database
• Network Database
• Relational Database
• Object-Oriented Database
• The three-schema architecture of DBMS:

• Some popular DBMS systems:
• MySQL
• Microsoft Access
• Oracle
• LibreOffice Base
• Microsoft SQL Server

​

Important Points 

• In 1960, Charles Bachman designed the first DBMS system.
• In 1970, Codd introduced IBM'S Information Management System (IMS)
• In 1976, Peter Chen coined and defined the Entity-relationship model also know as the ER model.
• In 1991, Microsoft ships MS Access, a personal DBMS and that displaces all other personal DBMS products.

​​​​ 

Additional Information 

• Operating System
• ​An operating system acts as an intermediary between the user of a computer and computer hardware.
• Operating systems were first developed in the late 1950s to manage tape storage.
• The General Motors Research Lab implemented the first OS in the early 1950s for their IBM 701.
• Operating System allows disk access and file systems Device drivers Networking Security.
• Operating System Handling I/O operations.
• Operating System has error detection and handling technic.
• An Operating System is concerned with the allocation of resources and services, such as memory, processors, devices, and information.
• The Kernel is the central component of a computer operating system.
• ​Compiler
• The compiler translates source code written in a high-level language into a set of machine-language.
• Compilers are very large programs, with error-checking and other abilities.
• The object code is machine code that the processor can perform one instruction at a time.
• The first Autocode and compiler in the modern sense were developed by Alick Glennie in 1952.
• John W. Backus at IBM introduced the first commercially available compiler, in 1957.

The correct answer is Microprocessor.

Key Points

• Pentium microprocessors developed by Intel Corp.
• Pentium introduced in 1993 as the successor to Intel’s 80486 microprocessor.
• Pentium is a series of x86 architecture-compatible microprocessors
• It using CISC (complex instruction set computer) architecture, its main features were a 32-bit address bus, a 64-bit data bus, a built-in floating-point, and memory-management units, and two 8KB caches.
• It was available with processor speeds ranging from 60 megahertz (MHz) to 200 MHz.
• Pentium was superseded by ever faster and more powerful processors,
• Pentium Pro (1995),
• Pentium II (1997),
• Pentium III (1999),
• Pentium 4 (2000), and
• Pentium 4 Dual Cores (2005).
• Pentium chips were the most widely used CPUs in the world for general-purpose computing.
• Various Pentium 4 models are used in entry-level PCs and other devices.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Compression.

Key Points

• Compression:
• Data Compression, also called Compaction, the process of reducing the amount of data needed for the storage or transmission of a given piece of information, typically by the use of encoding techniques.
• Compression predates digital technology, having been used in Morse Code, which assigned the shortest codes to the most common characters, and in telephony, which cuts off high frequencies in voice transmission.
• Today, when an uncompressed digital image may require 20 megabytes, data compression is important in storing information digitally on computer disks and in transmitting it over communications networks.

Important Points

• Fragmentation:
• Fragmentation is an unwanted problem where the memory blocks cannot be allocated to the processes due to their small size and the blocks remain unused.
• There are two types of fragmentation:
• Internal Fragmentation: In this fragmentation, the process is allocated a memory block of size more than the size of that process. Due to this some part of the memory is left unused and this causes internal fragmentation.
• External Fragmentation: In this fragmentation, although we have total space available that is needed by a process still we are not able to put that process in the memory because that space is not contiguous. This is called external fragmentation.
• Encapsulation:
• Data Encapsulation is the process in which some extra information is added to the data item to add some features to it.
• Data Encapsulation uses either the OSI or the TCP/IP model in our network, and the data transmission takes place through various layers in these models.
• Data encapsulation adds the protocol information to the data so that data transmission can take place in a proper way. This information can either be added in the header or the footer of the data.

The correct answer is Arithmetic Logic Unit.

Key Points

• Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU):
• It performs all Arithmetic Operations and Decision-Making operations.
• Data Transfer: Which includes moving data from one location to another within the computer.
• Arithmetic Operation: It includes addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division, etc.
• Decision Making: It is an ability to compare two quantities and perform a logical operation such as compare, true or false, etc.
• Control Unit: It extracts instructions from memory and decodes and executes them, calling on the ALU, when necessary. It controls all functions and coordinates all components of the computer. It is in charge of the fetch execute cycle.
• Central Processing Unit (CPU): The Central Processing Unit is the brain of the computer sometimes referred to simply as the central processor. It is linked with the input units and output units to form the computer system.

The correct answer is VDU.

Key Points

• Visual Display Unit (VDU): 
• Visual Display Unit is an Output Device that displays all work is done and images on its screen.
• It is also called a Monitor. After processing the input, the result is shown on the Monitor.
• The three most common specifications about the quality of monitors are Dot Pitch, Resolution, and Refresh Rate.
• There are many types of monitor technologies are available like CRT (Cathode Ray Tube) monitors, LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) monitors, LED (Light Emitting Diode), OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode), etc.

Important Points

• Keyboard: The keyboard is one of the main Input Devices used in a computer. It is used to enter text and numeric data in a computer system.
• Mouse: It is also called a Pointing Device which is used to point to the things on the monitor screen. It is an Input Device that was invented by Douglas Engelbert.
• Light Pen: A light pen is an Input Device, similar to a mouse. It is used to directly write and draw any figure on the computer screen.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Second.

Key Points

• Second Generation(1955-1964):
• The computer made in the second generation was completely based upon transistors.
• Transistors replaced vacuum tubes in computers.
• It was invented at Bell Labs by Walter H. Brattain (1902-1987), John Bardeen (1908-1991), and William B. Shockley (1910-1989) in 1947.
• In the computers of the second generation, punched cards and printouts were used for inputs and outputs.
• The TX-0 was the first computer that used transistors, It was released in 1956.
• These second-generation machines were used for a wide variety of business and scientific jobs and used high-level programming and assembly languages such as FORTRAN (Formula Translator) and COBOL (Common Business Oriented Language).
• The second-generation computers had several features:
• ​Computers made in the second generation used transistors that made them more reliable, smaller in size, faster in speed, more energy-efficient, and cheaper compared to the first generation of computers.
• They contain magnetic storage disks and magnetic core memory.
• They used high-level languages such as FORTRAN and COBOL and allowed communication with the help of a telephone line.
• As compared to the first generation of computers, the data processing time reduced from milliseconds to microseconds.

Additional Information

• First Generation(1942-1955): 
• The first-generation computers used vacuum tubes for circuitry and magnetic drums for memory.
• They were often enormous and taking up the entire room.
• First-generation computers relied on machine language.
• They were very expensive to operate and in addition to using a great deal of electricity, generated a lot of heat, which was often the cause of malfunctions.
• The UNIVAC and ENIAC computers are examples of first-generation computing devices.
• Third Generation(1964-1975):
• ​The development of the integrated circuit was the hallmark of the third generation of computers.
• Transistors were miniaturized and placed on Silicon chips called semiconductors.
• Instead of punched cards and printouts, users interacted with third-generation computers through keyboards and monitors and interfaced with an operating system.
• It allowed the device to run many different applications at one time.
• Fourth Generation(1971- up to till now):
• The microprocessor brought the fourth generation of computers, as thousands of integrated circuits were built onto a single silicon chip.
• The Intel 4004 chip, developed in 1971, located all the components of the computer.
• From the central processing unit and memory to input/output controls on a single chip.
• Fourth-generation computers also saw the development of GUIs, the mouse, and handheld devices.

The Correct Answer is Zaire.

Key Points

• The Zaire River(Congo River) is the second-longest river in Africa, shorter only than the Nile, as well as the second-largest river in the world by discharge volume, following only the Amazon.
• It's also the world's deepest channel, with estimated depths of over 220 metres.
• The Congo-Lualaba-Chambeshi River System is the world's ninth longest river, with a total length of 4,700 km.
• The Chambeshi is a tributary of the Lualaba River, which flows for 1,800 kilometres upstream of Boyoma Falls.
• The Congo River is 4,370 kilometres long when combined with the Lualaba, its largest tributary.
• It is the only big river in the world to pass across the equator twice. The Congo Basin covers approximately 4,000,000 km² or 13% of the total African landmass.
• The Congo River and its tributaries flow through the Congo Rainforest, the world's second-largest rain forest, second only to South America's Amazon Rainforest.
• The river also has the world's second-largest flood, trailing only the Amazon; the world's second-largest drainage basin, trailing only the Amazon; and is one of the world's longest rivers, with depths exceeding 220 metres.

 

The correct answer is Morocco -Marrakech.

Key Points

• The capital of Morocco is Rabat.
• Currency: Moroccan Dirham.
• Morocco is the mountainous Country of Western North Africa that lies directly across the Strait of Gibraltar from Spain.
• Morocco was made a French protectorate in 1912 but regained independence in 1956. Today it is the only monarchy in North Africa.
• Morocco’s largest city and major Atlantic Ocean port are Casablanca, which is an industrial and commercial centre.
• Morocco borders Algeria to the east and southeast, Western Sahara to the south, the Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the north.
• Mount Toubkal, is the highest Morocco point.
• Its agricultural heart is known as the Gharb plain.
• The Drâa is the longest river in Morocco, which is approximately 685 miles(1100 km) in length.

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram.

Key Points

• The international boundary between India and Myanmar is known as the India–Myanmar border (formerly Burma).
• The boundary stretches 1,468 kilometers (912 miles) from China's tripoint in the north to Bangladesh's tripoint in the south.
• The Free Movement Regime (FMR) on the India–Myanmar border allows tribes living along the border to travel 16 kilometers (9.9 miles) on either side of the border without requiring a visa.

Important Points ​

• Myanmar is a Southeast Asian republic. Myanmar is bordered on the northwest by Bangladesh and India, on the northeast by China, on the east and southeast by Laos and Thailand, and on the south and southwest by the Andaman Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
• Myanmar is the most populous country in Mainland Southeast Asia and the tenth most populous country in Asia.
• In 2017, the population was estimated to be about 54 million people. Naypyidaw is the capital, and Yangon is the largest city (Rangoon).

The Correct Answer is Finland.

Key Points

• Finland is called the "Land of Thousand Lakes".
• There are approximately 168,000 lakes and 179,000 islands in Finland.
• Saimaa, its biggest lake, is Europe's fourth-largest.
• The Finnish Lakeland has the most lakes in the world, and many of the country's major cities, including Tampere, Jyväskylä, and Kuopio, are in close proximity to the large lakes.

Important Points

• Finland is a country in Northern Europe that is situated in the Nordic region.
• It is bordered on the west by Sweden, on the east by Russia, and on the north by Norway.
• It is characterized on the west by the Gulf of Bothnia, and on the south by the Gulf of Finland, which runs through Estonia.
• Finland has a population of 5.5 million people and occupies 338,455 square kilometers.

Additional Information

• Capital and largest city: Helsinki
• President: Sauli Niinistö
• Prime Minister: Sanna Marin

The Correct Answer is Argentina.

Key Points

• Argentina is famous for livestock ranching in the world.
• Argentina's world-famous ranchers are culling their breeding cows at the fastest rate in 30 years, relying on Chinese meat demand to help pay their bills as access to credit for farmers in South America's second-largest economy has dried up.
• Agriculture in Argentina is relatively capital intensive, employing around 7% of the workforce today and accounting for less than a third of all labor even during its heyday around 1900.
• After accounting for nearly 20% of GDP in 1959, it now contributes less than 10% of GDP directly.
• Unprocessed agricultural primary products, mostly soybeans, wheat, and maize, made up a quarter of Argentina's $86 billion exports in 2011.
• Argentina is the world's largest producer of yerba mate, as well as one of the top five producers of soy, corn, sunflower seed, lemon, and pear, as well as one of the top ten producers of barley, vine, artichoke, tobacco, and cotton, and one of the top 15 producers of wheat, sugarcane, sorghum, and grapefruit.

Important Points

• Capital and largest city: Buenos Aires
• President: Alberto Fernández
• Vice President: Cristina Fernández de Kirchner

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

• India has 15,106.7 Km of land border and a coastline of 7,516.6 Km including island territories.
• The length of our land borders with neighboring countries are as under:

Additional Information

The answer is Mizoram.

• Mizoram is ranked 3^rd in the overall literacy rate among the states/union territories in India.
• The literacy rate in Mizoram has seen an upward trend and is 91.33 % as per the 2011 population census. Of that, male literacy stands at 93.35 % while female literacy is at 89.27 %.

Key Points

• Literacy in India:
• The 15^th official census in India was calculated in the year 2011, finds:
• The literacy rate in India in 2011 was found to be 74.04%.
• Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India. It is followed by Lakshadweep and Mizoram.
• The lowest literacy rate in India is seen in the state of Bihar.
• The top 3 and bottom 3 Literacy States:

Additional Information

• Census Facts 2011:
• Thane district of Maharashtra is the most populated district of India.
• Dibang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh is the least populated.
• Kurung Kumey of Arunachal Pradesh registered the highest population growth rate of 111.01 %.
• Longleng district of Nagaland registered a negative population growth rate of -58.39%
• Mahe district of Puducherry has the highest sex ratio of 1176 females per 1000 males.
• Daman district has the lowest sex ratio of 533 females per 1000 males.
• Serchhip district of Mizoram has the highest literacy rate of 98.76 %.
• Alirajpur of MP is the least literate district of India with the figure of 37.22 % only.
• North East Delhi has the highest density with a figure of 37346 persons per 1km².
• Dibang Valley has the least density of 1 person per km².

The Correct Answer is Nanga Parbat.

Key Points

• At 8,126 meters above sea level, Nanga Parbat is the world's ninth-highest mountain. Nanga Parbat is the western anchor of the Himalayas, located in the Diamer District of Gilgit-Baltistan, Pakistan.
• Diamer or Deo Mir, which means "Huge Mountain" in Tibetan, is the local name for the mountain.
• One of the fourteen eight-thousanders is Nanga Parbat. It is a massive, dramatic peak rising well above its surrounding terrain that is notoriously difficult to climb and has received the moniker Killer Mountain due to the high number of climber deaths.
• To the south, Nanga Parbat has the world's highest mountain face, the Rupal Face, which rises 4,600 meters (15,090 feet) above its base.

Important Points

• After Nanda Devi, Kamet is the second highest mountain in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India. It is located in Uttarakhand's Chamoli District. It has the appearance of a massive pyramid topped by a flat summit with two peaks. Kamet is surrounded by three glacier systems: the West (Pachmi) Kamet Glacier, the East (Purbi) Kamet Glacier, and the Raikana Glacier.
• In the Indian state of Uttarakhand, Bandarpunch is a mountain massif in the Garhwal division of the Himalayas. Bandarpunch is a small town on the western edge of the high Himalayan range, where it turns northwest.
• Dunagiri (7,066 m) is a high peak in the Chamoli District Himalayas in Uttarakhand, India. The Sanctuary Wall, a ring of peaks circling Nanda Devi and enclosing the Nanda Devi Sanctuary, is located in the northwest corner.

The Correct Answer is 8.5 Billion.

Key Points

• According to a recent United Nations study released on July 29, 2015, the world's population will hit 8.5 billion by 2030, 9.7 billion by 2050, and exceed 11 billion in 2100, with India expected to surpass China as the most populated country in seven years and Nigeria expected to overtake the United States to become the world's third-largest country in 35 years.
• Furthermore, half of the world's population growth is projected to be concentrated in nine countries between 2015 and 2050: India, Nigeria, Pakistan, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Ethiopia, Tanzania, the United States, Indonesia, and Uganda, according to the study.
• Understanding the demographic changes that are likely to occur over the coming years, according to Wu Hongbo, UN Under-Secretary-General for Economic and Social Affairs, whose department created the 2015 Revision of World Population Prospects, the 24th round of official UN population forecasts and predictions, is “key to the design and implementation of the new development agenda.”

Important Points

• The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organization whose mission is to preserve international peace and security, foster friendly ties between nations, promote international cooperation, and serve as a focal point for coordinating national actions.
• Secretary‑General: António Guterres
• Deputy Secretary-General: Amina J. Mohammed
• General Assembly President: Volkan Bozkır

The Correct Answer is Mumbai.

From the Mumbai coast of India, the average sea level is measured.

Key Points

• Leveling measurements made during the Great Trigonometrical Survey of India (1858–1909) and subsequent observations revealed that the Bay of Bengal has a higher mean sea level than the Arabian Sea, with a difference of around 30 cm between Mumbai (Bombay) and Vishakhapatnam.
• Large-scale wind-forced circulation (60 percent ) and the alongshore salinity gradient (40 percent ) using simulations with a 112-layer reduced gravity model. Because of the monsoon, the former (latter) is a product of the distribution of wind stress (rainfall).

Additional Information

• Mean sea level (MSL) is the average level of one or more of the Earth's bodies of water and can be used to calculate heights such as elevation.
• Many variables influence sea levels, which have been known to fluctuate dramatically over geological time scales.
• However, climate change is thought to be the cause of the sea-level rise in the twentieth century and the current millennium, and careful measurement of MSL changes can provide insight into ongoing climate change.

The Correct Answer is The Ganges originates from Gangotri

Key Points

• The Ganges is an Asian trans-border river that runs across India and Bangladesh.
• The 2,525-kilometer river rises in the western Himalayas of Uttarakhand, India, and flows south and east across North India's Gangetic Plain to Bangladesh, where it empties into the Bay of Bengal.
• By drainage, it is the world's third-largest river. The upper phase of the Ganges starts at the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers in Devprayag, Uttarakhand's Garhwal division.
• At Gomukh, the Bhagirathi rises at the foot of the Gangotri Glacier.
• Note: 
• From Gangotri, the Bhagirathi river is originated.
• When the Bhagirathi river join Alaknanda in Devprayag then they together called Ganga.

Important Points

• After the Ganga, the Godavari is India's second-longest river. Its source is in Maharashtra's Triambakeshwar. The Godavari is the largest river in peninsular India in terms of length, catchment area, and discharge, and has been dubbed the Dakshina Ganga (the Ganges of the South).
• The Kosi River is known as "Bihar's Sorrow" because its annual floods affect approximately 21,000 km2 of fertile agricultural lands, disrupting the rural economy.
• An antecedent stream is one that retains its original course and pattern through changes in the topography of the underlying rock. These rivers existed long before the Himalayas were uplifted. The rivers Indus, Brahmaputra, Sutlej, Kosi, and Subansiri all began on the Tibetan side and now cut deep gorges across the current mountain ranges.

The Correct Answer is Haryana – 01 November 1966.

Key Points

• Haryana is a state in India that is located in the country's northwestern region.
• On November 1, 1966, it was carved out of the former state of East Punjab on the basis of linguistics.
• With less than 1.4 percent (44,212 km²) of India's land area, it is ranked 22nd in terms of size.
• The state capital is Chandigarh, the most populous city is Faridabad in the National Capital Region, and Gurugram is a leading financial centre in the NCR, with major Fortune 500 companies headquartered there.
• Haryana is divided into six administrative divisions, 72 districts, 93 revenue tehsils, 50 sub-tehsils, 140 community development blocks, 154 cities and towns, 6,848 villages, and 6222 village panchayats.
• Haryana has the fifth-highest per capita income among Indian states and territories, more than double the national average for the year 2018–19, as the largest recipient of investment per capita since 2000.
• Haryana ranks seventh among Indian states in terms of the human development index.

Important Points 

The Correct Answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• In the financial year 2018, Madhya Pradesh was the largest producer of pulses in India, accounting for 32.14 percent of total output.
• Rajasthan was the country's second-largest producer of pulses that year, accounting for 13% of total output.
• From 2013-14 to 2016-17, Madhya Pradesh topped the chart for highest Pulses (Thousand Tonnes) output, while the NCT of Delhi was at the bottom of the chart from 2013-14, 2014-15, and 2016-17, and Goa was at the bottom of the list in 2015-16.

Important Points

• Pulses are annual leguminous crops that produce one to twelve grains or seeds of varying size, shape, and color within a pod.
• They are used for both food and feed. The word "pulses" refers to crops harvested solely for dry grain, except crops harvested green for human consumption, which is known as vegetable crops, as well as crops used primarily for oil extraction and leguminous crops grown solely for sowing.
• India is the world's largest producer of pulses (25 percent of global production), a buyer with 27 percent of global consumption, and an importer with 14 percent of the global trade of pulses.

Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh is followed by Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan in terms of pulse output.
• Uttar Pradesh produces the most wheat in India, followed by Punjab and Haryana.

The Correct Answer is Australia.

Key Points

• The mineral-rich island nation has the world's second-largest bauxite reserve, at 6.2 billion tonnes, with the highest-grade deposits concentrated in Queensland and the Northern Territory.
• The ore grades at the Weipa and Gove mines, for example, are 49-53 percent aluminum oxide.

Important Points

• Guinea is the world's leading bauxite producer, with an estimated bauxite ore reserve of 7.4 billion tonnes, mainly located in the western and central parts of the country. The nation holds 26.9% of the world's estimated ore reserves.
• With 2.6 billion tonnes of bauxite reserves, the South American country came in seventh. The Paragominas bauxite mine is one of the world's richest suppliers of bauxite, situated in the state of Pará in northern Brazil.
• The mine, which is fully operated by Brazil's Vale (CVRD), currently has an annual capacity of 5.4 million tonnes of bauxite.
• India's bauxite ore production has remained relatively constant in comparison to its aluminum output and is expected to rise this year as domestic demand grows.

The answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
• In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%).

Important Points

India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021:

• The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectare which is 24.62 percent of the geographical area of the country. As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country. Out of this, the increase in the forest cover has been observed as 1,540 sq km and that in tree cover is 721 sq km.
• Increase in forest cover has been observed in open forest followed by very dense forest. Top three states showing increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and Odisha (537 sq km).
• 17 states/UT’s have above 33 percent of the geographical area under forest cover. Out of these states and UT’s, five states/UTs namely Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya have more than 75 percent forest cover while 12 states/UTs namely Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Goa, Kerala, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Assam, Odisha, have forest cover between 33 percent to 75 percent.
• Total mangrove cover in the country is 4,992 sq km. An increase of 17 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2019. Top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (4 sq km) and Karnataka (3 sq km).
• Total carbon stock in country’s forest is estimated to be 7,204 million tonnes and there an increase of 79.4 million tonnes in the carbon stock of country as compared to the last assessment of 2019. The annual increase in the carbon stock is 39.7 million tonnes.

The Correct Answer is 2000.

Key Points

• The National Population Policy, which was adopted in the year 2000, reaffirms the government's commitment to voluntary and informed choice, a target-free strategy, and the attainment of replacement fertility by addressing abortion, maternal health, and child survival at the same time.
• The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare's National Family Planning Programme manages the implementation of the National Population Policy 2000's tenets.
• The program's service delivery data is triangulated, and the program is monitored on a regular basis by annual review meetings, constructive supervision visits, and common review missions, among other things.

Important Points

• Population policies were developed to resolve unmet abortion, healthcare facilities, and healthcare workforce needs, as well as to provide comprehensive service delivery for reproductive and child health care.
• The key goal is to achieve demographic stability at a pace that meets the needs of long-term economic growth, social sustainability, and environmental protection.

The answer is 11^th July.

• World Population Day is observed on the 11th of July every year.
• "How to safeguard the health and rights of women and girls now" amid the pandemic is the theme of World Population Day 2020.

Important Points

• World Population Day, which seeks to focus attention on the urgency and importance of population issues, was established by the Governing Council of the United Nations Development Programme in 1989, an outgrowth of the interest generated by the Day of Five Billion, which was observed on 11 July 1987.
• By resolution 45/216 of December 1990, the United Nations General Assembly decided to continue observing World Population Day to enhance awareness of population issues, including their relations to the environment and development.
• The Day was first marked on 11 July 1990 in more than 90 countries. Since then, a number of UNFPA (United Nations Population Fund) country offices and other organizations and institutions commemorate World Population Day, in partnership with governments and civil society.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Zelinsky.

Key Points

• Zelinsky propounded the ‘Mobility Transition Model of Migration’.
• Wilbur Zelinsky’s 1971 paper in Geographical Review entitled the “Hypothesis of the Mobility Transition” was both forward-looking and offered innovative ideas regarding human geographic mobility.
• One of the most interesting aspects of the paper was a set of predictions for mobility in a “future superadvanced society”.
• Migration is one of the distinguishing features of human beings that has been occurring since it started from the very beginning of man’s appearance in this universe.
• Human mobility was even present in primitive times and people used to migrate in search of abundant food and in search of a safe living environment and protection from physical dangers.

Additional Information

• Everett Spurgeon Lee the Push and Pull Theory:
• Push factors are conditions that can force people to leave their homes and are related to the country from which a person migrates.
• Pull factors are exactly the opposite of push factors: they attract people to a certain location.

• J.B.Clarke Theory of Economic Growth:
• The static and dynamic economic theory should be analytically separated and that the study of dynamics could not be successful without first acquiring knowledge of static economic laws.
• He explores the way income is distributed between wages, interest, and rents in a market economy.
• Ravenstein's Laws of Migration:
• Most migrants move only a short distance.
• There is a process of absorption, whereby people immediately surrounding a rapidly growing town move into it and the gaps they leave are filled by migrants from more distant areas, and so on until the attractive force [pull factors] is spent.
• There is a process of dispersion, which is the inverse of absorption.
• Economic factors are the main cause of migration.
• Females are more migratory than males.

The correct answer is Konyak-Kerala.

Key Points

• Konyak tribe is found in Nagaland.
• National Commission on Scheduled Tribes comes in the constitutional bodies.
• It comes to article 338A in our constitution.

Additional Informationr

• There are about 550 tribes in India.
• As per the 1951 census, 5.6% of the total population of the country was tribal. According to Census-2011.
• The oldest tribe in India is Jarwa found in Andaman and Nicobar.
• Tribes come under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
• The Ministry was set up in 1999 after the bifurcation of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment with the objective of providing a more focused approach to the integrated socio-economic development of the Scheduled Tribes (STs).
• Monitoring of ST Welfare Grants, based on the framework and mechanism designed by NITI Ayog.
• Madhya Pradesh has the largest number of scheduled Tribes.

Important Points

• Minister of Tribal Affairs is Arjun Munda.
• Niti Ayog formes in 2015.
• It replaces Yojana Ayog.
• Full-Form of Niti Ayog: National Institution for Transforming India.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 census, the State of Kerala had the highest sex ratio in India.
• Kerala with 1084 has the highest sex ratio.
• Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per thousand males.
• It was revealed that the population ratio in India 2011 is 943 females per 1000.

Additional Information

• The Indian Census is the largest single source of a variety of statistical information on different characteristics of the people of India.
• The first census of India was conducted by Lord Mayo in 1872.
• The first official census was started by Lord Ripon in 1881.
• In 2011 it is 15 census of India.
• It comes to the Ministry of Home Affairs From 1961.
• The slogan of the 2011 Census is Our Census Our Future.
• C M Chandramauli was the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India for the 2011 Indian Census.

Important Points

• Haryana state has the lowest sex ratio(879) in India.
• In Union Territory Puducherry with 1038 highest.
• Overall Daman and Diu have the lowest sex ratio of 618.
• The sex ratio of India is 943.
• The home minister of India is Mr.Amit Shah.

The correct answer is Central Business District.

Key Points

• Central Business District is the Heart of the City.
• Central Business District is referred to as CBD.
• CBD is the first ring of the concentric zone model.
• The Heart of the city has many tallest buildings, offices, high land value, commercial and retail stores.
• It has large shopping and banking areas, and government buildings.
• It is mainly located at the Centre of the city.
• It is accessible from all parts of the city.
• Major rail and road routes are present.

Additional Information

• Concentric zone model:

• Zone of Better Residence:
• The fourth ring is called the zone of better residences.
• This zone is dominated by middle-class families.
• Zone of the independent workers:
• The third ring is called the zone of independent workers.
• This zone is occupied by a working-class household.
• Commuter's Zone:
• The fifth ring is called the commuter’s zone
• Most people living here have to commute to work every day.

The Correct Answer is Ashok Mitra.

Key Points

• Former Census of India Registrar General Ashok Mitra attempted a systematic classification of all Indian cities.
• He divided the seven factory worker categories into three categories:
• Manufacturing Town
• Trade and Transport Town
• Service Town
• A triangular method on a graph was used to determine the degree of specialization in each of the three basic classes (a, b, and c).
• Ashok Mitra was a Marxist politician and economist from India. He served as the Government of India's chief economic advisor before becoming the finance minister of West Bengal and a member of the Rajya Sabha.
• Many towns and cities have specialized services and are popular for them.
• The following is a classification of Indian cities based on their dominant or specialized function: 
• Administrative towns
• Industrial Towns
• Transport cities
• Commercial towns
• Mining towns
• Garrison cantonment towns
• Education town
• Religion and cultural town
• Tourism town

The Correct Answer is 1979 AD.

Key Points

• In India, there is a national award for child welfare. The award, which was founded in 1979, is given to "institutions and individuals who have excelled in the field of child development and welfare."
• A cash prize of $100,000 (for individuals) and$300,000 (for organizations) is included in the award (for institutions).
• It is important to remember such individuals and organizations because they support the government's efforts.
• The award has been renamed the Bal Kalyan Puraskar as of 2018.

Additional Information

• The National Child Award for Exceptional Achievement was established in 1996 to honor children who have shown exceptional abilities and accomplishments in the areas of creativity, scholastic achievement, social service, arts and culture, and sports.
• Each awardee receives a plaque as well as a monetary reward. The award was renamed the Bal Shakti Puraskar in 2018, and the accomplishments of children in the field of bravery were also recognized.

The Correct Answer is Tansley.

Key Points

• The word "ecosystem" was coined by British ecologist Arthur Tansley in a 1935 publication.
• Tansley came up with the idea to emphasize the importance of material transfers between species and their surroundings.
• Tansley saw ecosystems as "mental isolates," rather than just natural units.
• Tansley coined the word "ecotope" to describe the spatial extent of ecosystems. An ecosystem is a group of living organisms that communicate as a system with the nonliving elements of their environment.
• Nutrient cycles and energy flows bind these biotic and abiotic components together.
• External and internal factors influence how ecosystems work.
• External factors such as climate, parent material that shapes soil, and topography affect an ecosystem's overall structure.

The Correct Answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra state incorporated ‘Environmental Education’ as a subject in the school curriculum for the first time.
• Following the order of the Honourable Supreme Court of India, environmental education (EE) has been implemented as a standard course in the formal school education system in India.
• Prior to this order, many EE-related programmes in schools and communities were in place throughout the world.
• One of these programmes was the federally funded "Environmental Orientation to School Education (EOSE)" initiative.
• It was hoped that by using local examples and resources, this curriculum would help to orient schoolchildren to their immediate surroundings.
• The Scheme will be implemented by three Nodal Agencies named by the Ministry of Human Resource Development of the Government of India.
• The Ministry named three nodal agencies based on these goals:
• The Centre for Environment Education (CEE) in Ahmedabad
• CPR Environment Education in Chennai
• Uttarakhand Seva Nidhi in Almora
• These nodal agencies were tasked with developing and implementing environmental education programmes in schools, in collaboration with other state government agencies and non-governmental organisations.

The correct answer is Chlorofluorocarbons(CFCs).

Key Points

• The main reason behind ozone layer depletion is Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas.
• Other gases like carbon tetrachloride, Halon, Freon also destroy the ozone layer.
• Ozone layer depletion is the thinning of the ozone layer present in the atmosphere.
• The depletion happens when carbon and bromine molecule of the atmosphere comes in touch with ozone.
• 1000 molecules of ozone can be destroyed by one molecule of chlorine.

Important Points

• Ozone:
• Chemical Formula: O3
• Ozone is the Allotropes of oxygen.
• The Colour of the ozone is Light blue.
• Ozone Day: 16 September.
• The ozone layer is the protection guard of Earth.
• It protects us from UV rays.
• The thickness of the ozone layer is measured in Dobson.
• The spectrophotometer is used to measure ozone depletion.
• The ozone layer is thick at the pole and thin at the Equator.
• Montreal protocol:
• It was proposed in 1987 for the protection of the ozone layer.
• Montreal is the city of Canada.
• The main aim of the protocol is to stop the import or export of ozone-depleting substances.
• List of ozone-depleting substance and their sources:

• India declared freon gas-free in 1999.
• India declared halon gas-free in 2003.

​

The Correct Answer is Indira Gandhi Canal.

Key Points

• The Indira Gandhi Canal is a significant step toward reclaiming the Thar Desert and preventing desertification in agricultural areas.
• In 1965, a planting programme to green the desert in the vicinity of the Indira Gandhi Canal was launched. India's longest canal is the Indira Gandhi Canal.
• It begins at Harike, a few kilometres below the confluence of the Satluj and Beas rivers in the Indian state of Punjab, and ends at irrigation facilities in the Thar Desert in Rajasthan's northwestern corner.
• It was previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, but after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's assassination on November 2, 1984, it was called the Indira Gandhi Canal.
• The canal is divided into two sections: the Rajasthan feeder canal, which runs for 167 kilometres in Punjab and Haryana and another 37 kilometres in Rajasthan, and the Rajasthan main canal, which runs for 445 kilometres entirely within Rajasthan.
• Dynamic trend of land degradation along the Indira Gandhi Canal has been observed especially in the areas around Jaisalmer District
  

Important Points

• The Ganges Canal is an irrigation system that runs between the Ganges River and the Yamuna River in India, irrigating the Doab area.
• The Sirhind Canal is a large irrigation canal in Punjab, India, that transports water from the Sutlej River. It was built in 1882 CE and is one of the oldest and largest irrigation works in the Indus river system.
• The Agra Canal is a significant Indian irrigation project that runs from Okhla in Delhi to Agra. The Agra canal begins at the Okhla barrage, which is located downstream of the Nizamuddin bridge.

The correct answer is Totality of all species, all genes, and all ecosystems.

Key Points 

• The total variety of life found on earth is called biodiversity.
• Biodiversity refers to the variation of living organisms at the genetic and species level.
• Healthy biodiversity creates a good and healthy ecosystem.
• Convention for the conservation of biodiversity:
• Cartegena convention
• Nagoya convention

The correct answer is Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen oxide

Key Points

• Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide are both parts of smog (which is usually not visible ) and acid rain.
• Sulphur dioxide comes from the burning of coal and oil.
• It is very smelly.
• The main sources of SO₂ are power plants.
• Nitrogen oxide comes from the burning of fossil fuels (like gasoline). The main sources of NO are cars, trucks, and power plants.

Important Points

• Acid rain:
• It is a broad term that includes any form of precipitation with acidic components, such as sulfuric or nitric acid that fall to the ground from the atmosphere in wet or dry forms.
• This can include rain, snow, fog, hail or even dust that is acidic.
• ​​Causes of Acid Rain:
• ​Burning of fossil fuels to generate electricity.
• Two-thirds of SO₂ and one-fourth of NO_X in the atmosphere come from electric power generators.
• Vehicles and heavy equipment.
• Manufacturing, oil refineries and other industries.
• Measuring of Acid Rain:
• ​Acidity and alkalinity are measured using a pH scale for which 7.0 is neutral.
• The lower a substance's pH (less than 7), the more acidic it is; the higher a substance's pH (greater than 7), the more alkaline it is. Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6; it is slightly acidic because carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves into it forming weak carbonic acid.
• Acid rain usually has a pH between 4.2 and 4.4.

Additional Information

The correct match for the given code is:

(A) - (2), (B) - (4), (C) - (3), (D) - (1)

Explanation:

A. Megatherm matches with 2. Equatorial Region.

B. Mesotherm matches with 4. Temperate Region.

C. Microtherm matches with 3. Tropical Region.

D. Hekistherm matches with 1. Tundra Region.

Key Points

(A) - (2): Megatherm refers to plants adapted to hot and humid climates.

• These types of plants are commonly found in the Equatorial Region, which is characterized by high temperatures, high humidity, and abundant rainfall.
• Therefore, the correct match for Megatherm is the Equatorial Region, coded as (2).

(B) - (4): Mesotherm refers to plants adapted to moderate climates.

• These plants thrive in temperate regions, which experience moderate temperatures and distinct seasons. The Temperate Region is known for its moderate climate and is the appropriate match for Mesotherm, coded as (4).

(C) - (3): Microtherm refers to plants adapted to cold climates.

• These plants are typically found in regions with low temperatures, such as the Arctic and subarctic regions.
• The Tropical Region, characterized by its warm and humid climate, is not the correct match for Microtherm. Therefore, the Tropical Region should be coded as (3).

(D) - (1): Hekistherm is not a widely recognized term for classifying plants based on climatic regions.

• Hence, it cannot be accurately matched to any specific climatic region.
• As a result, the Tundra Region, known for its cold temperatures and low-lying vegetation, is the most suitable match for Hekistherm and should be coded as (1).

Based on the correct matches, the accurate match is (A) - (2), (B) - (4), (C) - (3), (D) - (1).

The Correct Answer is SC/STs and Women.

Key Points

• The Stand Up India Scheme helps at least one scheduled caste (SC) or scheduled tribe (ST), borrower, and at least one woman borrower per bank branch to set up a greenfield enterprise with bank loans ranging from ten lakh to one crore.
• This enterprise/company may be in the manufacturing, retail, or trading industries.
• In non-individual companies, at least 51 percent of the shareholding and controlling interest should be owned by an SC/ST or a woman entrepreneur.
• Eligibility: 
• Age: 18 years or above
• Only greenfield projects are eligible for the scheme's loans. In this sense, GreenField denotes the beneficiary's first foray into the manufacturing, services, or trading sectors.
• The stand-up India Portal provides prospective borrowers with information on various types of handholding assistance from various agencies, as well as a window to contact banks to obtain loans.

The Correct Answer is Ahmedabad – Mumbai Route.

Key Points

• According to a final feasibility study prepared by a Japanese government agency, India's first bullet train corridor between Mumbai and Ahmedabad would cost nearly Rs one lakh crore, with the first train expected to operate in 2024.
• The Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) proposes cutting the travel time on the 505-kilometer corridor between the two western cities from over seven hours to two hours.
• According to the survey, the project, which will see the bullet train travel at speeds of over 300 km per hour, will cost Rs 98,805 crore.
• Takeshi Yagi, the Japanese Ambassador to India, led an official JICA delegation to present a report on the bullet corridor to Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu, which is considered Prime Minister Narendra Modi's pet project.
• By 2023, it is anticipated that about 40,000 passengers will use this service on a daily basis, making it a financially viable service.
• Trains would be able to travel at a peak speed of 350 km/h on the Mumbai-Ahmedabad corridor.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• Sikkim:
• India’s first 100 percent organic state. all farming in Sikkim is carried out without the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, providing access to safer food choices and making agriculture a more environment-friendly activity.
• But when the Delhi-based non-profit Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) visited 16 farms spread over the four districts of the state North Sikkim, South Sikkim, West Sikkim, and East Sikkim November 2016, it found that the farmers’ experience of organic farming was far from satisfactory. The findings of this survey hold lessons for the rest of the country.
• Sikkim is famous for red hot cherry pepper Dalle Khursani has earned its Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

Important Points

• Organic Farming: Agriculture in an organic way involves the use of many non-chemical inputs like manure, compost, animal manure, plants and trees, fruits and vegetables, etc.
• It should be noted that the production of foodstuff needs lots of inputs, which will be consumed in the form of fertilizer, insecticides, pesticides, etc. These chemicals do no good to the soil and ultimately they are stored in the water, which has to be cleaned and treated regularly.
• So, the key point of agriculture in an organic way is to increase the biological productivity in the agricultural field and this can be achieved with the help of biological products like manure, compost, animal dung, etc.

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Brendon McCullum.

Key Points

• On the 20th of February 2016, Brendon McCullum scored the fastest ever Test century in 54 balls, breaking the 56-ball record set by his idol, Vivian Richards, who scored 145 off 79 balls.
• Brendon Barrie McCullum is a New Zealand cricket coach, commentator, and former player who has represented his country in all formats.
• He is also a former captain in all formats. McCullum also brought quick scoring to Test matches, setting a record for the fastest test century ever.
• He is regarded as one of New Zealand cricket's most prolific batsmen and captains.
• In August 2016, he announced his retirement from all forms of cricket.
• On February 18, 2014, he became the first New Zealander to score a triple century in a Test, scoring 302 runs against India.
• He was also the first New Zealander to reach 1000 test runs in a calendar year in 2014. (1164).

The Correct Answer is Natural Gas.

Key Points

• The Turkmenistan–Afghanistan–Pakistan–India Pipeline (TAPI) is a natural gas pipeline being built by Galkynysh – TAPI Pipeline Company Limited with Asian Development Bank participation.
• The pipeline will carry natural gas from Turkmenistan's Galkynysh Gas Field via Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India.
• The project's construction began in Turkmenistan on December 13, 2015, with work on the Afghan portion beginning in February 2018, and the Pakistani section set to begin in December 2018.
• The initial letters of those countries form the abbreviation TAPI. The project's supporters see it as a modern-day continuation of the Silk Road.
• The origins of this project can be traced back to foreign oil firms' involvement in Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan in the early 1990s.
• Since Russia, which controls all of these countries' export pipelines, has continuously refused to allow their use, these companies required an independent export route that avoided both Iran and Russia.
• The original project began on March 15, 1995, when the governments of Turkmenistan and Pakistan signed the first memorandum of understanding for a pipeline project.

The correct answer is Year of Cultural Heritage.

• The year 2016-17 will be observed by SAARC nations as the Year of Cultural Heritage.
• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation, or SAARC.
• SAARC is an economic and geopolitical organization that was established to promote socio-economic development, stability, and welfare economics, and collective self-reliance within its member nations.
• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation was founded on 8 December 1985, Dhaka, Bangladesh.

Key Points

• Esala Ruwan Weerakoon of Sri Lanka assumed the office of the Secretary-General of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) on 01 March 2020.
• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Headquarter is located in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• The first SAARC summit was held in Dhaka, Bangladesh on 7–8 December 1985.

Important Points

<br>

SAARC Nations are:

The correct answer is Her sons are British Citizens.

• Aung San Suu Kyi was barred from swearing-in as the President of Myanmar because Her sons are British Citizens.
• Ms. Aung San Suu Kyi is the daughter of Myanmar's independence hero, General Aung San.
• Aung San Suu Kyi born on 19 June 1945, Yangon, Myanmar (Burma)
• Aung San Suu Kyi is a Burmese politician, diplomat, author, and a 1991 Nobel Peace Prize laureate who served as State Counsellor of Myanmar and Minister of Foreign Affairs from 2016 to 2021.
• In 1991 Nobel Peace Prize for Aung San Suu Kyi of Myanmar (Burma) for her non-violent struggle for democracy and human rights.

Key Points

Major awards Aung San Suu Kyi are: 

Additional Information

Famous books of Aung San Suu Kyi are:

The correct answer is Zika.

Key Points

• On 1 February 2016, the Director-General convened the first meeting of the Emergency Committee (EC) under the International Health Regulations (2005) (IHR 2005) regarding clusters of microcephaly cases and other neurological disorders in some Zika virus-affected areas through teleconference.
• The Committee was briefed by the WHO Secretariat on microcephaly and Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) clusters that have been temporally linked to Zika virus transmission in certain settings.
• Additional information on the past of the Zika virus, its propagation, clinical manifestations, and epidemiology was presented to the Committee.
• Brazil, France, the United States of America, and El Salvador provided information on a possible connection between microcephaly and other neurological disorders and the Zika virus.
• Following a similar cluster in French Polynesia in 2014, the Committee advised that the new cluster of microcephaly cases and other neurological disorders identified in Brazil constitutes a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC).

• Zika is spread mostly by the bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito (Ae. aegypti and Ae. albopictus).
• These mosquitoes bite during the day and night.
• Zika can be passed from a pregnant woman to her fetus.
• Infection during pregnancy can cause certain birth defects.
• There is no vaccine or medicine for Zika.

Additional Information

• Ebola is an infectious hemorrhagic fever caused by ebolaviruses in humans and other primates.
• Swine flue 
• It was a recent influenza pandemic involving the H1N1 influenza virus (the first being the 1918–1920 Spanish flu pandemic and the second being the 1977 Russian flu).
• It lasted about 19 months, from January 2009 to August 2010.
• The Chikungunya virus causes the Chikungunya infection (CHIKV).

The Correct Answer is Paris and Brussels.

Key Points

• The November 2015 Paris attacks, the July 2016 Nice truck attack, the June 2016 Atatürk Airport attack, the March 2016 Brussels bombings, and the May 2017 Manchester Arena bombing were the deadliest IS terrorist attacks.
• Significant security operations and plans, such as Operation Sentinelle in France, Operation Vigilant Guardian and the Brussels lockdown in Belgium, and Operation Temperer in the United Kingdom, have been launched in response to these attacks and threats.
• Since the late twentieth century, the Islamic State (ISIL) or Al-Qaeda, as well as Islamist lone wolves, have carried out Islamic terrorism in Europe.
• In its annual EU Terrorism Situation and Trend study (TE-SAT), Europol used the terms "Islamist terrorism" from 2006 to 2010, "religiously motivated terrorism" from 2011 to 2014, and "jihadist terrorism" since 2015.

The correct answer is Rio de Janeiro and Tokyo.

• Rio de Janeiro and Tokyo cities are hosts for the 2016 and 2020 Olympic Games.
• The Olympic Games are an international sports festival, held every four years.
• The ultimate goals are to cultivate human beings, through sport, and contribute to world peace. Summer Games and Winter Games are held separately.

Key Points

• The first modern Olympics took place in 1896 in Athens.
• Since 1994, the Summer and Winter Olympic Games have been held separately and have alternated every two years.

Important Points

 

  

Additional Information

<br>

Host cities for Summer and Winter Olympic Games:

 

The Correct Answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• According to the Delhi Statistical Hand Book-2015, released by Deputy Chief Minister Manish Sisodia, Delhi had the highest per capita income among states in 2014-15.
• Among all the states, Delhi had the highest per capita income of Rs 2,40,849 in 2014-15. In contrast to 2013-14, it has increased by Rs 28,630.

Additional Information

• The average income received per person in a given area (city, region, country, etc.) in a given year is measured by per capita income (PCI).
• It is determined by dividing the total income of the area by the total population of the area. National income divided by population size equals per capita income.
• Per capita income is often used to compare the wealth of various communities and to calculate a sector's average income.
• The standard of living of a nation is often measured using per capita income.
• It's typically expressed in terms of a widely used foreign currency like the euro or the US dollar, and it's useful because it's well-known, easy to calculate using readily available GDP and population figures, and provides a useful statistic for comparing wealth between sovereign territories.

The correct answer is Arvind Pangariya.

• Arvind Pangariya is the Vice Chairman of the NITI Aayog of India.
• The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015.
• NITI Aayog is the premier policy Think Tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
• As of April 2022, Suman Berry is the present Vice-Chairman of the NITI Aayog of India.

Key Points

• Dr. Arvind Panagariya is Vice-Chairman, Niti Aayog, and has been Professor of Indian Political Economy at Columbia University.
• He is a former Chief Economist of the Asian Development Bank and Professor of Economics at the University of Maryland at College Park.
• Dr. Arvind Panagariyas Famous Books are:
• The Emerging Giant (2008)
• How should tariffs be structured? (1990)
• Indian Economy: Retrospect and Prospect (2013)

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Bharat Kavi.

Key Points

• Manodaya Kavya was composed by Bharat Kavi.
• Manshah was a Garhwali king who had a poet called Bharat in his court. He was the author of the Manodaya Kavya.

Additional Information

• The Garhwal Kingdom was a sovereign state in India's northwestern Himalayan state of Uttarakhand, established in 823 AD by Kanak Pal, the progenitor of the Panwar dynasty, which ruled the kingdom until 1803.
• During the British Raj, the kingdom was divided into two parts: the princely state of Garhwal and the Garhwal District of British India.
• The princely state of Garhwal, also known as Independent Garhwal, encompassed the present-day Tehri Garhwal district as well as the majority of Uttarkashi.

The Correct Answer is 130.

Key Points

• India has been ranked 130th out of 188 countries in the 2015 Human Development Index (HDI), according to the Human Development Report 2015.
• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) published the report (UNDP). The HDI is a UNDP-measured average of a country's specific human development achievements.
• In 2015, India was ranked 130th in the medium human development category, with a score of 0.609. In the 2014 report, the country was ranked 135th with a 0.586 ranking.
• India was categorized as having a medium level of human growth. The country's HDI ranking remained strong, but it rose five places to 130th in the latest UNDP report due to increases in life expectancy and per capita income.
• Norway (1st), Australia (2nd), and Switzerland (3rd) are the top three countries in the 2015 HDI (3rd).

Important Points

• The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report issued by the United Nations Development Programme's Human Development Report Office (UNDP).
• In 1990, Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen launched the first HDR.
• Since then, annual reports have been issued on a variety of topics using the human development strategy, which puts people at the core of the development process.

The correct answer is There is no foreign trade.

• A closed economy is one that has no trading activity with outside economies.
• The closed economy is therefore entirely self-sufficient, which means no imports come into the country and no exports leave the country.
• An economy in which no activity is conducted with outside economies. For eg. - Morocco, Algeria, etc.
• A closed economy is self-sufficient meaning that no imports are brought in and no exports are sent out.
• The closed economy goal is to provide consumers with everything that they need from within the economy's borders.

Key Points

• A closed economy is completely self-sufficient, with no imports or exports from international trade.
• The need for raw materials produced elsewhere that play a vital role as inputs to final goods makes closed economies inefficient.
• A government may close off a specific industry from the international competition through the use of quotas, subsidies, and tariffs.
• In reality, there are no nations that have economies that are completely closed.

Additional Information

• Economic systems can be categorized into four main types:
• ​Traditional economic system.
• Command economic system.
• Market economic system.
• Mixed system.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The National Institute for Rural Development (NIRD) is situated in Hyderabad.
• The National Institute for Rural Development (NIRD) was founded in 2006.
• The National Institute of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj is the apex body for undertaking training, research, and action research, and consultancy assignments in the rural development sector in India.
• The mission of NIRD & PR is to facilitate rural development vigorously through governmental and non-governmental initiatives.

Additional Information

 

The correct answer is On all stages between production and sale.

Key Points

• A VAT is an abbreviation for Value-Added Tax, which is a tax levied on businesses at any stage of the manufacturing and distribution process, usually when a commodity is resold or given a monetary value.
• A VAT is based on the difference between a product's retail price and the price at which it can be sold, such as the amount of value-added to it.
• Raisers and sellers usually pass on the cost of VAT to the final customer in the form of price increases. Each time a good changes hands, a tax is added to its value before it is shipped to the consumer, at which point the closing tax is charged.
• VAT effectively compensates for the state-provided shared service and infrastructure that was used in the provision of that product or service in a specific location and subsidized by its taxpayers.
• VAT is not required in all jurisdictions, and exports are often excluded.
• VAT is typically enforced as a destination-based tax, in which the tax rate is determined by the consumer's position and added to the purchase price.
• During World War I, Germany and France were the first countries to introduce VAT, which they did in the form of a general sales levy.

The Correct Answer is American Trade Law.

Key Points

• Section 301 of the United States Trade Act of 1974 empowers the President to take any necessary action, including tariff-based and non-tariff-based retaliation, to remove any act, regulation, or practice of a foreign government that burdens or restricts U.S. commerce and violates an international trade agreement or is unjustified, unfair, or discriminatory.
• The United States Trade Representative (USTR) may initiate Section 301 cases on its own or as a result of a petition filed by a company or industry group. If the USTR opens a Section 301 inquiry, it must try to reach an agreement with the foreign government, either by compensation or trade elimination.
• The United States Trade Representative (USTR) may initiate Section 301 cases on its own or as a result of a petition filed by a company or industry group.
• Super 301 required the USTR to issue a report on its trade priorities for 1989 and 1990, as amended by section 1302 of the Omnibus Foreign Trade and Competitiveness Act, and to identify priority foreign countries that practiced unfair trade and priority practices that had the greatest effect on restricting U.S. exports.
• The initial terms of Super 301 were set to expire in 1991. President Clinton, on the other hand, released Executive Order 12901, reactivating Super 301 for a two-year period (1994 and 1995). EO 12973 (September 1995) expanded the Super 301 phase through 1997, but it was not in use in 1998. Super 301 was re-instated for three years on March 31, 1999, and amended by EO 13116.

The correct answer is Dr. Verghese Kurien.

• Dr. Verghese Kurien is called the Father of White Revolution in India.
• White Revolution was one of the biggest dairy development movements in India in 1970.
• This program created a national milk grid, linking producers throughout India, reducing seasonal price fluctuations, and ensuring milk producers get a major share of the income generated from end consumers.
• This program also made sure farmers get fair market prices on a regular basis. All this was achieved by the cooperative structure.

Key Points

• The White Revolution took several phases are:
• Phase 1: Started in 1970 with the objective of setting up dairy cooperatives in 18 milk sheds in India’s four major metropolitan cities.
• Phase 2: From 1981 to 1985, there was an increase in the number of milk sheds from 18 to 136; with 290 urban markets opening up and increasing the number of milk outlets.
• Phase 3: From 1985 to 1996, cooperatives further expanded and the infrastructure was further strengthened to increase production.

Important Points

The correct answer is Tax on local fairs.

• Tax on local fairs taxes collected by Panchayats in India.
• The sources of income of the village Panchayat (gram Panchayat) may be divided into some broad headings. Each Gram Panchayat has its own fund.
• The Panchayati Raj generally refers to the local self-government of villages in rural India as opposed to urban and suburban municipalities, this system was introduced by a constitutional amendment in 1992.

Key Points

• Taxes in Village Panchayats are:
• ​House Tax.
• Profession Tax.
• Vehicle Tax.
• Tax on agricultural land and for specific purposes.
• Water Tax.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Champaran, Ahmedabad, Kheda, Non-cooperation.

Key Points

• The tale of Champaran (Bihar) starts in the early nineteenth century when European planters forced cultivators to cultivate indigo in 3/20th of their land holdings (Tin-Kathia).
• However, when indigo became unprofitable, European planters levied higher taxes to compensate for their losses in the foreign trade.
• Gandhi succeeded in abolishing the Tin-Kathia scheme in July 1917, and the cultivators received a salary refund.
• The mill owners and employees in Ahmedabad (March 1918) were fighting over the so-called "plague bonus," which the former decided to keep after the epidemic was over.
• Due to crop failure, the peasants of Kheda district (1917-1918) were in dire straits, and the government ignored their pleas for land revenue remission.
• Kheda's peasants were already struggling due to disease, high prices, and drought.
• Gandhi went on his first hunger strike in Ahmedabad in 1918 to protest a pay increase for mill employees.

Additional Information

• The Champaran Satyagraha(19 April 1917- 13 May 1917)
• This was his first act of civil disobedience.
• The Rowlatt Satyagraha(6 April 1919 - March 1922)
• This was his first all-India Satyagraha.
• The Kheda Satyagraha(22 March - 5 June 1918) 
• ​This was his first non-cooperation movement.
• The first Non-Cooperation Movement
• ​It was founded on 1 August 1920.

The Correct Answer is Sangha or Mandal of Tamil poets.

Key Points

• From the 6th century BCE to the 3rd century CE, the Sangam period encompassed ancient Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and parts of Sri Lanka (then known as Tamilakam).
• It was named after the illustrious Madurai-based Sangam academies of poets and scholars.
• The word Tamilakam referred to the entire ancient Tamil-speaking region, roughly corresponding to what is now known as southern India, and included the present-day Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, parts of Andhra Pradesh, parts of Karnataka, and northern Sri Lanka, also known as Eelam.
• There were three Sangam periods, according to Tamil legends: Head Sangam, Middle Sangam, and Last Sangam.
• Historians refer to the last of these as the Sangam age, with the first two being legendary. As a result, it's also known as the Last Sangam Period or the Third Sangam Period.
• Every period's Sangam literature is thought to have been created in three Sangam academies.
• Between 600 BCE and 300 CE, the three Tamil dynasties of Pandya, Chola, and Chera, as well as a few independent chieftains were known as the Velir, ruled Tamilakam.

The correct answer is Chandel Kings.

• Chandel Kings built the Khajuraho temples.
• The temples at Khajuraho belong to two different religions Hinduism and Jainism.
• Chandella dynasty ruled the region in the 10th and 11th centuries CE.
• Most Khajuraho temples were built between 885 AD and 1050 AD by the Chandela dynasty.

Key Points

• The Chandelas were originally vassals of the Gurjara-Pratiharas.
• Nannuka (r. c. 831-845 CE) was the founder of the Chandela dynasty of India. He ruled in the Jejakabhukti region (Bundelkhand in present-day Madhya Pradesh).

Additional Information

The correct answer is Satyagraha Ashram.

• The real name of Sabarmati Ashram is Satyagraha Ashram.
• Sabarmati Ashram is located in the Sabarmati suburb of Ahmedabad, Gujarat, on the banks of the River Sabarmati.
• The Sabarmati Ashram was home to Mohandas Gandhi from 1917 until 1930 and served as one of the main centers of the Indian freedom struggle.

Key Points

• Gandhi’s first Ashram in India was established in the Kochrab area of Ahmedabad on 25 May 1915.
• The Ashram was then shifted on 17 June 1917 to a piece of open land on the banks of the river Sabarmati.
• The reason for Ashram's shift was because Gandhi wanted to do some experiments in living e.g. farming, animal husbandry, cow breeding, Khadi, and related constructive activities, for which he was in search of this kind of barren land.
• on 12 March 1930, Gandhi launched the famous Dandi March 241 miles from the Sabarmati Ashram in protest of the British Salt Law.

Additional Information

• Famous places in Gujarat are:
• Junagadh old fort.
• Akshardham Temple in Gandhinagar.
• Champaner-Pavagarh Archaeological Park.
• Sasan Gir National Park.
• Dwarkadhish Temple.
• Rani ka Vav, Patan.
• Mirror Palace, Bhuj.
• Somnath Temple.
• Rann of Kutch.

The correct answer is Nationalist and Secular.

• From 1906 to 1920, the role of Md. Ali Jinnah during the freedom struggle of India was Nationalist and secular.
• Secularism the principle seeking to conduct human affairs based on secular, naturalistic considerations.
• Political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism, etc.- their forms and effect on the society; Social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism

Key Points

• Mohammed Ali Jinnah was born on 25 December 1876 in Karachi, now in Pakistan, but then part of British-controlled India.
• Jinnah was an Indian politician who successfully campaigned for an independent Pakistan and became its first leader.
• He is known there as Quaid-I Azam or Great Leader.
• Muhammad Ali Jinnah was a barrister, politician, and founder of Pakistan.
• Jinnah served as the leader of the All-India Muslim League from 1913 until the inception of Pakistan on 14 August 1947, and then as the Dominion of Pakistan's first Governor-General until his death.

Additional Information

• Mohammed Ali Jinnah's famous books are:

The correct answer is Wahishkrit Samaj.

Key Points

• The Wahishkrit Samaj was published for removing difficulties of the untouchables and placing their grievances before the government.
• The Wahishkrit Hitakarni Sabha was a central institution formed by B.R. Ambedkar for the same purpose.
• B.R. Ambedkar is also known as the 'Father of the Constitution.
• He was the Chairman of the Drafting Commission Commission of the Constituent Assembly.

Important Points

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar adopted various means to safeguard Dalit rights.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar provided certain constitutional provisions to protect the rights of Dalits in social, economic, educational, employment, and political fields, in the form of protective discriminations or preferential treatments or reservation policy.
• Ambedkar launched a movement against Dalit rights Ambedkar launched a movement against Dalit discrimination by creating public opinion through his writing in several periodicals.
• For the defence of Dalit rights, he started five periodicals – Mooknayak, Bahishkrit Bharat, Samta (Equality, 1928), Janata (The People, 1930), and Prabuddha Bharat (Enlightened India, 1956).

Additional Information

• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, born April 14, 1891, Mhow, India and leader of the Dalits (Scheduled Castes; formerly called untouchables) and law minister of the government of India (1947–51).
• In 1935, Ambedkar was appointed principal of the Government Law College, Bombay, a position he held for two years.
• In 1936, Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party, which contested the 1937 Bombay election to the Central Legislative Assembly.
• On 29 August 1947, he was appointed Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee and was appointed by the Assembly to write India's new Constitution.

The Correct Answer is June 30, 1948.

Key Points

• Clement Attlee, the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, declared on 20 February 1947 that India would be granted "absolute self-government" by June 30, 1948.
• Lord Mountbatten, a member of the royal family and a top British naval officer, was chosen to supervise the constitution-making process for the same purpose.
• From 1858 to 1947, the British Crown ruled over the Indian subcontinent under the British Raj. In India, the law is referred to as Crown rule or direct rule.
• In contemporaneous use, the region under British jurisdiction was referred to as India, and it included both areas directly controlled by the United Kingdom, known as British India, and areas governed by indigenous rulers but under British tutelage or paramountcy, known as princely states. The area was known as the Indian Empire, but not officially.
• The new Dominion of Pakistan (later the Islamic Republic of Pakistan), with Muhammad Ali Jinnah as governor-general, and the Dominion of India (later the Republic of India), with Jawaharlal Nehru as prime minister and the viceroy, Louis Mountbatten, remaining as its first governor-general, were established on August 15, 1947, with official ceremonies held in Karachi on 14 August and New Delhi on 15 August.

The Correct Answer is Firoz-Shah-Tughlaq.

Key Points

• Sultan Firoz Shah Tughlaq was a Muslim ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty who ruled over the Sultanate of Delhi from 1351 to 1388.
• Following the death of his cousin Muhammad bin Tughlaq in Thatta, Sindh, where Muhammad bin Tughlaq had gone in search of Taghi, the ruler of Gujarat, he succeeded him.
• For the first time in the history of the Delhi Sultanate, a situation arose in which no one was willing to accept authority.
• Firoz was persuaded to accept the duty by the camp followers after much persuasion.
• He was the first Sultan in India who started the work of translation of Hindu Religious texts into the Persian Language.
• Firoz Shah Tughlaq is remembered in part through his 32-page autobiography, Futuhat-e-firozshahi. In 1351, he was 42 years old when he became Sultan of Delhi. He was in power until 1388.

Important Points

The correct answer is Shahanshah.

• Shahanshah was the highest gold coin in the reign of Akbar.
• Akbar was the only Mughal emperor who issued 26 types (varieties) of gold coins.
• Akbar reign some popular gold coins are Emperor, Rahas, Atmah, Binsat, Jugul, Lalejalali, Aftabi, llahi, Lale Jalahi, Adalgutka, Maherabi, Muini, Gird, Dhan, Salimi, Man, Samni, Kala, Rabi and Shahenshah.
• The Shahenshah gold coin weighed 102 tolas Most of these were commemorative coins his name was struck on Shahrukhi silver coins either with and without titles on the reverse, which read as Jalaluddin Muhammad Akbar.

Key Points

• The most interesting aspect of the coins of Akbar is the symbols used on them. A duck was depicted on gold mohur from Agra mint and a rupee from Berar mint.
• A Hawk was depicted on a commemorative coin that was issued to celebrate the victory over fort Asirgarh.
• Kalpi rupees feature a fish and a tortoise can be seen on coins from Hazrat Delhi Mint.
• A Trishul symbol appears on one of the Agra rupees and the Surya or the sun appears on one of the rupees from Hissar Firooza mint.

  

 

Additional Information

• Akbar was born on October 15, 1542, at the Rajput Fortress of Umarkot in Sind.
• Akbar was the third Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1556 to 1605. Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun, under a regent, Bairam Khan.

The correct answer is Kanishka.

• King Kanishka started the Silk route for Indians.
• The great silk route to the Indians was opened by Kanishka. Silk Route was established during the reign of the Han Dynasty of China.
• Silk Route It connects China with East Europe Mediterranean countries and Central Asia, passing through India.

Key Points

• Kanishka was the most powerful ruler of the Kushana Empire. The capital of his empire was Purushpura (Peshawar).
• In Kanishka’s reign that Buddhism was divided into Mahayana and Hinayana.
• King Kanishka was the founder of the Shaka Era of A.D. 78.
• The famous poet in the court of Kanishka. His name was Ashwaghosha. Buddhacharita; a biography of Buddha was written by Ashvaghosha.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Former kings.

Key Points

• A privy purse was a payment made to the ruling families of former princely states in India as part of their agreements to first unite with India after India's independence in 1947, and then to merge their states in 1949, thus ending their ruling privileges.
• The royal families continued to receive privy purses until the 26th Amendment, which repealed all their privileges and allowances from the federal government and was enacted after a two-year legal battle.
• In some cases, privy purses were restored after a lengthy legal fight for persons who had exercised ruling powers prior to 1947; HH Maharani Sethu Lakshmi Bayi's allowance was reinstated and lasted until her death in 1985.
• Several factors influenced the size of the privy purses. Minor feudatories of the former princely states were given whatever allowances the princely governments could afford.
• The privy purses for the 565 princely states ranged from $5,000 to millions of dollars a year.
• In 1970, a motion to abolish the privy purses and formalize the titles was introduced in Parliament and passed in the Lok Sabha, but failed by one vote in the Rajya Sabha to achieve the requisite two-thirds majority, with 149 voting in favor and 75 votings against.

The Correct Answer is President.

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha is composed of 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by the President from among persons with special knowledge or practical experience in areas such as literature, science, art, and social service, and no more than 238 representatives from the States and Union Territories, according to the Constitution.
• Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly; those representing States are chosen by elected members of state legislative assemblies using the single transferable vote system, and those representing Union Territories are chosen in the manner prescribed by Parliament by statute.
• The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; every two years, one-third of its members retire. The Rajya Sabha currently has 245 seats.
• There are 233 members that serve the states and union territories, and the President nominates 12 members.

Important Points

• The Lok Sabha is made up of people's representatives who are elected by adult suffrage in a direct election.
• The Constitution specifies an overall House strength of 550 members (530 members to represent States, 20 to represent Union Territories).
• In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.

The correct answer is Centre.

Key Points

• In the Constitution of India, the Residuary powers are entrusted to the center.
• A residuary power is one that a governing body retains after delegating those rights to other authorities.
• Residuary Powers are special powers granted to the Union Government by the Constitution.
• The Parliament has the authority to enact legislation on any subject not covered by the Concurrent or State Lists.
• The three lists of residuary control are the union list, state list, and concurrent list. These powers do not fall under the statutory authority of either the state or the federal government.
• Parliament has exclusive authority to enact legislation on any subject not covered by the Concurrent or State Lists.
• Such authority includes the ability to enact any legislation imposing a tax not included on either of those lists.

The Correct Answer is 42nd.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved five subjects from the State to the Concurrent List.
• They are: 
• Education
• Forests
• Weights & Measures
• Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
• Administration of Justice

Important Points

• The Concurrent List, also known as List-III (Seventh Schedule), is a list of 52 items included in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution (though the last subject is numbered 47).
• It has the ability to be taken into account by both the federal and state governments. Union List, State List, and Concurrent List are the three lists that make up the legislative portion.
• In contrast to the federal governments of the United States, Switzerland, and Australia, the Union Government retains residual powers, as does the federal government of Canada.

Additional Information

• The 42nd Amendment changed India's designation from "sovereign democratic republic" to "sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic," as well as the terms "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation."
• The 42nd amendment also called the Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976, was passed by the Indian National Congress government led by Indira Gandhi during the Emergency (25 June 1975 – 21 March 1977).

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Uttarakhand state does not have Legislative Council.
• Uttarakhand was formed on the 9th November 2000 as the 27th State of India, when it was carved out of northern Uttar Pradesh.
• The states with bicameral legislatures include Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh. These states have both the Legislative Council and Legislative Assembly.

Important Points

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is the United States of America.

Key Points

• In the mid-1980s, the word PIL was coined in the United States. Various campaigns in that country had led to public interest law, which was part of the legal aid movement, since the nineteenth century.
• In 1876, the first legal aid office opened in New York.
• The PIL movement started to obtain financial support from the Office of Economic Opportunity in the 1960s, which enabled lawyers and public-spirited individuals to take on cases of the underprivileged and fight against environmental and public health threats, as well as the exploitation of customers and the poorer parts.
• Justice P. N. Bhagwati launched public interest litigation (PIL) as a means of securing public interest and demonstrating the provision of justice to socially vulnerable parties.
• It's a departure from the conventional locus standing rule. Prior to 1979, the Indian judiciary and the Supreme Court of India only heard cases from individuals that were directly or indirectly harmed by the defendant. Only its original and appellate jurisdictions were used to hear and resolve cases.
• The right to equality, life, and identity, which is guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution, is referred to as public interest litigation.
• It can also be used as a powerful tool for societal progress or social welfare. Through filing public interest litigation (PIL), any member of the public or person may seek redress on behalf of the oppressed class.

The correct answer is A Union of States.

• The Constitution of India declares India as A Union of States.
• India, a union of states, is a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic with a Parliamentary system of Government.
• Article 1 in the Constitution states that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
• The territory of India shall consist of: The territories of the states, The Union territories, and Any territory that may be acquired.
• India is a federal union comprising 28 states and 8 union territories, for a total of 36 entities. The states and union territories are further subdivided into districts and smaller administrative divisions.

Key Points

• Union Territories are administered by the President through an Administrator appointed by him/her.
• From the largest to the smallest, each State/UT of India has a unique demography, history, and culture, dress, festivals, language, etc.
• While submitting a draft constitution, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar stated that although the constitution is federal in structure the committee had used the term Union because of certain advantages which were explained in assembly indicate two things:
• ​Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the units.
• Component units have no freedom to secede from it.

Additional Information

• Two types of Union Territories in India are:
• Union territory with the legislature.
• Union territory without legislature.

The correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

• Supreme Court settles the dispute regarding the election of the President of India.
• Article 71 of the Indian Constitution, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court.
• The Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, an election petition can be filed before the Supreme Court.

 Additional Information

• How are the president and prime minister in India elected:
• Voters:- We, the voters of the country vote generally in two ways, or rather should I say two different types of election.
• State Assembly:- The state Assembly elections are those in which we choose our MLA's which further choose the CM of the state.
• Lok Sabha Elections:- These elections are the ones in which we choose MPs (Member of Parliament ) .
• Upper House (Rajya Sabha ):- The state assemblies select the member of Rajya Sabha from each state, the number varies depending upon the size and population of that particular state. The total number elected in this manner is 238 ( out of the total 250).
• Lower House (Lok Sabha):- As explained above, the voters directly cast votes to elect Members of Parliament from respective constituencies, the total number being 543.

The Correct Answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• The wealth drain was the amount of India's wealth and economy that was not accessible to Indians.
• Dadabhai Naoroji proposed the 'drain of wealth' hypothesis in 1867, claiming that Britain was draining India of all its wealth. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, a book that he wrote, stated this theory.
• The external drain was caused by six factors, according to Naoroji. Firstly, India was ruled by a foreign power. Second, India did not draw immigrants who would have brought labor and capital to help the country develop economically.
• Third, India footed the bill for Britain's civil administration and army in India. Fourth, India was responsible for the expansion of empires both within and outside of its borders.
• Fifth, by allowing free trade, foreigners were able to take high-paying jobs away from Indians who were equally skilled. Finally, since they were mainly foreign personnel, the main income earners would spend their money outside of India or leave with the money.

Important Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji, also known as the "Grand Old Man of India" and the "Unofficial Ambassador of India," was an Indian scholar, trader, and politician who served as a Liberal Party Member of Parliament (MP) in the United Kingdom House of Commons from 1892 to 1895.
• He was the first Asian to be a British MP other than Anglo-Indian MP David Ochterlony Dyce Sombre, who was disenfranchised for corruption.
• Naoroji is best known for his work with the Indian National Congress, of which he was a founding member and was elected president three times — in 1886, 1893, and 1906.

The Correct Answer is 1968.

Key Points

• In the early 1960s, Law Minister Ashoke Kumar Sen suggested the idea of a constitutional ombudsman in parliament. Adv. Shanti Bhushan introduced the first Jan Lokpal Bill in 1968, which was passed by the 4th Lok Sabha in 1969 but not by the Rajya Sabha.
• Dr. L.M.Singhvi invented the word "Lokpal" in 1963. In the Republic of India, a Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman body that serves the public interest.
• Pinaki Chandra Ghose is the new Lokpal Chairperson. The Lokpal has authority over the central government to investigate charges of corruption against its elected officials and other corruption-related matters.
• Following Anna Hazare's Jan Lokpal movement in 2011, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed with amendments in parliament in 2013. Since the relevant Act of Parliament was passed in India in March of this year.
• On March 23, 2019, a committee comprised of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogoi, and Lok Sabha speaker Sumitra Mahajan appointed retired Supreme Court judge Pinaki Chandra Ghose as India's first Lokpal, with members appointed on March 27, 2019.

The correct answer is Hind Swaraj.

Key Points

• In 1909, Mohandas K. Gandhi published Hind Swaraj, or Indian Home Rule.
• He discusses Swaraj, modern life, mechanization, and other topics. The book was declared a seditious text by the British government in India in 1910.
• While traveling from London to South Africa on the SS Kildonan Castle, Mohandas Gandhi wrote this book in Gujarati, his native language. It's been translated into French as well.
• On its publication in India, the British authorities banned the Gujarati translation of Hind Swaraj.

​

Important Points

• The India of My Dreams book was written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1947.
• Key to the Health book was written by Mahatma Gandhi and was published in October 1948.
• The Story of My Experiments with Truth (Gujarati: Satya Na Prayogo athva Atmakatha, lit. "Experiments with Truth or Autobiography") is Mohandas K. Gandhi's autobiography, which spans his life from childhood to 1921.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• A budget is a financial document used to project future income and expenses.
• Budgeting may be carried out by individuals or by companies that wish to estimate whether they can continue to operate within the projected income and expenses.
• A budget can be drawn up for each financial year and contains information on the estimated value of sales and the value of costs.

Types of Budgets are:

• Forecast Budget - Forecast budget, estimated figures are prepared. These figures can then be adjusted when the actual figures are gathered. In a forecast budget, figures from the previous year are often used as estimates for the current year.
• Performance Budget - A performance budget involves estimates made for upcoming revenue and expenses. This is done by assessing each item on the income statement and providing a percentage of expected change from the previous year.
• Cash Budget - A cash budget forecasts how cash will be used throughout the coming year. It usually focuses on the near future since the goals and strategies of a company can change with circumstances.

The correct answer is a Close relationship between Legislature and Executive.

Key Points

• The government of India is based on the parliamentary system. The central legislative structure is addressed in Articles 74 and 75, while the states are addressed in Articles 163 and 164.
• The Parliamentary structure has a number of characteristics that make it superior to the Presidential system.
• Depending on the relationship between the executive and the legislature, the democratic form of government is divided into two categories: parliamentary and presidential.
• In a legislative structure, the executive is a component of the legislature, which is responsible for enforcing the legislation as well as contributing to its formulation.
• Both of these jobs are purely ceremonial. The real head of the government is the Prime Minister.
• As a result, the Prime Minister has full executive authority. Since the executive powers are concentrated in the cabinet, the legislative government is also known as the Cabinet government.
• Articles 74 and 75 address the parliamentary system at the federal level, while Articles 163 and 164 address the parliamentary system at the state level.

The correct answer is At 12.00 Noon.

• The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as Zero Hour.
• Zero Hour starts at around 12 noon and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time.
• Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus, it is an informal device available to MPs to raise matters without any notice 10 days in advance.

Key Points

• Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962.
• Rabi Ray, the ninth Speaker of the Lok Sabha introduced certain changes in the proceedings of the house to create more opportunities for the members to raise matters of urgent public importance.
• Rabi Ray proposed a mechanism to regulate the proceedings during the Zero Hour, raise matters in a more orderly manner, and optimize the time of the House.
• For the Rajya Sabha, the day starts with the Zero Hour and not the Question Hour as it is for the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is II.

Key Points

• Part II of the Constitution of India is related to citizenship.
• Citizenship is the relationship between an individual and a state to which the individual owes allegiance and in turn, is entitled to its protection.
• Citizenship implies the status of freedom with accompanying responsibilities.
• Citizens have certain rights, duties, and responsibilities that are denied or only partially extended to aliens and other noncitizens residing in a country.
• In general, full political rights, including the right to vote and to hold public office, are predicated upon citizenship.

Additional Information

Given 

The expression : (\frac{(2.39)^2 – (1.61)^2}{ 2.39 – 1.61 })

Formula Used 

a² - b² = (a - b)(a + b)

Calculation 

(\frac{(2.39)^2 – (1.61)^2}{ 2.39 – 1.61 }) = (2.39 + 1.61)(2.39 - 1.61) ÷ (2.39 - 1.61) 

⇒ 2.39 + 1.61 = 4

∴ The required answer is 4

Given

0.75 : X : : 5 : 8

Formula Used 

If a : b :: c : d 

then, a × d = b × c

Calculation 

0.75 : X : : 5 : 8

⇒ 0.75 × 8 = 5 × X 

⇒ X = 1.20

∴ The required answer is 1.20

Given 

The average age of class of 22 student = 21 years

Formula Used 

Average = sum of observation/No. of observation

Calculation 

Let the age of teacher be x

Total age of student = 21 × 22 = 462 

According to the question 

⇒ x + 462 = 22 × 23 

⇒ x = 506 - 462 = 44 years 

∴ The age of teacher is 44 years.

Shortcut Trick

Including teacher number of person whose age increased by 1 year = (22 + 1) = 23

⇒ Total age increased = 23 × 1 = 23 years (Which is a part of the teachers age)

Average age of students = 21 years

Teachers age = Previously average age of students + Total increment age

⇒ Teachers age = 21 + 23 = 44

∴ The age of teacher is 44 years.

Given 

Number of head = 48 

Number of feet = 140 

Calculation 

Let the number of hen and cow be x and y respectively

We know the number of feet one hen and one cow are 2 and 4 respectively

According to the question 

⇒ x + y = 48 ---(1)

⇒ 2x + 4y = 140 ---(2) 

By solving eq(1) and eq(2) , we get x = 26 and y = 22 

∴ The number of hens is 26

Alternate Method

Total head = 48

Total feet = 140

A hen has 2 feet

⇒ If all are hen then total feet = 48 × 2 = 96

A Cow has 4 feet

⇒ If all are cow then total feet = 48 × 4 = 192

Applying alligation method get,

Ratio of Hen to cow is 26 : 22 = 13 : 11

Number of hens = (13/24) × 48 = 26

∴ The number of hens is 26

Formula used 

Percentage = (actual/total) × 100 

Calculation 

⇒ 20% of a = b

⇒ (20 × a)/100 = b

⇒ a = 5b

⇒ a : b = 5 : 1 

so, let a = 5x , b = x 

⇒ 20% of b = 20% × x

⇒ 20x/100 = 0.2x 

⇒ % of a = (0.2x/5x) × 100 = 4% of a

∴ 20% of b is equal to 4% of a

Given 

Manish sells = 18 eggs 

Formula used 

Profit% = [(article bought - article sell)/article sell] × 100 (when we consider article instead of Rs)

Calculation 

Profit % = [(20 - 18) × 100]/18 = 11(\frac{1}{9})% profit

∴ The profit percentage is 11(\frac{1}{9})% profit

After naming the given figure we have:

The square present in the given figure are ABCD, TNPR, AYKV, BXKY, KXCW, VKWD, TUKS, UNOK, KOPQ, SKQR, HIKM, IEJK, KJFL, MKLG, HEFG.

So, there are 15 squares present in the figure.

Hence, 15 is the correct answer.